LSAT PREPTEST 62, 63, 64, 65, 66, 67, 68, 69, 70, 71, 72, 73, 74, 75, 76, 77, 78, 79

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LSAT

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PrepTest 62 Test ID: LL3062

A complete version of the Preptest 62 has been reproduced with the permission of Law School Admission Council, Inc. PrepTest 62 ©2010 Law School Admission Council, Inc. All actual LSAT questions printed within this work are used with the permission of Law School Admission Council, Inc., Box 2000, Newton, PA 18940, the copyright owner. LSAC does not review or endorse specific test preparation materials or services, and inclusion of licensed LSAT questions within this work does not imply the review or endorsement of Law Services.

© 2011 Kaplan, Inc. All rights reserved. No part of this book may be reproduced in any form, by photostat, microfilm, xerography, or any other means, or incorporated into any information retrieval system, electronic or mechanical, without the written permission of Kaplan, Inc.



Reading Comprehension . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION I



Logical Reasoning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION II



Analytical Reasoning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION III



Logical Reasoning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION IV



Writing Sample Materials

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SECTION I Time—35 minutes 27 Questions Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage or a pair of passages. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage or pair of passages. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

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To study centuries-old earthquakes and the geologic faults that caused them, seismologists usually dig trenches along visible fault lines, looking for sediments that show evidence of having shifted. Using radiocarbon dating, they measure the quantity of the radioactive isotope carbon 14 present in wood or other organic material trapped in the sediments when they shifted. Since carbon 14 occurs naturally in organic materials and decays at a constant rate, the age of organic materials can be reconstructed from the amount of the isotope remaining in them. These data can show the location and frequency of past earthquakes and provide hints about the likelihood and location of future earthquakes. Geologists William Bull and Mark Brandon have recently developed a new method, called lichenometry, for detecting and dating past earthquakes. Bull and Brandon developed the method based on the fact that large earthquakes generate numerous simultaneous rockfalls in mountain ranges that are sensitive to seismic shaking. Instead of dating fault-line sediments, lichenometry involves measuring the size of lichens growing on the rocks exposed by these rockfalls. Lichens—symbiotic organisms consisting of a fungus and an alga—quickly colonize newly exposed rock surfaces in the wake of rockfalls, and once established they grow radially, flat against the rocks, at a slow but constant rate for as long as 1,000 years if left undisturbed. One species of North American lichen, for example, spreads outward by about 9.5 millimeters each century. Hence, the diameter of the largest lichen on a boulder provides direct evidence of when the boulder was dislodged and repositioned. If many rockfalls over a large geographic area occurred simultaneously, that pattern would imply that there had been a strong earthquake. The location of the earthquake’s epicenter can then be determined by mapping these rockfalls, since they decrease in abundance as the distance from the epicenter increases. Lichenometry has distinct advantages over radiocarbon dating. Radiocarbon dating is accurate only to within plus or minus 40 years, because the amount of the carbon 14 isotope varies naturally in the environment depending on the intensity of the radiation striking Earth’s upper atmosphere. Additionally, this intensity has fluctuated greatly during the past 300 years, causing many radiocarbon datings of events during this period to be of little value. Lichenometry, Bull and Brandon claim, can accurately date an earthquake to within ten years. They note, however, that using lichenometry requires careful site selection

and accurate calibration of lichen growth rates, adding that the method is best used for earthquakes that occurred within the last 500 years. Sites must be (55) selected to minimize the influence of snow avalanches and other disturbances that would affect normal lichen growth, and conditions like shade and wind that promote faster lichen growth must be factored in. 1. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main idea of the passage? (A) (B)

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Lichenometry is a new method for dating past earthquakes that has advantages over radiocarbon dating. Despite its limitations, lichenometry has been proven to be more accurate than any other method of discerning the dates of past earthquakes. Most seismologists today have rejected radiocarbon dating and are embracing lichenometry as the most reliable method for studying past earthquakes. Two geologists have revolutionized the study of past earthquakes by developing lichenometry, an easily applied method of earthquake detection and dating. Radiocarbon dating, an unreliable test used in dating past earthquakes, can finally be abandoned now that lichenometry has been developed.

2. The passage provides information that most helps to answer which one of the following questions? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

How do scientists measure lichen growth rates under the varying conditions that lichens may encounter? How do scientists determine the intensity of the radiation striking Earth’s upper atmosphere? What are some of the conditions that encourage lichens to grow at a more rapid rate than usual? What is the approximate date of the earliest earthquake that lichenometry has been used to identify? What are some applications of the techniques involved in radiocarbon dating other than their use in studying past earthquakes?

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3. What is the author’s primary purpose in referring to the rate of growth of a North American lichen species (lines 29–30)? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

to emphasize the rapidity with which lichen colonies can establish themselves on newly exposed rock surfaces to offer an example of a lichen species with one of the slowest known rates of growth to present additional evidence supporting the claim that environmental conditions can alter lichens’ rate of growth to explain why lichenometry works best for dating earthquakes that occurred in the last 500 years to provide a sense of the sort of timescale on which lichen growth occurs

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6. It can be inferred that the statements made by Bull and Brandon and reported in lines 50–58 rely on which one of the following assumptions? (A)

(B) (C) (D)

(E) 4. Which one of the following statements is most strongly supported by the passage? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Lichenometry is less accurate than radiocarbon dating in predicting the likelihood and location of future earthquakes. Radiocarbon dating is unlikely to be helpful in dating past earthquakes that have no identifiable fault lines associated with them. Radiocarbon dating and lichenometry are currently the only viable methods of detecting and dating past earthquakes. Radiocarbon dating is more accurate than lichenometry in dating earthquakes that occurred approximately 400 years ago. The usefulness of lichenometry for dating earthquakes is limited to geographic regions where factors that disturb or accelerate lichen growth generally do not occur.

5. The primary purpose of the first paragraph in relation to the rest of the passage is to describe (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

a well-known procedure that will then be examined on a step-by-step basis an established procedure to which a new procedure will then be compared an outdated procedure that will then be shown to be nonetheless useful in some situations a traditional procedure that will then be contrasted with other traditional procedures a popular procedure that will then be shown to have resulted in erroneous conclusions about a phenomenon

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While lichenometry is less accurate when it is used to date earthquakes that occurred more than 500 years ago, it is still more accurate than other methods for dating such earthquakes. There is no reliable method for determining the intensity of the radiation now hitting Earth’s upper atmosphere. Lichens are able to grow only on the types of rocks that are common in mountainous regions. The mountain ranges that produce the kinds of rockfalls studied in lichenometry are also subject to more frequent snowfalls and avalanches than other mountain ranges are. The extent to which conditions like shade and wind have affected the growth of existing lichen colonies can be determined.

7. The passage indicates that using radiocarbon dating to date past earthquakes may be unreliable due to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

the multiplicity of the types of organic matter that require analysis the variable amount of organic materials caught in shifted sediments the fact that fault lines related to past earthquakes are not always visible the fluctuations in the amount of the carbon 14 isotope in the environment over time the possibility that radiation has not always struck the upper atmosphere

8. Given the information in the passage, to which one of the following would lichenometry likely be most applicable? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

identifying the number of times a particular river has flooded in the past 1,000 years identifying the age of a fossilized skeleton of a mammal that lived many thousands of years ago identifying the age of an ancient beach now underwater approximately 30 kilometers off the present shore identifying the rate, in kilometers per century, at which a glacier has been receding up a mountain valley identifying local trends in annual rainfall rates in a particular valley over the past five centuries

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While courts have long allowed custom-made medical illustrations depicting personal injury to be presented as evidence in legal cases, the issue of whether they have a legitimate place in the courtroom is surrounded by ongoing debate and misinformation. Some opponents of their general use argue that while illustrations are sometimes invaluable in presenting the physical details of a personal injury, in all cases except those involving the most unusual injuries, illustrations from medical textbooks can be adequate. Most injuries, such as fractures and whiplash, they say, are rather generic in nature—certain commonly encountered forces act on particular areas of the body in standard ways—so they can be represented by generic illustrations. Another line of complaint stems from the belief that custom-made illustrations often misrepresent the facts in order to comply with the partisan interests of litigants. Even some lawyers appear to share a version of this view, believing that such illustrations can be used to bolster a weak case. Illustrators are sometimes approached by lawyers who, unable to find medical experts to support their clients’ claims, think that they can replace expert testimony with such deceptive professional illustrations. But this is mistaken. Even if an unscrupulous illustrator could be found, such illustrations would be inadmissible as evidence in the courtroom unless a medical expert were present to testify to their accuracy. It has also been maintained that custom-made illustrations may subtly distort the issues through the use of emphasis, coloration, and other means, even if they are technically accurate. But professional medical illustrators strive for objective accuracy and avoid devices that have inflammatory potential, sometimes even eschewing the use of color. Unlike illustrations in medical textbooks, which are designed to include the extensive detail required by medical students, custom-made medical illustrations are designed to include only the information that is relevant for those deciding a case. The end user is typically a jury or a judge, for whose benefit the depiction is reduced to the details that are crucial to determining the legally relevant facts. The more complex details often found in textbooks can be deleted so as not to confuse the issue. For example, illustrations of such things as veins and arteries would only get in the way when an illustration is supposed to be used to explain the nature of a bone fracture. Custom-made medical illustrations, which are based on a plaintiff’s X rays, computerized tomography scans, and medical records and reports, are especially valuable in that they provide visual representations of data whose verbal description would be very complex. Expert testimony by medical professionals often relies heavily on the use of technical terminology, which those who are not

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1 specially trained in the field find difficult to translate mentally into visual imagery. Since, for most people, (60) adequate understanding of physical data depends on thinking at least partly in visual terms, the clearly presented visual stimulation provided by custom-made illustrations can be quite instructive.

9. Which one of the following is most analogous to the role that, according to the author, custom-made medical illustrations play in personal injury cases? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

schematic drawings accompanying an engineer’s oral presentation road maps used by people unfamiliar with an area so that they will not have to get verbal instructions from strangers children’s drawings that psychologists use to detect wishes and anxieties not apparent in the children’s behavior a reproduction of a famous painting in an art history textbook an artist’s preliminary sketches for a painting

10. Based on the passage, which one of the following is the author most likely to believe about illustrations in medical textbooks? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

They tend to rely less on the use of color than do custom-made medical illustrations. They are inadmissible in a courtroom unless a medical expert is present to testify to their accuracy. They are in many cases drawn by the same individuals who draw custom-made medical illustrations for courtroom use. They are believed by most lawyers to be less prone than custom-made medical illustrations to misrepresent the nature of a personal injury. In many cases they are more apt to confuse jurors than are custom-made medical illustrations.

11. The passage states that a role of medical experts in relation to custom-made medical illustrations in the courtroom is to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

decide which custom-made medical illustrations should be admissible temper the impact of the illustrations on judges and jurors who are not medical professionals make medical illustrations understandable to judges and jurors provide opinions to attorneys as to which illustrations, if any, would be useful provide their opinions as to the accuracy of the illustrations

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12. According to the passage, one of the ways that medical textbook illustrations differ from custom-made medical illustrations is that (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

custom-made medical illustrations accurately represent human anatomy, whereas medical textbook illustrations do not medical textbook illustrations employ color freely, whereas custom-made medical illustrations must avoid color medical textbook illustrations are objective, while custom-made medical illustrations are subjective medical textbook illustrations are very detailed, whereas custom-made medical illustrations include only details that are relevant to the case medical textbook illustrations are readily comprehended by nonmedical audiences, whereas custom-made medical illustrations are not

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13. The author’s attitude toward the testimony of medical experts in personal injury cases is most accurately described as (A)

(B) (C) (D)

(E)

appreciation of the difficulty involved in explaining medical data to judges and jurors together with skepticism concerning the effectiveness of such testimony admiration for the experts’ technical knowledge coupled with disdain for the communications skills of medical professionals acceptance of the accuracy of such testimony accompanied with awareness of the limitations of a presentation that is entirely verbal respect for the medical profession tempered by apprehension concerning the tendency of medical professionals to try to overwhelm judges and jurors with technical details respect for expert witnesses combined with intolerance of the use of technical terminology

14. The author’s primary purpose in the third paragraph is to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

argue for a greater use of custom-made medical illustrations in court cases involving personal injury reply to a variant of the objection to custom-made medical illustrations raised in the second paragraph argue against the position that illustrations from medical textbooks are well suited for use in the courtroom discuss in greater detail why custom-made medical illustrations are controversial describe the differences between custom-made medical illustrations and illustrations from medical textbooks

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Passage A Because dental caries (decay) is strongly linked to consumption of the sticky, carbohydrate-rich staples of ­­agricultural diets, prehistoric human teeth can provide clues about when a population made the transition from a hunter-gatherer diet to an agricultural one. Caries formation is influenced by several factors, including tooth structure, bacteria in the mouth, and diet. In particular, caries formation is affected by carbohydrates’ texture and composition, since carbohydrates more readily stick to teeth. Many researchers have demonstrated the link between carbohydrate consumption and caries. In North America, Leigh studied caries in archaeologically derived teeth, noting that caries rates differed between indigenous populations that primarily consumed meat (a Sioux sample showed almost no caries) and those heavily dependent on cultivated maize (a Zuni sample had 75 percent carious teeth). Leigh’s findings have been frequently confirmed by other researchers, who have shown that, in general, the greater a population’s dependence on agriculture is, the higher its rate of caries formation will be. Under some circumstances, however, nonagricultural populations may exhibit relatively high caries rates. For example, early nonagricultural populations in western North America who consumed large amounts of highly processed stone-ground flour made from gathered acorns show relatively high caries frequencies. And wild plants collected by the Hopi included several species with high cariogenic potential, notably pinyon nuts and wild tubers. Passage B Archaeologists recovered human skeletal remains interred over a 2,000-year period in prehistoric Ban Chiang, Thailand. The site’s early inhabitants appear to have had a hunter-gatherer-cultivator economy. Evidence indicates that, over time, the population became increasingly dependent on agriculture. Research suggests that agricultural intensification results in declining human health, including dental health. Studies show that dental caries is uncommon in pre-agricultural populations. Increased caries frequency may result from increased consumption of starchy-sticky foodstuffs or from alterations in tooth wear. The wearing down of tooth crown surfaces reduces caries formation by removing fissures that can trap food particles. A reduction of fiber or grit in a diet may diminish tooth wear, thus increasing caries frequency. However, severe wear that exposes a tooth’s pulp cavity may also result in caries. The diet of Ban Chiang’s inhabitants included some cultivated rice and yams from the beginning of the period represented by the recovered remains. These were part of a varied diet that also included wild plant and animal foods. Since both rice and yams are carbohydrates, increased reliance on either or both should theoretically result in increased caries frequency. Yet comparisons of caries frequency in the Early and Late Ban Chiang Groups indicate that overall

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(60) caries frequency is slightly greater in the Early Group. Tooth wear patterns do not indicate tooth wear changes between Early and Late Groups that would explain this unexpected finding. It is more likely that, although dependence on agriculture increased, the diet (65) in the Late period remained varied enough that no single food dominated. Furthermore, there may have been a shift from sweeter carbohydrates (yams) toward rice, a less cariogenic carbohydrate. 15. Both passages are primarily concerned with examining which one of the following topics? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

evidence of the development of agriculture in the archaeological record the impact of agriculture on the overall health of human populations the effects of carbohydrate-rich foods on caries formation in strictly agricultural societies the archaeological evidence regarding when the first agricultural society arose the extent to which pre-agricultural populations were able to obtain carbohydrate-rich foods

16. Which one of the following distinguishes the Ban Chiang populations discussed in passage B from the populations discussed in the last paragraph of passage A? (A)

(B) (C)

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While the Ban Chiang populations consumed several highly cariogenic foods, the populations discussed in the last paragraph of passage A did not. While the Ban Chiang populations ate cultivated foods, the populations discussed in the last paragraph of passage A did not. While the Ban Chiang populations consumed a diet consisting primarily of carbohydrates, the populations discussed in the last paragraph of passage A did not. While the Ban Chiang populations exhibited very high levels of tooth wear, the populations discussed in the last paragraph of passage A did not. While the Ban Chiang populations ate certain highly processed foods, the populations discussed in the last paragraph of passage A did not.

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17. Passage B most strongly supports which one of the following statements about fiber and grit in a diet? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

They can either limit or promote caries formation, depending on their prevalence in the diet. They are typically consumed in greater quantities as a population adopts agriculture. They have a negative effect on overall health since they have no nutritional value. They contribute to the formation of fissures in tooth surfaces. They increase the stickiness of carbohydraterich foods.

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20. Each passage suggests which one of the following about carbohydrate-rich foods? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

18. Which one of the following is mentioned in both passages as evidence tending to support the prevailing view regarding the relationship between dental caries and carbohydrate consumption? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

the effect of consuming highly processed foods on caries formation the relatively low incidence of caries among nonagricultural people the effect of fiber and grit in the diet on caries formation the effect of the consumption of wild foods on tooth wear the effect of agricultural intensification on overall human health

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Varieties that are cultivated have a greater tendency to cause caries than varieties that grow wild. Those that require substantial processing do not play a role in hunter-gatherer diets. Some of them naturally have a greater tendency than others to cause caries. Some of them reduce caries formation because their relatively high fiber content increases tooth wear. The cariogenic potential of a given variety increases if it is cultivated rather than gathered in the wild.

21. The evidence from Ban Chiang discussed in passage B relates to the generalization reported in the second paragraph of passage A (lines 20–22) in which one of the following ways? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The evidence confirms the generalization. The evidence tends to support the generalization. The evidence is irrelevant to the generalization. The evidence does not conform to the generalization. The evidence disproves the generalization.

19. It is most likely that both authors would agree with which one of the following statements about dental caries? (A) (B) (C) (D)

(E)

The incidence of dental caries increases predictably in populations over time. Dental caries is often difficult to detect in teeth recovered from archaeological sites. Dental caries tends to be more prevalent in populations with a hunter-gatherer diet than in populations with an agricultural diet. The frequency of dental caries in a population does not necessarily correspond directly to the population’s degree of dependence on agriculture. The formation of dental caries tends to be more strongly linked to tooth wear than to the consumption of a particular kind of food.

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Recent criticism has sought to align Sarah Orne Jewett, a notable writer of regional fiction in the nineteenth-century United States, with the domestic novelists of the previous generation. Her work does resemble the domestic novels of the 1850s in its focus on women, their domestic occupations, and their social interactions, with men relegated to the periphery. But it also differs markedly from these antecedents. The world depicted in the latter revolves around children. Young children play prominent roles in the domestic novels and the work of child rearing—the struggle to instill a mother’s values in a child’s character—is their chief source of drama. By contrast, children and child rearing are almost entirely absent from the world of Jewett’s fiction. Even more strikingly, while the literary world of the earlier domestic novelists is insistently religious, grounded in the structures of Protestant religious belief, to turn from these writers to Jewett is to encounter an almost wholly secular world. To the extent that these differences do not merely reflect the personal preferences of the authors, we might attribute them to such historical transformations as the migration of the rural young to cities or the increasing secularization of society. But while such factors may help to explain the differences, it can be argued that these differences ultimately reflect different conceptions of the nature and purpose of fiction. The domestic novel of the mid-nineteenth century is based on a conception of fiction as part of a continuum that also included writings devoted to piety and domestic instruction, bound together by a common goal of promoting domestic morality and religious belief. It was not uncommon for the same multipurpose book to be indistinguishably a novel, a child-rearing manual, and a tract on Christian duty. The more didactic aims are absent from Jewett’s writing, which rather embodies the late nineteenthcentury “high-cultural” conception of fiction as an autonomous sphere with value in and of itself. This high-cultural aesthetic was one among several conceptions of fiction operative in the United States in the 1850s and 1860s, but it became the dominant one later in the nineteenth century and remained so for most of the twentieth. On this conception, fiction came to be seen as pure art: a work was to be viewed in isolation and valued for the formal arrangement of its elements rather than for its larger social connections or the promotion of extraliterary goods. Thus, unlike the domestic novelists, Jewett intended her works not as a means to an end but as an end in themselves. This fundamental difference should be given more weight in assessing their affinities than any superficial similarity in subject matter.

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1 22. The passage most helps to answer which one of the following questions? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Did any men write domestic novels in the 1850s? Were any widely read domestic novels written after the 1860s? How did migration to urban areas affect the development of domestic fiction in the 1850s? What is an effect that Jewett’s conception of literary art had on her fiction? With what region of the United States were at least some of Jewett’s writings concerned?

23. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to view the “recent criticism” mentioned in line 1 as (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

advocating a position that is essentially correct even though some powerful arguments can be made against it making a true claim about Jewett, but for the wrong reasons making a claim that is based on some reasonable evidence and is initially plausible but ultimately mistaken questionable, because it relies on a currently dominant literary aesthetic that takes too narrow a view of the proper goals of fiction based on speculation for which there is no reasonable support, and therefore worthy of dismissal

24. In saying that domestic fiction was based on a conception of fiction as part of a “continuum” (line 30), the author most likely means which one of the following? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Domestic fiction was part of an ongoing tradition stretching back into the past. Fiction was not treated as clearly distinct from other categories of writing. Domestic fiction was often published in serial form. Fiction is constantly evolving. Domestic fiction promoted the cohesiveness and hence the continuity of society.

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25. Which one of the following most accurately states the primary function of the passage? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

It proposes and defends a radical redefinition of several historical categories of literary style. It proposes an evaluation of a particular style of writing, of which one writer’s work is cited as a paradigmatic case. It argues for a reappraisal of a set of long-held assumptions about the historical connections among a group of writers. It weighs the merits of two opposing conceptions of the nature of fiction. It rejects a way of classifying a particular writer’s work and defends an alternative view.

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27. The differing conceptions of fiction held by Jewett and the domestic novelists can most reasonably be taken as providing an answer to which one of the following questions? (A)

(B) (C) (D)

26. Which one of the following most accurately represents the structure of the second paragraph? (A)

(B) (C) (D)

(E)

(E)

The author considers and rejects a number of possible explanations for a phenomenon, concluding that any attempt at explanation does violence to the unity of the phenomenon. The author shows that two explanatory hypotheses are incompatible with each other and gives reasons for preferring one of them. The author describes several explanatory hypotheses and argues that they are not really distinct from one another. The author proposes two versions of a classificatory hypothesis, indicates the need for some such hypothesis, and then sets out a counterargument in preparation for rejecting that counterargument in the following paragraph. The author mentions a number of explanatory hypotheses, gives a mildly favorable comment on them, and then advocates and elaborates another explanation that the author considers to be more fundamental.

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Why was Jewett unwilling to feature children and religious themes as prominently in her works as the domestic novelists featured them in theirs? Why did both Jewett and the domestic novelists focus primarily on rural as opposed to urban concerns? Why was Jewett not constrained to feature children and religion as prominently in her works as domestic novelists were? Why did both Jewett and the domestic novelists focus predominantly on women and their concerns? Why was Jewett unable to feature children or religion as prominently in her works as the domestic novelists featured them in theirs?

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IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

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2 SECTION II Time—35 minutes 26 Questions

Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer;  that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. 1. In a recent study, a group of young children were taught the word “stairs” while walking up and down a flight of stairs. Later that day, when the children were shown a video of a person climbing a ladder, they all called the ladder stairs. Which one of the following principles is best illustrated by the study described above? (A)

(B) (C) (D)

(E)

When young children repeatedly hear a word without seeing the object denoted by the word, they sometimes apply the word to objects not denoted by the word. Young children best learn words when they are shown how the object denoted by the word is used. The earlier in life a child encounters and uses an object, the easier it is for that child to learn how not to misuse the word denoting that object. Young children who learn a word by observing how the object denoted by that word is used sometimes apply that word to a different object that is similarly used. Young children best learn the names of objects when the objects are present at the time the children learn the words and when no other objects are simultaneously present.

2. Among people who live to the age of 100 or more, a large proportion have led “unhealthy” lives: smoking, consuming alcohol, eating fatty foods, and getting little exercise. Since such behavior often leads to shortened life spans, it is likely that exceptionally long-lived people are genetically disposed to having long lives. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

There is some evidence that consuming a moderate amount of alcohol can counteract the effects of eating fatty foods. Some of the exceptionally long-lived people who do not smoke or drink do eat fatty foods and get little exercise. Some of the exceptionally long-lived people who exercise regularly and avoid fatty foods do smoke or consume alcohol. Some people who do not live to the age of 100 also lead unhealthy lives. Nearly all people who live to 100 or more have siblings who are also long-lived.

3. Medications with an unpleasant taste are generally produced only in tablet, capsule, or soft-gel form. The active ingredient in medication M is a waxy substance that cannot tolerate the heat used to manufacture tablets because it has a low melting point. So, since the company ­­developing M does not have soft-gel manufacturing technology and manufactures all its medications itself, M will most likely be produced in capsule form. The conclusion is most strongly supported by the reasoning in the argument if which one of the following is assumed? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Medication M can be produced in liquid form. Medication M has an unpleasant taste. No medication is produced in both capsule and soft-gel form. Most medications with a low melting point are produced in soft-gel form. Medications in capsule form taste less unpleasant than those in tablet or soft-gel form.

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4. Carol Morris wants to own a majority of the shares of the city’s largest newspaper, The Daily. The only obstacle to Morris’s amassing a majority of these shares is that Azedcorp, which currently owns a majority, has steadfastly ­­refused to sell. Industry analysts nevertheless predict that Morris will soon be the majority owner of The Daily. Which one of the following, if true, provides the most support for the industry analysts’ prediction? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Azedcorp does not own shares of any newspaper other than The Daily. Morris has recently offered Azedcorp much more for its shares of The Daily than Azedcorp paid for them. No one other than Morris has expressed any interest in purchasing a majority of The Daily’s shares. Morris already owns more shares of The Daily than anyone except Azedcorp. Azedcorp is financially so weak that bankruptcy will probably soon force the sale of its newspaper holdings.

5. Area resident: Childhood lead poisoning has declined steadily since the 1970s, when leaded gasoline was phased out and lead paint was banned. But recent statistics indicate that 25 percent of this area’s homes still contain lead paint that poses significant health hazards. Therefore, if we eliminate the lead paint in those homes, childhood lead poisoning in the area will finally be eradicated. The area resident’s argument is flawed in that it (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

relies on statistical claims that are likely to be unreliable relies on an assumption that is tantamount to assuming that the conclusion is true fails to consider that there may be other significant sources of lead in the area’s environment takes for granted that lead paint in homes can be eliminated economically takes for granted that children reside in all of the homes in the area that contain lead paint

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6. Although some nutritional facts about soft drinks are listed on their labels, exact caffeine content is not. Listing exact caffeine content would make it easier to limit, but not eliminate, one’s caffeine intake. If it became easier for people to limit, but not eliminate, their caffeine intake, many people would do so, which would improve their health. If all the statements above are true, which one of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D)

(E)

The health of at least some people would improve if exact caffeine content were listed on soft-drink labels. Many people will be unable to limit their caffeine intake if exact caffeine content is not listed on soft-drink labels. Many people will find it difficult to eliminate their caffeine intake if they have to guess exactly how much caffeine is in their soft drinks. People who wish to eliminate, rather than simply limit, their caffeine intake would benefit if exact caffeine content were listed on soft-drink labels. The health of at least some people would worsen if everyone knew exactly how much caffeine was in their soft drinks.

7. When the famous art collector Vidmar died, a public auction of her collection, the largest privately owned, was held. “I can’t possibly afford any of those works because hers is among the most valuable collections ever assembled by a single person,” declared art lover MacNeil. The flawed pattern of reasoning in which one of the following is most closely parallel to that in MacNeil’s argument? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Each word in the book is in French. So the whole book is in French. The city council voted unanimously to adopt the plan. So councilperson Martinez voted to adopt the plan. This paragraph is long. So the sentences that comprise it are long. The members of the company are old. So the company itself is old. The atoms comprising this molecule are elements. So the molecule itself is an element.

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8. A leading critic of space exploration contends that it would be wrong, given current technology, to send a group of explorers to Mars, since the explorers would be unlikely to survive the trip. But that exaggerates the risk. There would be a well-engineered backup system at every stage of the long and complicated journey. A fatal catastrophe is quite unlikely at any given stage if such a backup system is in place. The reasoning in the argument is flawed in that the argument (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

infers that something is true of a whole merely from the fact that it is true of each of the parts infers that something cannot occur merely from the fact that it is unlikely to occur draws a conclusion about what must be the case based on evidence about what is probably the case infers that something will work merely because it could work rejects a view merely on the grounds that an inadequate argument has been made for it

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9. A retrospective study is a scientific study that tries to determine the causes of subjects’ present characteristics by looking for significant connections between the present characteristics of subjects and what happened to those subjects in the past, before the study began. Because retrospective studies of human subjects must use the subjects’ reports about their own pasts, however, such studies cannot reliably determine the causes of human subjects’ present characteristics. Which one of the following, if assumed, enables the argument’s conclusion to be properly drawn? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Whether or not a study of human subjects can reliably determine the causes of those subjects’ present characteristics may depend at least in part on the extent to which that study uses inaccurate reports about the subjects’ pasts. A retrospective study cannot reliably determine the causes of human subjects’ present characteristics unless there exist correlations between the present characteristics of the subjects and what happened to those subjects in the past. In studies of human subjects that attempt to find connections between subjects’ present characteristics and what happened to those subjects in the past, the subjects’ reports about their own pasts are highly susceptible to inaccuracy. If a study of human subjects uses only accurate reports about the subjects’ pasts, then that study can reliably determine the causes of those subjects’ present characteristics. Every scientific study in which researchers look for significant connections between the present characteristics of subjects and what happened to those subjects in the past must use the subjects’ reports about their own pasts.

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10. Gigantic passenger planes currently being developed will have enough space to hold shops and lounges in addition to passenger seating. However, the additional space will more likely be used for more passenger seating. The number of passengers flying the air-traffic system is expected to triple within 20 years, and it will be impossible for airports to accommodate enough normal-sized jet planes to carry that many passengers. Which one of the following most accurately states the conclusion drawn in the argument? (A) (B)

(C) (D)

(E)

Gigantic planes currently being developed will have enough space in them to hold shops and lounges as well as passenger seating. The additional space in the gigantic planes currently being developed is more likely to be filled with passenger seating than with shops and lounges. The number of passengers flying the air-traffic system is expected to triple within 20 years. In 20 years, it will be impossible for airports to accommodate enough normal-sized planes to carry the number of passengers that are expected to be flying then. In 20 years, most airline passengers will be flying in gigantic passenger planes.

11. Scientist: To study the comparative effectiveness of two experimental medications for athlete’s foot, a representative sample of people with athlete’s foot ­­were randomly assigned to one of two groups. One group received only medication M, and the other received only medication N. The only people whose athlete’s foot was cured had been given medication M.

Reporter: This means, then, that if anyone in the study had athlete’s foot that was not cured, that person did not receive medication M. Which one of the following most accurately describes the reporter’s error in reasoning? (A) (B) (C)

(D) (E)

The reporter concludes from evidence showing only that M can cure athlete’s foot that M always cures athlete’s foot. The reporter illicitly draws a conclusion about the population as a whole on the basis of a study conducted only on a sample of the population. The reporter presumes, without providing justification, that medications M and N are available to people who have athlete’s foot but did not participate in the study. The reporter fails to allow for the possibility that athlete’s foot may be cured even if neither of the two medications studied is taken. The reporter presumes, without providing justification, that there is no sizeable subgroup of people whose athlete’s foot will be cured only if they do not take medication M.

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12. Paleontologist: Plesiosauromorphs were gigantic, long-necked marine reptiles that ruled the oceans during the age of the dinosaurs. Most experts believe that plesiosauromorphs lurked and quickly ambushed their prey. However, plesiosauromorphs probably hunted by chasing their prey over long distances. Plesiosauromorph fins were quite long and thin, like the wings of birds specialized for long-distance flight. Which one of the following is an assumption on which the paleontologist’s argument depends? (A) (B) (C)

(D) (E)

Birds and reptiles share many physical features because they descend from common evolutionary ancestors. During the age of dinosaurs, plesiosauromorphs were the only marine reptiles that had long, thin fins. A gigantic marine animal would not be able to find enough food to meet the caloric requirements dictated by its body size if it did not hunt by chasing prey over long distances. Most marine animals that chase prey over long distances are specialized for long-distance swimming. The shape of a marine animal’s fin affects the way the animal swims in the same way as the shape of a bird’s wing affects the way the bird flies.

13. Buying elaborate screensavers—programs that put moving images on a computer monitor to prevent damage—can cost a company far more in employee time than it saves in electricity and monitor protection. Employees cannot resist spending time playing with screensavers that flash interesting graphics across their screens. Which one of the following most closely conforms to the principle illustrated above? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

A school that chooses textbooks based on student preference may not get the most economical package. An energy-efficient insulation system may cost more up front but will ultimately save money over the life of the house. The time that it takes to have a pizza delivered may be longer than it takes to cook a complete dinner. A complicated hotel security system may cost more in customer goodwill than it saves in losses by theft. An electronic keyboard may be cheaper to buy than a piano but more expensive to repair.

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14. Music professor: Because rap musicians can work alone in a recording studio, they need not accommodate supporting musicians’ wishes. Further, learning to rap is not as formal a process as learning an ­­instrument. Thus, rap is an extremely individualistic ­and nontraditional musical form.

Music critic: But rap appeals to tradition by using bits of older songs. Besides, the themes and styles of ­rap have developed into a tradition. And successful rap musicians do not perform purely idiosyncratically but conform their work to the preferences of the public. The music critic’s response to the music professor’s argument (A) (B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

challenges it by offering evidence against one of the stated premises on which its conclusion concerning rap music is based challenges its conclusion concerning rap music by offering certain additional observations that the music professor does not take into account in his argument challenges the grounds on which the music professor generalizes from the particular context of rap music to the broader context of musical tradition and individuality challenges it by offering an alternative explanation of phenomena that the music professor cites as evidence for his thesis about rap music challenges each of a group of claims about tradition and individuality in music that the music professor gives as evidence in his argument

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15. Speaker: Like many contemporary critics, Smith argues that the true meaning of an author’s statements can be understood only through insight into the author’s social circumstances. But this same line of analysis can be applied to Smith’s own words. Thus, if she is right we should be able, at least in part, to discern from Smith’s social circumstances the “true meaning” of Smith’s statements. This, in turn, suggests that Smith herself is not aware of the true meaning of her own words. The speaker’s main conclusion logically follows if which one of the following is assumed? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Insight into the intended meaning of an author’s work is not as important as insight into its true meaning. Smith lacks insight into her own social circumstances. There is just one meaning that Smith intends her work to have. Smith’s theory about the relation of social circumstances to the understanding of meaning lacks insight. The intended meaning of an author’s work is not always good evidence of its true meaning.

16. Tissue biopsies taken on patients who have undergone throat surgery show that those who snored frequently were significantly more likely to have serious abnormalities in their throat muscles than those who snored rarely or not at all. This shows that snoring can damage the throat of the snorer. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The study relied on the subjects’ self-reporting to determine whether or not they snored frequently. The patients’ throat surgery was not undertaken to treat abnormalities in their throat muscles. All of the test subjects were of similar age and weight and in similar states of health. People who have undergone throat surgery are no more likely to snore than people who have not undergone throat surgery. The abnormalities in the throat muscles discovered in the study do not cause snoring.

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17. One should never sacrifice one’s health in order to acquire money, for without health, happiness is not obtainable. The conclusion of the argument follows logically if which one of the following is assumed? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Money should be acquired only if its acquisition will not make happiness unobtainable. In order to be happy one must have either money or health. Health should be valued only as a precondition for happiness. Being wealthy is, under certain conditions, conducive to unhappiness. Health is more conducive to happiness than wealth is.

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Jo: Most programming projects are kept afloat by the best programmers on the team, who are typically at least 100 times more productive than the worst. Since they generally work best when they work alone, the most productive programmers must be allowed to work by themselves. Each of the following assignments of computer programmers is consistent both with the principle expressed by Vanessa and with the principle expressed by Jo EXCEPT: (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Olga and Kensuke are both programmers of roughly average productivity who feel that they are more productive when working alone. They have been assigned to work together at a single workstation. John is experienced but is not among the most productive programmers on the team. He has been assigned to mentor Tyrone, a new programmer who is not yet very productive. They are to work together at a single workstation. Although not among the most productive programmers on the team, Chris is more productive than Jennifer. They have been assigned to work together at a single workstation. Yolanda is the most productive programmer on the team. She has been assigned to work with Mike, who is also very productive. They are to work together at the same workstation. Kevin and Amy both have a reputation for writing idiosyncratic code; neither is unusually productive. They have been assigned to work together at the same workstation.

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19. In West Calverton, most pet stores sell exotic birds, and most of those that sell exotic birds also sell tropical fish. However, any pet store there that sells tropical fish but not exotic birds does sell gerbils; and no independently owned pet stores in West Calverton sell gerbils. If the statements above are true, which one of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

18. Vanessa: All computer code must be written by a pair of programmers working at a single workstation. This is needed to prevent programmers from writing idiosyncratic code that can be understood only by the original programmer.

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Most pet stores in West Calverton that are not independently owned do not sell exotic birds. No pet stores in West Calverton that sell tropical fish and exotic birds sell gerbils. Some pet stores in West Calverton that sell gerbils also sell exotic birds. No independently owned pet store in West Calverton sells tropical fish but not exotic birds. Any independently owned pet store in West Calverton that does not sell tropical fish sells exotic birds.

20. Astronomer: Earlier estimates of the distances of certain stars from Earth would mean that these stars are about 1 billion years older than the universe itself, an impossible scenario. My estimates of the distances indicate that these stars are much farther away than previously thought. And the farther away the stars are, the greater their intrinsic brightness must be, given their appearance to us on Earth. So the new estimates of these stars’ distances from Earth help resolve the earlier conflict between the ages of these stars and the age of the universe. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to explain ­­why the astronomer’s estimates of the stars’ distances from Earth help resolve the earlier conflict between the ages of these stars and the age of the universe? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The stars are the oldest objects yet discovered in the universe. The younger the universe is, the more bright stars it is likely to have. The brighter a star is, the younger it is. How bright celestial objects appear to be depends on how far away from the observer they are. New telescopes allow astronomers to see a greater number of distant stars.

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21. Most large nurseries sell raspberry plants primarily to commercial raspberry growers and sell only plants that are guaranteed to be disease-free. However, the shipment of raspberry plants that Johnson received from Wally’s Plants carried a virus that commonly afflicts raspberries. Which one of the following is most strongly supported by the information above? (A)

(B)

(C) (D) (E)

If Johnson is a commercial raspberry grower and Wally’s Plants is not a large nursery, then the shipment of raspberry plants that Johnson received was probably guaranteed to be disease-free. Johnson is probably not a commercial raspberry grower if the shipment of raspberry plants that Johnson received from Wally’s Plants was not entirely as it was guaranteed to be. If Johnson is not a commercial raspberry grower, then Wally’s Plants is probably not a large nursery. Wally’s Plants is probably not a large, well-run nursery if it sells its raspberry plants primarily to commercial raspberry growers. If Wally’s Plants is a large nursery, then the raspberry plants that Johnson received in the shipment were probably not entirely as they were guaranteed to be.

22. Drug company manager: Our newest product is just not selling. One way to save it would be a new marketing campaign. This would not guarantee success, but it is one chance to save the product, so we should try it. Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the manager’s argument? (A) (B) (C) (D)

(E)

The drug company has invested heavily in its newest product, and losses due to this product would be harmful to the company’s profits. Many new products fail whether or not they are supported by marketing campaigns. The drug company should not undertake a new marketing campaign for its newest product if the campaign has no chance to succeed. Undertaking a new marketing campaign would endanger the drug company’s overall position by necessitating cutbacks in existing marketing campaigns. Consumer demand for the drug company’s other products has been strong in the time since the company’s newest product was introduced.

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23. Consumer advocate: TMD, a pesticide used on peaches, shows no effects on human health when it is ingested in the amount present in the per capita peach consumption in this country. But while 80 percent of the population eat no peaches, others, including small children, consume much more than the national average, and thus ingest disproportionately large amounts of TMD. So even though the use of TMD on peaches poses minimal risk to most of the population, it has not been shown to be an acceptable practice. Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify the consumer advocate’s argumentation? (A)

(B) (C)

(D)

(E)

The possibility that more data about a pesticide’s health effects might reveal previously unknown risks at low doses warrants caution in assessing that pesticide’s overall risks. The consequences of using a pesticide are unlikely to be acceptable when a majority of the population is likely to ingest it. Use of a pesticide is acceptable only if it is used for its intended purpose and the pesticide has been shown not to harm any portion of the population. Society has a special obligation to protect small children from pesticides unless average doses received by the population are low and have not been shown to be harmful to children’s health. Measures taken to protect the population from a harm sometimes turn out to be the cause of a more serious harm to certain segments of the population.

24. Legal commentator: The goal of a recently enacted law that bans smoking in workplaces is to protect employees from secondhand smoke. But the law is written in such a way that it cannot be interpreted as ever prohibiting people from smoking in their own homes. The statements above, if true, provide a basis for rejecting which one of the following claims? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The law will be interpreted in a way that is inconsistent with the intentions of the legislators who supported it. Supporters of the law believe that it will have a significant impact on the health of many workers. The law offers no protection from secondhand smoke for people outside of their workplaces. Most people believe that smokers have a fundamental right to smoke in their own homes. The law will protect domestic workers such as housecleaners from secondhand smoke in their workplaces.

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25. University president: Our pool of applicants has been shrinking over the past few years. One possible explanation of this unwelcome phenomenon is that we charge too little for tuition and fees. Prospective students and their parents conclude that the quality of education they would receive at this institution is not as high as that offered by institutions with higher tuition. So, if we want to increase the size of our applicant pool, we need to raise our tuition and fees.

(B) (C) (D) (E)

Which one of the following principles, if valid, would most help to justify the reasoning in the editorial? (A)

the proposed explanation for the decline in applications applies in this case the quality of a university education is dependent on the amount of tuition charged by the university an increase in tuition and fees at the university would guarantee a larger applicant pool there is no additional explanation for the university’s shrinking applicant pool the amount charged by the university for tuition has not increased in recent years

(B)

(C) (D) (E)

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26. Editorial: It has been suggested that private, for-profit companies should be hired to supply clean drinking water to areas of the world where it is unavailable now. But water should not be supplied by private companies. After all, clean water is essential for human health, and the purpose of a private company is to produce profit, not to promote health.

The university president’s argument requires the assumption that (A)

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A private company should not be allowed to supply a commodity that is essential to human health unless that commodity is also supplied by a government agency. If something is essential for human health and private companies are unwilling or unable to supply it, then it should be supplied by a government agency. Drinking water should never be supplied by an organization that is not able to consistently supply clean, safe water. The mere fact that something actually promotes human health is not sufficient to show that its purpose is to promote health. If something is necessary for human health, then it should be provided by an organization whose primary purpose is the promotion of health.

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IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

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SECTION III Time—35 minutes 23 Questions Directions: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may  be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. Questions 1–6 A motel operator is scheduling appointments to start up services at a new motel. Appointments for six services—gas, landscaping, power, satellite, telephone, and water—will be scheduled, one appointment per day for the next six days. The schedule for the appointments is subject to the following conditions: The water appointment must be scheduled for an earlier day than the landscaping appointment. The power appointment must be scheduled for an earlier day than both the gas and satellite appointments. The appointments scheduled for the second and third days cannot be for either gas, satellite, or telephone. The telephone appointment cannot be scheduled for the sixth day. 1. Which one of the following is an acceptable schedule of appointments, listed in order from earliest to latest? (A) gas, water, power, telephone, landscaping, satellite (B) power, water, landscaping, gas, satellite, telephone (C) telephone, power, landscaping, gas, water, satellite (D) telephone, water, power, landscaping, gas, satellite (E) water, telephone, power, gas, satellite, landscaping 2. If neither the gas nor the satellite nor the telephone appointment is scheduled for the fourth day, which one of the following must be true? (A) The gas appointment is scheduled for the fifth day. (B) The power appointment is scheduled for the third day. (C) The satellite appointment is scheduled for the sixth day. (D) The telephone appointment is scheduled for the first day. (E) The water appointment is scheduled for the second day. 3. Which one of the following must be true? (A) The landscaping appointment is scheduled for an earlier day than the telephone appointment. (B) The power appointment is scheduled for an earlier day than the landscaping appointment. (C) The telephone appointment is scheduled for an earlier day than the gas appointment. (D) The telephone appointment is scheduled for an earlier day than the water appointment. (E) The water appointment is scheduled for an earlier day than the gas appointment.

4. Which one of the following CANNOT be the appointments scheduled for the fourth, fifth, and sixth days, listed in that order? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

gas, satellite, landscaping landscaping, satellite, gas power, satellite, gas telephone, satellite, gas water, gas, landscaping

5. If neither the gas appointment nor the satellite appointment is scheduled for the sixth day, which one of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The gas appointment is scheduled for the fifth day. The landscaping appointment is scheduled for the sixth day. The power appointment is scheduled for the third day. The telephone appointment is scheduled for the fourth day. The water appointment is scheduled for the second day.

6. Which one of the following, if substituted for the condition that the telephone appointment cannot be scheduled for the sixth day, would have the same effect in determining the order of the appointments? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The telephone appointment must be scheduled for an earlier day than the gas appointment or the satellite appointment, or both. The telephone appointment must be scheduled for the day immediately before either the gas appointment or the satellite appointment. The telephone appointment must be scheduled for an earlier day than the landscaping appointment. If the telephone appointment is not scheduled for the first day, it must be scheduled for the day immediately before the gas appointment. Either the gas appointment or the satellite appointment must be scheduled for the sixth day.

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Questions 7–13 An artisan has been hired to create three stained glass windows. The artisan will use exactly five colors of glass: green, orange, purple, rose, and yellow. Each color of glass will be used at least once, and each window will contain at least two different colors of glass. The windows must also conform to the following conditions: Exactly one of the windows contains both green glass and purple glass. Exactly two of the windows contain rose glass. If a window contains yellow glass, then that window contains neither green glass nor orange glass. If a window does not contain purple glass, then that window contains orange glass. 7. Which one of the following could be the color combinations of the glass in the three windows? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

window 1: green, purple, rose, and orange window 2: rose and yellow window 3: green and orange window 1: green, purple, and rose window 2: green, rose, and orange window 3: purple and yellow window 1: green, purple, and rose window 2: green, purple, and orange window 3: purple, rose, and yellow window 1: green, purple, and orange window 2: rose, orange, and yellow window 3: purple and rose window 1: green, purple, and orange window 2: purple, rose, and yellow window 3: purple and orange

8. Which one of the following CANNOT be the complete color combination of the glass in one of the windows? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

green and orange green and purple green and rose purple and orange rose and orange

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9. If two of the windows are made with exactly two colors of glass each, then the complete color combination of the glass in one of those windows could be (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

rose and yellow orange and rose orange and purple green and rose green and orange

10. If the complete color combination of the glass in one of the windows is purple, rose, and orange, then the complete color combination of the glass in one of the other windows could be (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

green, orange, and rose green, orange, and purple orange and rose orange and purple green and orange

11. If orange glass is used in more of the windows than green glass, then the complete color combination of the glass in one of the windows could be (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

orange and purple green, purple, and rose green and purple green and orange green, orange, and rose

12. Which one of the following could be used in all three windows? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

green glass orange glass purple glass rose glass yellow glass

13. If none of the windows contains both rose glass and orange glass, then the complete color combination of the glass in one of the windows must be (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

green and purple green, purple, and orange green and orange purple and orange purple, rose, and yellow

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Questions 14–18 A conference on management skills consists of exactly five talks, which are held successively in the following order: Feedback, Goal Sharing, Handling People, Information Overload, and Leadership. Exactly four employees of SoftCorp—Quigley, Rivera, Spivey, and Tran—each attend exactly two of the talks. No talk is attended by more than two of the employees, who attend the talks in accordance with the following conditions: Quigley attends neither Feedback nor Handling People. Rivera attends neither Goal Sharing nor Handling People. Spivey does not attend either of the talks that Tran attends. Quigley attends the first talk Tran attends. Spivey attends the first talk Rivera attends. 14. Which one of the following could be a complete and ­­accurate matching of the talks to the SoftCorp employees who attend them? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Feedback: Rivera, Spivey Goal Sharing: Quigley, Tran Handling People: None Information Overload: Quigley, Rivera Leadership: Spivey, Tran Feedback: Rivera, Spivey Goal Sharing: Quigley, Tran Handling People: Rivera, Tran Information Overload: Quigley Leadership: Spivey Feedback: Rivera, Spivey Goal Sharing: Quigley, Tran Handling People: Tran Information Overload: Quigley, Rivera Leadership: Spivey Feedback: Rivera, Spivey Goal Sharing: Tran Handling People: Tran Information Overload: Quigley, Rivera Leadership: Quigley, Spivey Feedback: Spivey Goal Sharing: Quigley, Tran Handling People: Spivey Information Overload: Quigley, Rivera Leadership: Rivera, Tran

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Rivera attends Feedback. Rivera attends Leadership. Spivey attends Information Overload. Tran attends Goal Sharing. Tran attends Information Overload.

16. Which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the talks any one of which Rivera and Spivey could attend together? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Feedback, Information Overload, Leadership Feedback, Goal Sharing, Information Overload Information Overload, Leadership Feedback, Leadership Feedback, Information Overload

17. If Quigley is the only SoftCorp employee to attend Leadership, then which one of the following could be false? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Rivera attends Feedback. Rivera attends Information Overload. Spivey attends Feedback. Spivey attends Handling People. Tran attends Goal Sharing.

18. If Rivera is the only SoftCorp employee to attend Information Overload, then which one of the following could be false? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Quigley attends Leadership. Rivera attends Feedback. Spivey attends Feedback. Tran attends Goal Sharing. Tran attends Handling People.

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Questions 19–23

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21. If Sanderson testifies fifth, then Ujemori must testify

Exactly six witnesses will testify in a trial: Mangione, Ramirez, Sanderson, Tannenbaum, Ujemori, and Wong. The witnesses will testify one by one, and each only once. The order in which the witnesses testify is subject to the following constraints: Sanderson must testify immediately before either Tannenbaum or Ujemori. Ujemori must testify earlier than both Ramirez and Wong. Either Tannenbaum or Wong must testify immediately before Mangione.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(B) (C) (D) (E)

first second third fourth sixth

22. Which one of the following pairs of witnesses CANNOT testify third and fourth, respectively? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

19. Which one of the following lists the witnesses in an order in which they could testify? (A)

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Ramirez, Sanderson, Tannenbaum, Mangione, Ujemori, Wong Sanderson, Tannenbaum, Ujemori, Ramirez, Wong, Mangione Sanderson, Ujemori, Tannenbaum, Wong, Ramirez, Mangione Tannenbaum, Mangione, Ujemori, Sanderson, Ramirez, Wong Wong, Ramirez, Sanderson, Tannenbaum, Mangione, Ujemori

Mangione, Tannenbaum Ramirez, Sanderson Sanderson, Ujemori Tannenbaum, Ramirez Ujemori, Wong

23. Which one of the following pairs of witnesses CANNOT testify first and second, respectively? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Sanderson, Ujemori Tannenbaum, Mangione Tannenbaum, Sanderson Ujemori, Tannenbaum Ujemori, Wong

20. If Tannenbaum testifies first, then which one of the following could be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ramirez testifies second. Wong testifies third. Sanderson testifies fourth. Ujemori testifies fifth. Mangione testifies sixth.

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SECTION IV Time—35 minutes 26 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer;  that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. 1. Marine biologist: Scientists have long wondered why the fish that live around coral reefs exhibit such brilliant colors. One suggestion is that coral reefs are colorful and, therefore, that colorful fish are camouflaged by them. Many animal species, after all, use camouflage to avoid predators. However, as regards the populations around reefs, this suggestion is mistaken. A reef stripped of its fish is quite monochromatic. Most corals, it turns out, are relatively dull browns and greens. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main conclusion drawn in the marine biologist’s argument? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

One hypothesis about why fish living near coral reefs exhibit such bright colors is that the fish are camouflaged by their bright colors. The fact that many species use camouflage to avoid predators is one reason to believe that brightly colored fish living near reefs do too. The suggestion that the fish living around coral reefs exhibit bright colors because they are camouflaged by the reefs is mistaken. A reef stripped of its fish is relatively monochromatic. It turns out that the corals in a coral reef are mostly dull hues of brown and green.

2. To discover what percentage of teenagers believe in telekinesis—the psychic ability to move objects without physically touching them—a recent survey asked a representative sample of teenagers whether they agreed with the following statement: “A person’s thoughts can influence the movement of physical objects.” But because this statement is particularly ambiguous and is amenable to a naturalistic, uncontroversial interpretation, the survey’s responses are also ambiguous. The reasoning above conforms most closely to which one of the following general propositions? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Uncontroversial statements are useless in surveys. Every statement is amenable to several interpretations. Responses to surveys are always unambiguous if the survey’s questions are well phrased. Responses people give to poorly phrased questions are likely to be ambiguous. Statements about psychic phenomena can always be given naturalistic interpretations.

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3. A recent study of perfect pitch—the ability to identify the pitch of an isolated musical note—found that a high percentage of people who have perfect pitch are related to someone else who has it. Among those without perfect pitch, the percentage was much lower. This shows that having perfect pitch is a consequence of genetic factors. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

People who have relatives with perfect pitch generally receive no more musical training than do others. All of the researchers conducting the study had perfect pitch. People with perfect pitch are more likely than others to choose music as a career. People with perfect pitch are more likely than others to make sure that their children receive musical training. People who have some training in music are more likely to have perfect pitch than those with no such training.

4. Paleontologists recently excavated two corresponding sets of dinosaur tracks, one left by a large grazing dinosaur and the other by a smaller predatory dinosaur. The two sets of tracks make abrupt turns repeatedly in tandem, suggesting that the predator was following the grazing dinosaur and had matched its stride. Modern predatory mammals, such as lions, usually match the stride of prey they are chasing immediately before they strike those prey. This suggests that the predatory dinosaur was chasing the grazing dinosaur and attacked immediately afterwards. Which one of the following most accurately describes the role played in the argument by the statement that the predatory dinosaur was following the grazing dinosaur and had matched its stride? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

It helps establish the scientific importance of the argument’s overall conclusion, but is not offered as evidence for that conclusion. It is a hypothesis that is rejected in favor of the hypothesis stated in the argument’s overall conclusion. It provides the basis for an analogy used in support of the argument’s overall conclusion. It is presented to counteract a possible objection to the argument’s overall conclusion. It is the overall conclusion of the argument.

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5. Researchers announced recently that over the past 25 years the incidence of skin cancer caused by exposure to harmful rays from the sun has continued to grow in spite of the increasingly widespread use of sunscreens. This shows that using sunscreen is unlikely to reduce a person’s risk of developing such skin cancer. Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the argument? (A) (B) (C) (D)

(E)

Most people who purchase a sunscreen product will not purchase the most expensive brand available. Skin cancer generally develops among the very old as a result of sunburns experienced when very young. The development of sunscreens by pharmaceutical companies was based upon research conducted by dermatologists. People who know that they are especially susceptible to skin cancer are generally disinclined to spend a large amount of time in the sun. Those who use sunscreens most regularly are people who believe themselves to be most susceptible to skin cancer.

6. University administrator: Any proposal for a new department will not be funded if there are fewer than 50 people per year available for hire in that field and the proposed department would duplicate more than 25 percent of the material covered in one of our existing departments. The proposed Area Studies Department will duplicate more than 25 percent of the material covered in our existing Anthropology Department. However, we will fund the new department. Which one of the following statements follows logically from the university administrator’s statements? (A) (B)

(C)

(D) (E)

The field of Area Studies has at least 50 people per year available for hire. The proposed Area Studies Department would not duplicate more than 25 percent of the material covered in any existing department other than Anthropology. If the proposed Area Studies Department did not duplicate more than 25 percent of the material covered in Anthropology, then the new department would not be funded. The Anthropology Department duplicates more than 25 percent of the material covered in the proposed Area Studies Department. The field of Area Studies has fewer than 50 people per year available for hire.

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7. Researcher: Over the course of three decades, we kept records of the average beak size of two populations of the same species of bird, one wild population, the other captive. During this period, the average beak size of the captive birds did not change, while the average beak size of the wild birds decreased significantly. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to explain the researcher’s findings? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The small-beaked wild birds were easier to capture and measure than the large-beaked wild birds. The large-beaked wild birds were easier to capture and measure than the small-beaked wild birds. Changes in the wild birds’ food supply during the study period favored the survival of small-beaked birds over large-beaked birds. The average body size of the captive birds remained the same over the study period. The researcher measured the beaks of some of the wild birds on more than one occasion.

8. Storytelling appears to be a universal aspect of both past and present cultures. Comparative study of traditional narratives from widely separated epochs and diverse cultures reveals common themes such as creation, tribal origin, mystical beings and quasi-historical figures, and common story types such as fables and tales in which animals assume human personalities. The evidence cited above from the study of traditional narratives most supports which one of the following statements? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Storytellers routinely borrow themes from other cultures. Storytellers have long understood that the narrative is a universal aspect of human culture. Certain human concerns and interests arise in all of the world’s cultures. Storytelling was no less important in ancient cultures than it is in modern cultures. The best way to understand a culture is to understand what motivates its storytellers.

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9. If a mother’s first child is born before its due date, it is likely that her second child will be also. Jackie’s second child was not born before its due date, so it is likely that Jackie’s first child was not born before its due date either. The questionable reasoning in the argument above is most similar in its reasoning to which one of the following? (A)

(B) (C)

(D) (E)

Artisans who finish their projects before the craft fair will probably go to the craft fair. Ben will not finish his project before the fair. So he probably will not go to the craft fair. All responsible pet owners are likely to be good with children. So anyone who is good with children is probably a responsible pet owner. If a movie is a box-office hit, it is likely that its sequel will be also. Hawkman II, the sequel to Hawkman I, was not a box-office hit, so Hawkman I was probably not a box-office hit. If a business is likely to fail, people will not invest in it. Pallid Starr is likely to fail, therefore no one is likely to invest in it. Tai will go sailing only if the weather is nice. The weather will be nice, thus Tai will probably go sailing.

10. Science journalist: Europa, a moon of Jupiter, is covered with ice. Data recently transmitted by a spacecraft strongly suggest that there are oceans of liquid water deep under the ice. Life as we know it could evolve only in the presence of liquid water. Hence, it is likely that at least primitive life has evolved on Europa. The science journalist’s argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it (A)

(B) (C) (D) (E)

takes for granted that if a condition would be necessary for the evolution of life as we know it, then such life could not have evolved anywhere that this condition does not hold fails to address adequately the possibility that there are conditions necessary for the evolution of life in addition to the presence of liquid water takes for granted that life is likely to be present on Europa if, but only if, life evolved on Europa overlooks the possibility that there could be unfamiliar forms of life that have evolved without the presence of liquid water takes for granted that no conditions on Europa other than the supposed presence of liquid water could have accounted for the data transmitted by the spacecraft

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11. A bacterial species will inevitably develop greater resistance within a few years to any antibiotics used against it, unless those antibiotics eliminate that species completely. However, no single antibiotic now on the market is powerful enough to eliminate bacterial species X completely. Which one of the following is most strongly supported by the statements above? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

It is unlikely that any antibiotic can be developed that will completely eliminate bacterial species X. If any antibiotic now on the market is used against bacterial species X, that species will develop greater resistance to it within a few years. The only way of completely eliminating bacterial species X is by a combination of two or more antibiotics now on the market. Bacterial species X will inevitably become more virulent in the course of time. Bacterial species X is more resistant to at least some antibiotics that have been used against it than it was before those antibiotics were used against it.

12. Political scientist: It is not uncommon for a politician to criticize his or her political opponents by claiming that their exposition of their ideas is muddled and incomprehensible. Such criticism, however, is never sincere. Political agendas promoted in a manner that cannot be understood by large numbers of people will not be realized for, as every politician knows, political mobilization requires commonality of purpose. Which one of the following is the most accurate rendering of the political scientist’s main conclusion? (A) (B) (C)

(D)

(E)

People who promote political agendas in an incomprehensible manner should be regarded as insincere. Sincere critics of the proponents of a political agenda should not focus their criticisms on the manner in which that agenda is promoted. The ineffectiveness of a confusingly promoted political agenda is a reason for refraining from, rather than engaging in, criticism of those who are promoting it. A politician criticizing his or her political opponents for presenting their political agendas in an incomprehensible manner is being insincere. To mobilize large numbers of people in support of a political agenda, that political agenda must be presented in such a way that it cannot be misunderstood.

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13. Many symptoms of mental illnesses are affected by organic factors such as a deficiency in a compound in the brain. What is surprising, however, is the tremendous variation among different countries in the incidence of these symptoms in people with mental illnesses. This variation establishes that the organic factors that affect symptoms of mental illnesses are not distributed evenly around the globe. The reasoning above is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

does not say how many different mental illnesses are being discussed neglects the possibility that nutritional factors that contribute to deficiencies in compounds in the brain vary from culture to culture fails to consider the possibility that cultural factors significantly affect how mental illnesses manifest themselves in symptoms presumes, without providing justification, that any change in brain chemistry manifests itself as a change in mental condition presumes, without providing justification, that mental phenomena are only manifestations of physical phenomena

14. Politician: It has been proposed that the national parks in our country be managed by private companies rather than the government. A similar privatization of the telecommunications industry has benefited consumers by allowing competition among a variety of telephone companies to improve service and force down prices. Therefore, the privatization of the national parks would probably benefit park visitors as well. Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the politician’s argument? (A)

(B)

(C) (D)

(E)

It would not be politically expedient to privatize the national parks even if doing so would, in the long run, improve service and reduce the fees charged to visitors. The privatization of the telecommunications industry has been problematic in that it has led to significantly increased unemployment and economic instability in that industry. The vast majority of people visiting the national parks are unaware of proposals to privatize the management of those parks. Privatizing the national parks would benefit a much smaller number of consumers to a much smaller extent than did the privatization of the telecommunications industry. The privatization of the national parks would produce much less competition between different companies than did the privatization of the telecommunications industry.

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15. Jewel collectors, fearing that their eyes will be deceived by a counterfeit, will not buy a diamond unless the dealer guarantees that it is genuine. But why should a counterfeit give any less aesthetic pleasure when the naked eye cannot distinguish it from a real diamond? Both jewels should be deemed of equal value. Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify the reasoning in the argument above? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Jewel collectors should collect only those jewels that provide the most aesthetic pleasure. The value of a jewel should depend at least partly on market demand. It should not be assumed that everyone who likes diamonds receives the same degree of aesthetic pleasure from them. The value of a jewel should derive solely from the aesthetic pleasure it provides. Jewel collectors should not buy counterfeit jewels unless they are unable to distinguish counterfeit jewels from real ones.

16. All etching tools are either pin-tipped or bladed. While some bladed etching tools are used for engraving, some are not. On the other hand, all pin-tipped etching tools are used for engraving. Thus, there are more etching tools that are used for engraving than there are etching tools that are not used for engraving.

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17. A 24-year study of 1,500 adults showed that those subjects with a high intake of foods rich in betacarotene were much less likely to die from cancer or heart disease than were those with a low intake of such foods. On the other hand, taking beta-carotene supplements for 12 years had no positive or negative effect on the health of subjects in a separate study of 20,000 adults. Each of the following, if true, would help to resolve the apparent discrepancy between the results of the two studies EXCEPT: (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The human body processes the beta-carotene present in foods much more efficiently than it does beta-carotene supplements. Beta-carotene must be taken for longer than 12 years to have any cancer-preventive effects. Foods rich in beta-carotene also tend to contain other nutrients that assist in the human body’s absorption of beta-carotene. In the 12-year study, half of the subjects were given beta-carotene supplements and half were given a placebo. In the 24-year study, the percentage of the subjects who had a high intake of betacarotene-rich foods who smoked cigarettes was much smaller than the percentage of the subjects with a low intake of beta-carotene-rich foods who smoked.

The conclusion of the argument follows logically if which one of the following is assumed? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

All tools used for engraving are etching tools as well. There are as many pin-tipped etching tools as there are bladed etching tools. No etching tool is both pin-tipped and bladed. The majority of bladed etching tools are not used for engraving. All etching tools that are not used for engraving are bladed.

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18. If there are sentient beings on planets outside our solar system, we will not be able to determine this anytime in the near future unless some of these beings are at least as intelligent as humans. We will not be able to send spacecraft to planets outside our solar system anytime in the near future, and any sentient being on another planet capable of communicating with us anytime in the near future would have to be at least as intelligent as we are. The argument’s conclusion can be properly inferred if which one of the following is assumed? (A) (B) (C)

(D)

(E)

There are no sentient beings on planets in our solar system other than those on Earth. Any beings that are at least as intelligent as humans would want to communicate with sentient beings outside their own solar systems. If there is a sentient being on another planet that is as intelligent as humans are, we will not be able to send spacecraft to the being’s planet anytime in the near future. If a sentient being on another planet cannot communicate with us, then the only way to detect its existence is by sending a spacecraft to its planet. Any sentient beings on planets outside our solar system that are at least as intelligent as humans would be capable of communicating with us.

19. Doctor: Medical researchers recently examined a large group of individuals who said that they had never experienced serious back pain. Half of the members of the group turned out to have bulging or slipped disks in their spines, conditions often blamed for serious back pain. Since these individuals with bulging or slipped disks evidently felt no pain from them, these conditions could not lead to serious back pain in people who do experience such pain. The reasoning in the doctor’s argument is most vulnerable to the criticism that it fails to consider which one of the following possibilities? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

A factor that need not be present in order for a certain effect to arise may nonetheless be sufficient to produce that effect. A factor that is not in itself sufficient to produce a certain effect may nonetheless be partly responsible for that effect in some instances. An effect that occurs in the absence of a particular phenomenon might not occur when that phenomenon is present. A characteristic found in half of a given sample of the population might not occur in half of the entire population. A factor that does not bring about a certain effect may nonetheless be more likely to be present when the effect occurs than when the effect does not occur.

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20. Many workers who handled substance T in factories became seriously ill years later. We now know T caused at least some of their illnesses. Earlier ignorance of this connection does not absolve T’s manufacturer of all responsibility. For had it investigated the safety of T before allowing workers to be exposed to it, many of their illnesses would have been prevented. Which one of the following principles most helps to justify the conclusion above? (A) (B) (C) (D)

(E)

Employees who are harmed by substances they handle on the job should be compensated for medical costs they incur as a result. Manufacturers should be held responsible only for the preventable consequences of their actions. Manufacturers have an obligation to inform workers of health risks of which they are aware. Whether or not an action’s consequences were preventable is irrelevant to whether a manufacturer should be held responsible for those consequences. Manufacturers should be held responsible for the consequences of any of their actions that harm innocent people if those consequences were preventable.

21. It is virtually certain that the government contract for building the new highway will be awarded to either Phoenix Contracting or Cartwright Company. I have just learned that the government has decided not to award the contract to Cartwright Company. It is therefore almost inevitable that Phoenix Contracting will be awarded the contract. The argument proceeds by (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

concluding that it is extremely likely that an event will occur by ruling out the only probable alternative inferring, from a claim that one of two possible events will occur, that the other event will not occur refuting a claim that a particular event is inevitable by establishing the possibility of an alternative event predicting a future event on the basis of an established pattern of past events inferring a claim about the probability of a particular event from a general statistical statement

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22. Researchers have found that children in large families— particularly the younger siblings—generally have fewer allergies than children in small families do. They hypothesize that exposure to germs during infancy makes people less likely to develop allergies. Which one of the following, if true, most supports the researchers’ hypothesis? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

In countries where the average number of children per family has decreased over the last century, the incidence of allergies has increased. Children in small families generally eat more kinds of very allergenic foods than children in large families do. Some allergies are life threatening, while many diseases caused by germs produce only temporary discomfort. Children whose parents have allergies have an above-average likelihood of developing allergies themselves. Children from small families who entered day care before age one were less likely to develop allergies than children from small families who entered day care later.

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Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

No new technology for transferring old movies from nitrate film to acetate film will ever be developed. Transferring films from nitrate to acetate is not the least expensive way of preserving them. Not many films from the earliest years of Hollywood have already been transferred to acetate. Some films from the earliest years of Hollywood currently exist solely in their original material. The least popular films from the earliest years of Hollywood are the ones most likely to be lost.

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24. In a recent study of arthritis, researchers tried but failed to find any correlation between pain intensity and any of those features of the weather—humidity, temperature swings, barometric pressure—usually cited by arthritis sufferers as the cause of their increased pain. Those arthritis sufferers in the study who were convinced of the existence of such a correlation gave widely varying accounts of the time delay between the occurrence of what they believed to be the relevant feature of the weather and the increased intensity of the pain. Thus, this study _______. Of the following, which one most logically completes the argument? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

23. Film preservation requires transferring old movies from their original material—unstable, deteriorating nitrate film—to stable acetate film. But this is a time-consuming, expensive process, and there is no way to transfer all currently deteriorating nitrate films to acetate before they disintegrate. So some films from the earliest years of Hollywood will not be preserved.

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indicates that the weather affects some arthritis sufferers more quickly than it does other arthritis sufferers indicates that arthritis sufferers’ beliefs about the causes of the pain they feel may affect their assessment of the intensity of that pain suggests that arthritis sufferers are imagining the correlation they assert to exist suggests that some people are more susceptible to weather-induced arthritis pain than are others suggests that the scientific investigation of possible links between weather and arthritis pain is impossible

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25. Cities with healthy economies typically have plenty of job openings. Cities with high-technology businesses also tend to have healthy economies, so those in search of jobs should move to a city with high-technology businesses.

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Older antiques are usually the most valuable. Antique dealers generally authenticate the age of the antiques they sell, so those collectors who want the most valuable antiques should purchase their antiques from antique dealers. Antique dealers who authenticate the age of the antiques they sell typically have plenty of antiques for sale. Since the most valuable antiques are those that have had their ages authenticated, antique collectors in search of valuable antiques should purchase their antiques from antique dealers. Antiques that have had their ages authenticated tend to be valuable. Since antique dealers generally carry antiques that have had their ages authenticated, those collectors who want antiques that are valuable should purchase their antiques from antique dealers. Many antique collectors know that antique dealers can authenticate the age of the antiques they sell. Since antiques that have had their ages authenticated are always the most valuable, most antique collectors who want antiques that are valuable tend to purchase their antiques from antique dealers. Many antiques increase in value once they have had their ages authenticated by antique dealers. Since antique dealers tend to have plenty of valuable antiques, antique collectors who prefer to purchase the most valuable antiques should purchase antiques from antique dealers.

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26. Sociologist: A recent study of 5,000 individuals found, on the basis of a physical exam, that more than 25 percent of people older than 65 were malnourished, though only 12 percent of the people in this age group fell below government poverty standards. In contrast, a greater percentage of the people 65 or younger fell below poverty standards than were found in the study to be malnourished.

The reasoning in which one of the following is most similar to the reasoning in the argument above? (A)

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Acknowledgment is made to the following sources from which material has been adapted for use in this test booklet: Richard H. Brodhead, Cultures of Letters: Scenes of Reading and Writing in Nineteenth-Century America. ©1993 by the University of Chicago. Jonathan Glater and Alan Finder, “In Tuition Game, Popularity Rises with Price.” ©December 12, 2006 by The New York Times. Josie Glausiusz, “Seismologists Go Green.” ©1999 by the Walt Disney Company. Michael Pietrusewsky and Michele Toomay Douglas, “Intensification of Agriculture at Ban Chiang: Is There Evidence from the Skeletons?” ©2001 by University of Hawaii Press. Karen Gust Schollmeyer and Christy G. Turner II, “Dental Caries, Prehistoric Diet, and the Pithouse-to-Pueblo Transition in Southwestern Colorado.” ©2004 by Society for American Archaeology.

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Wait for the supervisor’s instructions before you open the page to the topic. Please print and sign your name and write the date in the designated spaces below.

Time: 35 Minutes General Directions

You will have 35 minutes in which to plan and write an essay on the topic inside. Read the topic and the accompanying directions carefully. You will probably find it best to spend a few minutes considering the topic and organizing your thoughts before you begin writing. In your essay, be sure to develop your ideas fully, leaving time, if possible, to review what you have written. Do not write on a topic other than the one specified. Writing on a topic of your own choice is not acceptable. No special knowledge is required or expected for this writing exercise. Law schools are interested in the reasoning, clarity, organization, language usage, and writing mechanics displayed in your essay. How well you write is more important than how much you write. Confine your essay to the blocked, lined area on the front and back of the separate Writing Sample Response Sheet. Only that area will be reproduced for law schools. Be sure that your writing is legible.

Both this topic sheet and your response sheet must be turned over to the testing staff before you leave the room. Topic Code –––––––––––––

Print Your Full Name Here Last

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LSAT Writing Sample Topic

Directions: The scenario presented below describes two choices, either one of which can be supported on the basis of the information given. Your essay should consider both choices and argue for one over the other, based on the two specified criteria and the facts provided. There is no “right” or “wrong” choice: a reasonable argument can be made for either. The Wangs must arrange summer child care for their ten-year-old child. They have found two summer-long programs that are affordable and in which friends of their child would also be participating. Using the facts below, write an essay in which you argue for one program over the other based on the following two considerations: • The Wangs want their child to enjoy activities that would add variety to the regular school experience. • Transportation to the program must be easy for the Wangs to accommodate to their work situations. City Summer is located at a college near Mrs. Wang’s job but a considerable distance from Mr. Wang’s. It offers early arrival and late pick-up times for parent convenience. Mrs. Wang has somewhat flexible work hours, but must travel overnight occasionally. City Summer offers classes in the visual arts, dance, drama, music, swimming, and gymnastics, as well as gym activities like basketball and volleyball. In addition, there are organized field trips to museums, plays, and historical sites. The program concludes with a presentation of student work from the classes. Round Lake Camp is located 30 minutes outside the city. Bus transportation is provided to and from several city schools, one of which is next door to Mr. Wang’s job. Pick-up and drop-off are at set times in the early morning and late afternoon. Mr. Wang has flexibility in his work starting time but often must work late. The camp has classes in swimming, sailing, archery, nature study, crafts, and outdoor skills. It also has regular free periods when campers can choose among outdoor activities or just explore the woods. At the end of the summer the campers have an overnight camping trip at a nearby state wilderness area.

Scratch Paper

Do not write your essay in this space.

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LAST NAME (Print)

MI

FIRST NAME (Print)

SIGNATURE

Writing Sample Response Sheet

DO NOT WRITE IN THIS SPACE Begin your essay in the lined area below. Continue on the back if you need more space.

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Computing Your Score Directions:

Conversion Chart

1. Use the Answer Key on the next page to check your answers. 2. Use the Scoring Worksheet below to compute your raw score. 3. Use the Score Conversion Chart to convert your raw score into the 120–180 scale.

Scoring Worksheet 1. Enter the number of questions you answered correctly in each section Number Correct SECTION I . . . . . . . . SECTION II . . . . . . . . SECTION III . . . . . . . SECTION IV . . . . . . . 2. Enter the sum here:  This is your Raw Score.

For Converting Raw Score to the 120–180 LSAT Scaled Score LSAT PrepTest 62 Reported Score 180 179 178 177 176 175 174 173 172 171 170 169 168 167 166 165 164 163 162 161 160 159 158 157 156 155 154 153 152 151 150 149 148 147 146 145 144 143 142 141 140 139 138 137 136 135 134 133 132 131 130 129 128 127 126 125 124 123 122 121 120



Lowest 99 98 97 96 95 94 93 91 90 89 88 86 85 83 82 80 79 77 75 74 72 70 69 67 65 63 62 60 58 57 55 53 52 50 48 47 45 43 42 40 39 37 36 35 33 32 30 29 28 27 25 24 23 22 21 20 18 17 16 15 0

Raw Score

Highest 102 98 97 96 95 94 93 92 90 89 88 87 85 84 82 81 79 78 76 74 73 71 69 68 66 64 62 61 59 57 56 54 52 51 49 47 46 44 42 41 39 38 36 35 34 32 31 29 28 27 26 24 23 22 21 20 19 17 16 15 14

–36–

Answer Key

SECTION I 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

A C E B B E D

  8.   9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

D A E E D C B

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

A B A B D C D

22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

D C B E E C

B E A D D C E

22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

D C E A E

A A D E B E A

22. A 23. D

D B D D B E A

22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

SECTION II 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

D E B E C A C

  8.   9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

A C B A E D B

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

SECTION III 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

D D E E B A B

  8.   9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

C B B A C E C

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

SECTION IV 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

C D A C B A C

  8.   9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

C C B B D C E

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

E D C C D

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Logical Reasoning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION I



Analytical Reasoning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION II



Logical Reasoning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION III



Reading Comprehension . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION IV



Writing Sample Materials

1

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–2–

Section I Time—35 minutes 25 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer;  that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. 1. Backyard gardeners who want to increase the yields of their potato plants should try growing stinging nettles alongside the plants, since stinging nettles attract insects that kill a wide array of insect pests that damage potato plants. It is true that stinging nettles also attract aphids, and that many species of aphids are harmful to potato plants, but that fact in no way contradicts this recommendation, because _______.

3. A recent survey quizzed journalism students about the sorts of stories they themselves wished to read. A significant majority said they wanted to see stories dealing with serious governmental and political issues and had little tolerance for the present popularity of stories covering lifestyle trends and celebrity gossip. This indicates that today’s trends in publishing are based on false assumptions about the interests of the public.

Which one of the following most logically completes the argument?

Which one of the following most accurately describes a flaw in the argument’s reasoning?

(A)

(A)

(B) (C) (D) (E)

stinging nettles require little care and thus are easy to cultivate some types of aphids are attracted to stinging nettle plants but do not damage them the types of aphids that stinging nettles attract do not damage potato plants insect pests typically cause less damage to potato plants than other harmful organisms do most aphid species that are harmful to potato plants cause greater harm to other edible food plants

(B) (C) (D) (E)

2. Jocko, a chimpanzee, was once given a large bunch of bananas by a zookeeper after the more dominant members of the chimpanzee’s troop had wandered off. In his excitement, Jocko uttered some loud “food barks.” The other chimpanzees returned and took the bananas away. The next day, Jocko was again found alone and was given a single banana. This time, however, he kept silent. The zookeeper concluded that Jocko’s silence was a stratagem to keep the other chimpanzees from his food. Which one of the following, if true, most seriously calls into question the zookeeper’s conclusion? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Chimpanzees utter food barks only when their favorite foods are available. Chimpanzees utter food barks only when they encounter a sizable quantity of food. Chimpanzees frequently take food from other chimpanzees merely to assert dominance. Even when they are alone, chimpanzees often make noises that appear to be signals to other chimpanzees. Bananas are a food for which all of the chimpanzees at the zoo show a decided preference.

It takes what is more likely to be the effect of a phenomenon to be its cause. It regards the production of an effect as incontrovertible evidence of an intention to produce that effect. It relies on the opinions of a group unlikely to be representative of the group at issue in the conclusion. It employs language that unfairly represents those who are likely to reject the argument’s conclusion. It treats a hypothesis as fact even though it is admittedly unsupported.

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4. Electric bug zappers, which work by attracting insects to light, are a very effective means of ridding an area of flying insects. Despite this, most pest control experts now advise against their use, recommending instead such remedies as insect-eating birds or insecticide sprays. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to account for the pest control experts’ recommendation? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Insect-eating birds will take up residence in any insect-rich area if they are provided with nesting boxes, food, and water. Bug zappers are less effective against mosquitoes, which are among the more harmful insects, than they are against other harmful insects. Bug zappers use more electricity but provide less light than do most standard outdoor light sources. Bug zappers kill many more beneficial insects and fewer harmful insects than do insect-eating birds and insecticide sprays. Developers of certain new insecticide sprays claim that their products contain no chemicals that are harmful to humans, birds, or pets.

–3–

6. Small experimental vacuum tubes can operate in heat that makes semiconductor components fail. Any component whose resistance to heat is greater than that of semiconductors would be preferable for use in digital circuits, but only if that component were also comparable to semiconductors in all other significant respects, such as maximum current capacity. However, vacuum tubes’ maximum current capacity is presently not comparable to that of semiconductors. If the statements above are true, which one of the following must also be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

5. Gardener: The design of Japanese gardens should display harmony with nature. Hence, rocks chosen for placement in such gardens should vary widely in appearance, since rocks found in nature also vary widely in appearance. The gardener’s argument depends on assuming which one of the following? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The selection of rocks for placement in a Japanese garden should reflect every key value embodied in the design of Japanese gardens. In the selection of rocks for Japanese gardens, imitation of nature helps to achieve harmony with nature. The only criterion for selecting rocks for placement in a Japanese garden is the expression of harmony with nature. Expressing harmony with nature and being natural are the same thing. Each component of a genuine Japanese garden is varied.

1

Vacuum tubes are not now preferable to semiconductors for use in digital circuits. Once vacuum tubes and semiconductors have comparable maximum current capacity, vacuum tubes will be used in some digital circuits. The only reason that vacuum tubes are not now used in digital circuits is that vacuum tubes’ maximum current capacity is too low. Semiconductors will always be preferable to vacuum tubes for use in many applications other than digital circuits. Resistance to heat is the only advantage that vacuum tubes have over semiconductors.

7. The cause of the epidemic that devastated Athens in 430 B.C. can finally be identified. Accounts of the epidemic mention the hiccups experienced by many victims, a symptom of no known disease except that caused by the recently discovered Ebola virus. Moreover, other symptoms of the disease caused by the Ebola virus are mentioned in the accounts of the Athenian epidemic. Each of the following, if true, weakens the argument EXCEPT: (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Victims of the Ebola virus experience many symptoms that do not appear in any of the accounts of the Athenian epidemic. Not all of those who are victims of the Ebola virus are afflicted with hiccups. The Ebola virus’s host animals did not live in Athens at the time of the Athenian epidemic. The Ebola virus is much more contagious than the disease that caused the Athenian epidemic was reported to have been. The epidemics known to have been caused by the Ebola virus are usually shorter-lived than was the Athenian epidemic.

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8. Letter to the editor: Your article was unjustified in criticizing environmentalists for claiming that more wolves on Vancouver Island are killed by hunters than are born each year. You stated that this claim was disproven by recent studies that indicate that the total number of wolves on Vancouver Island has remained roughly constant for 20 years. But you failed to account for the fact that, fearing the extinction of this wolf population, environmentalists have been introducing new wolves into the Vancouver Island wolf population for 20 years. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the conclusion of the argument in the letter to the editor? (A) (B) (C)

(D)

(E)

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–4–

Environmentalists have been successfully maintaining the wolf population on Vancouver Island for 20 years. As many wolves on Vancouver Island are killed by hunters as are born each year. The population of wolves on Vancouver Island should be maintained by either reducing the number killed by hunters each year or introducing new wolves into the population. The recent studies indicating that the total number of wolves on Vancouver Island has remained roughly constant for 20 years were flawed. The stability in the size of the Vancouver Island wolf population does not warrant the article’s criticism of the environmentalists’ claim.

9. Computer scientist: For several decades, the number of transistors on new computer microchips, and hence the microchips’ computing speed, has doubled about every 18 months. However, from the mid-1990s into the next decade, each such doubling in a microchip’s computing speed was accompanied by a doubling in the cost of producing that microchip. Which one of the following can be properly inferred from the computer scientist’s statements? (A) (B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

The only effective way to double the computing speed of computer microchips is to increase the number of transistors per microchip. From the mid-1990s into the next decade, there was little if any increase in the retail cost of computers as a result of the increased number of transistors on microchips. For the last several decades, computer engineers have focused on increasing the computing speed of computer microchips without making any attempt to control the cost of producing them. From the mid-1990s into the next decade, a doubling in the cost of fabricating new computer microchips accompanied each doubling in the number of transistors on those microchips. It is unlikely that engineers will ever be able to increase the computing speed of microchips without also increasing the cost of producing them.

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10. Ms. Sandstrom’s newspaper column describing a strange natural phenomenon on the Mendels’ farm led many people to trespass on and extensively damage their property. Thus, Ms. Sandstrom should pay for this damage if, as the Mendels claim, she could have reasonably expected that the column would lead people to damage the Mendels’ farm. The argument’s conclusion can be properly inferred if which one of the following is assumed? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D) (E)

One should pay for any damage that one’s action leads other people to cause if one could have reasonably expected that the action would lead other people to cause damage. One should pay for damage that one’s action leads other people to cause only if, prior to the action, one expected that the action would lead other people to cause that damage. It is unlikely that the people who trespassed on and caused the damage to the Mendels’ property would themselves pay for the damage they caused. Ms. Sandstrom knew that her column could incite trespassing that could result in damage to the Mendels’ farm. The Mendels believe that Ms. Sandstrom is able to form reasonable expectations about the consequences of her actions.

11. Meyer was found by his employer to have committed scientific fraud by falsifying data. The University of Williamstown, from which Meyer held a PhD, validated this finding and subsequently investigated whether he had falsified data in his doctoral thesis, finding no evidence that he had. But the university decided to revoke Meyer’s PhD anyway. Which one of the following university policies most justifies the decision to revoke Meyer’s PhD? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D) (E)

Anyone who holds a PhD from the University of Williamstown and is found to have committed academic fraud in the course of pursuing that PhD will have the PhD revoked. No PhD program at the University of Williamstown will admit any applicant who has been determined to have committed any sort of academic fraud. Any University of Williamstown student who is found to have submitted falsified data as academic work will be dismissed from the university. Anyone who holds a PhD from the University of Williamstown and is found to have committed scientific fraud will have the PhD revoked. The University of Williamstown will not hire anyone who is under investigation for scientific fraud.

–5–

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12. Aerobics instructor: Compared to many forms of exercise, kickboxing aerobics is highly risky. Overextending when kicking often leads to hip, knee, or lower-back injuries. Such overextension is very likely to occur when beginners try to match the high kicks of more skilled practitioners. Which one of the following is most strongly supported by the aerobics instructor’s statements? (A) (B)

(C)

(D) (E)

Skilled practitioners of kickboxing aerobics are unlikely to experience injuries from overextending while kicking. To reduce the risk of injuries, beginners at kickboxing aerobics should avoid trying to match the high kicks of more skilled practitioners. Beginners at kickboxing aerobics will not experience injuries if they avoid trying to match the high kicks of more skilled practitioners. Kickboxing aerobics is more risky than forms of aerobic exercise that do not involve high kicks. Most beginners at kickboxing aerobics experience injuries from trying to match the high kicks of more skilled practitioners.

13. A large company has been convicted of engaging in monopolistic practices. The penalty imposed on the company will probably have little if any effect on its behavior. Still, the trial was worthwhile, since it provided useful information about the company’s practices. After all, this information has emboldened the company’s direct competitors, alerted potential rivals, and forced the company to restrain its unfair behavior toward customers and competitors. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the overall conclusion drawn in the argument? (A)

(B)

(C) (D) (E)

Even if the company had not been convicted of engaging in monopolistic practices, the trial probably would have had some effect on the company’s behavior. The light shed on the company’s practices by the trial has emboldened its competitors, alerted potential rivals, and forced the company to restrain its unfair behavior. The penalty imposed on the company will likely have little or no effect on its behavior. The company’s trial on charges of engaging in monopolistic practices was worthwhile. The penalty imposed on the company in the trial should have been larger.

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14. Waller: If there were really such a thing as extrasensory perception, it would generally be accepted by the public since anyone with extrasensory powers would be able to convince the general public of its existence by clearly demonstrating those powers. Indeed, anyone who was recognized to have such powers would achieve wealth and renown.

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–6–

Chin: It’s impossible to demonstrate anything to the satisfaction of all skeptics. So long as the cultural elite remains closed-minded to the possibility of extrasensory perception, the popular media reports, and thus public opinion, will always be biased in favor of such skeptics.

16. A survey of address changes filed with post offices and driver’s license bureaus over the last ten years has established that households moving out of the city of Weston outnumbered households moving into the city two to one. Therefore, we can expect that next year’s census, which counts all residents regardless of age, will show that the population of Weston has declined since the last census ten years ago. Which one of the following, if true, most helps strengthen the argument? (A) (B)

Waller’s and Chin’s statements commit them to disagreeing on whether (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

extrasensory perception is a real phenomenon extrasensory perception, if it were a real phenomenon, could be demonstrated to the satisfaction of all skeptics skeptics about extrasensory perception have a weak case the failure of the general public to believe in extrasensory perception is good evidence against its existence the general public believes that extrasensory perception is a real phenomenon

15. Counselor: Hagerle sincerely apologized to the physician for lying to her. So Hagerle owes me a sincere apology as well, because Hagerle told the same lie to both of us. Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify the counselor’s reasoning? (A) (B) (C)

(D) (E)

It is good to apologize for having done something wrong to a person if one is capable of doing so sincerely. If someone tells the same lie to two different people, then neither of those lied to is owed an apology unless both are. Someone is owed a sincere apology for having been lied to by a person if someone else has already received a sincere apology for the same lie from that same person. If one is capable of sincerely apologizing to someone for lying to them, then one owes that person such an apology. A person should not apologize to someone for telling a lie unless he or she can sincerely apologize to all others to whom the lie was told.

(C) (D)

(E)

Within the past decade many people both moved into the city and also moved out of it. Over the past century any census of Weston showing a population loss was followed ten years later by a census showing a population gain. Many people moving into Weston failed to notify either the post office or the driver’s license bureau that they had moved to the city. Most adults moving out of Weston were parents who had children living with them, whereas most adults remaining in or moving into the city were older people who lived alone. Most people moving out of Weston were young adults who were hoping to begin a career elsewhere, whereas most adults remaining in or moving into the city had long-standing jobs in the city.

17. Psychologist: People tend to make certain cognitive errors when they predict how a given event would affect their future happiness. But people should not necessarily try to rid themselves of this tendency. After all, in a visual context, lines that are actually parallel often appear to people as if they converge. If a surgeon offered to restructure your eyes and visual cortex so that parallel lines would no longer ever appear to converge, it would not be reasonable to take the surgeon up on the offer. The psychologist’s argument does which one of the following? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

attempts to refute a claim that a particular event is inevitable by establishing the possibility of an alternative event attempts to undermine a theory by calling into question an assumption on which the theory is based argues that an action might not be appropriate by suggesting that a corresponding action in an analogous situation is not appropriate argues that two situations are similar by establishing that the same action would be reasonable in each situation attempts to establish a generalization and then uses that generalization to argue against a particular action

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18. Principle: Even if an art auction house identifies the descriptions in its catalog as opinions, it is guilty of misrepresentation if such a description is a deliberate attempt to mislead bidders.

Application: Although Healy’s, an art auction house, states that all descriptions in its catalog are opinions, Healy’s was guilty of misrepresentation when its catalog described a vase as dating from the mid-eighteenth century when it was actually a modern reproduction. Which one of the following, if true, most justifies the above application of the principle? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

An authentic work of art from the mid-eighteenth century will usually sell for at least ten times more than a modern reproduction of a similar work from that period. Although pottery that is similar to the vase is currently extremely popular among art collectors, none of the collectors who are knowledgeable about such pottery were willing to bid on the vase. The stated policy of Healy’s is to describe works in its catalogs only in terms of their readily perceptible qualities and not to include any information about their age. Some Healy’s staff members believe that the auction house’s catalog should not contain any descriptions that have not been certified to be true by independent experts. Without consulting anyone with expertise in authenticating vases, Healy’s described the vase as dating from the mid-eighteenth century merely in order to increase its auction price.

–7–

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19. Anthropologist: It was formerly believed that prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans interbred with Neanderthals, but DNA testing of a Neanderthal’s remains indicates that this is not the case. The DNA of contemporary humans is significantly different from that of the Neanderthal. Which one of the following is an assumption required by the anthropologist’s argument? (A) (B) (C)

(D)

(E)

At least some Neanderthals lived at the same time and in the same places as prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans. DNA testing of remains is significantly less reliable than DNA testing of samples from living species. The DNA of prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans was not significantly more similar to that of Neanderthals than is the DNA of contemporary humans. Neanderthals and prehistoric Homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans were completely isolated from each other geographically. Any similarity in the DNA of two species must be the result of interbreeding.

20. Council member: The profits of downtown businesses will increase if more consumers live in the downtown area, and a decrease in the cost of living in the downtown area will guarantee that the number of consumers living there will increase. However, the profits of downtown businesses will not increase unless downtown traffic congestion decreases. If all the council member’s statements are true, which one of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

If downtown traffic congestion decreases, the number of consumers living in the downtown area will increase. If the cost of living in the downtown area decreases, the profits of downtown businesses will increase. If downtown traffic congestion decreases, the cost of living in the downtown area will increase. If downtown traffic congestion decreases, the cost of living in the downtown area will decrease. If the profits of downtown businesses increase, the number of consumers living in the downtown area will increase.

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21. On the Discount Phoneline, any domestic long-distance call starting between 9 A.M. and 5 P.M. costs 15 cents a minute, and any other domestic long-distance call costs 10 cents a minute. So any domestic long-distance call on the Discount Phoneline that does not cost 10 cents a minute costs 15 cents a minute. The pattern of reasoning in which one of the following arguments is most similar to that in the argument above? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

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If a university class involves extensive lab work, the class will be conducted in a laboratory; otherwise, it will be conducted in a normal classroom. Thus, if a university class does not involve extensive lab work, it will not be conducted in a laboratory. If a university class involves extensive lab work, the class will be conducted in a laboratory; otherwise, it will be conducted in a normal classroom. Thus, if a university class is not conducted in a normal classroom, it will involve extensive lab work. If a university class involves extensive lab work, the class will be conducted in a laboratory; otherwise, it will be conducted in a normal classroom. Thus, if a university class is conducted in a normal classroom, it will not be conducted in a laboratory. If a university class involves extensive lab work, the class will be conducted in a laboratory; otherwise, it will be conducted in a normal classroom. Thus, if a university class involves extensive lab work, it will not be conducted in a normal classroom. If a university class involves extensive lab work, the class will be conducted in a laboratory; otherwise, it will be conducted in a normal classroom. Thus, if a university class is not conducted in a normal classroom, it will be conducted in a laboratory.

22. One child pushed another child from behind, injuring the second child. The first child clearly understands the difference between right and wrong, so what was done was wrong if it was intended to injure the second child. Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify the reasoning in the argument? (A)

(B) (C) (D)

(E)

An action that is intended to harm another person is wrong only if the person who performed the action understands the difference between right and wrong. It is wrong for a person who understands the difference between right and wrong to intentionally harm another person. Any act that is wrong is done with the intention of causing harm. An act that harms another person is wrong if the person who did it understands the difference between right and wrong and did not think about whether the act would injure the other person. A person who does not understand the difference between right and wrong does not bear any responsibility for harming another person.

23. Researcher: Each subject in this experiment owns one car, and was asked to estimate what proportion of all automobiles registered in the nation are the same make as the subject’s car. The estimate of nearly every subject has been significantly higher than the actual national statistic for the make of that subject’s car. I hypothesize that certain makes of car are more common in some regions of the nation than in other regions; obviously, that would lead many people to overestimate how common their make of car is nationally. That is precisely the result found in this experiment, so certain makes of car must indeed be more common in some areas of the nation than in others. Which one of the following most accurately expresses a reasoning flaw in the researcher’s argument? (A)

(B) (C) (D) (E)

The argument fails to estimate the likelihood that most subjects in the experiment did not know the actual statistics about how common their make of car is nationwide. The argument treats a result that supports a hypothesis as a result that proves a hypothesis. The argument fails to take into account the possibility that the subject pool may come from a wide variety of geographical regions. The argument attempts to draw its main conclusion from a set of premises that are mutually contradictory. The argument applies a statistical generalization to a particular case to which it was not intended to apply.

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24. In university towns, police issue far more parking citations during the school year than they do during the times when the students are out of town. Therefore, we know that most parking citations in university towns are issued to students. Which one of the following is most similar in its flawed reasoning to the flawed reasoning in the argument above? (A)

(B) (C) (D)

(E)

–9–

25. Counselor: Those who believe that criticism should be gentle rather than harsh should consider the following: change requires a motive, and criticism that is unpleasant provides a motive. Since harsh criticism is unpleasant, harsh criticism provides a motive. Therefore, only harsh criticism will cause the person criticized to change. The reasoning in the counselor’s argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument

We know that children buy most of the snacks at cinemas, because popcorn sales increase as the proportion of child moviegoers to adult moviegoers increases. We know that this houseplant gets more of the sunlight from the window, because it is greener than that houseplant. We know that most people who go to a university are studious because most of those people study while they attend the university. We know that consumers buy more fruit during the summer than they buy during the winter, because there are far more varieties of fruit available in the summer than in the winter. We know that most of the snacks parents buy go to other people’s children, because when other people’s children come to visit, parents give out more snacks than usual.

S

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(A) (B)

(C) (D) (E)

T

O

infers that something that is sufficient to provide a motive is necessary to provide a motive fails to address the possibility that in some cases the primary goal of criticism is something other than bringing about change in the person being criticized takes for granted that everyone who is motivated to change will change confuses a motive for doing something with a motive for avoiding something takes the refutation of an argument to be sufficient to show that the argument’s conclusion is false

P

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

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–10–

2

2 Section II Time—35 minutes 23 Questions

Directions: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may  be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. Questions 1–5 Each of seven candidates for the position of judge—Hamadi, Jefferson, Kurtz, Li, McDonnell, Ortiz, and Perkins—will be appointed to an open position on one of two courts—the appellate court or the trial court. There are three open positions on the appellate court and six open positions on the trial court, but not all of them will be filled at this time. The judicial appointments will conform to the following conditions: Li must be appointed to the appellate court. Kurtz must be appointed to the trial court. Hamadi cannot be appointed to the same court as Perkins. 1. Which one of the following is an acceptable set of appointments of candidates to courts? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

appellate: Hamadi, Ortiz trial: Jefferson, Kurtz, Li, McDonnell, Perkins appellate: Hamadi, Li, Perkins trial: Jefferson, Kurtz, McDonnell, Ortiz appellate: Kurtz, Li, Perkins trial: Hamadi, Jefferson, McDonnell, Ortiz appellate: Li, McDonnell, Ortiz trial: Hamadi, Jefferson, Kurtz, Perkins appellate: Li, Perkins trial: Hamadi, Jefferson, Kurtz, McDonnell, Ortiz

2. Which one of the following CANNOT be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Hamadi and McDonnell are both appointed to the appellate court. McDonnell and Ortiz are both appointed to the appellate court. Ortiz and Perkins are both appointed to the appellate court. Hamadi and Jefferson are both appointed to the trial court. Ortiz and Perkins are both appointed to the trial court.

3. Which one of the following CANNOT be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Jefferson and McDonnell are both appointed to the appellate court. Jefferson and McDonnell are both appointed to the trial court. McDonnell and Ortiz are both appointed to the trial court. McDonnell and Perkins are both appointed to the appellate court. McDonnell and Perkins are both appointed to the trial court.

4. If Ortiz is appointed to the appellate court, which one of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Hamadi is appointed to the appellate court. Jefferson is appointed to the appellate court. Jefferson is appointed to the trial court. Perkins is appointed to the appellate court. Perkins is appointed to the trial court.

5. Which one of the following, if substituted for the condition that Hamadi cannot be appointed to the same court as Perkins, would have the same effect on the appointments of the seven candidates? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Hamadi and Perkins cannot both be appointed to the appellate court. If Hamadi is not appointed to the trial court, then Perkins must be. If Perkins is appointed to the same court as Jefferson, then Hamadi cannot be. If Hamadi is appointed to the same court as Li, then Perkins must be appointed to the same court as Kurtz. No three of Hamadi, Kurtz, Li, and Perkins can be appointed to the same court as each other.

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Questions 6–10 Exactly six members of a skydiving team—Larue, Ohba, Pei, Treviño, Weiss, and Zacny—each dive exactly once, one at a time, from a plane, consistent with the following conditions: Treviño dives from the plane at some time before Weiss does. Larue dives from the plane either first or last. Neither Weiss nor Zacny dives from the plane last. Pei dives from the plane at some time after either Ohba or Larue but not both. 6. Which one of the following could be an accurate list of the members in the order in which they dive from the plane, from first to last? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Larue, Treviño, Ohba, Zacny, Pei, Weiss Larue, Treviño, Pei, Zacny, Weiss, Ohba Weiss, Ohba, Treviño, Zacny, Pei, Larue Treviño, Weiss, Pei, Ohba, Zacny, Larue Treviño, Weiss, Zacny, Larue, Pei, Ohba

7. Which one of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

At least two of the members dive from the plane after Larue. At least two of the members dive from the plane after Ohba. At least two of the members dive from the plane after Pei. At least two of the members dive from the plane after Treviño. At least two of the members dive from the plane after Weiss.

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8. If Larue dives from the plane last, then each of the following could be true EXCEPT: (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Treviño dives from the plane fourth. Weiss dives from the plane fourth. Ohba dives from the plane fifth. Pei dives from the plane fifth. Zacny dives from the plane fifth.

9. If Zacny dives from the plane immediately after Weiss, then which one of the following must be false? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Larue dives from the plane first. Treviño dives from the plane third. Zacny dives from the plane third. Pei dives from the plane fourth. Zacny dives from the plane fourth.

10. If Treviño dives from the plane immediately after Larue, then each of the following could be true EXCEPT: (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ohba dives from the plane third. Weiss dives from the plane third. Zacny dives from the plane third. Pei dives from the plane fourth. Weiss dives from the plane fourth.

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Questions 11–17 A company’s six vehicles—a hatchback, a limousine, a pickup, a roadster, a sedan, and a van—are serviced during a certain week—Monday through Saturday—one vehicle per day. The following conditions must apply: At least one of the vehicles is serviced later in the week than the hatchback. The roadster is serviced later in the week than the van and earlier in the week than the hatchback. Either the pickup and the van are serviced on consecutive days, or the pickup and the sedan are serviced on consecutive days, but not both. The sedan is serviced earlier in the week than the pickup or earlier in the week than the limousine, but not both. 11. Which one of the following could be the order in which the vehicles are serviced, from Monday through Saturday? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

the hatchback, the pickup, the sedan, the limousine, the van, the roadster the pickup, the sedan, the van, the roadster, the hatchback, the limousine the pickup, the van, the sedan, the roadster, the limousine, the hatchback the van, the roadster, the pickup, the hatchback, the sedan, the limousine the van, the sedan, the pickup, the roadster, the hatchback, the limousine

12. Which one of the following CANNOT be the vehicle serviced on Thursday? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

the hatchback the limousine the pickup the sedan the van

13. If neither the pickup nor the limousine is serviced on Monday, then which one of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The hatchback and the limousine are serviced on consecutive days. The hatchback and the sedan are serviced on consecutive days. The van is serviced on Monday. The limousine is serviced on Saturday. The pickup is serviced on Saturday.

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2 14. If the limousine is not serviced on Saturday, then each of the following could be true EXCEPT: (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The limousine is serviced on Monday. The roadster is serviced on Tuesday. The hatchback is serviced on Wednesday. The roadster is serviced on Wednesday. The sedan is serviced on Wednesday.

15. If the sedan is serviced earlier in the week than the pickup, then which one of the following could be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The limousine is serviced on Wednesday. The sedan is serviced on Wednesday. The van is serviced on Wednesday. The hatchback is serviced on Friday. The limousine is serviced on Saturday.

16. If the limousine is serviced on Saturday, then which one of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The pickup is serviced earlier in the week than the roadster. The pickup is serviced earlier in the week than the sedan. The sedan is serviced earlier in the week than the roadster. The hatchback and the limousine are serviced on consecutive days. The roadster and the hatchback are serviced on consecutive days.

17. Which one of the following could be the list of the vehicles serviced on Tuesday, Wednesday, and Friday, listed in that order? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

the pickup, the hatchback, the limousine the pickup, the roadster, the hatchback the sedan, the limousine, the hatchback the van, the limousine, the hatchback the van, the roadster, the limousine

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Questions 18–23

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

There is a green ball in a box that is lower than box 4. There is a green ball in a box that is higher than box 4. There is a red ball in a box that is lower than box 4. There is a red ball in a box that is higher than box 4. There is a white ball in a box that is lower than box 4.

22. If there are red balls in boxes 2 and 3, then which one of  the following could be true?

18. If there are exactly two white balls, then which one of the following boxes could contain a green ball?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

box 1 box 3 box 4 box 5 box 6

There is a red ball in box 1. There is a white ball in box 1. There is a green ball in box 4. There is a red ball in box 5. There is a white ball in box 6.

23. If boxes 2, 3, and 4 all contain balls that are the same color as each other, then which one of the following must be true?

19. If there are green balls in boxes 5 and 6, then which one of the following could be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

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21. Which one of the following must be true?

A street entertainer has six boxes stacked one on top of the other and numbered consecutively 1 through 6, from the lowest box up to the highest. Each box contains a single ball, and each ball is one of three colors—green, red, or white. Onlookers are to guess the color of each ball in each box, given that the following conditions hold: There are more red balls than white balls. There is a box containing a green ball that is lower in the stack than any box that contains a red ball. There is a white ball in a box that is immediately below a box that contains a green ball.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

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There are red balls in boxes 1 and 4. There are red balls in boxes 2 and 4. There is a white ball in box 1. There is a white ball in box 2. There is a white ball in box 3.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Exactly two of the boxes contain a green ball. Exactly three of the boxes contain a green ball. Exactly three of the boxes contain a red ball. Exactly one of the boxes contains a white ball. Exactly two of the boxes contain a white ball.

20. The ball in which one of the following boxes must be the same color as at least one of the other balls? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

box 2 box 3 box 4 box 5 box 6

S

T

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IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

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Section III Time—35 minutes 26 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer;  that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. 1. Commentator: In last week’s wreck involving one of Acme Engines’ older locomotives, the engineer lost control of the train when his knee accidentally struck a fuel shut-down switch. Acme claims it is not liable because it never realized that the knee-level switches were a safety hazard. When asked why it relocated knee-level switches in its newer locomotives, Acme said engineers had complained that they were simply inconvenient. However, it is unlikely that Acme would have spent the $500,000 it took to relocate switches in the newer locomotives merely because of inconvenience. Thus, Acme Engines should be held liable for last week’s wreck. The point that Acme Engines spent $500,000 relocating knee-level switches in its newer locomotives is offered in the commentator’s argument as (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

proof that the engineer is not at all responsible for the train wreck a reason for believing that the wreck would have occurred even if Acme Engines had remodeled their older locomotives an explanation of why the train wreck occurred evidence that knee-level switches are not in fact hazardous an indication that Acme Engines had been aware of the potential dangers of knee-level switches before the wreck occurred

2. Artist: Almost everyone in this country really wants to be an artist even though they may have to work other jobs to pay the rent. After all, just about everyone I know hopes to someday be able to make a living as a painter, musician, or poet even if they currently work as dishwashers or discount store clerks. The reasoning in the artist’s argument is flawed in that the argument (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

contains a premise that presupposes the truth of the conclusion presumes that what is true of each person in a country is also true of the country’s population as a whole defends a view solely on the grounds that the view is widely held bases its conclusion on a sample that is unlikely to accurately represent people in the country as a whole fails to make a needed distinction between wanting to be an artist and making a living as an artist

3. The qwerty keyboard became the standard keyboard with the invention of the typewriter and remains the standard for typing devices today. If an alternative known as the Dvorak keyboard were today’s standard, typists would type significantly faster. Nevertheless, it is not practical to switch to the Dvorak keyboard because the cost to society of switching, in terms of time, money, and frustration, would be greater than the benefits that would be ultimately gained from faster typing. The example above best illustrates which one of the following propositions? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Often it is not worthwhile to move to a process that improves speed if it comes at the expense of accuracy. People usually settle on a standard because that standard is more efficient than any alternatives. People often remain with an entrenched standard rather than move to a more efficient alternative simply because they dislike change. The emotional cost associated with change is a factor that sometimes outweighs financial considerations. The fact that a standard is already in wide use can be a crucial factor in making it a more practical choice than an alternative. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

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4. Sam: Mountain lions, a protected species, are preying on bighorn sheep, another protected species. We must let nature take its course and hope the bighorns survive.

Meli: Nonsense. We must do what we can to ensure the survival of the bighorn, even if that means limiting the mountain lion population. Which one of the following is a point of disagreement between Meli and Sam? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Humans should not intervene to protect bighorn sheep from mountain lions. The preservation of a species as a whole is more important than the loss of a few individuals. The preservation of a predatory species is easier to ensure than the preservation of the species preyed upon. Any measures to limit the mountain lion population would likely push the species to extinction. If the population of mountain lions is not limited, the bighorn sheep species will not survive.

5. Parent: Pushing very young children into rigorous study in an effort to make our nation more competitive does more harm than good. Curricula for these young students must address their special developmental needs, and while rigorous work in secondary school makes sense, the same approach in the early years of primary school produces only short-term gains and may cause young children to burn out on schoolwork. Using very young students as pawns in the race to make the nation economically competitive is unfair and may ultimately work against us. Which one of the following can be inferred from the parent’s statements? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

For our nation to be competitive, our secondary school curriculum must include more rigorous study than it now does. The developmental needs of secondary school students are not now being addressed in our high schools. Our country can be competitive only if the developmental needs of all our students can be met. A curriculum of rigorous study does not adequately address the developmental needs of primary school students. Unless our nation encourages more rigorous study in the early years of primary school, we cannot be economically competitive.

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6. A transit company’s bus drivers are evaluated by supervisors riding with each driver. Drivers complain that this affects their performance, but because the supervisor’s presence affects every driver’s performance, those drivers performing best with a supervisor aboard will likely also be the best drivers under normal conditions. Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

There is no effective way of evaluating the bus drivers’ performance without having supervisors ride with them. The supervisors are excellent judges of a bus driver’s performance. For most bus drivers, the presence of a supervisor makes their performance slightly worse than it otherwise would be. The bus drivers are each affected in roughly the same way and to the same extent by the presence of the supervisor. The bus drivers themselves are able to deliver accurate assessments of their driving performance.

7. Economic growth accelerates business demand for the development of new technologies. Businesses supplying these new technologies are relatively few, while those wishing to buy them are many. Yet an acceleration of technological change can cause suppliers as well as buyers of new technologies to fail. Which one of the following is most strongly supported by the information above? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Businesses supplying new technologies are more likely to prosper in times of accelerated technological change than other businesses. Businesses that supply new technologies may not always benefit from economic growth. The development of new technologies may accelerate economic growth in general. Businesses that adopt new technologies are most likely to prosper in a period of general economic growth. Economic growth increases business failures.

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8. Energy analyst: During this record-breaking heat wave, air conditioner use has overloaded the region’s electrical power grid, resulting in frequent power blackouts throughout the region. For this reason, residents have been asked to cut back voluntarily on air conditioner use in their homes. But even if this request is heeded, blackouts will probably occur unless the heat wave abates.

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10. Editorial: Many critics of consumerism insist that advertising persuades people that they need certain consumer goods when they merely desire them. However, this accusation rests on a fuzzy distinction, that between wants and needs. In life, it is often impossible to determine whether something is merely desirable or whether it is essential to one’s happiness.

Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent discrepancy in the information above?

Which one of the following most accurately expresses the conclusion drawn in the editorial’s argument?

(A)

(A)

(B) (C) (D) (E)

Air-conditioning is not the only significant drain on the electrical system in the area. Most air-conditioning in the region is used to cool businesses and factories. Most air-conditioning systems could be made more energy efficient by implementing simple design modifications. Residents of the region are not likely to reduce their air conditioner use voluntarily during particularly hot weather. The heat wave is expected to abate in the near future.

9. Long-term and short-term relaxation training are two common forms of treatment for individuals experiencing problematic levels of anxiety. Yet studies show that on average, regardless of which form of treatment one receives, symptoms of anxiety decrease to a normal level within the short-term-training time period. Thus, for most people the generally more expensive long-term training is unwarranted. Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the argument? (A) (B)

(C) (D) (E)

A decrease in symptoms of anxiety often occurs even with no treatment or intervention by a mental health professional. Short-term relaxation training conducted by a more experienced practitioner can be more expensive than long-term training conducted by a less experienced practitioner. Recipients of long-term training are much less likely than recipients of short-term training to have recurrences of problematic levels of anxiety. The fact that an individual thinks that a treatment will reduce his or her anxiety tends, in and of itself, to reduce the individual’s anxiety. Short-term relaxation training involves the teaching of a wider variety of anxiety-combating relaxation techniques than does long-term training.

(B) (C) (D) (E)

The claim that advertising persuades people that they need things that they merely want rests on a fuzzy distinction. Many critics of consumerism insist that advertising attempts to blur people’s ability to distinguish between wants and needs. There is nothing wrong with advertising that tries to persuade people that they need certain consumer goods. Many critics of consumerism fail to realize that certain things are essential to human happiness. Critics of consumerism often use fuzzy distinctions to support their claims.

11. People who browse the web for medical information often cannot discriminate between scientifically valid information and quackery. Much of the quackery is particularly appealing to readers with no medical background because it is usually written more clearly than scientific papers. Thus, people who rely on the web when attempting to diagnose their medical conditions are likely to do themselves more harm than good. Which one of the following is an assumption the argument requires? (A) (B)

(C)

(D) (E)

People who browse the web for medical information typically do so in an attempt to diagnose their medical conditions. People who attempt to diagnose their medical conditions are likely to do themselves more harm than good unless they rely exclusively on scientifically valid information. People who have sufficient medical knowledge to discriminate between scientifically valid information and quackery will do themselves no harm if they rely on the web when attempting to diagnose their medical conditions. Many people who browse the web assume that information is not scientifically valid unless it is clearly written. People attempting to diagnose their medical conditions will do themselves more harm than good only if they rely on quackery instead of scientifically valid information.

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12. When adults toss balls to very young children they generally try to toss them as slowly as possible to compensate for the children’s developing coordination. But recent studies show that despite their developing coordination, children actually have an easier time catching balls that are thrown at a faster speed. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to explain why very young children find it easier to catch balls that are thrown at a faster speed? (A)

(B)

(C) (D) (E)

Balls thrown at a faster speed, unlike balls thrown at a slower speed, trigger regions in the brain that control the tracking of objects for self-defense. Balls that are tossed more slowly tend to have a higher arc that makes it less likely that the ball will be obscured by the body of the adult tossing it. Adults generally find it easier to catch balls that are thrown slowly than balls that are thrown at a faster speed. Children are able to toss balls back to the adults with more accuracy when they throw fast than when they throw the ball back more slowly. There is a limit to how fast the balls can be tossed to the children before the children start to have more difficulty in catching them.

13. Like a genetic profile, a functional magnetic-resonance image (fMRI) of the brain can contain information that a patient wishes to keep private. An fMRI of a brain also contains enough information about a patient’s skull to create a recognizable image of that patient’s face. A genetic profile can be linked to a patient only by referring to labels or records. The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

It is not important that medical providers apply labels to fMRIs of patients’ brains. An fMRI has the potential to compromise patient privacy in circumstances in which a genetic profile would not. In most cases patients cannot be reasonably sure that the information in a genetic profile will be kept private. Most of the information contained in an fMRI of a person’s brain is also contained in that person’s genetic profile. Patients are more concerned about threats to privacy posed by fMRIs than they are about those posed by genetic profiles.

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14. Council member: I recommend that the abandoned shoe factory be used as a municipal emergency shelter. Some council members assert that the courthouse would be a better shelter site, but they have provided no evidence of this. Thus, the shoe factory would be a better shelter site. A questionable technique used in the council member’s argument is that of (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

asserting that a lack of evidence against a view is proof that the view is correct accepting a claim simply because advocates of an opposing claim have not adequately defended their view attacking the proponents of the courthouse rather than addressing their argument attempting to persuade its audience by appealing to their fear attacking an argument that is not held by any actual council member

15. It was misleading for James to tell the Core Curriculum Committee that the chair of the Anthropology Department had endorsed his proposal. The chair of the Anthropology Department had told James that his proposal had her endorsement, but only if the draft proposal she saw included all the recommendations James would ultimately make to the Core Curriculum Committee. The argument relies on which one of the following assumptions? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

If the chair of the Anthropology Department did not endorse James’s proposed recommendations, the Core Curriculum Committee would be unlikely to implement them. The chair of the Anthropology Department would have been opposed to any recommendations James proposed to the Core Curriculum Committee other than those she had seen. James thought that the Core Curriculum Committee would implement the proposed recommendations only if they believed that the recommendations had been endorsed by the chair of the Anthropology Department. James thought that the chair of the Anthropology Department would have endorsed all of the recommendations that he proposed to the Core Curriculum Committee. The draft proposal that the chair of the Anthropology Department had seen did not include all of the recommendations in James’s proposal to the Core Curriculum Committee.

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16. Travaillier Corporation has recently hired employees with experience in the bus tour industry, and its executives have also been negotiating with charter bus companies that subcontract with bus tour companies. But Travaillier has traditionally focused on serving consumers who travel primarily by air, and marketing surveys show that Travaillier’s traditional consumers have not changed their vacation preferences. Therefore, Travaillier must be attempting to enlarge its consumer base by attracting new customers. Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument? (A) (B) (C)

(D) (E)

In the past, Travaillier has found it very difficult to change its customers’ vacation preferences. Several travel companies other than Travaillier have recently tried and failed to expand into the bus tour business. At least one of Travaillier’s new employees not only has experience in the bus tour industry but has also designed air travel vacation packages. Some of Travaillier’s competitors have increased profits by concentrating their attention on their customers who spend the most on vacations. The industry consultants employed by Travaillier typically recommend that companies expand by introducing their current customers to new products and services.

17. Educator: Traditional classroom education is ineffective because education in such an environment is not truly a social process and only social processes can develop students’ insights. In the traditional classroom, the teacher acts from outside the group and interaction between teachers and students is rigid and artificial. The educator’s conclusion follows logically if which one of the following is assumed? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Development of insight takes place only if genuine education also occurs. Classroom education is effective if the interaction between teachers and students is neither rigid nor artificial. All social processes involve interaction that is neither rigid nor artificial. Education is not effective unless it leads to the development of insight. The teacher does not act from outside the group in a nontraditional classroom.

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18. The probability of avoiding heart disease is increased if one avoids fat in one’s diet. Furthermore, one is less likely to eat fat if one avoids eating dairy foods. Thus the probability of maintaining good health is increased by avoiding dairy foods. The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to criticism on which one of the following grounds? (A)

(B) (C)

(D) (E)

The argument ignores the possibility that, even though a practice may have potentially negative consequences, its elimination may also have negative consequences. The argument fails to consider the possibility that there are more ways than one of decreasing the risk of a certain type of occurrence. The argument presumes, without providing justification, that factors that carry increased risks of negative consequences ought to be eliminated. The argument fails to show that the evidence appealed to is relevant to the conclusion asserted. The argument fails to consider that what is probable will not necessarily occur.

19. Professor: One cannot frame an accurate conception of one’s physical environment on the basis of a single momentary perception, since each such glimpse occurs from only one particular perspective. Similarly, any history book gives only a distorted view of the past, since it reflects the biases and prejudices of its author. The professor’s argument proceeds by (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

attempting to show that one piece of reasoning is incorrect by comparing it with another, presumably flawed, piece of reasoning developing a case for one particular conclusion by arguing that if that conclusion were false, absurd consequences would follow making a case for the conclusion of one argument by showing that argument’s resemblance to another, presumably cogent, argument arguing that because something has a certain group of characteristics, it must also have another, closely related, characteristic arguing that a type of human cognition is unreliable in one instance because it has been shown to be unreliable under similar circumstances

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20. To date, most of the proposals that have been endorsed by the Citizens League have been passed by the city council. Thus, any future proposal that is endorsed by the Citizens League will probably be passed as well. The pattern of reasoning in which one of the following arguments is most similar to that in the argument above? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Most of the Vasani grants that have been awarded in previous years have gone to academic biologists. Thus, if most of the Vasani grants awarded next year are awarded to academics, most of these will probably be biologists. Most of the individual trees growing on the coastal islands in this area are deciduous. Therefore, most of the tree species on these islands are probably deciduous varieties. Most of the editors who have worked for the local newspaper have not been sympathetic to local farmers. Thus, if the newspaper hires someone who is sympathetic to local farmers, they will probably not be hired as an editor. Most of the entries that were received after the deadline for last year’s photography contest were rejected by the judges’ committee. Thus, the people whose entries were received after the deadline last year will probably send them in well before the deadline this year. Most of the stone artifacts that have been found at the archaeological site have been domestic tools. Thus, if the next artifact found at the site is made of stone, it will probably be a domestic tool.

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21. Chemist: The molecules of a certain weed-killer are always present in two forms, one the mirror image of the other. One form of the molecule kills weeds, while the other has no effect on them. As a result, the effectiveness of the weed-killer in a given situation is heavily influenced by which of the two forms is more concentrated in the soil, which in turn varies widely because local soil conditions will usually favor the breakdown of one form or the other. Thus, much of the data on the effects of this weed-killer are probably misleading. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the chemist’s argument? (A)

(B)

(C) (D)

(E)

In general, if the molecules of a weed-killer are always present in two forms, then it is likely that weeds are killed by one of those two forms but unaffected by the other. Almost all of the data on the effects of the weed-killer are drawn from laboratory studies in which both forms of the weed-killer’s molecules are equally concentrated in the soil and equally likely to break down in that soil. Of the two forms of the weed-killer’s molecules, the one that kills weeds is found in most local soil conditions to be the more concentrated form. The data on the effects of the weed-killer are drawn from studies of the weed-killer under a variety of soil conditions similar to those in which the weed-killer is normally applied. Data on the weed-killer’s effects that rely solely on the examination of the effects of only one of the two forms of the weed-killer’s molecules will almost certainly be misleading.

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22. Principle: A police officer is eligible for a Mayor’s Commendation if the officer has an exemplary record, but not otherwise; an officer eligible for the award who did something this year that exceeded what could be reasonably expected of a police officer should receive the award if the act saved someone’s life.

Conclusion: Officer Franklin should receive a Mayor’s Commendation but Officer Penn should not. From which one of the following sets of facts can the conclusion be properly drawn using the principle? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

In saving a child from drowning this year, Franklin and Penn both risked their lives beyond what could be reasonably expected of a police officer. Franklin has an exemplary record but Penn does not. Both Franklin and Penn have exemplary records, and each officer saved a child from drowning earlier this year. However, in doing so, Franklin went beyond what could be reasonably expected of a police officer; Penn did not. Neither Franklin nor Penn has an exemplary record. But, in saving the life of an accident victim, Franklin went beyond what could be reasonably expected of a police officer. In the only case in which Penn saved someone’s life this year, Penn was merely doing what could be reasonably expected of an officer under the circumstances. At least once this year, Franklin has saved a person’s life in such a way as to exceed what could be reasonably expected of a police officer. Penn has not saved anyone’s life this year. Both Franklin and Penn have exemplary records. On several occasions this year Franklin has saved people’s lives, and on many occasions this year Franklin has exceeded what could be reasonably expected of a police officer. On no occasions this year has Penn saved a person’s life or exceeded what could be reasonably expected of an officer.

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23. Essayist: It is much less difficult to live an enjoyable life if one is able to make lifestyle choices that accord with one’s personal beliefs and then see those choices accepted by others. It is possible for people to find this kind of acceptance by choosing friends and associates who share many of their personal beliefs. Thus, no one should be denied the freedom to choose the people with whom he or she will associate. Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify the essayist’s argument? (A) (B) (C) (D)

(E)

No one should be denied the freedom to make lifestyle choices that accord with his or her personal beliefs. One should associate with at least some people who share many of one’s personal beliefs. If having a given freedom could make it less difficult for someone to live an enjoyable life, then no one should be denied that freedom. No one whose enjoyment of life depends, at least in part, on friends and associates who share many of the same personal beliefs should be deliberately prevented from having such friends and associates. One may choose for oneself the people with whom one will associate, if doing so could make it easier to live an enjoyable life.

24. Physician: The rise in blood pressure that commonly accompanies aging often results from a calcium deficiency. This deficiency is frequently caused by a deficiency in the active form of vitamin D needed in order for the body to absorb calcium. Since the calcium in one glass of milk per day can easily make up for any underlying calcium deficiency, some older people can lower their blood pressure by drinking milk. The physician’s conclusion is properly drawn if which one of the following is assumed? (A)

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There is in milk, in a form that older people can generally utilize, enough of the active form of vitamin D and any other substances needed in order for the body to absorb the calcium in that milk. Milk does not contain any substance that is likely to cause increased blood pressure in older people. Older people’s drinking one glass of milk per day does not contribute to a deficiency in the active form of vitamin D needed in order for the body to absorb the calcium in that milk. People who consume high quantities of calcium together with the active form of vitamin D and any other substances needed in order for the body to absorb calcium have normal blood pressure. Anyone who has a deficiency in the active form of vitamin D also has a calcium deficiency. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

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25. Political philosopher: A just system of taxation would require each person’s contribution to correspond directly to the amount the society as a whole contributes to serve that person’s interests. For purposes of taxation, wealth is the most objective way to determine how well the society has served the interest of any individual. Therefore, each person should be taxed solely in proportion to her or his income.

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Which one of the following, if true, most helps to explain the surprising fact stated above? (A)

Cars should be taxed in proportion to the danger that they pose. The most reliable measure of this danger is the speed at which a car can travel. Therefore, cars should be taxed only in proportion to their ability to accelerate quickly. People should be granted autonomy in proportion to their maturity. A certain psychological test was designed to provide an objective measure of maturity. Therefore, those scoring above high school level on the test should be granted complete autonomy. Everyone should pay taxes solely in proportion to the benefits they receive from government. Many government programs provide subsidies for large corporations. Therefore, a just tax would require corporations to pay a greater share of their income in taxes than individual citizens pay. Individuals who confer large material benefits upon society should receive high incomes. Those with high incomes should pay correspondingly high taxes. Therefore, we as a society should place high taxes on activities that confer large benefits upon society. Justice requires that health care be given in proportion to each individual’s need. Therefore, we need to ensure that the most seriously ill hospital patients are given the highest priority for receiving care.

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26. A recent poll showed that almost half of the city’s residents believe that Mayor Walker is guilty of ethics violations. Surprisingly, however, 52 percent of those surveyed judged Walker’s performance as mayor to be good or excellent, which is no lower than it was before anyone accused him of ethics violations.

The flawed reasoning in the political philosopher’s argument is most similar to that in which one of the following? (A)

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Almost all of the people who believe that Walker is guilty of ethics violations had thought, even before he was accused of those violations, that his performance as mayor was poor. In the time since Walker was accused of ethics violations, there has been an increase in the percentage of city residents who judge the performance of Walker’s political opponents to be good or excellent. About a fifth of those polled did not know that Walker had been accused of ethics violations. Walker is currently up for reelection, and anticorruption groups in the city have expressed support for Walker’s opponent. Walker has defended himself against the accusations by arguing that the alleged ethics violations were the result of honest mistakes by his staff members.

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IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

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Section IV Time—35 minutes 27 Questions Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage or a pair of passages. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage or pair of passages. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

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In Alaska, tradition is a powerful legal concept, appearing in a wide variety of legal contexts relating to natural-resource and public-lands activities. Both state and federal laws in the United States assign privileges and exemptions to individuals engaged in “traditional” activities using otherwise off-limits land and resources. But in spite of its prevalence in statutory law, the term “tradition” is rarely defined. Instead, there seems to be a presumption that its meaning is obvious. Failure to define “tradition” clearly in written law has given rise to problematic and inconsistent legal results. One of the most prevalent ideas associated with the term “tradition” in the law is that tradition is based on long-standing practice, where “long-standing” refers not only to the passage of time but also to the continuity and regularity of a practice. But two recent court cases involving indigenous use of sea otter pelts illustrate the problems that can arise in the application of this sense of “traditional.” The hunting of sea otters was initially prohibited by the Fur Seal Treaty of 1910. The Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA) of 1972 continued the prohibition, but it also included an Alaska Native exemption, which allowed takings of protected animals for use in creating authentic native articles by means of “traditional native handicrafts.” The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) subsequently issued regulations defining authentic native articles as those “commonly produced” before 1972, when the MMPA took effect. Not covered by the exemption, according to the FWS, were items produced from sea otter pelts, because Alaska Natives had not produced such handicrafts “within living memory.” In 1986, FWS agents seized articles of clothing made from sea otter pelts from Marina Katelnikoff, an Aleut. She sued, but the district court upheld the FWS regulations. Then in 1991 Katelnikoff joined a similar suit brought by Boyd Dickinson, a Tlingit from whom articles of clothing made from sea otter pelts had also been seized. After hearing testimony establishing that Alaska Natives had made many uses of sea otters before the occupation of the territory by Russia in the late 1700s, the court reconsidered what constituted a traditional item under the statute. The court now held that the FWS’s regulations were based on a “strained interpretation” of the word “traditional,” and that the reference to “living memory” imposed an excessively restrictive time frame. The court stated, “The fact that Alaskan natives were prevented, by circumstances beyond their control, from exercising a tradition for a

given period of time does not mean that it has been lost forever or that it has become any less a ‘tradition.’ It defies common sense to define ‘traditional’ in such (55) a way that only those traditions that were exercised during a comparatively short period in history could qualify as ‘traditional.’” 1. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage? (A)

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Two cases involving the use of sea otter pelts by Alaska Natives illustrate the difficulties surrounding the application of the legal concept of tradition in Alaska. Two court decisions have challenged the notion that for an activity to be considered “traditional,” it must be shown to be a long-standing activity that has been regularly and continually practiced. Two court cases involving the use of sea otter pelts by Alaska Natives exemplify the wave of lawsuits that are now occurring in response to changes in natural-resource and public-lands regulations. Definitions of certain legal terms long taken for granted are being reviewed in light of new evidence that has come from historical sources relating to Alaska Native culture. Alaskan state laws and U.S. federal laws are being challenged by Alaska Natives because the laws are not sufficiently sensitive to indigenous peoples’ concerns.

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2. The court in the 1991 case referred to the FWS’s interpretation of the term “traditional” as “strained” (line 46) because, in the court’s view, the interpretation (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

ignored the ways in which Alaska Natives have historically understood the term “traditional” was not consonant with any dictionary definition of “traditional” was inconsistent with what the term “traditional” is normally understood to mean led the FWS to use the word “traditional” to describe a practice that should not have been described as such failed to specify which handicrafts qualified to be designated as “traditional”

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(C) (D) (E)

a narrow interpretation of the term “long-standing” a common-sense interpretation of the phrase “within living memory” strict adherence to the intent of FWS regulations a new interpretation of the Fur Seal Treaty of 1910 testimony establishing certain historical facts

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

reflects a compromise between the competing concerns surrounding the issue at hand emphasizes the continuity and regularity of practices to which the term is applied reflects the term’s usage in everyday discourse encourages the term’s application to recently developed, as well as age-old, activities reflects the concerns of the people engaging in what they consider to be traditional activities

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establish the earliest point in time at which fur seals were considered to be on the brink of extinction indicate that several animals in addition to sea otters were covered by various regulatory exemptions issued over the years demonstrate that there is a well-known legal precedent for prohibiting the hunting of protected animals suggest that the sea otter population was imperiled by Russian seal hunters and not by Alaska Natives help explain the evolution of Alaska Natives’ legal rights with respect to handicrafts defined as “traditional”

7. The ruling in the 1991 case would be most relevant as a precedent for deciding in a future case that which one of the following is a “traditional” Alaska Native handicraft? (A) (B)

4. The passage most strongly suggests that the court in the 1986 case believed that “traditional” should be defined in a way that

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6. The author’s reference to the Fur Seal Treaty (line 22) primarily serves to

3. According to the passage, the court’s decision in the 1991 case was based on which one of the following? (A) (B)

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(C)

(D) (E)

A handicraft no longer practiced but shown by archaeological evidence to have been common among indigenous peoples several millennia ago A handicraft that commonly involves taking the pelts of more than one species that has been designated as endangered A handicraft that was once common but was discontinued when herd animals necessary for its practice abandoned their local habitat due to industrial development A handicraft about which only a very few indigenous craftspeople were historically in possession of any knowledge A handicraft about which young Alaska Natives know little because, while it was once common, few elder Alaska Natives still practice it

5. Which one of the following is most strongly suggested by the passage? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Between 1910 and 1972, Alaska Natives were prohibited from hunting sea otters. Traditional items made from sea otter pelts were specifically mentioned in the Alaska Native exemption of the MMPA. In the late 1700s, Russian hunters pressured the Russian government to bar Alaska Natives from hunting sea otters. By 1972, the sea otter population in Alaska had returned to the levels at which it had been prior to the late 1700s. Prior to the late 1700s, sea otters were the marine animal most often hunted by Alaska Natives.

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The literary development of Kate Chopin, author of The Awakening (1899), took her through several phases of nineteenth-century women’s fiction. Born in 1850, Chopin grew up with the sentimental novels that formed the bulk of the fiction of the mid–nineteenth century. In these works, authors employed elevated, romantic language to portray female characters whose sole concern was to establish their social positions through courtship and marriage. Later, when she started writing her own fiction, Chopin took as her models the works of a group of women writers known as the local colorists. After 1865, what had traditionally been regarded as “women’s culture” began to dissolve as women entered higher education, the professions, and the political world in greater numbers. The local colorists, who published stories about regional life in the 1870s and 1880s, were attracted to the new worlds opening up to women, and felt free to move within these worlds as artists. Like anthropologists, the local colorists observed culture and character with almost scientific detachment. However, as “women’s culture” continued to disappear, the local colorists began to mourn its demise by investing its images with mythic significance. In their stories, the garden became a paradisal sanctuary; the house became an emblem of female nurturing; and the artifacts of domesticity became virtual totemic objects. Unlike the local colorists, Chopin devoted herself to telling stories of loneliness, isolation, and frustration. But she used the conventions of the local colorists to solve a specific narrative problem: how to deal with extreme psychological states without resorting to the excesses of the sentimental novels she read as a youth. By reporting narrative events as if they were part of a region’s “local color,” Chopin could tell rather shocking or even melodramatic tales in an uninflected manner. Chopin did not share the local colorists’ growing nostalgia for the past, however, and by the 1890s she was looking beyond them to the more ambitious models offered by a movement known as the New Women. In the form as well as the content of their work, the New Women writers pursued freedom and innovation. They modified the form of the sentimental novel to make room for interludes of fantasy and parable, especially episodes in which women dream of an entirely different world than the one they inhabit. Instead of the crisply plotted short stories that had been the primary genre of the local colorists, the New Women writers experimented with impressionistic methods in an effort to explore hitherto unrecorded aspects of female consciousness. In The Awakening, Chopin embraced this impressionistic approach more fully to produce 39 numbered sections of uneven length unified less by their style or content than by their sustained focus on faithfully rendering the workings of the protagonist’s mind.

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8. Which one of the following statements most accurately summarizes the content of the passage? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Although Chopin drew a great deal of the material for The Awakening from the concerns of the New Women, she adapted them, using the techniques of the local colorists, to recapture the atmosphere of the novels she had read in her youth. Avoiding the sentimental excesses of novels she read in her youth, and influenced first by the conventions of the local colorists and then by the innovative methods of the New Women, Chopin developed the literary style she used in The Awakening. With its stylistic shifts, variety of content, and attention to the internal psychology of its characters, Chopin’s The Awakening was unlike any work of fiction written during the nineteenth century. In The Awakening, Chopin rebelled against the stylistic restraint of the local colorists, choosing instead to tell her story in elevated, romantic language that would more accurately convey her protagonist’s loneliness and frustration. Because she felt a kinship with the subject matter but not the stylistic conventions of the local colorists, Chopin turned to the New Women as models for the style she was struggling to develop in The Awakening.

9. With which one of the following statements about the local colorists would Chopin have been most likely to agree? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Their idealization of settings and objects formerly associated with “women’s culture” was misguided. Their tendency to observe character dispassionately caused their fiction to have little emotional impact. Their chief contribution to literature lay in their status as inspiration for the New Women. Their focus on regional life prevented them from addressing the new realms opening up to women. Their conventions prevented them from portraying extreme psychological states with scientific detachment.

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10. According to the passage, which one of the following conventions did Chopin adopt from other nineteenthcentury women writers? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

elevated, romantic language mythic images of “women’s culture” detached narrative stance strong plot lines lonely, isolated protagonists

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(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

domestic experiences regional customs artistic productions educational achievements political activities

12. The author of the passage describes the sentimental novels of the mid–nineteenth century in lines 3–9 primarily in order to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

argue that Chopin’s style represents an attempt to mimic these novels explain why Chopin later rejected the work of the local colorists establish the background against which Chopin’s fiction developed illustrate the excesses to which Chopin believed nostalgic tendencies would lead prove that women’s literature was already flourishing by the time Chopin began to write

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14. The primary purpose of the passage is to (A) (B) (C) (D)

11. As it is used by the author in line 14 of the passage, “women’s culture” most probably refers to a culture that was expressed primarily through women’s

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(E)

educate readers of The Awakening about aspects of Chopin’s life that are reflected in the novel discuss the relationship between Chopin’s artistic development and changes in nineteenthcentury women’s fiction trace the evolution of nineteenth-century women’s fiction using Chopin as a typical example counter a claim that Chopin’s fiction was influenced by external social circumstances weigh the value of Chopin’s novels and stories against those of other writers of her time

15. The work of the New Women, as it is characterized in the passage, gives the most support for which one of the following generalizations? (A)

(B) (C) (D) (E)

Works of fiction written in a passionate, engaged style are more apt to effect changes in social customs than are works written in a scientific, detached style. Even writers who advocate social change can end up regretting the change once it has occurred. Changes in social customs inevitably lead to changes in literary techniques as writers attempt to make sense of the new social realities. Innovations in fictional technique grow out of writers’ attempts to describe aspects of reality that have been neglected in previous works. Writers can most accurately depict extreme psychological states by using an uninflected manner.

13. The passage suggests that one of the differences between The Awakening and the work of the New Women was that The Awakening (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

attempted to explore aspects of female consciousness described the dream world of female characters employed impressionism more consistently throughout relied more on fantasy to suggest psychological states displayed greater unity of style and content

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Until the 1950s, most scientists believed that the geology of the ocean floor had remained essentially unchanged for many millions of years. But this idea became insupportable as new discoveries were made. First, scientists noticed that the ocean floor exhibited odd magnetic variations. Though unexpected, this was not entirely surprising, because it was known that basalt—the volcanic rock making up much of the ocean floor—contains magnetite, a strongly magnetic mineral that was already known to locally distort compass readings on land. This distortion is due to the fact that although some basalt has so-called “normal” polarity—that is, the magnetite in it has the same polarity as the earth’s present magnetic field—other basalt has reversed polarity, an alignment opposite that of the present field. This occurs because in magma (molten rock), grains of magnetite—behaving like little compass needles—align themselves with the earth’s magnetic field, which has reversed at various times throughout history. When magma cools to form solid basalt, the alignment of the magnetite grains is “locked in,” recording the earth’s polarity at the time of cooling. As more of the ocean floor was mapped, the magnetic variations revealed recognizable patterns, particularly in the area around the other great oceanic discovery of the 1950s: the global mid-ocean ridge, an immense submarine mountain range that winds its way around the earth much like the seams of a baseball. Alternating stripes of rock with differing polarities are laid out in rows on either side of the mid-ocean ridge: one stripe with normal polarity and the next with reversed polarity. Scientists theorized that mid-ocean ridges mark structurally weak zones where the ocean floor is being pulled apart along the ridge crest. New magma from deep within the earth rises easily through these weak zones and eventually erupts along the crest of the ridges to create new oceanic crust. Over millions of years, this process, called ocean floor spreading, built the mid-ocean ridge. This theory was supported by several lines of evidence. First, at or near the ridge crest, the rocks are very young, and they become progressively older away from the crest. Further, the youngest rocks all have normal polarity. Finally, because geophysicists had already determined the ages of continental volcanic rocks and, by measuring the magnetic orientation of these same rocks, had assigned ages to the earth’s recent magnetic reversals, they were able to compare these known ages of magnetic reversals with the ocean floor’s magnetic striping pattern, enabling scientists to show that, if we assume that the ocean floor moved away from the spreading center at a rate of several centimeters per year, there is a remarkable correlation between the ages of the earth’s magnetic reversals and the striping pattern.

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16. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main idea of the passage? (A) (B)

(C) (D)

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In the 1950s, scientists refined their theories concerning the process by which the ocean floor was formed many millions of years ago. The discovery of basalt’s magnetic properties in the 1950s led scientists to formulate a new theory to account for the magnetic striping on the ocean floor. In the 1950s, two significant discoveries led to the transformation of scientific views about the geology of the oceans. Local distortions to compass readings are caused, scientists have discovered, by magma that rises through weak zones in the ocean floor to create new oceanic crust. The discovery of the ocean floor’s magnetic variations convinced scientists of the need to map the entire ocean floor, which in turn led to the discovery of the global mid-ocean ridge.

17. The author characterizes the correlation mentioned in the last sentence of the passage as “remarkable” in order to suggest that the correlation (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

indicates that ocean floor spreading occurs at an extremely slow rate explains the existence of the global mid-ocean ridge demonstrates that the earth’s magnetic field is considerably stronger than previously believed provides strong confirmation of the ocean floor spreading theory reveals that the earth’s magnetic reversals have occurred at very regular intervals

18. According to the passage, which one of the following is true of magnetite grains? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

In the youngest basalt, they are aligned with the earth’s current polarity. In magma, most but not all of them align themselves with the earth’s magnetic field. They are not found in other types of rock besides basalt. They are about the size of typical grains of sand. They are too small to be visible to the naked eye.

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19. If the time intervals between the earth’s magnetic field reversals fluctuate greatly, then, based on the passage, which one of the following is most likely to be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Compass readings are most likely to be distorted near the peaks of the mid-ocean ridge. It is this fluctuation that causes the ridge to wind around the earth like the seams on a baseball. Some of the magnetic stripes of basalt on the ocean floor are much wider than others. Continental rock is a more reliable indicator of the earth’s magnetic field reversals than is oceanic rock. Within any given magnetic stripe on the ocean floor, the age of the basalt does not vary.

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21. Which one of the following is most strongly supported by the passage? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Submarine basalt found near the continents is likely to be some of the oldest rock on the ocean floor. The older a sample of basalt is, the more times it has reversed its polarity. Compass readings are more likely to become distorted at sea than on land. The magnetic fields surrounding magnetite grains gradually weaken over millions of years on the ocean floor. Any rock that exhibits present-day magnetic polarity was formed after the latest reversal of the earth’s magnetic field.

20. Which one of the following would, if true, most help to support the ocean floor spreading theory? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

There are types of rock other than basalt that are known to distort compass readings. The ages of the earth’s magnetic reversals have been verified by means other than examining magnetite grains in rock. Pieces of basalt similar to the type found on the mid-ocean ridge have been found on the continents. Along its length, the peak of the mid-ocean ridge varies greatly in height above the ocean floor. Basalt is the only type of volcanic rock found in portions of the ocean floor nearest to the continents.

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Passage A Central to the historian’s profession and scholarship has been the ideal of objectivity. The assumptions upon which this ideal rests include a commitment to the reality of the past, a sharp separation (5) between fact and value, and above all, a distinction between history and fiction. According to this ideal, historical facts are prior to and independent of interpretation: the value of an interpretation should be judged by how well it accounts (10) for the facts; if an interpretation is contradicted by facts, it should be abandoned. The fact that successive generations of historians have ascribed different meanings to past events does not mean, as relativist historians claim, that the events themselves lack fixed (15) or absolute meanings. Objective historians see their role as that of a neutral judge, one who must never become an advocate or, worse, propagandist. Their conclusions should display the judicial qualities of balance and (20) evenhandedness. As with the judiciary, these qualities require insulation from political considerations, and avoidance of partisanship or bias. Thus objective historians must purge themselves of external loyalties; their primary allegiance is to objective historical truth (25) and to colleagues who share a commitment to its discovery. Passage B The very possibility of historical scholarship as an enterprise distinct from propaganda requires of its practitioners that self-discipline that enables them to (30) do such things as abandon wishful thinking, assimilate bad news, and discard pleasing interpretations that fail elementary tests of evidence and logic. Yet objectivity, for the historian, should not be confused with neutrality. Objectivity is perfectly (35) compatible with strong political commitment. The objective thinker does not value detachment as an end in itself but only as an indispensable means of achieving deeper understanding. In historical scholarship, the ideal of objectivity is most compellingly embodied in (40) the powerful argument—one that reveals by its every twist and turn its respectful appreciation of the alternative arguments it rejects. Such a text attains power precisely because its author has managed to suspend momentarily his or her own perceptions so as (45) to anticipate and take into account objections and alternative constructions—not those of straw men, but those that truly issue from the rival’s position, understood as sensitively and stated as eloquently as the rival could desire. To mount a telling attack on a (50) position, one must first inhabit it. Those so habituated to their customary intellectual abode that they cannot even explore others can never be persuasive to anyone but fellow habitués. Such arguments are often more faithful to the (55) complexity of historical interpretation—more faithful even to the irreducible plurality of human perspectives— than texts that abjure position-taking altogether. The powerful argument is the highest fruit of the kind of thinking I would call objective, and in it neutrality

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(60) plays no part. Authentic objectivity bears no resemblance to the television newscaster’s mechanical gesture of allocating the same number of seconds to both sides of a question, editorially splitting the difference between them, irrespective of their perceived merits. 22. Both passages are concerned with answering which one of the following questions? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

What are the most serious flaws found in recent historical scholarship? What must historians do in order to avoid bias in their scholarship? How did the ideal of objectivity first develop? Is the scholarship produced by relativist historians sound? Why do the prevailing interpretations of past events change from one era to the next?

23. Both passages identify which one of the following as a requirement for historical research? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

the historian’s willingness to borrow methods of analysis from other disciplines when evaluating evidence the historian’s willingness to employ methodologies favored by proponents of competing views when evaluating evidence the historian’s willingness to relinquish favored interpretations in light of the discovery of facts inconsistent with them the historian’s willingness to answer in detail all possible objections that might be made against his or her interpretation the historian’s willingness to accord respectful consideration to rival interpretations

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24. The author of passage B and the kind of objective historian described in passage A would be most likely to disagree over whether (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

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detachment aids the historian in achieving an objective view of past events an objective historical account can include a strong political commitment historians today are less objective than they were previously propaganda is an essential tool of historical scholarship historians of different eras have arrived at differing interpretations of the same historical events

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refute a claim made by proponents of a rival approach to historical scholarship suggest that scholars in fields other than history tend to be more biased than historians point to a type of scholarship that has recently been discredited identify one extreme to which historians may tend draw contrasts with other kinds of persuasive writing

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Objectivity is a goal that few historians can claim to achieve. Objectivity is essential to the practice of historical scholarship. Objectivity cannot be achieved unless historians set aside political allegiances. Historians are not good judges of their own objectivity. Historians who value objectivity are becoming less common.

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26. Both passages mention propaganda primarily in order to

25. Which one of the following most accurately describes an attitude toward objectivity present in each passage? (A)

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citing historical scholarship that fails to achieve objectivity showing how certain recent developments in historical scholarship have undermined the credibility of the profession summarizing opposing arguments in order to point out their flaws suggesting that historians should adopt standards used by professionals in certain other fields identifying what are seen as obstacles to achieving objectivity

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Acknowledgment is made to the following sources from which material has been adapted for use in this test booklet: W. Jacquelyne Kious and Robert I. Tilling, This Dynamic Earth: The Story of Plate Tectonics. ©1996 by the United States Geological Survey. “Open Your Mind.” ©2002 by The Economist Newspaper Limited. Elaine Showalter, Sister’s Choice: Tradition and Change in American Women’s Writing. ©1991 by Elaine Showalter. Jennifer L. Tomsen, “‘Traditional’ Resource Uses and Activities: Articulating Values and Examining Conflicts in Alaska.” ©2002 by Alaska Law Review.

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Wait for the supervisor’s instructions before you open the page to the topic. Please print and sign your name and write the date in the designated spaces below.

Time: 35 Minutes General Directions

You will have 35 minutes in which to plan and write an essay on the topic inside. Read the topic and the accompanying directions carefully. You will probably find it best to spend a few minutes considering the topic and organizing your thoughts before you begin writing. In your essay, be sure to develop your ideas fully, leaving time, if possible, to review what you have written. Do not write on a topic other than the one specified. Writing on a topic of your own choice is not acceptable. No special knowledge is required or expected for this writing exercise. Law schools are interested in the reasoning, clarity, organization, language usage, and writing mechanics displayed in your essay. How well you write is more important than how much you write. Confine your essay to the blocked, lined area on the front and back of the separate Writing Sample Response Sheet. Only that area will be reproduced for law schools. Be sure that your writing is legible.

Both this topic sheet and your response sheet must be turned over to the testing staff before you leave the room. Topic Code –––––––––––––

Print Your Full Name Here Last

Date

/

First

Sign Your Name Here

/

Scratch Paper

Do not write your essay in this space.

M.I.

–32–

LSAT Writing Sample Topic

Directions: The scenario presented below describes two choices, either one of which can be supported on the basis of the information given. Your essay should consider both choices and argue for one over the other, based on the two specified criteria and the facts provided. There is no “right” or “wrong” choice: a reasonable argument can be made for either. The biggest newspaper in a large market is deciding whether to continue to write all of its local stories in-house or to contract out much of this work off-site to local freelancers. The largest section of the newspaper is devoted to local coverage. Using the facts below, write an essay in which you argue for one choice over the other based on the following two criteria: • The newspaper wants to maximize the quality of its local coverage. • The newspaper wants to minimize the costs of producing local stories. Writing all local stories in-house requires maintaining an extensive staff for this purpose. This involves expenditures for salaries, benefits, and overhead. Staff must also be reimbursed for employee business expenses associated with gathering stories. The day-to-day management of personnel frictions in a sizable staff can be challenging. Training and communicating with in-house staff is direct. This allows for the effective adoption and maintenance of strict standards. Different approaches and innovation tend to be discouraged. Contracting out much of the responsibility for local coverage would tend to encourage different approaches and innovation. It would free up some staff time for potentially more rewarding work such as conducting in-depth investigations of local concerns. The only compensation for the freelancers contracted for local coverage would be a fixed amount for each accepted story, depending on its length after editing by in-house staff. There would be a high turnover of these freelancers. Their loyalty to the company would be relatively low. Hiring replacements would require staff time. Training and communicating with freelancers would be relatively difficult. This includes efforts to inculcate and enforce strict standards.

Scratch Paper

Do not write your essay in this space.

–33–

Last Name (Print) mi first Name (Print) Signature

Writing Sample Response Sheet

do not write in this space Begin your essay in the lined area below. Continue on the back if you need more space.

–34–

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Computing Your Score Directions: 1. Use the Answer Key on the next page to check your answers. 2. Use the Scoring Worksheet below to compute your raw score. 3. Use the Score Conversion Chart to convert your raw score into the 120–180 scale.

Scoring Worksheet 1. Enter the number of questions you answered correctly in each section. Number Correct Section I . . . . . . . . Section II . . . . . . . . Section III . . . . . . . Section IV . . . . . . . 2. Enter the sum here:  This is your Raw Score.

Conversion Chart For Converting Raw Score to the 120–180 LSAT Scaled Score LSAT PrepTest 63 Reported Score 180 179 178 177 176 175 174 173 172 171 170 169 168 167 166 165 164 163 162 161 160 159 158 157 156 155 154 153 152 151 150 149 148 147 146 145 144 143 142 141 140 139 138 137 136 135 134 133 132 131 130 129 128 127 126 125 124 123 122 121 120



Lowest 100 99 98 97 —* 96 95 94 93 92 90 89 88 86 85 83 82 80 78 77 75 73 71 69 67 66 64 62 60 58 56 54 53 51 49 47 46 44 42 41 39 38 36 35 33 32 30 29 28 27 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 —* 17 0

Raw Score

Highest 101 99 98 97 —* 96 95 94 93 92 91 89 88 87 85 84 82 81 79 77 76 74 72 70 68 66 65 63 61 59 57 55 53 52 50 48 46 45 43 41 40 38 37 35 34 32 31 29 28 27 26 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 —* 17 16

*There is no raw score that will produce this scaled score for this test.

–36–

Answer Key

Section I 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

C B C D B A B

  8.   9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

E D A D B D D

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

C D C E C B E

22. 23. 24. 25.

B B E A

A B B B C E A

22. C 23. D

E E D A C E B

22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

A C A A A

D C D A C B A

22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

B C B B D E

Section II 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

E B A C E B D

  8.   9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

C D A B E C E

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

Section III 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

E D E A D D B

  8.   9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

B C A B A B B

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

Section IV 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

A C E B A E C

  8.   9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

B A C A C C B

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

1-800-KAP-TEST | kaptest.com

*LSAT is a registered trademark of the Law School Admission Council.

LSAT

*

PrepTest 64 Test ID: LL3064

A complete version of the Preptest 64 has been reproduced with the permission of Law School Admission Council, Inc. PrepTest 64 ©2011 Law School Admission Council, Inc. All actual LSAT questions printed within this work are used with the permission of Law School Admission Council, Inc., Box 2000, Newton, PA 18940, the copyright owner. LSAC does not review or endorse specific test preparation materials or services, and inclusion of licensed LSAT questions within this work does not imply the review or endorsement of Law Services.

© 2011 Kaplan, Inc. All rights reserved. No part of this book may be reproduced in any form, by photostat, microfilm, xerography, or any other means, or incorporated into any information retrieval system, electronic or mechanical, without the written permission of Kaplan, Inc.



Logical Reasoning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION I



Analytical Reasoning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION II



Logical Reasoning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION III



Reading Comprehension . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION IV



Writing Sample Materials

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SECTION I Time—35 minutes 25 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer;  that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. 1. Sometimes it is advisable for a medical patient to seek a second opinion. But this process can be awkward for both the patient and the physicians, since the patient often worries that the first physician will be alienated. In addition, for the first physician there is the issue of pride: a second opinion tacitly highlights a physician’s fallibility. And the second physician is in the position of evaluating not only a patient’s health, but also, inevitably and uncomfortably, a colleague’s work. Which one of the following most accurately states the conclusion of the argument as a whole? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Because of the awkwardness involved, it is best for patients not to seek second opinions unless it is absolutely necessary. In cases in which second opinions are necessary, the first physician often feels that his or her professional judgment is called into question. The process of obtaining a second medical opinion can be awkward for those involved. Physicians who are called upon to offer second opinions are always uncomfortable about evaluating the work of colleagues. In many cases in which medical patients seek second opinions, they are concerned about offending the first physician.

2. There are 70 to 100 Florida panthers alive today. This represents a very large increase over their numbers in the 1970s, but their population must reach at least 250 if it is to be self-sustaining. Their current habitat is not large enough to support any more of these animals, however. If the statements above are true, which one of the following must also be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Some part of the panthers’ current habitat is only of marginal quality. If the population of Florida panthers ever exceeds 250, it will be self-sustaining. Unless Florida panthers acquire a larger habitat, their population will not be self-sustaining. The population of Florida panthers will never increase much beyond its current level. Today, Florida panthers occupy a larger habitat than they did in the 1970s.

3. Political scientist: Efforts to create a more egalitarian society are often wrongly criticized on the grounds that total equality would necessarily force everyone into a common mold. Equality is presumed by such critics to require unacceptably bland uniformity. But this is not so. By promoting complementary human interests, a society can achieve a greater and more prosperous equality while enhancing rather than minimizing diversity. The political scientist’s argument proceeds by (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

undermining a view by showing that its general acceptance would lead to undesirable consequences rebutting an objection by attacking the assumption on which it is said to be based attacking a view by claiming that those who propose it are motivated only by self-interest claiming that whatever is true of a group must be true of each of the members of the group undermining an apparent counterexample to a universal claim

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4. Physician: In an experiment, 50 patients with chronic back pain were divided into two groups. Small magnets were applied to the backs of one group; the other group received no treatment. Most of the patients in the first group, but very few in the second group, reported a significant reduction in pain. This shows that magnetic fields are probably effective at relieving some back pain. Which one of the following, if true, constitutes the logically strongest counter to the physician’s argument? (A) (B) (C) (D)

(E)

A patient’s merely knowing that a treatment has been applied can lead to improvement in his or her condition. Most physicians believe that medication relieves chronic back pain more effectively than magnets do. No other experiments have been done showing that magnetic fields reduce pain in any area other than the back. Some of the scientists who helped design the experiment believed even before the experiment that magnetic fields relieve back pain, but they were not directly involved in conducting the experiment. There was wide variation in the specific causes of the chronic back pain suffered by the patients in the experiment.

5. Kennel club members who frequently discipline their dogs report a higher incidence of misbehavior than do members who rarely or never discipline their dogs. We can conclude from this that discipline does not improve dogs’ behavior; on the contrary, it encourages misbehavior. The argument is flawed in that it fails to consider the possibility that (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

dogs’ misbehavior is the cause of, rather than the result of, frequent discipline dogs learn from past experience how their owners are likely to react to misbehavior discipline does not cause misbehavior on the part of animals other than dogs kennel club members tend to be more skilled at raising dogs than are other dog owners kennel club members are more likely to use discipline than are other dog owners

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6. The number of tornadoes recorded annually in North America has more than tripled since 1953. Yet meteorologists insist that the climatic factors affecting the creation of tornadoes are unchanged. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent discrepancy described above? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The factors affecting the creation of tornadoes were not well known to meteorologists before 1953. The intensity of the average tornado is greater now than it was in 1953. The number of tornadoes recorded annually has increased only slightly in the last five years. The amount of property damage done by tornadoes has grown substantially since 1953. Many more citizens are helping authorities detect tornadoes now than in 1953.

7. Recently, a report commissioned by a confectioners trade association noted that chocolate, formerly considered a health scourge, is an effective antioxidant and so has health benefits. Another earlier claim was that oily foods clog arteries, leading to heart disease, yet reports now state that olive oil has a positive influence on the circulatory system. From these examples, it is clear that if you wait long enough, almost any food will be reported to be healthful. The reasoning in the argument is flawed in that the argument (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

relies on the truth of a claim by a source that is likely to be biased applies a general rule to specific cases to which it does not pertain bases an overly broad generalization on just a few instances takes for granted that all results of nutritional research are eventually reported fails to consider that there are many foods that are reported to be unhealthful

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8. According to the “bottom-up” theory of how ecosystems are structured, the availability of edible plants is what primarily determines an ecosystem’s characteristics since it determines how many herbivores the ecosystem can support, which in turn determines how many predators it can support. This theory also holds that a reduction in the number of predators will have little impact on the rest of the ecosystem. Which one of the following, if true, would provide evidence against the bottom-up theory? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

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In an effort to build up the population of a rare species of monkey on Vahique Island, monkeys were bred in zoos and released into the wild. However, the effort failed because the trees on which the monkeys fed were also nearly extinct. After hunting virtually eliminated predators on Rigu Island, the population of many herbivore species increased more than tenfold, causing the density of plants to be dramatically reduced. After many of the trees on Jaevix Island were cleared, the island’s leaf-cutter ants, which require a forested ecosystem, experienced a substantial decrease in population, as did the island’s anteaters. After a new species of fern was introduced to Lisdok Island, native ferns were almost eliminated. However, this did not affect the population of the herbivores that had eaten the native ferns, since they also thrived on a diet of the new fern. Plants that are a dietary staple of wild pigs on Sedif Island have flourished over the last three decades, and the population of the pigs has not changed much in spite of extensive hunting.

9. If a child is to develop healthy bones, the child’s diet must include sufficient calcium. It therefore follows that the diets of children who do not develop healthy bones do not include sufficient calcium. Flawed reasoning in which one of the following most closely parallels the flawed reasoning in the argument above? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

If bread is to have a firm crust, it must be baked at the right temperature. It therefore follows that bread that is not baked at the right temperature will not have a firm crust. A cake must contain the right amount of flour in order to taste good. It therefore follows that cakes that do not taste good do not contain the right amount of flour. The Bake-a-Thon, which is open to contestants of all ages, has never been won by a person under the age of 30. It therefore follows that the winner of this year’s Bake-a-Thon will not be under the age of 30. Both yeast and baking powder can cause sweet rolls to rise. It therefore follows that yeast can always be substituted for baking powder in a recipe for sweet rolls. In recipe contests, there are always more contestants in the pie category than there are in the cake category. It therefore follows that contestants generally have a better chance of winning in the cake category than in the pie category.

10. History provides many examples of technological innovations being strongly resisted by people whose working conditions without those innovations were miserable. This shows that social inertia is a more powerful determinant of human behavior than is the desire for comfort or safety. Which one of the following, if true, most seriously undermines the reasoning in the argument? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

People correctly believe that technological innovations often cause job loss. People are often reluctant to take on new challenges. Some examples of technological innovation have been embraced by workers. People tend to adapt easily to gradually implemented technological innovations. People correctly believe that technological innovations almost always increase workers’ productivity.

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11. In considering the fact that many people believe that promotions are often given to undeserving employees because the employees successfully flatter their supervisors, a psychologist argued that although many people who flatter their supervisors are subsequently promoted, flattery generally is not the reason for their success, because almost all flattery is so blatant that it is obvious even to those toward whom it is directed. Which one of the following, if assumed, enables the psychologist’s conclusion to be properly drawn? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

People in positions of responsibility expect to be flattered. Official guidelines for granting promotion tend to focus on merit. Flattery that is not noticed by the person being flattered is ineffective. Many people interpret insincere flattery as sincere admiration. Supervisors are almost never influenced by flattery when they notice it.

12. The government is being urged to prevent organizations devoted to certain views on human nutrition from advocating a diet that includes large portions of uncooked meat, because eating uncooked meat can be very dangerous. However, this purported fact does not justify the government’s silencing the groups, for surely the government would not be justified in silencing a purely political group merely on the grounds that the policies the group advocates could be harmful to some members of society. The same should be true for silencing groups with certain views on human nutrition. Which one of the following principles most helps to justify the reasoning in the argument? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The government should not silence any group for advocating a position that a significant proportion of society believes to be beneficial. The government ought to do whatever is in the best interest of society. One ought to advocate a position only if one believes that it is true or would be beneficial. The government ought not to silence an opinion merely on the grounds that it could be harmful to disseminate the opinion. One ought to urge the government to do only those things the government is justified in doing.

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13. Medical researcher: Scientists compared a large group of joggers who habitually stretch before jogging to an equal number of joggers who do not stretch before jogging. Both groups of joggers incurred roughly the same number of injuries. This indicates that stretching before jogging does not help to prevent injuries. Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the medical researcher’s argument? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D) (E)

For both groups of joggers compared by the scientists, the rate of jogging injuries during the study was lower than the overall rate of jogging injuries. Among the joggers in the groups compared by the scientists, many of those previously injured while jogging experienced difficulty in their efforts to perform stretches. Most jogging injuries result from falls, collisions, and other mishaps on which the flexibility resulting from stretching would have little if any effect. The more prone a jogger is to jogging injuries, the more likely he or she is to develop the habit of performing stretches before jogging. Studies have found that, for certain forms of exercise, stretching beforehand can reduce the severity of injuries resulting from that exercise.

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14. Superconductor development will enable energy to be transported farther with less energy lost in transit. This will probably improve industrial productivity, for a similar improvement resulted when oil and natural gas replaced coal as the primary fossil fuels used in North America. Shipping costs, a function of the distance fossil fuels are shipped and the losses of material in transit, decreased for factory owners at that time. The claim that superconductor development will probably improve industrial productivity plays which one of the following roles in the argument? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D) (E)

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It is a conclusion for which the claim that shipping costs for fossil fuels are partly a function of the losses of material in transit is offered as partial support. It is a generalization for which the claim that superconductor development will enable energy to be transported farther with less energy lost in transit is offered as an illustration. It is an assumption supporting the conclusion that superconductor development will enable energy to be transported farther with less energy lost in transit. It is a premise offered to support the claim that oil and natural gas have replaced coal as the primary fossil fuels used in North America. It is cited as evidence that shipping costs are a function of the distances fossil fuels are shipped and the losses of material in transit.

15. The French novelist Colette (1873–1954) has been widely praised for the vividness of her language. But many critics complain that her novels are indifferent to important moral questions. This charge is unfair. Each of her novels is a poetic condensation of a major emotional crisis in the life of an ordinary person of her time. Such emotional crises almost invariably raise important moral questions.

16. The view that every person is concerned exclusively with her or his own self-interest implies that government by consent is impossible. Thus, social theorists who believe that people are concerned only with their self‑interest evidently believe that aspiring to democracy is futile, since democracy is not possible in the absence of government by consent. The reasoning in the argument is flawed in that the argument (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

17. Archaeologist: The mosaics that were removed from Zeugma, the ancient city now flooded by the runoff from Turkey’s Birecik Dam, should have been left there. We had all the information about them that we needed to draw archaeological conclusions, and future archaeologists studying the site, who may not have access to our records, might be misled by their absence. Which one of the following, if assumed, most helps to justify the reasoning in the archaeologist’s argument? (A)

Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?

(B)

(A)

(C)

(B)

(C) (D) (E)

Critics who suggest that Colette’s novels are indifferent to great moral questions of her time greatly underestimate her literary achievements. A novel that poetically condenses a major emotional crisis does not have to be indifferent to the important moral questions raised by that crisis. To deserve the level of praise that Colette has received, a novelist’s work must concern itself with important moral questions. The vividness of Colette’s language was not itself the result of poetic condensation. Colette’s purpose in poetically condensing emotional crises in the lives of characters in her novels was to explore some of the important moral questions of her time.

infers merely from the fact of someone’s holding a belief that he or she believes an implication of that belief infers that because something is true of a group of people, it is true of each individual member of the group infers that because something is true of each individual person belonging to a group, it is true of the group as a whole attempts to discredit a theory by discrediting those who espouse that theory fails to consider that, even if an argument’s conclusion is false, some of the assumptions used to justify that conclusion may nonetheless be true

(D) (E)

The only considerations that bear upon the question of whether the mosaics should have been removed are archaeological. Archaeologists studying a site can tell whether or not that site had been flooded at some time. The materials used in the construction of a mosaic are readily apparent when the mosaic is examined in its original location. Archaeological sites from which artifacts have been removed rarely mislead archaeologists who later study the site. The removal of artifacts from archaeological sites rarely has any environmental impact.

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18. Traffic engineers have increased the capacity of the Krakkenbak Bridge to handle rush-hour traffic flow. The resultant increase in rush-hour traffic flow would not have occurred had the city not invested in computer modeling technology last year at the request of the city’s mayor, and the city’s financial predicament would not have been resolved if the traffic flow across the bridge during rush hour had not been increased. Which one of the following can be properly inferred from the information above? (A) (B) (C) (D)

(E)

The city’s financial predicament would not have been resolved had the city chosen a competing computer modeling software package. The city’s financial predicament would not have been resolved had the city not invested in computer modeling technology. On an average day, more traffic crosses the Krakkenbak Bridge this year as compared to last year. Traffic flow across the Krakkenbak Bridge during rush hour would not have increased had the city’s mayor not made investing in computer modeling technology the highest budgetary priority last year. The city’s mayor was a proponent of investing in computer modeling technology because of the city’s need to increase traffic flow across the Krakkenbak Bridge during rush hour.

19. Court analyst: Courts should not allow the use of DNA tests in criminal cases. There exists considerable controversy among scientific experts about how reliable these tests are. Unless there is widespread agreement in the scientific community about how reliable a certain test is, it is unreasonable for the courts to allow evidence based on that test. The court analyst’s reasoning is flawed because it fails to take into account that (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

courts have the authority to admit or exclude any evidence irrespective of what experts have to say about its reliability the standard against which evidence in a criminal case is measured should not be absolute certainty experts may agree that the tests are highly reliable while disagreeing about exactly how reliable they are data should not be admitted as evidence in a court of law without scientific witnesses having agreed about how reliable they are there are also controversies about reliability of evidence in noncriminal cases

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20. Members of the VideoKing Frequent Viewers club can now receive a special discount coupon. Members of the club who have rented more than ten videos in the past month can receive the discount coupon only at the VideoKing location from which the member last rented a movie. Members of the Frequent Viewers club who have not rented more than ten videos in the past month can receive the coupon only at the Main Street location. Pat, who has not rented more than ten videos in the past month, can receive the special discount coupon at the Walnut Lane location of VideoKing. If all of the statements above are true, which one of the following must be true? (A)

(B) (C) (D) (E)

The only people who can receive the special discount coupon at the Main Street location are Frequent Viewers club members who have not rented more than ten videos. Some members of the Frequent Viewers club have not rented more than ten videos. Some members of the Frequent Viewers club can receive the special discount coupon at more than one location of VideoKing. Some people who are not members of the Frequent Viewers club can receive the special discount coupon. If Pat rents a movie from the Main Street location, then she will not receive the special discount coupon.

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21. Game show winners choosing between two equally desirable prizes will choose either the one that is more expensive or the one with which they are more familiar. Today’s winner, Ed, is choosing between two equally desirable and equally unfamiliar prizes, A and B. He will thus choose A, which is more expensive. The reasoning in which one of the following is most similar to the reasoning above? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

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With a book contract, an academic writer receives either an advance or a guarantee of royalties. Professor al-Sofi received an advance for a book contract, so al-Sofi did not receive a guarantee of royalties. When entering this amusement park, children always choose to take their first ride on either the Rocket or the Mouse. Janine insisted on the Rocket for her first ride. Thus, Janine would not have been standing near the Mouse during her first half hour in the amusement park. The elliptical orbit of an asteroid is only slightly eccentric unless it is affected by the gravitational pull of a planet. Asteroid Y is affected by Jupiter’s gravitational pull and asteroid X is not. Thus, the orbit of asteroid Y is the more eccentric of the two. New students in this program must choose either a physics class or an art class. Miyoko has no desire to take a class in either of those fields, so Miyoko will probably not enter this program. To avoid predators, rabbits will either double back on their pursuers or flee for nearby cover. The rabbit being pursued by a fox in this wildlife film is in a field that offers no opportunity for nearby cover, so it will try to double back on the fox.

22. Microbiologist: Because heavy metals are normally concentrated in sewage sludge during the sewage treatment process, the bacteria that survive in the sludge have evolved the unusual ability to resist heavy-metal poisoning. The same bacteria also show a strong resistance to antibiotics. This suggests that the bacteria’s exposure to the heavy metals in the sewage sludge has somehow promoted their resistance to antibiotics. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the microbiologist’s argument? (A) (B)

(C)

(D) (E)

Most bacteria that are not resistant to antibiotics are not resistant to heavy-metal poisoning either. Bacteria that live in sewage sludge that is free of heavy metals, but is in other respects similar to normal sewage, are generally resistant to neither heavy-metal poisoning nor antibiotics. Antibiotic resistance of bacteria that survive in sewage sludge in which heavy metals are concentrated contributes to their resistance to heavy-metal poisoning. Sewage sludge that contains high concentrations of heavy metals almost always contains significant concentrations of antibiotics. Many kinds of bacteria that do not live in sewage sludge are resistant to both heavy-metal poisoning and antibiotics.

23. Ethicist: Marital vows often contain the promise to love “until death do us part.” If “love” here refers to a feeling, then this promise makes no sense, for feelings are not within one’s control, and a promise to do something not within one’s control makes no sense. Thus, no one—including those making marital vows—should take “love” in this context to be referring to feelings. The ethicist’s conclusion follows logically if which one of the following is assumed? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

None of our feelings are within our control. People should not make promises to do something that is not within their control. “Love” can legitimately be taken to refer to something other than feelings. Promises should not be interpreted in such a way that they make no sense. Promises that cannot be kept do not make any sense.

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24. Principle: If a food product contains ingredients whose presence most consumers of that product would be upset to discover in it, then the food should be labeled as containing those ingredients.

Application: Crackly Crisps need not be labeled as containing genetically engineered ingredients, since most consumers of Crackly Crisps would not care if they discovered that fact. The application of the principle is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it (A) (B) (C) (D)

(E)

–9–

25. Editorial: The town would not need to spend as much as it does on removing trash if all town residents sorted their household garbage. However, while telling residents that they must sort their garbage would get some of them to do so, many would resent the order and refuse to comply. The current voluntary system, then, is to be preferred, because it costs about as much as a nonvoluntary system would and it does not engender nearly as much resentment. The contention that the town would not have to spend as much as it does on removing trash if all town residents sorted their garbage plays which one of the following roles in the editorial’s argument?

fails to address the possibility that consumers of a specific food may not be representative of consumers of food in general fails to address the possibility that the genetically engineered ingredients in Crackly Crisps may have been proven safe for human consumption implicitly makes use of a value judgment that is incompatible with the principle being applied takes for granted that if most consumers of a product would buy it even if they knew several of the ingredients in it, then they would buy the product even if they knew all the ingredients in it confuses a claim that under certain conditions a certain action should be taken with a claim that the action need not be taken in the absence of those conditions

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T

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(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

O

It is a claim that the editorial is trying to show is false. It is a fact granted by the editorial that lends some support to an alternative to the practice that the editorial defends as preferable. It is an example of a difficulty facing the claim that the editorial is attempting to refute. It is a premise that the editorial’s argument relies on in reaching its conclusion. It is the conclusion that the editorial’s argument purports to establish.

P

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

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2 SECTION II Time—35 minutes 23 Questions

Directions: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may  be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. Questions 1–6 An administrator must assign parking spaces to six new employees: Robertson, Souza, Togowa, Vaughn, Xu, and Young. Each of the six employees must be assigned one of the following parking spaces: #1, #2, #3, #4, #5, or #6. No two employees can be assigned the same parking space. The following rules govern the assignment of parking spaces: Young must be assigned a higher-numbered parking space than Togowa. Xu must be assigned a higher-numbered parking space than Souza. Robertson must be assigned a higher-numbered parking space than Young. Robertson must be assigned parking space #1, #2, #3, or #4. 1. Which one of the following could be the assignment of parking spaces to the new employees? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

#1: Young; #2: Souza; #3: Vaughn; #4: Robertson; #5: Togowa; #6: Xu #1: Vaughn; #2: Togowa; #3: Young; #4: Souza; #5: Robertson; #6: Xu #1: Togowa; #2: Young; #3: Xu; #4: Robertson; #5: Souza; #6: Vaughn #1: Togowa; #2: Robertson; #3: Young; #4: Souza; #5: Vaughn; #6: Xu #1: Souza; #2: Togowa; #3: Young; #4: Robertson; #5: Xu; #6: Vaughn

2. If Togowa is assigned a higher-numbered parking space than Souza, then which one of the following could be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Young is assigned parking space #2. Vaughn is assigned parking space #5. Togowa is assigned parking space #3. Souza is assigned parking space #2. Robertson is assigned parking space #3.

3. The assignment of parking spaces to each of the new employees is fully and uniquely determined if which one of the following is true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Souza is assigned parking space #1. Young is assigned parking space #2. Vaughn is assigned parking space #3. Robertson is assigned parking space #4. Xu is assigned parking space #5.

4. For how many of the six new employees is the assignment of a parking space limited to one of only two possible spaces? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

none two three four five

5. If Young is assigned a higher-numbered parking space than Souza, then which one of the following could be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Togowa is assigned parking space #1. Young is assigned parking space #2. Robertson is assigned parking space #3. Souza is assigned parking space #3. Vaughn is assigned parking space #4.

6. If Robertson is assigned parking space #3, then which one of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Souza is assigned parking space #4. Togowa is assigned parking space #2. Vaughn is assigned parking space #5. Xu is assigned parking space #6. Young is assigned parking space #2.

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Questions 7–12 A government needs to assign new ambassadors to Venezuela, Yemen, and Zambia. The candidates for these ambassadorships are Jaramillo, Kayne, Landon, Novetzke, and Ong. One ambassador will be assigned to each country, and no ambassador will be assigned to more than one country. The assignment of the ambassadors must meet the following constraints: Either Kayne or Novetzke, but not both, is assigned to one of the ambassadorships. If Jaramillo is assigned to one of the ambassadorships, then so is Kayne. If Ong is assigned as ambassador to Venezuela, Kayne is not assigned as ambassador to Yemen. If Landon is assigned to an ambassadorship, it is to Zambia. 7. Which one of the following could be the assignment of the ambassadors? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Venezuela: Jaramillo Yemen: Ong Zambia: Novetzke Venezuela: Kayne Yemen: Jaramillo Zambia: Landon Venezuela: Landon Yemen: Novetzke Zambia: Ong Venezuela: Novetzke Yemen: Jaramillo Zambia: Kayne Venezuela: Ong Yemen: Kayne Zambia: Landon

8. The pair of candidates who are not assigned to ambassadorships could be (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Jaramillo and Novetzke Jaramillo and Ong Kayne and Landon Kayne and Novetzke Landon and Ong

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9. If Ong is assigned as ambassador to Venezuela, then the other two ambassadors assigned could be (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Jaramillo and Landon Jaramillo and Novetzke Kayne and Landon Kayne and Novetzke Landon and Novetzke

10. If Kayne is assigned as ambassador to Yemen, which one of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Jaramillo is assigned as ambassador to Venezuela. Landon is assigned as ambassador to Zambia. Ong is assigned as ambassador to Zambia. Jaramillo is not assigned to an ambassadorship. Ong is not assigned to an ambassadorship.

11. Which one of the following CANNOT be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Jaramillo is assigned as ambassador to Zambia. Kayne is assigned as ambassador to Zambia. Novetzke is assigned as ambassador to Zambia. Landon is not assigned to an ambassadorship. Ong is not assigned to an ambassadorship.

12. Which one of the following, if substituted for the constraint that if Jaramillo is assigned to one of the ambassadorships, then so is Kayne, would have the same effect in determining the assignment of the ambassadors? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

If Kayne is assigned to an ambassadorship, then so is Jaramillo. If Landon and Ong are both assigned to ambassadorships, then so is Novetzke. If Ong is not assigned to an ambassadorship, then Kayne is assigned to an ambassadorship. Jaramillo and Novetzke are not both assigned to ambassadorships. Novetzke and Ong are not both assigned to ambassadorships.

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Questions 13–18 On the first day of a two-day study for a cycling magazine, four riders—Reynaldo, Seamus, Theresa, and Yuki—will each test one of four bicycles—F, G, H, and J. Each rider will then test a different one of the bicycles on the second day. Each rider tests only one bicycle per day, and all four bicycles are tested each day. The assignment of riders to bicycles is subject to the following conditions: Reynaldo cannot test F. Yuki cannot test J. Theresa must be one of the testers for H. The bicycle that Yuki tests on the first day must be tested by Seamus on the second day. 13. Which one of the following is a possible assignment of riders to bicycles, with the riders for each bicycle listed in the order in which they test the bicycle? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

F: Seamus, Reynaldo; G: Yuki, Seamus; H: Theresa, Yuki; J: Reynaldo, Theresa F: Seamus, Yuki; G: Reynaldo, Theresa; H: Yuki, Seamus; J: Theresa, Reynaldo F: Yuki, Seamus; G: Seamus, Reynaldo; H: Theresa, Yuki; J: Reynaldo, Theresa F: Yuki, Seamus; G: Theresa, Reynaldo; H: Reynaldo, Theresa; J: Seamus, Yuki F: Yuki, Theresa; G: Seamus, Yuki; H: Theresa, Reynaldo; J: Reynaldo, Seamus

14. If Theresa tests G on the second day, then which one of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Reynaldo tests H on the first day. Reynaldo tests J on the first day. Theresa tests H on the second day. Theresa tests J on the first day. Yuki tests H on the second day.

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2 15. Any of the following could be true EXCEPT: (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Reynaldo tests J on the first day. Reynaldo tests J on the second day. Seamus tests H on the first day. Yuki tests H on the first day. Yuki tests H on the second day.

16. Which one of the following CANNOT be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Reynaldo tests G on the second day. Seamus tests F on the first day. Theresa tests F on the second day. Reynaldo tests H on the first day. Yuki tests F on the second day.

17. If Theresa tests J on the first day, then which one of the following could be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Reynaldo tests G on the second day. Seamus tests H on the first day. Yuki tests H on the second day. Seamus is one of the testers for J. Theresa is one of the testers for G.

18. Which one of the following CANNOT be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Both Reynaldo and Seamus test J. Both Reynaldo and Theresa test J. Both Reynaldo and Yuki test G. Both Seamus and Theresa test G. Both Theresa and Yuki test F.

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Questions 19–23

19. Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the books placed on the bottom shelf?

(B) (C) (D) (E)

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

F, M F, H, M G, H, K F, G, M, O G, H, L, M

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

I and M are placed on the same shelf as each other. K and G are placed on the same shelf as each other. L and F are placed on the same shelf as each other. M and H are placed on the same shelf as each other. H and O are placed on the same shelf as each other.

S

O is placed on a shelf higher than the shelf M is placed on. K is placed on a shelf higher than the shelf G is placed on. I is placed on a shelf higher than the shelf F is placed on. G is placed on a shelf higher than the shelf O is placed on. F is placed on a shelf higher than the shelf L is placed on.

22. If G is placed on the top shelf, then which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the books placed on the middle shelf?

20. It is fully determined which of the shelves each of the books is placed on if which one of the following is true? (A)

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21. Which one of the following must be true?

Exactly eight books—F, G, H, I, K, L, M, O—are placed on a bookcase with exactly three shelves—the top shelf, the middle shelf, and the bottom shelf. At least two books are placed on each shelf. The following conditions must apply: More of the books are placed on the bottom shelf than the top shelf. I is placed on the middle shelf. K is placed on a higher shelf than F. O is placed on a higher shelf than L. F is placed on the same shelf as M.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

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23. If L is placed on a shelf higher than the shelf H is placed on, then which one of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

T

H, I I, L H, I, L I, K, L F, I, M

O

F and G are placed on the same shelf as each other. G and H are placed on the same shelf as each other. H and M are placed on the same shelf as each other. I and G are placed on the same shelf as each other. K and O are placed on the same shelf as each other.

P

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

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SECTION III Time—35 minutes 26 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer;  that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. 1. “Hot spot” is a term that ecologists use to describe those habitats with the greatest concentrations of species found only in one place—so-called “endemic” species. Many of these hot spots are vulnerable to habitat loss due to commercial development. Furthermore, loss of endemic species accounts for most modern-day extinctions. Thus, given that only a limited number of environmental battles can be waged, it would be reasonable for organizations dedicated to preserving species to _______. Which one of the following most logically completes the argument? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

try to help only those species who are threatened with extinction because of habitat loss concentrate their resources on protecting hot spot habitats treat all endemic species as equally valuable and equally in need of preservation accept that most endemic species will become extinct expand the definition of “hot spot” to include vulnerable habitats that are not currently home to many endangered species

3. Engine noise from boats travelling through killer whales’ habitats ranges in frequency from 100 hertz to 3,000 hertz, an acoustical range that overlaps that in which the whales communicate through screams and squeals. Though killer whales do not seem to behave differently around running boat engines, engine noise from boats can be loud enough to damage their hearing over time. Therefore, _______. Which one of the following most logically completes the argument? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

younger killer whales are better able to tolerate engine noise from boats than older whales are killer whales are less likely to attempt to communicate with one another when boat engines are operating nearby noise from boat engines may impair killer whales’ ability to communicate killer whales are most likely to prefer areas where boat traffic is present, but light killer whales would probably be more successful in finding food if boats did not travel through their habitats

2. Principle: If you sell an item that you know to be defective, telling the buyer that the item is sound, you thereby commit fraud.

Application: Wilton sold a used bicycle to Harris, knowing very little about its condition. Wilton told Harris that the bicycle was in good working condition, but Harris soon learned that the brakes were defective. Wilton was therefore guilty of fraud. The application of the principle is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

the application fails to establish whether Wilton was given the opportunity to repair the brakes the application fails to indicate how much money Wilton received for the bicycle the application uses the word “defective” in a sense that is crucially different from how it is used in the statement of the principle Harris might not have believed Wilton’s statement about the bicycle’s condition asserting something without justification is not the same as asserting something one knows to be false

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4. Journalist: A manufacturers’ trade group that has long kept its membership list secret inadvertently sent me a document listing hundreds of manufacturing companies. A representative of the trade group later confirmed that every company listed in the document does indeed belong to the trade group. Because Bruch Industries is not listed on the document, it is evidently not a member of the trade group.

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(B) (C) (D) (E)

The local resident’s argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it



Yoko: Children’s stories still tend to have clearly immoral characters in them, but now these characters tend not to be the sort that frighten children. Surely that’s an improvement. Peter and Yoko disagree over whether today’s children’s stories (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A)

gives no reason to think that Bruch Industries would want to belong to the trade group does not present any evidence that the document names every member of the trade group does not explain how it is that the trade group could have inadvertently sent out a secret document presents no reason why Bruch Industries would not want its membership in the trade group to be known takes for granted the accuracy of a statement by a representative who had a reason to withhold information

5. Peter: Unlike in the past, most children’s stories nowadays don’t have clearly immoral characters in them. They should, though. Children need to learn the consequences of being bad.

should be less frightening than they are tend to be less frightening than earlier children’s stories were differ significantly in overall quality from earlier children’s stories tend to have clearly immoral characters in them should help children learn the consequences of being bad

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6. Local resident: An overabundance of algae must be harmful to the smaller fish in this pond. During the fifteen or so years that I have lived here, the few times that I have seen large numbers of dead small fish wash ashore in late summer coincide exactly with the times that I have noticed abnormally large amounts of algae in the water.

The journalist’s reasoning in the argument is flawed in that the journalist (A)

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(B)

(C) (D) (E)

presumes, without providing justification, that smaller fish are somehow more susceptible to harm as a result of overabundant algae than are larger fish fails to consider that the effects on smaller fish of overabundant algae may be less severe in larger bodies of water with more diverse ecosystems ignores the possibility that the same cause might have different effects on fish of different sizes ignores the possibility that the overabundance of algae and the deaths of smaller fish are independent effects of a common cause ignores the possibility that below-normal amounts of algae are detrimental to the pond’s smaller fish

7. Tanner: The public should demand political debates before any election. Voters are better able to choose the candidate best suited for office if they watch the candidates seriously debate one another.

Saldana: Political debates almost always benefit the candidate who has the better debating skills. Thus, they don’t really help voters determine which candidate is most qualified for office. The dialogue provides the most support for the claim that Tanner and Saldana disagree over which one of the following? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Political candidates with strong debating skills are more likely to win elections than those with weak debating skills. A voter who watches a political debate will likely be better able, as a result, to determine which candidate is more qualified for office. Debating skills are of little use to politicians in doing their jobs once they are elected to office. The candidates with the best debating skills are the ones who are most qualified for the political offices for which they are running. Political debates tend to have a major effect on which candidate among those participating in a debate will win the election.

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8. A recent study shows that those highways that carry the most traffic, and thus tend to be the most congested, have the lowest rate of fatal traffic accidents. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to explain the phenomenon described above? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Drivers have more accidents when they become distracted. The highways that have the highest rate of fatal accidents have moderate volumes of traffic. Most of the motorists on very heavily traveled highways tend to be commuting to or from work. Most serious accidents occur when vehicles are moving at a high rate of speed. Heavily traveled highways do not always carry a higher proportion of large trucks.

9. In some jurisdictions, lawmakers have instituted sentencing guidelines that mandate a penalty for theft that is identical to the one they have mandated for bribery. Hence, lawmakers in those jurisdictions evidently consider the harm resulting from theft to be equal to the harm resulting from bribery. Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument? (A) (B) (C)

(D) (E)

In general, lawmakers mandate penalties for crimes that are proportional to the harm they believe to result from those crimes. In most cases, lawmakers assess the level of harm resulting from an act in determining whether to make that act illegal. Often, in response to the unusually great harm resulting from a particular instance of a crime, lawmakers will mandate an increased penalty for that crime. In most cases, a victim of theft is harmed no more than a victim of bribery is harmed. If lawmakers mandate penalties for crimes that are proportional to the harm resulting from those crimes, crime in those lawmakers’ jurisdictions will be effectively deterred.

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10. People often admonish us to learn the lessons of history, but, even if it were easy to discover what the past was really like, it is nearly impossible to discover its lessons. We are supposed, for example, to learn the lessons of World War I. But what are they? And were we ever to discover what they are, it is not clear that we could ever apply them, for we shall never again have a situation just like World War I. That we should learn the lessons of history figures in the argument in which one of the following ways? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

It sets out a problem the argument as a whole is designed to resolve. It is compatible with accepting the argument’s conclusion and with denying it. It is a position that the argument simply takes for granted is false. It expresses the position the argument as a whole is directed toward discrediting. It is an assumption that is required in order to establish the argument’s conclusion.

11. Sigerson argues that the city should adopt ethical guidelines that preclude its politicians from accepting campaign contributions from companies that do business with the city. Sigerson’s proposal is dishonest, however, because he has taken contributions from such companies throughout his career in city politics. The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

confuses a sufficient condition for adopting ethical guidelines for politicians with a necessary condition for adopting such guidelines rejects a proposal on the grounds that an inadequate argument has been given for it fails to adequately address the possibility that other city politicians would resist Sigerson’s proposal rejects a proposal on the grounds that the person offering it is unfamiliar with the issues it raises overlooks the fact that Sigerson’s proposal would apply only to the future conduct of city politicians

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12. Some gardening books published by Garden Path Press recommend tilling the soil and adding compost before starting a new garden on a site, but they do not explain the difference between hot and cold composting. Since any gardening book that recommends adding compost is flawed if it does not explain at least the basics of composting, some books published by Garden Path are flawed. The argument requires the assumption that (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

some gardening books that recommend tilling the soil and adding compost before starting a new garden are not flawed gardeners should not add compost to the soil unless they have a thorough understanding of composting an explanation of the basics of composting must include an explanation of the difference between hot and cold composting everyone who understands the difference between hot and cold composting understands at least the basics of composting no gardening book that includes an explanation of at least the basics of composting is flawed

13. Astronomers have found new evidence that the number of galaxies in the universe is not 10 billion, as previously believed, but 50 billion. This discovery will have an important effect on theories about how galaxies are formed. But even though astronomers now believe 40 billion more galaxies exist, many astronomers’ estimates of the universe’s total mass remain virtually unchanged. Which one of the following, if true, does most to explain why the estimates remain virtually unchanged? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The mass of galaxies is thought to make up only a tiny percentage of the universe’s total mass. The overwhelming majority of galaxies are so far from Earth that their mass can be only roughly estimated. The number of galaxies that astronomers believe exist tends to grow as the instruments used to detect galaxies become more sophisticated. Theories about how galaxies are formed are rarely affected by estimates of the universe’s total mass. There is no consensus among astronomers on the proper procedures for estimating the universe’s total mass.

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14. Newspaper subscriber: Arnot’s editorial argues that by making certain fundamental changes in government we would virtually eliminate our most vexing social ills. But clearly this conclusion is false. After all, the argument Arnot makes for this claim depends on the dubious assumption that government can be trusted to act in the interest of the public. Which one of the following most accurately expresses a flaw in the argument’s reasoning? (A) (B)

(C)

(D) (E)

it repudiates a claim merely on the grounds that an inadequate argument has been given for it it treats a change that is required for virtual elimination of society’s most vexing social ills as a change that will guarantee the virtual elimination of those ills it fails to consider that, even if an argument’s conclusion is false, some of the assumptions used to justify that conclusion may nonetheless be true it distorts the opponent’s argument and then attacks this distorted argument it uses the key term “government” in one sense in a premise and in another sense in the conclusion

15. Columnist: Shortsighted motorists learn the hard way about the wisdom of preventive auto maintenance; such maintenance almost always pays off in the long run. Our usually shortsighted city council should be praised for using similar wisdom when they hired a long-term economic development adviser. In hiring this adviser, the council made an investment that is likely to have a big payoff in several years. Other cities in this region that have devoted resources to economic development planning have earned large returns on such an investment. Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the columnist’s argument? (A) (B)

(C) (D) (E)

Even some cars that receive regular preventive maintenance break down, requiring costly repairs. The columnist’s city has a much smaller population and economy than the other cities did when they began devoting resources to economic development planning. Most motorists who fail to perform preventive maintenance on their cars do so for nonfinancial reasons. Qualified economic development advisers generally demand higher salaries than many city councils are willing to spend. Cities that have earned large returns due to hiring economic development advisers did not earn any returns at all in the advisers’ first few years of employment. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

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16. Editorial: Cell-phone usage on buses and trains is annoying to other passengers. This suggests that recent proposals to allow use of cell phones on airplanes are ill-advised. Cell-phone use would be far more upsetting on airplanes than it is on buses and trains. Airline passengers are usually packed in tightly. And if airline passengers are offended by the cell-phone excesses of their seatmates, they often cannot move to another seat. Which one of the following most accurately describes the role played in the editorial’s argument by the statement that cell-phone use would be far more upsetting on airplanes than it is on buses and trains? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

It is the main conclusion of the argument. It is a claim that the argument tries to rebut. It is a premise that indirectly supports the main conclusion of the argument by supporting a premise for that conclusion. It is a conclusion for which support is provided and that itself is used in turn to directly support the argument’s main conclusion. It provides background information that plays no role in the reasoning in the argument.

17. Science writer: The deterioration of cognitive faculties associated with Alzheimer’s disease is evidently caused by the activities of microglia—the brain’s own immune cells. For one thing, this deterioration can be slowed by some anti-inflammatory drugs, such as acetylsalicylic acid. Furthermore, patients with Alzheimer’s are unable to eliminate the protein BA from the brain, where it accumulates and forms deposits. The microglia attack these protein deposits by releasing poisons that destroy surrounding healthy brain cells, thereby impairing the brain’s cognitive functions.

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18. Lawyer: One is justified in accessing information in computer files without securing authorization from the computer’s owner only if the computer is typically used in the operation of a business. If, in addition, there exist reasonable grounds for believing that such a computer contains data usable as evidence in a legal proceeding against the computer’s owner, then accessing the data in those computer files without the owner’s authorization is justified. The principles stated by the lawyer most strongly support which one of the following judgments? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Which one of the following, if true, most helps to support the science writer’s argument? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The inability of Alzheimer’s patients to eliminate the protein BA from the brain is due to a deficiency in the brain’s immune system. Acetylsalicylic acid reduces the production of immune cells in the brain. The activity of microglia results in a decrease in the buildup of protein deposits in the brain. The protein BA directly interferes with the cognitive functions of the brain. Immune reactions by microglia occur in certain diseases of the brain other than Alzheimer’s.

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(E)

Rey gave his friend Sunok a key to the store where he worked and asked her to use the store owners’ computer to look up their friend Jim’s phone number, which Rey kept on the computer. Because Sunok had Rey’s permission, her action was justified. Police department investigators accessed the electronic accounting files of the central computer owned by a consulting firm that was on trial for fraudulent business practices without seeking permission from the firm’s owners. Contrary to the investigators’ reasonable beliefs, however, the files ultimately provided no evidence of wrongdoing. Nevertheless, the investigators’ action was justified. A police officer accessed, without Natalie’s permission, files on the computer that Natalie owned and used exclusively in the operation of her small business. Since the police officer’s search of the files on Natalie’s computer produced no evidence usable in any legal proceeding against Natalie, the police officer’s action was clearly not justified. Customs officials examined all of the files stored on a laptop computer confiscated from an importer whom they suspected of smuggling. Because there were reasonable grounds for believing that the computer had typically been used in the operation of the importer’s legitimate business, the customs officials’ action was justified. Against the company owner’s wishes, a police officer accessed some of the files on one of the company’s computers. Although the computer was typically used in the operation of the company’s business, the particular files accessed by the police officer were personal letters written by one of the company’s employees. Thus, the police officer’s unauthorized use of the computer was not justified.

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19. The conventional process for tanning leather uses large amounts of calcium oxide and sodium sulfide. Tanning leather using biological catalysts costs about the same as using these conventional chemicals if the cost of waste disposal is left out of the comparison. However, nearly 20 percent less waste is produced with biological catalysts, and waste disposal is a substantial part of the overall cost of tanning. It is therefore less costly to tan leather if biological catalysts are used instead. Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument? (A) (B) (C) (D)

(E)

Leather tanned using the conventional process is not lower in quality than is leather tanned using biological catalysts. The biological catalysts that can be used in the tanning process are less costly by weight than are calcium oxide and sodium sulfide. New technological innovations have recently made the use of biological catalysts in the tanning process much more cost effective. Disposal of tanning waste produced with biological catalysts does not cost significantly more than disposal of the same amount of waste produced with the conventional process. The labor costs associated with tanning leather using biological catalysts are not any greater than the labor costs associated with the conventional tanning process.

20. One should not play a practical joke on someone if it shows contempt for that person or if one believes it might bring significant harm to that person. The principle stated above, if valid, most helps to justify the reasoning in which one of the following arguments? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

I should not have played that practical joke on you yesterday. Even if it was not contemptuous, I should have realized that it would bring significant harm to someone. I have no reason to think that the practical joke I want to play would harm anyone. So, since the joke would show no contempt for the person the joke is played on, it would not be wrong for me to play it. Because of the circumstances, it would be wrong for me to play the practical joke I had intended to play on you. Even though it would not show contempt for anyone, it could easily bring you significant harm. It would have been wrong for me to play the practical joke that I had intended to play on you. Even though I did not have reason to think that it would significantly harm anyone, I did think that it would show contempt for someone. Someone was harmed as a result of my practical joke. Thus, even though it did not show contempt for the person I played the joke on, I should not have played it.

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21. Economics professor: Marty’s Pizza and Checkers Pizza are the two major pizza parlors in our town. Marty’s sold coupon books including coupons good for one large plain pizza at any local pizza parlor, at Marty’s expense. But Checkers refused to accept these coupons, even though they were redeemed by all other local pizza parlors. Accepting them would have cost Checkers nothing and would have satisfied those of its potential customers who had purchased the coupon books. This shows that Checkers’s motive in refusing to accept the coupons was simply to hurt Marty’s Pizza. Which one of the following, if assumed, enables the economics professor’s conclusion to be properly drawn? (A)

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Any company that refuses to accept coupons issued by a competitor when doing so would satisfy some of the company’s potential customers is motivated solely by the desire to hurt that competitor. Any company that wishes to hurt a competitor by refusing to accept coupons issued by that competitor will refuse to accept them even when accepting them would cost nothing and would satisfy its potential customers. At least one company has refused to accept coupons issued by its major local competitor simply in order to hurt that competitor, even though those coupons were accepted by all other local competitors. Any company that accepts its major competitor’s coupons helps its competitor by doing so, even if it also satisfies its own actual or potential customers. If accepting coupons issued by a competitor would not enable a company to satisfy its actual or potential customers, then that company’s refusal to accept the coupons is motivated by the desire to satisfy customers.

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22. Science writer: Scientists’ astounding success rate with research problems they have been called upon to solve causes the public to believe falsely that science can solve any problem. In fact, the problems scientists are called upon to solve are typically selected by scientists themselves. When the problems are instead selected by politicians or business leaders, their formulation is nevertheless guided by scientists in such a way as to make scientific solutions feasible. Scientists are almost never asked to solve problems that are not subject to such formulation. The science writer’s statements, if true, most strongly support which one of the following? (A)

(B) (C) (D)

(E)

If a problem can be formulated in such a way as to make a scientific solution feasible, scientists will usually be called upon to solve that problem. Any problem a scientist can solve can be formulated in such a way as to make a scientific solution feasible. Scientists would probably have a lower success rate with research problems if their grounds for selecting such problems were less narrow. Most of the problems scientists are called upon to solve are problems that politicians and business leaders want solved, but whose formulation the scientists have helped to guide. The only reason for the astounding success rate of science is that the problems scientists are called upon to solve are usually selected by the scientists themselves.

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23. Most auto mechanics have extensive experience. Furthermore, most mechanics with extensive experience understand electronic circuits. Thus, most auto mechanics understand electronic circuits. The pattern of flawed reasoning in which one of the following arguments is most similar to that in the argument above? (A)

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During times of the year when automobile traffic increases, gas prices also increase. Increases in gas prices lead to increases in consumer complaints. Thus, increased automobile traffic causes increased consumer complaints. The most common species of birds in this region are migratory. Moreover, most migratory birds have left this region by the end of November. Hence, few birds remain in this region during the winter. It is not surprising that most speeding tickets in this region are issued to drivers of sports cars. After all, most drivers who are not interested in driving fast do not buy sports cars. Most nature photographers find portrait photography boring. Moreover, most portrait photographers especially enjoy photographing dignitaries. Thus, most nature photographers find photographing dignitaries especially boring. Most snow-removal companies run lawn‑care services during the summer. Also, most companies that run lawn-care services during the summer hire additional workers in the summer. Thus, most snow-removal companies hire additional workers in the summer.

24. If one wants to succeed, then one should act as though one were genuinely confident about one’s abilities, even if one actually distrusts one’s skills. Success is much more easily obtained by those who genuinely believe themselves capable of succeeding than by those filled with self-doubts. Which one of the following statements, if true, most strengthens the argument? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Those who convince others that they are capable of succeeding usually have few self-doubts. Genuine confidence is often a by-product of pretended self-confidence. Success is usually more a matter of luck or determination than of skill. Many people who behave in a self-confident manner are genuinely confident about their abilities. Self-doubt can hamper as well as aid the development of the skills necessary for success.

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25. Journalist: The trade union members at AutoFaber Inc. are planning to go on strike. Independent arbitration would avert a strike, but only if both sides agree to accept the arbitrator’s recommendations as binding. However, based on past experience, the union is quite unlikely to agree to this, so a strike is likely.

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The conclusion of the argument is properly drawn if which one of the following is assumed? (A)

The company will downsize unless more stock is issued. Furthermore, if the company downsizes, the shareholders will demand a change. Since no more stock is being issued, we can be sure that the shareholders will demand a change. Rodriguez will donate her paintings to the museum only if the new wing is named after her. The only other person the new wing could be named after is the museum’s founder, Wu. But it was decided yesterday that the gardens, not the new wing, would be named after Wu. So Rodriguez will donate her paintings to the museum. Reynolds and Khripkova would not make suitable business partners, since they are constantly squabbling, whereas good business partners know how to get along with each other most of the time and, if they quarrel, know how to resolve their differences. Lopez will run in tomorrow’s marathon. Lopez will win the marathon only if his sponsors do a good job of keeping him hydrated. But his sponsors are known to be poor at keeping their athletes hydrated. So it is probable that Lopez will not win the marathon. The new course in microeconomics is offered either in the fall or in the spring. The new course will be offered in the spring if there is a qualified instructor available. Since the economics department currently lacks a qualified instructor for such courses, however, the course will not be offered in the spring.

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26. Acquiring complete detailed information about all the pros and cons of a product one might purchase would clearly be difficult and expensive. It is rational not to acquire such information unless one expects that the benefits of doing so will outweigh the cost and difficulty of doing so. Therefore, consumers who do not bother to acquire such information are thereby behaving rationally.

Which one of the following arguments exhibits a pattern of reasoning most similar to that exhibited by the journalist’s argument? (A)

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Rational consumers who do not expect that the benefits outweigh the cost and difficulty of acquiring detailed information about a product they might purchase usually do not bother to acquire such information. Whenever it is rational not to acquire detailed information about a product, it would be irrational to bother to acquire such information. The benefits of acquiring detailed information about a product one might purchase usually do not outweigh the cost and difficulty of doing so. Rational consumers usually expect that the benefits of acquiring detailed information about a product they might purchase would not outweigh the cost and difficulty of doing so. Consumers who do not bother to acquire complete detailed information about a product they might purchase do not expect that the benefits of acquiring such information will outweigh the cost and difficulty of doing so.

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IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

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SECTION IV Time—35 minutes 27 Questions Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage or a pair of passages. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage or pair of passages. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

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Determining the most effective way to deter deliberate crimes, such as fraud, as opposed to impulsive crimes, such as crimes of passion, is a problem currently being debated in the legal community. On one side of the debate are those scholars who believe that deliberate crimes are a product of the influence of societal norms and institutions on individuals. These scholars suggest that changing people’s beliefs about crime, increasing the access of the most economically alienated individuals to economic institutions, and rehabilitating those convicted of this type of crime will reduce the crime rate. On the other side are those legal scholars who believe that the decision to commit a deliberate crime is primarily the result of individual choice. They suggest that increasing the fines and penalties associated with criminal activity, along with efficacious law enforcement, is the best deterrence method. However, some recent legal scholarship has changed the nature of this debate by introducing an economic principle that shows that these two positions, far from being antithetical, are surprisingly complementary. The economic principle that reconciles the two positions is that of utility maximization, which holds that, given a choice of actions, rational individuals will choose the action that maximizes their anticipated overall satisfaction, or expected utility. The expected utility of an action is ascertained by determining the utilities of the possible outcomes of that action, weighing them according to the likelihood of each outcome’s coming to pass, and then adding up those weighted utilities. Using this economic framework, an individual’s decision to commit a crime can be analyzed as a rational economic choice. According to the utility maximization principle a person who responds rationally to economic incentives or disincentives will commit a crime if the expected utility from doing so, given the chance of getting caught, exceeds the expected utility from activity that is lawful. Within this framework the two crime-deterrence methods have the same overall effect. For instance, the recommendations on one side of the crime deterrence debate to increase penalties for crimes and strengthen law enforcement result in an increased likelihood of detection and punishment and impose an increased cost to the individual if detected and punished. This lowers the expected utility from criminal activity, thereby making a person less likely to choose to commit a deliberate crime. The recommendations on the other side of the debate, such as increasing the economic opportunities of individuals most alienated

from economic institutions, also affect the utility equation. All else being equal, enacting these types of policies will effectively increase the expected (55) utility from lawful activity. This economic analysis demonstrates that the two positions are not fundamentally in conflict, and that the optimal approach to crime deterrence would include elements of both deterrence strategies. 1. Which one of the following most accurately states the main point of the passage? (A)

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(C)

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(E)

The principle of utility maximization provides an economic framework that allows legal scholars to analyze an individual’s decision to commit a crime as a rational economic choice that maximizes that individual’s expected utility. Legal scholars have found that deliberate criminal acts are motivated by neither external influences nor individual choices alone but that instead both of these factors are important in the decision to commit a crime. The utility maximization principle can be used to quantify the effects both of methods of deterrence that revolve around individual factors and of those that emphasize the impact of societal norms on the decision to commit a deliberate crime. Introduction of the utility maximization principle into the current crime deterrence debate indicates that both sides in the debate offer useful recommendations that can work together in deterring deliberate crime. The utility maximization principle demonstrates that deliberate criminal acts are the result of the rational economic choices of individuals and are not influenced by societal norms or the policies and practices of societal institutions.

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2. The author mentions “crimes of passion” in line 3 primarily in order to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

give an example of a kind of deliberate crime provide a contrast that helps to define a deliberate crime demonstrate that not all crimes can be deterred help illustrate one side of the current debate in the legal community mention a crime that is a product of the influence of societal norms

3. The explanation of the utility maximization principle in the passage suggests that which one of the following would be least appropriately described as a rational response to economic incentives and disincentives? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

In order to reduce his taxes, a waiter conceals a large part of his tip income from the government because he believes that it is very unlikely that this will be detected and he will be penalized. A motorist avoids speeding on a certain stretch of road because she knows that it is heavily patrolled and that a speeding ticket will lead to loss of her driver’s license. An industrialist continues to illegally discharge an untreated pollutant into a river because the cost of treatment far exceeds the fine for illegally discharging the pollutant. A government official in an impoverished country risks prosecution for soliciting bribes because rampant inflation has rendered her government salary inadequate to support her and her family. A worker physically assaults his former supervisor in a crowded workplace because he has been dismissed from his job and he believes that the dismissal was unwarranted and unfair.

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4. Based on the passage, which one of the following scenarios is most similar to some legal scholars’ use of the utility maximization principle regarding the crime deterrence debate? (A)

(B)

(C) (D) (E)

an astronomer’s use of a paradox employed by certain ancient cosmologists as a metaphor to help describe a phenomenon recently observed with the aid of new technologies a drawing instructor’s use of a law of optics from physics to demonstrate that two lines that appear to diverge actually run parallel to each other a botanist’s use of a quotation from a legendary Olympic athlete to make a point about the competitive nature of plants in a forest a judge’s use of evidence from anthropology to support a decision in a controversial legal case a mediator’s use of a short quotation from a well-known novel in an attempt to set a tone of collegiality and good conduct at the start of a bargaining session

5. Which one of the following most accurately describes the organization of the passage? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Two sides of a debate are described and a general principle is used to resolve the conflict between them. Two sides of a debate are described and an economic principle is applied to decide between them. Two beliefs are described and a principle is introduced to discredit them. A general principle is described and instantiated by two different ways of solving a problem. A general principle is described and used to highlight the differences between two sides in a debate.

6. The passage suggests that the author would be likely to agree with each of the following statements EXCEPT: (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The rate at which criminals return to criminal activity is likely to fall if laws requiring stronger punishments for repeat offenders are adopted. The rate at which criminals return to criminal activity is likely to increase if efforts to rehabilitate them are ended. The rate of deliberate crimes is likely to decrease if the expected utility of lawful activities decreases. The rate of deliberate crimes is likely to increase if the access of individuals to economic institutions decreases. The rate of deliberate crimes will tend to vary inversely with the level of law enforcement.

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Mexican Americans share with speakers of Spanish throughout the world a rich and varied repertoire of proverbs as well as a vital tradition of proverb use. The term “proverb” refers to a self-contained saying that can be understood independent of a specific verbal context and that has as its main purpose the carrying of a message or piece of wisdom. The great majority of Spanish-language proverbs reached Mexico from peninsular Spain, though they did not all originate there. Many belong, in fact, to the common proverb tradition of Europe and have exact equivalents in English-language proverbial speech. Each use of a proverb is an individual act whose meaning varies depending on the individual speaker and the particular social context in which the use occurs. Nonetheless, it is important to recognize that proverb use is also shaped by the larger community with which the individual interacts. The fact that proverbs often serve a didactic purpose points us to one important function that proverbs serve in Mexican American communities: the instruction of the young. In fact, this function seems to be much more prominent in Mexican tradition in general than in English-speaking traditions. Adolescents of Mexican descent in the United States consistently report the frequent use of proverbs by their parents as a teaching tool, in areas ranging from the inculcation of table manners to the regulation of peer-group relationships. The latter area is a particularly frequent focus of proverb use within Mexican American communities: one of the most frequently used proverbs, for example, translates roughly as, “Tell me who you run with and I’ll tell you who you are.” Perhaps this emphasis on peer-group relations derives from a sense that traditional, community-approved norms are threatened by those prevalent in the surrounding society, or from a sense that, in dealing with older children especially, parents need to appeal to traditional wisdom to bolster their authority. Another dimension of proverb use within Mexican American communities is that proverbs often serve to foster a consciousness of ethnicity, that is, of membership in a particular ethnic group possessing features that distinguish it from other groups within a multiethnic environment. Even those Mexican American proverbs that do not have an explicitly didactic purpose nevertheless serve as a vehicle for the transmission of both the Spanish language and Mexican culture. It is in these sayings that links to folklore and other aspects of Mexican culture are established and maintained. Proverbs thus provide a means of enhancing Mexican American young people’s familiarity with their heritage, thereby strengthening their ties to Mexican tradition.

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7. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D) (E)

The Mexican American tradition of Spanish‑language proverb use differs in important ways from the common proverb tradition of Europe. Spanish-language proverbs figure prominently in Mexican American communities, where they are used both to instruct the young and to promote the young’s familiarity with their heritage. Most proverbs that are commonly used in Mexican American communities have their origins in either peninsular Spain or the common proverb tradition of Europe. Many people in Mexican American communities use proverbs to teach young people about a wide range of social behaviors and norms. As is illustrated in the Spanish-language tradition, the use of proverbs can serve a wide range of purposes within a community.

8. The author provides a translation of a proverb in lines 32–33 primarily in order to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

illustrate the relation between proverb use and education about peer-group relationships in Mexican American communities provide an example of the tone of a proverb that is frequently used in Mexican American communities illustrate how a proverb can function as an appeal to traditional wisdom provide an example of how some Spanishlanguage proverbs can be clearly translated into English illustrate the effectiveness of proverbs as educational tools in Mexican American communities

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9. The passage provides information that most helps to answer which one of the following questions? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

In what other areas besides Europe did Spanish‑language proverbs currently used in Mexican American communities originate? Are any proverbs that are used frequently in the English-language tradition derived from Mexican American proverbs? What kinds of messages and pieces of wisdom are most often communicated by proverbs in the English-language tradition? In what other ethnic groups besides Mexican Americans do proverbs function to maintain ties to the traditions of those groups? Is the use of proverbs in teaching young people more common in Mexican American communities than in the English-language tradition?

10. The passage most strongly suggests which one of the following about the use of proverbs? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Proverb use is seldom intended to reinforce community-approved norms. The way in which a proverb is used depends, at least in part, on the community in which it is used. The most frequent use of proverbs in Mexican American communities is for the purpose of regulating peer-group relationships. Proverbs are often used to help teach young people languages. When a proverb is used as an educational tool, it is usually intended to serve more than one purpose.

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11. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Most Mexican American proverbs have their origin in the common proverb tradition of Europe. Mexican American parents are more likely to emphasize the value of traditional wisdom than are most other parents in the United States. There are more Spanish-language proverbs than there are proverbs in the common proverb tradition of Europe. Proverb use in some communities may reflect parental concern that the young will not embrace traditional norms. Most proverbs cannot be accurately translated from one language to another.

12. Which one of the following is most strongly implied by the passage? (A) (B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

If a proverb is used to inculcate table manners, then its primary purpose is to maintain ties to an ethnic tradition. The frequent use of proverbs within any community functions, at least in part, to convey a sense of their ethnicity to children within that community. The ways in which Mexican Americans use Spanish-language proverbs are typical of the ways in which Spanish speakers throughout the world use those proverbs. There are some sayings that do not require a verbal context to be understood but whose meaning for each particular use depends on the social context in which that use occurs. The emphasis within Mexican American communities on teaching children about peer-group relationships distinguishes those communities from other communities within the United States.

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Passage A Evolutionary psychology has taught us to examine human behavior from the standpoint of the theory of evolution—to explain a given type of human behavior by examining how it contributes to the reproductive (5) success of individuals exhibiting the behavior, and thereby to the proliferation of the genetic material responsible for causing that behavior. From an evolutionary standpoint, the problem of altruism is a thorny one: what accounts for the evolution of (10) behavior in which an individual expends energy or other valuable resources promoting the welfare of another individual? The answer probably lies in the psychological experiences of identification and empathy. Such (15) experiences could have initially arisen in response to cues (like physical resemblance) that indicated the presence of shared genetic material in human ancestors. The psychological states provoked by these cues could have increased the chances of related (20) individuals’ receiving assistance, thereby enhancing the survival and replication of genes influencing the capacity for identification and empathy. This would account, for example, for a mother’s rushing to help her injured child; genes promoting their own (25) self‑propagation may thus operate through instinctive actions that appear unselfish. Since human ancestors lived in small, kin-based groups, the application of altruistic mechanisms to the entire group would have promoted the propagation of (30) the genes responsible for those mechanisms. Later, these mechanisms may have come to apply to humans who are not kin when communities grew larger. In this way, apparently altruistic mechanisms may have arisen within a genetically “selfish” system. Passage B (35) Evolutionary psychology is a kind of conspiracy theory; that is, it explains behavior by imputing an interest (the proliferation of genes) that the agent of the behavior does not openly acknowledge, or indeed, is not even aware of. Thus, what seemed to be your (40) unsurprising interest in your child’s well-being turns out to be your genes’ conspiracy to propagate themselves. Such arguments can appear persuasive on the face of it. According to some evolutionary psychologists, (45) an interest in the proliferation of genes explains monogamous families in animals whose offspring mature slowly. Human offspring mature slowly; and, at least in numerical terms, our species favors monogamous families. Evolutionary psychologists (50) take this as evidence that humans form monogamous families because of our interest in propagating our genes. Are they right? Maybe yes, maybe no; this kind of inference needs to be handled with great care. There are, most (55) often, all sorts of interests that would explain any given behavior. What is needed to make it decisive that a particular interest explains a particular behavior is that the behavior would be reasonable only if one had that interest. But such cases are vanishingly rare:

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(60) an interest in Y might explain doing X, but so too would an interest in doing X. A concern to propagate one’s genes would explain promoting the welfare of one’s children; but so too would an interest in the welfare of one’s children. Not all of one’s motives can (65) be instrumental, after all; there must be some things that one cares for just for their own sakes. 13. Which one of the following most accurately states the main point of passage A? (A)

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Altruistic behavior is problematic for evolutionary psychology because it tends to diminish the reproductive success of individuals that exhibit it. New evidence may explain the evolution of altruistic behavior in early humans by showing that genes promote their own self-propagation. Altruistic behavior originally served evolutionary purposes that it does not serve today because humans no longer live in small, kin-based groups. Contrary to what critics of evolutionary psychology say, most significant types of human behavior are prompted by genetically selfish motivations. An evolutionary explanation of altruistic behavior may lie in the psychological states brought about in early humans by cues of kinship or familiarity.

14. The approaches toward evolutionary psychology exhibited by the two authors differ in which one of the following ways? (A)

(B) (C) (D) (E)

The author of passage A is more interested in examining the logical implications of evolutionary psychology than the author of passage B is. The author of passage A is more committed to the principles of evolutionary psychology than the author of passage B is. The author of passage A is more willing to consider nonevolutionary explanations for human behavior than the author of passage B is. The author of passage B is more skeptical of evolutionary theory in general than the author of passage A is. The author of passage B is more critical of the motives of evolutionary psychologists than the author of passage A is.

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15. According to passage B, which one of the following is an example of a human characteristic for which evolutionary psychologists propose a questionable explanation? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

the early human tendency to live in small communities the slow maturation of human offspring forming monogamous families misinterpreting the interests that motivate human actions caring for some things for their own sakes

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(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

helped spread the genes responsible for those same behaviors prompted individuals to behave unselfishly improved the physical health of individuals who exhibited the behaviors made individuals who exhibited the behaviors more adept at finding food prompted early humans to live in mutually dependent groups

17. How does the purpose of passage B relate to the content of passage A? (A) (B)

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The author of passage B seeks to support the main claims made in passage A by presenting additional arguments in support of those claims. The author of passage B criticizes the type of argument made in passage A by attempting to create an analogous argument with a conclusion that is clearly false. The author of passage B argues that the type of evidence used in passage A is often derived from inaccurate observation. The author of passage B maintains that the claims made in passage A are vacuous because no possible evidence could confirm or disconfirm them. The author of passage B seeks to undermine the type of argument made in passage A by suggesting that it relies on questionable reasoning.

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18. Which one of the following assertions from passage A most clearly exemplifies what the author of passage B means in calling evolutionary psychology a “conspiracy theory” (lines 35–36)? (A) (B) (C) (D)

16. According to passage A, certain types of human behavior developed through evolutionary processes because they

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(E)

Evolutionary psychologists seek to examine human behavior from the point of view of the theory of evolution. Altruism presents a difficult problem for evolutionary psychology. An altruistic individual uses valuable resources to promote the well-being of another individual. Genes may promote their self-propagation through actions that appear unselfish. Early humans lived in small, kin-based groups.

19. It can be inferred that the author of passage B would regard which one of the following as a mistaken assumption underlying arguments like that made in passage A? (A) (B) (C)

(D) (E)

Most of the physical features characteristic of modern humans developed as the result of evolutionary pressures. Any action performed by an early human was necessarily orchestrated by that individual’s genes to promote the genes’ self-propagation. To explain a type of human behavior in evolutionary terms, it is sufficient to show that the behavior would have improved the reproductive success of early humans. Evolutionary psychology can be used to explain human behavior but not animal behavior, since animal behavior is driven largely by instinct. Most early human behaviors that significantly hindered reproductive success were eliminated by evolutionary competition.

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During Dostoyevsky’s time there were two significant and opposing directions in Russian literary criticism. One position maintained that art stood high above the present and the everyday, while the radical view maintained that art had a right to exist only if it found its sources in concrete reality, and, through the exposure of want and injustice, it contributed to the creation of a new society; literature, in other words, should be useful. Dostoyevsky took a third position. As a realist, he never doubted that reality was literature’s crucial source. But his understanding of reality went deeper than the one prevailing among radical critics, since for Dostoyevsky there was no distinction in principle between fantasy and reality, and reality was far more than the merely tangible. The radical critics’ demand that reality be depicted “as it is” was meaningless for Dostoyevsky; reality was necessarily shaped by the person who experienced it: what may not be reality for you may be reality for me. The task of the writer was to explode the boundaries of the so-called real world. Within perceptible “reality” exists another sphere, the fantastic, which is not in any way superfluous to a writer’s concerns: “The fantastic must be so intimately bound up with the real that one almost believes in it.” The radical critics’ insistence that art must serve a particular political view was for Dostoyevsky the equivalent of assigning to art “a shameful destiny.” A literary work must stand or fall on its “artistic merit,” he explained. The utilitarian claim that the formal aspects of a work were of secondary importance so long as its goal was good and its purpose clear struck Dostoyevsky as a contradiction in terms. Only fully realized artistic works could fulfill their goals. But what does it mean to say that a work is “artistic”? Dostoyevsky defined it thus: “To say that a novelist is ‘artistic’ means that he possesses a talent to express his thoughts in characters and images so that when the reader has finished the novel, he has fully understood the author’s thoughts. Therefore, artistry is quite simply the ability to write well.” The radical critics’ requirement that art must at all costs be “useful” to people and society seemed to Dostoyevsky unsatisfactory. How can we know what will show itself to be useful? Can we say with assurance how useful the Iliad has been to humankind? No, Dostoyevsky believed, when it comes to this we encounter breadths that cannot be measured with any precision; sometimes a work of art may appear to deviate from reality and serve no useful purpose because we cannot see clearly what paths it may take to become useful.

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20. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage? (A)

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By drawing on elements from the two opposing strains of Russian literary criticism, Dostoyevsky developed the theoretical apparatus for a new direction in Russian literature. In opposition to the views of the two most prominent groups of Russian literary critics, Dostoyevsky believed that literature should keep itself removed from reality. Dostoyevsky’s indictment of the radical Russian critics rested solely on his objection to the radical critics’ stipulation that literature be useful to society. In his critical writings, Dostoyevsky championed the freedom of the artist against the narrow constraints imposed by the radical Russian critics’ concern with the depiction of reality. Dostoyevsky’s position on literature differed sharply from that of the radical Russian critics with respect to the nature of reality, the importance of formal aspects in a literary work, and the utility of art.

21. Which one of the following works most clearly exemplifies writing Dostoyevsky would have deemed “artistic”? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

a fictionalized account based on interviews with patients that illustrates the brutal facts of illness a novel in which the author’s ideas are given substance through suitable characters and events a novel in which the author attempted to use allegory to communicate a criticism of feudal society an autobiographical essay in which the author chronicles the outstanding events in his life a short story in which the characters debate how to solve various social problems

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22. According to the passage, Dostoyevsky disagreed with the radical critics’ view of realism in literature because he believed (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

reality is not independent of the experiences of individuals realism is unequal to the task of representing political views art should be elevated above the portrayal of reality realism does not in fact facilitate the exposure of social inequities or contribute to the creation of a new society reality is not the crucial source of successful literature

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(C) (D) (E)

proficiency at depicting the realm of the fantastic effectiveness at communicating the author’s ideas ability to help bring about social change facility for exploding the boundaries of the tangible world capacity to advance a particular theory of literature

(B) (C) (D) (E)

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Three positions are presented and each is elaborated in detail. Three positions are presented and the third is differentiated from the first two in detail. Three positions are presented and the third is differentiated from the second in detail. Three positions are presented and the third is shown to be superior to the first two. Three positions are presented and the third is shown to be inferior to the second.

It is correct because of its requirement that art have a strong element of the fantastic. It is correct because it recognizes that reality is more than just an enumeration of the mundane details of life. It is incorrect because reality must be the foundation of all literature. It is incorrect because it makes no distinction between reality and fantasy. It is incorrect because of its insistence that art further some societal end.

Only works of literature that are well written can serve a particular political view. Only works of literature that serve a particular political view can be said to be well written. Works of literature that are not well written always attempt to serve a particular political view. A work of literature that is well written cannot serve any particular political view. A work of literature that serves a particular political view cannot be well written.

27. The passage suggests that Dostoyevsky’s attitude toward the radical critics’ view would be most softened if the radical critics were to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

S

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26. Given the information in the passage, Dostoyevsky would have been most likely to agree with which one of the following statements about works of literature?

24. Which one of the following most accurately describes the organization of the material presented in the passage? (A)

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25. It can be inferred from the passage that Dostoyevsky would most likely have agreed with which one of the following statements about the view held by some Russian critics that art should stand high above the present and everyday?

23. In the context of the passage, the description of a work of literature as “useful” mainly refers to its (A) (B)

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draw a sharper distinction between reality and fantasy when evaluating the content of a literary work put clarity of purpose ahead of formal aspects when evaluating a literary work acknowledge the importance of eliminating elements of concrete reality from literary works recognize the full significance of artistic merit when evaluating literary works explain more fully their demand that reality be depicted as it is

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IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

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Acknowledgment is made to the following sources from which material has been adapted for use in this test booklet: Jerry Fodor, “The Trouble with Psychological Darwinism.” ©1998 by LRB Ltd. Werner Z. Hirsch, Law and Economics: An Introductory Analysis. ©1979 by Academic Press, Inc. Geir Kjetsaa, Fyodor Dostoyevsky: A Writer’s Life. tr. Siri Hustvedt and David McDuff. ©1987 by Viking Penguin Inc. D. J. Kruger, “Evolution and Altruism: Combining Psychological Mediators with Naturally Selected Tendencies.” ©2003 by the Human Behavior and Evolution Society.

–31–

Wait for the supervisor’s instructions before you open the page to the topic. Please print and sign your name and write the date in the designated spaces below.

Time: 35 Minutes General Directions

You will have 35 minutes in which to plan and write an essay on the topic inside. Read the topic and the accompanying directions carefully. You will probably find it best to spend a few minutes considering the topic and organizing your thoughts before you begin writing. In your essay, be sure to develop your ideas fully, leaving time, if possible, to review what you have written. Do not write on a topic other than the one specified. Writing on a topic of your own choice is not acceptable. No special knowledge is required or expected for this writing exercise. Law schools are interested in the reasoning, clarity, organization, language usage, and writing mechanics displayed in your essay. How well you write is more important than how much you write. Confine your essay to the blocked, lined area on the front and back of the separate Writing Sample Response Sheet. Only that area will be reproduced for law schools. Be sure that your writing is legible.

Both this topic sheet and your response sheet must be turned over to the testing staff before you leave the room. Topic Code –––––––––––––

Print Your Full Name Here Last

Date

/

First

Sign Your Name Here

/

Scratch Paper

Do not write your essay in this space.

M.I.

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LSAT Writing Sample Topic

Directions: The scenario presented below describes two choices, either one of which can be supported on the basis of the information given. Your essay should consider both choices and argue for one over the other, based on the two specified criteria and the facts provided. There is no “right” or “wrong” choice: a reasonable argument can be made for either. ZM Corporation, a major household appliance manufacturer, is in bankruptcy and must decide whether to sell SB, a foreignbased appliance company it owns, or shut it down permanently. Using the facts below, write an essay in which you argue for one option over the other based on the following two criteria: •  ZM wants to emerge from bankruptcy financially sound and do so as quickly as possible. •  ZM wants to focus on developing its own brands and strengthening their sales. The sale of SB would produce an immediate injection of cash for ZM. Two bidders have a strong interest in SB. The SB brand has a strong reputation for technological innovation. SB has highly dedicated customers in several key markets. SB has lost money in nine of the past ten years. Recently ZM has invested heavily in developing updated products for SB that use some of ZM’s most advanced technology. ZM would continue to sell parts and technology to SB for these appliances. An independent SB would compete with some of ZM’s brands in certain markets. Shutting down SB would involve substantial short-term costs and would be a long process. ZM would have to pay off SB’s creditors and make settlements with SB’s unions, as well as honor warranties and provide parts and service for SB customers. There is some possibility that selling off SB’s assets piecemeal after shutdown might, in the long term, bring in more net money than selling SB intact. A shutdown would allow ZM to retain exclusive control of its advanced technology. Some of SB’s highly anticipated new products could be rebranded as ZM products.

Scratch Paper

Do not write your essay in this space.

–33–

LAST NAME (Print)

MI

FIRST NAME (Print)

SIGNATURE

Writing Sample Response Sheet

DO NOT WRITE IN THIS SPACE Begin your essay in the lined area below. Continue on the back if you need more space.

–34–

–35–

Computing Your Score Directions: 1. Use the Answer Key on the next page to check your answers. 2. Use the Scoring Worksheet below to compute your raw score. 3. Use the Score Conversion Chart to convert your raw score into the 120–180 scale.

Scoring Worksheet 1. Enter the number of questions you answered correctly in each section. Number Correct SECTION I . . . . . . . . SECTION II . . . . . . . . SECTION III . . . . . . . SECTION IV . . . . . . . 2. Enter the sum here:  This is your Raw Score.

Conversion Chart For Converting Raw Score to the 120–180 LSAT Scaled Score LSAT PrepTest 64 Reported Score 180 179 178 177 176 175 174 173 172 171 170 169 168 167 166 165 164 163 162 161 160 159 158 157 156 155 154 153 152 151 150 149 148 147 146 145 144 143 142 141 140 139 138 137 136 135 134 133 132 131 130 129 128 127 126 125 124 123 122 121 120



Lowest 99 98 97 96 95 94 93 91 90 89 88 86 85 84 82 81 79 78 76 74 73 71 69 68 66 64 63 61 59 58 56 54 53 51 50 48 46 45 43 42 40 39 37 36 34 33 32 30 29 28 26 25 24 23 21 20 19 18 17 16 0

Raw Score

Highest 101 98 97 96 95 94 93 92 90 89 88 87 85 84 83 81 80 78 77 75 73 72 70 68 67 65 63 62 60 58 57 55 53 52 50 49 47 45 44 42 41 39 38 36 35 33 32 31 29 28 27 25 24 23 22 20 19 18 17 16 15

–36–

Answer Key

SECTION I 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

C C B A A E C

  8.   9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

B B A E D D A

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

B A A B C D E

22. 23. 24. 25.

B D E B

D C B D B A A

22. D 23. C

B D B B D C A

22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

C E B D E

C A E D C E B

22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

A C C C A D

SECTION II 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

E B C D A E B

  8.   9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

A E A C D C E

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

SECTION III 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

B E C B D D B

  8.   9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

D A D E C A A

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

SECTION IV 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

D B E B A C B

  8.   9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

A E B D D E B

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

1-800-KAP-TEST | kaptest.com

*LSAT is a registered trademark of the Law School Admission Council.

LSAT

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PrepTest 65 Test ID: LL3065

A complete version of the Preptest 65 has been reproduced with the permission of Law School Admission Council, Inc. PrepTest 65 ©2011 Law School Admission Council, Inc. All actual LSAT questions printed within this work are used with the permission of Law School Admission Council, Inc., Box 2000, Newton, PA 18940, the copyright owner. LSAC does not review or endorse specific test preparation materials or services, and inclusion of licensed LSAT questions within this work does not imply the review or endorsement of Law Services.

© 2012 Kaplan, Inc. All rights reserved. No part of this book may be reproduced in any form, by photostat, microfilm, xerography, or any other means, or incorporated into any information retrieval system, electronic or mechanical, without the written permission of Kaplan, Inc.



Logical Reasoning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION I



Analytical Reasoning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION II



Reading Comprehension . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION III



Logical Reasoning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION IV



Writing Sample Materials

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SECTION I Time—35 minutes 25 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions,  more  than  one  of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer;  that is,  the  response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense  standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. 1. In a recent study of more than 400 North American men and women whose previous heart attack put them at risk for a second heart attack, about half were told to switch to a “Mediterranean-type diet”—one rich in fish, vegetables, olive oil, and grains—while the other half were advised to eat a more traditional “Western” diet but to limit their fat intake. Those following the Mediterranean diet were significantly less likely than those in the other group to have a second heart attack. But the Mediterranean diet includes a fair amount of fat from fish and olive oil, so the research suggests that a diet may not have to be extremely low in fat in order to protect the heart. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument? (A) (B)

(C) (D) (E)

Research has shown that eliminating almost all fat from one’s diet can be effective in decreasing the likelihood of a second heart attack. Studies suggest that the kinds of oils in the fat included in the Mediterranean diet may protect the heart against potentially fatal disruptions of heart rhythms and other causes of heart attacks. The patients who consumed the Mediterranean diet enjoyed the food and continued to follow the diet after the experiment was concluded. Many people who have had heart attacks are advised by their cardiologists to begin an exercise regimen in addition to changing their diet. Some cardiologists believe that the protection afforded by the Mediterranean diet might be enhanced by drugs that lower blood-cholesterol levels.

2. Florist: Some people like to have green carnations on St. Patrick’s Day. But flowers that are naturally green are extremely rare. Thus, it is very difficult for plant breeders to produce green carnations. Before St. Patrick’s Day, then, it is wise for florists to stock up on white carnations, which are fairly inexpensive and quite easy to dye green. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the overall conclusion of the florist’s argument? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

It is a good idea for florists to stock up on white carnations before St. Patrick’s Day. Flowers that are naturally green are very rare. There are some people who like to have green carnations on St. Patrick’s Day. White carnations are fairly inexpensive and can easily be dyed green. It is very difficult to breed green carnations.

3. Millions of homes are now using low-energy lighting, but millions more have still to make the switch, a fact that the government and the home lighting industry are eager to change. Although low-wattage bulbs cost more per bulb than normal bulbs, their advantages to the homeowner are enormous, and therefore everyone should use low-wattage bulbs. Information about which one of the following would be LEAST useful in evaluating the argument? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

the actual cost of burning low-wattage bulbs compared to that of burning normal bulbs the profits the home lighting industry expects to make from sales of low-wattage bulbs the specific cost of a low-wattage bulb compared with that of a normal bulb the opinion of current users of low-wattage bulbs as to their effectiveness the average life of a low-wattage bulb compared with that of a normal bulb

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4. Swimming pools should be fenced to protect children from drowning, but teaching children to swim is even more important. And there is a principle involved here that applies to childrearing generally. Thus, while we should restrict children’s access to the soft drinks and candies advertised on television shows directed towards children, it is even more important to teach them _______. Which one of the following most logically completes the passage? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

that television can be a good source of accurate information about many things that television advertisements are deceptive and misleading how to make nutritional choices that are conducive to their well-being the importance of physical activity to health and well-being how to creatively entertain themselves without watching television

5. In its coverage of a controversy regarding a proposal to build a new freeway, a television news program showed interviews with several people who would be affected by the proposed freeway. Of the interviews shown, those conducted with people against the new freeway outnumbered those conducted with people for it two to one. The television program is therefore biased against the proposed freeway. Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Most of the people who watched the program were aware of the freeway controversy beforehand. Most viewers of television news programs do not expect those programs to be completely free of bias. In the interviews, the people against the new freeway expressed their opinions with more emotion than the people for the freeway did. Before the program aired, over twice as many people were against building the freeway than were in favor of it. The business interests of the television station that produced the program would be harmed by the construction of a new freeway.

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6. Evan: I am a vegetarian because I believe it is immoral to inflict pain on animals to obtain food. Some vegetarians who share this moral reason nonetheless consume some seafood, on the grounds that it is not known whether certain sea creatures can experience pleasure or pain. But if it is truly wrong to inflict needless suffering, we should extend the benefit of the doubt to sea animals and refrain from eating seafood. Which one of the following most closely conforms to the principle illustrated by Evan’s criticism of vegetarians who eat seafood? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

I do not know if I have repaid Farah the money she lent me for a movie ticket. She says that she does not remember whether or not I repaid her. In order to be sure that I have repaid her, I will give her the money now. It is uncertain whether all owners of the defective vehicles know that their vehicles are being recalled by the manufacturer. Thus, we should expect that some vehicles that have been recalled have not been returned. I am opposed to using incentives such as reduced taxes to attract businesses to our region. These incentives would attract businesses interested only in short-term profits. Such businesses would make our region’s economy less stable, because they have no long-term commitment to the community. Updating our computer security system could lead to new contracts. The present system has no problems, but we could benefit from emphasizing a state-of-the-art system in new proposals. If we do not get new customers, the new system could be financed through higher fees for current customers. Isabel Allende lived through the tragic events of her country’s recent history; no doubt her novels have been inspired by her memories of those events. Yet Allende’s characters are hopeful and full of joy, indicating that Allende’s own view of life has not been negatively marked by her experiences.

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7. Economist: Government intervention in the free market in pursuit of socially desirable goals can affect supply and demand, thereby distorting prices. The ethics of such intervention is comparable to that of administering medicines. Most medicines have harmful as well as beneficial effects, so the use of a type of medicine is ethically justified only when its nonuse would be significantly more harmful than its use. Similarly, government intervention in the free market is justified only when it _______. Which one of the following most logically completes the final sentence above? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

would likely be approved of by the majority of the affected participants has been shown to have few if any significantly harmful effects is believed unlikely to significantly exacerbate any existing problems would do less damage than would result from the government’s not intervening provides a solution to some otherwise insoluble problem

8. The proportion of fat calories in the diets of people who read the nutrition labels on food products is significantly lower than it is in the diets of people who do not read nutrition labels. This shows that reading these labels promotes healthful dietary behavior. The reasoning in the argument above is flawed in that the argument (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

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illicitly infers a cause from a correlation relies on a sample that is unlikely to be representative of the group as a whole confuses a condition that is necessary for a phenomenon to occur with a condition that is sufficient for that phenomenon to occur takes for granted that there are only two possible alternative explanations of a phenomenon draws a conclusion about the intentions of a group of people based solely on data about the consequences of their behavior

9. Some paleontologists have suggested that Apatosaurus, a huge dinosaur, was able to gallop. This, however, is unlikely, because galloping would probably have broken Apatosaurus’s legs. Experiments with modern bones show how much strain they can withstand before breaking. By taking into account the diameter and density of Apatosaurus leg bones, it is possible to calculate that those bones could not have withstood the strains of galloping. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the conclusion drawn by the argument as a whole? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Galloping would probably have broken the legs of Apatosaurus. It is possible to calculate that Apatosaurus leg bones could not have withstood the strain of galloping. The claim of paleontologists that Apatosaurus was able to gallop is likely to be incorrect. If galloping would have broken the legs of Apatosaurus, then Apatosaurus was probably unable to gallop. Modern bones are quite similar in structure and physical properties to the bones of Apatosaurus.

10. A new process enables ordinary table salt to be fortified with iron. This advance could help reduce the high incidence of anemia in the world’s population due to a deficiency of iron in the diet. Salt is used as a preservative for food and a flavor enhancer all over the globe, and people consume salt in quantities that would provide iron in significant amounts. Which one of the following most accurately describes the role played in the argument by the statement that people consume salt in quantities that would provide iron in significant amounts? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

It is the conclusion of the argument. It provides support for the conclusion of the argument. It is a claim that the argument is directed against. It qualifies the conclusion of the argument. It illustrates a principle that underlies the argument.

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11. Inspector: The only fingerprints on the premises are those of the owner, Mr. Tannisch. Therefore, whoever now has his guest’s missing diamonds must have worn gloves. Which one of the following exhibits a flaw in its reasoning most similar to that in the inspector’s reasoning? (A)

(B)

(C) (D) (E)

The campers at Big Lake Camp, all of whom became ill this afternoon, have eaten food only from the camp cafeteria. Therefore, the cause of the illness must not have been something they ate. The second prototype did not perform as well in inclement weather as did the first prototype. Hence, the production of the second prototype might have deviated from the design followed for the first. Each of the swimmers at this meet more often loses than wins. Therefore, it is unlikely that any of them will win. All of Marjorie’s cavities are on the left side of her mouth. Hence, she must chew more on the left side than on the right. All of these tomato plants are twice as big as they were last year. So if we grow peas, they will probably be twice as big as last year’s peas.

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12. Populations of a shrimp species at eleven different Indonesian coral reefs show substantial genetic differences from one reef to another. This is surprising because the area’s strong ocean currents probably carry baby shrimp between the different reefs, which would allow the populations to interbreed and become genetically indistinguishable. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to explain the substantial genetic differences among the shrimp populations? (A)

(B)

(C) (D) (E)

The genetic differences between the shrimp populations are much less significant than those between shrimp and any other marine species. The individual shrimp within a given population at any given Indonesian coral reef differ from one another genetically, even though there is widespread interbreeding within any such population. Before breeding, shrimp of the species examined migrate back to the coral reef at which they were hatched. Most shrimp hatched at a given Indonesian coral reef are no longer present at that coral reef upon becoming old enough to breed. Ocean currents probably carry many of the baby shrimp hatched at a given Indonesian coral reef out into the open ocean rather than to another coral reef.

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13. Researchers have studied the cost-effectiveness of growing halophytes—salt-tolerant plant species—for animal forage. Halophytes require more water than conventional crops, but can be irrigated with seawater, and pumping seawater into farms near sea level is much cheaper than pumping freshwater from deep wells. Thus, seawater agriculture near sea level should be cost-effective in desert regions although its yields are smaller than traditional, freshwater agriculture. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument above? (A)

(B) (C) (D) (E)

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A given volume of halophytes is significantly different in nutritional value for animal forage from the same volume of conventional forage crops. Some halophytes not only tolerate seawater but require salt in order to thrive. Large research expenditures are needed to develop the strains of halophytes best suited for agricultural purposes. Costs other than the costs of irrigation are different for halophytes grown by means of seawater irrigation than for conventional crops. Pumping water for irrigation is proportionally one of the largest costs involved in growing, harvesting, and distributing any forage crop for animals.

14. Principle: If an insurance policy is written in such a way that a reasonable person seeking insurance would not read it thoroughly before signing it, then the reasonable expectations of the policyholder concerning the policy’s coverage should take legal precedence over specific language in the written policy itself.

Application: The insurance company should be required to cover the hail damage to Celia’s car, even though specific language in the written policy Celia signed excluded coverage for hail damage. Which one of the following, if true, most justifies the above application of the principle? (A) (B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Celia is a reasonable person, and she expected the insurance policy to cover hail damage to her car. Given the way it was written, a reasonable person would not have read Celia’s insurance policy thoroughly before signing it, and Celia reasonably expected the policy to cover hail damage. The insurance policy that Celia signed was written in such a way that a reasonable person would not read it thoroughly before signing it, but Celia did read the policy thoroughly before signing it. Celia did not read the insurance policy thoroughly before signing it, and a reasonable person in her position would assume that the policy would cover hail damage. Celia did not read the written insurance policy thoroughly before signing it, and a reasonable person in her position would not have done so either.

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15. Researcher: Every year approximately the same number of people die of iatrogenic “disease”—that is, as a direct result of medical treatments or hospitalization—as die of all other causes combined. Therefore, if medicine could find ways of preventing all iatrogenic disease, the number of deaths per year would decrease by half. The reasoning in the researcher’s argument is flawed because the argument fails to consider that (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

prevention of noniatrogenic disease will have an effect on the occurrence of iatrogenic disease some medical treatments can be replaced by less invasive or damaging alternatives people who do not die of one cause may soon die of another cause there is no one way to prevent all cases of death from iatrogenic disease whenever a noniatrogenic disease occurs, there is a risk of iatrogenic disease

16. Activist: Any member of the city council ought either to vote against the proposal or to abstain. But if all the members abstain, the matter will be decided by the city’s voters. So at least one member of the city council should vote against the proposal. The conclusion of the activist’s argument follows logically if which one of the following is assumed? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

If all the members of the city council abstain in the vote on the proposal, the city’s voters will definitely decide in favor of the proposal. The proposal should not be decided by the city’s voters. No members of the city council will vote in favor of the proposal. If not every member of the city council abstains in the vote on the proposal, the matter will not be decided by the city’s voters. If one member of the city council ought to vote against the proposal, the other members should abstain in the vote on the proposal.

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17. Economist: Some critics of the media have contended that negative news reports on the state of the economy can actually harm the economy because such reports damage people’s confidence in it, and this lack of confidence in turn adversely affects people’s willingness to spend money. But studies show that spending trends correlate very closely with people’s confidence in their own immediate economic situations. Thus these media critics are mistaken. The economist’s argument is flawed in that it fails to consider the possibility that (A) (B) (C)

(D)

(E)

one’s level of confidence in one’s own economic situation affects how one perceives reports about the overall state of the economy news reports about the state of the economy are not always accurate people who pay no attention to economic reports in the media always judge accurately whether their own economic situation is likely to deteriorate or improve people who have little confidence in the overall economy generally take a pessimistic view concerning their own immediate economic situations an economic slowdown usually has a greater impact on the economic situations of individuals if it takes people by surprise than if people are forewarned

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18. Zoologist: Every domesticated large mammal species now in existence was domesticated thousands of years ago. Since those days, people undoubtedly tried innumerable times to domesticate each of the wild large mammal species that seemed worth domesticating. Clearly, therefore, most wild large mammal species in existence today either would be difficult to domesticate or would not be worth domesticating. The zoologist’s argument requires the assumption that (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

in spite of the difficulties encountered, at one time or another people have tried to domesticate each wild large mammal species it is not much easier today to domesticate wild large mammal species than it was in the past not all of the large mammal species that were domesticated in the past are still in existence the easier it is to domesticate a wild large mammal species, the more worthwhile it is to do so of all the domesticated large mammal species in existence today, the very first to be domesticated were the easiest to domesticate

19. Last winter was mild enough to allow most bird species to forage naturally, which explains why the proportion of birds visiting feeders was much lower than usual. The mild winter also allowed many species to stay in their summer range all winter without migrating south, thereby limiting the usual attrition accompanying migration. Hence, last year’s mild winter is responsible for this year’s larger-than-usual bird population. Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the reasoning in the argument? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

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Increases in bird populations sometimes occur following unusual weather patterns. When birds do not migrate south, the mating behaviors they exhibit differ from those they exhibit when they do migrate. Birds eating at feeders are more vulnerable to predators than are birds foraging naturally. Birds that remain in their summer range all winter often exhaust that range’s food supply before spring. Birds sometimes visit feeders even when they are able to find sufficient food for survival by foraging naturally.

20. Journalist: Newspapers generally report on only those scientific studies whose findings sound dramatic. Furthermore, newspaper stories about small observational studies, which are somewhat unreliable, are more frequent than newspaper stories about large randomized trials, which generate stronger scientific evidence. Therefore, a small observational study must be more likely to have dramatic findings than a large randomized trial. Which one of the following most accurately expresses a flaw in the journalist’s reasoning? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

It casts doubt on the reliability of a study by questioning the motives of those reporting it. It fails to consider that even if a study’s findings sound dramatic, the scientific evidence for those findings may be strong. It confuses a claim about scientific studies whose findings sound dramatic with a similar claim about small observational studies. It overlooks the possibility that small observational studies are far more common than large randomized trials. It fails to rule out the possibility that a study’s having findings that sound dramatic is an effect rather than a cause of the study’s being reported on.

21. In several countries, to slow global warming, many farmers are planting trees on their land because of government incentives. These incentives arose from research indicating that vegetation absorbs carbon dioxide that might otherwise trap heat in the atmosphere. A recent study, however, indicates that trees absorb and store carbon dioxide less effectively than native grasses. Therefore, these incentives are helping to hasten global warming. The argument requires the assumption that (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

trees not only absorb carbon dioxide but also emit it most farmers do not plant any trees on their land unless there is an incentive to do so land that has been deforested seldom later sustains native grasses some of the trees planted in response to the incentives are planted where native grasses would otherwise be growing few if any governments have been interested in promoting the growth of native grasses

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22. Does the position of a car driver’s seat have a significant impact on driving safety? It probably does. Driving position affects both comfort and the ability to see the road clearly. A driver who is uncomfortable eventually becomes fatigued, which makes it difficult to concentrate on the road. Likewise, the better the visibility from the driver’s seat, the more aware the driver can be of road conditions and other vehicles.

Which one of the following principles, if valid, would most help to justify the reasoning in the editorial?

(A) (B)

(B)

(D) (E)

(A)

It is the conclusion drawn in the argument. It is a claim that the argument shows to be inconsistent with available evidence. It is used to provide a causal explanation for an observed phenomenon. It describes evidence that the argument ultimately refutes. It is a premise offered in support of the conclusion drawn in the argument.

(C) (D) (E)

23. Physician: There were approximately 83,400 trampolinerelated injuries last year. This suggests that trampolines are quite dangerous and should therefore be used only under professional supervision.

If all of the interior decorator’s statements are true, then which one of the following must be true? (A) (B)

The dialogue provides the most support for the claim that the physician and the trampoline enthusiast disagree over whether

(B) (C) (D) (E)

(C) (D)

trampolines cause injuries to a significant number of people using them home trampolines are the main source of trampoline-related injuries the rate of trampoline-related injuries, in terms of the number of injuries per trampoline user, is declining professional supervision of trampoline use tends to reduce the number of trampoline-related injuries trampoline use is an activity that warrants mandatory professional supervision

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Journalism deserves to be criticized if it does not provide information that people want. Any journalism that intentionally misrepresents the facts of a case deserves to be criticized. Any journalism that provides accurate information on a subject about which there is considerable interest is good journalism. Good journalism will always provide people with information that they desire or need. Journalism that neither satisfies the public’s curiosity nor provides accurate information can never be considered good journalism.

25. Interior decorator: All coffeehouses and restaurants are public places. Most well-designed public places feature artwork. But if a public place is uncomfortable it is not well designed, and all comfortable public places have spacious interiors.

Trampoline enthusiast: I disagree. In the past ten years sales of home trampolines have increased much more than trampoline-related injuries have: 260 percent in sales compared with 154 percent in injuries. Every exercise activity carries risks, even when carried out under professional supervision.

(A)

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24. Editorial: One of our local television stations has been criticized for its recent coverage of the personal problems of a local politician’s nephew, but the coverage was in fact good journalism. The information was accurate. Furthermore, the newscast had significantly more viewers than it normally does, because many people are curious about the politician’s nephew’s problems.

Which one of the following most accurately describes the role played in the argument by the claim that driving position affects both comfort and the ability to see the road clearly?

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(E)

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Any restaurant that has a spacious interior is comfortable. Most public places that feature artwork are well designed. Most coffeehouses that are well designed feature artwork. Any well-designed coffeehouse or restaurant has a spacious interior. Any coffeehouse that has a spacious interior is a well-designed public place.

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IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

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2 SECTION II Time—35 minutes 23 Questions

Directions: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may  be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. Questions 1–5 A professor must determine the order in which five of her students—Fernando, Ginny, Hakim, Juanita, and Kevin—will perform in an upcoming piano recital. Each student performs one piece, and no two performances overlap. The following constraints apply: Ginny must perform earlier than Fernando. Kevin must perform earlier than Hakim and Juanita. Hakim must perform either immediately before or immediately after Fernando. 1. Which one of the following could be the order, from first to last, in which the students perform? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ginny, Fernando, Hakim, Kevin, Juanita Ginny, Juanita, Kevin, Hakim, Fernando Ginny, Kevin, Hakim, Juanita, Fernando Kevin, Ginny, Juanita, Fernando, Hakim Kevin, Juanita, Fernando, Hakim, Ginny

2. If Juanita performs earlier than Ginny, then which one of the following could be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Fernando performs fourth. Ginny performs second. Hakim performs third. Juanita performs third. Kevin performs second.

3. Which one of the following CANNOT be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Fernando performs immediately before Juanita. Ginny performs immediately before Hakim. Hakim performs immediately before Ginny. Juanita performs immediately before Ginny. Kevin performs immediately before Hakim.

4. The order in which the students perform is fully determined if which one of the following is true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Fernando performs immediately before Hakim. Ginny performs immediately before Fernando. Hakim performs immediately before Juanita. Juanita performs immediately before Hakim. Kevin performs immediately before Fernando.

5. How many of the students are there any one of whom could perform fourth? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

one two three four five

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Questions 6–11 As part of an open house at a crafts studio, three teachers— Jiang, Kudrow, and Lanning—will give six consecutive presentations on six different subjects. Jiang will present on needlework and origami; Kudrow on pottery, stenciling, and textile making; and Lanning on woodworking. The order of their presentations will meet the following conditions: Kudrow cannot give two presentations in a row. The presentation on stenciling must be given earlier than the one on origami. The presentation on textile making must be given earlier than the one on woodworking. 6. Which one of the following could be the order of the presentations, from first to sixth? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

stenciling, origami, needlework, textile making, pottery, woodworking stenciling, origami, pottery, woodworking, needlework, textile making stenciling, origami, textile making, woodworking, needlework, pottery textile making, origami, stenciling, woodworking, needlework, pottery textile making, stenciling, woodworking, needlework, pottery, origami

7. If textile making is presented fifth, which one of the following could be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Needlework is presented sixth. Pottery is presented fourth. Stenciling is presented second. Stenciling is presented third. Woodworking is presented second.

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8. If needlework is presented first, which one of the following could be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Origami is presented sixth. Pottery is presented second. Stenciling is presented third. Textile making is presented fifth. Woodworking is presented third.

9. Jiang CANNOT give both (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

the first and third presentations the first and fourth presentations the first and fifth presentations the second and third presentations the second and fourth presentations

10. If needlework is presented sixth, which one of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Origami is presented fourth. Pottery is presented fifth. Stenciling is presented third. Textile making is presented first. Woodworking is presented fourth.

11. Which one of the following CANNOT be the subject of the second presentation? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

needlework origami pottery textile making woodworking

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Questions 12–16 The organizer of a luncheon will select exactly five foods to be served from among exactly eight foods: two desserts—F and G; three main courses—N, O, and P; three side dishes—T, V, and W. Only F, N, and T are hot foods. The following requirements will be satisfied: At least one dessert, at least one main course, and at least one side dish must be selected. At least one hot food must be selected. If either P or W is selected, both must be selected. If G is selected, O must be selected. If N is selected, V cannot be selected. 12. Which one of the following is a list of foods that could be the foods selected? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

F, N, O, T, V F, O, P, T, W G, N, P, T, W G, O, P, T, V G, O, P, V, W

13. Which one of the following is a pair of foods of which the organizer of the luncheon must select at least one? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

F, T G, O N, T O, P V, W

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14. If O is the only main course selected, then which one of the following CANNOT be selected? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

F G T V W

15. If F is not selected, which one of the following could be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

P is the only main course selected. T is the only side dish selected. Exactly two hot foods are selected. Exactly three main courses are selected. Exactly three side dishes are selected.

16. If T and V are the only side dishes selected, then which one of the following is a pair of foods each of which must be selected? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

F and G F and N F and P N and O O and P

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Questions 17–23 A television programming director is scheduling a three-hour block of programs beginning at 1 p.m. The programs that are to fill this time block include an hour-long program called Generations and four half-hour programs: Roamin’, Sundown, Terry, and Waterloo. The programs will be shown one after the other, each program shown exactly once. The schedule must meet the following constraints: Generations starts on the hour rather than the half hour. Terry starts on the half hour rather than the hour. Roamin’ is shown earlier than Sundown. If Waterloo is shown earlier than Terry, it is shown immediately before Terry.

Generations, Roamin’, Waterloo, Terry, Sundown Roamin’, Sundown, Waterloo, Terry, Generations Roamin’, Terry, Waterloo, Generations, Sundown Waterloo, Roamin’, Sundown, Terry, Generations Waterloo, Terry, Sundown, Roamin’, Generations

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

one two three four five

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Roamin’ is the second program. Roamin’ is the fifth program. Sundown is the fourth program. Terry is the fourth program. Waterloo is the second program.

22. Which one of the following CANNOT be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Sundown is shown immediately before Generations. Waterloo is shown immediately before Roamin’. Generations is shown immediately before Sundown. Roamin’ is shown immediately before Terry. Terry is shown immediately before Waterloo.

23. Which one of the following, if substituted for the constraint that Generations starts on the hour rather than the half hour, would have the same effect in determining the order in which the programs are shown? (A)

19. If Roamin’ is the second program, then each of the following could be true EXCEPT: (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Generations is the first program. Roamin’ is the first program. Roamin’ is the second program. Terry is the fifth program. Waterloo is the fourth program.

21. If Generations is the third program, then which one of the following could be true?

18. If Waterloo is the first program, then how many orders are there in which the remaining programs could be shown? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

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20. If Sundown is the third program, then which one of the following must be true?

17. Which one of the following could be the order in which the programs are shown, from earliest to latest? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

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(B)

Sundown is the third program. Sundown is the fourth program. Terry is the fifth program. Waterloo is the third program. Waterloo is the fifth program.

(C) (D) (E)

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Generations is not shown immediately before Terry. Generations is either the first program or the fifth. Generations is neither the second program nor the fourth. If Generations is shown third, then Roamin’ is shown first. If Generations is not shown first, then it is shown later than Terry.

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IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

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SECTION III Time—35 minutes 27 Questions Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage or a pair of passages. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage or pair of passages. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

(5)

(10)

(15)

(20)

(25)

(30)

(35)

(40)

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In the 1980s there was a proliferation of poetry collections, short stories, and novels published by women of Latin American descent in the United States. By the end of the decade, another genre of U.S. Latina writing, the autobiography, also came into prominence with the publication of three notable autobiographical collections: Loving in the War Years: Lo Que Nunca Pasó Por Sus Labios, by Cherríe Moraga; Getting Home Alive, by Aurora Levins Morales and Rosario Morales; and Borderlands/ La Frontera, by Gloria Anzaldúa. These collections are innovative at many levels. They confront traditional linguistic boundaries by using a mix of English and Spanish, and they each address the politics of multiple cultural identities by exploring the interrelationships among such factors as ethnicity, gender, and language. This effort manifests itself in the generically mixed structure of these works, which combine essays, sketches, short stories, poems, and journal entries without, for the most part, giving preference to any of these modes of presentation. In Borderlands/La Frontera, Anzaldúa presents her personal history and the history of the Mexican American community to which she belongs by juxtaposing narrative sequences and poetry. Moraga’s Loving in the War Years is likewise characterized by a mixture of genres, and, as she states in her introduction, the events in her life story are not arranged chronologically, but rather in terms of her political development. According to one literary critic who specializes in the genre of autobiography, this departure from chronological ordering represents an important difference between autobiographies written by women and those traditionally written by men. Getting Home Alive departs even further from the conventions typical of autobiography by bringing together the voices of two people, a mother and her daughter, each of whom authors a portion of the text. The narratives and poems of each author are not assigned to separate sections of the text, but rather are woven together, with a piece by one sometimes commenting on a piece by the other. While this ordering may seem fragmentary and confusing, it is in fact a fully intentional and carefully designed experiment with literary structure. In a sense, this mixing of structures parallels the content of these autobiographies: the writers employ multigeneric and multivocal forms to express the complexities inherent in the formation of their identities. Rather than forcing their personal histories to conform to existing generic parameters, these writers have revolutionized the genre of autobiography,

redrawing the boundaries of this literary form to make it more amenable to the expression of their own (55) experiences. In doing so, they have shown a strong determination to speak for themselves in a world that they feel has for too long taken their silence for granted. 1. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage? (A)

(B)

(C) (D)

(E)

Certain Latina writers who formerly wrote mostly poetry and fiction have found through experimentation that the genre of autobiography suits their artistic purposes especially well. Latina autobiographers writing in the late 1980s set aside some standard conventions of autobiography in an effort to make the genre more suitable for the expression of their personal histories. There is a great diversity of styles and narrative strategies among recent traditional and nontraditional Latina autobiographers. Through recent experimentation in autobiography, Latina writers have shown that nonfictional narrative can be effectively combined with other genres in a single literary work. Recent writings by Latina authors have prompted some literary critics who specialize in autobiography to acknowledge that differences in gender and ethnicity often underlie differences in writing styles.

2. According to the passage, which one of the following was a motivating factor in certain Latina authors’ decisions regarding the structure of their autobiographical writings? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

the importance of chronological ordering to those authors’ artistic goals those authors’ stated intention of avoiding certain nonnarrative genres those authors’ preference to avoid overt political expression the complexities of identity formation faced by those authors those authors’ judgment that poetry should not be a narrative medium

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3. The author’s discussion of Getting Home Alive serves primarily to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

distinguish one type of experimental autobiography from two other types by Latina writers explain how certain Latina autobiographers combine journal entries and poems in their works demonstrate that the use of multiple voices is a common feature of Latina autobiography show why readers have difficulty understanding certain autobiographies by Latina writers illustrate the extent of certain Latina autobiographers’ experimentation with form and structure

4. The passage indicates which one of the following about the Latina autobiographies that the author discusses? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Each contains some material that would ordinarily be regarded as belonging to a genre of literature other than autobiography. Each quotes from previously unpublished private journals or other private documents. Each contains analysis of the ways in which its content was influenced by its author’s cultural background. Each contains writings that were produced by more than one author. Each includes explanations of the methodologies that its author, or authors, used in writing the autobiography.

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3 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(B) (C) (D) (E)

The events presented in an autobiography should be arranged sequentially according to when they actually happened. When different modes of presentation are combined in one literary work, no one mode should be given preference. Autobiographical writing should not have political overtones. Sketches and poems collected together in a single work need not be separated by genre within that work. Personal experiences can be represented in a compelling way in any literary genre.

7. Which one of the following would, if true, most undermine the author’s claim in lines 51–56 about the effect that the Latina autobiographies discussed had on the genre of autobiography? (A)

(B)

(C)

disappointment in scholars’ failure to recognize it as an appropriate sequel to its authors’ purely fictional and poetic works expectation that readers in general might not readily recognize that there is a clear purpose for its unconventional organization surprise that academic commentators have treated it as having significance as a historical document confidence that it will be widely recognized by scholars as a work of both history and literary criticism insistence that it should be credited with having helped to broaden critics’ understanding of what counts as autobiography

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6. The author most likely intends to include which one of the following principles among the “existing generic parameters” referred to in line 52?

5. Based on the passage, the author’s attitude regarding Getting Home Alive, by Aurora Levins Morales and Rosario Morales, can be most accurately described as (A)

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(D)

(E)

Few autobiographical works published after 1985 have been recognized for their effective use of chronologically linear prose as a means of portraying the complexities of membership in multiple cultures. Few critically acclaimed books written by Latina authors have been autobiographical collections consisting partly or wholly of essays, poems, short stories, sketches, and journal entries. Many autobiographies have been written by authors in the United States since 1985, and some of these present a unified, chronologically linear prose narrative in a single language. Several nineteenth-century autobiographies that are generally unknown among contemporary critics of twentieth-century autobiography are characterized by generically mixed structure and multiple authorship. Several multigeneric, nonautobiographical collections consisting at least partly of poetry, short stories, or essays by Latina authors have been published since 1985, and many of these have been critically acclaimed for their innovative structures.

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While recent decades have seen more information recorded than any other era, the potential for losing this information is now greater than ever. This prospect is of great concern to archivists, who are charged with preserving vital records and documents indefinitely. One archivist notes that while the quantity of material being saved has increased exponentially, the durability of recording media has decreased almost as rapidly. The clay tablets that contain the laws of ancient Mesopotamia, for example, are still displayed in museums around the world, and many medieval manuscripts written on animal parchment still look as though they were copied yesterday, whereas books printed on acidic paper as recently as the 1980s are already unreadable. Black-and-white photographs will last for a couple of centuries, but most color photographs become unstable within 40 years, and videotapes last only about 20 years. Computer technology would seem to offer archivists an answer, as maps, photographs, films, videotapes, and all forms of printed material may now be transferred to and stored electronically on computer disks or tape, occupying very little space. But as the pace of technological change increases, so too does the speed with which each new generation of technology supplants the last. For example, many documents and images transferred in the 1980s to optical computer disks—then the cutting edge of technology—may not now be retrievable because they depend on computer software and hardware that are no longer available. And recent generations of digital storage tape are considered safe from deterioration for only ten years. Yet, even as some archivists are reluctant to become dependent on ever‑changing computer technology, they are also quickly running out of time. Even if viable storage systems are developed— new computer technologies are emerging that may soon provide archivists with the information storage durability they require—decisions about what to keep and what to discard will have to be made quickly, as materials recorded on conventional media continue to deteriorate. Ideally, these decisions should be informed by an assessment of the value of each document. Printed versions of ancient works by Homer and Virgil, for example, survived intact because their enduring popularity resulted in multiple copies of the works being made at different historical moments. But many great works, including those of Plato, were lost for several centuries and are known today only because random copies turned up in the archives of medieval monasteries or in other scholarly collections. Undoubtedly, many important works have not survived at all. The danger now is not so much that some recent masterpiece will be lost for an extended period of time, but rather that the sheer volume of accumulated records stored on nondurable media will make it virtually impossible for archivists to sort the essential from the dispensable in time to save it.

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3 8. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

The increasing volume of information being stored and the decreasing durability of modern storage media are making it more and more difficult for archivists to carry out their charge. Modern data storage-and-retrieval techniques have enabled archivists to distinguish essential from dispensable information with greater efficiency than ever before. Many archivists have come to believe that documents and images preserved on conventional storage media are likely to endure longer than those recorded on electronic storage media. Given the limitations on the capacity of modern storage media, it is increasingly important for archivists to save only those documents that they believe to have genuine value. Modern electronic media enable us to record and store information so easily that much of what is stored is not considered by archivists to be essential or valuable.

9. The passage provides information sufficient to answer which one of the following questions? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Are there any copies of the works of Homer and Virgil stored on parchment? Why is information stored on acidic paper more unstable than information stored on digital storage tape? When were optical storage disks a state-ofthe- art storage medium? Approximately how many of the original clay tablets recording Mesopotamian law are still in existence? How were the works of Plato originally recorded?

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10. The passage most strongly suggests that the author holds which one of the following views? (A) (B) (C)

(D) (E)

Archivists have little choice but to become dependent on computer technology to store information. Archivists should wait for truly durable data storage systems to be developed before electronically storing any more vital information. The problems concerning media durability facing most archivists would diminish greatly if their information were not stored electronically at all. Storing paintings, photographs, and other images presents greater overall problems for archivists than storing text does. Generally, the more information one attempts to store in a given amount of space, the less durable the storage of that information will be.

11. Which one of the following describes the author’s primary purpose in mentioning the fact that a wide variety of images and documents can now be stored electronically (lines 19–23)? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

to provide evidence to justify the assertion made in the first sentence of the passage to identify an ostensible solution to the problem raised in the first paragraph to argue a point that is rejected in the last sentence of the passage to offer an additional example of the problem stated at the end of the first paragraph to suggest that the danger described in the last paragraph has been exaggerated

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12. The passage provides the most support for inferring which one of the following statements? (A) (B) (C)

(D)

(E)

Information stored electronically is more vulnerable than information stored on paper to unauthorized use or theft. Much of the information stored on optical computer disks in the 1980s was subsequently transferred to digital storage tape. The high cost of new electronic data storage systems is prohibiting many archivists from transferring their archives to computer disks and tape. Media used recently to store information electronically may ultimately be less durable than older, conventional media such as photographs and videotapes. The percentage of information considered essential by archivists has increased proportionally as the amount of information stored has increased.

13. The passage most strongly suggests that the author holds which one of the following views? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D) (E)

Future electronic information storage systems will not provide archivists with capabilities any  more viable in the long term than those available today. As much information should be stored by archivists as possible, as there is no way to predict which piece of information will someday be considered a great work. The general public has been misled by manufacturers as to the long-term storage capabilities of electronic information storage systems. Distinguishing what is dispensable from what is essential has only recently become a concern for archivists. Value judgments made by today’s archivists will influence how future generations view and understand the past.

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The following passages are adapted from articles recently published in North American law review journals. Passage A In Canadian and United States common law, blackmail is unique among major crimes: no one has yet adequately explained why it ought to be illegal. The heart of the problem—known as the blackmail (5) paradox—is that two acts, each of which is legally permissible separately, become illegal when combined. If I threaten to expose a criminal act or embarrassing private information unless I am paid money, I have committed blackmail. But the right to free speech (10) protects my right to make such a disclosure, and, in many circumstances, I have a legal right to seek money. So why is it illegal to combine them? The lack of a successful theory of blackmail has damaging consequences: drawing a clear line between (15) legal and illegal acts has proved impossible without one. Consequently, most blackmail statutes broadly prohibit behavior that no one really believes is criminal and rely on the good judgment of prosecutors not to enforce relevant statutes precisely as written. It is possible, however, to articulate a coherent (20) theory of blackmail. The key to the wrongness of the blackmail transaction is its triangular structure. The blackmailer obtains what he wants by using a supplementary leverage, leverage that depends upon (25) a third party. The blackmail victim pays to avoid being harmed by persons other than the blackmailer. For example, when a blackmailer threatens to turn in a criminal unless paid money, the blackmailer is bargaining with the state’s chip. Thus, blackmail is (30) criminal because it involves the misuse of a third party for the blackmailer’s own benefit. Passage B Classical Roman law had no special category for blackmail; it was not necessary. Roman jurists began their evaluation of specific categories of (35) actions by considering whether the action caused harm, not by considering the legality or illegality of the action itself. Their assumption—true enough, it seems—was that a victim of blackmail would be harmed if shameful (40) but private information were revealed to the world. And if the shame would cause harm to the person’s status or reputation, then prima facie the threatened act of revelation was unlawful. The burden of proof shifted to the possessor of the information: the party (45) who had or threatened to reveal shameful facts had to show positive cause for the privilege of revealing the information. In short, assertion of the truth of the shameful fact being revealed was not, in itself, sufficient to (50) constitute a legal privilege. Granted, truth was not wholly irrelevant; false disclosures were granted even less protection than true ones. But even if it were true, the revelation of shameful information was protected

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3 only if the revelation had been made for a legitimate (55) purpose and dealt with a matter that the public authorities had an interest in having revealed. Just because something shameful happened to be true did not mean it was lawful to reveal it. 14. Which one of the following is the central topic of each passage? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

why triangular transactions are illegal the role of the right to free speech in a given legal system how blackmail has been handled in a given legal system the history of blackmail as a legal concept why no good explanation of the illegality of blackmail exists

15. In using the phrase “the state’s chip” (line 30), the author of passage A most clearly means to refer to a government’s (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

legal authority to determine what actions are crimes legitimate interest in learning about crimes committed in its jurisdiction legitimate interest in preventing crimes before they occur exclusive reliance on private citizens as a source of important information legal ability to compel its citizens to testify in court regarding crimes they have witnessed

16. Which one of the following statements is most strongly supported by information given in the passages? (A)

(B) (C) (D)

(E)

In Roman law, there was no blackmail paradox because free speech protections comparable to those in Canadian and U.S. common law were not an issue. Blackmail was more widely practiced in Roman antiquity than it is now because Roman law did not specifically prohibit blackmail. In general, Canadian and U.S. common law grant more freedoms than classical Roman law granted. The best justification for the illegality of blackmail in Canadian and U.S. common law is the damage blackmail can cause to the victim’s reputation. Unlike Roman law, Canadian and U.S. common law do not recognize the interest of public authorities in having certain types of information revealed.

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17. Which one of the following is a statement that is true of blackmail under Canadian and U.S. common law, according to passage A, but that would not have been true of blackmail in the Roman legal context, according to passage B? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

It combines two acts that are each legal separately. It is a transaction with a triangular structure. The laws pertaining to it are meant to be enforced precisely as written. The blackmail victim pays to avoid being harmed by persons other than the blackmailer. Canadian and U.S. common law have no special category pertaining to blackmail.

18. Based on what can be inferred from the passages, which one of the following acts would have been illegal under Roman law, but would not be illegal under Canadian and U.S. common law? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

bribing tax officials in order to avoid paying taxes revealing to public authorities that a highranking military officer has embezzled funds from the military’s budget testifying in court to a defendant’s innocence while knowing that the defendant is guilty informing a government tax agency that one’s employers have concealed their true income revealing to the public that a prominent politician had once had an adulterous affair

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19. The relationship between the ways in which Canadian and U.S. common law and classical Roman law treat blackmail, as described in the passages, is most analogous to the relationship between which one of the following pairs? (A) (B) (C)

(D)

(E)

One country legally requires anyone working as a carpenter to be licensed and insured; another country has no such requirement. One country makes it illegal to use cell phones on trains; another country makes it illegal to use cell phones on both trains and buses. One country legally allows many income tax deductions and exemptions; another country legally allows relatively few deductions and exemptions. One country makes it illegal for felons to own guns; another country has no such ban because it makes gun ownership illegal for everyone but police and the military. One country makes it illegal to drive motorcycles with racing-grade engines on its roads; another country legally permits such motorcycles but fines riders who commit traffic violations higher amounts than it does other motorists.

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As part of an international effort to address environmental problems resulting from agricultural overproduction, hundreds of thousands of acres of surplus farmland throughout Europe will be taken out of production in coming years. Restoring a natural balance of flora to this land will be difficult, however, because the nutrients in soil that has been in constant agricultural use are depleted. Moreover, much of this land has been heavily fertilized, and when such land is left unplanted, problem weeds like thistles often proliferate, preventing many native plants from establishing themselves. While the quickest way to restore heavily fertilized land is to remove and replace the topsoil, this is impractical on a large scale such as that of the European effort. And while it is generally believed that damaged ecological systems will restore themselves very gradually over time, a study underway in the Netherlands is investigating the possibility of artificially accelerating the processes through which nature slowly reestablishes plant diversity on previously farmed land. In the study, a former cornfield was raked to get rid of cornstalks and weeds, then divided into 20 plots of roughly equal size. Control plots were replanted with corn or sown with nothing at all. The remaining plots were divided into two groups: plots in one group were sown with a mixture of native grasses and herbs; those in the other group received the same mixture of grasses and herbs together with clover and toadflax. After three years, thistles have been forced out of the plots where the broadest variety of species was sown and have also disappeared from mats of grass in the plots sown with fewer seed varieties. On the control plots that were left untouched, thistles have become dominant. On some of the plots sown with seeds of native plant species, soil from nearby land that had been taken out of production 20 years earlier was scattered to see what effect introducing nematodes, fungi, and other beneficial microorganisms associated with later stages of natural soil development might have on the process of native plant repopulation. The seeds sown on these enriched plots have fared better than seeds sown on the unenriched plots, but still not as well as those growing naturally on the nearby land. Researchers have concluded that this is because fields farmed for many years are overrun with aggressive disease organisms, while, for example, beneficial mycorrhiza— fungi that live symbiotically on plant roots and strengthen them against the effects of disease organisms—are lacking. These preliminary results suggest that restoring natural plant diversity to overfarmed land hinges on restoring a natural balance of microorganisms in the soil. In other words, diversity underground fosters diversity aboveground. Researchers now believe that both kinds of diversity can be restored more quickly to damaged land if beneficial microorganisms are “sown” systematically into the soil along with a wide variety of native plant seeds.

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3 20. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the central idea of the passage? (A)

(B) (C) (D) (E)

The rehabilitation of land damaged by agricultural overproduction can be accelerated by means of a two-pronged strategy aimed at restoring biological diversity. Restoring plant diversity to overused farmland requires many years and considerable effort. The damaging effects of long-term agricultural overproduction argue for the modification of current agricultural practices. Soil on farmland damaged by overproduction will gradually replenish and restore itself over time if left untouched. Agricultural overproduction tends to encourage the proliferation of disease organisms in the soil as well as problem weeds.

21. Which one of the following most accurately describes the organization of the passage? (A) (B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

A study is described, the results of the study are scrutinized, and the results are judged to be inconclusive but promising. A hypothesis is presented, evidence both supporting and undermining the hypothesis is given, and a modification of the hypothesis is argued for. A study is evaluated, a plan of action based on the study’s findings is suggested, and conclusions are drawn concerning the likely effectiveness of the plan. A goal is stated, studies are discussed that argue for modifying the goal’s objectives, and a methodology is detailed to achieve the revised goal. A problem is presented, a study addressing the problem is described, and a course of action based on the study’s findings is given.

22. The passage offers which one of the following as an explanation for why native plant varieties grew better when sown on land that had been out of production for 20 years than when sown on the plots enriched with soil taken from that land? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Land that has been farmed for many years lacks certain key nutrients. Land that has been farmed for many years is usually overrun with harmful and aggressive organisms. Land that has been farmed for many years has usually been subjected to overfertilization. The soil that was taken from the land that had been out of production was lacking in fungi and other beneficial organisms. The soil that was taken from the land that had been out of production contained harmful organisms that attack plant roots. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

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23. Based on the passage, which one of the following is most likely to be true of any soil used to replace topsoil in the process mentioned in the first paragraph? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

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(B) (C) (D) (E)

Thistles cannot grow in it. It does not contain significant amounts of fungi. It contains very few seeds of native grasses and herbs. It does not contain large amounts of fertilizer. It was never used for growing corn or other commercial crops.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

introduce a long-held belief that the Netherlands study is attempting to discredit cite the justification generally used by people favoring intense agricultural production suggest that the consequences of agricultural overproduction are not as dire as people generally believe present the most common perception of why agricultural overproduction is problematic describe the circumstances surrounding and motivating the Netherlands study

(A)

(B)

(B) (C) (D) (E)

(C)

The field’s natural nutrients have been depleted through overproduction. The field’s topsoil can easily be removed and replaced. The field has been heavily fertilized for many decades. The field has the potential to support commercial grass plants such as rye. The field is adjacent to other fields where corn is growing and will continue to be grown.

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Populations of symbiotic mycorrhiza that live in the soil would initially decline. Unwanted plant species like thistles would be unable to survive. The chance of survival of a beneficial native plant would increase. The number of all types of beneficial microorganisms would increase in the long term. Populations of other types of disease organisms would increase proportionally.

27. Which one of the following is most analogous to the process, described in the last paragraph, by which the spread of thistles can be curtailed?

25. In which one of the following circumstances would it be LEAST advantageous to use the methods researched in the Netherlands study in order to restore to its natural state a field that has been in constant agricultural use? (A)

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26. It can be inferred from the passage that if the disease organisms mentioned in line 48 were eliminated in a plot of land that had been in constant agricultural use, which one of the following would be the most likely to occur?

24. The author’s reference to the belief that “damaged ecological systems will restore themselves very gradually over time” (lines 16–17) primarily serves to (A)

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A newspaper works to prevent Party A from winning a majority of seats in the legislature by publishing editorials encouraging that party’s supporters to switch their allegiance and vote for candidates from a rival party. A newspaper works to prevent Party A from winning a majority of seats in the legislature by publishing editorials defending candidates from a rival party against attacks by certain broadcast journalists. A newspaper works to prevent Party A from winning a majority of seats in the legislature by publishing editorials intended to discourage supporters of Party A from voting in the upcoming election. A newspaper works to prevent Party A from winning a majority of seats in the legislature by publishing editorials attacking certain public figures who support candidates from Party A. A newspaper works to prevent Party A from winning a majority of seats in the legislature by publishing editorials intended to create antagonism between two factions within that party.

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IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

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SECTION IV Time—35 minutes 26 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions,  more  than  one  of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer;  that is,  the  response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense  standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. 1. When a forest is subject to acid rain, the calcium level in the soil declines. Spruce, fir, and sugar maple trees all need calcium to survive. However, sugar maples in forests that receive significant acid rain are much more likely to show signs of decline consistent with calcium deficiency than are spruces or firs in such forests.

2. Syndicated political columnists often use their newspaper columns to try to persuade readers to vote a certain way. However, their efforts to persuade voters rarely succeed, for by the time such a column appears, nearly all who will vote in the election will have already made a decision about which candidate to vote for.

Which one of the following, if true, most helps to explain the greater decline among sugar maples?

Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument?

(A)

(A)

(B) (C)

(D) (E)

Soil in which calcium levels are significantly diminished by acid rain is also likely to be damaged in other ways by acid rain. Sugar maples that do not receive enough calcium deteriorate less rapidly than spruces or firs that do not receive enough calcium. Spruces and firs, unlike sugar maples, can extract calcium from a mineral compound that is common in soil and is not affected by acid rain. Sugar maples require more calcium in the spring and summer than they do in the fall and winter. Unlike spruces or firs, most sugar maples are native to areas that receive a lot of acid rain.

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Syndicated columnists influence the votes of most of their readers who have not yet decided which candidate to vote for. The attempts of syndicated political columnists to persuade readers to vote a certain way in an election can instead cause them to vote a different way. People who regularly read columns by syndicated political columnists mainly read those written by columnists with whom they already largely agree. Regular readers of columns by syndicated political columnists are less likely to be persuaded to vote a certain way by such columns than are people who seldom read such columns. People rarely can be persuaded to change their minds about which candidate to vote for once they have made a decision.

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3. Travel industry consultant: Several airlines are increasing elbow room and leg room in business class, because surveys show that business travelers value additional space more than, say, better meals. But airlines are overconcerned about the comfort of passengers flying on business; they should instead focus on the comfort of leisure travelers, because those travelers purchase 80 percent of all airline tickets. Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the reasoning in the travel industry consultant’s argument? (A) (B)

(C) (D) (E)

Business travelers often make travel decisions based on whether they feel a given airline values their business. Some airlines have indicated that they will undertake alterations in seating space throughout the entire passenger area of their planes in the near future. Sleeping in comfort during long flights is not the primary concern of leisure travelers. A far greater proportion of an airline’s revenues is derived from business travelers than from leisure travelers. Most leisure travelers buy airline tickets only when fares are discounted.

4. Gaby: In school, children should be allowed fully to follow their own interests, supported by experienced teachers who offer minimal guidance. This enables them to be most successful in their adult lives.

Logan: I disagree. Schoolchildren should acquire the fundamental knowledge necessary for future success, and they learn such fundamentals only through disciplined, systematic instruction from accredited teachers. Gaby’s and Logan’s comments provide most support for the claim that they disagree about (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

the way in which schoolchildren best acquire fundamental knowledge the extent to which teachers should direct schoolchildren’s education the importance of having qualified teachers involved in schoolchildren’s education the sort of school environment that most fosters children’s creativity the extent to which schoolchildren are interested in fundamental academic subjects

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5. Judge: The case before me involves a plaintiff and three codefendants. The plaintiff has applied to the court for an order permitting her to question each defendant without their codefendants or their codefendants’ legal counsel being present. Two of the codefendants, however, share the same legal counsel. The court will not order any codefendant to find new legal counsel. Therefore, the order requested by the plaintiff cannot be granted. The conclusion of the judge’s argument is most strongly supported if which one of the following principles is assumed to hold? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

A court cannot issue an order that forces legal counsel to disclose information revealed by a client. Defendants have the right to have their legal counsel present when being questioned. People being questioned in legal proceedings may refuse to answer questions that are self‑incriminating. A plaintiff in a legal case should never be granted a right that is denied to a defendant. A defendant’s legal counsel has the right to question the plaintiff.

6. The calm, shallow waters of coastal estuaries are easily polluted by nutrient-rich sewage. When estuary waters become overnutrified as a result, algae proliferate. The abundant algae, in turn, sometimes provide a rich food source for microorganisms that are toxic to fish, thereby killing most of the fish in the estuary. Which one of the following can be properly inferred from the information above? (A)

(B) (C)

(D) (E)

Fish in an estuary that has been polluted by sewage are generally more likely to die from pollution than are fish in an estuary that has been polluted in some other way. In estuary waters that contain abundant algae, microorganisms that are toxic to fish reproduce more quickly than other types of microorganisms. Nutrients and other components of sewage do not harm fish in coastal estuaries in any way other than through the resulting proliferation of toxic microorganisms. Algae will not proliferate in coastal estuaries that are not polluted by nutrient-rich sewage. Overnutrifying estuary waters by sewage can result in the death of most of the fish in the estuary.

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7. The ruins of the prehistoric Bolivian city of Tiwanaku feature green andacite stones weighing up to 40 tons. These stones were quarried at Copacabana, which is across a lake and about 90 kilometers away. Archaeologists hypothesize that the stones were brought to Tiwanaku on reed boats. To show this was possible, experimenters transported a 9-ton stone from Copacabana to Tiwanaku using a reed boat built with locally available materials and techniques traditional to the area. Which one of the following would be most useful to know in order to evaluate the support for the archaeologists’ hypothesis? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

whether the traditional techniques for building reed boats were in use at the time Tiwanaku was inhabited whether green andacite stones quarried at the time Tiwanaku was inhabited were used at any sites near Copacabana whether reed boats are commonly used today on the lake whether the green andacite stones at Tiwanaku are the largest stones at the site whether the reed boat built for the experimenters is durable enough to remain usable for several years

8. Union member: Some members of our labor union are calling for an immediate strike. But a strike would cut into our strike fund and would in addition lead to a steep fine, causing us to suffer a major financial loss. Therefore, we must not strike now. The union member’s argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

fails to consider that a strike might cause the union to suffer a financial loss even if no fine were imposed fails to define adequately what constitutes a major financial loss fails to consider that the benefits to be gained from a strike might outweigh the costs takes for granted that the most important factor in the labor union’s bargaining position is the union’s financial strength fails to establish that there will be a better opportunity to strike at a later time

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9. Birds and mammals can be infected with West Nile virus only through mosquito bites. Mosquitoes, in turn, become infected with the virus when they bite certain infected birds or mammals. The virus was originally detected in northern Africa and spread to North America in the 1990s. Humans sometimes catch West Nile virus, but the virus never becomes abundant enough in human blood to infect a mosquito. The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

West Nile virus will never be a common disease among humans. West Nile virus is most common in those parts of North America with the highest density of mosquitoes. Some people who become infected with West Nile virus never show symptoms of illness. West Nile virus infects more people in northern Africa than it does in North America. West Nile virus was not carried to North America via an infected person.

10. In trying to reduce the amount of fat in their diet, on average people have decreased their consumption of red meat by one-half in the last two decades. However, on average those who have reduced their consumption of red meat actually consume substantially more fat than those who have not. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent discrepancy described above? (A) (B) (C)

(D) (E)

Many more people have reduced their consumption of red meat over the last two decades than have not. Higher prices over the last two decades have done as much to decrease the consumption of red meat as health concerns have. People who reduce their consumption of red meat tend to consume as much of other foods that are high in fat as do those who have not reduced their consumption of red meat. People who reduce their consumption of red meat tend to replace it with cheese and baked goods, which are richer in fat than red meat. Studies have shown that red meat contains slightly less fat than previously thought.

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11. Rolanda: The house on Oak Avenue has a larger yard than any other house we’ve looked at in Prairieview, so that’s the best one to rent.

Tom: No, it isn’t. Its yard isn’t really as big as it looks. Property lines in Prairieview actually start 20 feet from the street. So what looks like part of the yard is really city property.



Rolanda: But that’s true of all the other properties we’ve looked at too! Rolanda’s response to Tom suggests that Tom commits which one of the following reasoning errors? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

He fails to take into account the possibility that there are advantages to having a small yard. He presumes, without providing justification, that property that belongs to the city is available for private use. He improperly applies a generalization to an instance that it was not intended to cover. He fails to apply a general rule to all relevant instances. He presumes, without providing justification, that whatever is true of a part of a thing is also true of the whole.

12. The best jazz singers use their voices much as horn players use their instruments. The great Billie Holiday thought of her singing voice as a horn, reshaping melody and words to increase their impact. Conversely, jazz horn players achieve their distinctive sounds by emulating the spontaneous twists and turns of an impassioned voice. So jazz consists largely of voicelike horns and hornlike voices. Which one of the following most accurately describes the role played in the argument by the claim that the best jazz singers use their voices much as horn players use their instruments? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

It is the argument’s main conclusion and is supported by another statement, which is itself supported by a further statement. It is the argument’s only conclusion, and each of the other statements in the argument is used to support it. It is a statement for which some evidence is provided and which in turn is used to provide support for the argument’s main conclusion. It is a statement for which no evidence is provided but which itself is used to support the argument’s only conclusion. It is a statement used to support a conclusion that in turn is used to support the argument’s main conclusion.

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13. Educator: Reducing class sizes in our school district would require hiring more teachers. However, there is already a shortage of qualified teachers in the region. Although students receive more individualized instruction when classes are smaller, education suffers when teachers are underqualified. Therefore, reducing class sizes in our district would probably not improve overall student achievement. Which one of the following is an assumption required by the educator’s argument? (A) (B)

(C) (D)

(E)

Class sizes in the school district should be reduced only if doing so would improve overall student achievement. At least some qualified teachers in the school district would be able to improve the overall achievement of students in their classes if class sizes were reduced. Students place a greater value on having qualified teachers than on having smaller classes. Hiring more teachers would not improve the achievement of any students in the school district if most or all of the teachers hired were underqualified. Qualified teachers could not be persuaded to relocate in significant numbers to the educator’s region to take teaching jobs.

14. Geographer: Because tropical storms require heat and moisture, they form especially over ocean surfaces of at least 26 degrees Celsius (79 degrees Fahrenheit), ocean temperatures that global warming would encourage. For this reason, many early discussions of global warming predicted that it would cause more frequent and intense tropical storms. But recent research shows that this prediction is unlikely to be borne out. Other factors, such as instabilities in wind flow, are likely to counteract global warming’s effects on tropical storm development. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the conclusion drawn in the geographer’s argument? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Tropical storms are especially likely to form over warm ocean surfaces. Contrary to early discussions, global warming is not the only factor affecting the frequency and intensity of tropical storms. If global warming were reversed, tropical storms would be less frequent and less intense. Instabilities in wind flow will negate the effect of global warming on the formation of tropical storms. Global warming probably will not produce more frequent and intense tropical storms.

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15. Copyright was originally the grant of a temporary government-supported monopoly on copying a work. Its sole purpose was to encourage the circulation of ideas by giving authors the opportunity to derive a reasonable financial reward from their works. However, copyright sometimes goes beyond its original purpose since sometimes _______. The conclusion of the argument is most strongly supported if which one of the following completes the passage? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

publication of copyrighted works is not the only way to circulate ideas authors are willing to circulate their works even without any financial reward authors are unable to find a publisher for their copyrighted work there is no practical way to enforce copyrights copyrights hold for many years after an author’s death

16. Critic to economist: In yet another of your bumbling forecasts, last year you predicted that this country’s economy would soon go into recession if current economic policies were not changed. Instead, economic growth is even stronger this year.

Economist: There was nothing at all bumbling about my warning. Indeed, it convinced the country’s leaders to change economic policies, which is what prevented a recession.

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(B) (C) (D) (E)

indicating that the state of affairs on which the economist’s prediction was conditioned did not obtain distinguishing between a prediction that has not yet turned out to be correct and one that has turned out to be incorrect attempting to show that the critic’s statements are mutually inconsistent offering a particular counterexample to a general claim asserted by the critic offering evidence against one of the critic’s factual premises

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17. Watching music videos from the 1970s would give the viewer the impression that the music of the time was dominated by synthesizer pop and punk rock. But this would be a misleading impression. Because music videos were a new art form at the time, they attracted primarily cutting-edge musicians. Which one of the following arguments is most similar in its reasoning to that of the argument above? (A)

(B) (C)

(D)

(E)

The economist responds to the critic by (A)

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Our view of pre-printing-press literature can never be accurate, because the surviving works of ancient authors are those that were deemed by copyists most likely to be of interest to future readers. Our memory of 1960s TV shows could hardly be improved, because so many of the television programs of the era are still rerun today. Future generations’ understanding of today’s publishing trends will be distorted if they judge by works published in CD-ROM format, since it is primarily publishers interested in computer games that are using CD-ROM. Our understanding of silent films is incomplete, because few filmmakers of the time realized that the film stock they were using would disintegrate over time. Our notion of fashion trends will probably be accurate if we rely on TV fashion programs, despite the fact that these programs deliberately select the most outrageous outfits in order to get the viewers’ attention.

18. Hospitals, universities, labor unions, and other institutions may well have public purposes and be quite successful at achieving them even though each of their individual staff members does what he or she does only for selfish reasons. Which one of the following generalizations is most clearly illustrated by the passage? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

What is true of some social organizations is not necessarily true of all such organizations. An organization can have a property that not all of its members possess. People often claim altruistic motives for actions that are in fact selfish. Many social institutions have social consequences unintended by those who founded them. Often an instrument created for one purpose will be found to serve another purpose just as effectively.

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19. Consumer advocate: In some countries, certain produce is routinely irradiated with gamma rays in order to extend shelf life. There are, however, good reasons to avoid irradiated foods. First, they are exposed to the radioactive substances that produce the gamma rays. Second, irradiation can reduce the vitamin content of fresh foods, leaving behind harmful chemical residues. Third, irradiation spawns unique radiolytic products that cause serious health problems, including cancer.

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21. Philosopher: To explain the causes of cultural phenomena, a social scientist needs data about several societies: one cannot be sure, for example, that a given political structure is brought about only by certain ecological or climatic factors unless one knows that there are no similarly structured societies not subject to those factors, and no societies that, though subject to those factors, are not so structured.

Each of the following, if true, weakens the consumer advocate’s argument EXCEPT:

The claim that to explain the causes of cultural phenomena, a social scientist needs data about several societies plays which one of the following roles in the philosopher’s reasoning?

(A)

(A)

(B) (C) (D) (E)

Unique radiolytic products have seldom been found in any irradiated food. Cancer and other serious health problems have many causes that are unrelated to radioactive substances and gamma rays. A study showed that irradiation leaves the vitamin content of virtually all fruits and vegetables unchanged. The amount of harmful chemicals found in irradiated foods is less than the amount that occurs naturally in most kinds of foods. A study showed that the cancer rate is no higher among people who eat irradiated food than among those who do not.

20. When teaching art students about the use of color, teachers should use colored paper rather than paint in their demonstrations. Colored paper is preferable because it readily permits a repeated use of exactly the same color in different compositions, which allows for a precise comparison of that color’s impact in varying contexts. With paint, however, it is difficult to mix exactly the same color twice, and the varying textures of the applied paint can interfere with the pure effect of the color itself. Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Two pieces of paper of exactly the same color will have the same effect in a given context, even if they are of different textures. A slight difference in the color of two pieces of paper is more difficult to notice than a similar difference in the color of two samples of paint. Changing light conditions have less of an effect on the apparent color of a piece of paper than on the apparent color of a sample of paint. Observing the impacts of colors across varying contexts helps students to learn about the use of color. It is important that art students understand how the effects of using colored paper in various compositions differ from those of using paint in those compositions.

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(B) (C)

(D)

(E)

It describes a problem that the philosopher claims is caused by the social scientist’s need for certainty. It is a premise used to support a general theoretical claim about the nature of cause and effect relationships. It is a general hypothesis that is illustrated with an example showing that there is a causal relationship between political structures and environmental conditions. It is a dilemma that, it is argued, is faced by every social scientist because of the difficulty of determining whether a given cultural phenomenon is the cause or the effect of a given factor. It is a claim that the philosopher attempts to justify by appeal to the requirements for establishing the existence of one kind of causal relationship.

22. Scientist: Physicists claim that their system of careful peer review prevents scientific fraud in physics effectively. But biologists claimed the same thing for their field 20 years ago, and they turned out to be wrong. Since then, biologists have greatly enhanced their discipline’s safeguards against scientific fraud, thus preventing further major incidents. It would be conducive to progress in physics if physicists were to do the same thing. The conclusion of the scientist’s argument is most strongly supported if which one of the following is assumed? (A) (B) (C) (D)

(E)

Major incidents of scientific fraud in a scientific discipline are deleterious to progress in that discipline. Very few incidents of even minor scientific fraud have occurred in biology over the last 20 years. No system of careful peer review is completely effective in preventing scientific fraud in any scientific discipline. Twenty years ago the system of peer review in biology was less effective in preventing scientific fraud than the system of peer review in physics is today. Over the years, there have been relatively few, if any, major incidents of scientific fraud in physics.

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23. Biologist: Researchers believe that dogs are the descendants of domesticated wolves that were bred to be better companions for humans. It has recently been found that some breeds of dog are much more closely related genetically to wolves than to most other breeds of dog. This shows that some dogs are descended from wolves that were domesticated much more recently than others.

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24. Paleomycologists, scientists who study ancient forms of fungi, are invariably acquainted with the scholarly publications of all other paleomycologists. Professor Mansour is acquainted with the scholarly publications of Professor DeAngelis, who is a paleomycologist. Therefore, Professor Mansour must also be a paleomycologist.

Which one of the following principles underlies the biologist’s argument?

The flawed pattern of reasoning in the argument above is most similar to that in which one of the following arguments?

(A)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

If one breed of dog is descended from wolves that were domesticated more recently than were the wolves from which most other breeds of dog are descended, the former breed may be more closely related to wolves than those other breeds are. If one breed of dog is more closely related to wolves than to another breed of dog, then the former breed of dog has more recent undomesticated wolf ancestors than the latter breed has. Any breed of dog descended from wolves that were domesticated is more closely related genetically to at least some other breeds of dog than to wolves. If one breed of dog is more closely related to wolves than another breed of dog is, then the former breed of dog is more closely related to wolves than to the latter breed of dog. Any two breeds of dog that are more closely related to each other than to wolves are both descended from wolves that were domesticated long ago.

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

When a flight on Global Airlines is delayed, all connecting Global Airlines flights are also delayed so that the passengers can make their connections. Since Frieda’s connecting flight on Global was delayed, her first flight must have also been a delayed Global Airlines flight. Any time that one of Global Airlines’ local ticket agents misses a shift, the other agents on that shift need to work harder than usual. Since none of Global’s local ticket agents missed a shift last week, the airline’s local ticket agents did not have to work harder than usual last week. Any time the price of fuel decreases, Global Airlines’ expenses decrease and its income is unaffected. The price of fuel decreased several times last year. Therefore, Global Airlines must have made a profit last year. All employees of Global Airlines can participate in its retirement plan after they have been with the company a year or more. Gavin has been with Global Airlines for three years. We can therefore be sure that he participates in Global’s retirement plan. Whenever a competitor of Global Airlines reduces its fares, Global must follow suit or lose passengers. Global carried more passengers last year than it did the year before. Therefore, Global must have reduced its fares last year to match reductions in its competitors’ fares.

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25. Lutsina: Because futuristic science fiction does not need to represent current social realities, its writers can envisage radically new social arrangements. Thus it has the potential to be a richer source of social criticism than is conventional fiction.

4

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26. Because our club recruited the best volleyball players in the city, we will have the best team in the city. Moreover, since the best team in the city will be the team most likely to win the city championship, our club will almost certainly be city champions this year.

Priscilla: That futuristic science fiction writers more skillfully envisage radically new technologies than new social arrangements shows how writers’ imaginations are constrained by current realities. Because of this limitation, the most effective social criticism results from faithfully presenting the current social realities for critical examination, as happens in conventional fiction.

The reasoning in the argument is flawed because the argument

Lutsina and Priscilla disagree with each other about whether

(C)

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A) (B)

some science fiction writers have succeeded in envisaging convincing, radically new social arrangements writers of conventional fiction are more skillful than are writers of futuristic science fiction futuristic science fiction has more promise as a source of social criticism than does conventional fiction envisaging radically new technologies rather than radically new social arrangements is a shortcoming of futuristic science fiction criticism of current social arrangements is not effective when those arrangements are contrasted with radically different ones

S

(D)

(E)

T

4

O

presumes, without presenting relevant evidence, that an entity can be distinguished as the best only on the basis of competition predicts the success of an entity on the basis of features that are not relevant to the quality of that entity predicts the outcome of a competition merely on the basis of a comparison between the parties in that competition presumes, without providing warrant, that if an entity is the best among its competitors, then each individual part of that entity must also be the best concludes that because an event is the most likely of a set of possible events, that event is more likely to occur than not

P

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

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Acknowledgment is made to the following sources from which material has been adapted for use in this test booklet: “A Radical Rethink.” ©2003 by The Economist Newspaper Limited. Larry Katzenstein, “Good Food You Can’t Get.” ©July 1993 by Reader’s Digest. “Revealing Ancient Bolivia.” ©2002 by the Archaeological Institute of America. Marion de Boo, “Dutch Farmland: Back to Nature.” ©1999 by the Stanley Foundation. R. H. Helmholz, “The Roman Law of Blackmail.” ©2001 by The University of Chicago Press. James Lindgren, “Unraveling the Paradox of Blackmail.” ©1984 by Columbia Law Review Association, Inc. Alexander Stille, “Overload.” ©1999 by Condé Nast Publications, Inc. Lourdes Torres, “The Construction of the Self in U.S. Latina Autobiographies.” ©1991 by Indiana University Press.

–31–

Wait for the supervisor’s instructions before you open the page to the topic. Please print and sign your name and write the date in the designated spaces below.

Time: 35 Minutes General Directions

You will have 35 minutes in which to plan and write an essay on the topic inside. Read the topic and the accompanying directions carefully. You will probably find it best to spend a few minutes considering the topic and organizing your thoughts before you begin writing. In your essay, be sure to develop your ideas fully, leaving time, if possible, to review what you have written. Do not write on a topic other than the one specified. Writing on a topic of your own choice is not acceptable. No special knowledge is required or expected for this writing exercise. Law schools are interested in the reasoning, clarity, organization, language usage, and writing mechanics displayed in your essay. How well you write is more important than how much you write. Confine your essay to the blocked, lined area on the front and back of the separate Writing Sample Response Sheet. Only that area will be reproduced for law schools. Be sure that your writing is legible.

Both this topic sheet and your response sheet must be turned over to the testing staff before you leave the room. Topic Code –––––––––––––

Print Your Full Name Here Last

Date

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First

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/

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Do not write your essay in this space.

M.I.

–32–

LSAT Writing Sample Topic

Directions: The scenario presented below describes two choices, either one of which can be supported on the basis of the information given. Your essay should consider both choices and argue for one over the other, based on the two specified criteria and the facts provided. There is no “right” or “wrong” choice: a reasonable argument can be made for either. Two pediatricians are deciding whether to relocate their small practice 10 miles away, to a large medical pavilion downtown, or to keep their present office and also open a second office about 20 miles away across the city. Using the facts below, write an essay in which you argue for one choice over the other based on the following two criteria: •  The doctors want to attract new patients. •  The doctors want to keep their current patients. The Laurel Medical Pavilion is a new collection of medical office buildings adjacent to the city’s major hospital. The pavilion is convenient to public transportation. It offers ample free parking space. Although office space in the pavilion is expensive, it is going fast. The space the pediatricians would lease includes five examination rooms, sufficient office space, and a large waiting area that the doctors would be able to furnish as they like. The pavilion leases space to doctors in a wide variety of fields. It contains facilities for a wide range of laboratory and diagnostic testing. The space the doctors are considering leasing as a second office is, like their present premises, a 100-year-old Victorian house in a largely residential area full of young families. The house has a large fenced-in yard and off-street parking space for five vehicles. The first floor of the house was recently remodeled to suit the needs of a small medical practice. Like their present premises, it contains three examination rooms, a small waiting area, and ample office space. The second floor has not been converted into suitable working space. The option of doing so is available to the doctors.

Scratch Paper

Do not write your essay in this space.

–33–

LAST NAME (Print)

MI

FIRST NAME (Print)

SIGNATURE

Writing Sample Response Sheet

DO NOT WRITE IN THIS SPACE Begin your essay in the lined area below. Continue on the back if you need more space.

–34–

–35–

Computing Your Score Directions:

Conversion Chart

1. Use the Answer Key on the next page to check your answers. 2. Use the Scoring Worksheet below to compute your raw score. 3. Use the Score Conversion Chart to convert your raw score into the 120–180 scale.

Scoring Worksheet 1. Enter the number of questions you answered correctly in each section Number Correct SECTION I . . . . . . . . SECTION II . . . . . . . . SECTION III . . . . . . . SECTION IV . . . . . . . SECTION V . . . . . . . 2. Enter the sum here:  This is your Raw Score.

For Converting Raw Score to the 120–180 LSAT Scaled Score LSAT PrepTest 65 Reported Score 180 179 178 177 176 175 174 173 172 171 170 169 168 167 166 165 164 163 162 161 160 159 158 157 156 155 154 153 152 151 150 149 148 147 146 145 144 143 142 141 140 139 138 137 136 135 134 133 132 131 130 129 128 127 126 125 124 123 122 121 120



Lowest 98 97

96 95 94 93 92 91 90 88 87 86 85 83 82 80 79 77 76 74 73 71 69 68 66 64 63 61 59 57 56 54 52 51 49 47 46 44 43 41 39 38 36 35 34 32 31 30 28 27 26 25 23 22 21 20 19 18 16 __* 0

Raw Score

Highest 101 97 96 95 94 93 92 91 90 89 87 86 85 84 82 81 79 78 76 75 73 72 70 68 67 65 63 62 60 58 56 55 53 51 50 48 46 45 43 42 40 38 37 35 34 33 31 30 29 27 26 25 24 22 21 20 19 18 17 __* 15

*There is no raw score that will produce this scaled score for this test.

–36–

Answer Key

SECTION I 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

B A B C D A D

  8.   9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

A C B A C E B

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

C B D B C D D

22. 23. 24. 25.

E E C D

D A B B D E C

22. B 23. C

B A A E D A E

22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

B D E B C B

E A C B B D E

22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

A B A C E

SECTION II 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

D A C E B C D

  8.   9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

E B B C B D E

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

SECTION III 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

B D E A B A D

  8.   9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

A C A B D E C

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

SECTION IV 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

C E D B B E A

  8.   9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

C E D D C E E

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

1-800-KAP-TEST | kaptest.com

*LSAT is a registered trademark of the Law School Admission Council.

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*

PrepTest 66 TEST

ID: LL3066

A complete version of the Preptest 66 has been reproduced with the permission of Law School Admission Council, Inc. PrepTest 66 ©2012 Law School Admission Council, Inc. All actual LSAT questions printed within this work are used with the permission of Law School Admission Council, Inc., Box 2000, Newton, PA 18940, the copyright owner. LSAC does not review or endorse specific test preparation materials or services, and inclusion of licensed LSAT questions within this work does not imply the review or endorsement of Law Services.

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Reading Comprehension....................... SECTION I



Logical Reasoning ............................ SECTION II



Analytical Reasoning.......................... SECTION III



Logical Reasoning ............................ SECTION IV



Writing Sample Materials

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1

SECTION I Time-35 minutes 27 Questions Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage or a pair of passages. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage or pair of passages. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

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The Internet makes possible the instantaneous transmission and retrieval of digital text. It is widely assumed that this capacity will lead to the displacement of printed books by digitized books that are read mainly on computer screens or handheld electronic devices. But it is more likely, I believe, that most digital files of books will be printed and bound on demand at point of sale by machines that can quickly and inexpensively make single copies that are indistinguishable from books made in factories. Once most books have been digitized, anyone with access to the Internet will be able to purchase printed books from a practically limitless digital catalog that includes even those books that, under traditional publishing assumptions, would have been designated "out of print." Also, the digital publication of a book online involves no physical inventory, thereby eliminating the costs of warehousing, shipping books to wholesalers and to retail stores, displaying physical books in retail stores, and returning unsold books to publishers. This would make digital publishing much less expensive than traditional publishing. Given the economic efficiency and convenience for customers of this new digital model of publishing, it is likely to eventually supplant or at least rival traditional publishingalthough it will be some time before a catalog of printable digitized books becomes large enough to justify investment in book printing machines at numerous regional sites. Moreover, the elimination of whole categories of expense means that under the digital publishing model, authors would be responsible for a greater proportion of the value of the final product and would therefore, according to literary agents, be entitled to a larger share of the proceeds. Currently a large percentage of publishers' revenue is absorbed by the costs of printing, selling, and distributing physical books, costs that are irrelevant to digital publication. Literary agents marketing new manuscripts could thus be expected to demand a significantly bigger slice of revenue for their authors than has been traditional. But large, established publishing houses, which are heavily invested in the infrastructure of traditional publishing, initially will be reluctant to accede. So the opportunity to bid for new manuscripts will go first to upstart digital-publishing firms unfettered by traditional practices or infrastructure. Under this competitive pressure, traditional publishers will have to reduce their redundant functions in order to accommodate higher royalty payments to authors or else they will

lose their authors. Such adjustments are typical of the interval between a departing economic model and its successor and may help explain the caution with which today's publishing conglomerates are approaching (55) the digital future. 1.

Which one of the following statements most accurately expresses the main point of the passage? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

2.

The shift from traditional to digital publishing is typical of the shift from one economic model to a more efficient economic model. Digital publishing is likely to one day rival traditional publishing, but social and economic factors are currently hindering its acceptance. Digital publishing will be convenient for readers and profitable for publishers but will also result in a great deal of movement by authors among different publishing houses. Although digital books can now be displayed on computers and handheld electronic devices, consumers will demonstrate that they prefer books printed at the point of sale. Digital publishing will transform the economics of the publishing business and in doing so will likely create competitive pressures to pay authors a greater percentage of publishers' net revenue.

The author uses the phrase "whole categories of expense" (lines 30-31) primarily to refer to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

the fees collected by literary agents from their clients the price paid to have books printed and bound the royalties paid to authors by their publishers the costs specific to the retail trade in traditional printed books the total sales of a book minus the value of those books returned unsold to the bookseller

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1 3.

It can most reasonably be inferred that the author would

(A)

(A)

(D) (E)

Those publishers that fail to embrace the new digital model of publishing will be unlikely to remain economically competitive. The primary threat to the spread of digital publishing will be the widespread use of computers and handheld devices for reading text. The growth of digital publishing is likely to revitalize the book retail business. Any book will sell more copies if it is published digitally than if it is published traditionally. Digital publishing will allow publishers to substantially decrease the amount of money they allocate for advertising their books.

Each of the following is identified in the passage as something digital publishing will dispense with the need for EXCEPT: (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

warehousing printed books having book covers designed having books shipped to retail stores having unsold books returned to publishers displaying books in retail stores

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

7.

(A)

(B) (C)

(D)

(E)

The need for warehousing will shift mainly from that of individual books to that of paper and binding material to make books. The patronage of stores that sell used books will increase significantly. Most publishers will sell their own books individually and will not use distributors or retailers. There will be significantly less demand by publishers for the services of copy editors and book designers. The demand for book-grade paper will decrease significantly.

The changing literary tastes of consumers will be the main cause of the eventual transition to the new digital model. The ease of keeping books "in print" will be the primary factor in the eventual acceptance of the new digital model. The demands of literary agents will be the impetus for completing the transition to the new digital model. The development of innovative marketing strategies will ensure acceptance of the new digital model. Widespread familiarity with new ways of storing information will be the primary reason for the acceptance of the new digital model.

The primary purpose of the final sentence of the passage is to (A) (B) (C)

If the scenario described in the first two paragraphs

were to become true, then which one of the following would most likely be the case?

1

It can most reasonably be inferred that the author would

agree with which one of the following statements?

(C)

5.

6.

agree with which one of the following statements?

(B)

4.

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(D)

(E)

suggest that traditional publishing houses have been too slow to embrace digital publishing provide a broader context that helps to clarify the situation facing traditional publishers summarize the argument for the claim that digital publishing will likely replace traditional publishing illustrate the primary obstacle facing traditional publishing houses that wish to incorporate digital publishing capabilities recommend a wait-and-see approach on the part of traditional publishing houses

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Passage A

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In this appeal of his criminal conviction, the defendant challenges the fingerprint evidence used against him at trial, claiming that fingerprint identification theory has not been adequately tested. He cites the inability of the fingerprint examiner who incriminated him at trial to name any studies establishing that no two persons have identical fingerprints. The defendant claims that there are no established error rates revealing how often fingerprint examiners incorrectly identify a fingerprint as a particular person's, and asserts that fingerprint examiners lack uniform, objective standards. He cites testimony given by the fingerprint examiner at trial that there is no generally accepted standard regarding the number of "points of identification" required for a positive identification. Although fingerprint identification has not attained the status of scientific law, it has been used in criminal trials for 100 years, and experts have long concurred about its reliability. While further testing and the development of even more consistent standards may be desirable, this court sees no reason to reject outright a form of evidence that has so ably withstood the test of time. While it may be true that different agencies require different degrees of correlation before permitting a positive identification, fingerprint examiners are held to a consistent "points and characteristics" approach to identification. As the fingerprint expert testified at the defendant's trial, examiners are regularly subjected to testing and proficiency requirements, and uniform standards have been established through professional training and peer review. The trial court below was therefore within its discretion in crediting testimony that fingerprint identification has an exceedingly low error rate.

[]

1 The error rate for fingerprint identification in (60) actual practice has received little systematic study. How often do fingerprint examiners mistakenly declare a match? Although some proficiency tests show examiners making few or no errors, these tests have been criticized as lax; a more rigorous test (65) showed a 34 percent rate of erroneous identification. 8.

(A)

(B) (C)

(D)

(E)

9.

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(C) (D)

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10.

Criminal defendants do not always have a full and fair opportunity to challenge faulty fingerprint evidence when it is used against them at trial. Fingerprint evidence has been shown to be too unreliable for use in criminal trials. The error rate for fingerprint identification is significantly higher than is generally acknowledged. There are a number of fundamental problems in the field of fingerprint identification as it is currently practiced. There is a growing consensus within the legal community that fingerprint evidence is often unreliable.

The authors would be most likely to disagree about (A)

Passage B Fingerprint examiners lack objective standards for evaluating whether two prints "match." There is simply no consensus about what constitutes a sufficient basis for identification. Some examiners use a "pointcounting" method that entails counting the number of similar "ridge" characteristics on prints, but there is no fixed requirement about how many points of similarity are needed, and local practices vary. Others reject point counting for a more holistic approach. Either way, there is no generally agreed-on standard for determining precisely when to declare a match. Although we know that different individuals can share certain ridge characteristics, the chance of two individuals sharing any given number of identifying characteristics is unknown. How likely is it that two people could have four points of resemblance, or five, or eight? Moreover, fingerprints used in forensic identification are typically partial and smudged. Are the odds that two partial prints from different people will match one in a thousand, one in a million, or one in a billion? No fingerprint examiner can answer such questions decisively, yet the answers are critical to evaluating the value of fingerprint evidence.

Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of passage B?

whether uniformity in the training of fingerprint examiners is desirable the likelihood that a fingerprint examiner will incorrect! y declare a match in a given criminal case whether fingerprint identification should be accorded the status of scientific law the relative merits of the point-counting and holistic methods of fingerprint identification whether different agencies vary in the degree of correlation they require for examiners to declare a match

It can be inferred that the author of passage A is

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

a judge presiding over an appeal of a criminal conviction a defense attorney arguing an appeal of a client's criminal conviction a prosecutor arguing for the affirmation of a guilty verdict a professor of law lecturing to a criminal law class an academic presenting a paper to a group of legal scholars

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1 11.

Each passage discusses the relationship between the reliability of the practice of fingerprint identification and which one of the following? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

12.

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

13.

Courts should be extremely reluctant to reject those forms of evidence that have withstood the test of time. Defendants should have the right to challenge forms of evidence whose reliability has not been scientifically proven. To evaluate the value of fingerprint evidence, one must know how likely it is that partial prints from two different people would match. Fingerprint identification should not be considered to have a low error rate unless rigorously conducted tests have shown this to be so. Fingerprint examiners must follow objective standards if fingerprint identification is to be reliable.

(B) (C) (D)

(E)

14.

1

Both passages allude to a method of fingerprint identification in which examiners (A)

the ability of a criminal defendant to expose weaknesses in the prosecution's case the personal integrity of individual fingerprint examiners differences in the identification practices used by various fingerprint examiners the partial or smudged prints that are typically used as evidence in criminal cases use of the holistic approach to fingerprint identification

Which one of the following principles underlies the arguments in both passages? (A)

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rely on a holistic impression of how similar two fingerprints are use computerized databases to search for matching fingerprints count the number of characteristics two fingerprints have in common calculate the odds of two different individuals' sharing certain very rare fingerprint characteristics use computer technology to clarify the images of smudged or partial fingerprints

Passage B differs from passage A in that passage B is more (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

optimistic in its conclusions general in focus tentative in its claims respectful of opposing claims dependent on unsubstantiated assumptions

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Music and literature, rivals among the arts, have not coexisted without intruding on each other's terrain. Ever since what we think of as "literature" developed out of the sounds of spoken, sung, and chanted art, writing has aspired to the condition of music, in which form contributes significantly to content. Nowhere is this truer than in the African American tradition, whose music is often considered its greatest artistic achievement and one of the greatest contributions to North American art. But while many African American writers have used musicians and music as theme and metaphor in their writing, none had attempted to draw upon a musical genre as the structuring principle for an entire novel until Toni Morrison did so in her 1992 novel Jazz, a novel set in the Harlem section of New York City in 1926. In Jazz, the connection to music is found not only in the novel's plot but, more strikingly, in the way in which the story is told. The narration slips easily from the third-person omniscience of the narrator's disembodied voice-which, though sensitive and sympathetic, claims no particular identity, gender, or immersion in specific social circumstances-to the first-person lyricism of key characters. But throughout these shifts, the narrator is both generous with the characters' voices and protective of his or her mastery over the narrative as a whole. On the one hand, the central characters are given the responsibility of relating their parts of the overarching story, but on the other hand, their sections are set off by quotation marks, reminders that the narrator is allowing them to speak. In this way, the narrative is analogous in structure to the playing of a jazz band which intertwines its ensemble sound with the individuality of embedded solo performances. In jazz, composer and conductor Duke Ellington was the first to construct his compositions with his individual musicians and their unique "voices" in mind. Yet no matter how lengthy his musicians' improvisations, no matter how bold or inventive their solos might be, they always performed within the undeniable logic of the composer's frame-they always, in other words, performed as if with quotation marks around their improvisations and solos. It is this same effect that Toni Morrison has achieved in Jazz, a literary rendering of an art of composition that Duke Ellington perfected around the time in which Jazz is set. In this novel, Morrison has found a way, paradoxically, to create the sense of an ensemble of characters improvising within the fixed scope of a carefully constructed collective narration. By simulating the style of a genius of music while exhibiting Morrison's own linguistic virtuosity, Jazz serves to redefine the very possibilities of narrative point of view.

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1 15.

Which one of the following most accurately states the main point of the passage? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

16.

In Jazz, Morrison has realized a significant artistic achievement in creating the first African American work of fiction whose plot, themes, and setting are all drawn from the world of jazz. Morrison's striking description of a musical ensemble performance containing solo improvisations constitutes an important artistic innovation and makes Jazz an important model for other writers. Although many African American writers have used music as a central metaphor in their works, Morrison's 1992 novel is unique and innovative for using jazz as its central metaphor. Building on the works of many African American writers and musical composers, Morrison has over the years developed an innovative jazzlike style of narration, which she used especially effectively in the novel Jazz. In Jazz, Morrison has succeeded in creating an original and effective narrative strategy that is a literary analogue of Duke Ellington's style of musical composition.

The author's discussion in the first paragraph proceeds in which one of the following ways? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

from a common claim about the arts, to a denial of this claim as applied to a particular artistic tradition, to a hypothesis about a particular individual from a general remark about two art forms, to a similar observation about a particular artistic tradition, to a specific comment about a particular work that exemplifies the prior remarks from a description of a common claim about two art forms, to some specific evidence that supports that claim, to an inference regarding a particular individual to whom that claim applies from an observation about a specific art form, to a more general claim about the applicability of that observation to other art forms, to a particular counterexample to the first observation from general comments about the arts, to a purported counterexample to the general comments as applied to a particular artistic tradition, to a description of a particular work that bears out the original comments

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1 17.

The author's assertion in lines 10-16 would be most called into question if which one of the following were true? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Even a casual reading of Jazz makes it evident that the author has intentionally tried to simulate a style of jazz performance in the narration of the story. A small number of African American novelists writing earlier in the twentieth century sought to base the form of their work on the typical structure of blues music. All novels about nonliterary arts and artists appear as if their authors have tried to make their narrative styles reminiscent of the arts in question. Depending partly on whether or not it is read aloud, any novel can be found to be somewhat musical in nature. A smaller number of African American writers than of non-African American writers in North America have written novels whose plots and characters have to do with music.

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20.

Each of the following excerpts from the passage exhibits the author's attitude toward the novel Jazz EXCEPT: (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

21.

be most likely to believe which one of the following?

The information in the passage most supports which one of the following statements regarding Ellington? (A)

(B)

(C) (D)

(E)

19.

Morrison has explicitly credited him with inspiring the style of narration that she developed in Jazz. He prevented his musicians from performing lengthy solos in order to preserve the unity of his compositions. He is a minor character in Morrison's Jazz. He composed music that was originally intended to be performed by the specific musicians he conducted. Though he composed and conducted primarily jazz, he also composed some music of other genres.

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

The author's primary purpose in the passage is to (A)

(B)

(C) (D)

(E)

analyze and commend the variety of contributions to the art of the novel made by a particular writer contrast a particular African American writer's work with the work of African American practitioners of another art describe a particular aspect of one work by a particular writer demonstrate the ways in which two apparently dissimilar arts are, on a deeper analysis, actually quite similar detail the thematic concerns in the work of a particular writer and identify the sources of those concerns

" ... whose music is often considered its greatest artistic achievement and one of the greatest contributions to North American art" (lines 8-10) "In Jazz, the connection to music is found not only in the novel's plot but, more strikingly, in the way in which the story is told" (lines 17-19) "The narration slips easily from the third-person omniscience of the narrator's disembodied voice ..." (lines 19-21) " ... Morrison has found a way, paradoxically, to create the sense of an ensemble of characters improvising within the fixed scope ..." (lines 49-51) "By simulating the style of a genius of music while exhibiting Morrison's own linguistic virtuosity..." (lines 52-54)

It can be inferred from the passage that the author would

(A)

18.

1

22.

In Jazz, Morrison has perfected a style of narration that had been attempted with little success by other North American writers in the twentieth century. Because of its use of narrative techniques inspired by jazz, Morrison's novel represents the most successful representation to date of the milieu in which jazz musicians live and work. In Jazz, Morrison develops her narrative in such a way that the voices of individual characters are sometimes difficult to distinguish, in much the same way that individual musicians' voices merge in ensemble jazz playing. The structural analogy between Jazz and Duke Ellington's compositional style involves more than simply the technique of shifting between first-person and third-person narrators. Morrison disguises the important structural connections between her narrative and Duke Ellington's jazz compositions by making the transitions between first- and third-person narrators appear easy.

The passage contains information that most helps to answer which one of the following questions? (A)

(B) (C)

(D)

(E)

Do any African American visual artists also attempt to emulate African American music in their work? In what way is Jazz stylistically similar to other literary works by Morrison? After the publication of Jazz, did critics quickly acknowledge the innovative nature of the narrative style that Morrison uses in that novel? How many works by African American writers have been inspired by the music of Duke Ellington? What characteristic of Jazz is also present in the work of some other African American writers? GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

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Advances in scientific understanding often do not build directly or smoothly in response to the data that are amassed, and in retrospect, after a major revision of theory, it may seem strange that a crucial hypothesis was long overlooked. A case in point is the discovery of a means by which the nuclei of atoms can be split. Between 1934, when a group of Italian physicists including Enrico Fermi first bombarded uranium with neutrons, and 1939, when exiled Austrian physicist Lise Meitner provided the crucial theoretical connection, scientists compiled increasing evidence that nuclear fission had been achieved, without, however, recognizing what they were witnessing. Earlier, even before the neutron and proton composition of atomic nuclei had been experimentally demonstrated, some theoretical physicists had produced calculations indicating that in principle it should be possible to break atoms apart. But the neutron-bombardment experiments were not aimed at achieving such a result, and researchers were not even receptive to the possibility that it might happen in that context. A common view was that a neutron's breaking apart a uranium nucleus would be analogous to a pebble, thrown through a window, causing a house to collapse. In Berlin, Meitner pursued research related to that of the Italians, discovering a puzzling group of radioactive substances produced by neutron bombardment of uranium. Fermi and others achieved numerous similar results. These products remained unidentified partly because precise chemical analyses were hampered by the minute quantities of the substances produced and the dangers of working with highly radioactive materials, but more significantly because of the expectation that they would all be elements close to uranium in nuclear composition. In 1938 Meitner escaped from Nazi Germany and undertook related research in Sweden, but her research partner Otto Hahn kept her informed of his continuing experimentation. Late in that year he wrote to her of a surprising result: one of the substances resulting from the neutron bombardment of uranium had been conclusively identified as barium, an element whose structure would have made it impossible to produce through any mechanism he envisaged as being involved in the experiments. Hahn even remarked that, despite the clear chemical evidence of what had occurred, it went "against all previous experiences of nuclear physics," but he also noted that together the number of protons and neutrons in the nuclei of barium and technetium, the accompanying product of the experiment, added up to the number of such particles that compose a uranium nucleus. It was Meitner who finally recognized the significance of the data in relation to underlying theoretical considerations: the researchers had actually been splitting uranium atoms. Coining the term "nuclear fission," she quickly submitted her conclusion for publication in a paper coauthored with

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1 (60) physicist Otto Frisch. When scientists in Europe and North America rushed to corroborate the findings, it became clear that the relevant evidence had been present for some time, lacking mainly the right conceptual link. 23.

The author's primary aim in the passage is to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

24.

The most likely reason that the theoretical physicists in line 16 would have been pleased about Meitner's insight regarding the neutron bombardment experiments is that her insight (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

25.

criticize a traditional view of scientific progress and advocate a replacement illustrate the often erratic way in which a scientific community achieves progress judge the relative importance of theory and experimentation in science take issue with the idea that scientists make slow, steady progress display the way in which intellectual arrogance sometimes hinders scientific progress

was dependent upon the calculations that they had produced paved the way for work in theoretical physics to become more acceptable abroad proved that the nuclei of atoms were generally unstable confirmed their earlier work indicating that atoms could be split came after years of analyzing the data from experiments conducted between 1934 and 1938

Which one of the following is most nearly equivalent to what the author means by "the relevant evidence" (line 62)? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

the results of experiments in neutron bombardment of uranium conducted by the physics community between 1934 and 1939 the results of related experiments in neutron bombardment of uranium conducted by Meitner in 1938 the clear chemical evidence that Hahn had found of barium's being produced by neutron bombardment of uranium the fact that the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nuclei of barium and technetium was the same as the number of these particles in a uranium nucleus the fact that radioactive products of neutron bombardment of uranium went unidentified for so long

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1 26.

Given the information in the passage, which one of the following, if true, would have been most likely to reduce the amount of time it took for physicists to realize that atoms were being split? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

27.

The physicists conducting the experiments in neutron bombardment of uranium were all using the same research techniques. The physicists conducting the experiments in neutron bombardment of uranium did not have particular expectations regarding the likely nuclear composition of the by-products. The physicists conducting the experiments in neutron bombardment of uranium had not been aware of the calculations indicating that in principle it was possible to split atoms. More physicists concentrated on obtaining experimental results from the neutron bombardment of uranium. Physicists conducted experiments in the neutron bombardment of some substance other than uranium.

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According to the passage, which one of the following was true of the physics community during the 1930s? (A) (B)

It neglected earlier theoretical developments. It reevaluated calculations indicating that atoms

(C)

It never identified the by-products of neutron

(D)

It showed that uranium atoms were the easiest

(E)

It recognized the dangers of working with

could be split. bombardment of uranium. to split. radioactive substances.

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SECTION II Time-35 minutes 25 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. 1.

Mayor: There has been a long debate in city council about how to accommodate projected increases in automobile traffic. Today, our choice is clear: either we adopt my plan to build a new expressway, or we do nothing. Doing nothing is not a viable option because our existing system of roads would be in gridlock within ten years given even a conservative estimate of future traffic levels. City council should therefore adopt my plan. The reasoning in the mayor's argument is most vulnerable to which one of the following criticisms? (A)

(B) (C)

(D) (E)

It bases a projection only on conservative

estimates rather than considering a wider range of estimates. It takes for granted that the options it considers are mutually exclusive. It fails to consider the possibility that the rate of increase in traffic will start to diminish after ten years. It fails to address the issue of the cost of traffic gridlock to the city's economy. It presents a choice that is limited to two options, without giving reasons for not considering any other options.

2.

Museum curator: Our ancient Egyptian collection includes an earthenware hippopotamus that resembles a child's toy. It was discovered in a tomb, upside down, with its legs broken off. We know that the ancient Egyptians believed the dead had to wage eternal war with beasts. Breaking the legs off a representation of an animal was thought to help a deceased person in this war. We conclude that, far from being a toy, this hippopotamus was a religious object. Which one of the following is an assumption required by the curator's argument? (A) (B) (C)

(D)

(E)

The tomb in which the hippopotamus was found was not the tomb of a child. Earthenware figures were never used as children's toys in ancient Egypt. The tomb in which the hippopotamus was found was not reentered from the time of burial until archaeologists opened it. The hippopotamus' legs were not broken through some natural occurrence after it was placed in the tomb. The hippopotamus was originally placed upside down in the tomb.

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Lawyer: Juries are traditionally given their instructions in convoluted, legalistic language. The verbiage is intended to make the instructions more precise, but greater precision is of little use if most jurors have difficulty understanding the instructions. Since it is more important for jurors to have a basic but adequate understanding of their role than it is for the details of that role to be precisely specified, jury instructions should be formulated in simple, easily comprehensible language.

5.

Each of the following, if true, strengthens the lawyer's argument EXCEPT: (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

4.

Most jurors are less likely to understand instructions given in convoluted, legalistic language than instructions given in simple, easily comprehensible language. Most jurors do not have an adequate understanding of their role after being given jury instructions in convoluted, legalistic language. Jury instructions formulated in simple, easily comprehensible language can adequately describe the role of the jurors. The details of the role of the jurors cannot be specified with complete precision in simple, easily comprehensible language. Jurors do not need to know the precise details of their role in order to have an adequate understanding of that role.

Traditional "talk" therapy, in which a patient with a psychological disorder discusses it with a trained therapist, produces chemical changes in the brain. These changes seem to correspond to improvements in certain aspects of the patient's behavior. Thus, physicians will eventually be able to treat such patients as effectively through pharmacological intervention in the brain's neurochemistry as through the lengthy intermediary of traditional "talk" methods. Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends? (A) (B)

(C) (D)

(E)

All neurochemical changes produce corresponding psychological changes. Improvements in a patient's behavior produced by "talk" therapy occur only through chemical changes in the brain's neurochemistry. "Talk" therapy has not been effective at bringing about psychological change. If chemical changes in the brain's neurochemistry correspond to improvements in patient behavior, then psychology and neuroscience will eventually be indistinguishable. Direct intervention in the brain's neurochemistry is likely to become a less expensive way of treating psychological disorders than is "talk" therapy.

2

Bacteria that benefit human beings when they are present in the body are called commensals. The bacterium Helicobacter pylori plays a primary role in the development of stomach ulcers. But since stomach ulcers occur in less than 10 percent of those harboring H. pylori, and since it allegedly strengthens immune response, many scientists now consider it a commensal. But this is surely misguided. Only about 10 percent of the people who harbor Mycobacter tuberculosis-a bacterium that can cause tuberculosis-get sick from it, yet no one would call M. tuberculosis a commensal. Which one of the following, if true, most seriously undermines the argument's reasoning? (A)

(B) (C) (D)

(E)

6.

Stomach ulcers caused by H. pylori and tuberculosis can both be effectively treated with antibiotics. Cases of tuberculosis usually last longer than ulcers caused by H. pylori. People who harbor M. tuberculosis derive no benefit from its presence. There are more people who harbor M. tuberculosis than people who harbor H. pylori. There are more people who harbor H. pylori than people who harbor M. tuberculosis.

Most apartments on the upper floors of The Vista Arms apartment building have scenic views. So there is in the building at least one studio apartment with scenic views. The conclusion of the argument follows logically if which one of the following is assumed? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

All of the apartments on the lower floors of the building have scenic views. All of the apartments in the building have scenic views. Most of the apartments in the building are studio apartments. Most of the apartments with scenic views are on the upper floors of the building. Most of the apartments on the upper floors of the building are studio apartments.

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Mike: Tom did not tell me that I could use his computer, but it would not be wrong for me to use it anyway. Last week Tom used Mary's bicycle even though she had not told him he could use it.

9.

Which one of the following principles, if valid, would most help to justify Mike's reasoning? (A) (B) (C)

(D)

(E)

8.

Using the possessions of others without their permission is not always theft. Generally one should tell the truth, but there are cases in which it is permissible not to. If people have used your property without your permission, it is not wrong for you to use their property without their permission. It is permissible to treat people in a way that is similar to the way in which they have treated others. Using another person's property is wrong if the person is harmed by that use.

Robinson: Wexell says that the museum wasted its money in purchasing props and costumes from famous stage productions, because such items have no artistic significance outside the context of a performance. But many of the props and costumes are too old and fragile for use in a performance. So clearly, the museum did not waste its money, for displaying these items is the only way of making them available to the public. The reasoning in Robinson's argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

offers anecdotal evidence insufficient to support a general claim gives reasons that do not address the point made in Wexell's argument attacks the person making the argument rather than the substance of the argument concludes that a claim is false merely on the grounds that the evidence for it is insufficient takes a condition that is sufficient for the conclusion to be true as one that is necessary for the conclusion to be true

In a party game, one person leaves the room with the understanding that someone else will relate a recent dream to the remaining group. The person then returns and tries to reconstruct the dream by asking only yes-or-no questions. In fact, no dream has been related: the group simply answers the questions according to some arbitrary rule. Surprisingly, the person usually constructs a dream narrative that is both coherent and ingenious. The example presented above most closely conforms to which one of the following propositions? (A)

(B)

(C) (D)

(E)

10.

The presumption that something has order and coherence can lead one to imbue it with order and coherence. One is less apt to reach a false understanding of what someone says than to make no sense out of it at all. Dreams are often just collections of images and ideas without coherent structures. Interpreting another person's dream requires that one understand the dream as a coherent narrative. People often invent clever and coherent stories to explain their behavior to other people.

Computer manufacturers have sought to make computer chips ever smaller, since decreasing the size of a computer's central processing unit (CPU) chip-without making that CPU chip any less sophisticated-will proportionally increase the speed of the CPU chip and the computer containing it. But since CPU chips cannot be made significantly smaller without decreasing their sophistication, computers cannot currently be made significantly faster. Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends? (A) (B)

(C)

(D) (E)

Computers cannot currently be made faster unless their CPU chips are made smaller. Even if CPU chips are made slightly less sophisticated, they cannot currently be made much smaller. If both the size and the sophistication of a CPU chip are decreased, the speed of that chip will decrease. Few, if any, computer manufacturers believe that computers can be made significantly faster. Increasing the sophistication of a CPU chip without increasing its size will proportionally increase its speed.

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In the last year, biologists have learned that there are many more species of amphibians in existence than had previously been known. This definitely undermines environmentalists' claim that pollution is eliminating many of these species every year.

13.

(B) (C) (D) (E)

12.

Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify the argument's reasoning? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Morgenstern's argument is flawed in that it

kinds of things and the things that are of those kinds a condition necessary for a phenomenon and one that is sufficient for it a cause and an effect a correlation between two phenomena and a causal relationship between them changes in our knowledge of objects and changes in the objects themselves

Because dried peat moss, which is derived from sphagnum moss, contains no chemical additives and is a renewable resource, many gardeners use large amounts of it as a soil conditioner in the belief that the practice is environmentally sound. They are mistaken. The millions of acres of sphagnum moss in the world contribute more oxygen to the atmosphere than do all of the world's rain forests combined, and the garden soil industry is depleting these areas much faster than they can renew themselves.

Using a product may be environmentally unsound even if the product is a renewable resource and contains no chemical additive. A practice is not environmentally sound if it significantly reduces the amount of oxygen entering the atmosphere. A practice is environmentally sound if it helps to protect rain forests that contribute large amounts of oxygen to the atmosphere. If the environmental benefits of a practice outweigh the environmental costs, that practice can be legitimately considered environmentally sound. If the practices of an industry threaten a vital resource, those practices should be banned.

Brooks: I'm unhappy in my job, but I don't know whether I can accept the risks involved in quitting my job. Morgenstern: The only risk in quitting is that of not finding another job. If you don't find one, you're going to be pretty unhappy. But you're already unhappy, so you might as well just quit.

The reasoning in the argument above is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it involves a confusion between (A)

2

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

14.

fails to take into account that unhappiness can vary in intensity or significance relies on an assumption that is tantamount to assuming that the conclusion is true mischaracterizes what Brooks says conflates two different types of risk reaches a generalization on the basis of a single case

Only Canadian films are shown at the Lac Nichoutec Film Festival. This year, most of the films that won prizes at that festival also won prizes at international film festivals. If the above statements are true, which one of the

following statements must also be true? (A)

(B) (C)

(D)

(E)

This year, most of the Canadian films that were shown at international film festivals won prizes at the Lac Nichoutec Film Festival. Most of the Canadian films produced this year were shown at the Lac Nichoutec Film Festival. Some of the films that won prizes at international film festivals this year were Canadian films. This year, not every film that won a prize at the Lac Nichoutec Film Festival was also shown at an international film festival. This year, at least one film that won a prize at an international film festival was not shown at the Lac Nichoutec Film Festival.

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Commentator: Many social critics claim that contemporary journalists' cynical tendency to look for selfish motives behind the seemingly altruistic actions of powerful people undermines our society's well-being by convincing people that success is invariably associated with greed and mendacity. But the critics' claim is absurd. The cynicism of contemporary journalists cannot be a contributing factor to the undermining of our society's well-being, for journalists have always been cynics. Today's journalists are, if anything, more restrained than their predecessors.

16.

The owners of Uptown Apartments are leaning toward not improving the apartment complex; they believe that the increased rents they could charge for improved apartments would not cover the costs of the improvements. But the improvements would make the surrounding housing, which they also own, more valuable and rentable for higher rents. So the owners should make the improvements. The reasoning in which one of the following is most similar to the reasoning in the argument above? (A)

The reasoning in the commentator's argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it overlooks the possibility that (A) (B)

(C) (D) (E)

widespread cynicism is beneficial to the well-being of society cynicism about the motives of powerful people increases with the amount of information one has about them the work of contemporary journalists reflects a cynicism that is not really genuine any accurate description of human behavior portrays it as selfish cynicism of this type on the part of journalists has always had a negative effect on the well-being of society

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

John's injured knee does not cause him a lot of pain, so he does not want to undergo the pain of surgery to heal it. But the surgery would enable him to exercise regularly again. Thus John should have the surgery. Since its fishing season lasts only six months, Laketown Fishing Company prefers renting boats to buying its own. But since boats can be used for other purposes during the fishing season, it has made the wrong decision. Max's mechanic thinks there is a crack in the left cylinder head of Max's car and wants to remove the engine to check. Such a diagnostic engine removal would cost about $175, even if the cylinder head does not need replacement. But if the cylinder head is cracked and is not replaced, the engine will be ruined. So Max should have the mechanic check for the crack. Because of dental problems, Leona cut her consumption of candy. Consequently, she learned to enjoy fruit more. Thus, dental problems, which can lead to other health problems, led in her case to an improved diet and better health overall. Bulk Fruit Company is deciding whether to market a new hybrid fruit. It is enthusiastic about the idea, since research suggests that people will come to like this fruit. Therefore, it is in the long-term interest of the company to market the hybrid fruit.

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Ditalgame Corporation's computer video games are subject to widespread illegal copying. To combat this piracy, Ditalgame will begin using a new copy protection feature on its games. Ditalgame's president predicts a substantial increase in sales of the company's games once the new copy protection feature is implemented.

19.

Which one of the following, if true, provides the most support for the president's prediction? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

18.

Ditalgame has spent millions of dollars developing the new copy protection feature, and the company can recoup these costs only if its sales increase substantially. Over the last several years, the market for computer games has grown steadily, but Ditalgame's share of that market has shrunk considerably. The copy protection feature causes a copied game to be playable just long enough for most people to come to enjoy it so much that they decide they have to have it. Game Review Monthly, the most commonly read magazine among people who frequently copy computer games, generally gives favorable reviews to Ditalgame games. Computer games produced by Ditalgame are copied more frequently than computer games produced by Ditalgame's main competitors.

Columnist: It may soon be possible for an economy to function without paper money. Instead, the government would electronically record all transactions as they take place. However, while this may be technologically feasible it would never be willingly accepted by a society, for it gives the government too much power. People are rightly distrustful of governments with too much power. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the overall conclusion of the columnist's argument? (A)

(B) (C) (D)

(E)

A society would never willingly accept a system in which, in lieu of paper money, the government keeps track of every transaction electronically. It is reasonable for people to distrust a government that has too much power. New technology may soon make it possible for an economy to operate without paper money. People are right to be unwilling to give the government the power it would need to operate an economy without paper money. Even though it may be technologically feasible, no government will be able to operate an economy without the use of paper money.

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Social scientist: Since the body of thought known as Marxism claims to describe rigorously an inexorable historical movement toward the socialization of the means of production, it should be regarded as a scientific theory. Thus, certain interpreters, in taking Marxism as a political program aimed at radically transforming society, have misconstrued it. The social scientist's conclusion follows logically if which one of the following is assumed? (A)

(B)

(C) (D) (E)

20.

The description that Marxism gives of certain historical phenomena in the economic sphere is as rigorous as it is claimed to be. The aims of science are incompatible with the aims of those who would seek to transform society by political means. Only bodies of thought consisting purely of rigorous description are scientific theories. Scientific theories cannot be correctly interpreted to be, or to imply, political programs. The means of production will inevitably become socialized regardless of any political programs designed to make that occur.

Daniel: There are certain actions that moral duty obliges us to perform regardless of their consequences. However, an action is not morally good simply because it fulfills a moral obligation. No action can be morally good unless it is performed with the right motivations. Carrie: Our motivations for our actions are not subject to our conscious control. Therefore, the only thing that can be required for an action to be morally good is that it fulfill a moral obligation. The dialogue most supports the claim that Daniel and Carrie are committed to disagreeing with each other about the truth of which one of the following statements? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

No one can be morally required to do something that is impossible to do. Some actions that are performed with the right motivations are not morally good. All actions that fulfill moral obligations are performed in order to fulfill moral obligations. An action performed with the wrong motivations cannot be morally good. If a person's motivations for acting are based on a sense of duty, then that person's action is morally good.

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The mayor was not telling the truth when he said that the bridge renovation did not waste taxpayers' money. The very commission he set up to look into government waste reported that the Southern Tier Project, of which the bridge renovation was a part, was egregiously wasteful. The reasoning in the argument is flawed in that the argument (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

22.

infers that a part has a certain quality merely on the grounds that the whole to which it belongs has that quality draws a general conclusion about government waste on the basis of a single instance of such waste attacks the mayor's character rather than assessing the strength of the evidence supporting the mayor's claim puts forward evidence that presupposes an important part of the claim that the argument attempts to support rejects a position on the grounds that the motives of the person who has advanced the position were not disinterested

The airport's runways are too close to each other to allow simultaneous use of adjacent runways when visibility is poor, so the airport allows only 30 planes an hour to land in poor weather; in good weather 60 planes an hour are allowed to land. Because airline schedules assume good weather, bad weather creates serious delays.

23.

As a general rule, the larger a social group of primates, the more time its members spend grooming one another. The main purpose of this social grooming is the maintenance of social cohesion. Furthermore, group size among primates tends to increase proportionally with the size of the neocortex, the seat of higher thought in the brain. Extrapolating upon the relationship between group size and neocortex size, we can infer that early human groups were quite large. But unexpectedly, there is strong evidence that, apart from parents grooming their children, these humans spent virtually no time grooming one another. Which one of the following, if true, would do most to resolve the apparent discrepancy described above? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Early humans were much more likely to groom themselves than are the members of other primate species. Early humans developed languages, which provided a more effective way of maintaining social cohesion than social grooming. Early humans were not as extensively covered with hair as are other primates, and consequently they had less need for social grooming. While early humans probably lived in large groups, there is strong evidence that they hunted in small groups. Many types of primates other than humans have fairly large neocortex regions and display frequent social grooming.

Which one of the following is most strongly supported by the information above? (A)

(B)

(C) (D)

(E)

In poor weather, only half as many planes are allowed to land each hour on any one runway at the airport as are allowed to land on it in good weather. When the weather at the airport is good it is likely that there are planes landing on two adjacent runways at any given time. If any two of the airport's runways are used simultaneously, serious delays result. Airlines using the airport base their schedules on the assumption that more than 30 planes an hour will be allowed to land at the airport. In good weather, there are few if any seriously delayed flights at the airport.

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Had the party's economic theories been sound and had it succeeded in implementing its program, the inflation rate would have lessened considerably. But because the inflation rate actually increased, the party's economic theories were far off the mark.

25.

The flawed reasoning in which one of the following arguments most closely resembles the flawed reasoning in the argument above? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

If the people who inhabited the valley for so

long had been invaded, or if there had been a dramatic climatic change, there would have been changes in the valley's architecture. But architecture in the valley remained the same throughout their stay. Thus, the valley people must not have been invaded at any time during their stay. Many people fear that if the opposition party wins the election and keeps its promise to cut wages dramatically, workers in key industries will strike. But because the workers have promised not to strike, these workers must think the party will not keep its promise of a dramatic wage cut. If the company had succeeded in selling its subsidiaries and used the cash to purchase the new patent, its stock price would have doubled in the last two years. But the price of the stock did not increase in that time. Thus, the company must have failed to sell its subsidiaries. City residents were expected to show a great deal of support for the rebels if the battle was won and the jailed rebel leaders freed. Residents have shown a great deal of support for the rebels for the last three days. Therefore, the rebels must have won the battle. If the television station's new weather forecasting equipment had been worth the investment, the accuracy of its forecasts would have risen, along with its ratings. But the station's ratings actually decreased. Thus, the new equipment is no improvement on the old.

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When a group is unable to reach a consensus, group members are often accused of being stubborn, bull-headed, or unyielding. Such epithets often seem abusive, are difficult to prove, and rarely help the group reach a resolution. Those who wish to make such an accusation stick, however, should choose "unyielding," because one can always appeal to the fact that the accused has not yielded; obviously if one acknowledges that a person has not yielded, then one cannot deny that the person is unyielding, at least on this issue. Which one of the following most accurately describes the argumentative technique employed above? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

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rejecting a tactic on the grounds that it constitutes an attack on the character of a person and has no substance in fact rejecting a tactic on the grounds that the tactic makes it virtually impossible for the group to reach a consensus on the issue in question conditionally advocating a tactic on the grounds that it results in an accusation that is less offensive than the alternatives conditionally advocating a tactic on the grounds that it results in an argument that would help the group to reach a consensus on the issue in question conditionally advocating a tactic on the grounds that it results in an argument for which one could not consistently accept the premise but deny the conclusion

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SECTION III Time-35 minutes 23 Questions Directions: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. Questions 1-5 A chemistry class has six lab sessions scheduled over three days-Wednesday, Thursday, and Friday-one session being held each morning and one each afternoon. Each session will be led by a different lab assistant-Julio, Kevin, Lan, Nessa, Olivia, or Rebecca. The assignment of lab assistants to sessions is constrained as follows: Kevin and Rebecca must lead sessions that meet on the same day. Lan and Olivia cannot lead sessions that meet on the same day. Nessa must lead an afternoon session. Julio's session must meet on an earlier day of the week than Olivia's.

1.

Which one of the following could be an accurate assignment of lab assistants to morning and afternoon sessions, respectively, on the three days? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Wednesday: Rebecca, Kevin Thursday: Julio, Lan Friday: Nessa, Olivia Wednesday: Olivia, Nessa Thursday: Julio, Lan Friday: Kevin, Rebecca Wednesday: Lan, Kevin Thursday: Rebecca, Julio Friday: Olivia, Nessa Wednesday: Kevin, Rebecca Thursday: Julio, Nessa Friday: Olivia, Lan Wednesday: Julio, Lan Thursday: Olivia, Nessa Friday: Rebecca, Kevin

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If Lan does not lead a Wednesday session, then which one of the following lab assistants must lead a Thursday session?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(E)

4.

(B)

(C) (D)

(E)

5. 3.

If Kevin's session meets on the day before Nessa's, then which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of lab assistants any one of whom could lead the Thursday afternoon session?

(A) (B)

(C) (D) (E)

Julio, Nessa Kevin, Rebecca Kevin, Nessa, Rebecca Julio, Kevin, Nessa, Rebecca Julio, Kevin, Lan, Nessa, Rebecca

If Julio and Kevin both lead morning sessions, then any of the following could be true EXCEPT:

(A)

Rebecca Olivia Nessa Kevin Julio

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Lan's session meets Wednesday morning. Lan's session meets Thursday afternoon. Nessa's session meets Friday afternoon. Olivia's session meets Thursday morning. Olivia's session meets Friday morning.

If Julio leads the Thursday afternoon session, then for how many of the other lab assistants can one determine which sessions they lead?

(A) (B)

(C) (D) (E)

one two three four five

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Questions 6-11 A shopping center has exactly seven spaces-space 1 through space 7-arranged in a straight row. Seven businesses-an optometrist, a pharmacy, two restaurants, a shoe store, a toy store, and a veterinarian-will be located in the shopping center, one in each space. The locations of the businesses are subject to the following constraints: The pharmacy must be at one end of the row and one of the restaurants at the other. The two restaurants must be separated by at least two other businesses. The pharmacy must be next to either the optometrist or the veterinarian. The toy store cannot be next to the veterinarian.

6.

Which one of the following could be the order of the businesses in spaces 1 through 7 respectively? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

pharmacy, optometrist, shoe store, restaurant, veterinarian, toy store, restaurant pharmacy, veterinarian, optometrist, shoe store, restaurant, toy store, restaurant restaurant, shoe store, veterinarian, pharmacy, optometrist, toy store, restaurant restaurant, toy store, optometrist, restaurant, veterinarian, shoe store, pharmacy restaurant, optometrist, toy store, restaurant, shoe store, veterinarian, pharmacy

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If the shoe store is in space 2, which one of the following

If the shoe store is in space 4, which one of the

could be true?

following must be true?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

The optometrist is in space 5. The pharmacy is in space 1. A restaurant is in space 3. The toy store is in space 6. The veterinarian is in space 4.

If the veterinarian is in space 5, which one of the

following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 9.

10.

The optometrist is in space 2. The pharmacy is in space 7. A restaurant is in space 4. The shoe store is in space 6. The toy store is in space 3.

If the optometrist is next to the shoe store, the businesses

11.

the pharmacy and a restaurant the pharmacy and the toy store the two restaurants a restaurant and the toy store a restaurant and the veterinarian

The optometrist is next to a restaurant. The pharmacy is next to the veterinarian. A restaurant is next to the toy store. The shoe store is next to the toy store. The shoe store is next to the veterinarian.

Which one of the following, if substituted for the constraint that the two restaurants must be separated by at least two other businesses, would have the same effect in determining the locations of the businesses? (A) (B) (C)

immediately on either side of this pair must be (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

3

(D) (E)

A restaurant must be in either space 3, space 4, or space 5. A restaurant must be next to either the optometrist or the veterinarian. Either the toy store or the veterinarian must be somewhere between the two restaurants. No more than two businesses can separate the pharmacy and the restaurant nearest it. The optometrist cannot be next to the shoe store.

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Questions 12-18 A software company employs exactly seven sales representatives-Kim, Mahr, Parra, Quinn, Stuckey, Tiao, and Udall-to work in its three sales zones-Zone 1, Zone 2, and Zone 3. Each sales representative works in exactly one of the sales zones, in accordance with the following conditions: Either Parra or Tiao (but not both) works in Zone 1. Either Tiao or Udall (but not both) works in Zone 2. Parra and Quinn work in the same sales zone as each other. Stuckey and Udall work in the same sales zone as each other. There are more of the sales representatives working in Zone 3 than in Zone 2.

12.

Which one of the following could be an accurate matching of the sales representatives to the sales zones in which they work? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Zone Zone Zone Zone Zone Zone Zone Zone Zone Zone Zone Zone Zone Zone Zone

1: 2: 3: 1: 2: 3: 1: 2: 3: 1: 2: 3: 1: 2: 3:

Kim, Parra Stuckey, Udall Mahr, Quinn, Tiao Kim, Tiao Stuckey, Udall Mahr, Parra, Quinn Parra, Quinn Kim, Udall Mahr, Stuckey, Tiao Stuckey, Udall Kim, Tiao Mahr, Parra, Quinn Tiao Kim, Parra, Quinn Stuckey, Udall

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If more sales representatives work in Zone 1 than in Zone 3, then which one of the following could be true?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 14.

15.

Kim Mahr Stuckey Tiao Udall

17.

Item Removed From Scoring.

18.

If Mahr and Stuckey work in the same sales zone, then which one of the following could be true?

Kim and Stuckey both work in Zone 1. Kim and Stuckey both work in Zone 3. Mahr and Stuckey both work in Zone 3. Mahr and Udall both work in Zone 3. Parra and Stuckey both work in Zone 1.

Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the sales representatives working in Zone 3? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Quinn CANNOT work in the same sales zone as which one of the following? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Kim works in Zone 2. Mahr works in Zone 2. Parra works in Zone 3. Tiao works in Zone 1. Udall works in Zone 3.

Which one of the following must be false? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

16.

3

Kim, Mahr Kim, Tiao Parra, Quinn Stuckey, Tiao, Udall Parra, Quinn, Stuckey, Udall

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Kim works in Zone 2. Mahr works in Zone 1. Parra works in Zone 3. Stuckey works in Zone 2. Tiao works in Zone 1.

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Questions 19-23 During a recital, two pianists-Wayne and Zara-will perform solos. There will be five solos altogether, performed one immediately after another. Each solo will be either a modern piece or a traditional piece. The choice of pianist and type of piece for the solos must conform to the following conditions: The third solo is a traditional piece. Exactly two of the traditional pieces are performed consecutively. In the fourth solo, either Wayne performs a traditional piece or Zara performs a modern piece. The pianist who performs the second solo does not perform the fifth solo. No traditional piece is performed until Wayne performs at least one modern piece.

19.

Which one of the following could be all of the solos that are traditional pieces? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

the the the the the

first, third, and fourth second, third, and fourth third and fourth third and fifth fourth and fifth

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What is the minimum number of solos in which Wayne performs a traditional piece? (A)

(B) (C) (D) (E) 21.

22.

If the fifth solo is a traditional piece, then for exactly

how many of the solos is the choice of pianist complete! y determined?

zero one two three four

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

one two three four five

If the pianist who performs the first solo also performs

23.

the second solo, then which one of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

If in the fifth solo Wayne performs a traditional piece,

which one of the following could be true?

Zara performs the first solo. Wayne performs the third solo. Zara performs the fifth solo. The second solo is a traditional piece. The fourth solo is a modern piece.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

s

T

0

Zara performs the first solo. Wayne performs the second solo. Zara performs the third solo. The second solo is a modern piece. The fourth solo is a traditional piece.

p

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

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SECTION IV Time-35 minutes 26 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. 1.

According to the official results of last week's national referendum, 80 percent voted in favor of the proposal. But those results must be rigged. Everyone I know voted against the proposal, which is clear evidence that most people voted against it.

3.

Which one of the following most accurately describes a flaw in the reasoning of the argument? (A)

(B) (C)

(D)

(E)

2.

Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify the editorial's argument? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument relies?

The argument uses evidence drawn from a sample that is unlikely to be representative of the general population. The argument presumes the truth of the conclusion that it sets out to prove. The argument rejects a claim by attacking the proponents of the claim rather than addressing the claim itself. The argument fails to make a needed distinction between how people should have voted and how they actually voted. The argument defends a claim solely on the grounds that most people believe it.

Editorial: It is usually desirable for people to have access to unregulated information, such as is found on the Internet. But a vast array of misinformation will always show up on the Internet, and it is difficult to determine which information is accurate. Accurate information is useless unless it can easily be distinguished from misinformation; thus, the information on the Internet should somehow be regulated.

It is never possible to regulate misinformation without restricting people's access to accurate information. Even if information is regulated, accurate information is often indistinguishable from mi sinformati on. Regulation of information makes it easy for people to distinguish between accurate information and misinformation. It is acceptable for people to have access to a vast array of misinformation only if accurate information is never overlooked as a result. It is usually more desirable for people to have access to useless, unregulated misinformation than it is for them to have access only to accurate but regulated information.

Some members have criticized the club's president for inviting Dr. Hines to speak at the annual awards banquet without consulting other club members beforehand. But a few years ago the previous club president hired a tax accountant even though he had not discussed it with club members beforehand. So the current president acted appropriately in the way in which she invited Dr. Hines.

(A)

(B)

(C) (D) (E)

4.

The previous club president had also invited speakers without first consulting other club members. At the time the previous club president hired the tax accountant, most club members did not expect to be consulted about such matters. Dr. Hines accepted the president's invitation to speak at the club's annual awards banquet. The club president has more discretion in hiring an accountant than in hiring a speaker. The club's previous president acted appropriately in hiring the tax accountant without first consulting other club members.

Company spokesperson: Household Products magazine claims that our Filterator X water filter does not remove chemical contaminants in significant amounts. This attack on the quality of our product is undermined by the experience of the millions of Filterator X owners who are satisfied with the product's performance. Which one of the following, if true, most seriously undermines the company spokesperson's argument? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D) (E)

Household Products did not evaluate whether the Filterator X water filter significantly improved the taste of drinking water. Most Filterator X owners have no way to determine how effectively the product removes chemical contaminants from water. People whose household water contains chemical contaminants are more likely than other people to buy a Filterator X water filter. Very few people who own a Filterator X read Household Products on a consistent basis. Household Products' evaluations of Filterator X water filters have been consistently negative.

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A famous artist once claimed that all great art imitates nature. If this claim is correct, then any music that is great art would imitate nature. But while some music may imitate ocean waves or the galloping of horses, for example, most great music imitates nothing at all.

7.

Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the argument? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

6.

Tamara: That is not true. Many wealthy Japanese during the Tokugawa period had their houses constructed with intentionally squeaky floors so that they would receive warning if a ninja were in the house. Of the following, which one, if true, is the strongest counter Patricia can make to Tamara's objection? (A)

(B) (C) (D)

(E)

Many poor Japanese during the Tokugawa period also had houses constructed with intentionally squeaky floors. As part of their secret training, ninjas learned to walk on squeaky floors without making a sound. The wealthy made up a small portion of Japan's population during the Tokugawa period. The fighting prowess of ninjas was exaggerated to mythic proportions in the years following the Tokugawa period. There were very few ninjas at any time other than during the Tokugawa period.

Philosopher: Both the consequences and the motives of human actions have bearing on the moral worth of those actions. Nonetheless, to be a moral agent one must have free will, because one cannot be a moral agent without desiring to conform to a principle. The philosopher's argument requires the assumption that

Music is inferior to the other arts. Either the artist's claim is incorrect, or most great music is not great art. Like some great music, some great painting and sculpture may fail to imitate nature. Some elements of nature cannot be represented adequately by great art. Sounds that do not imitate nature are not great music.

Patricia: During Japan's Tokugawa period, martial arts experts known as ninjas were trained for the purposes of espionage and assassination. Yet at that time there was actually very little ninja activity in Japan, and most Japanese did not fear ninjas.

4

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

8.

one cannot be a moral agent if one lacks a concern for the consequences of actions desiring to conform to a principle requires free will nobody who acts without taking the consequences of the action into consideration is free it is impossible to have desires without also being a moral agent it is impossible to perform morally worthy actions without at some time conforming to a principle

A significant amount of the acquisition budget of a typical university library is spent on subscriptions to scholarly journals. Over the last several years, the average subscription rate a library pays for such a journal has increased dramatically, even though the costs of publishing a scholarly journal have remained fairly constant. Obviously, then, in most cases publishing a scholarly journal must be much more profitable now than it was several years ago. Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Many university libraries have begun to charge higher and higher fines for overdue books and periodicals as a way of passing on increased journal subscription costs to library users. A university library's acquisition budget usually represents only a small fraction of its total operating budget. Publishing a scholarly journal is an expensive enterprise, and publishers of such journals cannot survive financially if they consistently lose money. Most subscribers to scholarly journals are individuals, not libraries, and the subscription rates for individuals have generally remained unchanged for the past several years. The majority of scholarly journals are published no more than four times a year.

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Terrence Gurney suggests that because his books appeal to a wide audience, he is not given due credit for his literary achievements. Surely he is mistaken. Gurney's books tell interesting stories, but the writing is flat, leaving no lasting impression on the reader. This is likely the reason that Gurney has not received praise for literary achievement.

11.

Which one of the following most accurately states the argument's overall conclusion? (A)

(B) (C)

(D)

(E)

10.

Assuming that the scientists' current belief about Earth's atmosphere at the time life began is correct, which one of the following, if true, would most help to explain how lightning could have produced the first amino acids on Earth? (A)

(B) (C) (D) (E)

Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify the reasoning in the art critic's argument?

Terrence Gurney is mistaken when he suggests that the wide appeal of his books has prevented him from being given due credit for his literary achievements. Terrence Gurney's books are not significant literary achievements. Even though Terrence Gurney's books tell interesting stories, his writing is flat and leaves no lasting impression on the reader. Terrence Gurney has not been given due credit for his literary achievements because his books appeal to such a wide audience. Terrence Gurney should have received some praise for his literary achievements despite the fact that his writing is flat and leaves no lasting impression on the reader.

In an experiment designed to show how life may have begun on Earth, scientists demonstrated that an electrical spark-or lightning-could produce amino acids, the building blocks of Earth's life. However, unless the spark occurs in a "reducing" atmosphere, that is, one rich in hydrogen and lean in oxygen, amino acids do not form readily and tend to break apart when they do form. Scientists now believe that Earth's atmosphere was actually rich in oxygen and lean in nitrogen at the time life began.

Meteorite impacts at the time life began on Earth temporarily created a reducing atmosphere around the impact site. A single amino acid could have been sufficient to begin the formation of life on Earth. Earth's atmosphere has changed significantly since life first began. Lightning was less common on Earth at the time life began than it is now. Asteroids contain amino acids, and some of these amino acids could survive an asteroid's impact with Earth.

Art critic: The Woerner Journalism Award for criticism was given to Nan Paulsen for her reviews of automobiles. This is inappropriate. The criticism award should be given for criticism, which Paulsen's reviews clearly were not. After all, cars are utilitarian things, not works of art. And objects that are not works of art do not reveal important truths about the culture that produced them.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

12.

The Woerner Journalism Award for criticism should not be given to a writer who portrays utilitarian objects as works of art. Reviews of objects cannot appropriately be considered to be criticism unless the objects reveal important truths about the culture that produced them. Unless a review is written for the purpose of revealing important truths about the writer's culture, that review should not be considered to be criticism. The Woerner Journalism Award for criticism should not be given to writers who do not consider themselves to be critics. All writing that reveals important truths about a culture should be considered to be criticism.

Manager: Our company's mail-order sales have recently increased 25 percent. This increase started around the time we started offering unlimited free shipping, rather than just free shipping on orders over $50. Thus, our change in policy probably caused the increase. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the manager's argument? (A)

(B) (C) (D)

(E)

Mail-order sales have been decreasing for companies that do not offer unlimited free shipping. The company did not widely advertise its change in policy. The company's profits from mail-order sales have increased since the change in policy. The company's change in policy occurred well after its competitors started offering unlimited free shipping. Most companies offer free shipping only on mail-order purchases over $50.

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Proponents of nuclear power point out that new nuclear plants are so technologically sophisticated that the chances of a meltdown are extremely small. This is true, but it would still be unwise to build nuclear power plants, since the consequences of a meltdown are absolutely catastrophic. The pattern of reasoning in which one of the following is most similar to that in the argument above? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Many mountain climbers claim that their sport is safe because mishaps, though often fatal, are rare. However, mountain climbing is very risky: although the number of mishaps is small, so is the number of mountain climbers. Hence, the chance of a fatal mishap during mountain climbing is not as slim as it may seem. Eating a serving of vegetables just once will not improve your health. It is nonetheless prudent to do so, for eating vegetables every day will make you much healthier over time. Skydivers always use two parachutes: a main chute and an auxiliary one in case the main chute malfunctions. Thus, the risk of a fatal mishap is low. Nonetheless, it is foolish to skydive, for though the risk is small, the rewards from skydiving are also small. The risk of serious injury when bungee jumping is quite low. Nonetheless, it is reckless to engage in that activity, for the injuries that would result in the case of an accident are so extreme that it is not worth the risk. People complain about having to wear seat belts because they believe the chances of traffic accidents are slim. This is true; on any given trip it is unlikely that a collision will occur. However, it is still unwise to ride in a car without a seat belt, for the effort it takes to put one on is minimal.

14.

4

University president: Research institutions have an obligation to promote research in any field of theoretical investigation if that research shows some promise of yielding insights into the causes of practical problems that affect people's quality of life. The principle stated by the university president, if valid, most helps to justify which one of the following actions? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

A university denies a grant application from a faculty member for work on a solution to a famous mathematical puzzle that has no relation to practical concerns. A government agency funds a research project in astrophysics designed to determine whether there are theoretical limits on the magnitude of planets in distant solar systems. A university funds a research position in the physics department that involves no teaching but has the responsibility for managing all the grant applications by members of the physics faculty. A foundation decides not to fund a research proposal in applied mathematics that sought to model certain poorly understood aspects of economic behavior. A research institute funds an investigation into the mathematical properties of folded structures that is likely to aid in understanding the structure of proteins that cause disease.

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Carpal tunnel syndrome, a nerve disorder that affects the hands and wrists, is often caused by repetitive motions such as typing on a keyboard. A recent study of office workers found that, among those who do similar amounts of typing, workers reporting the least control over their own work had almost three times the risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome as did those who reported the most control. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to explain the study's findings? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Office workers who have the most control over their own work tend to do significantly less typing than do those who have the least control over their own work. Feeling a lack of control over one's own work tends to put one under emotional stress that makes one more susceptible to nerve disorders. The keyboards on which office workers type tend to put typists' arms and hands in positions that promote the development of carpal tunnel syndrome. Among office workers who rarely use keyboards, the rate of carpal tunnel syndrome is much higher for those who feel that they lack control over their own work. Office workers who have the most control over their own work tend to perform repetitive motions other than typing more often than do office workers with the least control over their own work.

16.

Principle: Employees of telemarketing agencies should never do anything that predisposes people to dislike the agencies' clients. Application: If an employee of a telemarketing agency has been told by a person the employee has called that he or she does not want to buy the product of a client of the agency, the employee should not try to talk that person into doing so. Which one of the following, if true, justifies the given application of the principle above? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Any employee of a telemarketing agency is likely to be able to determine whether trying to talk someone into buying the product of a client of the agency after the person has said that he or she does not want to will likely engender animosity toward the client. Some employees of telemarketing agencies are unlikely to be certain about whether trying to talk someone into buying the product of a client of the agency after the person has said that he or she does not want to will likely engender animosity toward the client. Any employee of a telemarketing agency who tries to get someone to buy the product of a client of the agency after the person has said that he or she does not want to will engender animosity toward the client. Some people that an employee of a telemarketing agency calls to ask them to buy the product of a client of the agency will refuse to do so even though they are not predisposed to dislike the client. People who are already predisposed to dislike the client of a telemarketing agency are more likely to refuse to buy the product of that client than are people who are predisposed to like the client.

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Although Pluto has an atmosphere and is much larger than any asteroid, Pluto is not a true planet. Pluto formed in orbit around the planet Neptune and was then ejected from orbit around Neptune when Triton, Neptune's largest moon, was captured by Neptune's gravity.

19.

(B) (C)

(D)

(E)

18.

No celestial body can simultaneously be a moon and a planet. Not all celestial bodies that have an atmosphere and orbit the sun are true planets. If Pluto had not been ejected from its orbit around Neptune, Pluto would not have its current orbit around the sun and would still be a moon. The size of a celestial body in orbit around the sun is not relevant to determining whether or not it is a true planet. For a celestial body to be a true planet it must have formed in orbit around the sun exclusively.

A high-calorie diet providing adequate fats was a crucial requirement for the evolution of the anatomically modern human brain, a process that began among our early human ancestors. Food resources that could support such a diet were most abundant and reliable in the shore environments that were available to early humans. Nevertheless, the human brain's evolution took place almost exclusively in savanna and woodland areas. Which one of the following, if true, would most help to resolve the apparent conflict presented above? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Early humans had a significantly lower metabolic rate than anatomically modern humans, allowing them to expend their fat reserves more efficiently. The brains of the earliest known humans were 30 percent smaller than the anatomically modern human brain. Prehistoric savanna and woodland areas offered more reliable and abundant resources than they do today. The techniques used to explore the archaeology of prehistoric shore sites have only recently been developed. Gathering food in shore environments required a significantly greater expenditure of calories by early humans than did gathering food in other environments.

Editor Y: This is a good photograph: the composition is attractive, especially in the way the image is blurred by smoke in one corner. Editor Z: It's very pretty, but it's a bad photograph. It doesn't make a statement; there's no obvious reason for the smoke to be there.

The conclusion of the argument follows logically if which one of the following is assumed? (A)

4

The editors' dialogue provides the most support for the claim that they disagree with each other about whether (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

20.

a photograph's composition should be related to a statement that it makes a photograph that is not attractive can still be a good photograph a photograph that makes no statement can still be attractive attractiveness by itself can make a photograph a good photograph attractive composition and prettiness are the same feature

University president: We will be forced to reduce spending next year if we do not increase our enrollment. So, if we are to maintain the quality of the education we provide, we must market our programs more aggressively. Without such marketing we will be unable to increase our enrollment. The conclusion of the university president's argument can be properly drawn if which one of the following is assumed? (A)

(B) (C) (D)

(E)

The university will not maintain the quality of the education it provides if it increases its enrollment. The university will not need to reduce spending next year if it increases its enrollment. The university will increase its enrollment if it markets its programs more aggressively. The university will not maintain the quality of the education it provides if it reduces spending next year. The university will not need to reduce spending next year if it markets its programs more aggressively.

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If the city starts requiring residents to sort the materials

23.

that they put out for recycling, then many residents will put more recyclables in with their regular garbage. This will result in more recyclables being buried in the city's landfill. However, because of the cost of having city workers do the sorting, the sanitation department will not stay within its budget unless the sorting requirement for residents is implemented.

Jolene: I disagree. Although some shrimp farms have proved unsustainable and have been quickly abandoned, properly built shrimp farms take a long time to construct and are costly to operate. Most owners try to make sure that their farms are productive for many years.

Which one of the following statements logically follows from the information above? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

22.

Most of the city's residents will continue to recycle even if a sorting requirement is implemented. If the city starts requiring residents to sort their recyclables, then all of the residents who continue to recycle will sort their recyclables. Implementing the sorting requirement would not cause the city's annual cost of sending garbage to its landfill to exceed its current annual cost of sorting recyclables. The amount of recyclables going to the city's landfill will increase if the sanitation department stays within its budget. If the city implements the sorting requirement, the sanitation department will stay within its budget.

Meerkat "sentinels," so-called because they watch for predators while other meerkat group members forage, almost never fall victim to those predators, yet the foragers often do. This advantage accruing to the sentinel does not mean that its watchful behavior is entirely self-interested. On the contrary, the sentinel's behavior is an example of animal behavior motivated at least in part by altruism. The loud bark emitted by the sentinel as it dashes for the cover of the nearest hole alerts other group members to the presence of danger. Which one of the following is a questionable reasoning technique employed in the argument? (A) (B) (C)

(D)

(E)

appealing to evidence that tends to undermine rather than support the argument's conclusion appealing to evidence that presupposes the truth of the argument's conclusion inferring solely from an effect produced by an action that a purpose of the action is to produce that effect inferring solely from the claim that the behavior of a meerkat sentinel is not entirely selfish that this behavior is entirely altruistic concluding that a claim is false on the grounds that insufficient evidence has been offered to support it

Alex: Shrimp farming results in damage to the environment, because investors make quick profits from such farming and then abandon the farms.

Their dialogue provides the most support for the claim that Alex and Jolene disagree with each other over whether (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

24.

most owners of shrimp farms eventually abandon their farms shrimp farming often yields a quick, easy profit shrimp farming hardly ever damages the environment abandonment of a shrimp farm results in damage to the environment some shrimp farmers are environmentally irresponsible

No one who works at Leila's Electronics has received both a poor performance evaluation and a raise. Lester has not received a raise, so it must be that he has received a poor performance evaluation. The flawed reasoning in the argument above is most similar to the reasoning in which one of the following arguments? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

No one who lives in a house both owns it and pays rent on it. So, since my next-door neighbors pay rent on their house, it must be that they do not own it. No one who lives in a house both owns it and pays rent on it. My next-door neighbors own their house. Therefore, it must be that they do not pay rent on it. My neighbors have not paid any rent on their house. Since anyone who lives in a house but does not rent it owns it, it must be that they own it. My next-door neighbors do not own their house. Since no one who lives in a house both owns it and pays rent on it, it must be that my next-door neighbors pay rent on their house. Anyone who lives in a house but does not own it pays rent on it. My next-door neighbors do not own their house. Therefore, it must be that they pay rent on it.

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Numerous studies have demonstrated a pronounced negative correlation between high-fiber diets and the incidence of colon cancer. For example, the colon cancer rate in Western countries is much higher than in many non-Western countries where people eat more fiber-rich foods, such as fruits and vegetables. Furthermore, in Scandinavia it has been conclusively shown that the higher the colon cancer rate in a given area, the lower the consumption in that area of cereals, which, like fruits and vegetables, are high in fiber. All of this shows that insufficient consumption of fiber causes colon cancer, and sufficient consumption of fiber prevents it.

26.

The argument's reasoning is vulnerable to criticism because the argument overlooks the possibility that (A) (B) (C) (D)

(E)

the consumption of fiber in many countries is rising appreciably the risk of many types of cancer is reduced by high-fiber diets fiber is difficult for many people to include in their diets the fiber in fruits and vegetables and the fiber in cereals have cancer-fighting properties to different degrees foods containing fiber also contain other substances that, when consumed, tend to prevent colon cancer

Anthropologist: Many people think that if human language evolved, then something like it must be present in those species most closely related to humans, such as chimpanzees. They reason that since new traits evolve gradually, something like human language, albeit cruder, must exist in some species from which humans evolved. This general line of argument may be reasonable, but it simply does not follow that chimpanzees have anything like human language, because humans did not evolve from chimpanzees. While chimpanzees are indeed closely related to humans, this is because both evolved from a common ancestor. The evolution of human language might easily have begun after the extinction of that common ancestor. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main conclusion of the anthropologist's argument? (A) (B)

(C) (D) (E)

s

T

0

4

Humans did not evolve from chimpanzees, but rather from some extinct species. The assumption that something like human language must exist in some species from which humans evolved has no clearcut linguistic implications for chimpanzees. The communicative systems of chimpanzees are cruder than human language. Human language is a by-product of human intelligence, which chimpanzees lack. The evolution of human language began after the disappearance of an extinct species from which both humans and chimpanzees evolved.

p

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

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Acknowledgment is made to the following sources from which material has been adapted for use in this test booklet: David Carr, "Some Highish Brows Furrow As a Car Critic Gets a Pulitzer." ©2004 by The New York Times Company. Daniel C. Dennett, Consciousness Explained. © 1991 by Little, Brown & Company. Jason Epstein, "The Digital Future." ©2001 by NYREV, Inc. Henry Louis Gates, Jr., review of Jazz in Toni Morrison: Critical Perspectives Past and Present. Edited by Henry Louis Gates, Jr., and K. A. Appiah. © 1993 by Henry Louis Gates, Jr., and K. A. Appiah. Emilio G. Segre, "The Discovery of Nuclear Fission." ©1989 by American Institute of Physics.

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Wait for the supervisor's instructions before you open the page to the topic. Please print and sign your name and write the date in the designated spaces below.

Time: 35 Minutes General Directions You will have 35 minutes in which to plan and write an essay on the topic inside. Read the topic and the accompanying directions carefully. You will probably find it best to spend a few minutes considering the topic and organizing your thoughts before you begin writing. In your essay, be sure to develop your ideas fully, leaving time, if possible, to review what you have written. Do not write on a topic other than the one specified. Writing on a topic of your own choice is not acceptable. No special knowledge is required or expected for this writing exercise. Law schools are interested in the reasoning, clarity, organization, language usage, and writing mechanics displayed in your essay. How well you write is more important than how much you write. Confine your essay to the blocked, lined area on the front and back of the separate Writing Sample Response Sheet. Only that area will be reproduced for law schools. Be sure that your writing is legible.

Both this topic sheet and your response sheet must be turned over to the testing staff before you leave the room. Topic Code

---------

Print Your Full Name Here Last

I

Date

I

First

Sign Your Name Here

I 11

Scratch Paper Do not write your essay in this space.

M.I.

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LSAT Writing Sample Topic

Directions: The scenario presented below describes two choices, either one of which can be supported on the basis of the information given. Your essay should consider both choices and argue for one over the other, based on the two specified criteria and the facts provided. There is no "right" or "wrong" choice: a reasonable argument can be made for either.

The Neeleys, a couple with two children ages eleven and thirteen, are planning a family vacation. They are deciding whether to drive their minivan to their vacation destination in the mountains or to fly there and back. The Neeleys have never vacationed in the mountains before. The vacation will last sixteen consecutive days. Using the facts below, write an essay in which you argue for one option over the other based on the following two criteria: • The Neeleys want to spend as much time as possible engaged in physical recreational activities during their vacation. • The Neeleys want to maximize the educational benefit the trip will have both for themselves and for their children. Driving to the destination would take at minimum two and a half days each way. Delays-e.g., from road construction or mechanical breakdown-are more likely if the Neeleys drive than if they fly. The driving would be mostly across the vast interior plains and prairies of the country, which the children have never seen before. Often this geography is relatively featureless, with relatively few opportunities for activities such as swimming and hiking. Their route would take them near many historical sites and museums. Flying to the destination and back would take about half a day each way, including the trip to the airport as well as security checks and waits. The children have never flown before. The mountains offer many opportunities for physical recreational activities. Even if they rent a car at their destination, few historical sites or museums would be within reach. The mountains exhibit a variety of geologically interesting rock formations and contain some archaeological sites.

Scratch Paper Do not write your essay in this space.

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111111111111111

I

LAST NAME (Print)

ID

Ml

I

I

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FIRST NAME (Print)

SIGNATURE

Writing Sample Response Sheet

DO NOT WRITE IN THIS SPACE Begin your essay in the lined area below. Continue on the back if you need more space.

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19n,,i·i·ilbfi!M·i¥11-iii Directions:

Conversion Chart

1.

Use the Answer Key on the next page to check your answers.

2.

Use the Scoring Worksheet below to compute your raw score.

3.

Use the Score Conversion Chart to convert your raw score into the 120-180 scale.

Scoring Worksheet 1. Enter the number of questions you answered correctly in each section Number Correct SECTION I. ....... _ __ SECTION II ....... _ __ SECTION III ...... _ __ SECTION IV ...... _ __ 2.

Enter the sum here: This is your Raw Score.

For Converting Raw Score to the 120-180 LSAT Scaled Score LSAT PrepTest 66 Reported Score 180 179 178 177 176 175 174 173 172 171 170 169 168 167 166 165 164 163 162 161 160 159 158 157 156 155 154 153 152 151 150 149 148 147 146 145 144 143 142 141 140 139 138 137 136 135 134 133 132 131 130 129 128 127 126 125 124 123 122 121 120

Raw Score Lowest

Highest

99 98 97 96 95

100 98 97 96 95

94 93 92 91 90 88 87 85 84 82 81 79 77 75 73 71 69 68 66 64 62 60 58 56 54 53 51 49 47 46 44 42 41 39 38 36 35 34 32 31 30 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 0

94 93 92 91 90 89 87 86 84 83 81 80 78 76 74 72 70 68 67 65 63 61 59 57 55 53 52 50 48 46 45 43 41 40 38 37 35 34 33 31 30 29 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15

*There is no raw score that will produce this scaled score for this test.

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ti,M@HM SECTION I 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

E D A

B A

c B

8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

D

B A

c E

c B

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

E B B D

c A D

22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

E B D A B E

22. 23. 24. 25.

D

SECTION II 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

E D D

B

c E D

8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

B A A E B A

c

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

E A

c A D D A

B

c E

SECTION III 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

E E

B A

c E A

8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

c D

B D

B E A

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

A D

22. 23.

B

c

* A

c A

c

SECTION IV 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

*Item removed from scoring.

A

c E

B B

c B

8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

D A A

B A D E

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

B

c E E D D D

22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

c B D E

B

1-800-KAP-TEST TEST PREP

*LSAT is a registered trademark of the Law School Admission Council.

I kaptest.com

Official LSAT PrepTest

Form 2LSN099

October 2012

67

© 2012 by Law School Admission Council, Inc. All rights reserved. No part of this work, including information, data, or other portions of the work published in electronic form, may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, or by any information storage and retrieval system, without permission of the publisher. For information, write: Communications, Law School Admission Council, 662 Penn Street, Box 40, Newtown, PA, 189400040. LSAT is a registered trademark of the Law School Admission Council, Inc. All actual LSAT questions printed within this work are used with the permission of Law School Admission Council, Inc., Box 2000, Newtown, PA 18940, the copyright owner. LSAC does not review or endorse specific test preparation materials or services, and inclusion of licensed LSAT questions within this work does not imply the review or endorsement of LSAC.

2

THE PREPTEST •

SECTION I................................................................................... 4



SECTION II................................................................................ 12



SECTION III............................................................................... 20



SECTION IV............................................................................... 28



ACKNOWLEDGMENTS........................................................... 36



COMPUTING YOUR SCORE................................................... 37



ANSWER KEY............................................................................ 38

3

1

1 1

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SECTION I Time—35 minutes 27 Questions Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage or a pair of passages. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage or pair of passages. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. ����� �� ������� �����, ������� �������� ����������� ������� ������ ��� ��� ���� ����������� ��������� �� ��������� �� ������ ������ ������� ��� ����. ��� ������ � ���� �� �� �����, ���� ���� �� ����, (�) �� ����� �� �� ����� ��� ��������� �������� �� ����� �� ����� �� � ������, ���������� �������� ���, ������, �����, ��� ������ �� ����������. ������ ��� ������ �� ������ �� � ��������, ������� �������, ��������� ������, �������� ��������, ������������, ��� ������’ (��) ����� �������������. �� ��������, ������ ��� � ��������� ������� �� ��� ������� �� ������� �������� ������� ��� ���� ���� ��� ���� ����� ����� ��� ����� �� ����. ������ ��� ����� �����, �� ������� � ����� ���������� �� ������� �������� ������� ��� ���� �����������, (��) ��� ����� ���������, ����� ���� ��� �������� ��������, ���� ���� ��� ����� �� � ���� �� �.�. ������������� ������� ����� �����, �� ���, ����� ��� ���� ������������ �����������. � �������� ���� �� ��� ���������� �������� (��) ��� �� ����� �� ������’� ���� ������� �������� �� ������� ����������� �� ��� ��� ���� ��� ��� ������� ������ ���������, ��������� ����������� ��������������, �����������, ��������, ��� ����������. ���� ��������—�� ������� ������ �������� ��� �� �������� (��) �� ������’� ������ ���������—���� ��� ��� ����� ��������� ����� �� ����� ������ ��������. ���������� ����������� ��� �������� ������� ���������� ���� ���� �� ������’� �������������� ��� ������ ����������. ��� ������� ������ �� ����������� ��� (��) ���� �����, �������, ��� � ����� �� ��������, ��-����� ���������� � ��������� ���� ������ ������� �� ���� ��� ����. ����� ��� ���� ���������� ��� ������������� �� ����������� � ������������ ����� �� � ������ ������. (��) ��� �������� ��������� �� ���� ��� ������������ ���������� ��� ������ �� ���� ������’� ���� ���������. ��� ���� ��������� ���� �� ���������� ���� �������, ����� ���� ������ ���������� ��� �� ��� ������� �� ������ ��� ��� ���������� ������ ��� � ������ �������� �� (��) ��� �������, ��� �� ������ ��� ����-������ ��� ��������� ��� ������� �� ��, ��� ���� �� ���� ������ ����� �������� ��� ������ ���� ���� �� �������� �� ��� ������� ���� ������. �� �� ��� ���� �� ��� ����������, ���������, �� ������ �� ���� �� ��� ���� (��) ��������� �� ��������. ����������� ���� ������ ��� ��������� ������� �������� ��� ��� ���� ������ �� ������� ��� ����� ����� ��� ������������, ��� ��� ��� ���� ����, ����������� ���� ����� ��� �� �������� ��� ��� �������� �� ���� (��) �����. ��� ������’� ������������� �� ��� �������� ���� ����� ��� ������ �� ������������� ��������, �� ������,

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GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

1

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SECTION II Time—35 minutes 25 Questions

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4 -28-

4 4 4 4 4     SECTION IV Time—35 minutes 25 Questions

Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. �. ���������� ���������� �� � ������� ����� ������ ��������� �� ��� ������� �� ������ �������, ��� ���� ����� �� ������ �������. �� ������� ����, ���� ������ ����� ����� �� ������-��������� ������� ���� �� ����, ������� ��������� ���� ������ �������. ����, �� ��������� ���� ����������� ���� �������� ����������, ����� ���� ����� ����� �� ������ ������� ���������. ����� ��� �� ��� ��������� ���� ���������� ������ ��� ������� ���������� ����� �� ��� ���������’� ��������� (�) (�) (�) (�) (�)

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S T O P

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

4

ACKNOWLEDGMENTS Acknowledgment is made to the following sources from which material has been adapted for use in this test booklet: Richard Grupenhoff, The Black Valentino. ©1988 by Richard Grupenhoff. Hansard’s Parliamentary Debates. ©1841 by Parliamentary Copyright. David S. Law, “The Paradox of Omnipotence.” ©2006 by Georgia Law Review. Letters to the Editor. ©1997 by Scientific American, Inc. Carolyn Tuohy and Patricia O’Reilly, “Professionalism in the Welfare State.” ©1992 by the Journal of Canadian Studies.

36

COMPUTING YOUR SCORE Directions: 1. Use the Answer Key on the next page to check your answers. 2. Use the Scoring Worksheet below to compute your raw score. 3. Use the Score Conversion Chart to convert your raw score into the 120-180 scale.

Scoring Worksheet 1. Enter the number of questions you answered correctly in each section. Number Correct

SECTION I.................. SECTION II................. SECTION III................ SECTION IV................



2. Enter the sum here: This is your Raw Score.

Conversion Chart For Converting Raw Score to the 120-180 LSAT Scaled Score LSAT Form 2LSN099 Reported Score

Lowest

Raw Score Highest

180 179 178 177 176 175 174 173 172 171 170 169 168 167 166 165 164 163 162 161 160 159 158 157 156 155 154 153 152 151 150 149 148 147 146 145 144 143 142 141 140 139 138 137 136 135 134 133 132 131 130 129 128 127 126 125 124 123 122 121 120

99 98 97 96 95 —* 94 93 92 91 90 88 87 86 84 83 81 80 78 76 75 73 71 69 67 65 63 62 60 58 56 54 52 50 49 47 45 43 42 40 38 37 35 34 32 31 29 28 27 26 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 0

100 98 97 96 95 —* 94 93 92 91 90 89 87 86 85 83 82 80 79 77 75 74 72 70 68 66 64 62 61 59 57 55 53 51 49 48 46 44 42 41 39 37 36 34 33 31 30 28 27 26 25 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14

*There is no raw score that will produce this scaled score for this form.

37

ANSWER KEY SECTION I 1. B 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. E 6. D 7. D

8. E 9. C 10. C 11. D 12. E 13. A 14. B

15. D 16. E 17. E 18. B 19. D 20. A 21. E

22. B 23. B 24. A 25. D 26. C 27. E

SECTION II 1. A 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. E 6. A 7. E

8. E 9. B 10. D 11. C 12. D 13. E 14. A

15. C 16. C 17. B 18. D 19. B 20. C 21. D

22. B 23. B 24. D 25. C

SECTION III 1. C 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. B

8. E 9. A 10. E 11. C 12. E 13. D 14. A

15. B 16. A 17. E 18. E 19. D 20. D 21. B

22. A 23. A

SECTION IV 1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. E

38

8. D 9. C 10. B 11. A 12. D 13. B 14. B

15. E 16. D 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. E 21. C

22. E 23. B 24. C 25. D

Official LSAT PrepTest

Form K-2LSN102

December 2012

68

© 2012 by Law School Admission Council, Inc. All rights reserved. No part of this work, including information, data, or other portions of the work published in electronic form, may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, or by any information storage and retrieval system, without permission of the publisher. For information, write: Communications, Law School Admission Council, 662 Penn Street, Box 40, Newtown, PA, 189400040. LSAT is a registered trademark of the Law School Admission Council, Inc. All actual LSAT questions printed within this work are used with the permission of Law School Admission Council, Inc., Box 2000, Newtown, PA 18940, the copyright owner. LSAC does not review or endorse specific test preparation materials or services, and inclusion of licensed LSAT questions within this work does not imply the review or endorsement of LSAC.

2

THE PREPTEST •

SECTION I................................................................................... 4



SECTION II................................................................................ 12



SECTION III............................................................................... 20



SECTION IV............................................................................... 28



ACKNOWLEDGMENTS........................................................... 36



COMPUTING YOUR SCORE................................................... 37



ANSWER KEY............................................................................ 38

3

1

1 1

-4-

SECTION I Time—35 minutes 27 Questions Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage or a pair of passages. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage or pair of passages. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. ��� �������, � ���� �� ��������� ���� ����, ����� ���� � ������ ���� �� ������ ��� ���� �� ��� ������ ������ ����� �� ��� ����� ��� ������ ������. ��������, ����� ���������� ���� ����� ���� �� ��� ���� (�) �����, ��� ���� �� � ����-�������� ������ ��������� ���� ��� ����� �� ����������-������� �����. ���� �� �������, �������� ������� ������ �������� �� ������� ��������� ����� �� ���� �����, ��� ����� ���������� ������������ ���� ���� ������� ������ �������� �� ��� ������ ������. (��) ��� �������, “�� ������� �� �������” (�. ����), ��� ������ ������� ��������� �� �������� ����, ������� ��� ����� ������ ������ �� ������ �� ��� ���� �����. � ������ ��������� ����� �� ������ �� ���� �������� ������� ������� ��������, ��� ��� ��������� �������� �� ��� ����� (��) ����� ��� ������� �� �������� ������� ��������. ���� ���� �� ������ ����������, �������� ������ �� ����������� ����������� ����� ����������, ��� ���� �����������, ����� ����� �������� �� �������� ���������� ��� �������� ����������� ������ �� ������ ��� (��) ������������ �� ������ �����������. �������� ���� ����� ���� ���� ��� ������� ���� ������, ������� �� ��� �� �� ����, ��� �������� ���� ����� ������� ������ ��� �������, ������� ��������������. ������� �� ������ ���� �� ��������� ��� ��������� ���� (��) �� ��������, ��� ���� ��������� ��� ����, ���� ������� ����������� �������� ������ ���� ��� �������� �� ��� �����’ ���������. �� ��� ������� “�� ������� �� �������� ������,” ��� �������, ��� ���� ������, �������� ��� ��������, ���� ��� �������� �� � (��) ������������ �� ����� ���� �� ��� ��� ������ ������ ���� ��� ��� ���� ���� ���� “� ���� ��������� �������������� / ���� ������ ���� �����’� ������ ��.” ������� ����� ������� �� ����� �� ����� �������� ��������� “�������,” ����� ����� �� ��������� ������ (��) �� ������������� ������ ��� ������ ������ ������. ���� �������, ������ ������������ ��� ������� ������������ �� ������� ���������, �������� ��� ����������� ��� ���������� �� ��� ������� ���������. ��� ������� �� �������� ��� ���� �� �������� (��) ������ ��� ���� �� ������� �����-���� ����� ���� ������ ������ ���� ��� ������ �� �������. ���� �� ���� ������� �� ��� �������’� ������ ������� �����, �� ���������. ��� ��������� �� ��� ������� �� “�������� ������” �� ���������� �� �������� “��� ���� ���� � ��� �������� / (��) �� ��� ����� �� � ������� ����� / ���� �� ��� ��� �� ��� ������ / �� ��� �������� ������.” ��� ����� ��� ����� ����� ��� � ��� ����������. ��� ������ ��� ������ ����� ��� ��������, ��� ������ �������� ��� ���� �� ��� ������� �� ���������� ��� �������, ��� ��� ������

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-35-

� �� ������. � �� �����. � �� �����. � �� ������. � �� �����.

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S T O P

� �� ������. � �� �����. � �� ������. � �� �������. � �� �����.

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

4

ACKNOWLEDGMENTS Acknowledgment is made to the following sources from which material has been adapted for use in this test booklet: Paul Krugman, “The Pin Factory Mystery.” ©2006 by The New York Times Company. William M. Landes and Richard A. Posner, “The Private Enforcement of Law.” ©1975 by The University of Chicago. Américo Paredes, “With His Pistol in His Hand.” ©1958 by The University of Texas Press. Christopher Tozzo, “Selective Enforcement and NYC’s Water Deadbeats.” ©2007 by KipEsquire. http://kipesquire. powerblogs.com/posts/1120496086.shtml.

36

COMPUTING YOUR SCORE Directions: 1. Use the Answer Key on the next page to check your answers. 2. Use the Scoring Worksheet below to compute your raw score. 3. Use the Score Conversion Chart to convert your raw score into the 120-180 scale.

Scoring Worksheet 1. Enter the number of questions you answered correctly in each section. Number Correct

SECTION I.................. SECTION II................. SECTION III................ SECTION IV................



2. Enter the sum here: This is your Raw Score.

Conversion Chart For Converting Raw Score to the 120-180 LSAT Scaled Score LSAT Form K-2LSN102 Reported Score

Lowest

Raw Score Highest

180 179 178 177 176 175 174 173 172 171 170 169 168 167 166 165 164 163 162 161 160 159 158 157 156 155 154 153 152 151 150 149 148 147 146 145 144 143 142 141 140 139 138 137 136 135 134 133 132 131 130 129 128 127 126 125 124 123 122 121 120

99 98 97 96 95 94 93 92 91 90 89 88 86 85 84 82 80 79 77 76 74 72 70 69 67 65 64 62 60 58 57 55 53 52 50 48 47 45 43 42 40 38 37 35 34 32 31 30 28 27 26 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 0

101 98 97 96 95 94 93 92 91 90 89 88 87 85 84 83 81 79 78 76 75 73 71 69 68 66 64 63 61 59 57 56 54 52 51 49 47 46 44 42 41 39 37 36 34 33 31 30 29 27 26 25 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15

37

ANSWER KEY SECTION I 1. E 2. C 3. E 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. E

8. C 9. A 10. B 11. A 12. B 13. A 14. D

15. E 16. E 17. B 18. C 19. D 20. B 21. C

22. E 23. C 24. D 25. D 26. B 27. E

SECTION II 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. B

8. C 9. C 10. C 11. C 12. D 13. B 14. E

15. D 16. C 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. D 21. E

22. B 23. C 24. E 25. B 26. D

SECTION III 1. C 2. D 3. B 4. E 5. A 6. A 7. E

8. B 9. A 10. C 11. D 12. B 13. E 14. B

15. E 16. A 17. D 18. E 19. E 20. D 21. A

22. B 23. B 24. C 25. C

SECTION IV 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. E 6. D 7. E

38

8. C 9. B 10. D 11. B 12. E 13. A 14. C

15. E 16. C 17. C 18. A 19. E 20. B 21. E

22. D 23. C

Official LSAT PrepTest

Form 4LSN106

June 2013

69

© 2013 by Law School Admission Council, Inc. All rights reserved. No part of this work, including information, data, or other portions of the work published in electronic form, may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, or by any information storage and retrieval system, without permission of the publisher. For information, write: Communications, Law School Admission Council, 662 Penn Street, Box 40, Newtown, PA, 189400040. LSAT is a registered trademark of the Law School Admission Council, Inc. All actual LSAT questions printed within this work are used with the permission of Law School Admission Council, Inc., Box 2000, Newtown, PA 18940, the copyright owner. LSAC does not review or endorse specific test preparation materials or services, and inclusion of licensed LSAT questions within this work does not imply the review or endorsement of LSAC.

2

THE PREPTEST •

SECTION I................................................................................... 4



SECTION II................................................................................ 12



SECTION III............................................................................... 20



SECTION IV............................................................................... 28



ACKNOWLEDGMENTS........................................................... 36



COMPUTING YOUR SCORE................................................... 37



ANSWER KEY............................................................................ 38

3

1

1 1

-4-

SECTION I Time—35 minutes 25 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. �. ������ ������ ���� ����������’� �������� ���, �� ������, ���������� ���� �������� �� ��� ���. �������, ����� �� ��� ���������� �� �� ��������� �������� ��� �������� �� ���� ���������� �� ����������� ���������� ���� ���� ������� ����� ��������, ��� �������� ��� ����� �� ���������� ������ ���� ����. ����� ��� �� ��� ���������, �� ����, ���� ����� �� ������� ��� ��������� �� ��� ������ ����������’� ���� ������ ������ (�) (�) (�) (�) (�)

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4 4 4 4 4     SECTION IV Time—35 minutes 25 Questions

Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. �. ���������� ��������� ������� ���� �� ����-��� �������� ��� ������ ��� �����, ��� ���� ���� �� �������� ���� ����. ����������� �������� ���������� � ����-���� ����-��� �������� �� ��� ����� ������ ���� �������������� ��� ������ �� ���� �� ��� ���������. ����� ��� ������, ����� ��� ������ ���� � ������ ���� ������ ��� �����, ����-��� ����, �������� �������� �� ����� �� ������� ����. ����� ��� �� ��� ��������� ���� ���������� ��������� ��� ������� ���������� ����� �� ��� ��������� (�) (�) (�) (�) (�)

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GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

4

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S T O P

���������� ���� ����� ������ ������� ������ �� ��������� �� ��� ���� ������ �� ���������� ��� ����������� ���������� ���� �� ��������� ��� ���� ����� ���� �� �� ����������� �������� �� ������ ��� ����������� �� ��� ������ �� ��� ���� ������ �� ��� ���� ������ �� ������� ��� �� ��� ������� �� ������� ��������, ���������� ����� �� ��� ������ ���� ���� ���� ����������������� ��� �������� ������ ��� ������ ������� ���� ���� ���� ��������� �������� ����� ���������� ����� ������� ���������� ������ ������� ���� ��� �������� ��� ���������� ����� �� ��� ������

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

4

ACKNOWLEDGMENTS Acknowledgment is made to the following sources from which material has been adapted for use in this test booklet: Timothy B. Lee, “Vonage Is the Latest Victim of Patent Abuse.” ©2007 by The American. http://www.american.com/archive/2007/april-0407/vonage-is-the-latest-victim-of-patent-abuse. David Quammen, The Song of the Dodo: Island Biography in an Age of Extinctions. ©1996 by David Quammen. Red Hat, Inc., “Statement of Position and Our Promise on Software Patents.” ©2007 by Red Hat, Inc. http://www.redhat.com/legal/patent_policy.html. Lyle Rexer, “Photographers Move Forward into the Past.” ©1998 by The New York Times Company. Booker T. Whatley, How to Make $100,000 Farming 25 Acres. ©1987 by the Regenerative Agriculture Association.

36

COMPUTING YOUR SCORE Directions: 1. Use the Answer Key on the next page to check your answers. 2. Use the Scoring Worksheet below to compute your raw score. 3. Use the Score Conversion Chart to convert your raw score into the 120-180 scale.

Scoring Worksheet 1. Enter the number of questions you answered correctly in each section. Number Correct

SECTION I.................. SECTION II................. SECTION III................ SECTION IV................



2. Enter the sum here: This is your Raw Score.

Conversion Chart For Converting Raw Score to the 120–180 LSAT Scaled Score LSAT Form 4LSN106 Reported Score

Lowest

Raw Score Highest

180 179 178 177 176 175 174 173 172 171 170 169 168 167 166 165 164 163 162 161 160 159 158 157 156 155 154 153 152 151 150 149 148 147 146 145 144 143 142 141 140 139 138 137 136 135 134 133 132 131 130 129 128 127 126 125 124 123 122 121 120

98 * 97 96 95 94 93 92 91 90 89 87 86 84 83 81 80 78 76 74 73 71 69 67 65 63 62 60 58 56 54 52 51 49 47 45 44 42 40 39 37 36 34 33 31 30 29 28 26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 * 18 16 * 0

100 * 97 96 95 94 93 92 91 90 89 88 86 85 83 82 80 79 77 75 73 72 70 68 66 64 62 61 59 57 55 53 51 50 48 46 44 43 41 39 38 36 35 33 32 30 29 28 27 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 * 18 17 * 15

*There is no raw score that will produce this scaled score for this form.

37

ANSWER KEY SECTION I 1. B 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. B

8. C 9. A 10. D 11. E 12. E 13. B 14. A

15. C 16. D 17. C 18. E 19. E 20. B 21. C

22. B 23. A 24. C 25. B

SECTION II 1. E 2. A 3. E 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. E

8. C 9. B 10. C 11. A 12. A 13. D 14. C

15. A 16. D 17. B 18. D 19. E 20. A 21. C

22. D 23. B

SECTION III 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. D 7. B

8. A 9. B 10. E 11. C 12. D 13. B 14. A

15. C 16. B 17. E 18. B 19. A 20. D 21. D

22. B 23. A 24. D 25. A 26. E 27. C

SECTION IV 1. E 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. E 6. D 7. E

38

8. C 9. B 10. B 11. E 12. A 13. C 14. C

15. D 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. E 20. E 21. A

22. E 23. E 24. D 25. B

LSAT® Writing Sample Topic © 2013 by Law School Admission Council, Inc. All rights reserved.

Directions: The scenario presented below describes two choices, either one of which can be supported on the basis of the information given. Your essay should consider both choices and argue for one over the other, based on the two specified criteria and the facts provided. There is no “right” or “wrong” choice: a reasonable argument can be made for either. ⮇⮙⮜⮔⭳⮑⮢⮕, ⮑ ⮔⮟⮞⮟⮢-⮣⮥⮠⮠⮟⮢⮤⮕⮔ ⮟⮢⮗⮑⮞⮙⮪⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞ ⮤⮘⮑⮤ ⮢⮕⮣⮓⮥⮕⮣ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮢⮕⮘⮑⮒⮙⮜⮙⮤⮑⮤⮕⮣ ⮙⮞⮚⮥⮢⮕⮔ ⮟⮢ ⮣⮙⮓⮛ ⮧⮙⮜⮔ ⮑⮞⮙⮝⮑⮜⮣, ⮓⮥⮢⮢⮕⮞⮤⮜⮩ ⮢⮕⮞⮤⮣ ⮑ ⮠⮟⮢⮤⮙⮟⮞ ⮟⮖ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮖⮑⮓⮙⮜⮙⮤⮩ ⮤⮘⮑⮤ ⮘⮟⮥⮣⮕⮣ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮜⮟⮓⮑⮜ ⮑⮞⮙⮝⮑⮜ ⮣⮘⮕⮜⮤⮕⮢. ⮇⮙⮜⮔⭳⮑⮢⮕ ⮙⮣ ⮔⮕⮓⮙⮔⮙⮞⮗ ⮧⮘⮕⮤⮘⮕⮢ ⮤⮟ ⮣⮤⮑⮩ ⮧⮘⮕⮢⮕ ⮙⮤ ⮙⮣ ⮟⮢ ⮢⮕⮜⮟⮓⮑⮤⮕ ⮤⮟ ⮑ ⮞⮕⮧ ⮖⮑⮓⮙⮜⮙⮤⮩. ⮅⮣⮙⮞⮗ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮖⮑⮓⮤⮣ ⮒⮕⮜⮟⮧, ⮧⮢⮙⮤⮕ ⮑⮞ ⮕⮣⮣⮑⮩ ⮙⮞ ⮧⮘⮙⮓⮘ ⮩⮟⮥ ⮑⮢⮗⮥⮕ ⮖⮟⮢ ⮟⮞⮕ ⮟⮠⮤⮙⮟⮞ ⮟⮦⮕⮢ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮟⮤⮘⮕⮢ ⮒⮑⮣⮕⮔ ⮟⮞ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮖⮟⮜⮜⮟⮧⮙⮞⮗ ⮤⮧⮟ ⮓⮢⮙⮤⮕⮢⮙⮑⭪ • ⮇⮙⮜⮔⭳⮑⮢⮕’⮣ ⮝⮙⮣⮣⮙⮟⮞ ⮙⮣ ⮤⮟ ⮠⮢⮟⮦⮙⮔⮕ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮘⮙⮗⮘⮕⮣⮤ ⮡⮥⮑⮜⮙⮤⮩ ⮓⮑⮢⮕ ⮤⮟ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮗⮢⮕⮑⮤⮕⮣⮤ ⮞⮥⮝⮒⮕⮢ ⮟⮖ ⮑⮞⮙⮝⮑⮜⮣. • ⮇⮙⮜⮔⭳⮑⮢⮕ ⮧⮑⮞⮤⮣ ⮤⮟ ⮝⮑⮙⮞⮤⮑⮙⮞ ⮑ ⮣⮤⮢⮟⮞⮗ ⮔⮟⮞⮟⮢ ⮒⮑⮣⮕. ⮄⮘⮕ ⮒⮥⮙⮜⮔⮙⮞⮗ ⮤⮘⮑⮤ ⮘⮟⮥⮣⮕⮣ ⮒⮟⮤⮘ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮑⮞⮙⮝⮑⮜ ⮣⮘⮕⮜⮤⮕⮢ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮇⮙⮜⮔⭳⮑⮢⮕ ⮙⮣ ⮜⮟⮓⮑⮤⮕⮔ ⮙⮞ ⮤⮟⮧⮞, ⮧⮘⮕⮢⮕ ⮙⮤ ⮙⮣ ⮕⮑⮣⮙⮜⮩ ⮑⮓⮓⮕⮣⮣⮙⮒⮜⮕ ⮤⮟ ⮒⮟⮤⮘ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮜⮟⮓⮑⮜ ⮓⮟⮝⮝⮥⮞⮙⮤⮩ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮣⮥⮢⮢⮟⮥⮞⮔⮙⮞⮗ ⮢⮕⮗⮙⮟⮞. ⮇⮙⮜⮔⭳⮑⮢⮕ ⮙⮣ ⮟⮖⮤⮕⮞ ⮑⮒⮜⮕ ⮤⮟ ⮒⮟⮢⮢⮟⮧ ⮣⮥⮠⮠⮜⮙⮕⮣ ⮣⮥⮓⮘ ⮑⮣ ⮓⮑⮗⮕⮣, ⮘⮕⮑⮤⮙⮞⮗ ⮠⮑⮔⮣, ⮑⮞⮔ ⮤⮟⮧⮕⮜⮣ ⮖⮢⮟⮝ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮑⮞⮙⮝⮑⮜ ⮣⮘⮕⮜⮤⮕⮢. ⭽⮟⮣⮤ ⮟⮖ ⮇⮙⮜⮔⭳⮑⮢⮕’⮣ ⮔⮟⮞⮟⮢⮣ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮦⮟⮜⮥⮞⮤⮕⮕⮢⮣ ⮜⮕⮑⮢⮞ ⮟⮖ ⮇⮙⮜⮔⭳⮑⮢⮕ ⮤⮘⮢⮟⮥⮗⮘ ⮙⮞⮤⮕⮢⮑⮓⮤⮙⮟⮞⮣ ⮧⮙⮤⮘ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮑⮞⮙⮝⮑⮜ ⮣⮘⮕⮜⮤⮕⮢. ⮄⮘⮕⮢⮕ ⮙⮣ ⮖⮢⮙⮓⮤⮙⮟⮞ ⮒⮕⮤⮧⮕⮕⮞ ⮇⮙⮜⮔⭳⮑⮢⮕ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮒⮥⮙⮜⮔⮙⮞⮗ ⮝⮑⮞⮑⮗⮕⮝⮕⮞⮤ ⮟⮦⮕⮢ ⮇⮙⮜⮔⭳⮑⮢⮕’⮣ ⮞⮕⮕⮔ ⮖⮟⮢ ⮥⮠⮗⮢⮑⮔⮕⮔ ⮕⮜⮕⮓⮤⮢⮙⮓⮑⮜ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮧⮑⮤⮕⮢ ⮣⮕⮢⮦⮙⮓⮕⮣ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮙⮤⮣ ⮔⮕⮣⮙⮢⮕ ⮤⮟ ⮘⮟⮥⮣⮕ ⮝⮟⮢⮕ ⮑⮞⮙⮝⮑⮜⮣ ⮟⮞ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮗⮢⮟⮥⮞⮔⮣. ⮇⮙⮜⮔⭳⮑⮢⮕ ⮘⮑⮣ ⮖⮟⮥⮞⮔⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞ ⮗⮢⮑⮞⮤⮣ ⮖⮟⮢ ⮣⮥⮠⮠⮜⮙⮕⮣ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮣⮤⮑⮖⮖ ⮣⮥⮠⮠⮟⮢⮤ ⮤⮘⮑⮤ ⮑⮢⮕ ⮓⮟⮞⮤⮙⮞⮗⮕⮞⮤ ⮟⮞ ⮙⮤⮣ ⮢⮕⮝⮑⮙⮞⮙⮞⮗ ⮙⮞ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮤⮟⮧⮞. ⭱⮤ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮞⮕⮧ ⮜⮟⮓⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞ ⮇⮙⮜⮔⭳⮑⮢⮕ ⮧⮟⮥⮜⮔ ⮒⮕ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮟⮞⮜⮩ ⮟⮓⮓⮥⮠⮑⮞⮤ ⮟⮖ ⮑ ⮖⮢⮕⮕⮣⮤⮑⮞⮔⮙⮞⮗ ⮒⮥⮙⮜⮔⮙⮞⮗ ⮑⮔⮚⮑⮓⮕⮞⮤ ⮤⮟ ⮑ ⮞⮑⮤⮥⮢⮕ ⮠⮢⮕⮣⮕⮢⮦⮕. ⭱⮞ ⮕⮞⮦⮙⮢⮟⮞⮝⮕⮞⮤⮑⮜ ⮕⮔⮥⮓⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞ ⮟⮢⮗⮑⮞⮙⮪⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞ ⮘⮟⮣⮤⮣ ⮑ ⮦⮑⮢⮙⮕⮤⮩ ⮟⮖ ⮧⮙⮜⮔⮜⮙⮖⮕-⮟⮢⮙⮕⮞⮤⮕⮔ ⮑⮓⮤⮙⮦⮙⮤⮙⮕⮣ ⮖⮟⮢ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮠⮥⮒⮜⮙⮓ ⮑⮤ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮠⮢⮕⮣⮕⮢⮦⮕. ⮄⮘⮕ ⮔⮙⮢⮕⮓⮤⮟⮢ ⮟⮖ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮞⮑⮤⮥⮢⮕ ⮠⮢⮕⮣⮕⮢⮦⮕ ⮧⮟⮥⮜⮔ ⮜⮙⮛⮕ ⮇⮙⮜⮔⭳⮑⮢⮕ ⮤⮟ ⮢⮕⮜⮟⮓⮑⮤⮕ ⮤⮘⮕⮢⮕ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮘⮑⮣ ⮟⮖⮖⮕⮢⮕⮔ ⮑⮣⮣⮙⮣⮤⮑⮞⮓⮕ ⮧⮙⮤⮘ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮝⮟⮦⮕. ⮃⮕⮦⮕⮢⮑⮜ ⮟⮖ ⮇⮙⮜⮔⭳⮑⮢⮕’⮣ ⮜⮑⮢⮗⮕⮢ ⮔⮟⮞⮟⮢⮣ ⮑⮢⮕ ⮣⮥⮠⮠⮟⮢⮤⮙⮦⮕ ⮟⮖ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮝⮟⮦⮕. ⮄⮘⮕ ⮜⮟⮓⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞ ⮙⮣ ⮣⮟⮝⮕ ⮔⮙⮣⮤⮑⮞⮓⮕ ⮖⮢⮟⮝ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮤⮟⮧⮞ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮙⮣ ⮔⮙⮖⮖⮙⮓⮥⮜⮤ ⮤⮟ ⮢⮕⮑⮓⮘. ⮄⮘⮕⮢⮕ ⮧⮟⮥⮜⮔ ⮒⮕ ⮢⮟⮟⮝ ⮤⮟ ⮘⮟⮥⮣⮕ ⮝⮟⮢⮕ ⮑⮞⮙⮝⮑⮜⮣. ⮇⮀-⮅⭡⭡⭧⭱

Scratch Paper

Do not write your essay in this space.

Official LSAT PrepTest

Form 3LSN105

October 2013

70

© 2013 by Law School Admission Council, Inc. All rights reserved. No part of this work, including information, data, or other portions of the work published in electronic form, may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, or by any information storage and retrieval system, without permission of the publisher. For information, write: Communications, Law School Admission Council, 662 Penn Street, Box 40, Newtown, PA, 189400040. LSAT is a registered trademark of the Law School Admission Council, Inc. All actual LSAT questions printed within this work are used with the permission of Law School Admission Council, Inc., Box 2000, Newtown, PA 18940, the copyright owner. LSAC does not review or endorse specific test preparation materials or services, and inclusion of licensed LSAT questions within this work does not imply the review or endorsement of LSAC.

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THE PREPTEST •

SECTION I................................................................................... 4



SECTION II................................................................................ 12



SECTION III............................................................................... 20



SECTION IV............................................................................... 28



ACKNOWLEDGMENTS........................................................... 36



COMPUTING YOUR SCORE................................................... 37



ANSWER KEY............................................................................ 38

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SECTION I Time—35 minutes 25 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. �. ��� ���������� ���� ������ ������� ������� �� ����� ���������� ���� ���������� ������ �� �� ����� ��� ����� �� ������� ��� ������� ������ �����������. ��� �������� ��������� ��������� ������� �� �� �������� ���� ��� ������� ������� ���� ���������� ����� ��������� ���������. �� ��� ��������� ���� ��� ��������� �������, ����� �������. ��� ���������� �� ��� �������� �� �������� ����� �� ����� ��� �� ��� ��������� ��������� ��� �������� ��� ������� �� ��� ��������� ������� ���� ������ �� ����������� ��� ����� �� ������� �� ������� ������ ����������� ����� ���������� ����� ��������� ��������� (�) ��� ��������� ��� ����� ������ ����� �� ����������� ��� ����� �� ������� �� ������� ������ ����������� (�) ���� ���������� ����� ��� ������� �� ����� ���������� ���� ��� ��������� ���� �� ���� ��� ��� ����� ��� ����� �� ������� ��� �������� ������ ����������� (�) ������� ������� �������� ����������� ������� �� ��������� �������� ������ ��������� ���� (�) ������� �������� ���� ��� ��������� ���������� ����� ���������� �� ���� ���� ������ �� ������������ ���������� �� ��� ������������

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4 -28-

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����� � ����� ����� ���� ���� ������ ���������� �� ������� �� ��������� ��������� ��������� �� �� ��������� ��������� �� ������ ��� ������ ���� ������ ���� ���������� � ���������� ���� �� ����� �� ��� �������� ����������� �� ������ ��������� �� � ���������� ���� �� ������� � ����� ����� ������’� �������� ����������� ����������� ���������� ������� �� ������ ��� �������� ����������� �� ������

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

4

ACKNOWLEDGMENTS Acknowledgment is made to the following sources from which material has been adapted for use in this test booklet: Arthur C. Brooks, “Can Money Buy Happiness?” ©2008 by American Enterprise Institute. Vévé Clark, “Performing the Memory of Difference in Afro-Caribbean Dance: Katherine Dunham’s Choreography, 1938–87.“ ©1994 by Oxford University Press, Inc. Richard Layard, “Lionel Robbins Memorial Lectures 2002/3: Happiness: Has Social Science A Clue?“ ©2003 by CEP. Cass R. Sunstein, “A Note on `Voluntary’ versus ‘Involuntary’ Risks.“ ©1997 by Duke Environmental Law and Policy Forum.

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COMPUTING YOUR SCORE Directions: 1. Use the Answer Key on the next page to check your answers. 2. Use the Scoring Worksheet below to compute your raw score. 3. Use the Score Conversion Chart to convert your raw score into the 120-180 scale.

Scoring Worksheet 1. Enter the number of questions you answered correctly in each section. Number Correct

SECTION I.................. SECTION II................. SECTION III................ SECTION IV................



2. Enter the sum here: This is your Raw Score.

Conversion Chart For Converting Raw Score to the 120-180 LSAT Scaled Score LSAT Form 3LSN105 Reported Score

Lowest

Raw Score Highest

180 179 178 177 176 175 174 173 172 171 170 169 168 167 166 165 164 163 162 161 160 159 158 157 156 155 154 153 152 151 150 149 148 147 146 145 144 143 142 141 140 139 138 137 136 135 134 133 132 131 130 129 128 127 126 125 124 123 122 121 120

99 98 * 97 96 95 94 93 92 91 89 88 87 85 84 82 80 79 77 75 73 72 70 68 66 64 63 61 59 57 55 54 52 50 49 47 46 44 43 41 40 38 37 35 34 33 32 30 29 28 27 26 25 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 0

101 98 * 97 96 95 94 93 92 91 90 88 87 86 84 83 81 79 78 76 74 72 71 69 67 65 63 62 60 58 56 54 53 51 49 48 46 45 43 42 40 39 37 36 34 33 32 31 29 28 27 26 25 24 22 21 20 19 18 17 16

*There is no raw score that will produce this scaled score for this form.

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ANSWER KEY SECTION I 1. A 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. E 6. C 7. E

8. B 9. A 10. A 11. B 12. E 13. B 14. D

15. A 16. E 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. E 21. D

22. C 23. E 24. C 25. B

SECTION II 1. B 2. A 3. E 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. E

8. E 9. C 10. C 11. D 12. E 13. D 14. D

15. B 16. C 17. A 18. D 19. D 20. E 21. B

22. C 23. D 24. B 25. E 26. B 27. C

SECTION III 1. B 2. C 3. B 4. E 5. D 6. D 7. A

8. B 9. D 10. E 11. D 12. D 13. A 14. C

15. B 16. E 17. E 18. A 19. E 20. B 21. A

22. A 23. D

SECTION IV 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. C

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8. E 9. E 10. B 11. C 12. B 13. E 14. B

15. C 16. C 17. B 18. E 19. D 20. A 21. E

22. D 23. D 24. C 25. D 26. D

LSAT® Writing Sample Topic © 2013 by Law School Admission Council, Inc. All rights reserved.

Directions: The scenario presented below describes two choices, either one of which can be supported on the basis of the information given. Your essay should consider both choices and argue for one over the other, based on the two specified criteria and the facts provided. There is no “right” or “wrong” choice: a reasonable argument can be made for either. ⭻⮑⮢⮕⮞ ⭴⮑⮜⮤⮟⮞, ⮤⮘⮕ ⭳⭵⭿ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮖⮟⮥⮞⮔⮕⮢ ⮟⮖ ⮑ ⮣⮥⮓⮓⮕⮣⮣⮖⮥⮜ ⮓⮟⮝⮠⮑⮞⮩, ⮙⮣ ⮔⮕⮓⮙⮔⮙⮞⮗ ⮧⮘⮕⮤⮘⮕⮢ ⮤⮟ ⮢⮕⮝⮑⮙⮞ ⭳⭵⭿ ⮟⮖ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮓⮟⮝⮠⮑⮞⮩ ⮟⮢ ⮤⮟ ⮣⮤⮕⮠ ⮔⮟⮧⮞ ⮤⮟ ⮢⮥⮞ ⮖⮟⮢ ⮠⮟⮜⮙⮤⮙⮓⮑⮜ ⮟⮖⮖⮙⮓⮕. ⮅⮣⮙⮞⮗ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮖⮑⮓⮤⮣ ⮒⮕⮜⮟⮧ ⮧⮢⮙⮤⮕ ⮑⮞ ⮕⮣⮣⮑⮩ ⮙⮞ ⮧⮘⮙⮓⮘ ⮩⮟⮥ ⮑⮢⮗⮥⮕ ⮖⮟⮢ ⮟⮞⮕ ⮟⮠⮤⮙⮟⮞ ⮟⮦⮕⮢ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮟⮤⮘⮕⮢ ⮒⮑⮣⮕⮔ ⮟⮞ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮖⮟⮜⮜⮟⮧⮙⮞⮗ ⮓⮢⮙⮤⮕⮢⮙⮑⭪ • ⭴⮑⮜⮤⮟⮞ ⮧⮑⮞⮤⮣ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮓⮟⮝⮠⮑⮞⮩ ⮤⮟ ⮓⮟⮞⮤⮙⮞⮥⮕ ⮤⮟ ⮒⮕ ⮣⮥⮓⮓⮕⮣⮣⮖⮥⮜. • ⭴⮑⮜⮤⮟⮞ ⮧⮑⮞⮤⮣ ⮤⮟ ⮑⮔⮦⮑⮞⮓⮕ ⮠⮟⮜⮙⮤⮙⮓⮑⮜ ⮙⮔⮕⮑⮣ ⮤⮘⮑⮤ ⮑⮢⮕ ⮙⮝⮠⮟⮢⮤⮑⮞⮤ ⮤⮟ ⮘⮕⮢. ⭴⮑⮜⮤⮟⮞ ⮧⮑⮣ ⮙⮞⮣⮤⮢⮥⮝⮕⮞⮤⮑⮜ ⮙⮞ ⮔⮕⮦⮕⮜⮟⮠⮙⮞⮗ ⮑⮜⮜ ⮟⮖ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮠⮢⮟⮔⮥⮓⮤ ⮜⮙⮞⮕⮣ ⮘⮕⮢ ⮓⮟⮝⮠⮑⮞⮩ ⮠⮢⮟⮔⮥⮓⮕⮣. ⮄⮘⮕ ⮧⮟⮢⮛ ⮞⮕⮕⮔⮕⮔ ⮤⮟ ⮝⮑⮙⮞⮤⮑⮙⮞ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮗⮢⮟⮧ ⮕⮨⮙⮣⮤⮙⮞⮗ ⮠⮢⮟⮔⮥⮓⮤ ⮜⮙⮞⮕⮣ ⮙⮣ ⮘⮑⮞⮔⮜⮕⮔ ⮒⮩ ⭴⮑⮜⮤⮟⮞’⮣ ⮕⮝⮠⮜⮟⮩⮕⮕⮣ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮘⮑⮣ ⮗⮕⮞⮕⮢⮑⮜⮜⮩ ⮒⮕⮕⮞ ⮣⮥⮓⮓⮕⮣⮣⮖⮥⮜. ⭴⮑⮜⮤⮟⮞ ⮘⮑⮣ ⮣⮟⮝⮕ ⮙⮔⮕⮑⮣ ⮤⮘⮑⮤ ⮣⮘⮕ ⮤⮘⮙⮞⮛⮣ ⮝⮙⮗⮘⮤ ⮒⮕ ⮔⮕⮦⮕⮜⮟⮠⮕⮔ ⮙⮞⮤⮟ ⮞⮕⮧ ⮠⮢⮟⮔⮥⮓⮤ ⮜⮙⮞⮕⮣. ⮃⮘⮕ ⮘⮑⮣ ⮒⮕⮕⮞ ⮖⮢⮥⮣⮤⮢⮑⮤⮕⮔ ⮒⮩ ⮣⮟⮝⮕ ⮜⮙⮝⮙⮤⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞⮣ ⮤⮟ ⮘⮕⮢ ⮓⮟⮝⮠⮑⮞⮩’⮣ ⮕⮨⮠⮑⮞⮣⮙⮟⮞ ⮔⮥⮕ ⮤⮟ ⮢⮕⮗⮥⮜⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞⮣ ⮟⮖ ⮘⮕⮢ ⮙⮞⮔⮥⮣⮤⮢⮩ ⮤⮘⮑⮤ ⮣⮘⮕ ⮓⮟⮞⮣⮙⮔⮕⮢⮣ ⮒⮥⮢⮔⮕⮞⮣⮟⮝⮕. ⮃⮘⮕ ⮓⮥⮢⮢⮕⮞⮤⮜⮩ ⮓⮟⮞⮤⮢⮙⮒⮥⮤⮕⮣ ⮘⮕⮑⮦⮙⮜⮩ ⮤⮟ ⮠⮟⮜⮙⮤⮙⮓⮙⮑⮞⮣ ⮧⮘⮟⮣⮕ ⮠⮟⮜⮙⮓⮙⮕⮣ ⮣⮘⮕ ⮣⮥⮠⮠⮟⮢⮤⮣. ⮃⮘⮕ ⮙⮣ ⮙⮞⮖⮜⮥⮕⮞⮤⮙⮑⮜ ⮕⮞⮟⮥⮗⮘ ⮤⮟ ⮗⮕⮤ ⮝⮕⮕⮤⮙⮞⮗⮣ ⮧⮙⮤⮘ ⮠⮟⮜⮙⮤⮙⮓⮙⮑⮞⮣ ⮑⮓⮢⮟⮣⮣ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮠⮟⮜⮙⮤⮙⮓⮑⮜ ⮣⮠⮕⮓⮤⮢⮥⮝. ⭹⮖ ⭴⮑⮜⮤⮟⮞ ⮢⮥⮞⮣ ⮖⮟⮢ ⮟⮖⮖⮙⮓⮕, ⮣⮘⮕ ⮘⮑⮣ ⮒⮕⮕⮞ ⮠⮢⮟⮝⮙⮣⮕⮔ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮣⮥⮠⮠⮟⮢⮤ ⮟⮖ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮜⮕⮑⮔⮕⮢⮣ ⮟⮖ ⮘⮕⮢ ⮠⮟⮜⮙⮤⮙⮓⮑⮜ ⮠⮑⮢⮤⮩, ⮧⮘⮙⮓⮘ ⮘⮑⮣ ⮒⮕⮕⮞ ⮟⮥⮤ ⮟⮖ ⮠⮟⮧⮕⮢ ⮒⮥⮤ ⮘⮑⮣ ⮣⮕⮕⮞ ⮙⮤⮣ ⮠⮟⮜⮙⮤⮙⮓⮑⮜ ⮢⮕⮠⮢⮕⮣⮕⮞⮤⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞ ⮣⮤⮕⮑⮔⮙⮜⮩ ⮗⮢⮟⮧. ⮄⮘⮕ ⮠⮑⮢⮤⮩ ⮘⮑⮣ ⮑⮞ ⮑⮞⮤⮙⮒⮥⮣⮙⮞⮕⮣⮣ ⮢⮕⮠⮥⮤⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞. ⭹⮤ ⮧⮟⮥⮜⮔ ⮒⮕⮞⮕⮖⮙⮤ ⮖⮢⮟⮝ ⮒⮕⮙⮞⮗ ⮢⮕⮠⮢⮕⮣⮕⮞⮤⮕⮔ ⮒⮩ ⮑ ⮣⮥⮓⮓⮕⮣⮣⮖⮥⮜ ⮒⮥⮣⮙⮞⮕⮣⮣⮧⮟⮝⮑⮞. ⭴⮑⮜⮤⮟⮞ ⮑⮗⮢⮕⮕⮣ ⮧⮙⮤⮘ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮝⮑⮚⮟⮢⮙⮤⮩ ⮟⮖ ⮙⮤⮣ ⮠⮜⮑⮤⮖⮟⮢⮝. ⮃⮘⮕ ⮤⮘⮙⮞⮛⮣ ⮤⮘⮑⮤ ⮑⮔⮦⮑⮞⮓⮙⮞⮗ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮠⮑⮢⮤⮩’⮣ ⮠⮜⮑⮤⮖⮟⮢⮝ ⮧⮟⮥⮜⮔ ⮒⮕ ⮗⮟⮟⮔ ⮖⮟⮢ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮣⮥⮓⮓⮕⮣⮣ ⮟⮖ ⮘⮕⮢ ⮓⮟⮝⮠⮑⮞⮩. ⭵⮦⮕⮞ ⮙⮖ ⮣⮘⮕ ⮙⮣ ⮕⮜⮕⮓⮤⮕⮔ ⮤⮟ ⮟⮖⮖⮙⮓⮕, ⮘⮕⮢ ⮠⮑⮢⮤⮩ ⮝⮙⮗⮘⮤ ⮞⮟⮤ ⮑⮓⮘⮙⮕⮦⮕ ⮝⮑⮚⮟⮢⮙⮤⮩ ⮣⮤⮑⮤⮥⮣. ⭹⮖ ⮘⮕⮢ ⮠⮑⮢⮤⮩ ⮔⮟⮕⮣ ⮑⮓⮘⮙⮕⮦⮕ ⮝⮑⮚⮟⮢⮙⮤⮩ ⮣⮤⮑⮤⮥⮣, ⮙⮤ ⮙⮣ ⮜⮙⮛⮕⮜⮩ ⮤⮟ ⮖⮟⮓⮥⮣ ⮟⮞ ⮢⮕⮗⮥⮜⮑⮤⮟⮢⮩ ⮢⮕⮖⮟⮢⮝ ⮤⮘⮑⮤ ⮑⮖⮖⮕⮓⮤⮣ ⮘⮕⮢ ⮙⮞⮔⮥⮣⮤⮢⮩. ⮇⮀-⮅⭡⭡⭤⭱

Scratch Paper

Do not write your essay in this space.

Official LSAT PrepTest

Form 3LSN104

December 2013

71

© 2013 by Law School Admission Council, Inc. All rights reserved. No part of this work, including information, data, or other portions of the work published in electronic form, may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, or by any information storage and retrieval system, without permission of the publisher. For information, write: Communications, Law School Admission Council, 662 Penn Street, Box 40, Newtown, PA, 189400040. LSAT is a registered trademark of the Law School Admission Council, Inc. All actual LSAT questions printed within this work are used with the permission of Law School Admission Council, Inc., Box 2000, Newtown, PA 18940, the copyright owner. LSAC does not review or endorse specific test preparation materials or services, and inclusion of licensed LSAT questions within this work does not imply the review or endorsement of LSAC.

2

THE PREPTEST •

SECTION I................................................................................... 4



SECTION II................................................................................ 12



SECTION III............................................................................... 20



SECTION IV............................................................................... 28



ACKNOWLEDGMENTS........................................................... 36



COMPUTING YOUR SCORE................................................... 37



ANSWER KEY............................................................................ 38

3

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SECTION I Time—35 minutes 25 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. �. ������� ����� ���, ���� �� ��� �������’� ����� ����� ������ ��� ���� ����� ���� �� � ���������� ������. ��� ������ �� ��� ������� ����� �����, ������ �� ���������� ��� ������� ������ �� ��� �������. ��� ��� ������� ������ ���� ��� �� ������������ �� ��� ������ ������ �� ����� ����� ��� ���� ����. �� ��� ������ �� �������� �� ������� ��� ����, ����� �������. ��� ���������� �� ��� �������� �� �������� ����� �� ����� ��� �� ��� ��������� ��������� ��� �������� (�) (�) (�) (�) (�)

��� ������ ��� �� ������ �� ���� ���� �� ��� ����� � ������ ������� ����� ��� ���� ���� ��� �� ��� ����� ��� �������’� ������� ������� �� ��� ���� �������� ���� �� ��� ���� ��� ����� ����� ������ ��� ����� ���� �� ��� ������ ���� �� ����������� ������ ���� ��� �������’� ����� ����� ��� ���� ���� ��� �� ��� ������� ��� ��� ����� ��� ����� ������ ������

�. ����������� ��� ��������� �������� ���������� ����� ��� ������ ���� �� ��������� �� ������� ������� �������. ��� ���� ��������� ��� ���������, ��� ���� �� ��������� �� �� ���� ���� �� ��� ��� ����� ���. ��� ���� ����� ������� �� ���� �����, ���������� ���� ���� ���������� ���� ����� ��������� ��� �������. ��� ���� ������� �� ����� ������������� ��� ������� ����������� ��� ������� �����������. ��� ����������’� �������� �������� �� (�) (�) (�) (�) (�)

�������������� � ������� ������� �� ����� �� ��� ���� ������� �� ������� �� ����������� ���������� ����� �������� ���� �� ����� ������ ����� ��� ������� ������������� �� � ������������ �������� �������� ����������� � ����� ��������� ������ �� ������������� ���� � ������������ ������ ����� ������ ������� ����������� �� ����������� ���� ��� ���� ����� ��� � ���������� �� ����� �� ��������� � ��������� ����������� ������� ���� �������� � ������������� ��� � �������� �� ������� ��� ��� ���� ������������� ��� �� ���� �� ������� � ������� ����������� ��������

�. ������ ������ �������� �������� ���� �������� ������� ����������� ��� ������� ���������� ������� �� ������. �� ����������, ������� ������� �� ������������ ����������� �� ��� ����� ���� ��� ������� �������� ���� ��� ����� �������. ����, ������� ����������� ��, �� �������, ����������. ����� ��� �� ��� ��������� ���� ���������� ��������� � ���� �� ��� ��������� �� �����’� ��������� (�) (�) (�) (�) (�)

�� ����� ��� ������� ���� ������ ������ �� ������� ������� ������� ���� ������� �� �� ���������� �� ����� ������. �� ����� � ���������� ����� �� ������� ������ ������ ���� �� ���������� �������. �� ����� �� �������� ������� �� ��������� ��� ���� ���������� ������� ���� �� ��� ������� �������. �� ����� � ���������� ����� ������� ����������� �� ������� ���� � ������� ����� �������� ������� �����������. �� ����� �� �������� ���� ������� ��� ���� �� ������ �� ���� �������� ���� ����� ������� �� ����� ������.

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4 4 4 4 4     SECTION IV Time—35 minutes 27 Questions

Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage or a pair of passages. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage or pair of passages. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. ������� �������� ������� ��� ������� (�. ����) �� ��������������� ���������� �� ��� �� ��� �������� �������� ���������� ���� ��� ���������� ����� ������, � ����� �� ����� ����� ����� �������� ���������� �� (�) ����������, �.�. ������ ��� ����� ��� �����. ��� ����� ����� ����� ��� �� ��������� ����������� �� �������� ��� ���� ������� ����� ��� ���� �� �������� �������������. �� ������� ���� ������� ��� ��������� ���������������� ������������ �� ��� ����� �� ������� (��) �������������������, ���������� ����� �� ������ ������ �� ��� �����. �������’� ������������� �� ��� ����� ����� �������� ��� ��������� �� ���� �� ��� �������� �� ��� ��� �� ��� ������� �������� ��������������, ���� �� ����� ��� (��) �������� ���������������� ��� ��� �������� �� ������ �������� ��������� ����������. ������� ����� ����� �������� �� �� ������������� ������������� ��� ������� ��� ������������, �� ����, ��� ����� ��� ������ ���� ��� ��� ���������� �� �������� �� ��������� ��, ���� (��) �����������, ��� ����������� �� ��� �������� ��������� ������� ��������������� ��� ����������. ��� �������, ��� �� ��� �������������� ������ ���� �������, ���������� ��������� ���� �� ������ ���� ������� ��������� ���� ������� ���������� ������������ ���� (��) �������� ��� ������’� ��������� ������—������ ���� �� ����� ����, ��� ����� �����, ��� ������� �������� �����. ������ ���� ��� ��� ����� ������� ���� ��� ������� ������, ������� ��� ��������� ���� ��� ���������������, ������� �������� �� ��������������. (��) �� ��� ����� �� ������ �� �������� ���� ���� ��� ���� ���������� ���� � ������� ������ �� � ��������� ������, ���� ��������� �� ��� ���������� �� ����� ���������� �� �������, ��� �� ��� ������� �������� ���������� �� ����������. �� ���� �� ����������� � ���� ���� ��� ���� (��) ���� ����� ������� �������� �������. �������’� ������ ������������ ��������� ���������� ��� ������� �� ������� �� ��� ������’� ����������� ���� ������� �������� ������� ������� ���������� ��������� ���. ��� ����� ����������� �������� (��) ������� ����� ���� ������� �������� ��� ������� �������� ���� ���� ����������. ���� ������ ���� ������� ������ ��� ����� ������� �� ��������� ��� ���� �� ��� ����������� ������. ��������� �������� �� ��� ����� �� ��������� ������� ������� �� ������������, (��) ������� ����� �� ����� ���� ������ �� ����� ������ ����� ������ ��� ���� ���� �� ��� ���� �����, ���� ���������� ���� ���� ��������, ������ ���� � ����� ��������� ��� ��������� � ���������� �������. ����� ������� ����������� � ����������� �� ��� ������� �� ����� (��) ����������, �� ���� �� ��� ������� �� �������� ������� �� ����������� ���������� ���������—���� �� �������

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-35-

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S T O P

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�������� ��� �������� �� �������� ������� ���� ��� �������� �� ������� ������� ��������� ���� �� �� ���������� �� �������� ��������� ������� ������� ����� ������ ���������� �� ��� ������� ������� ��� ���� ���� ������� �������� ���������������� ������� ���������� ��� ���� ���� �� ��������� ���� �������� ���� ������ ���������� ������ ���� ���� ����������� ��������� ��� ������ �� ����� ��� ������������� �������� �� ��� �������� �������� ��� ����� �� ��� ������ ����� ���������

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

4

ACKNOWLEDGMENTS Acknowledgment is made to the following sources from which material has been adapted for use in this test booklet: “A Mirror to Physics.” ©1997 by Kevin Brown. Gerard Audesirk and Teresa Audesirk, Biology, 3rd ed. ©1993 by Macmillan Publishing Company. K. Anders Ericsson and Neil Charness, “Expert Performance: Its Structure and Acquisition.” ©1994 by the American Psychological Association, Inc. Leandra Lederman, “‘Stranger than Fiction’: Taxing Virtual Worlds.” ©2007 by New York University Law Review. Regenia A. Perry, Free within Ourselves. ©1992 by the Smithsonian Institution. Clive Thompson, “Game Theories.” ©2004 by The Walrus Magazine.

36

COMPUTING YOUR SCORE Directions: 1. Use the Answer Key on the next page to check your answers. 2. Use the Scoring Worksheet below to compute your raw score. 3. Use the Score Conversion Chart to convert your raw score into the 120-180 scale.

Scoring Worksheet 1. Enter the number of questions you answered correctly in each section. Number Correct

SECTION I.................. SECTION II................. SECTION III................ SECTION IV................



2. Enter the sum here: This is your Raw Score.

Conversion Chart For Converting Raw Score to the 120-180 LSAT Scaled Score LSAT Form 3LSN104 Reported Score

Lowest

Raw Score Highest

180 179 178 177 176 175 174 173 172 171 170 169 168 167 166 165 164 163 162 161 160 159 158 157 156 155 154 153 152 151 150 149 148 147 146 145 144 143 142 141 140 139 138 137 136 135 134 133 132 131 130 129 128 127 126 125 124 123 122 121 120

98 97 96 95 94 93 92 90 89 88 87 85 84 82 81 79 78 76 75 73 72 70 68 67 65 63 62 60 58 57 55 54 52 51 49 47 46 44 43 41 40 38 37 35 34 33 31 30 29 28 27 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 0

101 97 96 95 94 93 92 91 89 88 87 86 84 83 81 80 78 77 75 74 72 71 69 67 66 64 62 61 59 57 56 54 53 51 50 48 46 45 43 42 40 39 37 36 34 33 32 30 29 28 27 26 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16

37

ANSWER KEY SECTION I 1. E 2. D 3. D 4. D 5. E 6. D 7. E

8. D 9. A 10. C 11. E 12. B 13. A 14. C

15. B 16. B 17. B 18. C 19. A 20. C 21. C

22. E 23. C 24. E 25. D

SECTION II 1. E 2. A 3. E 4. D 5. A 6. A 7. B

8. C 9. B 10. C 11. E 12. A 13. A 14. C

15. B 16. D 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. E 21. A

22. E 23. B

SECTION III 1. C 2. D 3. B 4. E 5. C 6. D 7. A

8. C 9. D 10. A 11. A 12. A 13. E 14. B

15. A 16. B 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. B 21. A

22. B 23. E 24. A 25. A 26. E

SECTION IV 1. A 2. E 3. D 4. B 5. E 6. D 7. B

38

8. B 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. A 13. D 14. D

15. E 16. A 17. A 18. C 19. D 20. A 21. B

22. B 23. E 24. D 25. C 26. B 27. C

LSAT® Writing Sample Topic ©2013 by Law School Admission Council, Inc. All rights reserved.

Directions: The scenario presented below describes two choices, either one of which can be supported on the basis of the information given. Your essay should consider both choices and argue for one over the other, based on the two specified criteria and the facts provided. There is no “right” or “wrong” choice: a reasonable argument can be made for either. ⭱⮞ ⮟⮢⮗⮑⮞⮙⮪⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞ ⮧⮘⮟⮣⮕ ⮝⮕⮝⮒⮕⮢⮣ ⮑⮢⮕ ⮠⮢⮟⮖⮕⮣⮣⮟⮢⮣ ⮙⮞ ⮑ ⮓⮕⮢⮤⮑⮙⮞ ⮔⮙⮣⮓⮙⮠⮜⮙⮞⮕ ⮘⮟⮜⮔⮣ ⮑⮞ ⮙⮝⮠⮟⮢⮤⮑⮞⮤ ⮑⮞⮞⮥⮑⮜ ⮓⮟⮞⮖⮕⮢⮕⮞⮓⮕ ⮓⮕⮞⮤⮕⮢⮕⮔ ⮑⮢⮟⮥⮞⮔ ⮑ ⮖⮥⮜⮜ ⮣⮓⮘⮕⮔⮥⮜⮕ ⮟⮖ ⮑⮓⮑⮔⮕⮝⮙⮓ ⮠⮢⮕⮣⮕⮞⮤⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞⮣. ⭽⮟⮣⮤ ⮚⮟⮒ ⮙⮞⮤⮕⮢⮦⮙⮕⮧⮣ ⮖⮟⮢ ⮠⮟⮣⮙⮤⮙⮟⮞⮣ ⮙⮞ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮔⮙⮣⮓⮙⮠⮜⮙⮞⮕ ⮑⮢⮕ ⮑⮜⮣⮟ ⮓⮟⮞⮔⮥⮓⮤⮕⮔ ⮑⮤ ⮤⮘⮙⮣ ⮓⮟⮞⮖⮕⮢⮕⮞⮓⮕. ⮄⮘⮕ ⮟⮢⮗⮑⮞⮙⮪⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞ ⮙⮣ ⮔⮕⮓⮙⮔⮙⮞⮗ ⮧⮘⮕⮤⮘⮕⮢ ⮤⮟ ⮓⮟⮞⮤⮙⮞⮥⮕ ⮘⮟⮜⮔⮙⮞⮗ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮓⮟⮞⮖⮕⮢⮕⮞⮓⮕ ⮟⮞ ⮙⮤⮣ ⮥⮣⮥⮑⮜ ⮝⮕⮕⮤⮙⮞⮗ ⮔⮑⮤⮕⮣ ⮟⮢ ⮤⮟ ⮘⮟⮜⮔ ⮙⮤ ⮤⮧⮟ ⮧⮕⮕⮛⮣ ⮜⮑⮤⮕⮢. ⮅⮣⮙⮞⮗ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮖⮑⮓⮤⮣ ⮒⮕⮜⮟⮧, ⮧⮢⮙⮤⮕ ⮑⮞ ⮕⮣⮣⮑⮩ ⮙⮞ ⮧⮘⮙⮓⮘ ⮩⮟⮥ ⮑⮢⮗⮥⮕ ⮖⮟⮢ ⮟⮞⮕ ⮟⮠⮤⮙⮟⮞ ⮟⮦⮕⮢ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮟⮤⮘⮕⮢ ⮒⮑⮣⮕⮔ ⮟⮞ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮖⮟⮜⮜⮟⮧⮙⮞⮗ ⮤⮧⮟ ⮓⮢⮙⮤⮕⮢⮙⮑⭪ ●● ⮄⮘⮕ ⮟⮢⮗⮑⮞⮙⮪⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞ ⮧⮑⮞⮤⮣ ⮤⮟ ⮕⮞⮓⮟⮥⮢⮑⮗⮕ ⮙⮤⮣ ⮝⮕⮝⮒⮕⮢⮣ ⮤⮟ ⮑⮤⮤⮕⮞⮔ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮓⮟⮞⮖⮕⮢⮕⮞⮓⮕. ●● ⮄⮘⮕ ⮟⮢⮗⮑⮞⮙⮪⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞ ⮧⮑⮞⮤⮣ ⮤⮟ ⮕⮞⮓⮟⮥⮢⮑⮗⮕ ⮑⮤⮤⮕⮞⮔⮕⮕⮣ ⮤⮟ ⮗⮟ ⮤⮟ ⮓⮟⮞⮖⮕⮢⮕⮞⮓⮕ ⮠⮢⮕⮣⮕⮞⮤⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞⮣. ⮄⮘⮕ ⮥⮣⮥⮑⮜ ⮝⮕⮕⮤⮙⮞⮗ ⮔⮑⮤⮕⮣ ⮖⮑⮜⮜ ⮑⮤ ⮑ ⮤⮙⮝⮕ ⮧⮘⮕⮞ ⮞⮟⮞⮕ ⮟⮖ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮝⮕⮝⮒⮕⮢⮣’ ⮥⮞⮙⮦⮕⮢⮣⮙⮤⮙⮕⮣ ⮘⮟⮜⮔ ⮓⮜⮑⮣⮣⮕⮣, ⮚⮥⮣⮤ ⮑⮖⮤⮕⮢ ⮑ ⮝⮑⮚⮟⮢ ⮖⮑⮝⮙⮜⮩-⮟⮢⮙⮕⮞⮤⮕⮔ ⮘⮟⮜⮙⮔⮑⮩. ⭹⮞ ⮟⮢⮔⮕⮢ ⮤⮟ ⮣⮠⮕⮞⮔ ⮝⮟⮢⮕ ⮤⮙⮝⮕ ⮧⮙⮤⮘ ⮤⮘⮕⮙⮢ ⮖⮑⮝⮙⮜⮙⮕⮣, ⮝⮑⮞⮩ ⮠⮟⮤⮕⮞⮤⮙⮑⮜ ⮓⮟⮞⮖⮕⮢⮕⮞⮓⮕ ⮑⮤⮤⮕⮞⮔⮕⮕⮣ ⮔⮟ ⮞⮟⮤ ⮑⮤⮤⮕⮞⮔. ⮄⮘⮕ ⮟⮢⮗⮑⮞⮙⮪⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞ ⮢⮕⮓⮕⮞⮤⮜⮩ ⮒⮕⮗⮑⮞ ⮟⮖⮖⮕⮢⮙⮞⮗ ⮜⮟⮔⮗⮙⮞⮗ ⮣⮥⮒⮣⮙⮔⮙⮕⮣ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮓⮘⮙⮜⮔⮓⮑⮢⮕ ⮤⮟ ⮝⮑⮛⮕ ⮑⮤⮤⮕⮞⮔⮙⮞⮗ ⮧⮙⮤⮘ ⮖⮑⮝⮙⮜⮩ ⮝⮟⮢⮕ ⮑⮤⮤⮢⮑⮓⮤⮙⮦⮕. ⮃⮟⮝⮕ ⮓⮟⮞⮖⮕⮢⮕⮞⮓⮕ ⮑⮤⮤⮕⮞⮔⮕⮕⮣ ⮞⮟⮧ ⮣⮠⮕⮞⮔ ⮤⮙⮝⮕ ⮧⮙⮤⮘ ⮤⮘⮕⮙⮢ ⮖⮑⮝⮙⮜⮙⮕⮣ ⮤⮘⮑⮤ ⮤⮘⮕⮩ ⮓⮟⮥⮜⮔ ⮣⮠⮕⮞⮔ ⮑⮤⮤⮕⮞⮔⮙⮞⮗ ⮠⮢⮕⮣⮕⮞⮤⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞⮣. ⭽⮑⮞⮩ ⮝⮕⮝⮒⮕⮢⮣ ⮑⮤⮤⮕⮞⮔ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮓⮟⮞⮖⮕⮢⮕⮞⮓⮕ ⮤⮟ ⮓⮟⮞⮔⮥⮓⮤ ⮙⮞⮤⮕⮢⮦⮙⮕⮧⮣, ⮧⮘⮙⮓⮘ ⮤⮑⮛⮕ ⮥⮠ ⮝⮟⮣⮤ ⮟⮖ ⮤⮘⮕⮙⮢ ⮤⮙⮝⮕. ⭱⮙⮢ ⮤⮢⮑⮦⮕⮜ ⮤⮟ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮓⮟⮞⮖⮕⮢⮕⮞⮓⮕ ⮙⮣ ⮦⮕⮢⮩ ⮕⮨⮠⮕⮞⮣⮙⮦⮕ ⮔⮥⮢⮙⮞⮗ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮥⮣⮥⮑⮜ ⮝⮕⮕⮤⮙⮞⮗ ⮔⮑⮤⮕⮣. ⭸⮟⮤⮕⮜ ⮑⮓⮓⮟⮝⮝⮟⮔⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞⮣ ⮓⮟⮣⮤ ⮜⮕⮣⮣ ⮤⮘⮑⮞ ⮑⮤ ⮑⮞⮩ ⮟⮤⮘⮕⮢ ⮤⮙⮝⮕ ⮟⮖ ⮩⮕⮑⮢. ⮄⮘⮕ ⮜⮑⮤⮕⮢ ⮔⮑⮤⮕⮣ ⮖⮑⮜⮜ ⮑⮤ ⮑ ⮤⮙⮝⮕ ⮧⮘⮕⮞ ⮑ ⮢⮕⮜⮑⮤⮙⮦⮕⮜⮩ ⮣⮝⮑⮜⮜ ⮠⮕⮢⮓⮕⮞⮤⮑⮗⮕ ⮟⮖ ⮝⮕⮝⮒⮕⮢⮣’ ⮥⮞⮙⮦⮕⮢⮣⮙⮤⮙⮕⮣ ⮘⮟⮜⮔ ⮓⮜⮑⮣⮣⮕⮣. ⮄⮘⮕⮣⮕ ⮝⮕⮝⮒⮕⮢⮣ ⮧⮟⮥⮜⮔ ⮒⮕ ⮥⮞⮑⮒⮜⮕ ⮤⮟ ⮑⮤⮤⮕⮞⮔ ⮟⮢ ⮓⮟⮞⮔⮥⮓⮤ ⮙⮞⮤⮕⮢⮦⮙⮕⮧⮣ ⮑⮤ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮓⮟⮞⮖⮕⮢⮕⮞⮓⮕. ⭾⮟ ⮘⮟⮜⮙⮔⮑⮩⮣ ⮟⮓⮓⮥⮢ ⮧⮙⮤⮘⮙⮞ ⮑ ⮧⮕⮕⮛ ⮟⮖ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮜⮑⮤⮕⮢ ⮔⮑⮤⮕⮣. ⮄⮘⮕ ⮟⮢⮗⮑⮞⮙⮪⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞ ⮓⮟⮥⮜⮔ ⮤⮑⮛⮕ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮝⮟⮞⮕⮩ ⮙⮤ ⮓⮥⮢⮢⮕⮞⮤⮜⮩ ⮣⮠⮕⮞⮔⮣ ⮟⮞ ⮜⮟⮔⮗⮙⮞⮗ ⮣⮥⮒⮣⮙⮔⮙⮕⮣ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮓⮘⮙⮜⮔⮓⮑⮢⮕ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮥⮣⮕ ⮙⮤ ⮤⮟ ⮖⮥⮞⮔ ⮑⮔⮔⮙⮤⮙⮟⮞⮑⮜ ⮠⮢⮕⮣⮕⮞⮤⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞⮣ ⮟⮖ ⮙⮞⮤⮕⮢⮕⮣⮤ ⮤⮟ ⮝⮟⮢⮕ ⮟⮖ ⮙⮤⮣ ⮝⮕⮝⮒⮕⮢⮣. ⭱⮙⮢ ⮤⮢⮑⮦⮕⮜ ⮙⮣ ⮝⮥⮓⮘ ⮜⮕⮣⮣ ⮕⮨⮠⮕⮞⮣⮙⮦⮕ ⮔⮥⮢⮙⮞⮗ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮜⮑⮤⮕⮢ ⮔⮑⮤⮕⮣. ⭸⮟⮤⮕⮜ ⮑⮓⮓⮟⮝⮝⮟⮔⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞⮣ ⮓⮟⮣⮤ ⮣⮟⮝⮕⮧⮘⮑⮤ ⮝⮟⮢⮕. ⮇⮀-⮅⭡⭡⭨⭱

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Official LSAT PrepTest

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© 2014 by Law School Admission Council, Inc. All rights reserved. No part of this work, including information, data, or other portions of the work published in electronic form, may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, or by any information storage and retrieval system, without permission of the publisher. For information, write: Communications, Law School Admission Council, 662 Penn Street, Box 40, Newtown, PA, 189400040. LSAT is a registered trademark of the Law School Admission Council, Inc. All actual LSAT questions printed within this work are used with the permission of Law School Admission Council, Inc., Box 2000, Newtown, PA 18940, the copyright owner. LSAC does not review or endorse specific test preparation materials or services, and inclusion of licensed LSAT questions within this work does not imply the review or endorsement of LSAC.

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THE PREPTEST •

SECTION I................................................................................... 4



SECTION II................................................................................ 12



SECTION III............................................................................... 20



SECTION IV............................................................................... 28



ACKNOWLEDGMENTS........................................................... 36



COMPUTING YOUR SCORE................................................... 37



ANSWER KEY............................................................................ 38

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SECTION I Time—35 minutes 27 Questions Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage or a pair of passages. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage or pair of passages. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. �� ��� ���� ����-�������, ������������ �� ����� ������� ���� ��������� � �������� ������ ��� �������� ��������� ����� ������ ����������. ��� �� ��� ���� ����, ��������� ��� ���������� ��� ������������ (�) ����� ���� ��� ���� ������������ ��� �� ����� ���� ���� �� ���. ���� ��� ���������, ���� ������ ���������� ���� ������� �� ���� � ��� ���� ���� ��� ��������� �� �������� ����� ��� ������� ��� ��� �������� ������ ���� ����� �� �����. ������� ��������� �������, ��� (��) �������, ���� ������ �� ���� ������� ���-��������� ����� ���������� ���� ������� ���� ��� ������ �� ���� ��� ������ �����. ����� ����� ������ ������� ������ ��� ����� �� ������ �����, ������� ����� ����� ����� ��� �������� ��� ���������� �� ����� ��� ����� �����. (��) ���������� ��� ������ ����� ��� ������� ���������� �� ����� �� ����� ������� ���� ��� ��������� �� ��������� ��� ����� ���� �� ������� ��� ������� �������� ������� ����� ����� �� �� ����� �� � ����� ��� ������ �������� ������ �� �����. (��) �� ����� ��� ���� ��� �� �������, �������, �������� ��� ����� ����� ����� ��� ����, ���� ���� �� ������� �� ��������� �� ���� ����� �����, ���� ������� �� � ���� �� ����� ���� �� ������ ����� �����������. ���� ����� ����� ���� ��� �������� ���� ����� ������ ���-��������� �����, (��) ��� ���� ���� ����� ��� ������ �� ���������-��� �����, ���������� ���� ��� ���������� �������� ����� �� ����� ��� ����������� �������. ������� �� ��� �������� ������� �� ����-����������� �������, ���� �������, ��������� ��������� �������, ���� ��� ���� ���� �� ���� ��� (��) �� ����� �� ������, ������� ���� ���������� �� ����� ����������� ����� �����. �� �� ��������� ������������ ��������� ��� ���� �������� �� ����� ������� �� ������ �� ������ ������ ���� ��������� ������ ���� ���������� �������� ������ ��������� ��� ��������� (��) ���� ���� ���� ����� �� ���� ����������. ���� �������� ������� �� ��� ������� ����������� �� ����� �������—����������, �������, ��� ����—��� ����� ���������� �� ����� ��� ������� �� �������������, ���� �� ��� ���� ������� ���� ���� �������� ��� (��) �������. ���� �������� ������ ��������� ����� ����� ������� �� ����. � ��� ���� �� �������� ���������� ���� �� �������� �� �������� ��� ������� ���� �� ���� ������� � ����������� �� ��������� ���������� ��� ���������� ����� �� ��� ���� ��������� ������ ��� (��) ����������� ����. ��������� ������ ���������� ������� �� ������� �����—������� ��� ���� ������� �������� �� �����—������� ��� ������, ����-�������� ����� �� ��� ���� ��� �������� ��� ������, ������� ��-�������� ��� ���������� ���� ����� ��� ���-��������� �����. (��) ���������� ���� ���������� �������� ���� ��� ����������� �������� �� ���������� ����� ��� ��� ������

�� �������� ����� ��� �� ��������� �� ���� ���� ��� ������� �� ���� ������ �� ������ ��� ���� �� ��������� ������. ���� ����� ��� ������� �� ����� �����, (��) ����������� ����� �� ��- �� ��-���� ��������� ���� �� ������. ���� ��������� ���������� �����, ���� ���� �� ���� ������ ���������� ��� �� ���� ���� ������. �. ��� ������� ������� �� ��� ������� �� �� (�) (�) (�) (�) (�)

����� ���� ����������� ����� ��� �� �������� ��� ��������� �� � ����������� ��� ��������� ������ ������ ������� ��� ������ ������� ���� ���� �������� ���� ��� ��������� �������� �������� �� ���� ��� ���� ������ ������� ���� � �������� ����������� ������ �������� � ����������� �������� �� ������� ��������� � ����������� ������ ������ �� ����� �� �������� ���� ������� ������ ��� ������� ����������� ���������� ����� ���� ��� ��������� ������������� ����� �� � ������ ��� �������� ���������� �� � ����������� ���

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��� ���-��������� ����� ���� ��������� �������� �� ������� ������� ����� ���� ������ ��� ���������� ������� �� ������ ����� ��� ����� �� ����� ���� ��� ������ �� ����� �� ����� �������� ������ ���������� ����� � ���� �� ���� ���� ���� �� ����� �� ��������� ������� ���� �� ����� ��������� �� ������������� ��� ����� ���� ��� ������� �� ���� �� ��������� ����

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GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

72

4

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-35-

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IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

4

ACKNOWLEDGMENTS Acknowledgment is made to the following sources from which material has been adapted for use in this test booklet: Kwame Anthony Appiah, “Whose Culture Is It?” ©2006 by NYREV, Inc. Bruce Bower, “Brain Roots of Music Depreciation.” ©2004 by Science Service, Inc. Benjamin Freedman, “Equipoise and the Ethics of Clinical Research.” ©1987 by the Massachusetts Medical Society. Michael Parfit, “The Essential Elements of Fire.” ©1996 by the National Geographic Society. Jack Shafer, “Shut Your Loophole.” ©2007 by Washingtonpost.Newsweek Interactive Co. LLC.

36

COMPUTING YOUR SCORE Directions: 1. Use the Answer Key on the next page to check your answers. 2. Use the Scoring Worksheet below to compute your raw score. 3. Use the Score Conversion Chart to convert your raw score into the 120-180 scale.

Scoring Worksheet 1. Enter the number of questions you answered correctly in each section. Number Correct

SECTION I.................. SECTION II................. SECTION III................ SECTION IV................



2. Enter the sum here: This is your Raw Score.

Conversion Chart For Converting Raw Score to the 120-180 LSAT Scaled Score LSAT Form 5LSN113 Reported Score

Lowest

Raw Score Highest

180 179 178 177 176 175 174 173 172 171 170 169 168 167 166 165 164 163 162 161 160 159 158 157 156 155 154 153 152 151 150 149 148 147 146 145 144 143 142 141 140 139 138 137 136 135 134 133 132 131 130 129 128 127 126 125 124 123 122 121 120

99 98 97 96 95 94 93 92 90 89 88 87 85 84 82 81 79 77 76 74 72 71 69 67 65 64 62 60 58 56 55 53 51 49 48 46 44 43 41 39 38 36 35 33 32 30 29 28 26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 0

101 98 97 96 95 94 93 92 91 89 88 87 86 84 83 81 80 78 76 75 73 71 70 68 66 64 63 61 59 57 55 54 52 50 48 47 45 43 42 40 38 37 35 34 32 31 29 28 27 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14

37

ANSWER KEY SECTION I 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

D E C A B D B

8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

B C A C D B B

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

D C D D A C A

22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

C E D D B B

D D B E C B B

22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

C A A B D

B D D C D B E

22. 23. 24. 25.

E C A D

E A C C A E C

22. 23.

E E

SECTION II 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

D C B A E C E

8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

D D C C E C C

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. SECTION III

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

C B D E C C A

8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

A E D A C C B

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. SECTION IV

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

38

B E B D A E E

8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

C D A E B B A

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

LSAT® Writing Sample Topic ©2014 by Law School Admission Council, Inc. All rights reserved.

Directions: The scenario presented below describes two choices, either one of which can be supported on the basis of the information given. Your essay should consider both choices and argue for one over the other, based on the two specified criteria and the facts provided. There is no “right” or “wrong” choice: a reasonable argument can be made for either. ⭱ ⮣⮥⮓⮓⮕⮣⮣⮖⮥⮜ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮠⮟⮜⮙⮤⮙⮓⮑⮜⮜⮩ ⮑⮓⮤⮙⮦⮕ ⮜⮑⮧⮩⮕⮢ ⮙⮣ ⮔⮕⮓⮙⮔⮙⮞⮗ ⮒⮕⮤⮧⮕⮕⮞ ⮤⮧⮟ ⮓⮑⮢⮕⮕⮢ ⮝⮟⮦⮕⮣⭪ ⮕⮙⮤⮘⮕⮢ ⮤⮟ ⮑⮓⮓⮕⮠⮤ ⮑⮞ ⮑⮠⮠⮟⮙⮞⮤⮝⮕⮞⮤ ⮑⮣ ⮑ ⮚⮥⮔⮗⮕ ⮙⮞ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮢⮕⮗⮙⮟⮞⮑⮜ ⮓⮟⮥⮢⮤⮣, ⮟⮢ ⮤⮟ ⮢⮥⮞, ⮧⮙⮤⮘ ⮣⮥⮠⮠⮟⮢⮤ ⮖⮢⮟⮝ ⮑ ⮝⮑⮚⮟⮢ ⮠⮑⮢⮤⮩, ⮖⮟⮢ ⮑ ⮣⮕⮑⮤ ⮙⮞ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮞⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞⮑⮜ ⮜⮕⮗⮙⮣⮜⮑⮤⮥⮢⮕. ⮅⮣⮙⮞⮗ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮖⮑⮓⮤⮣ ⮒⮕⮜⮟⮧, ⮧⮢⮙⮤⮕ ⮑⮞ ⮕⮣⮣⮑⮩ ⮙⮞ ⮧⮘⮙⮓⮘ ⮩⮟⮥ ⮑⮢⮗⮥⮕ ⮖⮟⮢ ⮟⮞⮕ ⮓⮘⮟⮙⮓⮕ ⮟⮦⮕⮢ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮟⮤⮘⮕⮢ ⮒⮑⮣⮕⮔ ⮟⮞ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮖⮟⮜⮜⮟⮧⮙⮞⮗ ⮤⮧⮟ ⮓⮢⮙⮤⮕⮢⮙⮑⭪ ●● ⮄⮘⮕ ⮜⮑⮧⮩⮕⮢ ⮧⮑⮞⮤⮣ ⮤⮟ ⮘⮑⮦⮕ ⮑ ⮣⮙⮗⮞⮙⮖⮙⮓⮑⮞⮤ ⮙⮝⮠⮑⮓⮤ ⮟⮞ ⮠⮥⮒⮜⮙⮓ ⮠⮟⮜⮙⮓⮩ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮖⮥⮤⮥⮢⮕ ⮟⮖ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮓⮟⮥⮞⮤⮢⮩. ●● ⮄⮘⮕ ⮜⮑⮧⮩⮕⮢ ⮧⮑⮞⮤⮣ ⮤⮟ ⮝⮑⮙⮞⮤⮑⮙⮞ ⮑ ⮓⮜⮟⮣⮕-⮛⮞⮙⮤ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮠⮢⮟⮣⮠⮕⮢⮟⮥⮣ ⮖⮑⮝⮙⮜⮩. ⮄⮘⮕ ⮚⮥⮔⮙⮓⮙⮑⮜ ⮑⮠⮠⮟⮙⮞⮤⮝⮕⮞⮤ ⮙⮣ ⮑ ⮠⮕⮢⮝⮑⮞⮕⮞⮤ ⮠⮟⮣⮙⮤⮙⮟⮞. ⮂⮕⮗⮙⮟⮞⮑⮜ ⮚⮥⮔⮗⮕⮣ ⮑⮢⮕ ⮢⮑⮢⮕⮜⮩ ⮢⮕⮝⮟⮦⮕⮔ ⮖⮢⮟⮝ ⮟⮖⮖⮙⮓⮕. ⮄⮘⮕ ⮢⮕⮗⮙⮟⮞⮑⮜ ⮓⮟⮥⮢⮤⮣ ⮔⮕⮓⮙⮔⮕ ⮑⮤ ⮝⮟⮣⮤ ⮟⮞⮕ ⮟⮢ ⮤⮧⮟ ⮓⮑⮣⮕⮣ ⮟⮖ ⮧⮙⮔⮕ ⮣⮙⮗⮞⮙⮖⮙⮓⮑⮞⮓⮕ ⮙⮞ ⮑ ⮩⮕⮑⮢. ⭱ ⮖⮕⮧ ⮢⮕⮗⮙⮟⮞⮑⮜ ⮚⮥⮔⮗⮕⮣ ⮑⮔⮦⮑⮞⮓⮕ ⮤⮟ ⮠⮟⮣⮙⮤⮙⮟⮞⮣ ⮙⮞ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮞⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞⮑⮜ ⮓⮟⮥⮢⮤⮣ ⮧⮘⮕⮢⮕ ⮝⮟⮣⮤ ⮣⮙⮗⮞⮙⮖⮙⮓⮑⮞⮤ ⮓⮑⮣⮕⮣ ⮑⮢⮕ ⮔⮕⮓⮙⮔⮕⮔. ⮂⮕⮗⮙⮟⮞⮑⮜ ⮚⮥⮔⮗⮕⮣ ⮤⮢⮑⮙⮞ ⮜⮑⮧ ⮓⮜⮕⮢⮛⮣, ⮝⮑⮞⮩ ⮟⮖ ⮧⮘⮟⮝ ⮗⮟ ⮟⮞ ⮤⮟ ⮙⮝⮠⮟⮢⮤⮑⮞⮤ ⮠⮟⮣⮙⮤⮙⮟⮞⮣ ⮙⮞ ⮠⮥⮒⮜⮙⮓ ⮜⮙⮖⮕. ⭺⮥⮔⮗⮕⮣ ⮧⮟⮢⮛ ⮢⮕⮗⮥⮜⮑⮢ ⮘⮟⮥⮢⮣ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮑⮢⮕ ⮞⮟⮤ ⮢⮕⮡⮥⮙⮢⮕⮔ ⮤⮟ ⮤⮢⮑⮦⮕⮜. ⭺⮥⮔⮗⮕⮣ ⮘⮑⮦⮕ ⮠⮕⮢⮣⮟⮞⮑⮜ ⮓⮟⮞⮤⮑⮓⮤ ⮧⮙⮤⮘ ⮙⮝⮠⮟⮢⮤⮑⮞⮤ ⮖⮙⮗⮥⮢⮕⮣ ⮙⮞ ⮗⮟⮦⮕⮢⮞⮝⮕⮞⮤ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮒⮥⮣⮙⮞⮕⮣⮣. ⭺⮥⮔⮗⮕⮣ ⮢⮑⮢⮕⮜⮩ ⮘⮑⮦⮕ ⮣⮥⮓⮓⮕⮣⮣ ⮙⮞ ⮣⮕⮕⮛⮙⮞⮗ ⮟⮤⮘⮕⮢ ⮠⮟⮜⮙⮤⮙⮓⮑⮜ ⮟⮖⮖⮙⮓⮕. ⮄⮘⮕ ⮜⮕⮗⮙⮣⮜⮑⮤⮙⮦⮕ ⮣⮕⮑⮤ ⮙⮣ ⮙⮞ ⮑ ⮘⮙⮗⮘⮜⮩ ⮓⮟⮝⮠⮕⮤⮙⮤⮙⮦⮕ ⮔⮙⮣⮤⮢⮙⮓⮤ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮘⮟⮜⮔⮕⮢ ⮖⮑⮓⮕⮣ ⮖⮢⮕⮡⮥⮕⮞⮤ ⮕⮜⮕⮓⮤⮙⮟⮞⮣. ⭾⮕⮧ ⮜⮕⮗⮙⮣⮜⮑⮤⮟⮢⮣ ⮣⮕⮜⮔⮟⮝ ⮘⮑⮦⮕ ⮝⮥⮓⮘ ⮕⮖⮖⮕⮓⮤ ⮟⮞ ⮜⮕⮗⮙⮣⮜⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞ ⮟⮢ ⮗⮟⮦⮕⮢⮞⮝⮕⮞⮤ ⮠⮟⮜⮙⮓⮩. ⮃⮥⮓⮓⮕⮣⮣⮖⮥⮜ ⮜⮟⮞⮗-⮤⮙⮝⮕ ⮜⮕⮗⮙⮣⮜⮑⮤⮟⮢⮣ ⮓⮑⮞ ⮗⮢⮕⮑⮤⮜⮩ ⮑⮖⮖⮕⮓⮤ ⮗⮟⮦⮕⮢⮞⮝⮕⮞⮤ ⮠⮟⮜⮙⮓⮙⮕⮣ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮠⮢⮟⮗⮢⮑⮝⮣. ⮄⮘⮕ ⮜⮕⮗⮙⮣⮜⮑⮤⮥⮢⮕ ⮙⮣ ⮙⮞ ⮣⮕⮣⮣⮙⮟⮞ ⭣⭦ ⮧⮕⮕⮛⮣ ⮟⮖ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮩⮕⮑⮢. ⭼⮕⮗⮙⮣⮜⮑⮤⮟⮢⮣ ⮣⮠⮕⮞⮔ ⮝⮑⮞⮩ ⮘⮟⮥⮢⮣ ⮓⮑⮝⮠⮑⮙⮗⮞⮙⮞⮗ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮖⮥⮞⮔⮢⮑⮙⮣⮙⮞⮗. ⮄⮘⮕⮩ ⮤⮢⮑⮦⮕⮜ ⮖⮢⮕⮡⮥⮕⮞⮤⮜⮩ ⮒⮕⮤⮧⮕⮕⮞ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮞⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞⮑⮜ ⮓⮑⮠⮙⮤⮑⮜ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮤⮘⮕⮙⮢ ⮔⮙⮣⮤⮢⮙⮓⮤. ⮄⮘⮕ ⮞⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞⮑⮜ ⮓⮑⮠⮙⮤⮑⮜ ⮙⮣ ⮑ ⮣⮘⮟⮢⮤ ⮖⮜⮙⮗⮘⮤ ⮖⮢⮟⮝ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮜⮑⮧⮩⮕⮢’⮣ ⮜⮕⮗⮙⮣⮜⮑⮤⮙⮦⮕ ⮔⮙⮣⮤⮢⮙⮓⮤. ⭼⮕⮗⮙⮣⮜⮑⮤⮟⮢⮣ ⮑⮢⮕ ⮧⮙⮔⮕⮜⮩ ⮛⮞⮟⮧⮞ ⮙⮞ ⮤⮘⮕⮙⮢ ⮔⮙⮣⮤⮢⮙⮓⮤⮣ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮣⮟⮝⮕ ⮕⮦⮕⮞⮤⮥⮑⮜⮜⮩ ⮗⮑⮙⮞ ⮞⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞⮑⮜ ⮢⮕⮓⮟⮗⮞⮙⮤⮙⮟⮞. ⭱ ⮓⮜⮟⮣⮕ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮣⮥⮠⮠⮟⮢⮤⮙⮦⮕ ⮖⮑⮝⮙⮜⮩ ⮙⮣ ⮑ ⮣⮤⮢⮟⮞⮗ ⮑⮣⮣⮕⮤ ⮙⮞ ⮠⮟⮜⮙⮤⮙⮓⮣. ⮇⮀-⮆⭡⭢⭢⭱

Scratch Paper

Do not write your essay in this space.

Official LSAT PrepTest

Form 4LSN110

September 2014

73

© 2014 by Law School Admission Council, Inc. All rights reserved. No part of this work, including information, data, or other portions of the work published in electronic form, may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, or by any information storage and retrieval system, without permission of the publisher. For information, write: Communications, Law School Admission Council, 662 Penn Street, Box 40, Newtown, PA, 189400040. LSAT is a registered trademark of the Law School Admission Council, Inc. All actual LSAT questions printed within this work are used with the permission of Law School Admission Council, Inc., Box 2000, Newtown, PA 18940, the copyright owner. LSAC does not review or endorse specific test preparation materials or services, and inclusion of licensed LSAT questions within this work does not imply the review or endorsement of LSAC.

2

THE PREPTEST •

SECTION I................................................................................... 4



SECTION II................................................................................ 12



SECTION III............................................................................... 20



SECTION IV............................................................................... 28



ACKNOWLEDGMENTS........................................................... 36



COMPUTING YOUR SCORE................................................... 37



ANSWER KEY............................................................................ 38

3

1

73

1

1

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SECTION I Time—35 minutes 27 Questions Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage or a pair of passages. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage or pair of passages. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

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IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

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3 SECTION III Time—35 minutes 23 Questions

Directions: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. ��������� �–� � ������ �������� �� �������� ��� �������� �� � �� ���������� �� � �������� �� ������� ���� ������������ ������—�����������, ��������, ���������, ���������, ��� ��������. �� ������ ��� ������� ������� �����, ��� �������� �� ������ ���� ������� ��� ��������� ������������ �������� ���� �� ������� ���� ���������. ��������� ���� ������ �� ������� ���� ���� ����������� ��� �������� �� ����� ���� ���� ����������� ��� ��������. �������� ���� ������ �� ������� ���� ���� ����������� ��� ��������� �� ����� ���� ���� ����������� ��� ���������.

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-21-

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73 -22-

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-23-

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-28-

SECTION IV Time—35 minutes 26 Questions

Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. �. �� �� ����������, ��� ������ ���� ����� �� ����� ������� �� ������ ��� ���� ����. ���� �� ��� ������ ���� ����� ��������� ���� ��� ������, ��� ���� ����� ������������ �������� ���� ��� ��� ������ ������� ������ ������ ���� ��� ���� �� ��� �������. ���� ������ ������ ������ ����, ��� ���� ���� ���� �� ������ �����������. �������, ����, ��������� ���������� ���� ���’� ������� �� ����� ������. ����� ��� �� ��� ���������, �� ����, ���� ���������� ��� ���������� ����� ������ (�)

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IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

4

ACKNOWLEDGMENTS Acknowledgment is made to the following sources from which material has been adapted for use in this test booklet: Stephen Jay Gould, “Darwinian Fundamentalism.” ©1997 by Stephen Jay Gould. Helen Irving, “Little Elves and Mind Control.” ©1991 by The Australian Journal of Media and Culture. David Lyons, “The New Indian Claims and Original Rights to Land” in Reading Nozick. Edited by Jeffrey Paul. ©1981 by Rowman and Littlefield. Janet Malcolm, “The Genius of the Glass House.” ©1999 by NYREV. Susan Milius, “Built for Blurs.” ©2005 by Science Services, Inc. Robert Nozick, Anarchy, State, and Utopia. ©1974 by Basic Books, Inc.

36

COMPUTING YOUR SCORE Directions: 1.

Use the Answer Key on the next page to check your answers.

2.

Use the Scoring Worksheet below to compute your raw score.

3.

Use the Score Conversion Chart to convert your raw score into the 120-180 scale.

Scoring Worksheet 1.

Enter the number of questions you answered correctly in each section. Number Correct SECTION I.................. SECTION II................. SECTION III................ SECTION IV................

2.

Enter the sum here: This is your Raw Score.

Conversion Chart For Converting Raw Score to the 120-180 LSAT Scaled Score LSAT Form 4LSN110 Reported Score

Lowest

Raw Score Highest

180 179 178 177 176 175 174 173 172 171 170 169 168 167 166 165 164 163 162 161 160 159 158 157 156 155 154 153 152 151 150 149 148 147 146 145 144 143 142 141 140 139 138 137 136 135 134 133 132 131 130 129 128 127 126 125 124 123 122 121 120

98 97 0 96 95 94 93 92 91 90 89 87 86 85 83 82 80 79 77 75 74 72 70 69 67 65 63 61 60 58 56 54 53 51 49 47 46 44 43 41 39 38 37 35 34 32 31 30 29 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 0

101 97 0 96 95 94 93 92 91 90 89 88 86 85 84 82 81 79 78 76 74 73 71 69 68 66 64 62 60 59 57 55 53 52 50 48 46 45 43 42 40 38 37 36 34 33 31 30 29 28 26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16

*There is no raw score that will produce this scaled score for this form.

37

ANSWER KEY SECTION I 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

A B D B A E C

8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

B A D C E E B

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

B C B E A E A

22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

B A D E D A

B A B E B E E

22. 23. 24. 25.

A C D C

D D B E A B E

22. 23.

A C

A E C C B D E

22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

D E E E A

SECTION II 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

C E A D D D C

8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

B C A B A B E

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. SECTION III

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

B C B E E D A

8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

A B A C C E A

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. SECTION IV

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

38

D D E C A E E

8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

D D E B A B C

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

LSAT® Writing Sample Topic ©2014 by Law School Admission Council, Inc. All rights reserved.

Directions: The scenario presented below describes two choices, either one of which can be supported on the basis of the information given. Your essay should consider both choices and argue for one over the other, based on the two specified criteria and the facts provided. There is no “right” or “wrong” choice: a reasonable argument can be made for either. ⭱ ⮝⮕⮔⮙⮥⮝-⮣⮙⮪⮕⮔ ⮓⮟⮝⮠⮑⮞⮩ ⮙⮣ ⮜⮟⮓⮑⮤⮕⮔ ⮙⮞ ⮑ ⮤⮕⮓⮘⮞⮟⮜⮟⮗⮩ ⮠⮑⮢⮛ ⮙⮞ ⮑ ⮣⮠⮑⮢⮣⮕⮜⮩ ⮠⮟⮠⮥⮜⮑⮤⮕⮔ ⮑⮢⮕⮑ ⮟⮥⮤⮣⮙⮔⮕ ⮑ ⮝⮑⮚⮟⮢ ⮓⮙⮤⮩. ⭹⮤ ⮘⮑⮣ ⮘⮑⮔ ⮔⮙⮖⮖⮙⮓⮥⮜⮤⮩ ⮢⮕⮤⮑⮙⮞⮙⮞⮗ ⮕⮝⮠⮜⮟⮩⮕⮕⮣ ⮒⮕⮓⮑⮥⮣⮕ ⮟⮖ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮜⮟⮞⮗ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮕⮨⮠⮕⮞⮣⮙⮦⮕ ⮓⮟⮝⮝⮥⮤⮕ ⮒⮕⮤⮧⮕⮕⮞ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮓⮙⮤⮩ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮧⮟⮢⮛ ⮤⮘⮑⮤ ⮞⮕⮑⮢⮜⮩ ⮑⮜⮜ ⮟⮖ ⮙⮤⮣ ⮕⮝⮠⮜⮟⮩⮕⮕⮣ ⮖⮑⮓⮕. ⭳⮟⮞⮣⮕⮡⮥⮕⮞⮤⮜⮩, ⮤⮘⮕ ⮓⮟⮝⮠⮑⮞⮩ ⮧⮙⮜⮜ ⮙⮝⮠⮜⮕⮝⮕⮞⮤ ⮑ ⮓⮟⮝⮝⮥⮤⮙⮞⮗ ⮑⮣⮣⮙⮣⮤⮑⮞⮓⮕ ⮠⮜⮑⮞. ⭹⮤ ⮝⮥⮣⮤ ⮔⮕⮓⮙⮔⮕ ⮒⮕⮤⮧⮕⮕⮞ ⮟⮠⮕⮢⮑⮤⮙⮞⮗ ⮑ ⮖⮢⮕⮕ ⮒⮥⮣ ⮖⮟⮢ ⮕⮝⮠⮜⮟⮩⮕⮕⮣ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮣⮥⮒⮣⮙⮔⮙⮪⮙⮞⮗ ⮕⮝⮠⮜⮟⮩⮕⮕⮣’ ⮓⮟⮣⮤⮣ ⮟⮖ ⮥⮣⮙⮞⮗ ⮠⮥⮒⮜⮙⮓ ⮤⮢⮑⮞⮣⮠⮟⮢⮤⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞. ⮅⮣⮙⮞⮗ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮖⮑⮓⮤⮣ ⮒⮕⮜⮟⮧, ⮧⮢⮙⮤⮕ ⮑⮞ ⮕⮣⮣⮑⮩ ⮙⮞ ⮧⮘⮙⮓⮘ ⮩⮟⮥ ⮑⮢⮗⮥⮕ ⮖⮟⮢ ⮟⮞⮕ ⮠⮜⮑⮞ ⮟⮦⮕⮢ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮟⮤⮘⮕⮢ ⮒⮑⮣⮕⮔ ⮟⮞ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮖⮟⮜⮜⮟⮧⮙⮞⮗ ⮤⮧⮟ ⮓⮢⮙⮤⮕⮢⮙⮑⭪ ●● ⮄⮘⮕ ⮓⮟⮝⮠⮑⮞⮩ ⮧⮑⮞⮤⮣ ⮤⮟ ⮝⮙⮞⮙⮝⮙⮪⮕ ⮙⮤⮣ ⮕⮝⮠⮜⮟⮩⮕⮕⮣’ ⮓⮟⮝⮝⮥⮤⮙⮞⮗ ⮕⮨⮠⮕⮞⮣⮕⮣ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮖⮢⮥⮣⮤⮢⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞⮣. ●● ⮄⮘⮕ ⮓⮟⮝⮠⮑⮞⮩ ⮧⮑⮞⮤⮣ ⮢⮕⮜⮙⮑⮒⮙⮜⮙⮤⮩ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮖⮜⮕⮨⮙⮒⮙⮜⮙⮤⮩ ⮙⮞ ⮙⮤⮣ ⮕⮝⮠⮜⮟⮩⮕⮕⮣’ ⮧⮟⮢⮛ ⮣⮓⮘⮕⮔⮥⮜⮕⮣. ⮅⮞⮔⮕⮢ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮖⮙⮢⮣⮤ ⮠⮜⮑⮞, ⮤⮘⮕ ⮓⮟⮝⮠⮑⮞⮩ ⮧⮟⮥⮜⮔ ⮜⮕⮑⮣⮕ ⮑ ⮒⮥⮣ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮘⮙⮢⮕ ⮑ ⮔⮢⮙⮦⮕⮢. ⮄⮘⮕ ⮒⮥⮣ ⮧⮟⮥⮜⮔ ⮝⮑⮛⮕ ⮣⮕⮦⮕⮢⮑⮜ ⮔⮑⮙⮜⮩ ⮓⮙⮢⮓⮥⮙⮤⮣ ⮒⮕⮤⮧⮕⮕⮞ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮓⮟⮝⮠⮑⮞⮩’⮣ ⮜⮟⮓⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮑ ⮣⮙⮞⮗⮜⮕ ⮔⮟⮧⮞⮤⮟⮧⮞ ⮣⮤⮟⮠, ⮑⮓⮓⮕⮣⮣⮙⮒⮜⮕ ⮒⮩ ⮠⮥⮒⮜⮙⮓ ⮤⮢⮑⮞⮣⮠⮟⮢⮤⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮓⮜⮟⮣⮕ ⮤⮟ ⮑ ⮜⮑⮢⮗⮕, ⮙⮞⮕⮨⮠⮕⮞⮣⮙⮦⮕ ⮠⮑⮢⮛⮙⮞⮗ ⮗⮑⮢⮑⮗⮕. ⮄⮘⮕ ⮟⮞⮜⮩ ⮢⮙⮔⮕⮢⮣ ⮟⮞ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮒⮥⮣ ⮧⮟⮥⮜⮔ ⮒⮕ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮓⮟⮝⮠⮑⮞⮩’⮣ ⮕⮝⮠⮜⮟⮩⮕⮕⮣. ⮄⮘⮕ ⮒⮥⮣ ⮘⮑⮣ ⮢⮕⮓⮜⮙⮞⮙⮞⮗ ⮣⮕⮑⮤⮣ ⮑⮞⮔ ⮖⮢⮕⮕ ⮇⮙-⭶⮙. ⮄⮘⮕ ⮑⮦⮕⮢⮑⮗⮕ ⮤⮟⮤⮑⮜ ⮓⮟⮝⮝⮥⮤⮕ ⮤⮙⮝⮕ ⮖⮟⮢ ⮑⮞ ⮕⮝⮠⮜⮟⮩⮕⮕ ⮧⮟⮥⮜⮔ ⮒⮕ ⭧⭥ ⮝⮙⮞⮥⮤⮕⮣ ⮕⮑⮓⮘ ⮧⮑⮩. ⭱ ⮒⮢⮕⮑⮛⮔⮟⮧⮞ ⮟⮖ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮒⮥⮣ ⮧⮟⮥⮜⮔ ⮒⮕ ⮔⮙⮣⮢⮥⮠⮤⮙⮦⮕ ⮤⮟ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮓⮟⮝⮠⮑⮞⮩’⮣ ⮟⮠⮕⮢⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞⮣. ⮅⮞⮔⮕⮢ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮣⮕⮓⮟⮞⮔ ⮠⮜⮑⮞, ⮤⮘⮕ ⮓⮟⮝⮠⮑⮞⮩ ⮧⮟⮥⮜⮔ ⮠⮑⮢⮤⮙⮑⮜⮜⮩ ⮢⮕⮙⮝⮒⮥⮢⮣⮕ ⮕⮝⮠⮜⮟⮩⮕⮕⮣’ ⮓⮟⮣⮤ ⮟⮖ ⮥⮣⮙⮞⮗ ⮠⮥⮒⮜⮙⮓ ⮤⮢⮑⮞⮣⮠⮟⮢⮤⮑⮤⮙⮟⮞ ⮤⮟ ⮓⮟⮝⮝⮥⮤⮕ ⮤⮟ ⮧⮟⮢⮛. ⮄⮘⮕ ⮑⮦⮕⮢⮑⮗⮕ ⮣⮑⮦⮙⮞⮗⮣ ⮖⮟⮢ ⮑⮞ ⮕⮝⮠⮜⮟⮩⮕⮕ ⮧⮟⮥⮜⮔ ⮒⮕ ⮑⮒⮟⮥⮤ ⭨⭠ ⮠⮕⮢⮓⮕⮞⮤. ⭽⮟⮣⮤ ⮟⮖ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮕⮝⮠⮜⮟⮩⮕⮕⮣ ⮜⮙⮦⮕ ⮧⮙⮤⮘⮙⮞ ⮧⮑⮜⮛⮙⮞⮗ ⮔⮙⮣⮤⮑⮞⮓⮕ ⮤⮟ ⮑ ⮒⮥⮣ ⮣⮤⮟⮠. ⭽⮟⮣⮤ ⮕⮝⮠⮜⮟⮩⮕⮕⮣ ⮧⮟⮥⮜⮔ ⮘⮑⮦⮕ ⮤⮟ ⮝⮑⮛⮕ ⮟⮞⮕ ⮟⮢ ⮤⮧⮟ ⮤⮢⮑⮞⮣⮖⮕⮢⮣. ⭲⮥⮣⮕⮣ ⮑⮢⮕ ⮣⮓⮘⮕⮔⮥⮜⮕⮔ ⮤⮟ ⮑⮢⮢⮙⮦⮕ ⮕⮦⮕⮢⮩ ⮘⮑⮜⮖ ⮘⮟⮥⮢ ⮑⮤ ⮑ ⮒⮥⮣ ⮣⮘⮕⮜⮤⮕⮢ ⮙⮞ ⮤⮘⮕ ⮤⮕⮓⮘⮞⮟⮜⮟⮗⮩ ⮠⮑⮢⮛. ⭲⮥⮣⮕⮣ ⮑⮢⮕ ⮇⮀-⮆⭡⭢⭧⭱ ⮣⮟⮝⮕⮤⮙⮝⮕⮣ ⮜⮑⮤⮕. ⭾⮟⮞⮕ ⮟⮖ ⮤⮘⮕⮝ ⮘⮑⮦⮕ ⮇⮙-⭶⮙. ⮄⮘⮕ ⮑⮦⮕⮢⮑⮗⮕ ⮤⮟⮤⮑⮜ ⮓⮟⮝⮝⮥⮤⮕ ⮤⮙⮝⮕ ⮖⮟⮢ ⮑⮞ ⮕⮝⮠⮜⮟⮩⮕⮕ ⮧⮟⮥⮜⮔ ⮒⮕ ⭦⭠ ⮝⮙⮞⮥⮤⮕⮣ ⮕⮑⮓⮘ ⮧⮑⮩.

Scratch Paper

Do not write your essay in this space.

Official LSAT PrepTest

Form 4LSN111

December 2014

74

© 2014 by Law School Admission Council, Inc. All rights reserved. No part of this work, including information, data, or other portions of the work published in electronic form, may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, or by any information storage and retrieval system, without permission of the publisher. For information, write: Communications, Law School Admission Council, 662 Penn Street, Box 40, Newtown, PA, 189400040. LSAT is a registered trademark of the Law School Admission Council, Inc. All actual LSAT questions printed within this work are used with the permission of Law School Admission Council, Inc., Box 2000, Newtown, PA 18940, the copyright owner. LSAC does not review or endorse specific test preparation materials or services, and inclusion of licensed LSAT questions within this work does not imply the review or endorsement of LSAC.

2

THE PREPTEST •

The PrepTest........................................................................................................................................................................3 •

Section I.........................................................................................................................................................................4



Section II......................................................................................................................................................................12



Section III.....................................................................................................................................................................20



Section IV.....................................................................................................................................................................28



Acknowledgments.............................................................................................................................................................36



Computing Your Score......................................................................................................................................................37



Answer Key.........................................................................................................................................................................38

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SECTION I Time—35 minutes 25 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. �� �������� ������ �� ����������� ���� ������� �����’� ������ ������� ���� �� ���� ������ ������ ����� �������� �������� ���������� ������� ����������� ��� ������ ��� ������ ��������� ��� ����� ���’� ����� ��� ������ ����� �� ����� ������ ��� ������� ���� ������� �������� ���� �����’� ����� �� ���� ��������

�� ���������� ��� ���������� ������ ��� ���� ��� ���� �� ��� ������ �������� ���� ������� �������� ����� ������ �������� ��� ��������� �� ��� ���������� ��� ������� ������� ����� ������� �� ���� ���� �� ��� ������� ������� ��� ���������� ���������� �� ���� �� � ������ ����������

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������ �������� �� �������� ������� ���� ����� �� ��� ��������� ���� ���� ���� ��������� ����������� ��� ������������ �� ��� ������ �� ������ ��� ����� ���� � ������� ����� ��� ��������� ��� ������������ ����� �������� ���� �������� ���� �� ���� ����� �� ������������ �� ������� ������� ��� ��������� ������� �� ������ ��� ������ ����� �� ���� �� ��� ������� �� ��� ���������� ��� ���������’� ����������� ��� ������������ ���������� ������� ������� ������ ���� ������� ���� �� ��� ����������

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GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

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-28-

SECTION IV Time—35 minutes 26 Questions

Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. �� ����� ����� ����� ��� �� ������������ ���������� ��’� ��������� ��� ��� �������� ���� �� ���� ������ ������������� ���� ���������� ���������� �� ���� ����� ��������� ������ ��� �� ��� ��� ����� ���� ������� ����� ���� �������� �� ��� ���� ��� ������� ������� �����’� �������� ��������� ���� ��� ����������� ����’� ������� �� ���� ���� ��� ��� ��� ��� ���

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S T O P

����� ��� �� ��� ���������� �� ����� ���� ����������� ��� ��������� ��� ��� ��� ��� ���

�������� ����� ���� �������� ���������� � ��������� ���� �������� ������� ���� ���� ��� �� ������� ������� ��� ����� �� ��� ������ �������� ���� ��� ���� ���� �� ����� �� ��� ���� ���������� �� ������� �������� ������ ���� ���� ���� ��� ������ �� ��� �������� ���� ������ ����� �� ����� ��� ���������� ���� ���������� ���� ��������� �� ��� ���� ���� ����� ���� ������� ���� ������ �� ������ ����� ��� ����������� ����� ��� ���������� �������� ������ �������� ����� ����� ���� �� ����� ������

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

4

ACKNOWLEDGMENTS Acknowledgment is made to the following sources from which material has been adapted for use in this test booklet: Michael S. Gazzaniga and Megan S. Steven, “Neuroscience and the Law.” ©2007 by Scientific American, Inc. http:// www.sciammind.com/article.cfm?articleID=00053249-43D1-123A-822283414B7F4945. Jeffrey Rosen, “The Brain on the Stand.” ©2007 by The New York Times Company. http://www.nytimes. com/2007/03/11/magazine/11Neurolaw.t.html?_r=2&oref=slogin&oref=slogin. Angus Trumble, “Smelly Masterpieces.” ©2008 by Times Newspapers Ltd. Kipling D. Williams, Martin J. Bourgeois, and Robert T. Croyle, “The Effects of Stealing Thunder in Criminal and Civil Trials.” ©1993 by Plenum Publishing Corporation.

36

COMPUTING YOUR SCORE Directions: 1.

Use the Answer Key on the next page to check your answers.

2.

Use the Scoring Worksheet below to compute your raw score.

3.

Use the Score Conversion Chart to convert your raw score into the 120-180 scale.

Scoring Worksheet 1.

Enter the number of questions you answered correctly in each section. Number Correct SECTION I.................. SECTION II................. SECTION III................ SECTION IV................

2.

Enter the sum here: This is your Raw Score.

Conversion Chart For Converting Raw Score to the 120-180 LSAT Scaled Score LSAT Form 4LSN111 Reported Score

Lowest

Raw Score Highest

180 179 178 177 176 175 174 173 172 171 170 169 168 167 166 165 164 163 162 161 160 159 158 157 156 155 154 153 152 151 150 149 148 147 146 145 144 143 142 141 140 139 138 137 136 135 134 133 132 131 130 129 128 127 126 125 124 123 122 121 120

99 98 97 96 95 0 94 93 92 90 89 88 86 85 84 82 80 79 77 75 74 72 70 68 67 65 63 61 59 58 56 54 53 51 49 48 46 44 43 41 40 38 36 35 33 32 31 29 28 27 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 0

101 98 97 96 95 0 94 93 92 91 89 88 87 85 84 83 81 79 78 76 74 73 71 69 67 66 64 62 60 58 57 55 53 52 50 48 47 45 43 42 40 39 37 35 34 32 31 30 28 27 26 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15

*There is no raw score that will produce this scaled score for this form.

37

ANSWER KEY SECTION I 1. C 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. C 6. A 7. E

8. A 9. E 10. E 11. D 12. E 13. A 14. D

15. E 16. D 17. A 18. A 19. A 20. E 21. B

22. E 23. D 24. B 25. D

SECTION II 1. C 2. D 3. E 4. A 5. E 6. E 7. B

8. E 9. A 10. A 11. A 12. C 13. E 14. D

15. B 16. A 17. E 18. D 19. B 20. B 21. A

22. B 23. C

SECTION III 1. D 2. E 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. B

8. D 9. C 10. B 11. D 12. A 13. D 14. E

15. A 16. D 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. C 21. C

22. E 23. A 24. B 25. B 26. D 27. E

SECTION IV 1. B 2. C 3. E 4. D 5. D 6. B 7. A

38

8. B 9. B 10. C 11. A 12. D 13. D 14. A

15. C 16. E 17. E 18. E 19. C 20. D 21. A

22. C 23. E 24. D 25. A 26. B

LSAT® Writing Sample Topic ©2014 by Law School Admission Council, Inc. All rights reserved.

Directions: The scenario presented below describes two choices, either one of which can be supported on the basis of the information given. Your essay should consider both choices and argue for one over the other, based on the two specified criteria and the facts provided. There is no “right” or “wrong” choice: a reasonable argument can be made for either.

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Do not write your essay in this space.

The Law School Admission Council (LSAC) is a nonprofit corporation that provides unique, state-ofthe-art admission products and services to ease the admission process for law schools and their applicants worldwide. Currently, 220 law schools in the United States, Canada, and Australia are members of the Council and benefit from LSAC's services. © 2015 by Law School Admission Council, Inc. LSAT, The Official LSAT PrepTest, The Official LSAT SuperPrep, ItemWise, and LSAC are registered marks of the Law School Admission Council, Inc. Law School Forums, LLM Law School Forum, Credential Assembly Service, CAS, LLM Credential Assembly Service, and LLM CAS are service marks of the Law School Admission Council, Inc. 10 Actual, Official LSAT PrepTests; 10 More Actual, Official LSAT PrepTests; The Next 10 Actual, Official LSAT PrepTests; 10 New Actual, Official LSAT PrepTests with Comparative Reading; 10 Actual, Official LSAT PrepTests, Volume V; LSAC Official Guide to ABA-Approved Law Schools; LSAC Official Guide to LLM/Graduate Law Programs; Whole Test Prep Packages; The Official LSAT Handbook; ACES2; FlexApp; Candidate Referral Service; DiscoverLaw.org; Law School Admission Test; and Law School Admission Council are trademarks of the Law School Admission Council, Inc. All rights reserved. No part of this work, including information, data, or other portions of the work published in electronic form, may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, or by any information storage and retrieval system, without permission of the publisher. For information, write: Communications, Law School Admission Council, 662 Penn Street, PO Box 40, Newtown, PA 18940-0040. LSAC fees, policies, and procedures relating to, but not limited to, test registration, test administration, test score reporting, misconduct and irregularities, Credential Assembly Service (CAS), and other matters may change without notice at any time. Up-to-date LSAC policies and procedures are available at LSAC.org. ISBN-13: 978-0-9907186-9-7 Print number 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

Table of Contents Introduction to the LSAT Scoring Test Score Accuracy—Reliability and Standard Error of Measurement Adjustments for Variation in Test Difficulty Research on the LSAT To Inquire About Test Questions How This PrepTest Differs From an Actual LSAT The Three LSAT Multiple-Choice Question Types Analytical Reasoning Questions Logical Reasoning Questions Reading Comprehension Questions The Writing Sample Taking The PrepTest Under Simulated LSAT Conditions Answer Sheet The PrepTest Section I Section II Section III Section IV The Writing Sample Writing Sample Response Sheet Computing Your Score Answer Key

Introduction to the LSAT The Law School Admission Test is a half-day standardized test required for admission to all ABA-approved law schools, most Canadian law schools, and many other law schools. It consists of five 35-minute sections of multiple-choice questions. Four of the five sections contribute to the test taker’s score. These sections include one Reading Comprehension section, one Analytical Reasoning section, and two Logical Reasoning sections. The unscored section, commonly referred to as the variable section, typically is used to pretest new test questions or to preequate new test forms. The placement of this section in the LSAT will vary. A 35-minute writing sample is administered at the end of the test. The writing sample is not scored by LSAC, but copies are sent to all law schools to which you apply. The score scale for the LSAT is 120 to 180. The LSAT is designed to measure skills considered essential for success in law school: the reading and comprehension of complex texts with accuracy and insight; the organization and management of information and the ability to draw reasonable inferences from it; the ability to think critically; and the analysis and evaluation of the reasoning and arguments of others. The LSAT provides a standard measure of acquired reading and verbal reasoning skills that law schools can use as one of several factors in assessing applicants. For up-to-date information about LSAC’s services, go to our website, LSAC.org.

Scoring Your LSAT score is based on the number of questions you answer correctly (the raw score). There is no deduction for incorrect answers, and all questions count equally. In other words, there is no penalty for guessing. Test Score Accuracy—Reliability and Standard Error of Measurement Candidates perform at different levels on different occasions for reasons quite unrelated to the characteristics of a test itself. The accuracy of test scores is best described by the use of two related statistical terms: reliability and standard error of measurement. Reliabilit y is a measure of how consistently a test measures the skills being assessed. The higher the reliability coefficient for a test, the more certain we can be that test takers would get very similar scores if they took the test again. LSAC reports an internal consistency measure of reliability for every test form. Reliability can vary from 0.00 to 1.00, and a test with no measurement error would have a reliability coefficient of 1.00 (never attained in practice). Reliability coefficients for past LSAT forms have ranged from .90 to .95, indicating a high degree of consistency for these tests. LSAC expects the reliability of the LSAT to continue to fall within the same range. LSAC also reports the amount of measurement error associated with each test form, a concept known as the standard error of measurement (SEM). The SEM, which is usually about 2.6 points, indicates how close a test taker’s observed score is likely to be to his or her true score. True scores are theoretical scores that would be obtained from perfectly reliable tests with no measurement error—scores never known in practice. Score bands, or ranges of scores that contain a test taker’s true score a certain percentage of the time, can be derived using the SEM. LSAT score bands are constructed by adding and subtracting the (rounded) SEM to and from an actual LSAT score (e.g., the LSAT score, plus or minus 3 points). Scores near 120 or 180 have asymmetrical bands. Score bands constructed in this manner will contain an individual’s true score approximately 68 percent of the time. Measurement error also must be taken into account when comparing LSAT scores of two test takers. It is likely that small differences in scores are due to measurement error rather than to meaningful differences in ability. The standard error of score differences provides some guidance as to the importance of differences between two scores. The standard error of score differences is approximately 1.4 times larger than the standard error of measurement for the individual scores. Thus, a test score should be regarded as a useful but approximate measure of a test taker’s abilities as measured by the test, not as an exact determination of his or her abilities. LSAC encourages law schools to examine the range of scores within the interval that probably contains the test taker’s true score (e.g., the test taker’s score band) rather than solely interpret the reported score alone. Adjustments for Variation in Test Difficulty All test forms of the LSAT reported on the same score scale are designed to measure the same abilities, but one test form may be slightly easier or more difficult than another. The scores from different test forms are made comparable through a statistical procedure known as equating. As a result of equating, a given scaled score earned on different test forms reflects the same level of ability. Research on the LSAT Summaries of LSAT validity studies and other LSAT research can be found in member law school libraries and at LSAC.org. To Inquire About Test Questions If you find what you believe to be an error or ambiguity in a test question that affects your response to the question, contact LSAC by e-mail: [email protected], or write to Law School Admission Council, Test Development Group, PO Box 40, Newtown, PA 18940-0040.

How This PrepTest Differs From an Actual LSAT This PrepTest is made up of the scored sections and writing sample from the actual disclosed LSAT administered in June 2015. However, it does not contain the extra, variable section that is used to pretest new test items of one of the three multiplechoice question types. The three multiple-choice question types may be in a different order in an actual LSAT than in this PrepTest. This is because the order of these question types is intentionally varied for each administration of the test.

The Three LSAT Multiple-Choice Question Types The multiple-choice questions that make up most of the LSAT reflect a broad range of academic disciplines and are intended to give no advantage to candidates from a particular academic background. The five sections of the test contain three different question types. The following material presents a general discussion of the nature of each question type and some strategies that can be used in answering them. Analytical Reasoning Questions Analytical Reasoning questions are designed to assess the ability to consider a group of facts and rules, and, given those facts and rules, determine what could or must be true. The specific scenarios associated with these questions are usually unrelated to law, since they are intended to be accessible to a wide range of test takers. However, the skills tested parallel those involved in determining what could or must be the case given a set of regulations, the terms of a contract, or the facts of a legal case in relation to the law. In Analytical Reasoning questions, you are asked to reason deductively from a set of statements and rules or principles that describe relationships among persons, things, or events. Analytical Reasoning questions appear in sets, with each set based on a single passage. The passage used for each set of questions describes common ordering relationships or grouping relationships, or a combination of both types of relationships. Examples include scheduling employees for work shifts, assigning instructors to class sections, ordering tasks according to priority, and distributing grants for projects. Analytical Reasoning questions test a range of deductive reasoning skills. These include: • Comprehending the basic structure of a set of relationships by determining a complete solution to the problem posed (for example, an acceptable seating arrangement of all six diplomats around a table) • Reasoning with conditional (“if-then”) statements and recognizing logically equivalent formulations of such statements • Inferring what could be true or must be true from given facts and rules • Inferring what could be true or must be true from given facts and rules together with new information in the form of an additional or substitute fact or rule • Recognizing when two statements are logically equivalent in context by identifying a condition or rule that could replace one of the original conditions while still resulting in the same possible outcomes Analytical Reasoning questions reflect the kinds of detailed analyses of relationships and sets of constraints that a law student must perform in legal problem solving. For example, an Analytical Reasoning passage might describe six diplomats being seated around a table, following certain rules of protocol as to who can sit where. You, the test taker, must answer questions about the logical implications of given and new information. For example, you may be asked who can sit between diplomats X and Y, or who cannot sit next to X if W sits next to Y. Similarly, if you were a student in law school, you might be asked to analyze a scenario involving a set of particular circumstances and a set of governing rules in the form of constitutional provisions, statutes, administrative codes, or prior rulings that have been upheld. You might then be asked to determine the legal options in the scenario: what is required given the scenario, what is permissible given the scenario, and what is prohibited given the scenario. Or you might be asked to develop a “theory” for the case: when faced with an incomplete set of facts about the case, you must fill in the picture based on what is implied by the facts that are known. The problem could be elaborated by the addition of new information or hypotheticals. No formal training in logic is required to answer these questions correctly. Analytical Reasoning questions are intended to be answered using knowledge, skills, and reasoning ability generally expected of college students and graduates. Sug g ested Approach Some people may prefer to answer first those questions about a passage that seem less difficult and then those that seem more difficult. In general, it is best to finish one passage before starting on another, because much time can be lost in returning to a passage and reestablishing familiarity with its relationships. However, if you are having great difficulty on one particular set of questions and are spending too much time on them, it may be to your advantage to skip that set of questions and go on to the next passage, returning to the problematic set of questions after you have finished the other questions in the section. Do not assume that because the conditions for a set of questions look long or complicated, the questions based on those conditions will be especially difficult. Read t he passage carefully. Careful reading and analysis are necessary to determine the exact nature of the relationships involved in an Analytical Reasoning passage. Some relationships are fixed (for example, P and R must always work on the same project). Other relationships are variable (for example, Q must be assigned to either team 1 or team 3). Some relationships that are not stated explicitly in the conditions are implied by and can be deduced from those that are stated (for example, if one condition about paintings in a display specifies that Painting K must be to the left of Painting Y, and another specifies that Painting W must be to the left of Painting K, then it can be deduced that Painting W must be to the left of Painting Y). In reading the conditions, do not introduce unwarranted assumptions. For instance, in a set of questions establishing relationships of height and weight among the members of a team, do not assume that a person who is taller than another

person must weigh more than that person. As another example, suppose a set involves ordering and a question in the set asks what must be true if both X and Y must be earlier than Z; in this case, do not assume that X must be earlier than Y merely because X is mentioned before Y. All the information needed to answer each question is provided in the passage and the question itself. The conditions are designed to be as clear as possible. Do not interpret the conditions as if they were intended to trick you. For example, if a question asks how many people could be eligible to serve on a committee, consider only those people named in the passage unless directed otherwise. When in doubt, read the conditions in their most obvious sense. Remember, however, that the language in the conditions is intended to be read for precise meaning. It is essential to pay particular attention to words that describe or limit relationships, such as “only,” “exactly,” “never,” “always,” “must be,” “cannot be,” and the like. The result of this careful reading will be a clear picture of the structure of the relationships involved, including the kinds of relationships permitted, the participants in the relationships, and the range of possible actions or attributes for these participants. Keep in mind quest ion independence. Each question should be considered separately from the other questions in its set. No information, except what is given in the original conditions, should be carried over from one question to another. In some cases a question will simply ask for conclusions to be drawn from the conditions as originally given. Some questions may, however, add information to the original conditions or temporarily suspend or replace one of the original conditions for the purpose of that question only. For example, if Question 1 adds the supposition “if P is sitting at table 2 ...,” this supposition should NOT be carried over to any other question in the set. Consider highlight ing t ext and using diagrams. Many people find it useful to underline key points in the passage and in each question. In addition, it may prove very helpful to draw a diagram to assist you in finding the solution to the problem. In preparing for the test, you may wish to experiment with different types of diagrams. For a scheduling problem, a simple calendar-like diagram may be helpful. For a grouping problem, an array of labeled columns or rows may be useful. Even though most people find diagrams to be very helpful, some people seldom use them, and for some individual questions no one will need a diagram. There is by no means universal agreement on which kind of diagram is best for which problem or in which cases a diagram is most useful. Do not be concerned if a particular problem in the test seems to be best approached without the use of a diagram. Log ical Reasoning Questions Arguments are a fundamental part of the law, and analyzing arguments is a key element of legal analysis. Training in the law builds on a foundation of basic reasoning skills. Law students must draw on the skills of analyzing, evaluating, constructing, and refuting arguments. They need to be able to identify what information is relevant to an issue or argument and what impact further evidence might have. They need to be able to reconcile opposing positions and use arguments to persuade others. Logical Reasoning questions evaluate the ability to analyze, critically evaluate, and complete arguments as they occur in ordinary language. The questions are based on short arguments drawn from a wide variety of sources, including newspapers, general interest magazines, scholarly publications, advertisements, and informal discourse. These arguments mirror legal reasoning in the types of arguments presented and in their complexity, though few of the arguments actually have law as a subject matter. Each Logical Reasoning question requires you to read and comprehend a short passage, then answer one question (or, rarely, two questions) about it. The questions are designed to assess a wide range of skills involved in thinking critically, with an emphasis on skills that are central to legal reasoning. These skills include: • Recognizing the parts of an argument and their relationships • Recognizing similarities and differences between patterns of reasoning • Drawing well-supported conclusions • Reasoning by analogy • Recognizing misunderstandings or points of disagreement • Determining how additional evidence affects an argument • Detecting assumptions made by particular arguments • Identifying and applying principles or rules • Identifying flaws in arguments • Identifying explanations The questions do not presuppose specialized knowledge of logical terminology. For example, you will not be expected to know the meaning of specialized terms such as “ad hominem” or “syllogism.” On the other hand, you will be expected to

understand and critique the reasoning contained in arguments. This requires that you possess a university-level understanding of widely used concepts such as argument, premise, assumption, and conclusion. Sug g ested Approach Read each question carefully. Make sure that you understand the meaning of each part of the question. Make sure that you understand the meaning of each answer choice and the ways in which it may or may not relate to the question posed. Do not pick a response simply because it is a true statement. Although true, it may not answer the question posed. Answer each question on the basis of the information that is given, even if you do not agree with it. Work within the context provided by the passage. LSAT questions do not involve any tricks or hidden meanings. Reading Comprehension Questions Both law school and the practice of law revolve around extensive reading of highly varied, dense, argumentative, and expository texts (for example, cases, codes, contracts, briefs, decisions, evidence). This reading must be exacting, distinguishing precisely what is said from what is not said. It involves comparison, analysis, synthesis, and application (for example, of principles and rules). It involves drawing appropriate inferences and applying ideas and arguments to new contexts. Law school reading also requires the ability to grasp unfamiliar subject matter and the ability to penetrate difficult and challenging material. The purpose of LSAT Reading Comprehension questions is to measure the ability to read, with understanding and insight, examples of lengthy and complex materials similar to those commonly encountered in law school. The Reading Comprehension section of the LSAT contains four sets of reading questions, each set consisting of a selection of reading material followed by five to eight questions. The reading selection in three of the four sets consists of a single reading passage; the other set contains two related shorter passages. Sets with two passages are a variant of Reading Comprehension called Comparative Reading, which was introduced in June 2007. Comparative Reading questions concern the relationships between the two passages, such as those of generalization/instance, principle/application, or point/counterpoint. Law school work often requires reading two or more texts in conjunction with each other and understanding their relationships. For example, a law student may read a trial court decision together with an appellate court decision that overturns it, or identify the fact pattern from a hypothetical suit together with the potentially controlling case law. Reading selections for LSAT Reading Comprehension questions are drawn from a wide range of subjects in the humanities, the social sciences, the biological and physical sciences, and areas related to the law. Generally, the selections are densely written, use high-level vocabulary, and contain sophisticated argument or complex rhetorical structure (for example, multiple points of view). Reading Comprehension questions require you to read carefully and accurately, to determine the relationships among the various parts of the reading selection, and to draw reasonable inferences from the material in the selection. The questions may ask about the following characteristics of a passage or pair of passages: • The main idea or primary purpose • Information that is explicitly stated • Information or ideas that can be inferred • The meaning or purpose of words or phrases as used in context • The organization or structure • The application of information in the selection to a new context • Principles that function in the selection • Analogies to claims or arguments in the selection • An author’s attitude as revealed in the tone of a passage or the language used • The impact of new information on claims or arguments in the selection Sug g ested Approach Since reading selections are drawn from many different disciplines and sources, you should not be discouraged if you encounter material with which you are not familiar. It is important to remember that questions are to be answered exclusively on the basis of the information provided in the selection. There is no particular knowledge that you are expected to bring to the test, and you should not make inferences based on any prior knowledge of a subject that you may have. You may, however, wish to defer working on a set of questions that seems particularly difficult or unfamiliar until after you have dealt with sets you find easier. St rat egies. One question that often arises in connection with Reading Comprehension has to do with the most effective and efficient order in which to read the selections and questions. Possible approaches include:

• reading the selection very closely and then answering the questions; • reading the questions first, reading the selection closely, and then returning to the questions; or • skimming the selection and questions very quickly, then rereading the selection closely and answering the questions. Test takers are different, and the best strategy for one might not be the best strategy for another. In preparing for the test, therefore, you might want to experiment with the different strategies and decide what works most effectively for you. Remember that your strategy must be effective under timed conditions. For this reason, the first strategy—reading the selection very closely and then answering the questions—may be the most effective for you. Nonetheless, if you believe that one of the other strategies might be more effective for you, you should try it out and assess your performance using it. Reading t he select ion. Whatever strategy you choose, you should give the passage or pair of passages at least one careful reading before answering the questions. Try to distinguish main ideas from supporting ideas, and opinions or attitudes from factual, objective information. Note transitions from one idea to the next and identify the relationships among the different ideas or parts of a passage, or between the two passages in Comparative Reading sets. Consider how and why an author makes points and draws conclusions. Be sensitive to implications of what the passages say. You may find it helpful to mark key parts of passages. For example, you might underline main ideas or important arguments, and you might circle transitional words—“although,” “nevertheless,” “correspondingly,” and the like—that will help you map the structure of a passage. Also, you might note descriptive words that will help you identify an author’s attitude toward a particular idea or person. Answering the Questions • Always read all the answer choices before selecting the best answer. The best answer choice is the one that most accurately and completely answers the question being posed. • Respond to the specific question being asked. Do not pick an answer choice simply because it is a true statement. For example, picking a true statement might yield an incorrect answer to a question in which you are asked to identify an author’s position on an issue, since you are not being asked to evaluate the truth of the author’s position but only to correctly identify what that position is. • Answer the questions only on the basis of the information provided in the selection. Your own views, interpretations, or opinions, and those you have heard from others, may sometimes conflict with those expressed in a reading selection; however, you are expected to work within the context provided by the reading selection. You should not expect to agree with everything you encounter in Reading Comprehension passages.

The Writing Sample On the day of the test, you will be asked to write one sample essay. LSAC does not score the writing sample, but copies are sent to all law schools to which you apply. According to a 2015 LSAC survey of 129 United States and Canadian law schools, almost all use the writing sample in evaluating at least some applications for admission. Failure to respond to writing sample prompts and frivolous responses have been used by law schools as grounds for rejection of applications for admission. In developing and implementing the writing sample portion of the LSAT, LSAC has operated on the following premises: First, law schools and the legal profession value highly the ability to communicate effectively in writing. Second, it is important to encourage potential law students to develop effective writing skills. Third, a sample of an applicant’s writing, produced under controlled conditions, is a potentially useful indication of that person’s writing ability. Fourth, the writing sample can serve as an independent check on other writing submitted by applicants as part of the admission process. Finally, writing samples may be useful for diagnostic purposes related to improving a candidate’s writing. The writing prompt presents a decision problem. You are asked to make a choice between two positions or courses of action. Both of the choices are defensible, and you are given criteria and facts on which to base your decision. There is no “right” or “wrong” position to take on the topic, so the quality of each test taker’s response is a function not of which choice is made, but of how well or poorly the choice is supported and how well or poorly the other choice is criticized. The LSAT writing prompt was designed and validated by legal education professionals. Since it involves writing based on fact sets and criteria, the writing sample gives applicants the opportunity to demonstrate the type of argumentative writing that is required in law school, although the topics are usually nonlegal. You will have 35 minutes in which to plan and write an essay on the topic you receive. Read the topic and the accompanying directions carefully. You will probably find it best to spend a few minutes considering the topic and organizing your thoughts before you begin writing. In your essay, be sure to develop your ideas fully, leaving time, if possible, to review what you have written. Do not write on a topic other than the one specified. Writing on a topic of your own choice is not acceptable. No special knowledge is required or expected for this writing exercise. Law schools are interested in the reasoning, clarity, organization, language usage, and writing mechanics displayed in your essay. How well you write is more important than how much you write. Confine your essay to the blocked, lined area on the front and back of the separate Writing Sample Response Sheet. Only that area will be reproduced for law schools. Be sure that your writing is legible.

Taking the PrepTest Under Simulated LSAT Conditions One important way to prepare for the LSAT is to simulate the day of the test by taking a practice test under actual time constraints. Taking a practice test under timed conditions helps you to estimate the amount of time you can afford to spend on each question in a section and to determine the question types on which you may need additional practice. Since the LSAT is a timed test, it is important to use your allotted time wisely. During the test, you may work only on the section designated by the test supervisor. You cannot devote extra time to a difficult section and make up that time on a section you find easier. In pacing yourself, and checking your answers, you should think of each section of the test as a separate minitest. Be sure that you answer every question on the test. When you do not know the correct answer to a question, first eliminate the responses that you know are incorrect, then make your best guess among the remaining choices. Do not be afraid to guess as there is no penalty for incorrect answers. When you take a practice test, abide by all the requirements specified in the directions and keep strictly within the specified time limits. Work without a rest period. When you take an actual test, you will have only a short break—usually 10–15 minutes— after SECTION III. When taken under conditions as much like actual testing conditions as possible, a practice test provides very useful preparation for taking the LSAT. Official directions for the four multiple-choice sections and the writing sample are included in this PrepTest so that you can approximate actual testing conditions as you practice. To take the test: • Set a timer for 35 minutes. Answer all the questions in SECTION I of this PrepTest. Stop working on that section when the 35 minutes have elapsed. • Repeat, allowing yourself 35 minutes each for sections II, III, and IV. • Set the timer again for 35 minutes, then prepare your response to the writing sample topic at the end of this PrepTest. • Refer to “Computing Your Score” for the PrepTest for instruction on evaluating your performance. An answer key is provided for that purpose. T he pract ice t est t hat follows consist s of four sect ions corresponding t o t he four scored sect ions of t he June 2015 LSAT. Also reprint ed is t he June 2015 unscored writ ing sample t opic.



General Directions for the LSAT Answer Sheet

THE PREPTEST • Logical Reasoning: SECTION I • Reading Comprehension: SECTION II • Logical Reasoning: SECTION III • Analytical Reasoning: SECTION IV • Writing Sample Materials

Section 1 Time—35 minutes 25 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. 1. Pundit: Our city made a mistake when it sold a private company the rights to assess and collect parking fees. The private company raised parking fees and so has been able to reap profits far greater than what it paid for the rights to assess and collect the fees. If the city had not sold the rights, then that money would have gone to the city. The pundit's argument requires the assumption that (A) other private companies would have been willing to pay for the rights to assess and collect parking fees (B) the city could have raised parking fees had it not sold the rights (C) municipal functions like assessing and collecting parking fees should always be handled directly by the municipality in question (D) the revenue from parking fees is not the only factor that cities need to consider in setting the rates for parking fees (E) private companies assess and collect parking fees more efficiently than cities do 2. Popular science publications that explain new developments in science face a dilemma. In order to reach a wide audience, these publications must rely heavily on metaphorical writing, which usually fails to convey the science accurately. If the writing is more rigorous, they get the science right but fail to reach a wide audience. These publications should therefore give up trying to explain new developments in science to a wide audience. Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify the reasoning in the argument? (A) Science publications should balance the use of metaphors with more rigorous writing. (B) The more recent a scientific development is, the harder it is to explain it accurately to a wide audience. (C) In reporting scientific developments, it is better to fail to reach a wide audience than to be inaccurate.

(D) In reporting scientific developments, it is better to reach a wide audience than to be accurate. (E) Even the most rigorous explanations of some scientific concepts must still contain metaphors. 3. Critic: Rock music is musically bankrupt and socially destructive, but at least the album covers of rock LPs from the 1960s and 1970s often featured innovative visual art. But now, since the success of digital music has almost ended the production of LPs, rock music has nothing going for it. Which one of the following is an assumption on which the critic's argument relies? (A) Digital music is not distributed with accompanying innovative visual art. (B) Although very few LPs are produced today, most of these are rock LPs. (C) In the 1960s and 1970s, only rock LPs featured innovative album cover art. (D) The LPs being produced today have innovative album cover art. (E) Rock music is less sophisticated musically and more destructive socially now than it was in the 1960s and 1970s. 4. Scientist: In testing whether a baby's babbling is a linguistic task or just random sounds, researchers videotaped the mouths of babies as they babbled. They discovered that babbling babies open the right sides of their mouths wider than the left. Past studies have established that during nonlinguistic vocalizations people generally open the left side of the mouth wider. So babbling turns out to be a linguistic task. Which one of the following most accurately describes how the scientist's argument proceeds? (A) It describes an argument for a given conclusion and presents a counterargument to suggest that its conclusion is incorrect. (B) It questions the adequacy of a generally accepted principle by providing evidence to undermine that principle, and offers a different principle in its place. (C) It raises a question, describes a potential experimental test, and argues that the test is necessary to answer the question. (D) It describes an explanation for some facts, counters assertions that the explanation is unlikely to be correct, and concludes that it is correct after all. (E) It presents two possible interpretations of a phenomenon and provides evidence in support of one interpretation and against the other. 5. Environment minister: Because of our concern about global warming, this country has committed itself to reducing its emissions of carbon dioxide substantially over the next ten years. Since trees absorb carbon dioxide, planting large numbers of trees will help us fulfill our commitment. Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the environment minister's argument?

(A) Owners of large tracts of private land are usually unwilling to plant trees unless they are given a financial incentive for doing so. (B) Over the last ten years the proportion of land that is deforested annually has not increased as much as has the proportion of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. (C) When ground is disturbed in the course of planting trees, more carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere by rotting organic matter in the soil than the new trees will absorb in ten years. (D) Many climate researchers believe that global warming is such an urgent problem that carbon dioxide emissions should be substantially reduced in less than ten years. (E) Gases other than carbon dioxide contribute to global warming, and trees do not absorb any of these other gases. 6. Sport utility vehicles (SUVs) are, because of their weight, extremely expensive to operate but, for the same reason, in an accident they are safer for their occupants than smaller vehicles are. Nonetheless, an analysis of recent traffic fatality statistics has led auto safety experts to conclude that the increasing popularity of SUVs is an alarming trend. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to account for the response of auto safety experts to the popularity of SUVs? (A) Vehicles with a reputation for being safer than others tend to be driven more carefully than other vehicles. (B) Vehicles with a high average fuel consumption have fuel tanks with larger capacities. (C) Recent statistics suggest that large vehicles such as SUVs tend to carry more passengers than smaller vehicles do. (D) Recent statistics suggest that the average number of fatalities in collisions between SUVs and smaller vehicles is higher than for other collisions. (E) Recent statistics suggest that SUVs are as likely to be involved in collisions as smaller vehicles are. 7. Political advertisement: Sherwood campaigns as an opponent of higher taxes. But is anybody fooled? For the last 10 years, while Sherwood served on the city council, the council consistently increased taxes year after year. Break the cycle of higher and higher taxes: reject Sherwood's bid for reelection to city council. The argument in the political advertisement is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it (A) bases a crucial generalization on a very limited sample (B) fails to consider the possibility that something that is unavoidable might nonetheless be undesirable

(C) mistakes something that is sufficient to bring about a result for something that is necessary to bring about that result (D) makes a personal attack on someone who holds a certain view rather than addressing the reasonableness of that view (E) takes for granted that a characteristic of a group as a whole is shared by an individual member of that group 8. Client: The owners of the catering company we use decided to raise their rates. They argued that the increase was necessary to allow them to hire and train new staff to accommodate their expanding client base. They should reconsider that decision and not raise their rates. After all, the mission of the company is to provide low-cost gourmet catering, and this mission will be jeopardized if they raise rates. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main conclusion of the client's argument? (A) The owners of the catering company decided to raise their rates. (B) The catering company needs to increase its rates to accommodate its expanding client base. (C) The catering company's rates should not be raised. (D) The catering company's mission is to provide low-cost gourmet catering. (E) The catering company's mission will be jeopardized if its rates are increased. 9. Red admiral butterflies fly in a highly irregular fashion, constantly varying their speed, wing strokes, and flight path. While predators avoid poisonous butterfly species, nonpoisonous butterflies like the red admiral need to elude predators to survive. Scientists therefore hypothesize that the red admiral's flight style, which is clearly not energy efficient, evolved as a means of avoiding predators. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the support for the scientists' hypothesis? (A) No species of poisonous butterfly has an irregular flight style like that of the red admiral. (B) Attacks from predators are not the most common cause of death for butterflies. (C) Many other types of butterfly have flight styles similar to that of the red admiral. (D) It is much more energy efficient for butterflies to fly in an irregular fashion than it is for heavier varieties of insects. (E) All of the predators that prey on the red admiral also prey on other species of nonpoisonous butterflies. 10. Copyright statutes benefit society by providing incentive to produce original works, so some kind of copyright statute is ultimately justified. But these statutes also represent a significant cost to society because they create protected monopolies. In many countries, copyright statutes grant copyright

protection for the life of the author plus several decades. This is too long, since the societal benefit from the additional years of copyright is more than offset by the societal cost. Which one of the following principles, if valid, most strongly supports the reasoning in the argument? (A) A statute should be written in a way that eliminates any appearance of its being inconsistent in its aims. (B) A statute should be repealed if the conditions that originally justified enacting the statute no longer hold true. (C) A statute that is justified in one country is justified in every country. (D) A statute should not limit rights unless it can be shown that it thereby enhances other rights. (E) If a statute is to be justified by its benefit to society, it should be designed so that its societal benefit always exceeds its societal cost. 11. Police chief: During my tenure as chief, crime in this city has fallen by 20 percent. This is clearly the result of my policing strategy, which uses real-time crime data and focuses police resources on the areas with the most crime. Which one of the following, if true, most calls into question the police chief's explanation for the drop in crime? (A) The crime rate in the police chief's city is still significantly higher than in many other cities. (B) The crime rate in the police chief's city is higher now than it was several decades before the chief's tenure began. (C) The crime rate in the police chief's city fell significantly during the first few years of the chief's tenure, then it leveled off. (D) The crime rate in the country as a whole fell by about 30 percent during the police chief's tenure. (E) The variation in crime rates between different areas of the city is smaller in the police chief's city than in many other cities. 12. Commentator: The Duke of Acredia argued long ago that only virtuous Acredian rulers concerned with the well-being of the people will be able to rule successfully. Since then, when Acredian governments have fallen, their falls have always been during the rule of one who viciously disregards the people's needs. The Duke, then, was right about at least one thing: Concern for the welfare of the people is necessary for the successful governance of Acredia. The reasoning in the commentator's argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument (A) ignores the possibility that the conditions that are necessary for the welfare of the people are

likely to change over time (B) infers the necessity of a certain condition for success from the fact that its absence has always led to failure (C) appeals to evidence from sources that are likely to be in some way biased or unreliable (D) infers that a certain condition is required for success from the fact that the lack of that condition is associated with failure (E) presumes, without providing justification, that the character of past rulers can be assessed in some completely objective way 13. Dr. Khan: Professor Burns recognizes that recent observations fail to confirm earlier ones that apparently showed a comet reservoir far out in our solar system. She claims this nonconfirmation is enough to show that the earlier observations are incorrect. But the recent observations occurred under poor conditions. Which one of the following is most supported by Dr. Khan's statements? (A) If the recent observations had been made under good conditions, they would have provided conclusive evidence of a comet reservoir far out in our solar system. (B) Contrary to Professor Burns's view, the recent observations confirm the earlier ones. (C) Professor Burns's claim about the implications of the recent observations is incorrect. (D) The recent observations, even if they had been made under good conditions, would not have been enough to suggest that the earlier ones are incorrect. (E) The poor conditions present during recent observations render them worthless. 14. If people refrained from being impolite to one another the condition of society would be greatly improved. But society would not be better off if the government enacted laws requiring people to be polite to each other. Enforcing such laws would create even more problems than does impoliteness. Which one of the following most accurately describes the role played in the argument by the claim that society would not be better off if the government enacted laws requiring people to be polite to each other? (A) It is the conclusion drawn by the argument as a whole. (B) It is cited as evidence for the generalization that is the argument's overall conclusion. (C) It is cited as evidence for the assertion used to support the argument's overall conclusion. (D) It is cited as an illustration of a generalization that serves as the main premise of the argument. (E) It describes a phenomenon that the conclusion of the argument purports to explain.

15. Astronomer: In most cases in which a planet has been detected orbiting a distant star, the planet's orbit is distinctly oval, whereas the orbits of Earth and several other planets around our sun are approximately circular. However, many comets orbiting our sun have been thrown into oval orbits by close encounters with planets orbiting our sun. So some of the planets in oval orbits around distant stars were probably thrown into those orbits by close encounters with other planets orbiting the same stars. Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the astronomer's argument? (A) When two planets or other large objects in orbit have a close encounter, usually the smaller of the two is the more greatly affected. (B) There is no indication that the orbit of any planet orbiting our sun has been affected by a close encounter with another planet orbiting our sun. (C) In most cases in which planets have been discovered orbiting a distant star, more than one planet has been found orbiting the star. (D) Most comets with an oval orbit around our sun were thrown into that orbit by a close encounter with some other object. (E) For each distant star that has been found to have a planet, no other object large enough to affect the planet's orbit has been found orbiting the star. 16. It is possible to grow agricultural crops that can thrive when irrigated with seawater. Such farming, if undertaken near oceans, would actually be cheaper than most other irrigated agriculture, since the water would not have to be pumped far. The greatest expense in irrigated agriculture is in pumping the water, and the pumping costs increase with the distance the water is pumped. Which one of the following most accurately describes the role played in the argument by the claim that the greatest expense in irrigated agriculture is in pumping the water? (A) It is a claim that the argument shows to be false. (B) It is a hypothesis that, if proven, would undermine the argument's conclusion. (C) It is evidence provided to support the argument's conclusion. (D) It is the argument's conclusion. (E) It is a claim for which the argument provides evidence, but which is not the argument's conclusion. 17. Critics worry that pessimistic news reports about the economy harm it by causing people to lose confidence in the economy, of which everyone has direct experience every day. Journalists respond that to do their jobs well they cannot worry about the effects of their work. Also, studies show that people do not defer to journalists except on matters of which they have no direct experience. The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following?

(A) Critics who think that the economy is affected by the extent of people's confidence in it are wrong. (B) Pessimistic news reports about such matters as foreign policy, of which people do not have experience every day, are likely to have a negative impact. (C) Pessimistic news reports about the state of the economy are likely to harm the economy. (D) News reports about the economy are unlikely to have a significant effect on people's opinions about the state of the economy. (E) Journalists need not be deeply concerned about their reporting's effects on the well-being of the average citizen. 18. Police captain: The chief of police has indicated that gifts of cash or objects valued at more than $100 count as graft. However, I know with certainty that no officer in my precinct has ever taken such gifts, so the recent accusations of graft in my precinct are unfounded. The reasoning in the police captain's argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument (A) bases a rebuttal of accusations of graft on knowledge about only a limited sample of officers (B) fails to consider that there may be other instances of graft besides those indicated by the chief of police (C) bases a claim about the actions of individuals on an appeal to the character of those individuals (D) takes for granted that if the accusations of graft are unfounded, so is any accusation of corruption (E) relies on a premise that contradicts the conclusion drawn in the argument 19. Economist: Although average hourly wages vary considerably between different regions of this country, in each region, the average hourly wage for full-time jobs increased last year. Paradoxically, however, in the country as a whole, the average hourly wage for full-time jobs decreased last year. Which one of the following, if true of the economist's country, most helps to resolve the apparent paradox in the economist's statements? (A) In the country as a whole, the average hourly wage for full-time jobs has decreased slightly for each of the last three years. (B) Last year, to reduce costs, employers moved many full-time jobs from regions with relatively high hourly wages to regions where those jobs typically pay much less. (C) The year before last, the unemployment rate reached a ten-year low; last year, however, the unemployment rate increased slightly. (D) Last year, the rate at which the average hourly wage for full-time jobs increased varied considerably between different regions of the country.

(E) Last year, hourly wages for most full-time jobs in the manufacturing sector declined while those for most full-time jobs in the service sector increased. 20. Researchers compared the brains of recently deceased people who had schizophrenia with those of recently deceased people who did not have schizophrenia. They found that 35 percent of the former and none of the latter showed evidence of damage to a structure of nerve cells called the subplate. They knew that this damage must have occurred prior to the second fetal trimester, when the subplate controls the development of the connections between the different parts of the brain. Which one of the following conclusions is most strongly supported by the information above? (A) Roughly 35 percent of people with abnormal brain subplates will eventually have schizophrenia. (B) A promising treatment in some cases of schizophrenia is repair of the damaged connections between the different parts of the brain. (C) Some people developed schizophrenia because of damage to the brain subplate after the second fetal trimester. (D) Schizophrenia is determined by genetic factors. (E) There may be a cause of schizophrenia that predates birth. 21. A new device uses the global positioning system to determine a cow's location and, when a cow strays outside of its pasture, makes noises in the cow's ears to steer it back to its home range. Outfitting all of the cattle in a herd with this device is far more expensive than other means of keeping cattle in their pastures, such as fences. The device's maker nevertheless predicts that ranchers will purchase the device at its current price. Which one of the following, if true, does the most to support the prediction made by the device's maker? (A) The price of the device will come down appreciably if the device's maker is able to produce it in large quantities. (B) As they graze, cattle in a herd follow the lead of the same few members of the herd. (C) The device has been shown not to cause significant stress to cattle. (D) The device has been shown to be as effective as fences at keeping cattle in their pastures. (E) The device's maker offers significant discounts to purchasers who buy in bulk. 22. Food co-ops are a type of consumer cooperative. Consumer cooperatives offer the same products as other stores but usually more cheaply. It is therefore more economical to shop at a food co-op than at a supermarket. Which one of the following is most appropriate as an analogy demonstrating that the reasoning in the argument above is flawed?

(A) By that line of reasoning, we could conclude that people who own sports cars use much more gasoline in their cars than people who own other types of cars, since sports cars use more gasoline per mile than most other cars. (B) By that line of reasoning, we could conclude that it is better to buy frozen vegetables than fresh vegetables, since fresh vegetables are more expensive than frozen vegetables and spoil more quickly. (C) By that line of reasoning, we could conclude that a person who rides a bicycle causes more pollution per mile traveled than one who rides a public bus, since bicycling is a private means of transportation and private means of transportation tend to generate more pollution per mile traveled than do public means. (D) By that line of reasoning, we could conclude that more people must be shopping at health food stores than ever before, since people tend to choose healthful food over unhealthful food as long as the healthful food tastes at least as good, and healthful food today is better tasting than ever. (E) By that line of reasoning, we could conclude that the best way to lose weight is to increase one's consumption of artificially sweetened foods, since artificially sweetened foods have fewer calories than foods sweetened with sugar, and excessive calorie intake contributes to weight gain. 23. Editorial: The gates at most railroad crossings, while they give clear warning of oncoming trains, are not large enough to prevent automobile drivers from going around them onto the tracks. Some people claim that the ensuing accidents are partly the fault of the railroad company, but this is a mistake. Granted, if one has a small child in the house, then one ought to block access to stairs completely; but a licensed driver is a capable adult who should know better. The editorial's conclusion follows logically if which one of the following is assumed? (A) The gates could be made larger, yet irresponsible drivers might still be able to go around them onto the tracks. (B) Capable adults have a responsibility to take some measures to ensure their own safety. (C) When the warnings of companies are disregarded by capable adults, the adults are fully responsible for any resulting accidents. (D) Small children are not involved in accidents resulting from drivers going around the gates. (E) Any company's responsibility to promote public safety is not unlimited. 24. Researcher: People who participate in opinion surveys often give answers they believe the opinion surveyor expects to hear, and it is for this reason that some opinion surveys do not reflect the actual views of those being surveyed. However, in well-constructed surveys, the questions are worded so as to provide respondents with no indication of which answers the surveyor might expect. So if a survey is well constructed, survey respondents' desire to meet surveyors' expectations has no effect on the survey's results. The reasoning in the researcher's argument is questionable in that the argument overlooks the

possibility that (A) an opinion survey that disguises the surveyor's expectations may be flawed in a number of ways, some of which have nothing to do with the surveyor's expectations (B) when people who respond to opinion surveys hold strong opinions, their answers are unlikely to be influenced by other people's expectations (C) many opinion surveyors have no expectations whatsoever regarding the answers of people who respond to surveys (D) some people who know what answers an opinion surveyor expects to hear will purposefully try to thwart the surveyor's expectations (E) the answers of opinion-survey respondents can be influenced by beliefs about the surveyor's expectations even if those beliefs are unfounded 25. The availability of television reduces the amount of reading children do. When television is made unavailable, a nearly universal increase in reading, both by parents and by children, is reported. When television is available again, the level of reading by both parents and children relapses to its previous level. The reasoning in which one of the following is most similar to the reasoning above? (A) Whenever the money supply in an economy fluctuates, interest rates tend to fluctuate. When the money supply remains constant, interest rates tend to remain stable. Thus, the money supply's remaining constant stabilizes interest rates. (B) The consumption of candy between meals disrupts a child's appetite at mealtimes. When candy is not consumed, blood sugar declines until mealtime, so the child feels hungry. A child who eats healthy meals feels less desire for candy. (C) Global warming is caused by increased carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. Furthermore, industrial pollution causes increased carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. So industrial pollution causes global warming. (D) Voting behavior is affected by factors other than political candidates' records of political achievement. For example, a candidate who projects confidence will gain votes as a result, whereas a candidate with a supercilious facial expression will lose votes. (E) Adults read less than they once did because there are so many other activities to divert them. This can be seen from the fact that the more time they spend on such other activities, the less they read. Conversely, the less they read, the more time they spend on such other activities. STOP If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not work on any other section of the test.

Section 2 Time—35 minutes 27 Questions Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage or a pair of passages. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage or pair of passages. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. Having spent several decades trying to eliminate the unself-conscious "colonial gaze" characteristic of so many early ethnographic films, visual anthropologists from the industrialized West who study indigenous cultures are presently struggling with an even more profound transformation of their discipline. Because inexpensive video equipment is now available throughout the world, many indigenous peoples who were once examined by the Western ethnographer's camera have begun to document their own cultures. Reaction to this phenomenon within Western anthropological circles is sharply divided. One faction, led by anthropologist James Weiner, sees the proliferation of video and television as the final assault of Western values on indigenous cultures. Weiner argues that the spread of video represents "a devaluation of the different," culminating in the replacement of genuine historical, linguistic, social, and cultural difference with superficial difference among electronic images. He believes that video technologies inevitably purvey a Western ontology, one based on realism, immediacy, and self-expression. Thus, Weiner concludes, using video technology costs indigenous peoples the very cultural identity they seek to record. Moreover, he maintains that anthropologists who attribute a paramount truth value to these films simply because they are made by indigenous peoples are theoretically naive. But Weiner's opponents contend that his views betray a certain nostalgia for the idea of the "noble savage." One such opponent, anthropologist Faye Ginsburg, concedes that no Western object that has entered cultural circulation since the fifteenth century has been neutral, but she considers it little more than boilerplate technological determinism to argue that using a video camera makes one unwittingly Western. Unlike Weiner, Ginsburg maintains that non-Western indigenous peoples can use Western media without adopting the conventions of Western culture. In fact, Ginsburg and many other anthropologists believe that video affords societies—especially oral ones—an invaluable opportunity to strengthen native languages and traditions threatened by Western exposure. The Brazilian fieldwork of anthropologist Terence Turner, who studies the relationship between traditional Kayapo culture and Kayapo videotapes, lends credence to Ginsburg's position. Primarily an oral society, the Kayapo use video to document both ceremonial performances and transactions with representatives of the Brazilian government (this latter use is intended to provide legally binding records of the transactions). In contrast to Weiner's argument that video foists a Western ontology onto its users, Turner has found that the representations of Kayapo ceremonies, including everything from the camerawork to the editing, conform to the same principle of beauty embodied in the ceremonies themselves, one rooted in a complex pattern of repetition and sequential organization.

The videos aesthetically mirror the ceremonies. The camera is not so at odds with Kayapo culture, it seems, that it transforms any Kayapo who uses it into a Westerner. 1. Which one of the following most accurately and completely summarizes the passage? (A) Some anthropologists argue that the proliferation of video technology has been harmful to indigenous peoples because it encourages the adoption of a Western ontology based on immediacy and self-expression. (B) By making video technology available to indigenous peoples throughout the world, anthropologists have succeeded in eliminating the "colonial gaze" that many early ethnographic films exhibited. (C) Anthropologists are divided in their assessments of the impact of video technology on indigenous peoples, but there is some evidence that video technology is compatible with the preservation of indigenous cultures. (D) Some anthropologists argue that the proliferation of video technology has actually strengthened indigenous cultures threatened by Western influences, but the long-term impact of video technology on indigenous cultures is still unknown. (E) The Kayapo people's use of video technology validates the position of one faction in the debate in anthropological circles regarding the effect of the proliferation of Western video technology on indigenous cultures. 2. Based on the passage, which one of the following most accurately describes Faye Ginsburg's stance toward the position attributed to James Weiner? (A) fundamental rejection (B) reluctant censure (C) mild disapproval (D) diplomatic neutrality (E) supportive interest 3. Which one of the following is most analogous to the Kayapo's use of video to document ceremonial performances, as that use is described in the last paragraph? (A) As various groups have emigrated to North America, they have brought their culinary traditions with them and thereby altered the culinary practices of North America. (B) In the 1940s, Latin American composers incorporated African American inspired jazz instrumentation and harmonies into their music but remained faithful to the traditions of Latin American music. (C) Some writers are predicting that the interactive nature of the Internet will fundamentally reshape

fiction, and they are already producing narratives that take advantage of this capacity. (D) In the late 1980s, some fashion designers produced lines of various articles of clothing that imitated fashions that were current in the 1920s and 1930s. (E) Early in the twentieth century, some experimental European artists rejected the representational traditions of Western painting and began to produce works inspired by surrealist literature. 4. According to the passage, Weiner claims that an essential characteristic of Western ontology is (A) a pattern of sequential organization (B) paramount truth value (C) self-expression (D) the "colonial gaze" (E) theoretical naivete 5. The passage provides information that is most helpful in answering which one of the following questions? (A) Why do the Kayapo use video technology to create legal records? (B) What is the origin of the idea of the "noble savage"? (C) Which indigenous cultures have not yet adopted Western video technologies? (D) Which Western technologies entered cultural circulation in the fifteenth century? (E) What factors have made video equipment as inexpensive as it now is? 6. Terence Turner would be most likely to agree with which one of the following assessments of Weiner's position regarding the spread of video? (A) Weiner fails to recognize the vast diversity of traditional practices among the world's indigenous peoples. (B) Weiner overestimates the extent to which video technology has become available throughout the world. (C) Weiner does not fully recognize the value of preserving the traditional practices of indigenous peoples. (D) Weiner underestimates indigenous peoples' capacity for adapting the products of alien cultures to fit their own cultural values. (E) Weiner ignores the fact that, even before the spread of video, many Western technologies had

already been adapted by indigenous cultures. 7. In using the phrase "technological determinism" (second sentence of the third paragraph), the author refers to the idea that (A) technology is exchanged in ways that appear to be predestined (B) the technologies used by field anthropologists influence their views of the cultures they study (C) cultures generally evolve in the direction of greater dependence on technology (D) a culture's ethical values determine its reaction to new technologies (E) cultures are shaped in fundamental ways by the technologies they use The current approach to recusal and disqualification of judges heavily emphasizes appearance-based analysis. Professional codes of conduct for judges typically focus on the avoidance of both impropriety and the appearance of impropriety. Judges are expected to recuse (i.e., remove) themselves from any case in which their impartiality might reasonably be questioned. In some jurisdictions, statutes allow a party to a court proceeding to request disqualification of a judge for bias. In other jurisdictions, the responsibility for recusal falls upon the judge alone. The rules provide vague guidance at best, making disqualification dependent on whether the judge's impartiality "might reasonably be questioned," without giving any idea of whose perspective to take or how to interpret the facts. It is a mistake for rules governing judicial ethics to focus on the appearance of justice rather than on the elimination of bias that renders a judge cognitively incapable of properly reaching a just outcome because of a too-close personal involvement in the matter before the court. Focusing on appearances may cause sources of actual bias that are not apparent to outside observers, or even to judges themselves, to be overlooked. The function of the law is the settlement of normative disputes. Such settlement will work only if it is well reasoned. The achievement of actual justice by the use of legal reasoning is the primary function of judges. Therefore, the best way to address concerns about judicial impartiality is to require judges to make their reasoning transparent. Accordingly, we should eliminate disqualification motions alleging bias, whether actual or apparent. This unreliable mechanism should be replaced by the requirement of a written explanation of either the reasons for a judge's decision to recuse, or if the judge decides against recusal, the legal basis for the judgment reached, based on the merits of the case. That is, judges should not be required to explain why they did not recuse themselves, but rather they should be required to show the legal reasoning on the basis of which their ultimate judgments were made. A potential objection is that the reasoning given by the judge, however legally adequate, may not be the judge's real reasoning, thus allowing for the presence of undetected bias. However, as long as a knowledgeable observer cannot find any fault with the legal reasoning provided, then there are no grounds for complaint. Under the law, a right of recourse arises only if harm accrues. If a judge who had no improper considerations in mind could have reached the same conclusion for the reasons stated by a judge who had hidden reasons in mind, then there is no harm on which to base a complaint.

8. According to the passage, a weakness of current rules regarding recusal and disqualification is that they (A) interfere with judges' reasoning about the cases that they hear (B) fail to specify whose perspective is relevant to determining apparent bias (C) exaggerate the importance of transparency in judicial reasoning (D) place responsibility for recusal entirely on judges (E) ignore the importance of the appearance of propriety 9. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the primary purpose of the second paragraph? (A) to state the author's objections to the approach described in the first paragraph (B) to present a solution that is rejected in the third paragraph (C) to provide concrete examples of the problems discussed in the first paragraph (D) to explore the history that led to the situation described in the first paragraph (E) to state the thesis to be defended in the rest of the passage 10. The author of the passage regards the legal principle that "a right of recourse arises only if harm accrues" (second to last sentence of the passage) as (A) an established principle of law (B) part of the definition of the function of the law (C) a tool for judges to disguise their real reasoning (D) unfair to parties to legal proceedings (E) central to the current means of addressing judicial bias 11. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to consider which one of the following to be a weakness of statutes that allow parties to court proceedings to request disqualification of judges for bias? (A) The guidelines for applying such statutes are excessively rigid. (B) Such statutes are incompatible with a requirement that judges make their reasoning transparent. (C) Such statutes can fail to eliminate actual bias because parties to court proceedings are not always aware of judges' prejudices.

(D) Such statutes conflict with professional codes of conduct that require judges to recuse themselves if they believe that they are biased. (E) There is no guarantee that all requests for disqualification of judges will be granted. 12. The passage suggests that if judges are required to provide written explanations for the legal reasoning underlying their decisions about cases, then (A) judicial bias will be almost completely eliminated (B) any faulty reasoning employed by judges can in principle be detected (C) judges' written explanations will usually conceal their real reasoning (D) the public perception of the impartiality of the judiciary will improve (E) judges will be motivated to recuse themselves when there is an appearance of bias 13. Which one of the following would be an example of the kind of "real reasoning" referred to in the first sentence of the last paragraph of the passage? (A) the reasoning leading to a judge's decision against recusal (B) an argument that is too technical to be understood by someone without formal legal training (C) reasoning that is motivated by the judge's personal animus against a defendant (D) reasoning that a knowledgeable observer cannot find any fault with (E) a central legal principle referred to in a judge's written explanation 14. The author would be most likely to consider which one of the following to be an accurate description of the effects of the current approach to recusal and disqualification of judges? (A) The standards in place fail to assure the general public that the legal system is adequately protected against judicial bias. (B) The professional codes of conduct for judges are considered meddlesome and ineffective by many judges. (C) Judges are rarely removed from cases for bias when they are not actually biased, but they are allowed to sit on many cases even though they are biased. (D) Judges are rarely allowed to sit on cases when they are biased, but judges are removed from many cases for bias even though they are not actually biased. (E) Judges are sometimes removed from cases for bias even though they are not actually biased, while some instances of judicial bias occur and are never detected.

Passage A Saint Augustine wrote that to proceed against lies by lying would be like countering robbery with robbery. To respond to wrongdoing by emulating it is certainly at times to accept lower standards. And yet it has seemed to many that there is indeed some justification for repaying lies with lies. Such views go back as far as the kind of justice that demands an eye for an eye. They appeal to our sense of fairness: to lie to liars is to give them what they deserve, to restore an equilibrium they themselves have upset. Just as bullies forfeit the right not to be interfered with by others, so liars forfeit the right to be dealt with honestly. Two separate moral questions are involved in this debate. The first asks whether a liar has the same claim to be told the truth as an honest person. The second asks whether one is more justified in lying to a liar than to others. In order to see this distinction clearly, consider a person known by all to be a pathological liar but quite harmless. Surely, as the idea of forfeiture suggests, the liar would have no cause for complaint if lied to. But his tall tales would not constitute sufficient reason to lie to him. For the harm to self, others, and general trust that can come from the practice of lying has to be taken into account in weighing how to deal with him, not merely his personal characteristics. Passage B A view derived from Immanuel Kant holds that when rational beings act immorally toward others, then, by virtue of their status as rational beings, they implicitly authorize similar actions as punishment aimed toward themselves. That is, acting rationally, one always acts as one would have others act toward oneself. Consequently, to act toward a person as that person has acted toward others is to treat that person as a rational being, that is, as if that person's act is the product of a rational decision. From this it might be concluded that we have a duty to do to offenders what they have done, since this amounts to according them the respect due rational beings. But the assertion of a duty to punish seems excessive, since if this duty to others is necessary to accord them the respect due rational beings, then we would have a duty to do to all rational persons everything—good, bad, or indifferent—that they do to others. The point is rather that by your acts and by virtue of your status as a rational being, you authorize others to do the same to you; you do not compel them to do so. The Kantian argument leads to a right rather than a duty. Rational beings cannot validly object to being treated in the way in which they treated others. Where there is no valid complaint, there is no injustice, and where there is no injustice, others have acted within their rights. 15. Both passages are concerned with answering which one of the following questions? (A) Can immoral actions be harmless? (B) Should the same rules apply in evaluating moral wrongs and criminal wrongs? (C) Is it right to respond to a person's wrongdoing with an action of the same kind?

(D) What is the difference between a duty and a right? (E) Is it just to treat all wrongdoers as rational beings? 16. Which one of the following considerations is introduced in passage A but not in passage B? (A) the harm that may result as a consequence of treating people as they treat others (B) the consequences of not reciprocating another's wrongdoing (C) the properties an action must have to count as rational (D) the extent to which people who break moral rules are due respect (E) instances in which people have been wronged by being treated as they treated others 17. The passages are alike in that each seeks to advance its main argument by (A) anticipating and refuting the most probable objections to a theory (B) using an analogy to support its overall claim (C) focusing on a specific case to illustrate a generalization (D) suggesting that a view can have unreasonable consequences (E) offering and defending a new definition for a commonly used term 18. The author of passage A would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements? (A) Maintaining a policy of reciprocating wrongdoing fails to accord rational beings the respect that they are due. (B) People have a duty to respond to even the morally neutral actions of others with actions of the same kind. (C) It can be unjustified to treat a person in a certain way even though that person has forfeited the right not to be treated in that way. (D) There is no circumstance in which there is sufficient reason to counter a wrong with a wrong of the same kind. (E) To restore moral equilibrium, justice will occasionally require that an innocent person forfeit the right to be treated in a certain way. 19. Which one of the following most accurately characterizes the difference between the kind of right referred to in passage A (last sentence of the second paragraph of passage A) and the kind of right referred to in passage B (third to last sentence of passage B)?

(A) In passage A, the kind of right referred to is a legal right, whereas in passage B the kind of right referred to is a moral right. (B) In passage A, the kind of right referred to involves benefits granted by society, whereas in passage B the kind of right referred to involves benefits granted by an individual in a position of authority. (C) In passage A, the kind of right referred to is an entitlement held by groups of people, whereas in passage B the kind of right referred to is an entitlement held only by individuals. (D) In passage A, the kind of right referred to is something that cannot be given up, whereas in passage B the kind of right referred to is something that can be lost because of certain actions. (E) In passage A, the kind of right referred to involves behavior that one is entitled to from others, whereas in passage B the kind of right referred to involves behavior that one is licensed to engage in. 20. Which one of the following, if true, would most help to make the suggestion in passage A that a harmless pathological liar's tall tales would not constitute sufficient reason to lie to him (second to last sentence of passage A) compatible with the Kantian argument laid out in the first paragraph of passage B? (A) Responding to pathological behavior with pathological behavior is irrational. (B) Rationality cannot be reasonably attributed to pathological behavior. (C) Pathological liars, if harmless, deserve to be treated as rational beings by others. (D) Having the right to lie to a pathological liar is not equivalent to having a duty to do so. (E) To model one's behavior on that of a pathological liar is to lower one's own standards. To glass researchers it seems somewhat strange that many people throughout the world share the persistent belief that window glass flows slowly downward like a very viscous liquid. Repeated in reference books, in science classes, and elsewhere, the idea has often been invoked to explain ripply windows in old houses. The origins of the myth are unclear, but the confusion probably arose partly from a misunderstanding of the fact that the atoms in glass are not arranged in a fixed crystal structure. In this respect, the structure of liquid glass and the structure of solid glass are very similar, but thermodynamically they are not the same. Glass does not have a precise freezing point; rather, it has what is known as a glass transition temperature, typically a range of a few hundred degrees Celsius. Cooled below the lower end of this range, molten glass retains an amorphous atomic structure, but it takes on the physical properties of a solid. However, a new study debunks the persistent belief that stained glass windows in medieval cathedrals are noticeably thicker at the bottom because the glass flows downward. Under the force of gravity, certain solid materials including glass can, in fact, flow slightly. But Brazilian researcher Edgar Dutra Zanotto has calculated the time needed for viscous flow to change the thickness of different types of glass by a noticeable amount, and, according to his calculations, medieval cathedral glass

would require a period well beyond the age of the universe. The chemical composition of the glass determines the rate of flow. Even germanium oxide glass, which flows more easily than other types, would take many trillions of years to sag noticeably, Zanotto calculates. Medieval stained glass contains impurities that could lower the viscosity and speed the flow to some degree, but even a significant difference in this regard would not alter the conclusion, since the cathedrals are only several hundred years old. The study demonstrates dramatically what many scientists had reasoned earlier based on information such as the fact that for glass to have more than a negligible ability to flow, it would have to be heated to at least 350 degrees Celsius. The difference in thickness sometimes observed in antique windows probably results instead from glass manufacturing methods. Until the nineteenth century, the only way to make window glass was to blow molten glass into a large globe and then flatten it into a disk. Whirling the disk introduced ripples and thickened the edges. To achieve structural stability, it would have made sense to install these panes in such a way that the thick portions were at the bottom. Later, glass was drawn into sheets by pulling it from the melt on a rod, a method that made windows more uniform. Today, most window glass is made by floating liquid glass on molten tin. This process makes the surface extremely flat. 21. Which one of the following most accurately states the main point of the passage? (A) Zanotto's research has proven that the amount of time required for viscous flow to change the thickness of medieval cathedral glass would be greater than the age of the universe. (B) The technology of window-glass production has progressed substantially from medieval stainedglass techniques to today's production of very flat and very uniform panes. (C) After years of investigation motivated partly by a common misunderstanding about the structure of glass, scientists have developed ways of precisely calculating even extremely slow rates of gravity-induced flow in solids such as glass. (D) Recent research provides evidence that although solid glass flows slightly under the influence of gravity, such flow is only one of several factors that have contributed to noticeable differences in thickness between the top and the bottom of some old windows. (E) Contrary to a commonly held belief, noticeable differences in thickness between the top and the bottom of some old glass windows are not due to the flowing of solid glass, but probably result instead from old glassworking techniques. 22. The passage most helps to answer which one of the following questions? (A) What is one way in which seventeenth-century windowpane manufacturing techniques differ from those commonly used in medieval times? (B) What is one way in which nineteenth-century windowpane manufacturing techniques differ from those commonly used today?

(C) Was glass ever used in windows prior to medieval times? (D) Are unevenly thick stained-glass windowpanes ever made of germanium oxide glass? (E) How did there come to be impurities in medieval stained glass? 23. Which one of the following best summarizes the author's view of the results of Zanotto's study? (A) They provide some important quantitative data to support a view that was already held by many scientists. (B) They have stimulated important new research regarding an issue that scientists previously thought had been settled. (C) They offer a highly plausible explanation of how a mistaken hypothesis came to be widely believed. (D) They provide a conceptual basis for reconciling two scientific views that were previously thought to be incompatible. (E) They suggest that neither of two hypotheses adequately explains a puzzling phenomenon. 24. The passage suggests that the atomic structure of glass is such that glass will (A) behave as a liquid even though it has certain properties of solids (B) be noticeably deformed by the force of its own weight over a period of a few millennia (C) behave as a solid even when it has reached its glass transition temperature (D) flow downward under its own weight if it is heated to its glass transition temperature (E) stop flowing only if the atoms are arranged in a fixed crystalline structure 25. The author of the passage attributes the belief that window glass flows noticeably downward over time to the erroneous assumption that (A) the atomic structure of solid glass is crystalline rather than amorphous (B) the amorphous atomic structure of glass causes it to behave like a very viscous liquid even in its solid form (C) methods of glass making in medieval times were similar to the methods used in modern times (D) the transition temperature of the glass used in medieval windows is the same as that of the glass used in modern windows (E) liquid glass and solid glass are thermodynamically dissimilar 26. Which one of the following is most analogous to the persistent belief about glass described in the

passage? (A) Most people believe that the tendency of certain fabrics to become wrinkled cannot be corrected during the manufacturing process. (B) Most people believe that certain flaws in early pottery were caused by the material used rather than the process used in manufacturing the pottery. (C) Most people believe that inadequate knowledge of manufacturing techniques shortens the life span of major appliances. (D) Most people believe that modern furniture made on an assembly line is inferior to individually crafted furniture. (E) Most people believe that modern buildings are able to withstand earthquakes because they are made from more durable materials than were older buildings. 27. The passage suggests that which one of the following statements accurately characterizes the transition temperature of glass? (A) It is higher for medieval glass than for modern glass. (B) It has only recently been calculated with precision. (C) Its upper extreme is well above 350 degrees Celsius. (D) It does not affect the tendency of some kinds of glass to flow downward. (E) For some types of glass, it is a specific temperature well below 350 degrees Celsius. STOP If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not work on any other section of the test.

Section 3 Time—35 minutes 25 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. 1. When industries rapidly apply new technology, people who possess the skills and knowledge to master it prosper, while many others lose their jobs. But firms that resist technological innovations will eventually be superseded by those that do not, resulting in the loss of all their employees' jobs. Obviously, then, resisting the application of new technology in industry _______. Which one of the following most logically completes the argument? (A) is less likely to dislocate workers than it is to create job security for them (B) will affect only those who possess technical skills (C) cannot prevent job loss in the long run (D) eventually creates more jobs than it destroys (E) must take priority over any attempt to promote new industries 2. While sales of other highly fuel-efficient automobiles are in decline, sales of the Hydro are rising. The Hydro's manufacturers attribute its success to the Hydro's price and very low fuel consumption. However, the Hydro is comparable in price and fuel efficiency to its competitors, so it is more likely that its success is due to the fact that people want to appear environmentally conscious to their neighbors. Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument? (A) The Hydro is the most popular highly fuel-efficient automobile available. (B) The Hydro is recognizable as environmentally friendly in a way that its competitors are not. (C) The Hydro has a better safety record than its competitors. (D) Hydro buyers are more likely to have neighbors who also drive Hydros. (E) Hydro buyers have less interest in environmental causes than buyers of other highly fuel-efficient automobiles.

3. Louise McBride, a homeowner, filed a complaint against a nearby nightclub through the Licensing Bureau, a government agency. Although regulations clearly state that Form 283 is to be used for formal complaints, Bureau staff gave McBride Form 5, which she used with the intention of filing a formal complaint. The nightclub argues that the complaint should be dismissed because the incorrect form was used. But that would be unfair. Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify the judgment that dismissing the complaint would be unfair? (A) People who wish to file complaints through the Licensing Bureau should be informed of all relevant regulations. (B) Government agencies should make their forms straightforward enough that completing them will not be unduly burdensome for the average person. (C) It is unfair for someone's complaint to be dismissed because of an incorrect action on the part of a government agency. (D) A government agency should not make its procedures so complex that even the agency's employees cannot understand the procedures. (E) It is unfair for a business to be subject to a formal complaint unless the complaint is made in a way that provides the business with an opportunity to defend itself. 4. The size of the spleen is a good indicator of how healthy a bird is: sickly birds generally have significantly smaller spleens than healthy birds. Researchers found that, in general, birds that had been killed by predators had substantially smaller spleens than birds killed accidentally. Which one of the following is most strongly supported by the information above? (A) Predators are unable to kill healthy birds. (B) Most birds with smaller than average spleens are killed by predators. (C) Predators can sense whether a bird is sick. (D) Sickly birds are more likely than healthy birds to be killed by predators. (E) Small spleen size is one of the main causes of sickness in birds. 5. Home ownership is a sign of economic prosperity. This makes it somewhat surprising that across the various regions of Europe and North America, high levels of home ownership correspond with high levels of unemployment. Which one of the following, if true, helps to resolve the apparent conflict described above? (A) Home ownership makes it more difficult to move to a place where jobs are more plentiful. (B) Over the last few decades jobs have been moving from centralized areas to locations that are

closer to homeowners. (C) The correspondence between high levels of home ownership and high levels of unemployment holds across countries with widely different social systems. (D) People who own homes are more likely than those who rent to form support networks that help them to learn of local jobs. (E) People are more likely to buy homes when they are feeling economically secure. 6. If newly hatched tobacco hornworms in nature first feed on plants from the nightshade family, they will not eat leaves from any other plants thereafter. However, tobacco hornworms will feed on other sorts of plants if they feed on plants other than nightshades just after hatching. To explain this behavior, scientists hypothesize that when a hornworm's first meal is from a nightshade, its taste receptors become habituated to the chemical indioside D, which is found only in nightshades, and after this habituation nothing without indioside D tastes good. Which one of the following, if true, adds the most support for the hypothesis? (A) Tobacco hornworms that first fed on nightshade leaves show no preference for any one variety of nightshade plant over any other. (B) If taste receptors are removed from tobacco hornworms that first fed on nightshade leaves, those hornworms will subsequently feed on other leaves. (C) Tobacco hornworm eggs are most commonly laid on nightshade plants. (D) Indioside D is not the only chemical that occurs only in nightshade plants. (E) The taste receptors of the tobacco hornworm have physiological reactions to several naturally occurring chemicals. 7. Employee: My boss says that my presentation to our accounting team should have included more detail about profit projections. But people's attention tends to wander when they are presented with too much detail. So, clearly my boss is incorrect. The reasoning in the employee's argument is flawed because the argument (A) takes for granted that the boss's assessments of employee presentations are generally not accurate (B) fails to distinguish between more of something and too much of it (C) fails to consider that an audience's attention might wander for reasons other than being presented with too much detail (D) infers a generalization based only on a single case (E) confuses two distinct meanings of the key term "detail"

8. The local news media have long heralded Clemens as an honest politician. They were proven wrong when Clemens was caught up in a corruption scandal. This demonstrates how the local media show too much deference toward public figures. Even the editor of the local newspaper admitted that her reporters neglected to follow leads that might have exposed the scandal far earlier. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the overall conclusion drawn in the argument? (A) Clemens has long been portrayed as an honest politician by the local news media. (B) The local news media were wrong to herald Clemens as an honest politician. (C) The local news media show too much deference toward public figures. (D) Reporters from the local newspaper neglected to follow leads that might have exposed the scandal much earlier. (E) The local newspaper's treatment of Clemens is indicative of its treatment of public figures in general. 9. We know that if life ever existed on the Moon, there would be signs of life there. But numerous excursions to the Moon have failed to provide us with any sign of life. So there has never been life on the Moon. The pattern of reasoning in the argument above is most similar to that in which one of the following? (A) We know that the spy is a traitor. We do not know that the general is a traitor. So the general is not a spy. (B) If we have any mayonnaise, it would be in the refrigerator. But the refrigerator is almost empty. So it is unlikely that we have mayonnaise. (C) Hendricks will win the election only if voters are concerned primarily with fighting crime. Hendricks is in favor of tougher criminal penalties. So voters will probably go with Hendricks. (D) If rodents are responsible for the lost grain from last year's harvest, we would find signs of rodents in the warehouses. And we have found signs of rodents there. So rodents are responsible for the lost grain. (E) If their army is planning an attack, there would either be troop movements along the border or a transfer of weapons. But intelligence reports show no indication of either. So their army is not planning an attack. 10. Television host: While it's true that the defendant presented a strong alibi and considerable exculpatory evidence and was quickly acquitted by the jury, I still believe that there must be good reason to think that the defendant is not completely innocent in the case. Otherwise, the prosecutor would not have brought charges in the first place. The reasoning in the television host's argument is flawed in that the argument

(A) takes lack of evidence for a view as grounds for concluding that the view is false (B) presupposes as evidence the conclusion that it is trying to establish (C) places undue reliance on the judgments of an authority figure (D) confuses legal standards for guilt with moral standards for guilt (E) concludes that a judgment is suspicious merely on the grounds that it was reached quickly 11. Literature professor: Critics charge that the work of C. F. Providence's best-known follower, S. N. Sauk, lacks aesthetic merit because it employs Providence's own uniquely potent system of symbolic motifs in the service of a political ideal that Providence—and, significantly, some of these critics as well—would reject. Granting that Sauk is more imitator than innovator, and that he maintained political views very different from those Providence maintained, it has yet to be shown that these facts make his writings any less subtly or powerfully crafted than those of his more esteemed mentor. So the critics' argument should be rejected. The literature professor argues that the conclusion drawn by the critics has not really been established, on the grounds that (A) the claims made in support of this conclusion are inaccurate (B) Sauk's work has aesthetic merit (C) these critics are motivated by antipathy toward Sauk's political ideas (D) the claims made in support of this conclusion have not been shown to be correct (E) the claims made in support of this conclusion have not been shown to be relevant to it 12. Policy: The factory's safety inspector should not approve a new manufacturing process unless it has been used safely for more than a year at another factory or it will demonstrably increase safety at the factory. Application: The safety inspector should not approve the proposed new welding process, for it cannot be shown to increase safety at the factory. Which one of the following, if true, justifies the above application of the policy? (A) The factory at which the new welding process was first introduced has had several problems associated with the process. (B) The proposed new welding process has not been used in any other factory. (C) Some of the manufacturing processes currently in use at the factory are not demonstrably safer than the new welding process. (D) The safety inspector will not approve any new process that has not been used extensively

elsewhere. (E) The proposed new welding process has been used in only one other factory. 13. University administrator: Graduate students incorrectly claim that teaching assistants should be considered university employees and thus entitled to the usual employee benefits. Granted, teaching assistants teach classes, for which they receive financial compensation. However, the sole purpose of having teaching assistants perform services for the university is to enable them to fund their education. If they were not pursuing degrees here or if they could otherwise fund their education, they would not hold their teaching posts at all. Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the administrator's argument? (A) The administrator is cognizant of the extra costs involved in granting employee benefits to teaching assistants. (B) The university employs adjunct instructors who receive compensation similar to that of its teaching assistants. (C) The university has proposed that in the interest of economy, 10 percent of the faculty be replaced with teaching assistants. (D) Most teaching assistants earn stipends that exceed their cost of tuition. (E) Teaching assistants work as much and as hard as do other university employees. 14. Branson: Most of the air pollution in this country comes from our largest cities. These cities would pollute less if they were less populated. So if many people in these cities were to move to rural areas, air pollution in the country as a whole would be reduced. Which one of the following demonstrates most effectively by parallel reasoning that Branson's argument is flawed? (A) Similarly, we could conclude that Monique spends most of her salary on housing. After all, people are bound to spend more on housing if they live in a city where the cost of housing is high, and Monique recently moved to a city where the cost of housing is very high. (B) Similarly, we could conclude that Karen's family would have more living space if they moved from an apartment to a single-family home. After all, single-family homes are typically larger than apartments. (C) Similarly, we could conclude that most of Ward's farm is planted with corn. After all, in Ward's county most of the fields that used to be planted with other crops are now planted with corn. (D) Similarly, we could conclude that Javier could consume fewer calories by eating for breakfast, lunch, and dinner only a portion of what he now eats, and eating the remainder as snacks. After all, breakfast, lunch, and dinner together account for most of the calories Javier consumes. (E) Similarly, we could conclude that most of this city's air pollution would be eliminated if this city

built a public transportation system. After all, public transportation produces much less pollution per passenger, and all automobile trips could be replaced by trips on public transportation. 15. Ninety percent of recent car buyers say safety was an important factor in their purchase. Yet of these car buyers, only half consulted objective sources of vehicle safety information before making their purchase; the others relied on advertisements and promotional materials. Thus, these other buyers were mistaken in saying that safety was important to them. The argument's conclusion follows logically if which one of the following is assumed? (A) Someone who claims that safety was an important factor in a buying decision does not necessarily mean that safety was the most important factor. (B) Advertisements and promotional materials sometimes provide incomplete vehicle safety information. (C) Recent car buyers do not necessarily tell the truth when asked about the factors that contributed to their vehicle purchases. (D) Most consumers are aware that advertisements and promotional materials are not objective sources of vehicle safety information. (E) Anyone to whom safety is an important factor in purchasing a car will consult an objective source of vehicle safety information before buying. 16. Theorist: To be capable of planned locomotion, an organism must be able both to form an internal representation of its environment and to send messages to its muscles to control movements. Such an organism must therefore have a central nervous system. Thus, an organism incapable of planned locomotion does not have a central nervous system. The theorist's argument is flawed in that it (A) confuses a necessary condition for an organism's possessing a capacity with a sufficient one (B) takes for granted that organisms capable of sending messages from their central nervous systems to their muscles are also capable of locomotion (C) presumes, without providing justification, that planned locomotion is the only biologically useful purpose for an organism's forming an internal representation of its environment (D) takes for granted that adaptations that serve a biologically useful purpose originally came about for that purpose (E) presumes, without providing justification, that an internal representation of its environment can be formed by an organism with even a rudimentary nervous system 17. Rocket engines are most effective when exhaust gases escape from their nozzles at the same pressure as the surrounding atmosphere. At low altitudes, where atmospheric pressure is high, this effect is best produced by a short nozzle, but when the rocket passes through the thin upper

atmosphere, a long nozzle becomes more effective. Thus, to work most effectively throughout their ascents, all rockets must have both short nozzles and long nozzles on their engines. Which one of the following is an assumption the argument requires? (A) Equipping a rocket's engines with both short and long nozzles is not significantly more difficult than equipping them with nozzles of equal lengths. (B) At some point during their ascents, all rockets will pass through the thin upper atmosphere. (C) A rocket with only short nozzles on its engines cannot reach high altitudes. (D) For a rocket to work effectively, its engines' exhaust gases must leave the nozzles at the same pressure as the surrounding atmosphere throughout the rocket's ascent. (E) For a rocket to work most effectively at both low and high atmospheric pressures, it must have at least one engine that has both a short nozzle and a long nozzle. 18. Consumer advocate: Manufacturers of children's toys often place warnings on their products that overstate the dangers their products pose. Product-warning labels should overstate dangers only if doing so reduces injuries. In fact, however, manufacturers overstate their products' dangers merely for the purpose of protecting themselves from lawsuits brought by parents of injured children. Therefore, manufacturers of children's toys should not overstate the dangers their products pose. Which one of the following most accurately describes a reasoning flaw in the consumer advocate's argument? (A) The argument confuses a necessary condition for reducing the number of injuries caused by a product with a sufficient condition. (B) The argument overlooks the possibility that warnings that do not overstate the dangers that their products pose do not always reduce injuries. (C) The argument relies on a sample that is unlikely to be representative. (D) The argument presumes, without providing justification, that if a warning overstates a danger, then the warning will fail to prevent injuries. (E) The argument relies on the unjustified assumption that an action has an effect only if it was performed in order to bring about that effect. 19. A recent study showed that the immune system blood cells of the study's participants who drank tea but no coffee took half as long to respond to germs as did the blood cells of participants who drank coffee but no tea. Thus, drinking tea boosted the participants' immune system defenses. Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends? (A) All of the participants in the study drank either tea or coffee, and none drank both.

(B) Coffee has no health benefits that are as valuable as the boost that tea purportedly gives to the body's immune system. (C) In the study, drinking coffee did not cause the blood cell response time to double. (D) Coffee drinkers in general are no more likely to exercise and eat healthily than are tea drinkers. (E) Coffee and tea do not have in common any chemicals that fight disease in the human body. 20. Engineer: Semiplaning monohulls are a new kind of ship that can attain twice the speed of conventional ships. Due to increased fuel needs, transportation will be much more expensive on semiplaning monohulls than on conventional ships. Similarly, travel on jet airplanes was more expensive than travel on other planes at first, but jet airplanes still attracted enough passengers to be profitable, because they offered greater speed and reliability. Semiplaning monohulls offer the same advantages over traditional ships. Thus they will probably be profitable as well. Which one of the following most accurately describes the role played in the engineer's argument by the statement that transportation will be much more expensive on semiplaning monohulls than on traditional ships? (A) It serves as one of two analogies drawn between semiplaning monohulls and jet airplanes, which function together to support the argument's main conclusion. (B) It draws an analogy between semiplaning monohulls and conventional ships that constitutes an objection to the argument's main conclusion, one that is subsequently rejected by appeal to another analogy. (C) It draws a distinction between characteristics of semiplaning monohulls and characteristics of conventional ships that independently provides support for the argument's main conclusion. (D) It constitutes a potential objection to the argument's main conclusion, but is subsequently countered by an analogy drawn between ships and airplanes. (E) It draws a distinction between characteristics of semiplaning monohulls and characteristics of conventional ships that the argument's main conclusion compares to a distinction between types of airplanes. 21. Maté is a beverage found in much of South America. While it is uncertain where maté was first made, there are more varieties of it found in Paraguay than anywhere else. Also, maté is used more widely there than anywhere else. Therefore, Paraguay is likely the place where maté originated. Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument? (A) It is rare for there to be a great variety of types of a beverage in a place where the beverage has not been in use for a very long time. (B) Many Paraguayans believe that maté became popular at a time when people from other areas of South America were first migrating to Paraguay.

(C) Many Paraguayans believe that the best maté is found in Paraguay. (D) There are few places outside of South America where maté is regularly consumed. (E) Typically, the longer a beverage has been in use in a particular place, the more widely that beverage is used there. 22. From 1996 to 2004, the average family income in a certain country decreased by 10 percent, after adjustments for inflation. Opponents of the political party that ruled during this time claim that this was due to mismanagement of the economy by that party. Each of the following rejoinders, if true, directly counters the opponents' explanation of the decrease in average family income EXCEPT: (A) There had been a rise in family income in 1996, after adjustments for inflation. (B) For noneconomic reasons, fewer families had multiple incomes at the end of the period than at the beginning. (C) During the period, international events beyond the control of the country's government had a negative effect on family incomes in the country. (D) Younger wage earners usually earn less than older ones, and the average age of household wage earners fell during most years in the past several decades. (E) The biggest decreases in family income resulted from policies enacted before the ruling party came to power in 1996. 23. Amateur gardeners who plant based on the phases of the moon tend to get better results than those who do not. This seems surprising since the phases of the moon do not affect how plants grow. An alternative practice often found among amateur gardeners is to plant during the first warm spell of spring, which leads to problems when a frost follows. So, amateur gardeners who use the phases of the moon are less likely to lose plants to a frost. The argument requires assuming which one of the following? (A) Using the phases of the moon usually leads amateur gardeners to plant later in the spring than those planting at the first warm spell. (B) The phases of the moon affect whether a frost follows the first warm spell of spring. (C) Amateur gardeners who use the phases of the moon tend to plant different types of plants than do other amateur gardeners. (D) Amateur gardeners cannot improve their results unless they understand why their methods work as they do. (E) Professional gardeners only rarely plant at the first warm spell of spring.

24. Columnist: On average, about 70 percent of the profit from tourism in developing countries goes to foreign owners of tourist businesses. In general, as a country becomes a more established tourist destination, the proportion of revenues exported in this way increases. However, tourists can counteract this effect by obtaining accommodations and other services directly from local people. Which one of the following is most strongly supported by the statements made by the columnist? (A) Tourists in a developing nation should obtain accommodations and other services directly from local people if most of the profits from tourism in that nation go to foreign owners of tourist businesses. (B) In at least some of the developing countries that are most established as tourist destinations, most of the profits from tourism go to foreign owners of tourist businesses. (C) In at least some developing countries, tourists obtain most of their accommodations and other services directly from local people. (D) In general, as a developing country becomes a more established tourist destination, local people become progressively poorer. (E) Tourists who obtain accommodations and other services directly from local people do not contribute in any way to the profits of foreign owners of tourist businesses. 25. The populations of certain species of amphibians have declined dramatically in recent years, an effect many scientists attribute to industrial pollution. However, most amphibian species' populations vary greatly from year to year because of natural variations in the weather. It is therefore impossible to be sure that the recent decline in those amphibian populations is due to industrial pollution. The argument depends on assuming which one of the following? (A) The amphibian species whose population declines have been attributed by many scientists to industrial pollution are not known to be among those species whose populations do not vary greatly as a result of natural variations in the weather. (B) The variations in amphibian species' populations that result from natural variations in the weather are not always as large as the amphibian population declines that scientists have attributed to industrial pollution. (C) Either industrial pollution or natural variations in the weather, but not both, caused the amphibian population declines that scientists have attributed to industrial pollution. (D) If industrial pollution were reduced, the decline in certain amphibian populations would be reversed, and if industrial pollution increases, the decline in certain amphibian populations will be exacerbated. (E) If industrial pollution is severe, it can create more variations in the weather than would occur naturally. STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not work on any other section of the test.

Section 4 Time—35 minutes 23 Questions Directions: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. Questions 1–6 A corporation's Human Resources department must determine annual bonuses for seven employees— Kimura, Lopez, Meng, and Peterson, who work in the Finance department; and Vaughan, Xavier, and Zane, who work in the Graphics department. Each employee will receive either a $1,000 bonus, a $3,000 bonus, or a $5,000 bonus, in accordance with the following: No one in the Graphics department receives a $1,000 bonus. Any employee who was rated Highly Effective receives a larger bonus than anyone in his or her department who was not rated Highly Effective. Only Lopez, Meng, and Xavier were rated Highly Effective. 1. Which one of the following is an allowable distribution of bonuses to the seven employees? (A) [Finance] Kimura: $1,000; Lopez: $5,000; Meng: $5,000; Peterson: $1,000 [Graphics] Vaughan: $3,000; Xavier: $3,000; Zane: $3,000 (B) [Finance] Kimura: $1,000; Lopez: $5,000; Meng: $5,000; Peterson: $3,000 [Graphics] Vaughan: $3,000; Xavier: $5,000; Zane: $1,000 (C) [Finance] Kimura: $1,000; Lopez: $5,000; Meng: $5,000; Peterson: $3,000 [Graphics] Vaughan: $3,000; Xavier: $5,000; Zane: $3,000 (D) [Finance] Kimura: $3,000; Lopez: $5,000; Meng: $3,000; Peterson: $1,000 [Graphics] Vaughan: $3,000; Xavier: $5,000; Zane: $3,000 (E) [Finance] Kimura: $3,000; Lopez: $5,000; Meng: $5,000; Peterson: $1,000 [Graphics] Vaughan: $1,000; Xavier: $5,000; Zane: $3,000 2. If Lopez does not receive the same bonus as Meng, which one of the following could be true? (A) Kimura receives a $3,000 bonus. (B) Lopez receives a $3,000 bonus. (C) Peterson receives a $3,000 bonus.

(D) Kimura receives the same bonus as Vaughan. (E) Peterson receives a larger bonus than Kimura. 3. If only one of the employees receives a $1,000 bonus, which one of the following must be true? (A) Meng receives a $5,000 bonus. (B) Peterson receives a $3,000 bonus. (C) Meng receives a $3,000 bonus. (D) The employee who receives a $1,000 bonus is Peterson. (E) The employee who receives a $1,000 bonus is Kimura. 4. Which one of the following must be true? (A) At least one of the employees receives a $1,000 bonus. (B) At least three of the employees receive $3,000 bonuses. (C) At most three of the employees receive $3,000 bonuses. (D) At least two of the employees receive $5,000 bonuses. (E) At most three of the employees receive $5,000 bonuses. 5. If exactly two of the employees receive $5,000 bonuses, which one of the following must be true? (A) Lopez receives a $3,000 bonus. (B) Meng receives a $3,000 bonus. (C) Meng is one of the employees who receives a $5,000 bonus. (D) Peterson receives a $1,000 bonus. (E) Peterson receives a $3,000 bonus. 6. Any of the following could be true of the seven employees EXCEPT: (A) The same number receive $1,000 bonuses as receive $3,000 bonuses. (B) More receive $1,000 bonuses than receive $3,000 bonuses. (C) The same number receive $1,000 bonuses as receive $5,000 bonuses. (D) More receive $1,000 bonuses than receive $5,000 bonuses.

(E) More receive $3,000 bonuses than receive $5,000 bonuses. Questions 7–11 A landscaper will plant exactly seven trees today—a hickory, a larch, a maple, an oak, a plum, a sycamore, and a walnut. Each tree must be planted on exactly one of three lots—1, 2, or 3—in conformity with the following requirements: The trees planted on one lot are the hickory, the oak, and exactly one other tree. The maple is not planted on the same lot as the walnut. Either the larch or the walnut, but not both, is planted on lot 1. Either the maple or the oak, but not both, is planted on lot 2. More trees are planted on lot 3 than on lot 1. 7. Which one of the following could be the list of the trees that the landscaper plants on each of the lots today? (A) lot 1: the larch, the maple lot 2: the hickory, the oak lot 3: the plum, the sycamore, the walnut (B) lot 1: the larch, the maple lot 2: the hickory, the oak, the walnut lot 3: the plum, the sycamore (C) lot 1: the maple lot 2: the hickory, the larch, the oak lot 3: the plum, the sycamore, the walnut (D) lot 1: the sycamore, the walnut lot 2: the larch, the maple lot 3: the hickory, the oak, the plum (E) lot 1: the walnut lot 2: the plum, the sycamore lot 3: the hickory, the maple, the oak 8. If the hickory is planted on lot 2, then which one of the following trees must be planted on lot 3? (A) the larch (B) the maple (C) the plum

(D) the sycamore (E) the walnut 9. Which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the trees any of which could be planted on lot 1? (A) the hickory, the plum, the sycamore, the walnut (B) the hickory, the sycamore, the walnut (C) the larch, the plum, the sycamore, the walnut (D) the larch, the plum, the walnut (E) the plum, the sycamore, the walnut 10. If the walnut is planted on lot 3, then which one of the following could be true? (A) The sycamore is planted on lot 1. (B) The hickory is planted on lot 2. (C) The larch is planted on lot 2. (D) The plum is planted on lot 3. (E) The sycamore is planted on lot 3. 11. Where each of the trees is planted is completely determined if which one of the following trees is planted on lot 2? (A) the walnut (B) the sycamore (C) the plum (D) the maple (E) the larch Questions 12–18 Seven librarians—Flynn, Gomez, Hill, Kitson, Leung, Moore, and Zahn—are being scheduled for desk duty for one week—Monday through Saturday. The librarians will be on duty exactly one day each. On each day except Saturday, there will be exactly one librarian on duty, with two on duty on Saturday, subject to the following constraints: Hill must be on desk duty earlier in the week than Leung.

Both Hill and Moore must be on desk duty earlier in the week than Gomez. Flynn must be on desk duty earlier in the week than both Kitson and Moore. Kitson must be on desk duty earlier in the week than Zahn. Unless Leung is on desk duty on Saturday, Leung must be on desk duty earlier in the week than Flynn. 12. Which one of the following is an acceptable schedule for the librarians, listed in order from Monday through Saturday? (A) Flynn; Hill; Moore; Kitson; Zahn; Gomez and Leung (B) Flynn; Moore; Hill; Leung; Kitson; Gomez and Zahn (C) Hill; Kitson; Moore; Flynn; Gomez; Leung and Zahn (D) Hill; Leung; Flynn; Moore; Zahn; Gomez and Kitson (E) Leung; Flynn; Kitson; Moore; Hill; Gomez and Zahn 13. Which one of the following CANNOT be on desk duty on Tuesday? (A) Flynn (B) Hill (C) Kitson (D) Moore (E) Zahn 14. If Kitson is on desk duty earlier in the week than Moore, which one of the following CANNOT be true? (A) Flynn is on desk duty earlier in the week than Leung. (B) Gomez is on desk duty earlier in the week than Kitson. (C) Gomez is on desk duty earlier in the week than Zahn. (D) Hill is on desk duty earlier in the week than Kitson. (E) Zahn is on desk duty earlier in the week than Moore. 15. If Zahn is on desk duty on Thursday, which one of the following must be true? (A) Flynn is on desk duty earlier in the week than Leung.

(B) Hill is on desk duty earlier in the week than Flynn. (C) Hill is on desk duty earlier in the week than Moore. (D) Hill is on desk duty earlier in the week than Zahn. (E) Kitson is on desk duty earlier in the week than Moore. 16. If Moore is on desk duty on Tuesday, which one of the following must be true? (A) Hill is on desk duty on Thursday. (B) Kitson is on desk duty on Thursday. (C) Leung is on desk duty on Saturday. (D) Zahn is on desk duty on Friday. (E) Zahn is on desk duty on Saturday. 17. If Flynn is on desk duty earlier in the week than Hill, which one of the following must be true? (A) Hill is on desk duty earlier in the week than Kitson. (B) Hill is on desk duty earlier in the week than Zahn. (C) Kitson is on desk duty earlier in the week than Moore. (D) Moore is on desk duty earlier in the week than Leung. (E) Moore is on desk duty earlier in the week than Zahn. 18. Which one of the following, if substituted for the constraint that Flynn must be on desk duty earlier in the week than both Kitson and Moore, would have the same effect in determining the schedule for the librarians? (A) Flynn cannot be on desk duty on Thursday. (B) Only Flynn or Hill can be on desk duty on Monday. (C) Only Hill and Leung can be on desk duty earlier than Flynn. (D) Flynn must be on desk duty earlier in the week than both Gomez and Kitson. (E) Flynn must be on desk duty earlier in the week than both Moore and Zahn. Questions 19–23 Each issue of a business newsletter has five slots, numbered 1 through 5. The policy of the newsletter requires that there are at least three features per issue, with each feature completely occupying one or

more of the slots. Each feature can be one of four types—finance, industry, marketing, or technology. Any slot not containing a feature contains a graphic. The newsletter's policy further requires that each issue be structured as follows: Any feature occupying more than one slot must occupy consecutively numbered slots. If an issue has any finance or technology feature, then a finance or technology feature must occupy slot 1. An issue can have at most one industry feature. 19. Which one of the following is an allowable structure for an issue of the newsletter? (A) slot 1: a finance feature; slot 2: an industry feature; slot 3: a second industry feature; slot 4: a graphic; slot 5: a graphic (B) slot 1: a graphic; slot 2: a technology feature; slot 3: a second technology feature; slot 4: a graphic; slot 5: a third technology feature (C) slots 1 and 2: a single industry feature; slots 3 and 4: a single marketing feature; slot 5: a finance feature (D) slot 1: a technology feature; slots 2 and 3: a single industry feature; slot 4: a finance feature; slot 5: a graphic (E) slot 1: a technology feature; slots 2 and 4: a single marketing feature; slot 3: an industry feature; slot 5: a graphic 20. If an issue of the newsletter has no technology feature and if there is a finance feature that occupies both slots 4 and 5, then which one of the following is required for that issue? (A) A finance feature occupies slot 1. (B) A finance feature occupies slot 2 or slot 3 or both. (C) A marketing feature occupies slot 2. (D) An industry feature or a marketing feature occupies slot 2. (E) An industry feature or a marketing feature occupies slot 3. 21. Which one of the following is NOT allowed for an issue of the newsletter? (A) There is exactly one industry feature, and it occupies slot 1. (B) There is exactly one finance feature, and it occupies slot 2. (C) There is exactly one technology feature, and it occupies slot 3.

(D) Each feature except the feature occupying slot 1 is either a finance feature or a marketing feature. (E) Each feature except the feature occupying slot 5 is either an industry feature or a marketing feature. 22. If, in a particular issue of the newsletter, slot 1 is occupied by the only industry feature in that issue, then which one of the following is required for that issue? (A) There is an industry feature that occupies slots 1 and 2, and only those slots. (B) There is an industry feature that occupies slots 1, 2, and 3, and only those slots. (C) There is a marketing feature that occupies slot 2 or slot 3 or both. (D) There is a marketing feature that occupies one or more of slots 2, 3, and 4. (E) There is a marketing feature that occupies slot 3 or slot 5 or both. 23. Any of the following is allowed for an issue of the newsletter EXCEPT: (A) There is exactly one finance feature and no industry or marketing feature. (B) There is exactly one industry feature and no finance or marketing feature. (C) There is exactly one industry feature and no marketing or technology feature. (D) There is exactly one marketing feature and no finance or technology feature. (E) There is exactly one marketing feature and no industry or technology feature. STOP If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not work on any other section of the test.

Acknowledgment is made to the following sources from which material has been adapted for use in this test booklet: Sissela Bok, Lying: Moral Choice in Public and Private Life. ©1978 by Sissela Bok. Sarah M. R. Cravens, “In Pursuit of Actual Justice” in Alabama Law Review. ©2007 by Alabama Law Review. John Palattella, “Pictures of Us.” ©1998 by Lingua Franca. Jeffrey Reiman, “Justice, Civilization, and the Death Penalty.” ©1985 by Princeton University Press. C. Wu, “Analysis Shatters Cathedral Glass Myth.” ©1998 by Science Service.

Wait for the supervisor's instructions before you open the page to the topic. Please print and sign your name and write the date in the designated spaces below. Time: 35 Minutes General Directions You will have 35 minutes in which to plan and write an essay on the topic inside. Read the topic and the accompanying directions carefully. You will probably find it best to spend a few minutes considering the topic and organizing your thoughts before you begin writing. In your essay, be sure to develop your ideas fully, leaving time, if possible, to review what you have written. Do not write on a topic other than the one specified. Writing on a topic of your own choice is not acceptable. No special knowledge is required or expected for this writing exercise. Law schools are interested in the reasoning, clarity, organization, language usage, and writing mechanics displayed in your essay. How well you write is more important than how much you write. Confine your essay to the blocked, lined area on the front and back of the separate Writing Sample Response Sheet. Only that area will be reproduced for law schools. Be sure that your writing is legible. Both this topic sheet and your response sheet must be turned in to the testing staff before you leave the room.

LSAT Writing Sample Topic ©2015 by Law School Admission Council, Inc. All rights reserved. Directions: The scenario presented below describes two choices, either one of which can be supported on the basis of the information given. Your essay should consider both choices and argue for one over the other, based on the two specified criteria and the facts provided. There is no "right" or "wrong" choice: a reasonable argument can be made for either.

Topic History professor Talia Cordero has just finished a history book manuscript. Two different companies have offered to publish the manuscript, and Cordero must decide which offer to accept. Using the facts below, write an essay in which you argue for one offer over the other based on the following two criteria: Cordero wants to maximize the influence her book's ideas have on the study of history. Cordero wants to retain as many rights as possible over future use of the book's content. Penwright Publishing is a major generalized academic press. The principal history journals frequently review Penwright's new history publications. These reviews often influence historians' decisions about what to read. Penwright has been slow to embrace electronic publishing. Their contract would give them exclusive publishing rights to Cordero's manuscript for 25 years. During that time, neither Cordero nor Penwright could allow more than a few paragraphs of the book to be used in other publications without first obtaining the other's permission. Woodville Press is an up-and-coming academic press focusing on humanities publications. Woodville will soon market a new series of books as being on important topics in history. Cordero's book would be the first publication in the series. To promote the series, Woodville's website would initially offer both electronic and paper copies of the book at a significant discount. Woodville's contract would give them exclusive publishing rights to Cordero's manuscript for 15 years. Throughout that period, other publications authored by Cordero could each include up to one chapter from the book. Woodville would have sole authority over all other publication decisions concerning the book's content.

Writing Sample Response Sheet



Computing Your Score Directions: 1. Use the Answer Key to check your answers. 2. Take the number of questions you answered correctly in each section and add those numbers together to compute your raw score. 3. Use the Score Conversion Table to convert your raw score into the 120–180 scale.

Score Conversion Table LSAT Form 6LSN117 (June 2015) Reported Score 180 179 178 177 176 175 174 173 172 171 170 169 168 167 166 165 164 163 162 161 160 159 158 157 156 155 154 153 152 151 150 149 148 147 146

Raw Score Lowest Highest 98 100 * * 97 97 96 96 95 95 * * 94 94 93 93 92 92 91 91 90 90 88 89 87 87 86 86 84 85 83 83 81 82 79 80 78 78 76 77 74 75 72 73 70 71 69 69 67 68 65 66 63 64 61 62 59 60 57 58 56 56 54 55 52 53 50 51 48 49

145 144 143 142 141 140 139 138 137 136 135 134 133 132 131 130 129 128 127 126 125 124 123 122 121 120

47 45 43 42 40 38 37 35 34 33 31 30 29 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 * 17 0

47 46 44 42 41 39 37 36 34 33 32 30 29 28 26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 * 17 16

*There is no raw score that will produce this scaled score for this form.

Answer Key

Section I 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

B C A E C D E C A E D D C A C C D B B E B C C E A

Section II 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

C A B C A D E B A A C B C E C A D C E B E B A D B B C

Section III 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

C B C D A B B C E C E B C D E A B E C D E A A B A

Section IV 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

C B A E D B D B C A A A E B A C D C D A E D D

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Table of Contents Introduction to the LSAT Scoring Test Score Accuracy—Reliability and Standard Error of Measurement Adjustments for Variation in Test Difficulty Research on the LSAT To Inquire About Test Questions How This PrepTest Differs From an Actual LSAT The Three LSAT Multiple-Choice Question Types Analytical Reasoning Questions Logical Reasoning Questions Reading Comprehension Questions The Writing Sample Taking The PrepTest Under Simulated LSAT Conditions Answer Sheet The PrepTest Section I Section II Section III Section IV The Writing Sample Writing Sample Response Sheet Computing Your Score Answer Key

Introduction to the LSAT The Law School Admission Test is a half-day standardized test required for admission to all ABA-approved law schools, most Canadian law schools, and many other law schools. It consists of five 35-minute sections of multiple-choice questions. Four of the five sections contribute to the test taker’s score. These sections include one Reading Comprehension section, one Analytical Reasoning section, and two Logical Reasoning sections. The unscored section, commonly referred to as the variable section, typically is used to pretest new test questions or to preequate new test forms. The placement of this section in the LSAT will vary. A 35-minute writing sample is administered at the end of the test. The writing sample is not scored by LSAC, but copies are sent to all law schools to which you apply. The score scale for the LSAT is 120 to 180. The LSAT is designed to measure skills considered essential for success in law school: the reading and comprehension of complex texts with accuracy and insight; the organization and management of information and the ability to draw reasonable inferences from it; the ability to think critically; and the analysis and evaluation of the reasoning and arguments of others. The LSAT provides a standard measure of acquired reading and verbal reasoning skills that law schools can use as one of several factors in assessing applicants. For up-to-date information about LSAC’s services, go to our website, LSAC.org.

Scoring Your LSAT score is based on the number of questions you answer correctly (the raw score). There is no deduction for incorrect answers, and all questions count equally. In other words, there is no penalty for guessing. Test Score Accuracy—Reliability and Standard Error of Measurement Candidates perform at different levels on different occasions for reasons quite unrelated to the characteristics of a test itself. The accuracy of test scores is best described by the use of two related statistical terms: reliability and standard error of measurement. Reliabilit y is a measure of how consistently a test measures the skills being assessed. The higher the reliability coefficient for a test, the more certain we can be that test takers would get very similar scores if they took the test again. LSAC reports an internal consistency measure of reliability for every test form. Reliability can vary from 0.00 to 1.00, and a test with no measurement error would have a reliability coefficient of 1.00 (never attained in practice). Reliability coefficients for past LSAT forms have ranged from .90 to .95, indicating a high degree of consistency for these tests. LSAC expects the reliability of the LSAT to continue to fall within the same range. LSAC also reports the amount of measurement error associated with each test form, a concept known as the standard error of measurement (SEM). The SEM, which is usually about 2.6 points, indicates how close a test taker’s observed score is likely to be to his or her true score. True scores are theoretical scores that would be obtained from perfectly reliable tests with no measurement error—scores never known in practice. Score bands, or ranges of scores that contain a test taker’s true score a certain percentage of the time, can be derived using the SEM. LSAT score bands are constructed by adding and subtracting the (rounded) SEM to and from an actual LSAT score (e.g., the LSAT score, plus or minus 3 points). Scores near 120 or 180 have asymmetrical bands. Score bands constructed in this manner will contain an individual’s true score approximately 68 percent of the time. Measurement error also must be taken into account when comparing LSAT scores of two test takers. It is likely that small differences in scores are due to measurement error rather than to meaningful differences in ability. The standard error of score differences provides some guidance as to the importance of differences between two scores. The standard error of score differences is approximately 1.4 times larger than the standard error of measurement for the individual scores. Thus, a test score should be regarded as a useful but approximate measure of a test taker’s abilities as measured by the test, not as an exact determination of his or her abilities. LSAC encourages law schools to examine the range of scores within the interval that probably contains the test taker’s true score (e.g., the test taker’s score band) rather than solely interpret the reported score alone. Adjustments for Variation in Test Difficulty All test forms of the LSAT reported on the same score scale are designed to measure the same abilities, but one test form may be slightly easier or more difficult than another. The scores from different test forms are made comparable through a statistical procedure known as equating. As a result of equating, a given scaled score earned on different test forms reflects the same level of ability. Research on the LSAT Summaries of LSAT validity studies and other LSAT research can be found in member law school libraries and at LSAC.org. To Inquire About Test Questions If you find what you believe to be an error or ambiguity in a test question that affects your response to the question, contact LSAC by e-mail: [email protected], or write to Law School Admission Council, Test Development Group, PO Box 40, Newtown, PA 18940-0040.

How This PrepTest Differs From an Actual LSAT This PrepTest is made up of the scored sections and writing sample from the actual disclosed LSAT administered in October 2015. However, it does not contain the extra, variable section that is used to pretest new test items of one of the three multiplechoice question types. The three multiple-choice question types may be in a different order in an actual LSAT than in this PrepTest. This is because the order of these question types is intentionally varied for each administration of the test.

The Three LSAT Multiple-Choice Question Types The multiple-choice questions that make up most of the LSAT reflect a broad range of academic disciplines and are intended to give no advantage to candidates from a particular academic background. The five sections of the test contain three different question types. The following material presents a general discussion of the nature of each question type and some strategies that can be used in answering them. Analytical Reasoning Questions Analytical Reasoning questions are designed to assess the ability to consider a group of facts and rules, and, given those facts and rules, determine what could or must be true. The specific scenarios associated with these questions are usually unrelated to law, since they are intended to be accessible to a wide range of test takers. However, the skills tested parallel those involved in determining what could or must be the case given a set of regulations, the terms of a contract, or the facts of a legal case in relation to the law. In Analytical Reasoning questions, you are asked to reason deductively from a set of statements and rules or principles that describe relationships among persons, things, or events. Analytical Reasoning questions appear in sets, with each set based on a single passage. The passage used for each set of questions describes common ordering relationships or grouping relationships, or a combination of both types of relationships. Examples include scheduling employees for work shifts, assigning instructors to class sections, ordering tasks according to priority, and distributing grants for projects. Analytical Reasoning questions test a range of deductive reasoning skills. These include: • Comprehending the basic structure of a set of relationships by determining a complete solution to the problem posed (for example, an acceptable seating arrangement of all six diplomats around a table) • Reasoning with conditional (“if-then”) statements and recognizing logically equivalent formulations of such statements • Inferring what could be true or must be true from given facts and rules • Inferring what could be true or must be true from given facts and rules together with new information in the form of an additional or substitute fact or rule • Recognizing when two statements are logically equivalent in context by identifying a condition or rule that could replace one of the original conditions while still resulting in the same possible outcomes Analytical Reasoning questions reflect the kinds of detailed analyses of relationships and sets of constraints that a law student must perform in legal problem solving. For example, an Analytical Reasoning passage might describe six diplomats being seated around a table, following certain rules of protocol as to who can sit where. You, the test taker, must answer questions about the logical implications of given and new information. For example, you may be asked who can sit between diplomats X and Y, or who cannot sit next to X if W sits next to Y. Similarly, if you were a student in law school, you might be asked to analyze a scenario involving a set of particular circumstances and a set of governing rules in the form of constitutional provisions, statutes, administrative codes, or prior rulings that have been upheld. You might then be asked to determine the legal options in the scenario: what is required given the scenario, what is permissible given the scenario, and what is prohibited given the scenario. Or you might be asked to develop a “theory” for the case: when faced with an incomplete set of facts about the case, you must fill in the picture based on what is implied by the facts that are known. The problem could be elaborated by the addition of new information or hypotheticals. No formal training in logic is required to answer these questions correctly. Analytical Reasoning questions are intended to be answered using knowledge, skills, and reasoning ability generally expected of college students and graduates. Sug g ested Approach Some people may prefer to answer first those questions about a passage that seem less difficult and then those that seem more difficult. In general, it is best to finish one passage before starting on another, because much time can be lost in returning to a passage and reestablishing familiarity with its relationships. However, if you are having great difficulty on one particular set of questions and are spending too much time on them, it may be to your advantage to skip that set of questions and go on to the next passage, returning to the problematic set of questions after you have finished the other questions in the section. Do not assume that because the conditions for a set of questions look long or complicated, the questions based on those conditions will be especially difficult. Read t he passage carefully. Careful reading and analysis are necessary to determine the exact nature of the relationships involved in an Analytical Reasoning passage. Some relationships are fixed (for example, P and R must always work on the same project). Other relationships are variable (for example, Q must be assigned to either team 1 or team 3). Some relationships that are not stated explicitly in the conditions are implied by and can be deduced from those that are stated (for example, if one condition about paintings in a display specifies that Painting K must be to the left of Painting Y, and another specifies that Painting W must be to the left of Painting K, then it can be deduced that Painting W must be to the left of Painting Y). In reading the conditions, do not introduce unwarranted assumptions. For instance, in a set of questions establishing relationships of height and weight among the members of a team, do not assume that a person who is taller than another

person must weigh more than that person. As another example, suppose a set involves ordering and a question in the set asks what must be true if both X and Y must be earlier than Z; in this case, do not assume that X must be earlier than Y merely because X is mentioned before Y. All the information needed to answer each question is provided in the passage and the question itself. The conditions are designed to be as clear as possible. Do not interpret the conditions as if they were intended to trick you. For example, if a question asks how many people could be eligible to serve on a committee, consider only those people named in the passage unless directed otherwise. When in doubt, read the conditions in their most obvious sense. Remember, however, that the language in the conditions is intended to be read for precise meaning. It is essential to pay particular attention to words that describe or limit relationships, such as “only,” “exactly,” “never,” “always,” “must be,” “cannot be,” and the like. The result of this careful reading will be a clear picture of the structure of the relationships involved, including the kinds of relationships permitted, the participants in the relationships, and the range of possible actions or attributes for these participants. Keep in mind quest ion independence. Each question should be considered separately from the other questions in its set. No information, except what is given in the original conditions, should be carried over from one question to another. In some cases a question will simply ask for conclusions to be drawn from the conditions as originally given. Some questions may, however, add information to the original conditions or temporarily suspend or replace one of the original conditions for the purpose of that question only. For example, if Question 1 adds the supposition “if P is sitting at table 2 ...,” this supposition should NOT be carried over to any other question in the set. Consider highlight ing t ext and using diagrams. Many people find it useful to underline key points in the passage and in each question. In addition, it may prove very helpful to draw a diagram to assist you in finding the solution to the problem. In preparing for the test, you may wish to experiment with different types of diagrams. For a scheduling problem, a simple calendar-like diagram may be helpful. For a grouping problem, an array of labeled columns or rows may be useful. Even though most people find diagrams to be very helpful, some people seldom use them, and for some individual questions no one will need a diagram. There is by no means universal agreement on which kind of diagram is best for which problem or in which cases a diagram is most useful. Do not be concerned if a particular problem in the test seems to be best approached without the use of a diagram. Log ical Reasoning Questions Arguments are a fundamental part of the law, and analyzing arguments is a key element of legal analysis. Training in the law builds on a foundation of basic reasoning skills. Law students must draw on the skills of analyzing, evaluating, constructing, and refuting arguments. They need to be able to identify what information is relevant to an issue or argument and what impact further evidence might have. They need to be able to reconcile opposing positions and use arguments to persuade others. Logical Reasoning questions evaluate the ability to analyze, critically evaluate, and complete arguments as they occur in ordinary language. The questions are based on short arguments drawn from a wide variety of sources, including newspapers, general interest magazines, scholarly publications, advertisements, and informal discourse. These arguments mirror legal reasoning in the types of arguments presented and in their complexity, though few of the arguments actually have law as a subject matter. Each Logical Reasoning question requires you to read and comprehend a short passage, then answer one question (or, rarely, two questions) about it. The questions are designed to assess a wide range of skills involved in thinking critically, with an emphasis on skills that are central to legal reasoning. These skills include: • Recognizing the parts of an argument and their relationships • Recognizing similarities and differences between patterns of reasoning • Drawing well-supported conclusions • Reasoning by analogy • Recognizing misunderstandings or points of disagreement • Determining how additional evidence affects an argument • Detecting assumptions made by particular arguments • Identifying and applying principles or rules • Identifying flaws in arguments • Identifying explanations The questions do not presuppose specialized knowledge of logical terminology. For example, you will not be expected to know the meaning of specialized terms such as “ad hominem” or “syllogism.” On the other hand, you will be expected to

understand and critique the reasoning contained in arguments. This requires that you possess a university-level understanding of widely used concepts such as argument, premise, assumption, and conclusion. Sug g ested Approach Read each question carefully. Make sure that you understand the meaning of each part of the question. Make sure that you understand the meaning of each answer choice and the ways in which it may or may not relate to the question posed. Do not pick a response simply because it is a true statement. Although true, it may not answer the question posed. Answer each question on the basis of the information that is given, even if you do not agree with it. Work within the context provided by the passage. LSAT questions do not involve any tricks or hidden meanings. Reading Comprehension Questions Both law school and the practice of law revolve around extensive reading of highly varied, dense, argumentative, and expository texts (for example, cases, codes, contracts, briefs, decisions, evidence). This reading must be exacting, distinguishing precisely what is said from what is not said. It involves comparison, analysis, synthesis, and application (for example, of principles and rules). It involves drawing appropriate inferences and applying ideas and arguments to new contexts. Law school reading also requires the ability to grasp unfamiliar subject matter and the ability to penetrate difficult and challenging material. The purpose of LSAT Reading Comprehension questions is to measure the ability to read, with understanding and insight, examples of lengthy and complex materials similar to those commonly encountered in law school. The Reading Comprehension section of the LSAT contains four sets of reading questions, each set consisting of a selection of reading material followed by five to eight questions. The reading selection in three of the four sets consists of a single reading passage; the other set contains two related shorter passages. Sets with two passages are a variant of Reading Comprehension called Comparative Reading, which was introduced in June 2007. Comparative Reading questions concern the relationships between the two passages, such as those of generalization/instance, principle/application, or point/counterpoint. Law school work often requires reading two or more texts in conjunction with each other and understanding their relationships. For example, a law student may read a trial court decision together with an appellate court decision that overturns it, or identify the fact pattern from a hypothetical suit together with the potentially controlling case law. Reading selections for LSAT Reading Comprehension questions are drawn from a wide range of subjects in the humanities, the social sciences, the biological and physical sciences, and areas related to the law. Generally, the selections are densely written, use high-level vocabulary, and contain sophisticated argument or complex rhetorical structure (for example, multiple points of view). Reading Comprehension questions require you to read carefully and accurately, to determine the relationships among the various parts of the reading selection, and to draw reasonable inferences from the material in the selection. The questions may ask about the following characteristics of a passage or pair of passages: • The main idea or primary purpose • Information that is explicitly stated • Information or ideas that can be inferred • The meaning or purpose of words or phrases as used in context • The organization or structure • The application of information in the selection to a new context • Principles that function in the selection • Analogies to claims or arguments in the selection • An author’s attitude as revealed in the tone of a passage or the language used • The impact of new information on claims or arguments in the selection Sug g ested Approach Since reading selections are drawn from many different disciplines and sources, you should not be discouraged if you encounter material with which you are not familiar. It is important to remember that questions are to be answered exclusively on the basis of the information provided in the selection. There is no particular knowledge that you are expected to bring to the test, and you should not make inferences based on any prior knowledge of a subject that you may have. You may, however, wish to defer working on a set of questions that seems particularly difficult or unfamiliar until after you have dealt with sets you find easier. St rat egies. One question that often arises in connection with Reading Comprehension has to do with the most effective and efficient order in which to read the selections and questions. Possible approaches include:

• reading the selection very closely and then answering the questions; • reading the questions first, reading the selection closely, and then returning to the questions; or • skimming the selection and questions very quickly, then rereading the selection closely and answering the questions. Test takers are different, and the best strategy for one might not be the best strategy for another. In preparing for the test, therefore, you might want to experiment with the different strategies and decide what works most effectively for you. Remember that your strategy must be effective under timed conditions. For this reason, the first strategy—reading the selection very closely and then answering the questions—may be the most effective for you. Nonetheless, if you believe that one of the other strategies might be more effective for you, you should try it out and assess your performance using it. Reading t he select ion. Whatever strategy you choose, you should give the passage or pair of passages at least one careful reading before answering the questions. Try to distinguish main ideas from supporting ideas, and opinions or attitudes from factual, objective information. Note transitions from one idea to the next and identify the relationships among the different ideas or parts of a passage, or between the two passages in Comparative Reading sets. Consider how and why an author makes points and draws conclusions. Be sensitive to implications of what the passages say. You may find it helpful to mark key parts of passages. For example, you might underline main ideas or important arguments, and you might circle transitional words—“although,” “nevertheless,” “correspondingly,” and the like—that will help you map the structure of a passage. Also, you might note descriptive words that will help you identify an author’s attitude toward a particular idea or person. Answering the Questions • Always read all the answer choices before selecting the best answer. The best answer choice is the one that most accurately and completely answers the question being posed. • Respond to the specific question being asked. Do not pick an answer choice simply because it is a true statement. For example, picking a true statement might yield an incorrect answer to a question in which you are asked to identify an author’s position on an issue, since you are not being asked to evaluate the truth of the author’s position but only to correctly identify what that position is. • Answer the questions only on the basis of the information provided in the selection. Your own views, interpretations, or opinions, and those you have heard from others, may sometimes conflict with those expressed in a reading selection; however, you are expected to work within the context provided by the reading selection. You should not expect to agree with everything you encounter in Reading Comprehension passages.

The Writing Sample On the day of the test, you will be asked to write one sample essay. LSAC does not score the writing sample, but copies are sent to all law schools to which you apply. According to a 2015 LSAC survey of 129 United States and Canadian law schools, almost all use the writing sample in evaluating at least some applications for admission. Failure to respond to writing sample prompts and frivolous responses have been used by law schools as grounds for rejection of applications for admission. In developing and implementing the writing sample portion of the LSAT, LSAC has operated on the following premises: First, law schools and the legal profession value highly the ability to communicate effectively in writing. Second, it is important to encourage potential law students to develop effective writing skills. Third, a sample of an applicant’s writing, produced under controlled conditions, is a potentially useful indication of that person’s writing ability. Fourth, the writing sample can serve as an independent check on other writing submitted by applicants as part of the admission process. Finally, writing samples may be useful for diagnostic purposes related to improving a candidate’s writing. The writing prompt presents a decision problem. You are asked to make a choice between two positions or courses of action. Both of the choices are defensible, and you are given criteria and facts on which to base your decision. There is no “right” or “wrong” position to take on the topic, so the quality of each test taker’s response is a function not of which choice is made, but of how well or poorly the choice is supported and how well or poorly the other choice is criticized. The LSAT writing prompt was designed and validated by legal education professionals. Since it involves writing based on fact sets and criteria, the writing sample gives applicants the opportunity to demonstrate the type of argumentative writing that is required in law school, although the topics are usually nonlegal. You will have 35 minutes in which to plan and write an essay on the topic you receive. Read the topic and the accompanying directions carefully. You will probably find it best to spend a few minutes considering the topic and organizing your thoughts before you begin writing. In your essay, be sure to develop your ideas fully, leaving time, if possible, to review what you have written. Do not write on a topic other than the one specified. Writing on a topic of your own choice is not acceptable. No special knowledge is required or expected for this writing exercise. Law schools are interested in the reasoning, clarity, organization, language usage, and writing mechanics displayed in your essay. How well you write is more important than how much you write. Confine your essay to the blocked, lined area on the front and back of the separate Writing Sample Response Sheet. Only that area will be reproduced for law schools. Be sure that your writing is legible.

Taking the PrepTest Under Simulated LSAT Conditions One important way to prepare for the LSAT is to simulate the day of the test by taking a practice test under actual time constraints. Taking a practice test under timed conditions helps you to estimate the amount of time you can afford to spend on each question in a section and to determine the question types on which you may need additional practice. Since the LSAT is a timed test, it is important to use your allotted time wisely. During the test, you may work only on the section designated by the test supervisor. You cannot devote extra time to a difficult section and make up that time on a section you find easier. In pacing yourself, and checking your answers, you should think of each section of the test as a separate minitest. Be sure that you answer every question on the test. When you do not know the correct answer to a question, first eliminate the responses that you know are incorrect, then make your best guess among the remaining choices. Do not be afraid to guess as there is no penalty for incorrect answers. When you take a practice test, abide by all the requirements specified in the directions and keep strictly within the specified time limits. Work without a rest period. When you take an actual test, you will have only a short break—usually 10–15 minutes— after SECTION III. When taken under conditions as much like actual testing conditions as possible, a practice test provides very useful preparation for taking the LSAT. Official directions for the four multiple-choice sections and the writing sample are included in this PrepTest so that you can approximate actual testing conditions as you practice. To take the test: • Set a timer for 35 minutes. Answer all the questions in SECTION I of this PrepTest. Stop working on that section when the 35 minutes have elapsed. • Repeat, allowing yourself 35 minutes each for sections II, III, and IV. • Set the timer again for 35 minutes, then prepare your response to the writing sample topic at the end of this PrepTest. • Refer to “Computing Your Score” for the PrepTest for instruction on evaluating your performance. An answer key is provided for that purpose. T he pract ice t est t hat follows consist s of four sect ions corresponding t o t he four scored sect ions of t he Oct ober 2015 LSAT. Also reprint ed is t he Oct ober 2015 unscored writ ing sample t opic.



General Directions for the LSAT Answer Sheet

THE PREPTEST • Reading Comprehension: SECTION I • Logical Reasoning: SECTION II • Analytical Reasoning: SECTION III • Logical Reasoning: SECTION IV • Writing Sample Materials

Section 1 Time—35 minutes 27 Questions Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage or a pair of passages. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage or pair of passages. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. “Never was anything as incoherent, shrill, chaotic and ear-splitting produced in music. The most piercing dissonances clash in a really atrocious harmony, and a few puny ideas only increase the disagreeable and deafening effect.” This remark aptly characterizes the reaction of many listeners to the music of Arnold Schoenberg. But this particular criticism comes from the pen of the dramatist August von Kotzebue, writing in 1806 about the overture to Beethoven’s opera Fidelio. Both Beethoven and Schoenberg stirred controversy because of the way they altered the language and extended the expressive range of music. Beethoven, of course, has stood as a cultural icon for more than a century, but that didn’t happen overnight. His most challenging works did not become popular until well into the twentieth century and, significantly, after the invention of the phonograph, which made repeated listening possible. Like Beethoven, Schoenberg worked in a constantly changing and evolving musical style that acknowledged tradition while simultaneously lighting out for new territory. This is true of the three different musical styles through which Schoenberg’s music evolved. He began in the late-Romantic manner—music charged with shifting chromatic harmonies—that was pervasive in his youth. People who enjoy the music of Brahms ought to love Schoenberg’s Verklaerte Nacht, and they usually do, once they get past the fact that they are listening to a piece by Schoenberg. Schoenberg later pushed those unstable harmonies until they no longer had a tonal basis. He did this in part because in his view it was the next inevitable step in the historical development of music, and he felt he was a man of destiny; he also did it because he needed to in order to express what he was compelled to express. Finally, he developed the 12-tone technique as a means of bringing a new system of order to nontonal music and stabilizing it. In all three styles, Schoenberg operated at an awe-inspiring level of technical mastery. As his career progressed, his music became more condensed, more violent in its contrasts, and therefore more difficult to follow. But the real issue for any piece of music is not how it is made, but what it has to say. If Schoenberg hadn’t existed, it would have been necessary to invent him, and not because of the 12-tone system, the seeds of which appear in Mozart. What makes Schoenberg’s music essential is that he precisely delineated recognizable and sometimes disquieting emotional states that music had not recorded before. Some of his work remains disturbing not because it is incoherent, shrill, and ear-splitting, but

because it unflinchingly faces difficult truths. 1. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage? (A) Though Schoenberg’s music is more widely appreciated today than when he was alive, it is still regarded by many as shrill and incoherent. (B) Because of his accomplishments as a composer, Schoenberg deserves to be as highly regarded as Beethoven. (C) Though Schoenberg’s music has not always been well received by listeners, it is worthy of admiration for both its expressive range and its technical innovations. (D) Schoenberg is most important for his invention of the 12-tone technique of musical composition. (E) Despite the fact that he wrote at a time when recordings of his compositions were possible, Schoenberg has not been accepted as quickly as Beethoven. 2. Which one of the following could be said to be disturbing in a way that is most analogous to the way that Schoenberg’s music is said to be disturbing in the final sentence of the passage? (A) a comedian whose material relies heavily upon vulgar humor (B) a comedian whose humor shines a light on aspects of human nature many people would prefer to ignore (C) a comedian whose material is composed primarily of material already made famous by other comedians (D) a comedian whose material expresses an extreme political philosophy (E) a comedian whose style of humor is unfamiliar to the audience 3. The author begins with the quote from Kotzebue primarily in order to (A) give an accurate account of the music of Beethoven (B) give an accurate account of the music of Schoenberg (C) suggest that even Beethoven composed works of uneven quality (D) suggest that music that is at first seen as alienating need not seem alienating later (E) suggest that one critic can sometimes be out of step with the general critical consensus 4. All of the following are similarities between Beethoven and Schoenberg that the author alludes to EXCEPT: (A) They worked for a time in the late-Romantic style.

(B) Their music has been regarded by some listeners as incoherent, shrill, and chaotic. (C) Their compositions stirred controversy. (D) They worked in changing and evolving musical styles. (E) They altered the language and expressive range of music. 5. Which one of the following aspects of Schoenberg’s music does the author appear to value most highly? (A) the technical mastery of his compositions (B) the use of shifting chromatic harmonies (C) the use of the 12-tone system of musical composition (D) the depiction of emotional states that had never been captured in music before (E) the progression through three different styles of composition seen over the course of his career 6. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements about the relationships between the three styles in which Schoenberg wrote? (A) Each successive style represents a natural progression from the previous one. (B) Each successive style represents an inexplicable departure from the previous one. (C) The second style represents a natural progression from the first, but the third style represents an inexplicable departure from the second. (D) The second style represents an inexplicable departure from the first, but the third style represents a natural progression from the second. (E) The second style represents an inexplicable departure from the first, but the third style represents a natural progression from the first. The following passage was adapted from a law journal article published in 1998. Industries that use biotechnology are convinced that intellectual property protection should be allowable for discoveries that stem from research and have commercial potential. Biotechnology researchers in academic institutions increasingly share this view because of their reliance on research funding that is in part conditional on the patentability of their results. However, questions about the extent to which biotechnology patenting is hindering basic research have recently come to the fore, and the patenting and commercialization of biotechnology inventions are now the focus of increased scrutiny by scientists and policy makers. The perceived threat to basic research relates to restrictions on access to research materials, such as genetic sequences, cell lines, and genetically altered animals. These restrictions are seen as arising

either from enforcement of a patent right or through operation of a contractual agreement. Some researchers fear that patenting biological materials will result in the patent holder ’s attempting or threatening to enjoin further research through a legal action for patent infringement. In other instances, a patent holder or the owner of biological materials may refuse to make such materials available to scientists conducting basic research unless a costly materials-transfer agreement or license agreement is undertaken. For example, the holder of a patent on unique biological materials may want to receive a benefit or compensation for the costs invested in the creation of the material. Academic researchers who oppose biotechnology patents fear that corporate patent holders will charge prohibitively high fees for the right to conduct basic research involving the use of patented materials. While it is true that the communal tradition of freely sharing research materials has shifted to a market model, it is also undoubtedly true that even in the early days of biotechnology, some researchers took measures to prevent competitors from gaining access to materials they had created. Scientists who resist the idea of patenting biotechnology seem to be confusing patent rights with control of access to biological materials. They mistakenly assume that granting a patent implies granting the right to deny access. In reality, whether a patent could or would be enforced against a researcher, particularly one conducting basic and noncommercial research, is questionable. First, patent litigation is an expensive endeavor and one usually initiated only to protect a market position occupied by the patent holder or an exclusive patent licensee. Second, there has been a tradition among judges deciding patent cases to respect a completely noncommercial research exception to patent infringement. Moreover, it is likely that patents will actually spur rather than hinder basic research, because patents provide scientists with a compelling incentive to innovate. Researchers know that patents bring economic rewards as well as a degree of licensing control over the use of their discoveries. 7. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage? (A) By commercializing the research enterprise, biotechnology patents threaten the progress of basic research in the biological sciences. (B) The recent shift away from a communal tradition and toward a market-driven approach to basic scientific research has caused controversy among scientists. (C) The current system of patent protection for intellectual property unfairly penalizes both academic researchers and commercial interests. (D) Concerns expressed by academic researchers that biotechnology patents will negatively affect their ability to conduct basic research are largely misguided. (E) Patent litigation is so expensive that biotechnology patent holders are unlikely to bring patentinfringement lawsuits against scientists engaged in basic research. 8. The academic researchers mentioned in the last sentence of the second paragraph would be most likely to subscribe to which one of the following principles? (A) The competitive dynamics of the market should be allowed to determine the course of basic scientific research.

(B) The inventor of a biological material should not be allowed to charge fees that would prevent its use in basic research. (C) Academic researchers should take measures to prevent their competitors from gaining access to materials they have created. (D) Universities should take aggressive legal action to protect their intellectual property. (E) Funding for scientific research projects should depend at least in part on the commercial potential of those projects. 9. According to the passage, why do university researchers increasingly believe that patents should be granted for commercially promising biotechnology discoveries? (A) Researchers’ prospects for academic advancement depend on both the quality and the quantity of their research. (B) Researchers’ funding is often contingent on whether they can produce a patentable product. (C) Researchers see no incompatibility between unfettered basic research and the granting of biotechnology patents. (D) Researchers increasingly believe their intellectual labor is being unfairly exploited by universities that partner with for-profit corporations. (E) Most researchers prefer a competitive model of scientific research to a communal model. 10. With which one of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree? (A) In the early days of biotechnology research, scientists freely shared research materials because they were not entitled to intellectual property protection for their inventions. (B) Corporate patent holders typically charge excessive fees for the right to conduct research involving their patented materials. (C) The cost of patent litigation is an effective check on patent holders who might otherwise try to prevent researchers engaged in basic research from using patented materials. (D) Biotechnology researchers in academic institutions rely too heavily on funding that is partially contingent on the patentability of their results. (E) Scientists who oppose the idea of patenting biotechnology do so because their work is not sufficiently innovative to qualify for patent protection. 11. The author refers to the early days of biotechnology (first sentence of the last paragraph) primarily in order to (A) furnish a brief account of the evolution of academic biotechnology research

(B) establish that present competitive practices in biotechnology research are not entirely unprecedented (C) express nostalgia for a time when biotechnology research was untainted by commercial motives (D) argue that biotechnology research is considerably more sophisticated today than it was in the past (E) provide a historical justification for opposition to biotechnology patents 12. The passage provides the strongest support for inferring which one of the following? (A) Policy makers are no less likely than academic researchers to favor new restrictions on biotechnology patents. (B) Most biotechnology patent holders believe that the pursuit of basic research in academic institutions threatens their market position. (C) Biotechnology researchers who work in academic institutions and oppose biotechnology patents are generally unable to obtain funding for their work. (D) Suing for patent infringement is not the only way in which patent holders can assert legal control over the use of their patented materials. (E) Rapid commercialization in the field of biotechnology has led to a dearth of highly educated biologists willing to teach in academic institutions. 13. Suppose a university researcher wants to conduct basic, noncommercial research involving cell lines patented by a for-profit biotechnology corporation. The author would be most likely to make which one of the following predictions about the researcher ’s prospects? (A) The researcher will probably be unable to use the cell lines because the corporation holding the patent will demand a prohibitively high payment for their use. (B) The corporation holding the patent will probably successfully sue the researcher for patent infringement if she conducts the research without permission. (C) The university that employs the researcher will likely prohibit the research in an effort to avoid being sued by the corporation holding the patent. (D) The researcher has a good chance of not being held liable for patent infringement if she conducts the research and is subsequently sued. (E) The corporation will probably offer to fund the research if granted exclusive rights to any resulting marketable product. Before contact with Europeans, the Haudenosaune, a group of nations in northeastern North America also known as the Iroquois, had been developing a form of communication, primarily for political purposes, that used wampum, a bead carved from seashell. Most historians have insisted that wampum was primarily a form of money. While wampum certainly did become a medium of exchange among

Europeans and Haudenosaune alike, this was due to the Europeans, who misinterpreted the significance of wampum and used it solely to purchase goods from the Haudenosaune. However, the true significance of wampum for the Haudenosaune lies in its gradual development from objects with religious significance into a method for maintaining permanent peace among distinct nations. Over time wampum came to be used to record and convey key sociopolitical messages. Wampum came in two colors, white and deep purple. Loose beads constituted the simplest and oldest form of wampum. Even in the form of loose beads, wampum could represent certain basic ideas. For example, white was associated with the sky-yearning spirit, Sapling, whose terrestrial creations, such as trees, were often beneficial to humanity; deep purple was associated with Sapling’s twin brother, Flint, the earth-loving spirit whose frequent mischievous vandalism (e.g., in the form of storms) often severely disrupted human life. Legend indicates, for example, that ancient Haudenosaune anglers threw the beads into the water in which they fished to communicate with Sapling or Flint (differing versions of the Haudenosaune cosmology attribute the creation of fish to one or the other of these spirits). Later, loose beads were strung together forming string wampum. It is thought that string wampum was used to send simple political messages such as truce requests. It was, however, the formation of the Haudenosaune Confederacy from a group of warring tribes, believed by some to have occurred around 1451, that supplied the major impetus for making wampum a deliberate system of both arbitrary and pictorially derived symbols designed primarily for political purposes. This is evident in the invention of wampum belts to encode the provisions of the Haudenosaune Confederacy’s constitution. These belts combined string wampum to form icons that could be deciphered by those knowing the significance of the stylized symbols. For example, longhouses, depicted in front-view outline, usually meant a particular nation of the confederacy. Council fires, possibly indicating talks in progress, were diamond outlines that could appear alone or within trees or longhouses. Lines between humanlike figures seem to have indicated the current state of relations between peoples; belts containing such images were often used as safe-conduct passes. The arrangements of the two colors also directed interpretation of the symbols. Thus, the belts served to record, store, and make publicly available items of governmental business. Although the wampum symbol system had a limited lexicon, it served to effectively frame and enforce the law of the confederacy for hundreds of years. 14. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage? (A) The Haudenosaune’s use of wampum originated with combinations of strings of beads with religious significance, but the need for communication between nations led to more complex uses of wampum including the transmission of political messages. (B) For the Haudenosaune, wampum did not originally serve as a form of money but as an evolving form of communication that, through the use of colors and symbols, conveyed information and that eventually encoded the provisions of the Haudenosaune Confederacy’s constitution. (C) Wampum’s significance for the Haudenosaune—as a form of communication linking their traditions with the need for the sharing of information within the confederacy—was changed through European contact so that it became exclusively a medium of commercial exchange. (D) There is substantial evidence that the Haudenosaune’s use of wampum as a medium of communication based on color combinations had its origin in the political events surrounding the

establishment of the Haudenosaune Confederacy. (E) Because of the role played by wampum in relations between the Haudenosaune and Europeans, many historians have overlooked the communicative role that bead combinations played in Haudenosaune culture prior to contact with Europeans. 15. The fishing practice mentioned in the second paragraph is offered primarily as an instance of (A) a type of knowledge that was encoded and passed on through the use of wampum (B) a traditional practice that was altered by contact with Europeans (C) an activity that was regulated by the laws of the Haudenosaune Confederacy (D) a practice that many historians learned of by studying wampum (E) a traditional practice that reflects a stage in the evolution of wampum’s uses 16. The last paragraph of the passage serves primarily to (A) detail how wampum belts evolved from other forms of wampum (B) distinguish between wampum belts and less complex forms of string wampum (C) illustrate how wampum functioned as a system of symbolic representation (D) outline the Haudenosaune Confederacy’s constitution as it was encoded using wampum (E) give evidence of wampum’s effectiveness as a means of ensuring compliance with the law of the Haudenosaune Confederacy 17. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to agree with which one of the following? (A) Even if the evolution of wampum had not been altered by the arrival of Europeans, wampum would likely have become a form of currency because of its compactness. (B) The use of colors in wampum to express meaning arose in response to the formation of the Haudenosaune Confederacy. (C) The ancient associations of colors with spirits were important precursors to, and foundations of, later wampum representations that did not depend directly on these associations for their meaning. (D) Because the associations with certain colors shifted over time, the same color beads acquired different meanings on belt wampum as opposed to string wampum. (E) If the Europeans who first began trading with the Haudenosaune had been aware that wampum was used as a means of communication, they would not have used wampum as a medium of exchange.

18. The passage provides the most support for inferring which one of the following? (A) Wampum was probably used on occasion as a medium of economic exchange long before the Haudenosaune had contact with Europeans. (B) The formation of the Haudenosaune Confederacy called for a more complex method of communication than wampum as used until then had provided. (C) Once wampum came to be used as currency in trade with Europeans, the constitution of the Haudenosaune Confederacy had to be recodified using other methods of representation. (D) Prior to Haudenosaune contact with Europeans, wampum served primarily as a means of promulgating official edicts and policies of the Haudenosaune Confederacy. (E) As belt wampum superseded string wampum as a method of communication, wampum beads acquired subtler shadings in the colors used to represent abstract ideas. 19. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to agree with which one of the following? (A) There is evidence that objects similar to wampum were used for symbolic representation by other peoples in addition to the Haudenosaune. (B) The Europeans who first came in contact with the Haudenosaune insisted on using wampum as a form of currency in spite of their awareness of its true significance. (C) There is evidence that Europeans who came in contact with the Haudenosaune adopted some longstanding Haudenosaune uses of wampum. (D) A long-term peaceful association among the groups that formed the Haudenosaune Confederacy was an important precondition for the use of wampum as a means of communication. (E) Present day interpretations of the significance of some of the symbols used in wampum belts are not conclusive. Passage A Karl Popper ’s main contribution to the philosophy of science concerns the power of negative evidence. The fundamental point is simple: No number of white swans, for example, can ever prove that all swans are white, but a single black swan disproves the hypothesis. Popper gives this logical asymmetry between positive and negative evidence hyperbolic application, maintaining that positive evidence has no value as evidence and that negative evidence is tantamount to disproof. Moreover, Popper takes the search for negative evidence to be at the heart of scientific research; that is, for Popper, scientific research involves not only generating bold theories, but also searching for evidence that would disprove them. Indeed, for him, a theory counts as scientific only if it makes predictions that are testable in this way. However, Popper ’s use of the logical asymmetry does not adequately capture the actual situation scientists face. If a theory deductively entails a false prediction, then the theory must be false as well.

But a scientific theory rarely entails predictions on its own. When scientists actually derive a theory’s predictions, they almost always need diverse additional “auxiliary” premises, which appeal to other theories, to the correct functioning of instrumentation, to the absence of disturbing forces, etc. When a prediction fails, logic indicates that at least one of the premises must be false, but it does not indicate which one. When an experiment does not work out as predicted, there is usually more than one possible explanation. Positive evidence is never conclusive. But negative evidence rarely is either. Passage B When the planet Uranus was discovered, astronomers attempted to predict its orbit. They based their predictions on Newton’s laws and auxiliary assumptions about the mass of the sun and the masses, orbits, and velocities of other planets. One of the auxiliary assumptions was that no planets existed in the vicinity of Uranus. When the astronomers made their observations, they found that the orbit they had predicted for Uranus was incorrect. One possible explanation for the failure of their prediction was that Newton’s laws were incorrect. Another was that there was an error in the auxiliary assumptions. The astronomers changed their assumptions about the existence of other planets, concluding that there must be another planet close enough to Uranus to produce the observed orbit. Not long afterward, scientists discovered the planet Neptune in the precise place it would have to be to bring their calculations into alignment with their observations. Later astronomers, again using Newton’s laws, predicted the orbit of Mercury. Once again, the predictions were not borne out. They hypothesized the existence of another planet in the vicinity, which they called Vulcan. However, Vulcan was never found, and some scientists began to think that perhaps Newton’s laws were in error. Finally, when Einstein’s general theory of relativity was introduced, astronomers discovered that calculations based on that theory and the old auxiliary assumptions predicted the observed orbit of Mercury, leading to the rejection of Newton’s theory of gravity and to increased confidence in Einstein’s theory. 20. Which one of the following is a central topic of both passages? (A) the logical asymmetry of positive and negative evidence (B) the role of auxiliary assumptions in predicting planetary orbits (C) the role of negative evidence in scientific research (D) the proper technique for confirming a scientific theory (E) the irrelevance of experimentation for disproving a scientific theory 21. Which one of the following is mentioned in passage A and illustrated in passage B? (A) repudiating an experimental result (B) revising a theory (C) disproving a theory (D) predicting a planet’s orbit

(E) theories that are not testable by experiment 22. In passage B, which one of the following most clearly illustrates a disturbing force, as described in passage A (fourth sentence of the second paragraph of passage A)? (A) Uranus (B) the sun (C) Neptune (D) Mercury (E) the moon 23. In saying that Popper gives a certain idea “hyperbolic application” (third sentence of passage A), the author of passage A means to suggest that Popper (A) extends the idea to cases in which it does not apply (B) underestimates the significance of the idea (C) commits a logical fallacy in reasoning about the idea (D) draws too radical a conclusion from the idea (E) exaggerates the idea’s relevance to a particular theory 24. The author of passage A would be most likely to take which one of the following results mentioned in passage B as support for the claim made in the last sentence of passage A? (A) the discovery of Uranus (B) the initial failure of Newton’s laws to correctly predict Uranus’s orbit (C) the ultimate failure of Newton’s laws to correctly predict Mercury’s orbit (D) the failure to find Vulcan (E) the success of Einstein’s general theory of relativity at predicting Mercury’s orbit 25. In passage B’s description of the developments leading to the rejection of Newton’s theory of gravity, which one of the following astronomical bodies plays a role most analogous to the black swan discussed in passage A? (A) Mercury (B) Uranus (C) Neptune

(D) Venus (E) the sun 26. It can be inferred that the author of passage B would be likely to be most skeptical of which one of the following ideas mentioned in passage A? (A) Popper ’s main contribution to the philosophy of science concerned the power of negative evidence. (B) Positive evidence plays no role in supporting a theory. (C) Auxiliary premises are usually needed in order to derive predictions from a scientific theory. (D) There is a logical asymmetry between positive and negative evidence. (E) Scientific research involves generating bold theories and attempting to refute them. 27. Which one of the following scientific episodes is most analogous to the discovery of Neptune, as that episode is described in passage B? (A) Galileo proposed that ocean tides are the result of Earth’s motion in its orbit around the sun. But Galileo’s theory of tides falsely predicted that there is only one high tide per day, when in fact there are two. (B) By observing “variable stars”—stars that vary in brightness—in Andromeda, Edwin Hubble discovered that Andromeda is actually a galaxy in its own right. This enabled him to settle the debate about whether the Milky Way constitutes the entirety of the universe. (C) Walter Alvarez postulated that an asteroid impact caused the extinction of the dinosaurs. He based this on observing high levels of the mineral iridium in certain rock core samples. Later evidence of a large impact crater was discovered in the Yucatan Peninsula that dates to the time of the dinosaur extinction. (D) Bernard Brunhes discovered rocks that were magnetized in a direction opposite to that of the present-day magnetic field. He concluded that Earth’s magnetic field must have been reversed at some point in the past. (E) When a neutron decays into a proton and an electron, the combined energies of the two particles is less than the energy of the original neutron, in apparent contradiction of the law of conservation of energy. Wolfgang Pauli postulated that a third undetected particle is also created during the decay. The particle’s existence was later confirmed. STOP If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not work on any other section of the test.

Section 2 Time—35 minutes 26 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. 1. In the bodies of reptiles, some industrial by-products cause elevated hormonal activity. Hormones govern the development of certain body parts, and in reptiles abnormal development of these parts occurs only with elevated hormonal activity. Recently, several alligators with the telltale developmental abnormalities were discovered in a swamp. So, apparently, industrial by-products have entered the swamp’s ecosystem. The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument (A) provides no explanation for developmental abnormalities that do not result from elevated hormonal activity (B) fails to consider whether elevated hormonal activity can result from factors other than the presence of industrial by-products (C) fails to address the possibility that industrial by-products were contained in food the alligators ate (D) fails to say whether reptiles other than alligators were examined for the same developmental abnormalities that were discovered in the alligators (E) uses evidence drawn from a sample of alligators that is unlikely to be representative of alligators in general 2. Government official: Residents who are foreign citizens can serve as public servants at most levels, but not as cabinet secretaries. This is wise, since cabinet secretaries perform some duties that should be performed only by citizens, and no one should be appointed to a position if it involves duties that person should not perform. Moreover, a cabinet undersecretary is expected to serve as cabinet secretary when the actual secretary is unavailable. So, _______. Which one of the following most logically completes the government official’s statement? (A) foreign citizens who serve as public servants should be granted citizenship in the country they serve (B) foreign citizens should not be appointed as cabinet undersecretaries

(C) only former cabinet undersecretaries should be appointed as cabinet secretaries (D) foreign citizens should be eligible to serve as cabinet secretaries (E) cabinet undersecretaries should not be expected to stand in for cabinet secretaries 3. Doris: I’ve noticed that everyone involved in student government is outspoken. So if we want students to be more outspoken, we should encourage them to become involved in student government. Zack: Those who are in student government became involved precisely because they are outspoken in the first place. Encouraging others to become involved will do nothing to make them more outspoken. Doris and Zack disagree over whether (A) students should be more outspoken (B) students should be encouraged to become involved in student government (C) becoming involved in student government makes students more outspoken (D) all students who are involved in student government are outspoken (E) students will not become more outspoken unless they become involved in student government 4. Biologist: A careful study of the behavior of six individual chameleons concluded that lizards such as chameleons bask in the sun not only for warmth but also to regulate their production of vitamin D. Critics of the study—although correct in observing that its sample size was very small—are wrong to doubt its results. After all, the study’s author is well regarded professionally and has been doing excellent work for years. The reasoning in the biologist’s argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument (A) takes the behavior of chameleons to be generalizable to lizards as a whole (B) fails to explain how chameleons regulate their vitamin D production by basking in the sun (C) focuses its attention on the study’s author rather than on the study itself (D) fails to demonstrate that the study’s critics have relevant expertise (E) holds the study’s author to a higher standard than it holds the study’s critics 5. Political scientist: Some analysts point to the government’s acceptance of the recent protest rally as proof that the government supports freedom of popular expression. But the government supports no such thing. Supporting freedom of popular expression means accepting the expression of ideas that the government opposes as well as the expression of ideas that the government supports. The message of the protest rally was one that the government entirely supports.

Which one of the following is an assumption that is required by the political scientist’s argument? (A) The government helped to organize the recent protest rally. (B) The message of the recent protest rally did not concern any function of the government. (C) The government would not have accepted a protest rally whose message it opposed. (D) There are groups that are inhibited from staging a protest rally out of a fear of government response. (E) The government feared a backlash if it did not show acceptance of the recent protest rally. 6. Lawyer: In addition to any other penalties, convicted criminals must now pay a “victim surcharge” of $30. The surcharge is used to fund services for victims of violent crimes, but this penalty is unfair to nonviolent criminals since the surcharge applies to all crimes, even nonviolent ones like petty theft. Which one of the following principles, if valid, would most help to justify the reasoning in the lawyer ’s argument? (A) The penalties for a crime should be severe enough to deter most people who would commit the crime if there were no penalties. (B) The overall penalty for a violent crime should be more severe than the overall penalty for any nonviolent crime. (C) A surcharge intended to provide services to victims is justified only if all proceeds of the surcharge are used to provide services. (D) A criminal should not be required to pay for services provided to victims of crimes that are more serious than the type of crime the criminal has been convicted of. (E) Convicted thieves should be fined an amount at least as great as the value of the property stolen. 7. Economist: Owing to global economic forces since 1945, our country’s economy is increasingly a service economy, in which manufacturing employs an ever smaller fraction of the workforce. Hence, we have engaged in less and less international trade. Which one of the following, if true, would most help to explain the decreasing engagement in international trade by the economist’s country? (A) International trade agreements have usually covered both trade in manufactured goods and trade in services. (B) Employment in the service sector tends to require as many specialized skills as does employment in manufacturing. (C) Because services are usually delivered in person, markets for services tend to be local.

(D) Many manufacturing jobs have been rendered obsolete by advances in factory automation. (E) Some services can be procured less expensively from providers in other countries than from providers in the economist’s country. 8. Merton: A study showed that people who live on very busy streets have higher rates of heart disease than average. I conclude that this elevated rate of heart disease is caused by air pollution from automobile exhaust. Ortiz: Are you sure? Do we know whether people living on busy streets have other lifestyle factors that are especially conducive to heart disease? Ortiz criticizes Merton’s argument by (A) raising a question about the validity of the study that Merton cites (B) contending that Merton needs to take into account other effects of air pollution (C) claiming that Merton misunderstands a crucial aspect of the study’s findings (D) raising a counterexample to the general conclusion that Merton draws (E) suggesting that alternative explanations for the study’s findings need to be ruled out 9. Two lakes in the Pawpaw mountains, Quapaw and Highwater, were suffering from serious declines in their fish populations ten years ago. Since that time, there has been a moratorium on fishing at Quapaw Lake, and the fish population there has recovered. At Highwater Lake, no such moratorium has been imposed, and the fish population has continued to decline. Thus, the ban on fishing is probably responsible for the rebound in the fish population at Quapaw Lake. Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above? (A) Highwater Lake is in an area of the mountains that is highly susceptible to acid rain. (B) Prior to the ban, there was practically no fishing at Quapaw Lake. (C) Highwater Lake is much larger than Quapaw Lake. (D) Several other lakes in the Pawpaw mountains have recently had increases in their fish populations. (E) There used to be a greater variety of fish species in Highwater Lake than in Quapaw Lake, but there no longer is. 10. The Asian elephant walks with at least two, and sometimes three, feet on the ground at all times. Even though it can accelerate, it does so merely by taking quicker and longer steps. So the Asian elephant does not actually run. The conclusion drawn above follows logically if which one of the following is assumed?

(A) If an animal cannot accelerate, then it cannot run. (B) To run, an animal must have all of its feet off the ground at once. (C) The Asian elephant can walk as quickly as some animals run. (D) It is unusual for a four-legged animal to keep three feet on the ground while walking. (E) All four-legged animals walk with at least two feet on the ground at all times. 11. A hardware store generally sells roughly equal numbers of Maxlast brand hammers and Styron brand hammers. Last week, all of the Maxlast hammers were put on sale and placed in a display case just inside the store entrance while the Styron hammers retained their usual price and location. Surprisingly, the Styron hammers slightly outsold the Maxlast hammers. Which one of the following, if true, does most to explain the surprising result? (A) For the first several seconds after shoppers enter a store, they do not take detailed notice of the store’s merchandise. (B) Most of the hardware store’s customers are attracted by quality and service rather than low prices. (C) Customers who bought the Maxlast hammers last week commonly mentioned the sale as their reason for buying a hammer at that time. (D) The hardware store circulated flyers that publicized the sale prices on Maxlast hammers. (E) In general, a single item that is on sale will not motivate shoppers to make a special trip to a store. 12. In an experiment, two groups of mice—one whose diet included ginkgo extract and one that had a normal diet—were taught to navigate a maze. The mice whose diet included ginkgo were more likely to remember how to navigate the maze the next day than were the other mice. However, the ginkgo may not have directly enhanced memory. Other studies have found that ginkgo reduces stress in mice, and lowering very high stress levels is known to improve recall. Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument? (A) The doses of ginkgo in the diet of the mice in the experiment were significantly higher than the doses that have been shown to reduce stress in mice. (B) Neither the mice who received the ginkgo nor the other mice in the experiment exhibited physiological signs of higher-than-normal stress. (C) Some chemical substances that reduce stress in mice also at least temporarily impair their memory. (D) Scientists have not yet determined which substances in ginkgo are responsible for reducing stress in mice.

(E) The mice who received the ginkgo took just as long as the other mice to learn to navigate the maze. 13. Some of the politicians who strongly supported free trade among Canada, the United States, and Mexico are now refusing to support publicly the idea that free trade should be extended to other Latin American countries. If the statement above is true, which one of the following must also be true? (A) Some of the politicians who now publicly support extending free trade to other Latin American countries did not support free trade among Canada, the United States, and Mexico. (B) Not all politicians who now publicly support extending free trade to other Latin American countries strongly supported free trade among Canada, the United States, and Mexico. (C) Some of the politicians who strongly supported free trade among Canada, the United States, and Mexico have changed their position on free trade. (D) Not all politicians who strongly supported free trade among Canada, the United States, and Mexico now publicly support extending free trade to other Latin American countries. (E) Some of the politicians who strongly supported free trade among Canada, the United States, and Mexico now publicly oppose extending free trade to other Latin American countries. 14. Principle: Any person or business knowingly aiding someone’s infringement on a copyright is also guilty of copyright infringement. Application: Grandview Department Store, which features a self-service photo-printing kiosk, is guilty of copyright infringement since a customer using the kiosk infringed on a wedding photographer ’s copyright by printing photographs whose copyright is held by the photographer. Which one of the following, if assumed, most helps to justify the application of the principle? (A) The operator of a business has the same legal obligations to customers who use self-service facilities as it has to customers who use full-service facilities. (B) The management of a business that is open to the public is obligated to report to the authorities any illegal activity that it witnesses on its property. (C) The owner of a self-service printing kiosk should post a notice advising customers that copyrighted material should not be printed at the kiosk without the permission of the copyright holder. (D) Owners of self-service facilities should monitor those facilities in order to ensure that they are not used for illegal or unethical purposes. (E) A person or business providing a service that can be expected to be used to infringe on a copyright should be considered to knowingly aid any copyright infringer using the service.

15. Journalism’s purpose is to inform people about matters relevant to the choices they must make. Yet, clearly, people often buy newspapers or watch television news programs precisely because they contain sensationalistic gossip about people whom they will never meet and whose business is of little relevance to their lives. Obviously, then, the sensationalistic gossip contained in newspapers and television news programs _______. Which one of the following most logically completes the argument? (A) is at least sometimes included for nonjournalistic reasons (B) prevents those news media from achieving their purpose (C) is more relevant to people’s lives now than it used to be (D) should not be thought of as a way of keeping an audience entertained (E) is of no value to people who are interested in journalism 16. When surveyed about which party they would like to see in the legislature, 40 percent of respondents said Conservative, 20 percent said Moderate, and 40 percent said Liberal. If the survey results are reliable, we can conclude that most citizens would like to see a legislature that is roughly 40 percent Conservative, 20 percent Moderate, and 40 percent Liberal. Which one of the following most accurately describes a flaw in the reasoning of the argument? (A) The argument uses premises about the actual state of affairs to draw a conclusion about how matters should be. (B) The argument draws a conclusion that merely restates a premise presented in favor of it. (C) The argument takes for granted that the preferences of a group as a whole are the preferences of most individual members of the group. (D) The argument fails to consider that the survey results might have been influenced by the political biases of the researchers who conducted the survey. (E) The argument uses evidence that supports only rough estimates to draw a precisely quantified conclusion. 17. City leader: If our city adopts the new tourism plan, the amount of money that tourists spend here annually will increase by at least $2 billion, creating as many jobs as a new automobile manufacturing plant would. It would be reasonable for the city to spend the amount of money necessary to convince an automobile manufacturer to build a plant here, but adopting the tourism plan would cost less. The city leader ’s statements, if true, provide the most support for which one of the following? (A) The city should implement the least expensive job creation measures available.

(B) In general, it is reasonable for the city to spend money to try to convince manufacturing companies to build plants in the city. (C) The city cannot afford both to spend money to convince an automobile manufacturer to build a plant in the city and to adopt the new tourism plan. (D) It would be reasonable for the city to adopt the new tourism plan. (E) The only way the city can create jobs is by increasing tourism. 18. An article claims that many medical patients have an instinctual ability to predict sudden changes in their medical status. But the evidence given is anecdotal and should not be trusted. The case is analogous to empirically disproven reports that babies are born in disproportionately high numbers during full moons. Once that rumor became popular, maternity room staff were more likely to remember busy nights with full moons than busy nights without them. The argument requires the assumption that (A) the article claiming that medical patients can instinctually predict sudden changes in their medical status will soon be empirically disproven (B) patients’ predictions of sudden changes in their medical status are less likely to be remembered by medical staff if no such change actually occurs (C) the patients in the article were not being serious when they predicted sudden changes in their medical status (D) babies are less likely to be born during a night with a full moon than during a night without a full moon (E) the idea that medical patients have an instinctual ability to predict sudden changes in their medical status is not a widely held belief 19. Politician: Union leaders argue that increases in multinational control of manufacturing have shifted labor to nations without strong worker protections, resulting in a corresponding global decrease in workers’ average wages. Given that these leaders have a vested interest in seeing wages remain high, they would naturally want to convince legislators to oppose multinational control. Thus, legislators should reject this argument. The reasoning in the politician’s argument is flawed in that the argument (A) treats the mere fact that certain people are union members as sufficient to cast doubt on all of the viewpoints expressed by those people (B) presumes, without providing justification, that anyone whose political motivations are clearly discernible is an unreliable source of information to legislators (C) treats circumstances potentially affecting the union leaders’ argument as sufficient to discredit those leaders’ argument

(D) presumes, without providing justification, that the argument it cites is the union leaders’ only argument for their view (E) presumes, without providing evidence, that leaders of all unions argue against increases in multinational control of manufacturing 20. Professor: The number of new university students who enter as chemistry majors has not changed in the last ten years, and job prospects for graduates with chemistry degrees are better than ever. Despite this, there has been a significant decline over the past decade in the number of people earning chemistry degrees. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to explain the decline? (A) Many students enter universities without the academic background that is necessary for majoring in chemistry. (B) There has been a significant decline in the number of undergraduate degrees earned in the natural sciences as a whole. (C) Many students are very unsure of their choice when they pick a major upon entering universities. (D) Job prospects for graduates with chemistry degrees are no better than prospects for graduates with certain other science degrees. (E) Over the years, first-year chemistry has come to be taught in a more routinely methodical fashion, which dampens its intellectual appeal. 21. Although the first humans came to Australia 56,000 years ago and undoubtedly brought new diseases with them, human-borne diseases probably did not cause the mass extinction of large land animals and birds that took place over the following 10,000 years. After all, more than 55 different species disappeared at about the same time, and no one disease, however virulent, could be fatal to animals across that many different species. Which one of the following arguments exhibits flawed reasoning that is most parallel to that in the argument above? (A) Even though high interest rates can lead to an economic downturn, high interest rates probably did not cause the current economic downturn. It is true that rates have been on the rise, but high interest rates are not always economically harmful. (B) Even though I can fix some things and you can fix some things, the two of us will be unable to repair our apartment without outside help. The apartment has both a broken window and a broken bedroom door, and neither of us is able to fix both doors and windows. (C) Even though Lena, Jen, and Mark would like to go out to dinner together after the movie tonight, they will probably go straight home after the show. Of the five restaurants that are in the immediate vicinity of the theater, there is not a single one that all three of them like. (D) Even though this painting is highly regarded by critics, it cannot legitimately be deemed great art.

Most art that was produced in the last hundred years is not great art, and this painting, beautiful though it is, was probably painted only 40 years ago. (E) Even though the influenza vaccine does not always prevent influenza, it sometimes reduces the severity of its symptoms. Therefore it is incorrect to say that some people who receive the vaccine derive no benefit from it. 22. A tax preparation company automatically adds the following disclaimer to every e-mail message sent to its clients: “Any tax advice in this e-mail should not be construed as advocating any violation of the provisions of the tax code.” The only purpose this disclaimer could serve is to provide legal protection for the company. But if the e-mail elsewhere suggests that the client do something illegal, then the disclaimer offers no legal protection. So the disclaimer serves no purpose. The argument’s conclusion can be properly drawn if which one of the following is assumed? (A) If the e-mail does not elsewhere suggest that the client do anything illegal, then the company does not need legal protection. (B) If e-mail messages sent by the tax preparation company do elsewhere suggest that the recipient do something illegal, then the company could be subject to substantial penalties. (C) A disclaimer that is included in every e-mail message sent by a company will tend to be ignored by recipients who have already received many e-mails from that company. (D) At least some of the recipients of the company’s e-mails will follow the advice contained in the body of at least some of the e-mails they receive. (E) Some of the tax preparation company’s clients would try to illegally evade penalties if they knew how to do so. 23. Well-intentioned people sometimes attempt to resolve the marital problems of their friends. But these attempts are usually ineffectual and thereby foster resentment among all parties. Thus, even well-intentioned attempts to resolve the marital problems of friends are usually unjustified. Which one of the following principles, if valid, most strongly supports the reasoning above? (A) One should get involved in other people’s problems only with the intention of producing the best overall consequences. (B) Interpersonal relations should be conducted in accordance with doing whatever is right, regardless of the consequences. (C) Good intentions are the only legitimate grounds on which to attempt to resolve the marital problems of friends. (D) The intentions of an action are irrelevant to whether or not that action is justified. (E) No actions based on good intentions are justified unless they also result in success.

24. It has been said that authors who write in order to give pleasure cannot impart to their readers the truth of their subject matter. That claim cannot be true. If it were, one could determine the truthfulness of a book simply by looking at its sales figures. If the book were very popular, one could reasonably conclude that it gave people pleasure and therefore that at least some of what is written in the book is not true. Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument? (A) When people choose to read a book, they generally do not already know whether reading it will give them pleasure. (B) Even when an author writes with the goal of giving people pleasure, that goal will not necessarily be achieved. (C) In many cases, a book’s readers are unconcerned about the truth of the book’s contents. (D) A book will not give its readers pleasure unless it was intended by its author to have that effect. (E) A book can be popular for reasons other than its ability to give readers pleasure. 25. It is likely that most of the new television programs Wilke & Wilke produce for this season will be canceled. Most of the new shows they produced last season were canceled due to insufficient viewership. Furthermore, their new shows are all police dramas, and few police dramas have been popular in recent years. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to strengthen the argument? (A) Wilke & Wilke have produced more new shows for this season than they produced last season. (B) Most of the shows that Wilke & Wilke produced last year were police dramas. (C) None of the shows that Wilke & Wilke produced last year that were not canceled were police dramas. (D) All of the new shows that Wilke & Wilke produced last year that were canceled were police dramas. (E) None of the most popular television shows last year were police dramas. 26. If a corporation obtains funds fraudulently, then the penalty should take into account the corporation’s use of those funds during the time it held them. In such cases, the penalty should completely offset any profit the corporation made in using the funds. Which one of the following conforms most closely to the principle illustrated above? (A) If a driver causes an accident because the automobile being driven was not properly maintained, that driver should be required from then on to regularly demonstrate that his or her automobile is being properly maintained.

(B) If a factory is found to have been recklessly violating pollution laws, that factory should be required to make the expenditures necessary to bring it into compliance with those laws to the satisfaction of the regulators. (C) If someone is sentenced to perform community service, the court has a responsibility to ensure that the community at large rather than a private group benefits from that service. (D) If an athlete is found to have used banned performance-enhancing substances, that athlete should be prohibited from participating in all future athletic competitions. (E) If a convicted criminal writes a memoir describing the details of that criminal’s crime, any proceeds of the book should be donated to a charity chosen by a third party. STOP If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not work on any other section of the test.

Section 3 Time—35 minutes 23 Questions Directions: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. Questions 1–6 A detective is trying to determine the order in which a criminal recruited seven accomplices—Peters, Quinn, Rovero, Stanton, Tao, Villas, and White. In addition to discovering that the suspect recruited the accomplices one at a time, the detective has established the following: Stanton was recruited neither immediately before nor immediately after Tao. Quinn was recruited earlier than Rovero. Villas was recruited immediately before White. Peters was recruited fourth. 1. Which one of the following could be the order in which the accomplices were recruited, from first to last? (A) Quinn, Tao, Stanton, Peters, Villas, White, Rovero (B) Quinn, White, Rovero, Peters, Stanton, Villas, Tao (C) Villas, White, Quinn, Stanton, Peters, Tao, Rovero (D) Villas, White, Stanton, Peters, Quinn, Tao, Rovero (E) Villas, White, Stanton, Peters, Rovero, Tao, Quinn 2. Which one of the following could be the list of the middle five accomplices, in the order in which they were recruited, from second to sixth? (A) Quinn, Stanton, Peters, Tao, Villas (B) Quinn, Stanton, Peters, Tao, White (C) Villas, White, Peters, Quinn, Stanton (D) Villas, White, Peters, Rovero, Stanton (E) Villas, White, Quinn, Rovero, Stanton

3. If Tao was recruited second, which one of the following could be true? (A) Quinn was recruited third. (B) Rovero was recruited fifth. (C) Stanton was recruited sixth. (D) Villas was recruited sixth. (E) White was recruited third. 4. If Quinn was recruited immediately before Rovero, then Stanton CANNOT have been recruited (A) first (B) second (C) third (D) fifth (E) seventh 5. If White was recruited earlier than Rovero and if Rovero was recruited earlier than Tao, then which one of the following could be true? (A) Quinn was recruited first. (B) Rovero was recruited third. (C) Stanton was recruited second. (D) Tao was recruited sixth. (E) Villas was recruited sixth. 6. If White was recruited immediately before Quinn, which one of the following must have been recruited sixth? (A) Quinn (B) Rovero (C) Stanton (D) Villas (E) White

Questions 7–13 In the Lifestyle, Metro, and Sports sections of tomorrow’s newspaper, a total of six different photographs are to appear, exactly two photographs per section. Each of the available photographs was taken by one of three photographers: Fuentes, Gagnon, and Hue. Selection of the photographs is constrained by the following conditions: For each photographer, at least one but no more than three of that photographer ’s photographs must appear. At least one photograph in the Lifestyle section must be by a photographer who has at least one photograph in the Metro section. The number of Hue’s photographs in the Lifestyle section must be the same as the number of Fuentes’ photographs in the Sports section. None of Gagnon’s photographs can be in the Sports section. 7. Which one of the following could be an acceptable selection of the photographs to appear? (A) Lifestyle: both photographs by Fuentes Metro: one photograph by Fuentes and one by Hue Sports: one photograph by Gagnon and one by Hue (B) Lifestyle: one photograph by Fuentes and one by Gagnon Metro: one photograph by Fuentes and one by Gagnon Sports: both photographs by Hue (C) Lifestyle: both photographs by Fuentes Metro: both photographs by Gagnon Sports: both photographs by Hue (D) Lifestyle: both photographs by Gagnon Metro: one photograph by Fuentes and one by Gagnon Sports: one photograph by Fuentes and one by Hue (E) Lifestyle: one photograph by Gagnon and one by Hue Metro: both photographs by Hue Sports: one photograph by Fuentes and one by Hue 8. If both photographs in the Lifestyle section are by Hue, then which one of the following must be true of the six photographs? (A) Exactly one is by Fuentes. (B) Exactly three are by Fuentes. (C) Exactly one is by Gagnon.

(D) Exactly two are by Gagnon. (E) Exactly two are by Hue. 9. If one photograph in the Lifestyle section is by Gagnon and one is by Hue, then which one of the following must be true? (A) Exactly one photograph in the Metro section is by Fuentes. (B) Exactly one photograph in the Metro section is by Gagnon. (C) Both photographs in the Metro section are by Gagnon. (D) Exactly one photograph in the Sports section is by Hue. (E) Both photographs in the Sports section are by Hue. 10. Which one of the following could be true of the photographs by Fuentes appearing in tomorrow’s paper? (A) One is in the Lifestyle section, one is in the Metro section, and one is in the Sports section. (B) One is in the Lifestyle section, and two are in the Sports section. (C) Two are in the Lifestyle section, and one is in the Sports section. (D) One is in the Metro section, and two are in the Sports section. (E) Two are in the Metro section, and one is in the Sports section. 11. If one photograph in the Lifestyle section is by Fuentes and one is by Hue, then which one of the following could be true? (A) Both photographs in the Metro section are by Fuentes. (B) Both photographs in the Metro section are by Gagnon. (C) Exactly one photograph in the Metro section is by Hue. (D) Both photographs in the Sports section are by Hue. (E) Neither photograph in the Sports section is by Hue. 12. If both photographs in one of the three sections are by Gagnon, then which one of the following could be true? (A) Both photographs in the Lifestyle section are by Hue. (B) One photograph in the Lifestyle section is by Fuentes and one is by Hue.

(C) Both photographs in the Metro section are by Fuentes. (D) One photograph in the Metro section is by Gagnon and one is by Hue. (E) Both photographs in the Sports section are by Hue. 13. If one photograph in the Metro section is by Fuentes and one is by Hue, then which one of the following could be true? (A) Both photographs in the Lifestyle section are by Fuentes. (B) Both photographs in the Lifestyle section are by Gagnon. (C) One photograph in the Lifestyle section is by Gagnon and one is by Hue. (D) Both photographs in the Lifestyle section are by Hue. (E) Both photographs in the Sports section are by Fuentes. Questions 14–18 Exactly five students—Grecia, Hakeem, Joe, Katya, and Louise—are to work at a campus art gallery during a special exhibit that runs for exactly five days, Monday through Friday. Each day is divided into two nonoverlapping shifts—first and second—with each student working exactly two shifts. Each shift is worked by exactly one of the students according to the following scheduling restrictions: No student works both shifts of any day. On two consecutive days, Louise works the second shift. On two nonconsecutive days, Grecia works the first shift. Katya works on Tuesday and Friday. Hakeem and Joe work on the same day as each other at least once. Grecia and Louise never work on the same day as each other. 14. Which one of the following could be the list of the students who work the second shifts at the gallery, in order from Monday through Friday? (A) Hakeem, Louise, Louise, Hakeem, Katya (B) Joe, Hakeem, Grecia, Louise, Louise (C) Joe, Katya, Hakeem, Louise, Katya (D) Louise, Katya, Joe, Louise, Katya (E) Louise, Louise, Hakeem, Joe, Joe

15. Which one of the following must be true? (A) Grecia does not work at the gallery on Tuesday. (B) Hakeem does not work at the gallery on Wednesday. (C) Joe does not work at the gallery on Tuesday. (D) Joe does not work at the gallery on Thursday. (E) Louise does not work at the gallery on Tuesday. 16. If Hakeem works at the gallery on Wednesday, then Joe must work at the gallery on which one of the following pairs of days? (A) Monday and Wednesday (B) Monday and Thursday (C) Tuesday and Wednesday (D) Tuesday and Thursday (E) Wednesday and Thursday 17. If there is at least one day on which Grecia and Joe both work at the gallery, then which one of the following could be true? (A) Grecia works the first shift on Tuesday. (B) Hakeem works the second shift on Monday. (C) Hakeem works the second shift on Wednesday. (D) Joe works the first shift on Wednesday. (E) Joe works the first shift on Thursday. 18. If Katya works the second shift on Tuesday at the gallery, then which one of the following could be true? (A) Grecia works the first shift on Monday. (B) Hakeem works the first shift on Monday. (C) Hakeem works the second shift on Wednesday. (D) Joe works the second shift on Thursday. (E) Louise works the second shift on Monday.

Questions 19–23 A publisher is planning to publish six cookbooks—K, L, M, N, O, and P—over the course of the next year. Each cookbook will be published in one of two seasons—fall or spring—subject to the following conditions: M and P cannot be published in the same season as each other. K and N must be published in the same season as each other. If K is published in the fall, O must also be published in the fall. If M is published in the fall, N must be published in the spring. 19. Which one of the following is an acceptable schedule for the publication of the cookbooks? (A) fall: K, L, M, and O spring: N and P (B) fall: K, L, N, and O spring: M and P (C) fall: K, L, N, and P spring: M and O (D) fall: K, M, N, and O spring: L and P (E) fall: M and O spring: K, L, N, and P 20. If M is published in the fall, which one of the following is a pair of cookbooks that could both be published in the fall along with M? (A) K and O (B) L and N (C) L and O (D) N and P (E) O and P 21. If N is published in the fall, which one of the following could be true?

(A) K is published in the spring. (B) L is published in the fall. (C) M is published in the fall. (D) O is published in the spring. (E) P is published in the spring. 22. The schedule for the publication of the cookbooks is fully determined if which one of the following is true? (A) K is published in the fall and L is published in the spring. (B) O is published in the fall and P is published in the spring. (C) P is published in the fall and L is published in the spring. (D) Both K and L are published in the spring. (E) Both M and L are published in the fall. 23. Which one of the following, if substituted for the condition that if M is published in the fall, N must be published in the spring, would have the same effect in determining the schedule for the publication of the cookbooks? (A) If L is published in the fall, M must be published in the spring. (B) If N is published in the fall, P must also be published in the fall. (C) If M is published in the spring, P must be published in the fall. (D) If N is published in the spring, M must also be published in the spring. (E) If O is published in the spring, N must also be published in the spring. STOP If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not work on any other section of the test.

Section 4 Time—35 minutes 25 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. 1. Aisha: Vadim is going to be laid off. Vadim’s work as a programmer has been exemplary since joining the firm. But management has already made the decision to lay off a programmer. And this firm strictly follows a policy of laying off the most recently hired programmer in such cases. Aisha’s conclusion follows logically if which one of the following is assumed? (A) The firm values experience in its programmers more highly than any other quality. (B) When Vadim was hired, the policy of laying off the most recently hired programmer was clearly explained. (C) Vadim is the most recently hired programmer at the firm. (D) Every other programmer at the firm has done better work than Vadim. (E) It is bad policy that the firm always lays off the most recently hired programmer. 2. Wanda: It is common sense that one cannot create visual art without visual stimuli in one’s work area, just as a writer needs written stimuli. A stark, empty work area would hinder my creativity. This is why there are so many things in my studio. Vernon: But a writer needs to read good writing, not supermarket tabloids. Are you inspired by the piles of laundry and empty soda bottles in your studio? Which one of the following most accurately expresses the principle underlying Vernon’s response to Wanda? (A) It is unhealthy to work in a cluttered work area. (B) The quality of the stimuli in an artist’s environment matters. (C) Supermarket tabloids should not be considered stimulating. (D) Messiness impairs artistic creativity. (E) One should be able to be creative even in a stark, empty work area.

3. The official listing of an animal species as endangered triggers the enforcement of legal safeguards designed to protect endangered species, such as tighter animal export and trade restrictions and stronger antipoaching laws. Nevertheless, there have been many cases in which the decline in the wild population of a species was more rapid after that species was listed as endangered than before it was so listed. Which one of the following, if true, does most to account for the increase in the rate of population decline described above? (A) The process of officially listing a species as endangered can take many years. (B) Public campaigns to save endangered animal species often focus only on those species that garner the public’s affection. (C) The number of animal species listed as endangered has recently increased dramatically. (D) Animals are more desirable to collectors when they are perceived to be rare. (E) Poachers find it progressively more difficult to locate animals of a particular species as that species’ population declines. 4. Annette: To persuade the town council to adopt your development plan, you should take them on a trip to visit other towns that have successfully implemented plans like yours. Sefu: But I have a vested interest in their votes. If council members were to accept a trip from me, it would give the appearance of undue influence. The dialogue provides the most support for the claim that Annette and Sefu disagree over whether (A) the council should adopt Sefu’s development plan (B) Sefu should take the council on a trip to visit other towns (C) Sefu has a vested interest in the council’s votes (D) other towns have successfully implemented similar development plans (E) the appearance of undue influence should be avoided 5. Scholar: Recently, some religions have updated the language of their traditional texts and replaced traditional rituals with more contemporary ones. These changes have been followed by increases in attendance at places of worship affiliated with these religions. This shows that any such modernization will result in increased numbers of worshipers. The scholar ’s reasoning is flawed because the scholar presumes without giving sufficient justification that (A) not every religion can update its texts and replace its traditional rituals

(B) modernization of religious texts and rituals will not involve an alteration of their messages (C) the modernization of the texts and rituals of some religions was the cause of their increases in attendance (D) making texts and rituals more modern is the only way in which a religion could bring about an increase in attendance at places of worship (E) the growth in attendance at places of worship affiliated with religions that made their texts and rituals more modern is irreversible 6. If one is to participate in the regional band, one must practice very hard or be very talented. Therefore, Lily, who is first trombonist in the regional band and is very talented, does not practice hard. The flawed reasoning in which one of the following arguments most closely resembles the flawed reasoning in the argument above? (A) In order to have a chance to meet its objectives, the army needs good weather as a precondition for retaining its mobility. The weather is good today, so the army will meet its objectives. (B) If Lois were on vacation, she would be visiting her brother in Chicago or seeing friends in Toronto. Since she is not on vacation, she is in neither Chicago nor Toronto. (C) If Johnson is to win the local election, then neither Horan nor Jacobs can enter the race. Since neither of them plans to run, Johnson will win the race. (D) To stay informed about current events, one must read a major newspaper or watch national TV news every day. So Julie, who is informed about current events and reads a major newspaper every day, does not watch TV news. (E) If Wayne is to get a ride home from the library, either Yvette or Marty must be there. Yvette is not at the library, so Marty must be there. 7. Dietitian: Eating fish can lower one’s cholesterol level. In a study of cholesterol levels and diet, two groups were studied. The first group ate a balanced diet including two servings of fish per week. The second group ate a very similar diet, but ate no fish. The first group showed lower cholesterol levels, on average, than the second group. The two groups had displayed similar average cholesterol levels prior to the study. Which one of the following most accurately describes the role played in the dietitian’s argument by the claim that the two groups had displayed similar average cholesterol levels prior to the study? (A) It is offered as an objection to the main conclusion of the argument. (B) It expresses the main conclusion of the argument. (C) It rules out an alternative explanation of the data collected in the study.

(D) It provides background information on the purpose of the study. (E) It introduces an alternative explanation of the phenomenon described in the main conclusion. 8. Satellite navigation systems (satnavs) for cars, in which computer voices announce directions as you drive, save fuel and promote safety. Studies show that, when assigned to novel destinations, drivers using satnavs took, on average, 7 percent fewer miles per journey than drivers using paper maps. Fewer miles driven means, on average, less fuel consumed. Also, the drivers who used satnavs drove more carefully in that they were not taking their eyes off the road to check paper maps. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument? (A) People who are often required to drive to novel destinations are more likely to use satnavs than people who are rarely required to drive to novel destinations. (B) The more fuel a vehicle consumes, the more motivation a driver has to find the shortest route to his or her destination. (C) Drivers who do not routinely need to drive to an unfamiliar location are more likely to plan out their route carefully prior to departure. (D) Drivers who own satnavs usually prefer to drive to their accustomed destinations by using their customary routes rather than by following the directions given by the satnavs. (E) Drivers who are given directions as needed are less likely to change course suddenly or make other risky maneuvers. 9. A manager cannot extract the best performance from employees by threatening them with termination or offering financial rewards for high productivity. Rather, employees must come to want to do a good job for its own sake. One of the best ways for a manager to achieve this is to delegate responsibility to them, especially for decisions that previously had to be made by the manager. Which one of the following propositions is best illustrated by the situation described in the passage? (A) Increased responsibility can improve a person’s sense of how power should be used. (B) It is often the case that the desire for prestige is more powerful than the desire for job security. (C) In some cases one’s effectiveness in a particular role can be enhanced by a partial relinquishing of control. (D) People who carry out decisions are in the best position to determine what those decisions should be. (E) Business works best by harnessing the self-interest of individuals to benefit the company as a whole. 10. Richard: Because it fails to meet the fundamental requirement of art—that it represent—abstract art will eventually be seen as an aberration.

Jung-Su: Although artists, like musicians, may reject literal representation, makers of abstract art choose to represent the purely formal features of objects, which are discovered only when everyday perspectives are rejected. Thus, whatever others might come to say, abstract art is part of the artistic mainstream. Richard and Jung-Su disagree over whether (A) makers of abstract art reject literal representation (B) the fundamental requirement of art is that it represent (C) musicians may reject literal representation (D) abstract art will be seen as an aberration (E) abstract art is representational 11. A person who knowingly brings about misfortune should be blamed for it. However, in some cases a person who unwittingly brings about misfortune should not be blamed for it. For example, a person should never be blamed for unwittingly bringing about misfortune if the person could not reasonably have foreseen it. The principles above, if valid, most help to justify the reasoning in which one of the following? (A) Although he would have realized it if he had thought about it, it did not occur to Riley that parking his car in the center lane of Main Street could lead to a traffic accident. So, if a traffic accident does result from Riley’s parking his car in the center lane of Main Street, he should not be blamed for it. (B) Oblicek had no idea that suggesting to her brother that he take out a loan to expand his business was likely to cause the business to go bankrupt, nor could she have reasonably foreseen this. So, if the loan does cause her brother ’s business to go bankrupt, Oblicek should not be blamed for it. (C) Gougon had no reason to think that serving the hollandaise sauce would make his guests ill, but he was concerned that it might. Thus, if the hollandaise sauce does make Gougon’s guests ill, Gougon should be blamed for it. (D) When Dr. Fitzpatrick gave his patient the wrong medicine, he did not know that it would cause the patient to experience greatly increased blood pressure. So, if no one else knowingly did anything that contributed to the patient’s increase in blood pressure, no one other than Dr. Fitzpatrick is to blame for it. (E) Any reasonable person could have foreseen that dropping a lit cigarette in dry leaves would start a fire. Thus, even if Kapp did not realize this, she is to blame for starting a fire on Rodriguez’s farm since she dropped a lit cigarette in dry leaves there. 12. Researcher: Research has shown that inhaling the scent of lavender has measurable physiological effects tending to reduce stress. It is known that intense stress can impair the immune system, making one more susceptible to illness. Therefore, it is likely that the incidence of illness among those who

regularly inhale the scent of lavender is reduced by this practice. Which one of the following is an assumption that the researcher ’s argument requires? (A) Many, if not all, of the scents that have a tendency to reduce susceptibility to illness do so, at least in part, by reducing stress. (B) Some people who regularly inhale the scent of lavender would otherwise be under enough stress to impair their immune systems. (C) At least some people who use the scent of lavender to induce relaxation and reduce stress are no more susceptible to illness than average. (D) In anyone for whom the scent of lavender reduces susceptibility to illness, it does so primarily by reducing stress. (E) Reduced stress diminishes susceptibility to illness only for people who are under enough stress to impair their immune systems to at least some degree. 13. Government statistics show that the real (adjusted for inflation) average income for families has risen over the last five years. Therefore, since this year the Andersen family’s income is average for families, the family’s real income must have increased over the last five years. The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument (A) ambiguously uses the term “average” in two different senses (B) fails to take into account inflation with respect to the Andersen family’s income (C) overlooks the possibility that most families’ incomes are below average (D) fails to consider the possibility that the Andersen family’s real income was above average in the recent past (E) presumes, without providing justification, that the government makes no errors in gathering accurate estimates of family income 14. Certain methods of creating high-quality counterfeit banknotes involve making accurate measurements of the images printed on genuine banknotes. Hence, if the production of high-quality counterfeit banknotes is to be prevented, some of the images on banknotes must be made very difficult or impossible to measure accurately. The argument’s conclusion can be properly drawn if which one of the following is assumed? (A) Today’s copying technology is sophisticated enough to replicate almost any paper product with great precision. (B) Once the images printed on a banknote have been measured accurately, there is no further impediment to the banknote’s being exactly replicated.

(C) Governments have better printing technology available to them than counterfeiters do. (D) Few countries produce banknotes with images that are difficult for counterfeiters to measure accurately. (E) New designs in banknotes generally lead to decreases in the amount of counterfeit currency in circulation. 15. Armstrong: For the treatment of a particular disease, Dr. Sullivan argues for using nutritional supplements rather than the pharmaceuticals that most doctors prescribe. But this is in his self-interest since he is paid to endorse a line of nutritional supplements. Thus, we should not use nutritional supplements in treating the disease. Armstrong’s argument is flawed in that it (A) relies on two different meanings of the term “supplement” to draw a conclusion (B) relies solely on an appeal to an authority whose trustworthiness should not necessarily be taken for granted (C) appeals to people’s emotions regarding the treatment of disease rather than to the efficacy of the two approaches to treatment (D) criticizes Dr. Sullivan’s motives for holding a position rather than addressing the position itself (E) fails to justify its presumption that nutritional supplements cannot be used in conjunction with other treatments 16. Economist: If the economy grows stronger, employment will increase, and hence more parents will need to find day care for their young children. Unfortunately, in a stronger economy many daycare workers will quit to take better-paying jobs in other fields. Therefore, a stronger economy is likely to make it much more difficult to find day care. Which one of the following is an assumption the economist’s argument requires? (A) If the economy grows stronger, most of the new jobs that are created will be in fields that pay well. (B) If the economy grows stronger, the number of new day-care workers will not be significantly greater than the number of day-care workers who move to better-paying jobs in other fields. (C) If the economy grows stronger, the number of workers employed by day-care centers is likely to decrease. (D) The shortage of day care for children is unlikely to worsen unless employment increases and many day-care center employees quit to take better-paying jobs in other fields. (E) The total number of young children in day-care centers will decrease if the cost of day care increases significantly.

17. Ostrich farming requires far less acreage than cattle ranching requires, and ostriches reproduce much faster than cattle. Starting out in cattle ranching requires a large herd of cows, one bull, and at least two acres per cow. By contrast, two pairs of yearling ostriches and one acre of similar land are enough to begin ostrich farming. The start-up costs for ostrich farming are greater, but it can eventually bring in as much as five times what cattle ranching does. Which one of the following is most strongly supported by the information above? (A) Two pairs of yearling ostriches are more expensive than a herd of cows and a bull. (B) Cattle ranching is not a good source of income. (C) A cow consumes no more feed than an ostrich does. (D) The average ostrich farm generates almost five times as much profit as the average cattle ranch. (E) Ostrich farmers typically lose money during their first year. 18. For several centuries there have been hairless dogs in western Mexico and in coastal Peru. It is very unlikely that a trait as rare as hairlessness emerged on two separate occasions. Since the dogs have never existed in the wild, and the vast mountainous jungle separating these two regions would have made overland travel between them extremely difficult centuries ago, the dogs must have been transported from one of these regions to the other by boat, probably during trading expeditions. Which one of the following is an assumption that the argument requires? (A) Hairless dogs have never been found anywhere except in the regions of western Mexico and coastal Peru. (B) Most of the trade goods that came into western Mexico centuries ago were transported by boat. (C) Centuries ago, no one would have traveled between western Mexico and coastal Peru by boat except for the purposes of carrying out a trading expedition. (D) If hairless dogs were at one time transported between western Mexico and coastal Peru by boat, they were traded in exchange for other goods. (E) Centuries ago, it was easier to travel by boat between western Mexico and coastal Peru than to travel by an overland route. 19. Researchers working in Western Australia have discovered the oldest fragments of the Earth’s early crust that have yet been identified: microdiamonds. These microscopic crystals measure only 50 microns across and were formed 4.2 billion years ago. This discovery sheds light on how long it took for the Earth’s crust to form, since this date is only 300 million years after the formation of the Earth itself. If the statements above are true, which one of the following must also be true? (A) The Earth’s crust took no longer than 300 million years to start to form.

(B) The Earth’s crust first formed in the area that is now Western Australia. (C) The Earth’s crust took billions of years to form. (D) Microdiamonds were the first components of the Earth’s crust to form. (E) All naturally occurring microdiamonds were formed at the time the Earth’s crust was being formed. 20. The public square was an important tool of democracy in days past because it provided a forum for disparate citizens to discuss the important issues of the day. Today, a person with Internet access can discuss important issues with millions of people across the nation, allowing the Internet to play the role once played by the public square. Hence, we should ensure that Internet users have at least as much freedom of expression as did people speaking in the public square. Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument? (A) People speaking in the public square of days past had complete freedom of expression. (B) All citizens have the same level of access to the Internet. (C) A public forum can lose effectiveness as a tool of democracy if participants cannot discuss issues freely. (D) The Internet is more often used to discuss important issues than to discuss frivolous issues. (E) Other than the Internet, no other public forum today is an important tool of democracy. 21. At a large elementary school researchers studied a small group of children who successfully completed an experimental program in which they learned to play chess. The study found that most of the children who completed the program soon showed a significant increase in achievement levels in all of their schoolwork. Thus, it is likely that the reasoning power and spatial intuition exercised in chess-playing also contribute to achievement in many other areas of intellectual activity. Which one of the following, if true, most tends to undermine the argument? (A) Some students who did not participate in the chess program had learned to play chess at home. (B) Those children who began the program but who did not successfully complete it had lower preprogram levels of achievement than did those who eventually did successfully complete the program. (C) Many of the children who completed the program subsequently sought membership on a school chess team that required a high grade average for membership. (D) Some students who did not participate in the chess program participated instead in after-school study sessions that helped them reach much higher levels of achievement in the year after they attended the sessions.

(E) At least some of the students who did not successfully complete the program were nevertheless more talented chess players than some of the students who did complete the program. 22. On Wednesdays, Kate usually buys some guava juice. But the only place she can buy guava juice is the local health food store. It follows that she must sometimes shop at the local health food store on Wednesdays. The argument above is most similar in its pattern of reasoning to which one of the following arguments? (A) Only teachers at the Culinary Institute are allowed to use the institute’s main kitchen. Most dinners at Cafe Delice are prepared in that kitchen. So at least some dinners at Cafe Delice must be prepared by Culinary Institute teachers. (B) All dinners at Cafe Delice are prepared in the main kitchen of the Culinary Institute. But only teachers at the institute are allowed to use that kitchen. So the dinners at Cafe Delice must be prepared by Culinary Institute teachers. (C) Most dinners at Cafe Delice are prepared in the main kitchen of the Culinary Institute. All the teachers at the institute are allowed to use that kitchen. So at least some dinners at Cafe Delice must be prepared by Culinary Institute teachers. (D) Most teachers at the Culinary Institute are allowed to use the institute’s main kitchen. Dinners at Cafe Delice are only prepared in that kitchen. So dinners at Cafe Delice must sometimes be prepared by Culinary Institute teachers. (E) Only teachers at the Culinary Institute are allowed to use the main kitchen of the institute. Dinners at Cafe Delice are usually prepared by Culinary Institute teachers. So dinners at Cafe Delice must sometimes be prepared in the main kitchen of the Culinary Institute. 23. Editor: The city’s previous recycling program, which featured pickup of recyclables every other week, was too costly. The city claims that its new program, which features weekly pickup, will be more cost effective, since the greater the volume of recyclables collected per year, the more revenue the city gains from selling the recyclables. But this is absurd. People will put out the same volume of recyclables overall; it will just be spread out over a greater number of pickups. Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the editor ’s argument? (A) The cost of collecting and disposing of general trash has been less than the cost of collecting and disposing of recyclables, and this is still likely to be the case under the new recycling program. (B) Even if the volume of collected recyclables increases, that increase might not be enough to make the recycling program cost effective. (C) Because the volume of recyclables people accumulate during a week is less than what they accumulate during two weeks, the city expects a recyclables pickup to take less time under the new program. (D) A weekly schedule for recyclables pickup is substantially easier for people to follow and adhere

to than is a schedule of pickups every other week. (E) Because of the increase in the number of pickups under the new program, the amount charged by the contractor that collects the city’s recyclables will increase significantly. 24. Professor: Many introductory undergraduate science courses are intended to be “proving grounds,” that is, they are designed to be so demanding that only those students most committed to being science majors will receive passing grades in these courses. However, studies show that some of the students in these very demanding introductory courses who are least enthusiastic about science receive passing grades in these courses. Hence, designing introductory science courses to serve as proving grounds has not served its intended purpose. Which one of the following is an assumption that the professor ’s argument requires? (A) If some of the students who are most enthusiastic about science do not receive passing grades in introductory science courses, then designing these courses to serve as proving grounds has been unsuccessful. (B) Science departments need a way to ensure that only those students most committed to being science majors will receive passing grades in introductory science courses. (C) Some of the students in the very demanding introductory science courses who are most enthusiastic about science do not receive passing grades in those courses. (D) None of the students in the very demanding introductory science courses who are least enthusiastic about science are among the students most committed to being science majors. (E) Introductory science courses should not continue to be designed to serve as proving grounds if doing so has not served its intended purpose. 25. Many bird and reptile species use hissing as a threat device against potential predators. The way these species produce hissing sounds is similar enough that it is likely that this behavior developed in an early common ancestor. At the time this common ancestor would have lived, however, none of its potential predators would have yet acquired the anatomy necessary to hear hissing sounds. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent discrepancy in the information above? (A) Like its potential predators, the common ancestor of bird and reptile species would have lacked the anatomy necessary to hear hissing sounds. (B) The common ancestor of bird and reptile species would probably have employed multiple threat devices against potential predators. (C) The production of a hissing sound would have increased the apparent body size of the common ancestor of bird and reptile species. (D) The use of hissing as a threat device would have been less energetically costly than other threat behaviors available to the common ancestor of bird and reptile species.

(E) Unlike most modern bird and reptile species, the common ancestor of these species would have had few predators. STOP If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not work on any other section of the test.

Acknowledgment is made to the following sources from which material has been adapted for use in this test booklet: Richard Dyer, “Love Him or Loathe Him, He Transformed Music.” ©2006 by The New York Times Company. Peter Lipton, “The Medawar Lecture 2004: The Truth about Science” in Philosophical Transactions of the Royal Society B. ©2005 by The Royal Society. Barbara A. Mann, “The Fire at Onondaga.” ©1995 by the Kahniakehaka Nation Council. Thomas D. Mays, “Biotech Incites Outcry.” ©1996 by The National Law Journal. John H. Schumann, “Some Problems with Falsification: An Illustration from SLA Research” in Applied Linguistics. ©1993 by Oxford University Press.

Wait for the supervisor's instructions before you open the page to the topic. Please print and sign your name and write the date in the designated spaces below. Time: 35 Minutes General Directions You will have 35 minutes in which to plan and write an essay on the topic inside. Read the topic and the accompanying directions carefully. You will probably find it best to spend a few minutes considering the topic and organizing your thoughts before you begin writing. In your essay, be sure to develop your ideas fully, leaving time, if possible, to review what you have written. Do not write on a topic other than the one specified. Writing on a topic of your own choice is not acceptable. No special knowledge is required or expected for this writing exercise. Law schools are interested in the reasoning, clarity, organization, language usage, and writing mechanics displayed in your essay. How well you write is more important than how much you write. Confine your essay to the blocked, lined area on the front and back of the separate Writing Sample Response Sheet. Only that area will be reproduced for law schools. Be sure that your writing is legible. Both this topic sheet and your response sheet must be turned in to the testing staff before you leave the room.

LSAT Writing Sample Topic ©2015 by Law School Admission Council, Inc. All rights reserved. Directions: The scenario presented below describes two choices, either one of which can be supported on the basis of the information given. Your essay should consider both choices and argue for one over the other, based on the two specified criteria and the facts provided. There is no “right” or “wrong” choice: a reasonable argument can be made for either.

Topic Yasmin Parsi is deciding whether to cast an unknown actor to star in her new studio film or to hire Jonathan Tauzen, an actor with many fans. Using the facts below, write an essay in which you argue for one choice over the other, based on the following two criteria: Parsi wants to have as much creative control over her film as possible. Parsi wants to make it as likely as possible that the studio will hire her to make another film in the future. If a known star is not used, the studio will provide a minimal marketing budget and release the film in only a few markets. In the past the studio has given movies in limited release time to build an audience before deciding whether its investment was worthwhile. Though successful, Parsi’s previous films were all independently produced with unknown actors. Under her current deal, the studio retains some control over the content of her film. The studio’s history is to provide oversight in proportion to the amount of money it is contributing. If Parsi hires Tauzen, the studio would provide extra funding to cover the cost of an established star. The studio would also provide a moderate publicity budget to allow for a wide release of the film. The studio has a history of abandoning movies in wide release if they do not quickly become popular. With a known actor there would be pressure from both the studio and the actor to make the actor ’s part more central to the film. Tauzen could be an effective ally if Parsi has other creative differences with the studio. Tauzen has a history of causing delays in filming. This has sometimes led to the films going over budget.

Writing Sample Response Sheet



Computing Your Score Directions: 1. Use the Answer Key to check your answers. 2. Take the number of questions you answered correctly in each section and add those numbers together to compute your raw score. 3. Use the Score Conversion Table to convert your raw score into the 120–180 scale.

Score Conversion Table LSAT Form 5LSN115 (October 2015) Reported Score 180 179 178 177 176 175 174 173 172 171 170 169 168 167 166 165 164 163 162 161 160 159 158 157 156 155 154 153 152 151 150 149 148 147 146

Raw Score Lowest Highest 99 101 98 98 97 97 96 96 95 95 94 94 93 93 92 92 91 91 90 90 89 89 87 88 86 86 84 85 83 83 82 82 80 81 78 79 77 77 75 76 73 74 72 72 70 71 68 69 66 67 65 65 63 64 61 62 59 60 58 58 56 57 54 55 53 53 51 52 49 50

145 144 143 142 141 140 139 138 137 136 135 134 133 132 131 130 129 128 127 126 125 124 123 122 121 120

48 46 44 43 41 40 38 37 35 34 33 31 30 28 27 26 25 23 22 21 20 19 17 16 * 0

48 47 45 43 42 40 39 37 36 34 33 32 30 29 27 26 25 24 22 21 20 19 18 16 * 15

*There is no raw score that will produce this scaled score for this form.

Answer Key

Section I 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

C B D A D A D B B C B D D B E C C B E C C C D B A B E

Section II 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

B B C C C D C E B B A B D E A C D B C E B A E D D E

Section III 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

D C D B A B B C D A C E C A C B E B E C B A B

Section IV 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

C B D B C D C E C E B B D B D B A E A C C A D D C

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Table of Contents Introduction to the LSAT Scoring Test Score Accuracy—Reliability and Standard Error of Measurement Adjustments for Variation in Test Difficulty Research on the LSAT To Inquire About Test Questions How This PrepTest Differs From an Actual LSAT The Three LSAT Multiple-Choice Question Types Analytical Reasoning Questions Logical Reasoning Questions Reading Comprehension Questions The Writing Sample Taking The PrepTest Under Simulated LSAT Conditions Answer Sheet The PrepTest Section I Section II Section III Section IV The Writing Sample Writing Sample Response Sheet Computing Your Score Answer Key

Introduction to the LSAT The Law School Admission Test is a half-day standardized test required for admission to all ABA-approved law schools, most Canadian law schools, and many other law schools. It consists of five 35-minute sections of multiple-choice questions. Four of the five sections contribute to the test taker’s score. These sections include one Reading Comprehension section, one Analytical Reasoning section, and two Logical Reasoning sections. The unscored section, commonly referred to as the variable section, typically is used to pretest new test questions or to preequate new test forms. The placement of this section in the LSAT will vary. A 35-minute writing sample is administered at the end of the test. The writing sample is not scored by LSAC, but copies are sent to all law schools to which you apply. The score scale for the LSAT is 120 to 180. The LSAT is designed to measure skills considered essential for success in law school: the reading and comprehension of complex texts with accuracy and insight; the organization and management of information and the ability to draw reasonable inferences from it; the ability to think critically; and the analysis and evaluation of the reasoning and arguments of others. The LSAT provides a standard measure of acquired reading and verbal reasoning skills that law schools can use as one of several factors in assessing applicants. For up-to-date information about LSAC’s services, go to our website, LSAC.org.

Scoring Your LSAT score is based on the number of questions you answer correctly (the raw score). There is no deduction for incorrect answers, and all questions count equally. In other words, there is no penalty for guessing. Test Score Accuracy—Reliability and Standard Error of Measurement Candidates perform at different levels on different occasions for reasons quite unrelated to the characteristics of a test itself. The accuracy of test scores is best described by the use of two related statistical terms: reliability and standard error of measurement. Reliability is a measure of how consistently a test measures the skills being assessed. The higher the reliability coefficient for a test, the more certain we can be that test takers would get very similar scores if they took the test again. LSAC reports an internal consistency measure of reliability for every test form. Reliability can vary from 0.00 to 1.00, and a test with no measurement error would have a reliability coefficient of 1.00 (never attained in practice). Reliability coefficients for past LSAT forms have ranged from .90 to .95, indicating a high degree of consistency for these tests. LSAC expects the reliability of the LSAT to continue to fall within the same range. LSAC also reports the amount of measurement error associated with each test form, a concept known as the standard error of measurement (SEM). The SEM, which is usually about 2.6 points, indicates how close a test taker’s observed score is likely to be to his or her true score. True scores are theoretical scores that would be obtained from perfectly reliable tests with no measurement error—scores never known in practice. Score bands, or ranges of scores that contain a test taker’s true score a certain percentage of the time, can be derived using the SEM. LSAT score bands are constructed by adding and subtracting the (rounded) SEM to and from an actual LSAT score (e.g., the LSAT score, plus or minus 3 points). Scores near 120 or 180 have asymmetrical bands. Score bands constructed in this manner will contain an individual’s true score approximately 68 percent of the time. Measurement error also must be taken into account when comparing LSAT scores of two test takers. It is likely that small differences in scores are due to measurement error rather than to meaningful differences in ability. The standard error of score differences provides some guidance as to the importance of differences between two scores. The standard error of score differences is approximately 1.4 times larger than the standard error of measurement for the individual scores. Thus, a test score should be regarded as a useful but approximate measure of a test taker’s abilities as measured by the test, not as an exact determination of his or her abilities. LSAC encourages law schools to examine the range of scores within the interval that probably contains the test taker’s true score (e.g., the test taker’s score band) rather than solely interpret the reported score alone. Adjustments for Variation in Test Difficulty All test forms of the LSAT reported on the same score scale are designed to measure the same abilities, but one test form may be slightly easier or more difficult than another. The scores from different test forms are made comparable through a statistical procedure known as equating. As a result of equating, a given scaled score earned on different test forms reflects the same level of ability. Research on the LSAT Summaries of LSAT validity studies and other LSAT research can be found in member law school libraries and at LSAC.org. To Inquire About Test Questions If you find what you believe to be an error or ambiguity in a test question that affects your response to the question, contact LSAC by e-mail: [email protected], or write to Law School Admission Council, Test Development Group, PO Box 40, Newtown, PA 18940-0040.

How This PrepTest Differs From an Actual LSAT This PrepTest is made up of the scored sections and writing sample from the actual disclosed LSAT administered in December 2015. However, it does not contain the extra, variable section that is used to pretest new test items of one of the three multiple-choice question types. The three multiple-choice question types may be in a different order in an actual LSAT than in this PrepTest. This is because the order of these question types is intentionally varied for each administration of the test.

The Three LSAT Multiple-Choice Question Types The multiple-choice questions that make up most of the LSAT reflect a broad range of academic disciplines and are intended to give no advantage to candidates from a particular academic background. The five sections of the test contain three different question types. The following material presents a general discussion of the nature of each question type and some strategies that can be used in answering them. Analytical Reasoning Questions Analytical Reasoning questions are designed to assess the ability to consider a group of facts and rules, and, given those facts and rules, determine what could or must be true. The specific scenarios associated with these questions are usually unrelated to law, since they are intended to be accessible to a wide range of test takers. However, the skills tested parallel those involved in determining what could or must be the case given a set of regulations, the terms of a contract, or the facts of a legal case in relation to the law. In Analytical Reasoning questions, you are asked to reason deductively from a set of statements and rules or principles that describe relationships among persons, things, or events. Analytical Reasoning questions appear in sets, with each set based on a single passage. The passage used for each set of questions describes common ordering relationships or grouping relationships, or a combination of both types of relationships. Examples include scheduling employees for work shifts, assigning instructors to class sections, ordering tasks according to priority, and distributing grants for projects. Analytical Reasoning questions test a range of deductive reasoning skills. These include: • Comprehending the basic structure of a set of relationships by determining a complete solution to the problem posed (for example, an acceptable seating arrangement of all six diplomats around a table) • Reasoning with conditional (“if-then”) statements and recognizing logically equivalent formulations of such statements • Inferring what could be true or must be true from given facts and rules • Inferring what could be true or must be true from given facts and rules together with new information in the form of an additional or substitute fact or rule • Recognizing when two statements are logically equivalent in context by identifying a condition or rule that could replace one of the original conditions while still resulting in the same possible outcomes Analytical Reasoning questions reflect the kinds of detailed analyses of relationships and sets of constraints that a law student must perform in legal problem solving. For example, an Analytical Reasoning passage might describe six diplomats being seated around a table, following certain rules of protocol as to who can sit where. You, the test taker, must answer questions about the logical implications of given and new information. For example, you may be asked who can sit between diplomats X and Y, or who cannot sit next to X if W sits next to Y. Similarly, if you were a student in law school, you might be asked to analyze a scenario involving a set of particular circumstances and a set of governing rules in the form of constitutional provisions, statutes, administrative codes, or prior rulings that have been upheld. You might then be asked to determine the legal options in the scenario: what is required given the scenario, what is permissible given the scenario, and what is prohibited given the scenario. Or you might be asked to develop a “theory” for the case: when faced with an incomplete set of facts about the case, you must fill in the picture based on what is implied by the facts that are known. The problem could be elaborated by the addition of new information or hypotheticals. No formal training in logic is required to answer these questions correctly. Analytical Reasoning questions are intended to be answered using knowledge, skills, and reasoning ability generally expected of college students and graduates. Suggested Approach

Some people may prefer to answer first those questions about a passage that seem less difficult and then those that seem more difficult. In general, it is best to finish one passage before starting on another, because much time can be lost in returning to a passage and reestablishing familiarity with its relationships. However, if you are having great difficulty on one particular set of questions and are spending too much time on them, it may be to your advantage to skip that set of questions and go on to the next passage, returning to the problematic set of questions after you have finished the other questions in the section. Do not assume that because the conditions for a set of questions look long or complicated, the questions based on those conditions will be especially difficult. Read the passage carefully. Careful reading and analysis are necessary to determine the exact nature of the relationships involved in an Analytical Reasoning passage. Some relationships are fixed (for example, P and R must always work on the same project). Other relationships are variable (for example, Q must be assigned to either team 1 or team 3). Some relationships that are not stated explicitly in the conditions are implied by and can be deduced from those that are stated (for example, if one condition about paintings in a display specifies that Painting K must be to the left of Painting Y, and another specifies that Painting W must be to the left of Painting K, then it can be deduced that Painting W must be to the left of Painting Y). In reading the conditions, do not introduce unwarranted assumptions. For instance, in a set of questions establishing relationships of height and weight among the members of a team, do not assume that a person who is taller than another person must weigh more than that person. As another example, suppose a set involves ordering and a question in the set asks what must be true if both X and Y must be earlier than Z; in this case, do not assume that X must be earlier than Y merely because X is mentioned before Y. All the information needed to answer each question is provided in the passage and the question itself. The conditions are designed to be as clear as possible. Do not interpret the conditions as if they were intended to trick you. For example, if a question asks how many people could be eligible to serve on a committee, consider only those people named in the passage unless directed otherwise. When in doubt, read the conditions in their most obvious sense. Remember, however, that the language in the conditions is intended to be read for precise meaning. It is essential to pay particular attention to words that describe or limit relationships, such as “only,” “exactly,” “never,” “always,” “must be,” “cannot be,” and the like. The result of this careful reading will be a clear picture of the structure of the relationships involved, including the kinds of relationships permitted, the participants in the relationships, and the range of possible actions or attributes for these participants. Keep in mind question independence. Each question should be considered separately from the other questions in its set. No information, except what is given in the original conditions, should be carried over from one question to another. In some cases a question will simply ask for conclusions to be drawn from the conditions as originally given. Some questions may, however, add information to the original conditions or temporarily suspend or replace one of the original conditions for the purpose of that question only. For example, if Question 1 adds the supposition “if P is sitting at table 2 ...,” this supposition should NOT be carried over to any other question in the set. Consider highlighting text and using diagrams. Many people find it useful to underline key points in the passage and in each question. In addition, it may prove very helpful to draw a diagram to assist you in finding the solution to the problem. In preparing for the test, you may wish to experiment with different types of diagrams. For a scheduling problem, a simple calendar-like diagram may be helpful. For a grouping problem, an array of labeled columns or rows may be useful. Even though most people find diagrams to be very helpful, some people seldom use them, and for some individual questions no one will need a diagram. There is by no means universal agreement on which kind of diagram is best for which problem or in which cases a diagram is most useful. Do not be concerned if a particular problem in the test seems to be best approached without the use of a diagram. Logical Reasoning Questions

Arguments are a fundamental part of the law, and analyzing arguments is a key element of legal analysis. Training in the law builds on a foundation of basic reasoning skills. Law students must draw on the skills of analyzing, evaluating, constructing, and refuting arguments. They need to be able to identify what information is relevant to an issue or argument and what impact further evidence might have. They need to be able to reconcile opposing positions and use arguments to persuade others. Logical Reasoning questions evaluate the ability to analyze, critically evaluate, and complete arguments as they occur in ordinary language. The questions are based on short arguments drawn from a wide variety of sources, including newspapers, general interest magazines, scholarly publications, advertisements, and informal discourse. These arguments mirror legal reasoning in the types of arguments presented and in their complexity, though few of the arguments actually have law as a subject matter. Each Logical Reasoning question requires you to read and comprehend a short passage, then answer one question (or, rarely, two questions) about it. The questions are designed to assess a wide range of skills involved in thinking critically, with an emphasis on skills that are central to legal reasoning. These skills include: • Recognizing the parts of an argument and their relationships • Recognizing similarities and differences between patterns of reasoning • Drawing well-supported conclusions • Reasoning by analogy • Recognizing misunderstandings or points of disagreement • Determining how additional evidence affects an argument • Detecting assumptions made by particular arguments • Identifying and applying principles or rules • Identifying flaws in arguments • Identifying explanations The questions do not presuppose specialized knowledge of logical terminology. For example, you will not be expected to know the meaning of specialized terms such as “ad hominem” or “syllogism.” On the other hand, you will be expected to understand and critique the reasoning contained in arguments. This requires that you possess a university-level understanding of widely used concepts such as argument, premise, assumption, and conclusion. Suggested Approach Read each question carefully. Make sure that you understand the meaning of each part of the question. Make sure that you understand the meaning of each answer choice and the ways in which it may or may not relate to the question posed. Do not pick a response simply because it is a true statement. Although true, it may not answer the question posed. Answer each question on the basis of the information that is given, even if you do not agree with it. Work within the context provided by the passage. LSAT questions do not involve any tricks or hidden meanings. Reading Comprehension Questions Both law school and the practice of law revolve around extensive reading of highly varied, dense, argumentative, and expository texts (for example, cases, codes, contracts, briefs, decisions, evidence).

This reading must be exacting, distinguishing precisely what is said from what is not said. It involves comparison, analysis, synthesis, and application (for example, of principles and rules). It involves drawing appropriate inferences and applying ideas and arguments to new contexts. Law school reading also requires the ability to grasp unfamiliar subject matter and the ability to penetrate difficult and challenging material. The purpose of LSAT Reading Comprehension questions is to measure the ability to read, with understanding and insight, examples of lengthy and complex materials similar to those commonly encountered in law school. The Reading Comprehension section of the LSAT contains four sets of reading questions, each set consisting of a selection of reading material followed by five to eight questions. The reading selection in three of the four sets consists of a single reading passage; the other set contains two related shorter passages. Sets with two passages are a variant of Reading Comprehension called Comparative Reading, which was introduced in June 2007. Comparative Reading questions concern the relationships between the two passages, such as those of generalization/instance, principle/application, or point/counterpoint. Law school work often requires reading two or more texts in conjunction with each other and understanding their relationships. For example, a law student may read a trial court decision together with an appellate court decision that overturns it, or identify the fact pattern from a hypothetical suit together with the potentially controlling case law. Reading selections for LSAT Reading Comprehension questions are drawn from a wide range of subjects in the humanities, the social sciences, the biological and physical sciences, and areas related to the law. Generally, the selections are densely written, use high-level vocabulary, and contain sophisticated argument or complex rhetorical structure (for example, multiple points of view). Reading Comprehension questions require you to read carefully and accurately, to determine the relationships among the various parts of the reading selection, and to draw reasonable inferences from the material in the selection. The questions may ask about the following characteristics of a passage or pair of passages: • The main idea or primary purpose • Information that is explicitly stated • Information or ideas that can be inferred • The meaning or purpose of words or phrases as used in context • The organization or structure • The application of information in the selection to a new context • Principles that function in the selection • Analogies to claims or arguments in the selection • An author’s attitude as revealed in the tone of a passage or the language used • The impact of new information on claims or arguments in the selection Suggested Approach Since reading selections are drawn from many different disciplines and sources, you should not be discouraged if you encounter material with which you are not familiar. It is important to remember that questions are to be answered exclusively on the basis of the information provided in the selection. There is no particular knowledge that you are expected to bring to the test, and you should not make inferences based on any prior knowledge of a subject that you may have. You may, however, wish to defer working on a set of questions that seems particularly difficult or unfamiliar until after you have dealt with sets you find easier. Strategies. One question that often arises in connection with Reading Comprehension has to do with the most effective and efficient order in which to read the selections and questions. Possible approaches

include: • reading the selection very closely and then answering the questions; • reading the questions first, reading the selection closely, and then returning to the questions; or • skimming the selection and questions very quickly, then rereading the selection closely and answering the questions. Test takers are different, and the best strategy for one might not be the best strategy for another. In preparing for the test, therefore, you might want to experiment with the different strategies and decide what works most effectively for you. Remember that your strategy must be effective under timed conditions. For this reason, the first strategy—reading the selection very closely and then answering the questions—may be the most effective for you. Nonetheless, if you believe that one of the other strategies might be more effective for you, you should try it out and assess your performance using it. Reading the selection. Whatever strategy you choose, you should give the passage or pair of passages at least one careful reading before answering the questions. Try to distinguish main ideas from supporting ideas, and opinions or attitudes from factual, objective information. Note transitions from one idea to the next and identify the relationships among the different ideas or parts of a passage, or between the two passages in Comparative Reading sets. Consider how and why an author makes points and draws conclusions. Be sensitive to implications of what the passages say. You may find it helpful to mark key parts of passages. For example, you might underline main ideas or important arguments, and you might circle transitional words—“although,” “nevertheless,” “correspondingly,” and the like—that will help you map the structure of a passage. Also, you might note descriptive words that will help you identify an author’s attitude toward a particular idea or person. Answering the Questions • Always read all the answer choices before selecting the best answer. The best answer choice is the one that most accurately and completely answers the question being posed. • Respond to the specific question being asked. Do not pick an answer choice simply because it is a true statement. For example, picking a true statement might yield an incorrect answer to a question in which you are asked to identify an author’s position on an issue, since you are not being asked to evaluate the truth of the author’s position but only to correctly identify what that position is. • Answer the questions only on the basis of the information provided in the selection. Your own views, interpretations, or opinions, and those you have heard from others, may sometimes conflict with those expressed in a reading selection; however, you are expected to work within the context provided by the reading selection. You should not expect to agree with everything you encounter in Reading Comprehension passages.

The Writing Sample On the day of the test, you will be asked to write one sample essay. LSAC does not score the writing sample, but copies are sent to all law schools to which you apply. According to a 2015 LSAC survey of 129 United States and Canadian law schools, almost all use the writing sample in evaluating at least some applications for admission. Failure to respond to writing sample prompts and frivolous responses have been used by law schools as grounds for rejection of applications for admission. In developing and implementing the writing sample portion of the LSAT, LSAC has operated on the following premises: First, law schools and the legal profession value highly the ability to communicate effectively in writing. Second, it is important to encourage potential law students to develop effective writing skills. Third, a sample of an applicant’s writing, produced under controlled conditions, is a potentially useful indication of that person’s writing ability. Fourth, the writing sample can serve as an independent check on other writing submitted by applicants as part of the admission process. Finally, writing samples may be useful for diagnostic purposes related to improving a candidate’s writing. The writing prompt presents a decision problem. You are asked to make a choice between two positions or courses of action. Both of the choices are defensible, and you are given criteria and facts on which to base your decision. There is no “right” or “wrong” position to take on the topic, so the quality of each test taker’s response is a function not of which choice is made, but of how well or poorly the choice is supported and how well or poorly the other choice is criticized. The LSAT writing prompt was designed and validated by legal education professionals. Since it involves writing based on fact sets and criteria, the writing sample gives applicants the opportunity to demonstrate the type of argumentative writing that is required in law school, although the topics are usually nonlegal. You will have 35 minutes in which to plan and write an essay on the topic you receive. Read the topic and the accompanying directions carefully. You will probably find it best to spend a few minutes considering the topic and organizing your thoughts before you begin writing. In your essay, be sure to develop your ideas fully, leaving time, if possible, to review what you have written. Do not write on a topic other than the one specified. Writing on a topic of your own choice is not acceptable. No special knowledge is required or expected for this writing exercise. Law schools are interested in the reasoning, clarity, organization, language usage, and writing mechanics displayed in your essay. How well you write is more important than how much you write. Confine your essay to the blocked, lined area on the front and back of the separate Writing Sample Response Sheet. Only that area will be reproduced for law schools. Be sure that your writing is legible.

Taking the PrepTest Under Simulated LSAT Conditions One important way to prepare for the LSAT is to simulate the day of the test by taking a practice test under actual time constraints. Taking a practice test under timed conditions helps you to estimate the amount of time you can afford to spend on each question in a section and to determine the question types on which you may need additional practice. Since the LSAT is a timed test, it is important to use your allotted time wisely. During the test, you may work only on the section designated by the test supervisor. You cannot devote extra time to a difficult section and make up that time on a section you find easier. In pacing yourself, and checking your answers, you should think of each section of the test as a separate minitest. Be sure that you answer every question on the test. When you do not know the correct answer to a question, first eliminate the responses that you know are incorrect, then make your best guess among the remaining choices. Do not be afraid to guess as there is no penalty for incorrect answers. When you take a practice test, abide by all the requirements specified in the directions and keep strictly within the specified time limits. Work without a rest period. When you take an actual test, you will have only a short break—usually 10–15 minutes—after SECTION III. When taken under conditions as much like actual testing conditions as possible, a practice test provides very useful preparation for taking the LSAT. Official directions for the four multiple-choice sections and the writing sample are included in this PrepTest so that you can approximate actual testing conditions as you practice. To take the test: • Set a timer for 35 minutes. Answer all the questions in SECTION I of this PrepTest. Stop working on that section when the 35 minutes have elapsed. • Repeat, allowing yourself 35 minutes each for sections II, III, and IV. • Set the timer again for 35 minutes, then prepare your response to the writing sample topic at the end of this PrepTest. • Refer to “Computing Your Score” for the PrepTest for instruction on evaluating your performance. An answer key is provided for that purpose. The practice test that follows consists of four sections corresponding to the four scored sections of the December 2015 LSAT. Also reprinted is the December 2015 unscored writing sample topic.

General Directions for the LSAT Answer Sheet

THE PREPTEST • Reading Comprehension: SECTION I • Logical Reasoning: SECTION II • Analytical Reasoning: SECTION III • Logical Reasoning: SECTION IV • Writing Sample Materials

Section 1 Time—35 minutes 27 Questions Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage or a pair of passages. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage or pair of passages. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. The Federal Theater Project (FTP) was established in the late 1930s by the United States government. Although it existed for only four years, at its peak the FTP employed an average of 10,000 workers, operated 185 production units in 28 states, and entertained a weekly audience of nearly half a million people. One of the most important, though until recently little-studied, legacies of the program were its "Negro Units," which were dedicated to producing plays on African American subjects for primarily African American audiences. Hundreds of actors, directors, designers, technicians, and playwrights were employed by as many as eighteen of these units in cities spread throughout the United States. Defying the external forces of racism and bureaucracy, and overcoming internal artistic and personal differences, the people working in these units arguably came closer than any other group of African American theater artists had come before to founding a truly national black theater. The creation of the FTP came on the heels of the Harlem Renaissance, a period of intense creativity and innovation within the African American arts community. Thus, by the time the FTP was founded, a diverse body of thought concerning the social function of art already existed within the African American community. The question of what kinds of plays the Negro Units should produce gave rise to vigorous, sometimes heated, debates: some producers favored folk dramas exploring rural roots and culture; others preferred urban realistic dramas depicting contemporary dilemmas for African Americans; and still others advocated adapting dramas written by white playwrights for performance by African American acting troupes. These debates were motivated in part by larger debates over whether black theater should attempt to blend into mainstream culture or capitalize on its difference from the cultural mainstream; whether it should aim for the African American or the white part of its audience; and whether it should endeavor to instruct or be content simply to entertain. These disagreements resulted in a wide range of productions reflecting the diverse views and interests of the African

American community. Among them was The Swing Mikado, a musical that inverted the minstrel tradition by casting African American performers in an ironic adaptation of a white classic. Calling attention to the artifice of the performers' roles, this play challenged its audience to think about what it means to assume black roles both on and beyond the stage. Although it did not have a long history, the FTP provided a lifeline for the theater during the Great Depression, a time when the performing arts in the United States faced an uncertain fate. This allowed the Negro Units to produce dramatic art that reflected the genuine diversity of African American artists and their audiences nationwide. 1. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage? (A) The actors, directors, designers, and playwrights who worked in the Federal Theater Project's Negro Units have recently been rediscovered by theater historians, who now rank them among the most talented and influential stage performers and producers of their day. (B) Of all the programs created under the auspices of the United States government, the Federal Theater Project has had the most lasting effect on the African American arts community in the United States. (C) The Federal Theater Project's Negro Units are now being recognized for the pivotal role they played in creating what was perhaps the first truly national black theater in the United States, one reflective of the diversity of views and interests of the African American community. (D) Although the Federal Theater Project's Negro Units produced a wide variety of plays in the late 1930s, they are best known today for their highly creative productions of folk dramas. (E) By supporting the work of the Federal Theater Project's Negro Units in the late 1930s, the U.S. government provided much needed aid for the theater during the Great Depression, a time when the arts in general had an uncertain future. 2. According to the passage, the Federal Theater Project did all of the following EXCEPT: (A) evolve over the course of several decades (B) operate in cities throughout the United States

(C) produce plays about African American subjects (D) employ designers and technicians (E) entertain large audiences weekly 3. With which one of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree? (A) Government funding for the FTP would probably have continued beyond the late 1930s if the plays produced in the program had been more popular. (B) The artists of the Harlem Renaissance were more polarized in their views about the social function of art than were the people working in the Negro Units. (C) Philosophical and aesthetic disagreements among the people working in the Negro Units contributed to the diversity of those units' dramatic legacy. (D) African American theater artists working today have equaled if not surpassed the artistic contribution made in the 1930s by the people working in the Negro Units. (E) The urban realistic dramas produced by the Negro Units were more popular with African American audiences than folk dramas were. 4. The author refers to the Harlem Renaissance at the beginning of the second paragraph primarily in order to (A) give an example of a successful African American artistic movement that preceded the founding of the Negro Units (B) emphasize the contribution made by African American artists to the overall political advancement of the African American community (C) provide a historical explanation for why the work of the Negro Units fell into obscurity (D) establish a historical context for important artistic debates that occurred within the Negro Units (E) prove a point about the nature of the relationship between African American culture and mainstream U.S. culture in the 1930s 5. In referring to "a truly national black theater" (last sentence of the first paragraph) the

author most likely means (A) a publicly funded performing arts center dedicated to the production of plays for African American audiences (B) a broad-based dramatic-arts enterprise reflecting the diversity of views and tastes of African American artists and communities (C) a federal government program established during the Great Depression to promote the dramatic arts in African American communities (D) a canon of plays written by African American playwrights and endorsed by scholars (E) a successful chain of black-owned playhouses spread throughout the United States 6. The passage provides the most support for inferring that the producers of the musical The Swing Mikado were among those who (A) believed that playwrights should avoid controversial themes in their work (B) opposed the idea that plays should instruct as well as entertain the audience (C) favored folk dramas exploring rural roots and culture (D) favored urban realistic dramas depicting contemporary dilemmas for African Americans (E) advocated adapting dramas written by white playwrights for performance by African American troupes 7. Which one of the following statements, if true, most strengthens the author's claim that the African American artists working in the Negro Units came closer than any others before them to founding a truly national black theater? (A) The majority of plays produced by black theater groups predating the Negro Units were from original scripts by African American playwrights. (B) Before the Negro Units were founded, government funding for the dramatic arts in African American communities was almost nonexistent. (C) Prior to the establishment of the Negro Units, the vast majority of dramas written by and for African Americans were produced and performed exclusively in large eastern

cities. (D) African American dramatic arts organizations founded prior to the Negro Units drew audiences of fewer than 100 people on average to any given production. (E) Theater historians have had difficulty locating historical documents relating to the earliest activity of organized African American theater groups. The following passage is adapted from an article published in 1993. How severe should the punishment be for a corporate crime—e.g., a crime in which a corporation profits from knowingly and routinely selling harmful products to consumers? Some economists argue that the sole basis for determining the penalty should be the reckoning of cost and benefit: the penalty levied should exceed the profit that accrued to the corporation as a result of committing the crime. For example, if a corporation made a profit of $6 million from selling an unsafe product and the fine were, say, $7 million, these economists would feel that justice had been done. In arguing thus, the economists hold that the fact that a community may find some crimes more abhorrent than others or wish to send a message about the importance of some values—such as, say, not endangering citizens' health by selling tainted food—should not be a factor in determining penalties. The law, the economists argue, should affect corporations' earnings rather than try to assess their morality. But this approach seems highly impractical if not impossible to follow. For the situation is complicated by the fact that an acceptable reckoning of cost and benefit needs to take into account estimated detection ratios—the estimated frequency at which those committing a given type of crime are caught. Courts must assume that not all corporate crimes are detected, and legal wisdom holds that penalties must be higher as detection ratios decrease. Otherwise, a corporation might calculate that since it has only, say, a 1in-10 chance of being caught committing a crime, even if the potential penalty is somewhat larger than the profit to be gained from violating the law it may still ultimately be more profitable to repeatedly commit the crime. A true reckoning of cost and benefit would therefore have to take estimated detection ratios into account, but this means that, in the above scenario, if the profit resulting from a crime were $6 million, the penalty would have to be not $7 million but at least $60 million, according to the economists' definition, to be just. The economists' approach requires that detection ratios be high enough for courts to ignore them (50 percent or more), but recent studies suggest that ratios are in fact closer to 10 percent. Given this, the astronomical penalties necessary to satisfy the full

reckoning of cost and benefit might arguably put convicted corporations out of business and throw thousands of people out of work. Thus, some other criterion in addition to the reckoning of cost and benefit—such as the assignment of moral weight to particular crimes—is necessary so that penalties for corporate crimes will be practical as well as just. 8. Which one of the following most accurately captures the main point of the passage? (A) Because not all corporate crimes are detected, courts must supplement the reckoning of cost and benefit by taking detection ratios into account when determining penalties for such crimes if the penalties are to be both practical and fair. (B) The reckoning of cost and benefit as the sole basis for determining penalties for corporate crimes would be an appropriate means of assessing such penalties if it took estimated detection ratios into account. (C) Because they argue that the reckoning of cost and benefit should be the sole basis for determining penalties for corporate crimes, economists do an injustice to communities that believe that the penalties must affect not only corporate earnings but corporate morality. (D) Because it does not take detection ratios into account, the reckoning of cost and benefit as the sole basis for determining penalties for corporate crimes results in penalties that are not high enough both to satisfy community moral standards and to send a message about the importance of preventing corporate crime. (E) Because the need to take detection ratios into account makes reckoning cost and benefit impractical as the sole basis for determining penalties for corporate crimes, another method of determining the penalties must be found to supplement such reckoning. 9. The primary purpose of the passage is to (A) criticize courts for their leniency in punishing corporate crime (B) describe some of the reasons corporations engage in corporate crime (C) condemn corporations for failing to consider the moral implications of their actions (D) argue against some economists' view of how to penalize corporate crime (E) urge the implementation of a specific proposal for penalizing corporate crime

10. Suppose a corporation is convicted of a crime having a detection ratio of 1-in-10. Based on the passage, the author would be most likely to endorse which one of the following penalties? (A) a fine exactly equal to the corporation's profit from committing the crime (B) a fine slightly higher than the corporation's profit from committing the crime (C) a fine enough higher than the corporation's profit from committing the crime to demonstrate community opinion of the crime without putting the corporation out of business (D) a fine determined by taking the corporation's profit from committing the crime and raising it tenfold in order to reflect the detection ratio (E) a fine high enough to put the corporation out of business 11. The author ascribes which one of the following views to the economists discussed in the passage? (A) A community's moral judgment of certain corporate crimes is most reliable when the crime in question endangers the community as a whole. (B) A community's moral judgment of certain corporate crimes is only occasionally useful in determining penalties for such crimes. (C) A community's moral judgment of certain corporate crimes is often more severe than the penalties levied against such crimes. (D) A community's moral judgment of certain corporate crimes is irrelevant to assessing the morality of corporations that commit the crimes. (E) A community's moral judgment of certain corporate crimes is inappropriate in determining penalties for such crimes. 12. Which one of the following most accurately represents the organization of the passage? (A) A question is raised; one answer to the question is summarized; an important aspect of this answer is presented; a flaw in the answer is identified; the need for an alternative answer is affirmed.

(B) A problem is posed; one solution to the problem is summarized; a view held by those who favor the solution is presented; a criticism of the solution is identified; the criticism is evaluated and rejected. (C) A view is summarized; the ethics of those who hold the view are discussed; a flaw in the ethics of those holding the view is identified and described in detail; the view is rejected; an alternative view is offered. (D) A question is raised; two answers to the question are identified and compared; an assumption underlying each answer is identified; the assumption of one answer is found to be incorrect and this answer is rejected. (E) A problem is posed; the consequences of failing to solve the problem are described; one solution to the problem is suggested; an objection to this solution is described; the proposed solution is rejected. 13. With which one of the following statements would the economists discussed in the passage be most likely to agree? (A) The possibility of a corporation's going out of business should not be a factor in determining the size of the penalty levied against the corporation for committing a crime. (B) The community's opinion of the moral offensiveness of a corporate crime should not be a factor in assigning a moral weight to that crime. (C) The moral offensiveness of a corporate crime should not be a factor in determining the penalty levied against the corporation unless it tends to increase the size of the penalty. (D) The likelihood of a corporation's recommitting a particular crime should be the main factor in determining the size of the penalty levied against the corporation for committing the crime. (E) The penalty levied against a corporation for a particular crime should increase in direct relation to the number of times the corporation has previously been convicted of the crime. Passage A During the 1990s, the study of history witnessed both a dramatic integration of the study

of women's history into the historical mainstream and a transition from the subject of women to the issue of gender. Women as individuals receded into the background, and something more abstract called gender relations came to the fore. Since gender relations involved turning to an exploration of the social systems that underlay the relationships of men and women, the shift seemed to many historians to be a retreat from the effort to uncover the history of women per se. The new work took several forms: Articles about men evaluated the role of masculinity in shaping thought and action, and articles about women gave way to explorations of how an imagined domesticity, or separate sphere for women, shaped culture and politics. This scholarship demonstrates the explanatory potential embedded in gender, but it also reveals why the topic "women" is now so often dismissed as too narrow and particular a category to illuminate historical processes. Where the study of the history of women is seen today as having celebratory content—its effort is to find our lost ancestors and restore them to a place in our memories—that of gender offers an analytic framework within which to analyze social and political structures. And yet I am left to wonder what we have lost as we turn our attention to gender. I share the suspicion of many of my colleagues that gender obscures as much as it reveals: that in focusing on underlying structures, we overlook the particular ways in which individual women engaged their worlds. Passage B Part of the Roman emperor Augustus's response to the disorder and disharmony of the Triumviral Wars (32–30 B.C.E.) was to promote laws aimed at restoring old-fashioned Roman morality. Augustus presented the peace and stability of Rome as resting upon the integrity of the Roman family, and he paid particular attention to relocating women in this domestic context as wives and mothers. Among the laws passed were the marital laws of 19–18 B.C.E. and 9 C.E. that penalized adultery and rewarded bearers of legitimate children. When Augustus thereby rooted Roman prosperity and peace in the Roman family, he drew particular attention to women as significant participants in the system: their good behavior was partly responsible for the health of the state. Thus in this period, the gender roles assigned to women were becoming at once more constrained but also more visible and more politicized. The success and significance of this familial language became clear in 2 B.C.E. when Augustus articulated his unusual position in the state by accepting the title Pater Patriae, "Father of the Fatherland." Within such a sociopolitical setting, it should occasion no surprise that Augustan-period

artists drew on the iconography of the household in imagining the empire. Images of women concisely expressed Augustus's imperial project, a control of domestic space made visible in an old-fashioned style making the present look like the idealized past. 14. Which one of the following is a central topic in each passage? (A) the decline of historical research on individual women (B) the role of gender in shaping politics and culture (C) the creation of an imagined domesticity in ancient Rome (D) the function of masculinity in history (E) the "celebratory" goals of women's history 15. The author of passage A would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements regarding the type of historical analysis found in passage B? (A) It indicates that ancient conceptions of gender were radically different from our own modern ones. (B) It focuses on the Roman conception of femininity but neglects to take into account the equally important role of masculinity. (C) It fails to bring to light any substantive information about how particular Roman women lived during the reign of Augustus. (D) It demonstrates that domesticity played a larger role in the politics of ancient Rome than it has played in the politics of recent history. (E) It succeeds in revealing portions of Augustus's marital laws of which historians were not previously aware. 16. According to passage A, during the 1990s the focus in the study of women's history shifted to which one of the following? (A) investigating the social systems that shaped the interactions of men and women (B) bringing attention to and clarifying the previously ignored contributions of women to the social order

(C) revealing the gender biases that distorted traditional historical scholarship (D) criticizing earlier generations of historians for their lack of attention to women (E) documenting shifts in the conception of domesticity as part of social interaction 17. Which one of the following most accurately describes the relationship between passage A and passage B? (A) Passage A endorses a trend in the study of social history as that trend is reflected in passage B. (B) Passage A criticizes passage B for failing to take all of the available evidence into account in passage B's analysis. (C) Passage A offers an analysis that is similar to that in passage B in both the evidence used and the conclusions drawn. (D) Passage A discusses the strengths and weaknesses of a trend in scholarship that is exemplified by passage B. (E) Passage A advances an argument that is parallel in general terms to that in passage B, though different frames of reference are used. 18. The summary given in passage B in the second and third sentences of passage B most closely corresponds to which one of the following approaches to historical analysis described in passage A? (A) seeking to uncover the history of women per se (B) exploring how a concept of domesticity shapes culture and politics (C) trying to rediscover and honor lost ancestors (D) evaluating the role of masculinity in regulating thought and action (E) arguing that gender analysis obscures as much as it reveals 19. The author of passage A would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements about passage B? (A) It demonstrates that the integration of women's history into the historical mainstream

is far from complete. (B) It indicates why historians of women have been justified in abandoning the effort to uncover the lives of individual women. (C) It illustrates a current trend in historical scholarship toward increased attention to the political influence of women. (D) It suggests that much recent historical scholarship focusing on women fails to recognize the significance of gender. (E) It shows how the analytical tool of gender can be successfully used to shed light on politics and culture. The French biologist Jean-Baptiste de Lamarck (1744–1829) outlined a theory of evolutionary change in 1809, 50 years before Darwin's On the Origin of Species. Lamarck's basic idea was that organisms change in adapting to their environment and then pass on to their offspring the new characteristics they have acquired. Since then, Lamarck has been ridiculed for presumably implying, for example, that giraffes developed their long necks by stretching, generation after generation, toward the leaves of trees. Most modern biologists are adamant that nothing of the sort occurs, ever. But the molecular immunologist Edward J. Steele is attempting to revive Lamarckism: he and his colleagues claim to have found evidence for a Lamarckian hereditary mechanism in the immune system. The immune system is an evolutionary puzzle in its own right: How is it that our bodies can quickly respond to so many different kinds of attacks? Is all this information in the genes? If so, then how does our immune system defend against new diseases? Part of the answer comes from the fact that some immune system cells contain genes that mutate with unusual frequency. The most common type of mutation is a sort of genetic "typo" that occurs when a cell's DNA is transcribed into RNA, the molecule that helps to assemble proteins. These mutations allow the immune system to test out different defenses until it finds one that does the job. Steele hypothesizes that the altered RNA then reverts back into DNA. Indeed, such "reverse transcription" of RNA back into DNA has been observed frequently in other contexts. But the troublesome question for Lamarckians is this: Could this new DNA then be carried to the reproductive genes (in the sperm and egg cells), replace the original DNA there, and so be passed on to an organism's offspring? Steele and company believe this is possible, and they have devised an elegant, but speculative, story to describe how it might happen using known biological mechanisms. They

believe a virus could carry the altered DNA to the reproductive cells and replace the DNA in those cells. But even if the process Steele and his colleagues describe is possible, does it ever actually occur? Evolutionary mechanisms are never observed directly, so we must make do with circumstantial evidence. Steele and his colleagues claim to have found such evidence, namely a "signature" of past events that is "written all over" the genes that carry instructions for immune system responses. They claim that a distinct pattern of mutations concentrated in particular areas of these genes "strongly suggests" that, in the past, information has been transferred into DNA in the reproductive organs. Other biologists are not so easily swayed. They suggest there may be other, less radical explanations for the pattern of mutations that Steele cites. 20. Which one of the following most accurately states the main point of the passage? (A) The long-derided Lamarckian theory that organisms can pass on acquired characteristics to their offspring has been proven correct by the discoveries of Steele and his colleagues regarding the immune system. (B) Steele and his colleagues have devised an account of a mechanism by which acquired characteristics could be passed on to an organism's offspring, and they claim to have found evidence for the operation of this Lamarckian mechanism. (C) Although Steele and his colleagues have succeeded in showing that changes that occur in the immune system can be passed on to offspring, it is unlikely that a similar mechanism operates elsewhere in the body. (D) In contrast to the standard theory of evolution, the claims of Steele and his colleagues that organisms can pass on acquired characteristics to their offspring are highly speculative and rest on purely circumstantial evidence. (E) By showing that RNA can revert back into DNA, Steele and his colleagues have removed the main obstacle to general acceptance of the Lamarckian hypothesis that organisms can pass on acquired characteristics to their offspring. 21. The author most likely calls a certain kind of mutation a "typo" (second to last sentence of the second paragraph) primarily in order to (A) distinguish it from mutations that are adaptive (B) characterize it as relatively inconsequential

(C) indicate that it is an instance of imperfect copying (D) emphasize that it is easily overlooked (E) suggest an analogy between scientific investigation and textual analysis 22. The passage most strongly suggests that the author has which one of the following attitudes toward the theory proposed by Steele and his colleagues? (A) confidence in its truth (B) indignation at its divergence from Darwinism (C) distrust of its novelty (D) doubt concerning its plausibility (E) dismay at its lack of rigor 23. The passage is primarily concerned with (A) offering a historical account of the development of an evolutionary theory (B) describing the efforts of a modern biologist to vindicate a long-disregarded evolutionary theory (C) answering a set of questions about the immune system in light of evolutionary theory (D) evaluating the overall merits of an evolutionary theory that has been rejected by most modern biologists (E) presenting a discredited evolutionary theory as a case study in the philosophy of science 24. What is the primary function of the last paragraph in the structure of the passage as a whole? (A) to present various objections that have been raised against the neo-Lamarckian theory outlined in the preceding paragraphs (B) to dismiss the neo-Lamarckian theory outlined in the preceding paragraphs as not being supported by evidence

(C) to explain how the neo-Lamarckian theory outlined in the preceding paragraphs could be revised to take new findings into account (D) to suggest several possible directions for further research regarding the neoLamarckian theory outlined in the preceding paragraphs (E) to indicate the nature of the evidence for the neo-Lamarckian theory outlined in the preceding paragraphs 25. The passage most strongly suggests that the author would agree with which one of the following statements? (A) Contrary to the opinion of most modern biologists, certain acquired characteristics probably can be passed on from one generation to the next. (B) Steele and his colleagues have not actually observed the process of reverse transcription in immune cells. (C) The patterns of mutations concentrated in particular areas of genes that carry instructions for immune system responses indicate that the DNA in these genes has been altered by a virus. (D) The passing on of acquired characteristics from one generation to the next, if it occurs at all, is probably confined to the immune system. (E) Unless a hypothesis can be confirmed by direct observation, it should be regarded as speculation rather than as science. 26. Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the position attributed to Steele and his colleagues in the passage? (A) Scientists have succeeded in altering the DNA in reproductive cells of laboratory mice by introducing a virus carrying new DNA. (B) The patterns of mutations found in the genes that carry instructions for immune system responses are also found in genes in the nervous system. (C) The process by which the immune system tests out the efficacy of cellular mutations is one of random trial and error. (D) Fossil remains show that giraffes gradually evolved with increasingly long necks.

(E) It is known that birds can pass on acquired immunities to their gestating chicks via the yolk sacs in their eggs. 27. Suppose a scholar believes that the surviving text of a classical Greek play contains alterations introduced into the original text by a copyist from a later era. Which one of the following pieces of evidence bearing upon the authenticity of the surviving text is most analogous to the kind of evidence mentioned in the last paragraph of the passage? (A) a copy of the original, unaltered text discovered in a manuscript independently known to date from the classical period (B) a letter in which the copyist admits to having altered the original text in question (C) an allegation by one of the copyist's contemporaries that the copyist altered the original text (D) an account dating from the playwright's time of a performance of the play that quotes a version of the text that differs from the surviving version (E) vocabulary in the surviving text that is typical of the later era and not found in other texts dating from the classical period STOP If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not work on any other section of the test.

Section 2 Time—35 minutes 25 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. 1. An electric utility has determined that a new power plant is needed and has decided to build either a natural gas-fired plant or a waste-to-energy plant that would serve as both a trash incinerator and a power plant. Surprisingly, although the waste-to-energy plant would produce roughly three times as much air pollution as the gas-fired plant, environmentalists have come out in unanimous support of this option. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to justify the environmentalists' position? (A) Modern gas-fired power plants produce significantly less pollution than gas-fired power plants that were built several decades ago. (B) In the area where the utility operates, both energy use and the volume of trash produced have increased substantially over the last several years. (C) The waste-to-energy plant would replace an existing trash incinerator that produces much more air pollution than the waste-to-energy plant would. (D) Most of the environmentalists believe that air pollution is the area's most serious environmental problem. (E) The vast majority of the air pollution in the area where the utility operates is produced by trucks and automobiles. 2. Anthropologist: One of the distinctive traits of humans is the ability to support a large brain with a small gut, which requires getting more calories from less food. It was likely the development of cooking that made this possible. After all, our ancestors developed large brains around the time that they began to control fire. And even today,

people who choose to eat only raw food have difficulty getting enough calories. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the anthropologist's argument? (A) Cooked foods contain the same number of calories as raw foods. (B) Raw meat contains more calories than a similar quantity of raw vegetables. (C) The human body is able to extract a similar number of calories from cooked food and raw food. (D) The human body uses more calories to process raw food than it uses to process cooked food. (E) Domesticated plants and animals are richer in calories than their wild counterparts are. 3. The current sharp decline in commercial honeybee populations has been attributed to the same viral and bacterial infections, pesticide poisonings, and mite infestations that devastated bees in the past. Whichever of these adverse conditions is the immediate cause, it is highly likely that there is also a long-ignored underlying condition, and that is inbreeding. Decades of breeding practices meant to maximize pollinating efficiency have limited honeybees' genetic diversity. Which one of the following is an assumption that is required by the argument? (A) Commercial honeybees are more vulnerable to problems with inbreeding than wild honeybees are. (B) The results of decades of breeding practices cannot be quickly undone. (C) The genetic diversity of the honeybee population continues to decline. (D) In the past, viral infections and mites have devastated genetically diverse honeybee populations. (E) Lack of genetic diversity can make honeybees more vulnerable to adverse conditions. 4. The northern cardinal, a nonmigratory songbird, was rare in Nova Scotia in 1980; the province was considered to be beyond that bird's usual northern range. By 2000, however, field observations indicated that northern cardinals were quite common there.

The average winter temperature rose slightly over that period, so warmer winters are probably responsible for the northern cardinal's proliferation in Nova Scotia. Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the argument? (A) Bird feeders, an important source of nutrition to wintering birds, became far more common in Nova Scotia after 1980. (B) Because of their red plumage, northern cardinals are easier to spot than most other songbird species are. (C) Some songbird species other than the northern cardinal also became more common between 1980 and 2000. (D) According to field observations, the populations of migratory birds fluctuated less during the period from 1980 to 2000 than the populations of nonmigratory birds. (E) Birds that prey on songbirds became more common in Nova Scotia between 1980 and 2000. 5. A person's personality is linked to that person's genes. And since a person's genes do not ordinarily change over time, it follows that a person's personality remains unchanged with the passing of time. Which one of the following is most closely parallel in its reasoning to the flawed reasoning in the argument above? (A) The way historians understand the First World War is related to what happened in that war. But what actually happened in that war cannot change. Therefore, historians' understanding of the war cannot change. (B) Market forces are to some degree influenced by governmental actions. Hence, a change in the government's policies could result in a change in the economy. (C) It is well known that some diseases have genetic causes. Therefore, it should be possible to prevent such diseases by manipulating the genes that cause them. (D) Getting regular exercise over a long period contributes to the prevention of heart disease. Therefore, getting regular exercise over a short period contributes slightly to the prevention of heart disease. (E) The levels of certain hormones control body temperature. Therefore, if one has a

high fever, the levels of one's hormones must be elevated as well. 6. Political analyst: Several years ago, McFarlane, the military dictator, had Brooks, the former prime minister, arrested on charges of corruption. After years of negotiation, McFarlane has pardoned Brooks, and she has agreed to join his government. Almost all of McFarlane's supporters believe that Brooks is guilty of corruption. Moreover, almost all of McFarlane's opponents will oppose anyone who agrees to join his government. So Brooks will have few supporters in this country. The political analyst's argument depends on the assumption that (A) Brooks's joining McFarlane's government inappropriately gives that government a semblance of legitimacy (B) there is less corruption in the country's government now than when Brooks was prime minister (C) Brooks's political positions do not overlap with those of McFarlane (D) most people in the country are either supporters or opponents of McFarlane (E) the charges on which Brooks was arrested were unfounded 7. Amber—fossilized tree resin sold as a gemstone—is particularly valuable when it contains fossilized life forms. Forgers can create fake amber and, in an attempt to improve its value, often embed small, normal-appearing insects in it. Therefore, pieces that are sold as amber are far more likely to be fake if they contain normal-appearing insects than if they do not. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument? (A) Amber is often sold by small shops and street vendors that take few precautions to ensure authenticity. (B) Pieces of amber that contain fossilized life forms are generally larger than plain pieces of amber. (C) Amber that contains insects usually demands a higher price than does amber that contains small plants. (D) It is very difficult to distinguish between genuine and fake amber without destroying some of it.

(E) Insects struggling to free themselves from tree resin are usually fossilized in awkward or grotesque positions. 8. Widespread use of the Internet has led to an increase in certain crimes such as information theft and to new crimes like hacking. This seems due, at least in part, to the impersonal nature of the Internet. People seem to feel more free to harm others through the Internet than in person, suggesting that people feel less morally constrained when they use the Internet. For this reason, steps should be taken to educate people about the ethical use of the Internet. Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify the reasoning in the argument? (A) Education about the ethical use of a tool increases one's sense of moral responsibility regarding its use. (B) When new technologies emerge, society needs to formulate new ethical guidelines to cover the use of those technologies. (C) The more educated that people are about the ethical usage of the Internet, the greater the amount of harm that they can do to others. (D) People feel morally constrained from doing an action only if that action causes harm to others. (E) People who harm others through impersonal means are no less culpable for their actions than are people who harm others in person. 9. Columnist: Video games are not works of art. No matter how rich the aesthetic experience produced by a video game might be, it is interactive: players make choices that affect the outcome of the game. For something to be a work of art, it must produce an aesthetic experience that is controlled by the artist or artists who created the work. The conclusion of the columnist's argument can be properly drawn if which one of the following is assumed? (A) Most video game creators do not intend their video games to be works of art. (B) An aesthetic experience cannot be both interactive and controlled by the artist or artists who created the work. (C) For something to be a work of art, it must produce a rich aesthetic experience.

(D) Typically, video game players do not themselves create video games. (E) Players' choices that have no effect on the outcome of a video game are irrelevant to the aesthetic experience produced by that game. 10. One year ago, a municipality banned dishwasher detergents containing phosphates. Anecdotal evidence indicates that many residents continued to use detergents containing phosphates; they just purchased them from out-of-town stores. However, it is clear that some residents did switch to phosphate-free detergents, since phosphate pollution from the municipal wastewater treatment plant decreased significantly in the past year. The answer to which one of the following questions would most help in evaluating the argument above? (A) Why did many residents continue to use detergents containing phosphates? (B) What pollutants, if any, are present in phosphate-free dishwashing detergents? (C) Were any changes made in the past year to the way the municipality's wastewater treatment plant treats phosphates? (D) Does most of the phosphate pollution in the municipality's waterways come from treated wastewater from the municipal treatment plant? (E) Did municipal officials try to stop people from bringing detergents containing phosphates into the municipality? 11. Farmers who use genetically engineered plants on a large scale are at great financial risk because at any time a study could be published that would undermine what little confidence consumers have in genetically engineered foods. It is unwise for farmers to grow such crops. They do not fetch a high enough price to compensate for the risk. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the conclusion of the argument as a whole? (A) A farmer who grows genetically engineered crops on a large scale is taking a financial risk. (B) It is not prudent for a farmer to grow genetically engineered crops. (C) The price paid for genetically engineered crops does not compensate for the financial risk farmers incur by growing them.

(D) A study could come out at any time that would greatly undermine public confidence in genetically engineered foods. (E) Consumers have very little confidence in genetically engineered foods. 12. When doctors vaccinate a patient, their intention is to expose him or her to a weakened form of a disease-causing pathogen and thus to make the patient better able to resist the pathogen and less likely to develop a severe form of that disease later. Which one of the following best illustrates the principle that the passage illustrates? (A) Some directors instruct actors not to rehearse their lines in the several days preceding the opening night of a play, so that the actors will not become so confident that they forget their lines out of inattentiveness. (B) Some parents read their children fairy tales containing allegorical treatments of treachery and cruelty, with the intention of making them less emotionally vulnerable to these phenomena when they encounter them later in life. (C) In some circumstances, firefighters use fire to fight fire by creating an intense explosion very close to an uncontrollable blaze that they wish to extinguish, thus momentarily depriving it of the oxygen it needs to continue burning. (D) In some cases, a business will close down some of its operations, its intention being to position the company to be more profitable later even though this involves expenses in the current period. (E) Some police departments energetically pursue those who commit minor crimes; in doing so they intend to provide examples to deter people who might be tempted to commit more-serious crimes. 13. Nations that have little interaction with one another have little knowledge of one another's needs and problems. Because both sympathy and justice depend largely on understanding the needs and problems of others, it follows that _______. Which one of the following most logically completes the argument? (A) nations that have knowledge of one another's needs and problems will treat each other with sympathy and justice (B) without some interaction, nations are bound to find it difficult to extend sympathy and justice to one another

(C) almost all problems between nations stem from lack of sympathy and justice (D) there is no way to eliminate conflict among nations (E) only nations that have some interaction with one another have knowledge of one another's needs and problems 14. Activist: Medical conditions such as cancer and birth defects have been linked to pollutants in water. Organic pollutants such as dioxins, and inorganic pollutants such as mercury, are ingested by fish and move up the food chain to people, where they accumulate in tissue. Since most cancers and birth defects are incurable, we need to aim at their prevention. Clearly, the only effective way to reduce significantly their overall incidence is to halt industries known to produce these pollutants, given that such industries are unlikely to comply adequately with strict environmental regulations. A flaw in the activist's reasoning is that it (A) fails to consider the possibility that a significant number of occurrences of cancer and birth defects may be caused by preventable factors other than industrial pollutants (B) does not consider the possibility that pollutants can cause harm to nonhuman species as well as to human beings (C) takes for granted that certain effects can be produced independently by several different causes (D) fails to consider whether industries may voluntarily decrease their output of pollutants (E) fails to consider the possibility that chemicals now classified as pollutants have some beneficial effects not yet discovered 15. Political leader: In this political dispute, our side will benefit from showing a desire to compromise with the opposition. If the opposition responds positively, then a compromise will be reached. If they do not, then they will be held responsible for the failure to reach a compromise and our side will benefit. The conclusion of the political leader's argument follows logically if which one of the following is assumed? (A) The political leader's side has a desire to compromise with the opposition.

(B) The opposition is rarely willing to compromise with the political leader's side. (C) The political leader's side will benefit if a compromise is reached. (D) The opposition would benefit from showing a desire to compromise. (E) The opposition will compromise if the political leader's side shows a desire to compromise. 16. Some people see no harm in promoting a folk remedy that in fact has no effect. But there is indeed harm: many people who are convinced to use an ineffective remedy continue with it for years rather than pursuing conventional treatments that would almost certainly help them. Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify the reasoning in the argument? (A) One should not promote a remedy if one believes that using that remedy will cause harm. (B) It is harmful to interfere with someone doing something that is likely to benefit that person. (C) To convince people of something for which one knows there is no evidence is to be dishonest. (D) A person is responsible for harm he or she does to someone even if the harm was done unintentionally. (E) A person who convinces someone to take a course of action is in part responsible for the consequences of that action. 17. The radio station claims that its new format is popular with listeners because more than three-quarters of the listeners who call in requests to the station say they are pleased with the format. This, however, is hardly conclusive. It would be like trying to determine whether a political candidate is popular with voters by interviewing only those people who have already decided to vote for the candidate. The argument proceeds by (A) concluding that an inference is flawed on the grounds that it is based on a survey conducted by a biased party

(B) referring to an inference that is clearly flawed in order to undermine an analogous inference (C) questioning the legitimacy of an inference by proposing a more reasonable inference that could be drawn from the evidence (D) providing a direct counterexample to a conclusion in order to show that the conclusion is false (E) claiming that an inference leads to a contradiction in order to show that the inference is unreasonable 18. Historian: Those who claim that Shakespeare did not write the plays commonly attributed to him are motivated purely by snobbery. Shakespeare was the son of a glove maker, whereas every other person proposed as the true author of the plays was an aristocrat, and many of those who argue that one or another of these aristocrats wrote the plays are the aristocrats' descendants. The reasoning in the historian's argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument (A) presumes, without providing justification, that a claim cannot be true if those who advance it are motivated by snobbery (B) takes for granted that anyone who is motivated purely by snobbery cannot also be motivated by legitimate historical evidence (C) fails to consider adequately the possible motives of those who claim that Shakespeare did write the plays commonly attributed to him (D) fails to exclude the possibility that there might be legitimate evidence motivating those who reject Shakespeare's authorship (E) makes use of an assumption that one would accept only if one has already accepted the truth of the conclusion 19. A recent study examined the daytime and nighttime activity patterns of two populations of tree-dwelling lemurs—the first living in a rain forest, where tree canopy cover is consistent year-round, and the second living in a deciduous forest, where many trees lose their leaves during the winter months. Both groups of lemurs were found to be more nocturnal during winter months than they were the rest of the year. However, the

winter increase in nocturnal activity was significantly more pronounced for the population living in the deciduous forest than it was for the population living in the rain forest. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to explain the difference between the two lemur populations with respect to winter activity patterns? (A) For both lemur populations, the primary competitors for food resources are species active during daylight. (B) The primary predators for both lemur populations are high-flying birds that rely on their eyesight to hunt prey during daylight. (C) In both habitats, species of predatory snakes active during daylight are most active during winter months. (D) The lemur population in the rain forest is twice the size of the population in the deciduous forest. (E) The lemur population in the rain forest eats both plants and insects whereas the population in the deciduous forest eats only plants. 20. Critic: It is common to argue that there is a distinction between "literary" and "genre" fiction. The first should be interpreted, so this argument goes, while the second is merely a source of easy pleasure. But this is a specious distinction—not because every work should be interpreted, but because no work should be. When we evaluate a work principally for its themes and ideas, we cut ourselves off from the work's emotional impact. Which one of the following most accurately describes the role played in the critic's argument by the claim that when we evaluate a work principally for its themes and ideas, we cut ourselves off from the work's emotional impact? (A) It states the conclusion. (B) It is offered as support for the conclusion. (C) It attempts to spell out the practical implications of the critic's conclusion. (D) It attempts to explain the nature of the distinction that the critic considers. (E) It attempts to anticipate an objection to the critic's conclusion.

21. Principle: If one does not criticize a form of behavior in oneself or vow to stop it, then one should not criticize that form of behavior in another. Application: If Shimada does not vow to stop being tardy himself, he should not criticize McFeney for tardiness. Which one of the following, if true, justifies the above application of the principle? (A) Both McFeney and Shimada are regularly tardy, but Shimada criticizes McFeney's tardiness without criticizing his own. (B) McFeney is regularly tardy, but Shimada is almost never tardy. (C) McFeney often criticizes Shimada for being tardy, but neither Shimada nor McFeney ever vows to cease being tardy. (D) Shimada criticizes McFeney for regularly being tardy, but also criticizes himself for occasional tardiness. (E) Neither McFeney nor Shimada is regularly tardy, but Shimada criticizes McFeney for tardiness nonetheless. 22. Everyone should have access to more than one newspaper, for there are at least two sides to every story. Since all sides of an important story should be covered, and no newspaper adequately covers all sides of every one of its stories, some important stories would not be adequately covered if there were only one newspaper. Which one of the following most accurately describes a flaw in the reasoning of the argument? (A) The argument confuses the inability to cover all sides of every story with the inability to cover all sides of any important story. (B) The argument overlooks the possibility that two newspapers could provide the same incomplete coverage of the same important stories. (C) A conclusion about what newspapers should do is inferred solely from statements about what newspapers in fact do. (D) The argument takes for granted that everyone has access to all newspapers. (E) The argument is concerned only with important stories and not with all stories.

23. Most of the mines that Moradco operates in the province of Velyena have never violated environmental regulations. Every one of the gold mines that Moradco operates throughout the world has at some time or another violated environmental regulations. Which one of the following statements follows logically from the statements above? (A) Moradco operates more mines in Velyena than any other company operates there. (B) The total number of gold mines that Moradco operates is larger than the total number of mines it operates in Velyena. (C) Most of the gold mines that Moradco operates are not located in Velyena. (D) Most of the mines that Moradco operates in Velyena are not gold mines. (E) Most of the mines that Moradco operates throughout the world are not gold mines. 24. Tariffs on particular products tend to protect the small percentage of the population that works in industries that make those products while hurting everyone else through higher costs. Polls show that in fact most people oppose such tariffs. So politicians would be more likely to be reelected if they voted against these tariffs. Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument relies? (A) Supporters of tariffs on particular products are not significantly more likely than opponents to base their vote for a politician on the politician's stand on this issue. (B) Politicians always vote according to what is most likely to get them reelected. (C) Politicians should support only general tariffs, since such tariffs would be more widely popular with voters than tariffs on particular products. (D) Politicians should never support measures that favor only a small percentage of the population. (E) People who would be hurt by tariffs generally know that they would be hurt by them. 25. Among small- to medium-sized marine mammals such as seals and dolphins, the longer an animal can stay submerged during a dive, the greater the depth the animal can reach. Dolphins can dive to greater depths than northern fur seals can, and elephant seals can stay submerged longer than Weddell seals can.

If the information above is accurate, then each of the following statements could be true EXCEPT: (A) Dolphins can dive to greater depths than Weddell seals can, but not to depths as great as elephant seals can. (B) Weddell seals can stay submerged longer than northern fur seals can, but dolphins can dive to greater depths than Weddell seals can. (C) Weddell seals can dive to greater depths than dolphins can and can stay submerged longer than northern fur seals can. (D) Northern fur seals can stay submerged longer than elephant seals can, but Weddell seals can dive to greater depths than dolphins can. (E) Northern fur seals can stay submerged longer than Weddell seals can, but elephant seals can dive to greater depths than northern fur seals can. STOP If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not work on any other section of the test.

Section 3 Time—35 minutes 23 Questions Directions: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. Questions 1–5 Six entertainers—Robinson, Shahpari, Tigay, Wu, Yeaton, and Zane—are being scheduled for the six performances on the opening day of a community festival. Each entertainer will perform at one of six times—in the morning at 9:00 A.M., 10:00 A.M., or 11:00 A.M., or in the afternoon at 2:00 P .M., 3:00 P .M., or 4:00 P .M.—with no two entertainers performing at the same scheduled time. The order in which the entertainers perform is subject to the following constraints: Robinson must perform at some time before Zane. Yeaton's performance must be the next performance after Wu's. Tigay must perform in the afternoon. Zane must perform in the morning. 1. Which one of the following could be the order, from first to last, in which the entertainers are scheduled to perform? (A) Robinson, Shahpari, Zane, Tigay, Wu, Yeaton (B) Robinson, Wu, Yeaton, Zane, Shahpari, Tigay (C) Robinson, Zane, Tigay, Shahpari, Wu, Yeaton (D) Shahpari, Robinson, Zane, Wu, Tigay, Yeaton (E) Wu, Yeaton, Zane, Shahpari, Tigay, Robinson 2. If Wu is scheduled to perform in the morning, then which one of the following could

be true? (A) Robinson is scheduled to perform at 10:00 A.M. (B) Shahpari is scheduled to perform at 3:00 P .M. (C) Tigay is scheduled to perform at 2:00 P .M. (D) Yeaton is scheduled to perform at 3:00 P .M. (E) Zane is scheduled to perform at 11:00 A.M. 3. Shahpari CANNOT be scheduled to perform at which one of the following times? (A) 9:00 A.M. (B) 10:00 A.M. (C) 11:00 A.M. (D) 2:00 P .M. (E) 3:00 P .M. 4. What is the earliest time that Wu could be scheduled to perform? (A) 9:00 A.M. (B) 10:00 A.M. (C) 11:00 A.M. (D) 2:00 P .M. (E) 3:00 P .M. 5. Which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the entertainers who must be scheduled to perform in the afternoon? (A) Tigay (B) Tigay, Wu

(C) Tigay, Yeaton (D) Tigay, Wu, Yeaton (E) Tigay, Shahpari, Yeaton Questions 6–12 Exactly six of eight ceramic bowls, each crafted by exactly one of eight potters— Larsen, Mills, Neiman, Olivera, Park, Reigel, Serra, and Vance—will be displayed in a row in positions consecutively numbered 1 through 6, one bowl per position. The display is subject to the following conditions: If Larsen's bowl is displayed, Mills's bowl cannot be displayed. Park's bowl can be displayed only if it is next to Olivera's bowl and next to Serra's bowl. Reigel's bowl can be displayed only in either position 1 or position 6. Serra's bowl cannot be displayed in either position 2 or position 4. Neiman's bowl can be displayed only in position 5. 6. Which one of the following could be the display of bowls, listed by potter's name, in order from position 1 through position 6? (A) Larsen, Mills, Serra, Park, Olivera, Reigel (B) Larsen, Neiman, Olivera, Park, Serra, Vance (C) Mills, Olivera, Park, Serra, Reigel, Vance (D) Reigel, Park, Serra, Olivera, Neiman, Mills (E) Serra, Park, Olivera, Vance, Larsen, Reigel 7. If Neiman's bowl and Park's bowl are both displayed, which one of the following is a potter whose bowl could be displayed in position 1? (A) Larsen

(B) Park (C) Reigel (D) Serra (E) Vance 8. If Larsen's bowl is displayed in position 6 and Olivera's bowl is displayed in position 2, which one of the following must be true? (A) Mills's bowl is displayed in position 3. (B) Serra's bowl is displayed in position 1. (C) Serra's bowl is displayed in position 3. (D) Vance's bowl is displayed in position 1. (E) Vance's bowl is displayed in position 3. 9. If Park's bowl is displayed in position 4, then the bowl displayed in position 2 must be (A) Larsen's, Mills's, or Vance's (B) Larsen's, Neiman's, or Vance's (C) Larsen's, Serra's, or Vance's (D) Mills's, Reigel's, or Vance's (E) Mills's, Serra's, or Vance's 10. If Larsen's bowl is displayed in position 1 and Olivera's bowl is displayed in position 4, which one of the following is a potter whose bowl CANNOT be displayed? (A) Neiman (B) Park (C) Reigel

(D) Serra (E) Vance 11. Which one of the following is a potter whose bowl must be displayed? (A) Neiman (B) Olivera (C) Park (D) Reigel (E) Vance 12. If Neiman's bowl, Park's bowl, and Reigel's bowl are all displayed, which one of the following must be true? (A) Neiman's bowl is displayed next to Reigel's bowl. (B) Neiman's bowl is displayed next to Vance's bowl. (C) Olivera's bowl is displayed next to Reigel's bowl. (D) Olivera's bowl is displayed next to Vance's bowl. (E) Serra's bowl is displayed next to Vance's bowl. Questions 13–17 Four employees—Jackson, Larabee, Paulson, and Torillo—are to select from among four offices—W, X, Y, and Z. The order in which they select, from first to fourth, is to be decided by a random drawing. Each employee has ranked the offices from first (highest) to fourth (lowest) as follows: Jackson: Y, X, Z, W Larabee: X, Z, W, Y Paulson: Y, Z, X, W

Torillo: X, Y, Z, W The following restrictions must apply: Each employee selects an office that has not been selected previously. Each employee selects only one office. Each employee selects the office that he or she ranks highest among the unselected offices. 13. Which one of the following is a possible matching of employees with the offices they select? (A) Jackson: W; Larabee: Y; Paulson: X; Torillo: Z (B) Jackson: Z; Larabee: X; Paulson: W; Torillo: Y (C) Jackson: X; Larabee: W; Paulson: Z; Torillo: Y (D) Jackson: Y; Larabee: W; Paulson: X; Torillo: Z (E) Jackson: Y; Larabee: Z; Paulson: X; Torillo: W 14. Which one of the following must be true? (A) At most one of the employees selects the office he or she ranks first. (B) At most one of the employees selects the office he or she ranks second. (C) At least one of the employees selects the office he or she ranks first. (D) At least one of the employees selects the office he or she ranks second. (E) At least one of the employees selects the office he or she ranks third. 15. Which one of the following could be true? (A) Exactly two of the employees each selects the office he or she ranks third. (B) Exactly two of the employees each selects the office he or she ranks fourth. (C) Exactly three of the employees each selects the office he or she ranks second.

(D) Exactly three of the employees each selects the office he or she ranks third. (E) Exactly three of the employees each selects the office he or she ranks fourth. 16. If Paulson selects office W, then which one of the following could be true? (A) Exactly two of the employees each selects the office he or she ranks second. (B) Exactly two of the employees each selects the office he or she ranks third. (C) Exactly three of the employees each selects the office he or she ranks first. (D) Jackson selects office X. (E) Larabee selects office Z. 17. Which one of the following must be true? (A) Jackson does not select office X. (B) Larabee does not select office W. (C) Larabee does not select office Z. (D) Torillo does not select office X. (E) Paulson does not select office X. Questions 18–23 Exactly five volunteers—Haddad, Joslin, Kwon, Molina, and Nash—are being assigned to three community committees—X, Y, and Z. Each committee will have three volunteers assigned to it, with each volunteer on a committee holding exactly one of three positions—leader, secretary, or treasurer. The following conditions apply: If Nash is assigned to a committee, Nash must be the leader for that committee. Molina must be assigned to exactly one committee. Kwon must be assigned to Y but cannot be assigned to Z. Joslin must be the secretary for Y but cannot be assigned to X or Z.

18. Which one of the following could be the assignment of volunteers to Z? (A) leader: Haddad; secretary: Molina; treasurer: Joslin (B) leader: Joslin; secretary: Haddad; treasurer: Molina (C) leader: Kwon; secretary: Haddad; treasurer: Molina (D) leader: Molina; secretary: Nash; treasurer: Haddad (E) leader: Nash; secretary: Molina; treasurer: Haddad 19. If Kwon is assigned to be treasurer for exactly two of the committees, then any of the following could be true EXCEPT: (A) Haddad is assigned to be leader for Y. (B) Haddad is assigned to be secretary for Z. (C) Haddad is assigned to be treasurer for X. (D) Molina is assigned to be treasurer for Z. (E) Nash is assigned to be leader for Y. 20. Each of the following must be true EXCEPT: (A) Haddad is assigned to X. (B) Haddad is assigned to Y. (C) Kwon is assigned to X. (D) Molina is assigned to Z. (E) Nash is assigned to X. 21. If Kwon is assigned to be leader for exactly one of the committees, then for which of the committees is the assignment of volunteers to positions fully determined? (A) X only (B) Y only

(C) X and Y, but not Z (D) Y and Z, but not X (E) X, Y, and Z 22. The assignment of volunteers to committees and positions is fully determined if which one of the following is true? (A) Haddad is assigned to be leader for exactly one of the committees. (B) Haddad is assigned to be secretary for exactly two of the committees. (C) Haddad is assigned to be treasurer for all three of the committees. (D) Kwon is assigned to be treasurer for exactly two of the committees. (E) Nash is assigned to be leader for all three of the committees. 23. Which one of the following, if substituted for the condition that Molina must be assigned to exactly one committee, would have the same effect in determining the assignment of volunteers to committees? (A) Haddad must be assigned to more committees than Molina. (B) Joslin must be assigned to more committees than Molina. (C) Kwon must be assigned to more committees than Molina. (D) Molina must be assigned to more committees than Haddad. (E) Nash must be assigned to more committees than Molina. STOP If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not work on any other section of the test.

Section 4 Time—35 minutes 26 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. 1. Pundit: Grenier will almost certainly not be elected as mayor. Although she says she believes in raising city employees' wages, it was only a few years ago that she was arguing that their wages should not be increased. Her claim that she has learned more about the issue since then—though sincere—will not matter to most voters, who will see her as insincere. Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify the pundit's reasoning? (A) Voters are unlikely to vote for a politician whom they perceive to be insincere. (B) Voters are unlikely to notice whether a politician's stance on issues has changed over time. (C) Voters are unlikely to be influenced by what a politician's views were in the past if the voters agree with the politician's current positions. (D) Voters are likely to elect a politician who they believe understands their financial concerns. (E) Voters are likely to question the sincerity of a politician who does not hold the same beliefs they do. 2. Albert: Swenson's popular book, which argues that sun exposure does not harm skin cells, is a model of poor scholarship. Nonetheless, it is valuable because it has stimulated new research on sun exposure.

Yvonne: You're kidding me! You might as well say that a virus is valuable because it stimulates epidemiologists. The dialogue provides the most support for the claim that Albert and Yvonne disagree over whether (A) sun exposure harms skin cells (B) Swenson's book is a model of poor scholarship (C) Swenson's book should be considered valuable (D) Swenson's book has stimulated new research on sun exposure (E) something that does not stimulate new research can have value 3. Researchers have found that the percentage of people who start new businesses is much higher in countries with high per capita income than in countries with moderate per capita income. This is to be expected since most entrepreneurs in high- and middleincome countries start businesses to take advantage of perceived business opportunities, and there are more such opportunities in high-income countries. Surprisingly, however, the researchers also found that the percentage of people who start businesses is even higher in low-income countries than in high-income ones. Which one of the following, if true, would most help to explain the researchers' surprising finding? (A) In both high- and low-income countries, well over half of new businesses expect to provide jobs for no more than one or two people. (B) Many governments of high-income countries provide assistance to individuals who want to start businesses, but very few governments of low-income countries do so. (C) The percentage of new businesses that fail within a few years of being founded is generally no higher in low-income countries than in high-income countries. (D) In high-income countries, many entrepreneurs who start businesses to take advantage of perceived business opportunities soon discover that the opportunities were illusory. (E) In low-income countries, most entrepreneurs start businesses because all other employment options are either absent or unsatisfactory.

4. Film director: It's inaccurate to say that filmgoers stayed away from my film because it received one or two negative reviews. My film had such a small audience during its opening weekend simply because it was competing with several other films that appeal to the same type of filmgoer that mine does, and the number of such viewers is relatively small. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to support the film director's explanation? (A) The film director's film received no positive reviews. (B) Filmgoers seldom see more than one film in a weekend. (C) The total number of filmgoers was larger than average on the weekend the film director's film opened. (D) Each of the other films that the film director alludes to received one or two positive reviews. (E) Most filmgoers are drawn to a variety of kinds of film. 5. Some scientific issues are so complex and counterintuitive that they cannot be well understood by readers of popular magazines. Nonetheless, stories about these difficult scientific issues are frequently the ones that these readers would find most fascinating. Unfortunately, this means that some of the scientific stories that would be most interesting to readers are usually not covered in popular magazines since _______. The conclusion of the argument is strongly supported if which one of the following completes the passage? (A) editors of popular magazines generally do not approve stories about issues that cannot be well understood by those magazines' readers (B) popular magazines cannot stay in business unless they regularly publish stories that their readers find interesting (C) highly complex and counterintuitive theories are increasingly common in almost all branches of science (D) readers of popular magazines are generally unable to accurately assess their own understanding of complex scientific issues

(E) most readers of popular magazines are unwilling to seek out other sources in order to read about scientific issues that they find interesting 6. Letter to the editor: Your newspaper's advertisement claims that you provide coverage of the high school's most popular sports. Clearly this is false advertising. Of the school's students, 15 percent compete on the track team, while only 5 percent of the students play basketball. Hence, track is far more popular than basketball, yet track gets no coverage and basketball gets full-page coverage. The reasoning in the letter to the editor is most vulnerable to the criticism that it (A) infers a cause from a mere correlation (B) bases its conclusion on a sample that is too small (C) misinterprets a key word in the newspaper's advertisement (D) employs as a premise the contention it purports to show (E) criticizes the source of a claim rather than the claim itself 7. It is widely believed that the most environmentally sensible thing to do is to buy food from local farmers whenever it is available. But the distance that food travels turns out to be only a small part of its environmental impact. Certain foods can be produced with far less impact in some places rather than others. So, sometimes it is environmentally preferable to buy food that is not produced locally, rather than buy locally produced food. The claim that the most environmentally sensible thing to do is to buy food from local farmers whenever it is available plays which one of the following roles in the argument? (A) It is a principle upon which the reasoning in the argument is based. (B) It is a general principle that is used to support a particular activity that falls under it. (C) It is a general principle that is used to reject a particular activity that is not compatible with it. (D) It is a view that is rejected by the argument. (E) It is the conclusion of the argument.

8. Technology is radically improving the quality of life in some communities, and not only by direct application of innovations. After all, the design, production, testing, and marketing of new technology has itself become a growing industry that is turning around the fortunes of once-ailing communities. The companies involved create jobs, add to the tax base, and contribute to an upbeat spirit of renewal. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the conclusion drawn by the argument as a whole? (A) The direct application of innovations is not the only way in which technology is radically improving the quality of life in some communities. (B) The design, production, testing, and marketing of new technology has itself become a growing industry that is turning around the fortunes of once-ailing communities. (C) Companies involved in the design, production, testing, and marketing of new technology create jobs, add to the tax base, and contribute to an upbeat spirit of renewal. (D) Either the creation or the direct application of technological innovations is radically improving the quality of life in most communities. (E) The only ways in which technology is radically improving the quality of life in some communities are by creating jobs, adding to the tax base, and contributing to an upbeat spirit of renewal. 9. Joshi is clearly letting campaign contributions influence his vote in city council. His campaign for re-election has received more financial support from property developers than any other city councilor's has. And more than any other councilor's, his voting record favors the interests of property developers. The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument (A) takes for granted that because certain events occurred sequentially, the earlier events caused the later events (B) confuses one thing's being necessary for another to occur with its being sufficient to make it occur (C) makes a moral judgment when only a factual judgment can be justified

(D) presumes that one thing is the cause of another when it could easily be an effect of it (E) has a conclusion that is simply a restatement of one of the argument's stated premises 10. Columnist: Some people argue that the government should not take over failing private-sector banks because the government does not know how to manage financial institutions. However, rather than managing a bank's day-to-day operations, the government would just need to select the bank's senior management. Most politicians have never been military professionals, yet they appoint the top military officials entrusted with defending the country—at least as great a responsibility as managing a bank. The columnist's statements, if true, provide reason for rejecting which one of the following? (A) Commanding a branch of the military requires greater knowledge than running a bank does. (B) Politicians do an adequate job of appointing the top military officials entrusted with defending the country. (C) Politicians are not capable of managing a bank's day-to-day operations. (D) Banks that are owned by the government cannot be well managed. (E) The government should not take over private-sector banks that are financially sound. 11. Polls have shown that a higher percentage of graduating university students are against proposals to reduce government social services than are students entering their first year at a university. These polls lead us to the conclusion that people with a university education are more likely to favor retaining or increasing the present level of government social services than are members of the overall population. Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument? (A) The polls of graduating university students were designed to avoid overrepresenting any single academic discipline. (B) The political views of people with a university education are to a large degree influenced by their professors, and university professors are usually against reducing government social services.

(C) Polls of retired persons who have not graduated from a university show a higher percentage of persons in favor of reducing government social services than do polls of retired persons who have graduated from a university. (D) Polls of those who graduated from a university more than five years before being polled show a higher percentage of people in favor of reducing government social services than do polls of the overall population. (E) In the polls cited, graduating university students were more likely to express strong opinions about the question of reducing government social services than were students entering a university. 12. Several movie critics have claimed that this movie will inspire people to act in socially irresponsible ways, yet this claim relies entirely on survey data that have turned out to be deeply flawed. Thus these critics have made a claim that is not only untrue but also potentially harmful to the moviemakers' reputations. The argument is flawed in that it (A) infers that a claim is false merely on the grounds that no satisfactory evidence for it has been offered (B) fails to consider that a pejorative claim that is true can be more harmful to a person's reputation than a false claim (C) relies on a sample that is likely to be unrepresentative (D) attacks the persons making an argument rather than attacking the substance of the argument (E) fails to consider that, even if an argument's conclusion is false, some of the evidence used to justify that conclusion may nonetheless be true 13. Most people who are skilled banjo players are also skilled guitar players. But most people who are skilled guitar players are not skilled banjo players. If the statements above are true, which one of the following must also be true? (A) There are more people who are skilled at playing both the guitar and the banjo than there are people who are skilled at playing only one of the two instruments. (B) A person trying to learn how to play the guitar is more likely to succeed in doing so

than is a person trying to learn how to play the banjo. (C) Playing the guitar takes more skill than playing the banjo does. (D) There are more people who are skilled at playing the guitar than there are people who are skilled at playing the banjo. (E) There are more people who are skilled at playing the banjo than there are people who are skilled at playing the guitar. 14. Obviously, entrepreneurial ability is needed to start a successful company. Yet many entrepreneurs who succeed in starting a company fail later for lack of managerial skills. For instance, they do not adequately analyze market trends and, consequently, they fail in managing company growth. Hence, the lack of managerial skills and the lack of entrepreneurial ability can each inhibit the development of successful companies. The proposition that certain entrepreneurs fail in managing company growth plays which one of the following roles in the argument above? (A) It is the main conclusion drawn in the argument. (B) It is presented as an example of the phenomenon the argument seeks to explain. (C) It is meant as an aside and is not supposed to provide evidence in support of the argument's conclusion. (D) It is a premise that is intended to support the argument's main conclusion directly. (E) It is an example that is offered in support of a premise that is intended to support the argument's main conclusion directly. 15. Outsiders in any field often believe that they can bring in fresh, useful solutions that have been overlooked by insiders. But in fact, attempts at creativity that are not grounded in relevant experience are futile. Problems can be solved only by people who really understand them, and no one gains such understanding without experience. Which one of the following is most strongly supported by the information above? (A) The more experience a person has in a field, the more creatively that person can solve problems in the field. (B) Those people who are experienced in a field rarely overlook creative solutions.

(C) Creative solutions in a field always come from people with experience in that field. (D) The experience required for effective problem-solving in a field does not vary depending on the field's complexity. (E) Outsiders should be properly trained in a field before being given responsibility in that field. 16. Researcher: Dinosaurs lack turbinates—nasal cavity bone structures in warmblooded species that minimize water loss during breathing. According to some paleobiologists, this implies that all dinosaurs were cold-blooded. These paleobiologists must be mistaken, however, for fossil records show that some dinosaur species lived in Australia and Alaska, where temperatures drop below freezing. Only warm-blooded animals could survive such temperatures. Which one of the following most accurately describes the role played in the researcher's argument by the claim that only warm-blooded animals could survive temperatures below freezing? (A) It is presented as a potential counterexample to the argument's main conclusion. (B) It is a premise offered in support of the argument's main conclusion. (C) It is presented as counterevidence to the paleobiologists' assertion that dinosaurs lack turbinates. (D) It is the argument's main conclusion. (E) It is an intermediate conclusion for which the claim that some dinosaur species lived in Australia and Alaska is offered as support. 17. Principle: The government should not prevent someone from expressing a true belief unless expressing it would be harmful to people generally. Application: The government was wrong to prevent Calista from publicly expressing her belief that there is evidence that cancer rates have increased slightly over the last two decades and that this increase was due partly to excessive use of cell phones. Which one of the following, if true, would most help to justify the above application of the principle? (A) The government has conducted extensive research to determine whether there is any

causal link between use of cell phones and cancer. (B) Several studies have found evidence that use of cell phones has been partially responsible for the increase in cancer rates over the last two decades, and it would benefit people to know this. (C) Calista firmly believes that knowing about the causes of the increase in cancer rates over the last two decades would greatly benefit people generally. (D) Unless there is strong evidence of a link between use of a product and disease, the suggestion that use of the product causes disease is usually harmful to people. (E) Most people would reduce their use of cell phones if they were convinced that they were using them enough to increase their risk of developing cancer. 18. Psychologist: Phonemic awareness, or the knowledge that spoken language can be broken into component sounds, is essential for learning to read an alphabetic language. But one also needs to learn how sounds are symbolically represented by means of letters; otherwise, phonemic awareness will not translate into the ability to read an alphabetic language. Yet many children who are taught by the whole-language method, which emphasizes the ways words sound, learn to read alphabetic languages. Which one of the following can be properly inferred from the psychologist's statements? (A) The whole-language method invariably succeeds in teaching awareness of how spoken language can be broken into component sounds. (B) When the whole-language method succeeds in teaching someone how to represent sounds by means of letters, that person acquires the ability to read an alphabetic language. (C) Those unable to read an alphabetic language lack both phonemic awareness and the knowledge of how sounds are symbolically represented. (D) Some children who are taught by the whole-language method are not prevented from learning how sounds are represented by means of letters. (E) The whole-language method succeeds in teaching many children how to represent sounds symbolically by means of letters. 19. Studies have shown that pedestrians are struck by cars when crossing streets in crosswalks more often than they are struck when crossing outside of crosswalks. This is

because crosswalks give many pedestrians an overly strong sense of security that oncoming cars will follow the signals, and these pedestrians are less likely to look both ways before crossing the street. Which one of the following, if true, most undermines the explanation proposed above? (A) The overwhelming majority of pedestrians in high-traffic areas cross streets in crosswalks. (B) The number of pedestrians struck by cars has increased in recent years. (C) Pedestrians tend to underestimate the chances that the signals at a crosswalk will malfunction. (D) Drivers are generally most alert to pedestrians who are in or near crosswalks. (E) Measures intended to promote safety tend to make people less cautious. 20. Selena claims to have psychic powers. So if we find out whether Selena's claim is true, we will thereby determine whether it is possible to have psychic powers. The conclusion drawn above follows logically if which one of the following is assumed? (A) No one else has yet been found to have psychic powers. (B) If it is possible to have psychic powers, then Selena has them. (C) It is possible to determine whether Selena has psychic powers. (D) If Selena's claim turns out to be false, we will not know whether it is possible to have psychic powers. (E) We will not be able to determine whether it is possible to have psychic powers unless we find out whether Selena's claim is true. 21. In a recent study, researchers collected current prices for the 300 most common pharmaceutical drugs from the leading wholesalers specializing in bulk sales. It was found that these prices average 60 to 80 percent below the suggested wholesale prices listed for the same drugs in the current annual edition of a widely used, independently published pharmaceutical price guidebook.

Each of the following, if true, would help to explain the situation described above EXCEPT: (A) A price war wherein pharmaceutical drug wholesalers tried to undercut each others' prices began shortly before the study was conducted. (B) Suggested wholesale prices for the most common pharmaceutical drugs tend to be less than those for less common pharmaceutical drugs. (C) Wholesale prices for pharmaceutical drugs often fluctuate dramatically from one month to the next. (D) Wholesale prices suggested by the independently published pharmaceutical price guidebook are calculated to allow every pharmaceutical wholesaler to make substantial profits. (E) The prices suggested by the independently published pharmaceutical price guidebook are for sales of relatively small quantities of pharmaceutical drugs to individual doctors. 22. Theorist: Hatred and anger, grief and despair, love and joy are pairs of emotions that consist of the same core feeling and are distinguishable from each other only in terms of the social conditions that cause them and the behavior they in turn cause. So even if the meaning of a given piece of music is the emotion it elicits, this can mean only that music produces the core of a given emotion, for music is merely sound and, therefore, by itself creates neither social conditions nor human behavior. The claim that music is merely sound plays which one of the following roles in the theorist's argument? (A) It is a generalization a particular instance of which is cited by the argument in order to undermine the viewpoint that the argument is attacking. (B) It is a portion of the conclusion drawn in the argument. (C) It is a claim that is offered as partial support for the argument's conclusion. (D) It is a generalization the truth of which is claimed to be necessary to establish the conclusion of the argument. (E) It is a hypothesis that must be rejected, according to the argument, because it is inconsistent with certain evidence.

23. For a computer to be intelligent, it must possess at least one of three qualities: creativity, self-awareness, or the ability to learn from its mistakes. Because the AR3000 is not creative or self-aware, it must have the ability to learn from its mistakes if it is intelligent. Which one of the following arguments is most similar in its reasoning to the argument above? (A) Every vaccine is either an attenuated-virus vaccine, a dead-virus vaccine, or a pure DNA vaccine. Vaccine X cannot fall into the last two categories, because it contains living viral cells. Therefore, vaccine X must be an attenuated-virus vaccine. (B) Every commonly used vaccine is either a dead-virus vaccine, an attenuated-virus vaccine, or a pure DNA vaccine. Vaccine X is not a dead- or attenuated-virus vaccine. Therefore, if it is a commonly used vaccine, it must be a pure DNA vaccine. (C) Every vaccine is either a dead-virus vaccine, an attenuated-virus vaccine, or a pure DNA vaccine. Thus, if vaccine X is not a dead- or attenuated-virus vaccine, it must be a pure DNA vaccine. (D) Every commonly used vaccine is either a dead-virus vaccine, an attenuated-virus vaccine, or a pure DNA vaccine. Vaccine X stimulates the production of killer T cells in the immune system, unlike any pure DNA vaccine. Therefore, if it is not a dead-virus vaccine, then it must be an attenuated-virus vaccine. (E) Every commonly used vaccine is either a dead-virus vaccine, an attenuated-virus vaccine, or a pure DNA vaccine. Because vaccine X is not an attenuated-virus vaccine, it must be a pure DNA vaccine if it is not a dead-virus vaccine. 24. Mallotech portrays itself to the public as a socially responsible company, but critics charge that employees in many of its factories work in unsanitary conditions. Unless these critics are mistaken, then, Mallotech is not accurately portraying itself to the public. The argument's conclusion follows logically if which one of the following is assumed? (A) A socially responsible company would never lie about whether its employees are working in unsanitary conditions. (B) No company that conceals information from the public is socially responsible.

(C) Many employees in Mallotech's factories work in unsanitary conditions. (D) A socially responsible company would not have employees working in unsanitary conditions. (E) Every company that is well managed is socially responsible. 25. Many conceptual categories are parts of dichotomous (distinct and mutually exclusive) pairs: good or bad, right or wrong, rational or irrational, etc. However, advances in scientific understanding have shown some long-held dichotomies to be untenable. Some life forms have characteristics of both animals and plants; also, matter can be converted into energy and vice versa. Therefore, dichotomous classifications into mutually exclusive categories should generally be abandoned. Which one of the following exhibits flawed reasoning most similar to that in the argument above? (A) Review by outside consultants has shown that this company should replace all of its computers with more powerful models. Therefore, not all of this company's computers are powerful enough. (B) Recent clinical trials have shown that some antianxiety drugs are addictive and can have life-threatening side effects. Therefore, the use of drugs for the treatment of anxiety should be discontinued. (C) Current highway safety data clearly demonstrate that all intoxicated drivers are dangerous. So we should get intoxicated drivers off the roads. (D) The longer fruit is kept, the more likely it is to become rotten. While these peaches seem to be fine, they have been kept for a rather long time. So it is best to throw them away now before they begin to rot. (E) This budget is based on the assumption that revenue will increase for the next two years. However, revenue figures for past years show that assumption to be untenable. Therefore, this budget should be replaced by a more realistic one. 26. All oceangoing ships carry seawater ballast tanks whose weight improves stability. To maintain the ship's proper stability, water must be pumped out of these tanks when cargo is loaded and into them when cargo is unloaded. As a result, sea creatures often get into the tanks and are then inadvertently deposited into new habitats, where they can wreak ecological havoc. One viable way of addressing this problem would be to empty

and then immediately refill the tanks in midocean, since midocean creatures and coastal sea creatures usually cannot survive in one another's habitats. Which one of the following is an assumption the argument requires? (A) Emptying and refilling an oceangoing ship's ballast tanks in midocean would ensure at least that no sea creatures capable of disturbing the ecology in a new habitat are pumped into the tanks. (B) An oceangoing ship's ballast tanks could be emptied and refilled in midocean only in conditions of calm air and flat seas. (C) Sea creatures have rarely, if ever, wreaked ecological havoc in a new habitat, unless they have been able to survive in that habitat after having been deposited there by oceangoing ships. (D) Currently, seawater is pumped into or out of the ballast tanks of oceangoing ships to maintain proper stability only when unloading or loading cargo. (E) There are at least some oceangoing ships whose stability could be adequately maintained while emptying and refilling their ballast tanks in midocean. STOP If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not work on any other section of the test.

Acknowledgment is made to the following sources from which material has been adapted for use in this test booklet: Amitai Etzioni, “The U.S. Sentencing Commission on Corporate Crime: A Critique.” ©1993 by the American Academy of Political and Social Science. Alice Kessler-Harris, “Do We Still Need Women’s History?” ©2008 by The Chronicle of Higher Education. Paul Nadler, “Review of Blueprints for a Black Federal Theatre.” ©1996 by the African American Review. Mark Parascandola, “The Other Evolutionist.” ©1999 by Lingua Franca. Teresa R. Ramsby and Beth Severy-Hoven, “Gender, Sex, and the Domestication of the Empire in Art of the Augustan Age.” ©2007 by The Johns Hopkins University Press.

Wait for the supervisor's instructions before you open the page to the topic. Please print and sign your name and write the date in the designated spaces below. Time: 35 Minutes General Directions You will have 35 minutes in which to plan and write an essay on the topic inside. Read the topic and the accompanying directions carefully. You will probably find it best to spend a few minutes considering the topic and organizing your thoughts before you begin writing. In your essay, be sure to develop your ideas fully, leaving time, if possible, to review what you have written. Do not write on a topic other than the one specified. Writing on a topic of your own choice is not acceptable. No special knowledge is required or expected for this writing exercise. Law schools are interested in the reasoning, clarity, organization, language usage, and writing mechanics displayed in your essay. How well you write is more important than how much you write. Confine your essay to the blocked, lined area on the front and back of the separate Writing Sample Response Sheet. Only that area will be reproduced for law schools. Be sure that your writing is legible. Both this topic sheet and your response sheet must be turned in to the testing staff before you leave the room.

LSAT Writing Sample Topic ©2015 by Law School Admission Council, Inc. All rights reserved. Directions: The scenario presented below describes two choices, either one of which can be supported on the basis of the information given. Your essay should consider both choices and argue for one over the other, based on the two specified criteria and the facts provided. There is no "right" or "wrong" choice: a reasonable argument can be made for either.

Topic A university has limited funds for developing new online degree programs. It must decide whether to contract with an educational software firm for a generic course delivery software package or to develop its own customized software. Using the facts given below, write an essay in which you argue for one choice over the other based on the following two criteria: The university wants to provide the best possible educational resources and experience for online students. The university wants to most efficiently use its limited funds for developing online programs. Using an existing generic software package would allow quick introduction of some online courses. The best generic software would require upgrading the university's computer hardware. Most of the university's courses were not designed to be delivered online. The software vendor would provide training for users. Some faculty and staff have experience with online courses that use generic course delivery software. The software vendor would provide maintenance and upgrades for the software. The cost for use of a generic course delivery software package would be a fixed annual licensing fee set by the vendor. Later changing to a different software package would require a complete overhaul of the course delivery system. Developing its own course delivery software would require the university to invest heavily in expanding its current software development capability. Newly developed software requires lengthy testing. Expanded software development capability might benefit the university as a whole. Customized software could be designed for the university's existing hardware and to accommodate most of the university's existing courses without significant adjustment. Support for and upgrades to the software would require the university to maintain an expanded permanent software development staff. The university would control the budget and costs for the development and maintenance of its own software.

Writing Sample Response Sheet

Computing Your Score Directions: 1. Use the Answer Key to check your answers. 2. Take the number of questions you answered correctly in each section and add those numbers together to compute your raw score. 3. Use the Score Conversion Table to convert your raw score into the 120–180 scale.

Score Conversion Table LSAT Form 5LSN116 (December 2015) Reported Score 180 179 178 177 176 175 174 173 172 171 170 169 168 167 166 165 164 163 162 161 160 159 158 157 156 155 154 153 152

Raw Score Lowest Highest 99 101 98 98 97 97 * * 96 96 95 95 94 94 93 93 92 92 91 91 89 90 88 88 87 87 85 86 84 84 82 83 81 81 79 80 77 78 76 76 74 75 72 73 70 71 69 69 67 68 65 66 63 64 62 62 60 61

151 150 149 148 147 146 145 144 143 142 141 140 139 138 137 136 135 134 133 132 131 130 129 128 127 126 125 124 123 122 121 120

58 57 55 53 52 50 48 47 45 44 42 41 39 38 36 35 33 32 31 29 28 27 26 25 24 22 21 20 19 18 17 0

59 57 56 54 52 51 49 47 46 44 43 41 40 38 37 35 34 32 31 30 28 27 26 25 24 23 21 20 19 18 17 16

*There is no raw score that will produce this scaled score for this form.

Answer Key

Section I 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

C A C D B E C E D C E A A B C A D B E B C D B E B A E

Section II 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

C D E A A D E A B C B B B A C B B D B B A A D A D

Section III 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

A B D C C E D C A B B A B C A E E E C B B C C

Section IV 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

A C E B A C D A D D D A D E C B B D A B B C B D B E

The Law School Admission Council (LSAC) is a nonprofit corporation that provides unique, state-of-theart admission products and services to ease the admission process for law schools and their applicants worldwide. Currently, 220 law schools in the United States, Canada, and Australia are members of the Council and benefit from LSAC's services. © 2016 by Law School Admission Council, Inc. LSAT, The Official LSAT PrepTest, The Official LSAT SuperPrep, ItemWise, and LSAC are registered marks of the Law School Admission Council, Inc. Law School Forums, LLM Law School Forum, Credential Assembly Service, CAS, LLM Credential Assembly Service, and LLM CAS are service marks of the Law School Admission Council, Inc. 10 Actual, Official LSAT PrepTests; 10 More Actual, Official LSAT PrepTests; The Next 10 Actual, Official LSAT PrepTests; 10 New Actual, Official LSAT PrepTests with Comparative Reading; 10 Actual, Official LSAT PrepTests, Volume V; LSAC Official Guide to ABA-Approved Law Schools; LSAC Official Guide to LLM/Graduate Law Programs; The Official LSAT SuperPrep II; The Official LSAT Handbook; ACES2; FlexApp; Candidate Referral Service; DiscoverLaw.org; Law School Admission Test; and Law School Admission Council are trademarks of the Law School Admission Council, Inc. All rights reserved. No part of this work, including information, data, or other portions of the work published in electronic form, may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, or by any information storage and retrieval system, without permission of the publisher. For information, write: Communications, Law School Admission Council, 662 Penn Street, PO Box 40, Newtown, PA 18940-0040. LSAC fees, policies, and procedures relating to, but not limited to, test registration, test administration, test score reporting, misconduct and irregularities, Credential Assembly Service (CAS), and other matters may change without notice at any time. Up-to-date LSAC policies and procedures are available at LSAC.org. ISBN-13: 978-0-9860862-5-0 Print number 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

Table of Contents Introduction to the LSAT Scoring Test Score Accuracy—Reliability and Standard Error of Measurement Adjustments for Variation in Test Difficulty Research on the LSAT To Inquire About Test Questions How This PrepTest Differs From an Actual LSAT The Three LSAT Multiple-Choice Question Types Analytical Reasoning Questions Logical Reasoning Questions Reading Comprehension Questions The Writing Sample Taking The PrepTest Under Simulated LSAT Conditions Answer Sheet The PrepTest Section I Section II Section III Section IV The Writing Sample Writing Sample Response Sheet Computing Your Score Answer Key

Introduction to the LSAT The Law School Admission Test is a half-day standardized test required for admission to all ABA-approved law schools, most Canadian law schools, and many other law schools. It consists of five 35-minute sections of multiple-choice questions. Four of the five sections contribute to the test taker’s score. These sections include one Reading Comprehension section, one Analytical Reasoning section, and two Logical Reasoning sections. The unscored section, commonly referred to as the variable section, typically is used to pretest new test questions or to preequate new test forms. The placement of this section in the LSAT will vary. A 35-minute writing sample is administered at the end of the test. The writing sample is not scored by LSAC, but copies are sent to all law schools to which you apply. The score scale for the LSAT is 120 to 180. The LSAT is designed to measure skills considered essential for success in law school: the reading and comprehension of complex texts with accuracy and insight; the organization and management of information and the ability to draw reasonable inferences from it; the ability to think critically; and the analysis and evaluation of the reasoning and arguments of others. The LSAT provides a standard measure of acquired reading and verbal reasoning skills that law schools can use as one of several factors in assessing applicants. For up-to-date information about LSAC’s services, go to our website, LSAC.org.

Scoring Your LSAT score is based on the number of questions you answer correctly (the raw score). There is no deduction for incorrect answers, and all questions count equally. In other words, there is no penalty for guessing. Test Score Accuracy—Reliability and Standard Error of Measurement Candidates perform at different levels on different occasions for reasons quite unrelated to the characteristics of a test itself. The accuracy of test scores is best described by the use of two related statistical terms: reliability and standard error of measurement. Reliability is a measure of how consistently a test measures the skills being assessed. The higher the reliability coefficient for a test, the more certain we can be that test takers would get very similar scores if they took the test again. LSAC reports an internal consistency measure of reliability for every test form. Reliability can vary from 0.00 to 1.00, and a test with no measurement error would have a reliability coefficient of 1.00 (never attained in practice). Reliability coefficients for past LSAT forms have ranged from .90 to .95, indicating a high degree of consistency for these tests. LSAC expects the reliability of the LSAT to continue to fall within the same range. LSAC also reports the amount of measurement error associated with each test form, a concept known as the standard error of measurement (SEM). The SEM, which is usually about 2.6 points, indicates how close a test taker’s observed score is likely to be to his or her true score. True scores are theoretical scores that would be obtained from perfectly reliable tests with no measurement error—scores never known in practice. Score bands, or ranges of scores that contain a test taker’s true score a certain percentage of the time, can be derived using the SEM. LSAT score bands are constructed by adding and subtracting the (rounded) SEM to and from an actual LSAT score (e.g., the LSAT score, plus or minus 3 points). Scores near 120 or 180 have asymmetrical bands. Score bands constructed in this manner will contain an individual’s true score approximately 68 percent of the time. Measurement error also must be taken into account when comparing LSAT scores of two test takers. It is likely that small differences in scores are due to measurement error rather than to meaningful differences in ability. The standard error of score differences provides some guidance as to the importance of differences between two scores. The standard error of score differences is approximately 1.4 times larger than the standard error of measurement for the individual scores. Thus, a test score should be regarded as a useful but approximate measure of a test taker’s abilities as measured by the test, not as an exact determination of his or her abilities. LSAC encourages law schools to examine the range of scores within the interval that probably contains the test taker’s true score (e.g., the test taker’s score band) rather than solely interpret the reported score alone. Adjustments for Variation in Test Difficulty All test forms of the LSAT reported on the same score scale are designed to measure the same abilities, but one test form may be slightly easier or more difficult than another. The scores from different test forms are made comparable through a statistical procedure known as equating. As a result of equating, a given scaled score earned on different test forms reflects the same level of ability. Research on the LSAT Summaries of LSAT validity studies and other LSAT research can be found in member law school libraries and at LSAC.org. To Inquire About Test Questions If you find what you believe to be an error or ambiguity in a test question that affects your response to the question, contact LSAC by e-mail: [email protected], or write to Law School Admission Council, Test Development Group, PO Box 40, Newtown, PA 18940-0040.

How This PrepTest Differs From an Actual LSAT This PrepTest is made up of the scored sections and writing sample from the actual disclosed LSAT administered in June 2016. However, it does not contain the extra, variable section that is used to pretest new test items of one of the three multiple-choice question types. The three multiple-choice question types may be in a different order in an actual LSAT than in this PrepTest. This is because the order of these question types is intentionally varied for each administration of the test.

The Three LSAT Multiple-Choice Question Types The multiple-choice questions that make up most of the LSAT reflect a broad range of academic disciplines and are intended to give no advantage to candidates from a particular academic background. The five sections of the test contain three different question types. The following material presents a general discussion of the nature of each question type and some strategies that can be used in answering them. Analytical Reasoning Questions Analytical Reasoning questions are designed to assess the ability to consider a group of facts and rules, and, given those facts and rules, determine what could or must be true. The specific scenarios associated with these questions are usually unrelated to law, since they are intended to be accessible to a wide range of test takers. However, the skills tested parallel those involved in determining what could or must be the case given a set of regulations, the terms of a contract, or the facts of a legal case in relation to the law. In Analytical Reasoning questions, you are asked to reason deductively from a set of statements and rules or principles that describe relationships among persons, things, or events. Analytical Reasoning questions appear in sets, with each set based on a single passage. The passage used for each set of questions describes common ordering relationships or grouping relationships, or a combination of both types of relationships. Examples include scheduling employees for work shifts, assigning instructors to class sections, ordering tasks according to priority, and distributing grants for projects. Analytical Reasoning questions test a range of deductive reasoning skills. These include: • Comprehending the basic structure of a set of relationships by determining a complete solution to the problem posed (for example, an acceptable seating arrangement of all six diplomats around a table) • Reasoning with conditional (“if-then”) statements and recognizing logically equivalent formulations of such statements • Inferring what could be true or must be true from given facts and rules • Inferring what could be true or must be true from given facts and rules together with new information in the form of an additional or substitute fact or rule • Recognizing when two statements are logically equivalent in context by identifying a condition or rule that could replace one of the original conditions while still resulting in the same possible outcomes Analytical Reasoning questions reflect the kinds of detailed analyses of relationships and sets of constraints that a law student must perform in legal problem solving. For example, an Analytical Reasoning passage might describe six diplomats being seated around a table, following certain rules of protocol as to who can sit where. You, the test taker, must answer questions about the logical implications of given and new information. For example, you may be asked who can sit between diplomats X and Y, or who cannot sit next to X if W sits next to Y. Similarly, if you were a student in law school, you might be asked to analyze a scenario involving a set of particular circumstances and a set of governing rules in the form of constitutional provisions, statutes, administrative codes, or prior rulings that have been upheld. You might then be asked to determine the legal options in the scenario: what is required given the scenario, what is permissible given the scenario, and what is prohibited given the scenario. Or you might be asked to develop a “theory” for the case: when faced with an incomplete set of facts about the case, you must fill in the picture based on what is implied by the facts that are known. The problem could be elaborated by the addition of new information or hypotheticals. No formal training in logic is required to answer these questions correctly. Analytical Reasoning questions are intended to be answered using knowledge, skills, and reasoning ability generally expected of college students and graduates. Suggested Approach Some people may prefer to answer first those questions about a passage that seem less difficult and then those that seem more difficult. In general, it is best to finish one passage before starting on another, because much time can be lost in returning to a passage and reestablishing familiarity with its relationships. However, if you are having great difficulty on one particular set of questions and are spending too much time on them, it may be to your advantage to skip that set of questions and go on to the next passage, returning to the problematic set of questions after you have finished the other questions in the section. Do not assume that because the conditions for a set of questions look long or complicated, the questions based on those conditions will be especially difficult. Read the passage carefully. Careful reading and analysis are necessary to determine the exact nature of the relationships involved in an Analytical Reasoning passage. Some relationships are fixed (for example, P and R must always work on the same project). Other relationships are variable (for example, Q must be assigned to either team 1 or team 3). Some relationships that are not stated explicitly in the conditions are implied by and can be deduced from those that are stated (for example, if one condition about paintings in a display specifies that Painting K must be to the left of Painting Y, and another specifies that Painting W must be to the left of Painting K, then it can be deduced that Painting W must be to the left of Painting Y). In reading the conditions, do not introduce unwarranted assumptions. For instance, in a set of questions establishing relationships of height and weight among the members of a team, do not assume that a person who is taller than another person must weigh more than that person. As another example, suppose a set involves ordering and a question in the set asks what

must be true if both X and Y must be earlier than Z; in this case, do not assume that X must be earlier than Y merely because X is mentioned before Y. All the information needed to answer each question is provided in the passage and the question itself. The conditions are designed to be as clear as possible. Do not interpret the conditions as if they were intended to trick you. For example, if a question asks how many people could be eligible to serve on a committee, consider only those people named in the passage unless directed otherwise. When in doubt, read the conditions in their most obvious sense. Remember, however, that the language in the conditions is intended to be read for precise meaning. It is essential to pay particular attention to words that describe or limit relationships, such as “only,” “exactly,” “never,” “always,” “must be,” “cannot be,” and the like. The result of this careful reading will be a clear picture of the structure of the relationships involved, including the kinds of relationships permitted, the participants in the relationships, and the range of possible actions or attributes for these participants. Keep in mind question independence. Each question should be considered separately from the other questions in its set. No information, except what is given in the original conditions, should be carried over from one question to another. In some cases a question will simply ask for conclusions to be drawn from the conditions as originally given. Some questions may, however, add information to the original conditions or temporarily suspend or replace one of the original conditions for the purpose of that question only. For example, if Question 1 adds the supposition “if P is sitting at table 2 ...,” this supposition should NOT be carried over to any other question in the set. Consider highlighting text and using diagrams. Many people find it useful to underline key points in the passage and in each question. In addition, it may prove very helpful to draw a diagram to assist you in finding the solution to the problem. In preparing for the test, you may wish to experiment with different types of diagrams. For a scheduling problem, a simple calendar-like diagram may be helpful. For a grouping problem, an array of labeled columns or rows may be useful. Even though most people find diagrams to be very helpful, some people seldom use them, and for some individual questions no one will need a diagram. There is by no means universal agreement on which kind of diagram is best for which problem or in which cases a diagram is most useful. Do not be concerned if a particular problem in the test seems to be best approached without the use of a diagram. Logical Reasoning Questions Arguments are a fundamental part of the law, and analyzing arguments is a key element of legal analysis. Training in the law builds on a foundation of basic reasoning skills. Law students must draw on the skills of analyzing, evaluating, constructing, and refuting arguments. They need to be able to identify what information is relevant to an issue or argument and what impact further evidence might have. They need to be able to reconcile opposing positions and use arguments to persuade others. Logical Reasoning questions evaluate the ability to analyze, critically evaluate, and complete arguments as they occur in ordinary language. The questions are based on short arguments drawn from a wide variety of sources, including newspapers, general interest magazines, scholarly publications, advertisements, and informal discourse. These arguments mirror legal reasoning in the types of arguments presented and in their complexity, though few of the arguments actually have law as a subject matter. Each Logical Reasoning question requires you to read and comprehend a short passage, then answer one question (or, rarely, two questions) about it. The questions are designed to assess a wide range of skills involved in thinking critically, with an emphasis on skills that are central to legal reasoning. These skills include: • Recognizing the parts of an argument and their relationships • Recognizing similarities and differences between patterns of reasoning • Drawing well-supported conclusions • Reasoning by analogy • Recognizing misunderstandings or points of disagreement • Determining how additional evidence affects an argument • Detecting assumptions made by particular arguments • Identifying and applying principles or rules • Identifying flaws in arguments • Identifying explanations The questions do not presuppose specialized knowledge of logical terminology. For example, you will not be expected to know the meaning of specialized terms such as “ad hominem” or “syllogism.” On the other hand, you will be expected to understand and critique the reasoning contained in arguments. This requires that you possess a university-level understanding of widely used concepts such as argument, premise, assumption, and conclusion.

Suggested Approach Read each question carefully. Make sure that you understand the meaning of each part of the question. Make sure that you understand the meaning of each answer choice and the ways in which it may or may not relate to the question posed. Do not pick a response simply because it is a true statement. Although true, it may not answer the question posed. Answer each question on the basis of the information that is given, even if you do not agree with it. Work within the context provided by the passage. LSAT questions do not involve any tricks or hidden meanings. Reading Comprehension Questions Both law school and the practice of law revolve around extensive reading of highly varied, dense, argumentative, and expository texts (for example, cases, codes, contracts, briefs, decisions, evidence). This reading must be exacting, distinguishing precisely what is said from what is not said. It involves comparison, analysis, synthesis, and application (for example, of principles and rules). It involves drawing appropriate inferences and applying ideas and arguments to new contexts. Law school reading also requires the ability to grasp unfamiliar subject matter and the ability to penetrate difficult and challenging material. The purpose of LSAT Reading Comprehension questions is to measure the ability to read, with understanding and insight, examples of lengthy and complex materials similar to those commonly encountered in law school. The Reading Comprehension section of the LSAT contains four sets of reading questions, each set consisting of a selection of reading material followed by five to eight questions. The reading selection in three of the four sets consists of a single reading passage; the other set contains two related shorter passages. Sets with two passages are a variant of Reading Comprehension called Comparative Reading, which was introduced in June 2007. Comparative Reading questions concern the relationships between the two passages, such as those of generalization/instance, principle/application, or point/counterpoint. Law school work often requires reading two or more texts in conjunction with each other and understanding their relationships. For example, a law student may read a trial court decision together with an appellate court decision that overturns it, or identify the fact pattern from a hypothetical suit together with the potentially controlling case law. Reading selections for LSAT Reading Comprehension questions are drawn from a wide range of subjects in the humanities, the social sciences, the biological and physical sciences, and areas related to the law. Generally, the selections are densely written, use high-level vocabulary, and contain sophisticated argument or complex rhetorical structure (for example, multiple points of view). Reading Comprehension questions require you to read carefully and accurately, to determine the relationships among the various parts of the reading selection, and to draw reasonable inferences from the material in the selection. The questions may ask about the following characteristics of a passage or pair of passages: • The main idea or primary purpose • Information that is explicitly stated • Information or ideas that can be inferred • The meaning or purpose of words or phrases as used in context • The organization or structure • The application of information in the selection to a new context • Principles that function in the selection • Analogies to claims or arguments in the selection • An author’s attitude as revealed in the tone of a passage or the language used • The impact of new information on claims or arguments in the selection Suggested Approach Since reading selections are drawn from many different disciplines and sources, you should not be discouraged if you encounter material with which you are not familiar. It is important to remember that questions are to be answered exclusively on the basis of the information provided in the selection. There is no particular knowledge that you are expected to bring to the test, and you should not make inferences based on any prior knowledge of a subject that you may have. You may, however, wish to defer working on a set of questions that seems particularly difficult or unfamiliar until after you have dealt with sets you find easier. Strategies. One question that often arises in connection with Reading Comprehension has to do with the most effective and efficient order in which to read the selections and questions. Possible approaches include: • reading the selection very closely and then answering the questions; • reading the questions first, reading the selection closely, and then returning to the questions; or • skimming the selection and questions very quickly, then rereading the selection closely and answering the questions. Test takers are different, and the best strategy for one might not be the best strategy for another. In preparing for the test,

therefore, you might want to experiment with the different strategies and decide what works most effectively for you. Remember that your strategy must be effective under timed conditions. For this reason, the first strategy—reading the selection very closely and then answering the questions—may be the most effective for you. Nonetheless, if you believe that one of the other strategies might be more effective for you, you should try it out and assess your performance using it. Reading the selection. Whatever strategy you choose, you should give the passage or pair of passages at least one careful reading before answering the questions. Try to distinguish main ideas from supporting ideas, and opinions or attitudes from factual, objective information. Note transitions from one idea to the next and identify the relationships among the different ideas or parts of a passage, or between the two passages in Comparative Reading sets. Consider how and why an author makes points and draws conclusions. Be sensitive to implications of what the passages say. You may find it helpful to mark key parts of passages. For example, you might underline main ideas or important arguments, and you might circle transitional words—“although,” “nevertheless,” “correspondingly,” and the like—that will help you map the structure of a passage. Also, you might note descriptive words that will help you identify an author’s attitude toward a particular idea or person. Answering the Questions • Always read all the answer choices before selecting the best answer. The best answer choice is the one that most accurately and completely answers the question being posed. • Respond to the specific question being asked. Do not pick an answer choice simply because it is a true statement. For example, picking a true statement might yield an incorrect answer to a question in which you are asked to identify an author’s position on an issue, since you are not being asked to evaluate the truth of the author’s position but only to correctly identify what that position is. • Answer the questions only on the basis of the information provided in the selection. Your own views, interpretations, or opinions, and those you have heard from others, may sometimes conflict with those expressed in a reading selection; however, you are expected to work within the context provided by the reading selection. You should not expect to agree with everything you encounter in Reading Comprehension passages.

The Writing Sample On the day of the test, you will be asked to write one sample essay. LSAC does not score the writing sample, but copies are sent to all law schools to which you apply. According to a 2015 LSAC survey of 129 United States and Canadian law schools, almost all use the writing sample in evaluating at least some applications for admission. Failure to respond to writing sample prompts and frivolous responses have been used by law schools as grounds for rejection of applications for admission. In developing and implementing the writing sample portion of the LSAT, LSAC has operated on the following premises: First, law schools and the legal profession value highly the ability to communicate effectively in writing. Second, it is important to encourage potential law students to develop effective writing skills. Third, a sample of an applicant’s writing, produced under controlled conditions, is a potentially useful indication of that person’s writing ability. Fourth, the writing sample can serve as an independent check on other writing submitted by applicants as part of the admission process. Finally, writing samples may be useful for diagnostic purposes related to improving a candidate’s writing. The writing prompt presents a decision problem. You are asked to make a choice between two positions or courses of action. Both of the choices are defensible, and you are given criteria and facts on which to base your decision. There is no “right” or “wrong” position to take on the topic, so the quality of each test taker’s response is a function not of which choice is made, but of how well or poorly the choice is supported and how well or poorly the other choice is criticized. The LSAT writing prompt was designed and validated by legal education professionals. Since it involves writing based on fact sets and criteria, the writing sample gives applicants the opportunity to demonstrate the type of argumentative writing that is required in law school, although the topics are usually nonlegal. You will have 35 minutes in which to plan and write an essay on the topic you receive. Read the topic and the accompanying directions carefully. You will probably find it best to spend a few minutes considering the topic and organizing your thoughts before you begin writing. In your essay, be sure to develop your ideas fully, leaving time, if possible, to review what you have written. Do not write on a topic other than the one specified. Writing on a topic of your own choice is not acceptable. No special knowledge is required or expected for this writing exercise. Law schools are interested in the reasoning, clarity, organization, language usage, and writing mechanics displayed in your essay. How well you write is more important than how much you write. Confine your essay to the blocked, lined area on the front and back of the separate Writing Sample Response Sheet. Only that area will be reproduced for law schools. Be sure that your writing is legible.

Taking the PrepTest Under Simulated LSAT Conditions One important way to prepare for the LSAT is to simulate the day of the test by taking a practice test under actual time constraints. Taking a practice test under timed conditions helps you to estimate the amount of time you can afford to spend on each question in a section and to determine the question types on which you may need additional practice. Since the LSAT is a timed test, it is important to use your allotted time wisely. During the test, you may work only on the section designated by the test supervisor. You cannot devote extra time to a difficult section and make up that time on a section you find easier. In pacing yourself, and checking your answers, you should think of each section of the test as a separate minitest. Be sure that you answer every question on the test. When you do not know the correct answer to a question, first eliminate the responses that you know are incorrect, then make your best guess among the remaining choices. Do not be afraid to guess as there is no penalty for incorrect answers. When you take a practice test, abide by all the requirements specified in the directions and keep strictly within the specified time limits. Work without a rest period. When you take an actual test, you will have only a short break—usually 10–15 minutes—after SECTION III. When taken under conditions as much like actual testing conditions as possible, a practice test provides very useful preparation for taking the LSAT. Official directions for the four multiple-choice sections and the writing sample are included in this PrepTest so that you can approximate actual testing conditions as you practice. To take the test: • Set a timer for 35 minutes. Answer all the questions in SECTION I of this PrepTest. Stop working on that section when the 35 minutes have elapsed. • Repeat, allowing yourself 35 minutes each for sections II, III, and IV. • Set the timer again for 35 minutes, then prepare your response to the writing sample topic at the end of this PrepTest. • Refer to “Computing Your Score” for the PrepTest for instruction on evaluating your performance. An answer key is provided for that purpose. The practice test that follows consists of four sections corresponding to the four scored sections of the June 2016 LSAT. Also reprinted is the June 2016 unscored writing sample topic.



General Directions for the LSAT Answer Sheet

THE PREPTEST • Logical Reasoning: SECTION I • Analytical Reasoning: SECTION II • Logical Reasoning: SECTION III • Reading Comprehension: SECTION IV • Writing Sample Materials

Section 1 Time—35 minutes 25 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. 1. Grecia: The survey that we are conducting needs to track employment status by age, so respondents should be asked to indicate their age. Hidalgo: We don't need results that provide employment status figures for every single age. So we should instead ask respondents merely to identify the age range that they fall into. Which one of the following principles, if valid, most justifies Hidalgo's stance? (A) Surveys gathering information for a specific purpose should not collect more detailed personal information than is necessary to achieve the purpose. (B) Survey respondents should not be asked a particular question if they are unlikely to answer accurately. (C) Sensitive personal information should be gathered only if a secure means of storing that information is available. (D) Surveys should be allowed to gather any information that might be needed to meet their purposes. (E) Surveys should gather detailed personal information only if survey respondents are first told about how that information will be used. 2. In 1893, an excavation led by Wilhelm Dörpfeld uncovered an ancient city he believed to be Troy, the site of the war described in Homer's epic poem the Iliad. But that belief cannot be correct. In the Iliad, the Trojan War lasted ten years, but a city as small as the one uncovered by Dörpfeld's team could not have withstood a siege lasting ten years. Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument? (A) In 1893, scholars knew of no other ancient city that could have been Troy. (B) The Iliad does not provide any clues about the specific location of Troy. (C) Dörpfeld's team found no evidence in the city they excavated that a siege had occurred there.

(D) The city excavated by Dörpfeld's team had many features that scholars of the time believed Troy had. (E) The Iliad accurately represents the duration of the Trojan War. 3. Flynn: Allowing people to collect large damage awards when they successfully sue corporations that produce dangerous products clearly benefits consumers, since the possibility of large awards gives corporations a strong incentive to reduce safety risks associated with their products. Garcia: Without sensible limits, damage awards can be so high that corporations are destroyed. As a result, employees lose their jobs and the productivity of the corporation is lost. This harms the economy and thus harms consumers. Garcia responds to Flynn's argument by (A) arguing that the policy supported in Flynn's argument could have undesirable consequences (B) providing evidence that undermines one of the premises of Flynn's argument (C) comparing Flynn's argument to an obviously flawed argument that has the same logical structure (D) contending that Flynn's argument could be used to support a policy that is inconsistent with the policy that Flynn advocates (E) providing an alternative explanation for a situation described in Flynn's argument 4. Monroe: Our organization's project has been a failure. Our stated goal was to reduce as much as possible the number of homes in the community that lack electricity. Now, at the project's conclusion, approximately 2,000 homes are still without electricity. Wilkerson: But before the project began, over 5,000 homes in the community had no electricity. Surely bringing electricity to around 3,000 homes counts as a success for the project. Monroe and Wilkerson disagree over the truth of which one of the following? (A) Approximately 2,000 homes in the community are still without electricity. (B) Before the organization's project began, over 5,000 homes in the community had no electricity. (C) The organization's project must be considered a failure if any home in the community has no electricity. (D) The stated goal of the project was to reduce as much as possible the number of homes in the community that lack electricity. (E) Leaving approximately 2,000 homes in the community without electricity at the conclusion of the project counts as a failure for the project. 5. Researchers asked 100 fifty-year-olds and 100 twenty-year-olds whether they gave blood. Because nearly twice as many fifty-year-olds as twenty-year-olds reported that they sometimes gave blood, the

researchers concluded that, on average, fifty-year-olds are more altruistic than twenty-year-olds. But there is reason for skepticism. Many people hesitate to admit that their behavior does not conform to societal expectations. The reasoning above calls into question a conclusion drawn from statistical data by (A) showing that the data are based on an unrepresentative sample (B) offering an alternative explanation of some of the data (C) showing that one cannot directly observe altruism (D) criticizing the motives of the researchers (E) offering a specific counterexample 6. Mario: I see that the only rug store in Glendale has gone out of business. Evidently there's little demand for rugs in Glendale. So if you're planning to open a new business there, rugs would be one product to avoid. Renate: It's true that the store is gone, but its closing had little to do with the product it sold. All this means is that the market for rugs in Glendale is now wide open. The dialogue provides the most support for the claim that Mario and Renate disagree over whether (A) the rug store in Glendale sold rugs of inferior quality (B) it is a good idea to open a rug store in Glendale (C) it is possible to determine the market for rugs in Glendale (D) any other stores have gone out of business in Glendale (E) rug stores can close because of insufficient demand for rugs 7. Editorialist: The city council is considering increasing the amount of air traffic allowed at the airport beyond its original design capacity. Several council members say that this increase would not decrease safety as it would be accompanied by the purchase of the latest safety technology. But in fact it would decrease safety. Numerous studies conducted 30 years ago show that safety was reduced at every airport where the permitted level of traffic was increased beyond the airport's original design capacity, even when those airports made use of the latest safety technology. Which one of the following most accurately describes a flaw in the editorialist's argument? (A) The argument draws a conclusion on the basis of a general statement that has in turn been inferred from a very limited number of particular instances. (B) The argument fails to consider the possibility that whether an airport can allow more air traffic than it was originally designed for without reducing safety depends largely on what the latest technology is.

(C) The argument fails to consider the possibility that the city council members who support the increase are aware of the studies that were conducted 30 years ago. (D) The argument confuses an absence of evidence for the claim that the airport can safely permit air traffic in excess of its original design capacity with the existence of evidence against this claim. (E) The argument fails to consider that a slight increase in safety risks might be acceptable if it yields overriding benefits of another kind. 8. Philosopher: It has been argued that because particular moral codes differ between cultures, morality must be entirely a product of culture and cannot be grounded in some universal human nature. This argument is flawed. Research suggests that certain moral attitudes, such as disapproval of unfairness and cruelty, are shared across all cultures. And just as certain universal tastes like sweetness and saltiness can, in different cultural contexts, provide the basis for many different cuisines, _______. Which one of the following most logically completes the argument? (A) moral codes tend to be based in the specific contexts in which they arise (B) the moral codes of most cultures resemble each other in many respects (C) a variety of moral codes can be based in shared moral attitudes (D) it is possible to understand the basis of the moral codes of different cultures (E) moral attitudes can be adapted to suit the moral codes of many different cultures 9. In a recent field study of prairie plants, the more plant species a prairie plot had, the more vigorously the plants grew and the better the soil retained nutrients. Thus, having more plant species improves a prairie's ability to support plant life. The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it (A) infers of two correlated phenomena, X and Y, that X causes Y without considering whether Y causes X (B) fails to describe the mechanism by which productivity is supposedly increased (C) takes for granted that the characteristics of one prairie plot could reveal something about the characteristics of other prairie plots (D) bases a general conclusion on data that is likely to be unrepresentative (E) takes an increase in number to indicate an increase in proportion 10. Anthropologist: In an experiment, two groups of undergraduates were taught how to create one of the types of stone tools that the Neanderthals made in prehistoric times. One group was taught using both demonstrations and elaborate verbal explanations, whereas the other group learned by silent example alone. The two groups showed a significant difference neither in the speed with which they acquired the

toolmaking skills nor in the level of proficiency they reached. This shows that Neanderthals could just as well have created their sophisticated tools even if they had no language. Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the anthropologist's argument? (A) Apart from the sophistication of their stone tools, there is a great deal of evidence suggesting that Neanderthals possessed some form of language. (B) The students who were taught with verbal explanations were allowed to discuss the toolmaking techniques among themselves, whereas the students who learned by silent example were not. (C) The tools that the undergraduates were taught to make were much simpler and easier to make than most types of tools created by Neanderthals. (D) The instructor who taught the group of students who learned by silent example alone was much less proficient at making the stone tools than was the instructor who taught the other group of students. (E) The tools created by Neanderthals were much less sophisticated than the tools created by anatomically modern humans who almost certainly possessed language and lived at the same time as the Neanderthals. 11. Modest amounts of exercise can produce a dramatic improvement in cardiovascular health. One should exercise most days of the week, but one need only do the equivalent of half an hour of brisk walking on those days to obtain cardiovascular health benefits. More vigorous exercise is more effective, but a strenuous workout is not absolutely necessary. Which one of the following is most strongly supported by the statements above? (A) Having a strenuous workout most days of the week can produce a dramatic improvement in cardiovascular health. (B) Doing the equivalent of an hour of brisk walking two or three times a week generally produces dramatic improvements in cardiovascular health. (C) It is possible to obtain at least as great an improvement in cardiovascular health from doing the equivalent of half an hour of brisk walking most days of the week as from having a strenuous workout most days of the week. (D) Aside from exercise, there is no way of improving one's cardiovascular health. (E) To obtain a dramatic improvement in one's cardiovascular health, one must exercise strenuously at least occasionally. 12. Sartore is a better movie reviewer than Kelly. A movie review should help readers determine whether or not they are apt to enjoy the movie, and a person who is likely to enjoy a particular movie is much more likely to realize this by reading a review by Sartore than a review by Kelly, even though Sartore is more likely to give a movie an unfavorable review than a favorable one. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?

(A) Sartore has technical knowledge of film, whereas Kelly is merely a fan. (B) Most of Kelly's movie reviews are unfavorable to the movie being reviewed. (C) One who is apt not to enjoy a particular movie is more likely to realize this by reading a review by Sartore than a review by Kelly. (D) Reading a movie review by Sartore will usually help one to enjoy the movie more than one otherwise would have. (E) Most of the movies that Sartore reviews are also reviewed by Kelly. 13. Specially bred aquarium fish with brilliant coloration and unusual body shapes may be popular with connoisseurs, but they are inferior to ordinary fish. Hampered by their elaborate tails or strangely shaped fins, the specially bred fish cannot reach food as quickly as can the ordinary fish that compete with them for food, and so they are often underfed. Also, they do not breed true; most offspring of the specially bred fish lack the elaborate tails and brilliant coloration of their parents. Which one of the following is most strongly supported by the information above? (A) Specially bred aquarium fish must receive special care if they are to survive. (B) Connoisseurs are not interested in dull-colored, simply shaped fish. (C) Most specially bred aquarium fish are purchased by connoisseurs. (D) Ordinary fish tend not to have elaborate tails or strangely shaped fins. (E) Strangely shaped fins and elaborate tails interfere with a fish's ability to reproduce. 14. Ethicist: The general principle—if one ought to do something then one can do it—does not always hold true. This may be seen by considering an example. Suppose someone promises to meet a friend at a certain time, but—because of an unforeseen traffic jam—it is impossible to do so. Which one of the following is an assumption required by the ethicist's argument? (A) If a person failed to do something she or he ought to have done, then that person failed to do something that she or he promised to do. (B) Only an event like an unforeseen traffic jam could excuse a person from the obligation to keep a promise. (C) If there is something that a person ought not do, then it is something that that person is capable of not doing. (D) The obligation created by a promise is not relieved by the fact that the promise cannot be kept. (E) If an event like an unforeseen traffic jam interferes with someone's keeping a promise, then that person should not have made the promise to begin with.

15. The production of leather and fur for clothing is labor intensive, which means that these materials have tended to be expensive. But as fashion has moved away from these materials, their prices have dropped, while prices of some materials that require less labor in their production and are more fashionable have risen. The situation described above conforms most closely to which one of the following generalizations? (A) The price of any manufactured good depends more on how fashionable that good is than on the materials it is made from. (B) It is more important for the materials used in the manufacture of clothing to be fashionable than it is for them to be practical. (C) Materials that require relatively little labor in their production tend to be fashionable. (D) The appearance of a manufactured good is the only thing that determines whether it is fashionable. (E) Cultural trends tend to be an important determinant of the prices of materials used in manufacturing. 16. In most of this forest, the expected outbreak of tree-eating tussock moths should not be countered. After all, the moth is beneficial where suppression of forest fires, for example, has left the forest unnaturally crowded with immature trees, and _______. The conclusion of the argument is most strongly supported if which one of the following completes the passage? (A) more than half of the forest is unnaturally crowded with immature trees (B) mature trees are usually the first to be eaten by tussock moths (C) usually a higher proportion of mature trees than of immature ones are destroyed in forest fires (D) the expected outbreak of tussock moths will almost certainly occur if no attempt is made to counter it (E) there are no completely effective countermeasures against the moth 17. In order to relieve traffic congestion, the city of Gastner built a new highway linking several of the city's suburbs to the downtown area. However, the average commute time for workers in downtown Gastner increased after the new highway opened. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to explain the increase in average commute time? (A) Most people who work in the downtown area of Gastner commute from one of the city's suburbs. (B) The location of the new highway is most convenient for people who commute to and from Gastner's largest suburbs. (C) Shortly after the new highway was opened, several suburban roads connecting to the new highway were upgraded with new stoplights.

(D) At the same time the new highway was being built, road repair work was being done on important streets leading to downtown Gastner. (E) In Gastner's downtown area, traffic on the roads near the new highway became more congested after the new highway was opened. 18. Office worker: I have two equally important projects that remain undone. The first one is late already, and if I devote time to finishing it, then I won't have time to finish the second one before its deadline. Admittedly, there's no guarantee that I can finish the second project on time even if I devote all of my time to it, but I should nonetheless devote all of my time to the second one. Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify the office worker's reasoning? (A) It is better to focus one's time on a single project than to split one's time between two projects. (B) It is better to finish one of two projects than to risk failing to finish both projects. (C) It is better to first finish those projects that must be done than to interrupt them with projects that are merely optional. (D) It is better not to worry about having failed to finish a project on time than to allow such worry to interfere with finishing a competing project on time. (E) It is better to attempt to finish a project on time than to attempt to finish a late project that does not have higher priority. 19. Science teacher: An abstract knowledge of science is very seldom useful for the decisions that adults typically make in their daily lives. But the skills taught in secondary school should be useful for making such decisions. Therefore, secondary school science courses should teach students to evaluate sciencebased arguments regarding practical issues, such as health and public policy, instead of or perhaps in addition to teaching more abstract aspects of science. Which one of the following is an assumption the science teacher's argument requires? (A) Secondary schools should teach only those skills that are the most useful for the decisions that adults typically make in their daily lives. (B) Teaching secondary school students the more abstract aspects of science is at least as important as teaching them to evaluate science-based arguments regarding practical issues. (C) Adults who have an abstract knowledge of science are no better at evaluating science-based arguments regarding practical issues than are adults who have no knowledge of science at all. (D) No secondary school science courses currently teach students how to evaluate science-based arguments regarding practical issues. (E) The ability to evaluate science-based arguments regarding practical issues is sometimes useful in making the decisions that adults typically make in their daily lives.

20. Lyle: Admittedly, modernizing the language of premodern plays lessens their aesthetic quality, but such modernizing remains valuable for teaching history, since it makes the plays accessible to students who would otherwise never enjoy them. Carl: But such modernizing prevents students from understanding fully what the plays said to premodern audiences. Thus, modernizing plays is of no use for teaching history, because students cannot gain deep knowledge of the past from modernized plays. Which one of the following most accurately expresses a point of disagreement between Lyle and Carl? (A) whether modernizing the language of premodern plays results in plays that have different pedagogical value than the originals (B) whether the loss in aesthetic quality that results from modernizing the language of premodern plays lessens the plays' usefulness for teaching history (C) whether the highest form of aesthetic enjoyment of premodern plays comes from seeing them as they were originally performed (D) whether increasing the accessibility of premodern plays through modernizing their language is valuable for teaching history (E) whether using plays with modernized language to teach history requires that there be some loss in the aesthetic quality of the plays 21. Most kinds of soil contain clay, and virtually every kind of soil contains either sand or organic material, or both. Therefore, there must be some kinds of soil that contain both clay and sand and some that contain both clay and organic material. The pattern of flawed reasoning in which one of the following arguments is most parallel to that in the argument above? (A) Most pharmacies sell cosmetics. Virtually every pharmacy sells shampoo or toothpaste, or both. Therefore, if there are pharmacies that sell both cosmetics and toothpaste, there must also be some that sell both cosmetics and shampoo. (B) Undoubtedly, most pharmacies sell cosmetics, for almost all pharmacies sell either shampoo or toothpaste, or both, and there are some pharmacies that sell both cosmetics and shampoo and some that sell both cosmetics and toothpaste. (C) Most pharmacies sell cosmetics. Nearly all pharmacies sell shampoo or toothpaste, or both. Therefore, unless there are some pharmacies that sell both cosmetics and toothpaste, there must be some that sell both cosmetics and shampoo. (D) Virtually every pharmacy that sells shampoo also sells toothpaste. Most pharmacies sell cosmetics. Therefore, there must be some pharmacies that sell both cosmetics and toothpaste and some that sell both cosmetics and shampoo. (E) Nearly all pharmacies sell either shampoo or toothpaste, or both. Therefore, since most pharmacies

sell cosmetics, there must be some pharmacies that sell both cosmetics and toothpaste and some that sell both cosmetics and shampoo. 22. In 2005, an environmental group conducted a study measuring the levels of toxic chemicals in the bodies of eleven volunteers. Scientifically valid inferences could not be drawn from the study because of the small sample size, but the results were interesting nonetheless. Among the subjects tested, younger subjects showed much lower levels of PCBs—toxic chemicals that were banned in the 1970s. This proves that the regulation banning PCBs was effective in reducing human exposure to those chemicals. The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument (A) takes an inconsistent stance regarding the status of the inferences that can be drawn from the study (B) overlooks the possibility that two or more chemicals produce the same effects (C) concludes that a generalization has been proven true merely on the grounds that it has not been proven false (D) takes something to be the cause of a reduction when it could have been an effect of that reduction (E) does not consider the possibility that PCBs have detrimental effects on human health several years after exposure 23. A spy fails by being caught, and it is normally only through being caught that spies reveal their methods. The successful spy is never caught. So the available data are skewed: One can learn a lot about what makes a spy fail but very little about what makes a spy succeed. Which one of the following arguments is most similar in its reasoning to the argument above? (A) Of those who participated in the marathon, some succeeded and others failed. But those who did not participate at all neither succeeded nor failed, since both success and failure require participation. (B) People who are aware of their motives can articulate them. But unconscious motives are usually impossible to acknowledge. So people are more likely to hear about other people's conscious motives than their unconscious ones. (C) It is unclear whether the company's venture succeeded, because the criteria for its success are undefined. But if the venture had had a measurable goal, then it would have been possible to judge its success. (D) A teacher is someone who teaches. In addition, there are people who teach but are not called teachers. So while the number of those called teachers is large, the number of those who teach is even larger. (E) Because someone intervened in the conflict, the effects of that intervention can be discerned. But since no one can investigate what does not happen, it is impossible to discern what would have happened had someone not intervened. 24. Families with underage children make up much of the population, but because only adults can vote,

lawmakers in democracies pay too little attention to the interests of these families. To remedy this, parents should be given additional votes to cast on behalf of their underage children. Families with underage children would thus receive fair representation. The argument requires assuming which one of the following principles? (A) The amount of attention that lawmakers give to a group's interests should be directly proportional to the number of voters in that group. (B) Parents should not be given responsibility for making a decision on their child's behalf unless their child is not mature enough to decide wisely. (C) The parents of underage children should always consider the best interests of their children when they vote. (D) It is not fair for lawmakers to favor the interests of people who have the vote over the interests of people who do not have the vote. (E) A group of people can be fairly represented in a democracy even if some members of that group can vote on behalf of others in that group. 25. Critic: The Gazette-Standard newspaper recently increased its editorial staff to avoid factual errors. But this clearly is not working. Compared to its biggest competitor, the Gazette-Standard currently runs significantly more corrections acknowledging factual errors. Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the critic's argument? (A) The Gazette-Standard pays its editorial staff lower salaries than its biggest competitor pays its editorial staff. (B) The Gazette-Standard has been in business considerably longer than has its biggest competitor. (C) The Gazette-Standard more actively follows up reader complaints about errors in the paper than does its biggest competitor. (D) The Gazette-Standard's articles are each checked by more editors than are the articles of its biggest competitor. (E) The increase in the Gazette-Standard's editorial staff has been offset by a decrease in the reporting staff at the newspaper. STOP If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not work on any other section of the test.

Section 2 Time—35 minutes 23 Questions Directions: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. Questions 1–5 Seven workers—Quinn, Ruiz, Smith, Taylor, Verma, Wells, and Xue—are being considered for a special project. Exactly three of the workers will be selected to be project members, and exactly one of these project members will be the project leader. The selection is subject to the following constraints: Quinn or Ruiz can be a project member only if leading the project. If Smith is a project member, Taylor must also be. If Wells is a project member, neither Ruiz nor Verma can be. 1. Which one of the following is an acceptable selection for the project? (A) Ruiz (leader), Taylor, Wells (B) Verma (leader), Quinn, Taylor (C) Verma (leader), Smith, Taylor (D) Verma (leader), Smith, Xue (E) Xue (leader), Verma, Wells 2. If Taylor is the project leader and Wells is a project member, then the third project member must be either (A) Quinn or Smith (B) Quinn or Xue (C) Ruiz or Verma (D) Smith or Xue (E) Verma or Xue 3. Verma could be the project leader if which one of the following is true?

(A) Neither Quinn nor Smith is selected. (B) Neither Ruiz nor Taylor is selected. (C) Neither Smith nor Taylor is selected. (D) Neither Smith nor Xue is selected. (E) Neither Taylor nor Wells is selected. 4. If Taylor is not a project member, which one of the following workers must be a project member? (A) Quinn (B) Ruiz (C) Verma (D) Wells (E) Xue 5. The selection for the project is completely determined if which one of the following is true? (A) Neither Quinn nor Smith is selected. (B) Neither Quinn nor Taylor is selected. (C) Neither Quinn nor Xue is selected. (D) Neither Ruiz nor Wells is selected. (E) Neither Ruiz nor Verma is selected. Questions 6–11 Four students will be assigned to a history project in which they will search archives from the years 1921, 1922, 1923, and 1924. Each of the four years will have exactly one student assigned to it. Six students—Louis, Mollie, Onyx, Ryan, Tiffany, and Yoshio—are available for this project. The following conditions apply: Only Louis or Tiffany can be assigned to 1923. If Mollie is assigned to the project, then she must be assigned to either 1921 or 1922. If Tiffany is assigned to the project, then Ryan must be assigned to the project. If Ryan is assigned to the project, then Onyx must be assigned to the year immediately prior to Ryan's. 6. Which one of the following could be an accurate assignment of students, in order from the earliest year

to the latest? (A) Louis, Onyx, Ryan, Yoshio (B) Mollie, Yoshio, Tiffany, Onyx (C) Onyx, Ryan, Louis, Tiffany (D) Tiffany, Onyx, Louis, Ryan (E) Yoshio, Onyx, Louis, Mollie 7. Mollie must be assigned to 1922 if which one of the following is true? (A) Louis is assigned to 1924. (B) Onyx is assigned to 1921. (C) Onyx is assigned to 1924. (D) Tiffany is assigned to 1923. (E) Yoshio is assigned to 1921. 8. If both Ryan and Yoshio are assigned to the project, which one of the following could be true? (A) Louis is assigned to 1923. (B) Mollie is assigned to 1921. (C) Onyx is assigned to 1922. (D) Tiffany is assigned to 1924. (E) Yoshio is assigned to 1922. 9. How many of the students are there who could be the one assigned to 1921? (A) six (B) five (C) four (D) three (E) two 10. If Yoshio is not assigned to the project, which one of the following could be true?

(A) Louis is not assigned to the project. (B) Ryan is not assigned to the project. (C) Tiffany is not assigned to the project. (D) Onyx is assigned to 1922. (E) Louis is assigned to 1924. 11. Which one of the following students CANNOT be assigned to 1922? (A) Louis (B) Mollie (C) Onyx (D) Ryan (E) Yoshio Questions 12–17 During the weeklong grand opening of a new antique shop, the antique dealer will auction exactly one antique per day for six consecutive days—June 1st through June 6th. The antiques to be auctioned are: a harmonica, a lamp, a mirror, a sundial, a table, and a vase. The following conditions apply: The sundial is not auctioned on June 1st. If the harmonica is auctioned on an earlier date than the lamp, then the mirror is also auctioned on an earlier date than the lamp. The sundial is auctioned on an earlier date than the mirror and also on an earlier date than the vase. The table is auctioned on an earlier date than the harmonica or on an earlier date than the vase, but not both. 12. Which one of the following could be an accurate list of the six antiques, in the order in which they are auctioned, from June 1st through June 6th? (A) harmonica, table, sundial, lamp, vase, mirror (B) lamp, harmonica, sundial, mirror, vase, table (C) harmonica, sundial, table, mirror, lamp, vase (D) sundial, mirror, harmonica, table, vase, lamp (E) vase, sundial, lamp, harmonica, table, mirror

13. Which one of the following could be true? (A) The table is auctioned on June 2nd and the lamp is auctioned on June 3rd. (B) The sundial is auctioned on June 2nd and the vase is auctioned on June 3rd. (C) The mirror is auctioned on June 3rd and the sundial is auctioned on June 4th. (D) The vase is auctioned on June 4th and the sundial is auctioned on June 5th. (E) The sundial is auctioned on June 4th and the table is auctioned on June 5th. 14. If the table is auctioned on a date that is later than both the date on which the mirror is auctioned and the date on which the vase is auctioned, then which one of the following could be true? (A) The harmonica is auctioned on an earlier date than the table. (B) The table is auctioned on an earlier date than the lamp. (C) The table is auctioned on an earlier date than the sundial. (D) The mirror is auctioned on an earlier date than the vase. (E) The sundial is auctioned on an earlier date than the lamp. 15. Which one of the following CANNOT be the antique auctioned on the day immediately preceding the day on which the vase is auctioned? (A) the harmonica (B) the lamp (C) the mirror (D) the sundial (E) the table 16. Which one of the following could be true? (A) The mirror is auctioned on June 2nd. (B) The lamp is auctioned on June 2nd. (C) The vase is auctioned on June 2nd. (D) The lamp is auctioned on June 3rd. (E) The mirror is auctioned on June 5th.

17. Which one of the following could be true? (A) The sundial is auctioned on June 5th. (B) The sundial is auctioned on June 4th. (C) The lamp is auctioned on June 5th and the mirror is auctioned on June 6th. (D) The table is auctioned on June 3rd and the lamp is auctioned on June 4th. (E) The harmonica is auctioned on June 2nd and the vase is auctioned on June 3rd. Questions 18–23 A chorus director is planning to audition exactly six singers: Kammer, Lugo, Trillo, Waite, Yoshida, and Zinn. Kammer's audition and Lugo's audition will be recorded; the other four will not be. The six auditions are to take place one after the other on a single day, in accordance with the following conditions: The fourth audition cannot be recorded. The fifth audition must be recorded. Waite's audition must take place earlier than the two recorded auditions. Kammer's audition must take place earlier than Trillo's audition. Zinn's audition must take place earlier than Yoshida's audition. 18. Which one of the following could be the order of the auditions, from first to last? (A) Kammer, Trillo, Zinn, Waite, Lugo, Yoshida (B) Waite, Kammer, Yoshida, Zinn, Lugo, Trillo (C) Waite, Lugo, Kammer, Trillo, Zinn, Yoshida (D) Waite, Zinn, Kammer, Trillo, Lugo, Yoshida (E) Zinn, Yoshida, Waite, Lugo, Kammer, Trillo 19. Which one of the following CANNOT be the second audition? (A) Kammer's audition (B) Lugo's audition (C) Trillo's audition (D) Waite's audition

(E) Zinn's audition 20. Which one of the following could be the sixth audition? (A) Kammer's audition (B) Lugo's audition (C) Trillo's audition (D) Waite's audition (E) Zinn's audition 21. If Kammer's audition is immediately before Yoshida's, which one of the following could be true? (A) Kammer's audition is second. (B) Trillo's audition is fourth. (C) Waite's audition is third. (D) Yoshida's audition is sixth. (E) Zinn's audition is second. 22. Yoshida's audition could be (A) fifth (B) fourth (C) third (D) second (E) first 23. Which one of the following, if substituted for the condition that Waite's audition must take place earlier than the two recorded auditions, would have the same effect in determining the order of the auditions? (A) Zinn's audition is the only one that can take place earlier than Waite's. (B) Waite's audition must take place either immediately before or immediately after Zinn's. (C) Waite's audition must take place earlier than Lugo's. (D) Waite's audition must be either first or second.

(E) The first audition cannot be recorded. STOP If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not work on any other section of the test.

Section 3 Time—35 minutes 26 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. 1. A nonprofit organization concerned with a social issue sent out a fund-raising letter to 5,000 people. The letter was accompanied by a survey soliciting recipients' opinions. Of the 300 respondents, 283 indicated in the survey that they agreed with the organization's position on the social issue. This suggests that most of the 5,000 people to whom the letter was sent agreed with that position. The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on which one of the following grounds? (A) It draws a conclusion about a population from observations of a subgroup that is quite likely to be unrepresentative of that population in certain relevant respects. (B) It takes for granted that most individuals do not vary significantly in the opinions they would express on a given issue if surveyed regarding that issue on different occasions. (C) It relies on the accuracy of a survey made under conditions in which it is probable that most of the responses to that survey did not correctly reflect the opinions of the respondents. (D) It uses evidence about an opinion held by the majority of a population in an attempt to justify a conclusion regarding the opinion of a small part of that population. (E) It takes for granted that the fund-raising letter had some influence on the opinions of most of the people who received it. 2. An unstable climate was probably a major cause of the fall of the Roman empire. Tree-ring analysis shows that Europe's climate underwent extreme fluctuations between 250 A.D. and 550 A.D., a period that encompasses Rome's decline and fall. This highly variable climate surely hurt food production, which made the empire harder to rule and defend. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument? (A) Political failures within the Roman empire during its last years led to conflicts that hampered agricultural production. (B) The areas of the Roman empire that had the greatest climatic instability between 250 A.D. and 550 A.D. did not experience unusual levels of unrest during that period.

(C) Poor farming practices led to depleted soil in many parts of Europe during the last years of the Roman empire. (D) During periods when the Roman empire was thriving, Europe consistently experienced weather that was favorable for agriculture. (E) Total food production in Europe was likely greater in the years around 550 A.D. than in the years around 250 A.D. 3. Sales manager: Having spent my entire career in sales, most of that time as a sales manager for a large computer company, I know that natural superstar salespeople are rare. But many salespeople can perform like superstars if they have a good manager. Therefore, companies should _______. Which one of the following most logically completes the sales manager's argument? (A) devote more effort to training than to evaluating salespeople (B) devote more effort to finding good managers than to finding natural superstar salespeople (C) keep to a minimum the number of salespeople for which a manager is responsible (D) promote more natural superstar salespeople to management positions (E) reward superstar performance more than superstar talent 4. According to economists, people's tendency to purchase a given commodity is inversely proportional to its price. When new techniques produced cheaper steel, more steel was purchased. Nevertheless, once machine-produced lace became available, at much lower prices than the handcrafted variety, lace no longer served to advertise its wearers' wealth and the lace market collapsed. Obviously, then, there are exceptions to the economists' general rule. The claim that more steel was purchased when it could be manufactured more cheaply plays which one of the following roles in the argument? (A) It is described as inadequate evidence for the falsity of the argument's conclusion. (B) It is described as an exception to a generalization for which the argument offers evidence. (C) It is used to illustrate the generalization that, according to the argument, does not hold in all cases. (D) It is the evidence that, according to the argument, led economists to embrace a false hypothesis. (E) It is cited as one of several reasons for modifying a general assumption made by economists. 5. Resident: Data indicates that 30 percent of the houses in our town have inadequate site drainage and 30 percent have structural defects that could make them unsafe. Hence, at least 60 percent of our town's houses have some kind of problem that threatens their integrity. The reasoning in the resident's argument is flawed in that the argument overlooks the possibility that

(A) the town has a relatively small number of houses (B) inadequate site drainage can make a house unsafe (C) structural defects are often easier to fix than inadequate site drainage (D) many houses in the town have neither inadequate site drainage nor structural defects that could make them unsafe (E) some of the houses that have structural defects that could make them unsafe also have inadequate site drainage 6. The decisions that one makes can profoundly affect one's life years later. So one should not regret the missed opportunities of youth, for had one decided instead to seize one of these opportunities, one would not have some of the close personal relationships one currently has. And everyone deeply cherishes their close personal relationships. Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify the reasoning in the argument? (A) One should not regret making a decision unless a different decision would have resulted in one having a greater number of close personal relationships. (B) One should not regret making a decision if it helped to bring about something that one cherishes. (C) One should not regret making a decision that had little effect on one's life. (D) People who regret the missed opportunities of youth should cherish their close personal relationships more deeply. (E) People with few close personal relationships should cherish the ones they have. 7. The Kuna, a people native to several Panamanian islands, generally have a low incidence of high blood pressure. But Kuna who have moved to the Panamanian mainland do not have a low incidence of high blood pressure. Kuna who live on the islands, unlike those who live on the mainland, typically drink several cups of cocoa a day. This cocoa is minimally processed and thus high in flavonoids. Of the following, which one is most strongly supported by the information above? (A) Foods high in flavonoids are not readily available on the Panamanian mainland. (B) Kuna who live on the islands drink cocoa because they believe that it is beneficial to their health. (C) The Kuna have a genetic predisposition to low blood pressure. (D) Kuna who live on the Panamanian mainland generally have higher blood pressure than other people who live on the mainland. (E) Drinking several cups of flavonoid-rich cocoa per day tends to prevent high blood pressure.

8. Numerous studies suggest that when scientific evidence is presented in a trial, jurors regard that evidence as more credible than they would if they had encountered the same evidence outside of the courtroom context. Legal theorists have hypothesized that this effect is primarily due to the fact that judges prescreen scientific evidence and allow only credible scientific evidence to be presented in the courtroom. Which one of the following would be most useful to know in order to evaluate the legal theorists' hypothesis? (A) whether jurors typically know that judges have appraised the scientific evidence presented at trial (B) whether jurors' reactions to scientific evidence presented at trial are influenced by other members of the jury (C) how jurors determine the credibility of an expert witness who is presenting scientific evidence in a trial (D) whether jurors typically draw upon their own scientific knowledge when weighing scientific evidence presented at trial (E) how jurors respond to situations in which different expert witnesses give conflicting assessments of scientific evidence 9. Organized word-of-mouth marketing campaigns are driven by product boosters who extol a product to friends and acquaintances. A study found that these campaigns are more successful when the product booster openly admits to being part of an organized marketing campaign. This is surprising because one of the purported advantages of word-of-mouth campaigns is that consumers take a less skeptical stance toward word-of-mouth messages than toward mass-media advertisements. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to explain the surprising finding? (A) Word-of-mouth marketing campaigns are generally used for specialty products that are not well suited to being marketed through mass-media advertisements. (B) Those who tend to be the most receptive to mass-media marketing campaigns are also the least likely to be influenced by knowledge of a product booster's affiliation. (C) Most people who work as product boosters in word-of-mouth marketing campaigns have themselves been recruited through a word-of-mouth process. (D) Most word-of-mouth marketing campaigns cost far less than marketing campaigns that rely on massmedia advertisements. (E) When a word-of-mouth product booster admits his or her affiliation, it fosters a more relaxed and indepth discussion of the marketed product. 10. Consultant: If Whalley sticks with her current platform in the upcoming election, then she will lose to her opponent by a few percentage points among voters under 50, while beating him by a bigger percentage among voters 50 and over. Therefore, sticking with her current platform will allow her to win the

election. The consultant's conclusion follows logically if which one of the following is assumed? (A) There is no change Whalley could make to her platform that would win over more voters under 50 than it would lose voters 50 and over. (B) The issues that most concern voters under 50 are different from those that most concern voters 50 and over. (C) If Whalley changes her platform, her opponent will not change his platform in response. (D) There will be more voters in the election who are 50 and over than there will be voters under 50. (E) Whalley would change her platform if she thought it would give her a better chance to win. 11. From 1880 to 2000 Britain's economy grew fivefold, but emissions of carbon dioxide, a greenhouse gas, were the same on a per capita basis in Britain in 2000 as they were in 1880. The claims made above are incompatible with which one of the following generalizations? (A) A decrease in per capita emissions of carbon dioxide never occurs during a period of economic growth. (B) Countries whose economies are growing slowly or not at all usually cannot afford to enact laws restricting carbon dioxide emissions. (C) Economic growth initially leads to increased per capita emissions of greenhouse gases, but eventually new technologies are developed that tend to reduce these emissions. (D) As the world's population grows, emissions of greenhouse gases will increase proportionately. (E) Economic growth always increases household income and consumption, which inevitably increases per capita emissions of carbon dioxide. 12. Advertisement: When you need a will, consulting a lawyer is much more expensive than using do-ityourself software. And you get a valid will either way. However, when you're ill, you aren't satisfied with simply getting some valid prescription or other; what you pay your doctor for is the doctor's expert advice concerning your particular illness. Similarly, what you pay a lawyer for is to tailor your will to your particular circumstances. Clearly, when you need a will, a lawyer's expert advice is always worth paying for. Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument presented in the advertisement? (A) A lawyer's knowledge and level of expertise is at least as complex as that of a doctor. (B) Do-it-yourself software cannot tailor a person's will to meet that person's particular circumstances as well as a lawyer can.

(C) Many people who prepare their wills using do-it-yourself software are not satisfied with the results. (D) In the majority of cases, valid wills do not adequately meet the needs of the persons for whom the wills were prepared. (E) There is some way for an ill person to get a valid prescription without first consulting a doctor. 13. Pollution is a problem wherever there are people who are indifferent to their environment, and nature's balance is harmed wherever there is pollution. So wherever there are people who are indifferent to their environment, nature's balance is harmed. The reasoning in which one of the following arguments is most similar to that in the argument above? (A) Any dessert with chocolate is high in calories, and any dessert high in calories is fattening. So any dessert with chocolate is fattening. (B) Every dessert with chocolate is high in calories, and every fattening dessert is also high in calories. So any dessert with chocolate is fattening. (C) Any dessert that is high in calories has chocolate in it, and any dessert that is high in calories is fattening. So every dessert with chocolate is fattening. (D) Every dessert with chocolate is high in calories, and every dessert that is high in calories is fattening. So every fattening dessert has chocolate in it. (E) Any dessert with chocolate is high in calories, and many desserts that are high in calories are fattening. So many desserts with chocolate are fattening. 14. Seventeenth-century proponents of the philosophical school of thought known as mechanism produced numerous arguments that sought to use the principles of mechanism to establish the superiority of monarchies over all other systems of government. This proliferation of arguments has been construed as evidence that the principles of mechanism themselves are in tension with democracy. But it is more likely that the principles of mechanism support democracy and that the arguments multiplied because none of them worked. The claim that the proliferation of arguments has been construed as evidence that the principles of mechanism themselves are in tension with democracy plays which one of the following roles in the argument? (A) It states a principle that the argument seeks to establish. (B) It describes a general phenomenon that the argument seeks to explain. (C) It introduces a hypothesis that the argument challenges. (D) It provides evidence in support of the conclusion of the argument. (E) It expresses the conclusion of the argument.

15. A good manager must understand people and be able to defuse tense situations. But anyone who is able to defuse tense situations must understand people. Since Ishiko is able to defuse tense situations, she must be a good manager. The reasoning in the argument is flawed in that it (A) confuses a quality that shows an understanding of people with a quality that is necessary for understanding people (B) confuses a quality that usually correlates with being a good manager with a quality that results from being a good manager (C) confuses qualities necessary for being a good manager with qualities that guarantee being a good manager (D) overlooks the possibility that different managers defuse tense situations in different ways (E) takes for granted that because all good managers have a certain quality, Ishiko must have that quality 16. Babblers, a bird species, live in large cooperative groups. Each member attempts to defend the group by sounding a loud barklike call when it spots a predator, inciting the others to bark too. Babblers, however, are extremely well camouflaged and could usually feed safely, unnoticed by predators. These predators, indeed, generally become aware of the presence of babblers only because of their shrill barks, which continue long after most members of the group have been able to take cover and which signal the group's approximate location to the predators. Which one of the following, if true, would most help to explain the babblers' strange behavior? (A) Babblers fly much faster than the predators that prey upon them. (B) Babblers' predators are generally intimidated by large numbers of babblers. (C) There is more than one type of predator that preys upon babblers. (D) Babblers' predators have very good eyesight but relatively weak hearing. (E) Animals that live in close proximity to babblers are also preyed upon by the predators that prey upon babblers. 17. Photographs show an area of Europa, a moon of Jupiter, where the icy surface appears to have buckled as a result of turbulent water moving underneath. This photographic evidence indicates that there is a warm sea beneath Europa's icy surface. The presence of such a sea is thought by scientists to be a primary factor in the early development of life, so there is reason to believe that there may be life on Europa. The claim that there is a warm sea beneath Europa's icy surface figures in the argument in which one of the following ways? (A) It is a subsidiary conclusion used by the argument to support its overall conclusion.

(B) It is the overall conclusion of the argument. (C) It is used to discredit a theory that the argument disputes. (D) It is the only consideration presented in support of the argument's overall conclusion. (E) It is presented as support for a subsidiary conclusion drawn in the argument. 18. For consumers, the most enjoyable emotional experience garnered from shopping is feeling lucky. Retailers use this fact to their advantage, but too often they resort to using advertised price cuts to promote their wares. Promotions of this sort might make bargain-minded consumers feel lucky, but they cut into profit margins and undermine customer loyalty. Which one of the following most accurately describes the overall conclusion drawn in the argument? (A) Feeling lucky is the most enjoyable emotional experience garnered from shopping. (B) Retailers take advantage of the fact that shoppers enjoy feeling lucky. (C) Advertised price cuts are overused as a means of gaining retail sales. (D) Using advertised price cuts to promote retail products reduces profit margins and undermines customer loyalty. (E) Making consumers feel lucky is usually not a good formula for retail success. 19. Jurist: To ensure that a legal system remains just, it is important to guarantee that lawbreaking does not give lawbreakers an unfair advantage over law abiders. Thus, notwithstanding any other goals that criminal punishment may serve, it should certainly attempt to ensure that criminal wrongdoing remains profitless. The jurist's claim that it is important to guarantee that lawbreaking does not give lawbreakers an unfair advantage over law abiders functions in the argument in which one of the following ways? (A) It states a condition that, if fulfilled, will ensure that a legal system remains just. (B) It expresses a principle that is offered as support for the conclusion. (C) It is a conclusion for which the only support offered is the claim that the legal system serves multiple goals. (D) It is a premise presented as support for the claim that the most important goal of criminal punishment is to ensure that criminal wrongdoing remains profitless. (E) It is presented as refuting an argument that criminal punishment has goals other than guaranteeing that lawbreaking remains profitless. 20. The company president says that significant procedural changes were made before either she or Yeung was told about them. But, according to Grimes, the contract requires that either the company president or

any lawyer in the company's legal department be told about proposed procedural changes before they are made. Thus, unless what Grimes or the company president said is incorrect, the contract was violated. The argument's conclusion can be properly inferred if which one of the following is assumed? (A) Yeung is a lawyer in the company's legal department. (B) Neither Grimes nor Yeung was told about the procedural changes until after they were made. (C) No lawyer in the company's legal department was told about the procedural changes until after they were made. (D) If the company's president was told about the procedural changes before they were made, then the contract was not violated. (E) If no lawyer in the company's legal department was told about the procedural changes before they were made, then the contract was violated. 21. Journalist: People whose diets contain a relatively large amount of iron are significantly more likely to develop Parkinson's disease than are those whose diets contain less of this mineral. Limiting one's intake of meats, seafood, and other foods rich in iron should thus reduce one's chances of contracting this disease. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the journalist's reasoning? (A) Most people who have a genetic predisposition to Parkinson's disease have no more iron in their diets than people without the predisposition. (B) Many of the vegetables regularly consumed by vegetarians who do not contract Parkinson's disease are as rich in iron as meat and seafood. (C) Children and adolescents require a much larger amount of iron in their diets than do mature adults. (D) The iron in some foods is much less easily absorbed by the body than the iron contained in other foods. (E) The amounts of iron-rich foods consumed by people starts to decline beginning at age 50. 22. Riverdale's Modern Party Chairperson: Maples, the Modern Party candidate, would be a better mayor than his opponent, Tannett, who is a member of the Traditionalist Party. Every member of the Modern Party is better qualified to be mayor than is any member of the Traditionalist Party. If the statements of Riverdale's Modern Party Chairperson are true, each of the following could be true EXCEPT: (A) Maples has the least seniority of any member of Riverdale's Modern Party and was recently ousted from the Traditionalist Party. (B) Tannett would be a better mayor than would any other member of Riverdale's Traditionalist Party.

(C) Few residents of Riverdale believe that Maples would be a better mayor than Tannett. (D) Of all the members of Riverdale's Modern Party, Maples would be the worst mayor. (E) Tannett is better qualified to be mayor than is Riverdale's Modern Party Chairperson. 23. Businessperson: Because the parking area directly in front of the building was closed for maintenance today, I was late to my meeting. If the maintenance had been done on a different day, I would have gotten to the meeting on time. After finding out that I could not park in that area it took me 15 minutes to find an available parking space, making me a few minutes late. The answer to which one of the following questions would be most useful to know in order to evaluate the reasoning in the businessperson's argument? (A) What were the reasons for performing maintenance on the parking area directly in front of the building on that particular day? (B) Were any other of the meeting attendees also late to the meeting because they had difficulty finding parking? (C) What are the parking patterns in the building's vicinity on days when the parking area in front of the building is open? (D) Does the businessperson have a tendency to be late to meetings? (E) Was it particularly important that the businessperson not be late to this meeting? 24. For a work to be rightly thought of as world literature, it must be received and interpreted within the writer's own national tradition and within external national traditions. A work counts as being interpreted within a national tradition if authors from that tradition use the work in at least one of three ways: as a positive model for the development of their own tradition, as a negative case of a decadent tendency that must be consciously avoided, or as an image of radical otherness that prompts refinement of the home tradition. The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following? (A) A work of literature cannot be well received within an external national tradition if it is not well received within the writer's own national tradition. (B) A work of world literature offers more to readers within external national traditions than it offers to readers within the writer's national tradition. (C) A work should not be thought of as world literature if it is more meaningful to readers from the writer's national tradition than it is to readers from external national traditions. (D) A work of world literature is always influenced by works outside of the writer's national tradition. (E) A work is not part of world literature if it affects the development of only one national tradition.

25. At Morris University this semester, most of the sociology majors are taking Introduction to Social Psychology, but most of the psychology majors are not. Hence, there must be more sociology majors than psychology majors enrolled in the class. The flawed pattern of reasoning in the argument above is most similar to that in which one of the following? (A) Most of the paintings on display at the Metro Art Museum are from the twentieth century, but most of the paintings the Metro Art Museum owns are from the nineteenth century. It follows that the museum owns few if any of the twentieth-century paintings it displays. (B) In an opinion poll of Silver Falls residents, more said they were in favor of increased spending on roads than said they were in favor of increased spending on parks. So most Silver Falls residents must be in favor of spending more on roads but opposed to spending more on parks. (C) In the San Felipe city arboretum, most of the trees are of local rather than exotic species. Therefore, in the San Felipe area, there must be more trees of local species than of exotic species. (D) Most of the vegetables available at the Valley Food Co-op are organic, but most of the vegetables available at the Jumbo Supermarket are not. Thus, more organic vegetables are available at Valley Food than are available at Jumbo. (E) The Acme Realty website has photos of most of the houses, but of fewer than half of the condominiums, that Acme is offering for sale. So Acme must have more houses than condominiums for sale. 26. Film director: Although the production costs of my latest film are very high, there is little risk that the film studio will not recover these costs. Even if the film is unpopular, much of the money is being spent to develop innovative special-effects technology that could be used in future films. Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument? (A) Because the film studio owns the new technology, the studio will be able to control its use in any future films. (B) Films that introduce innovative special-effects technologies generally draw large audiences of people who are curious about the new effects. (C) The production costs of this film are so high that, even if the film is popular, it is unlikely that the film's ticket sales will offset those costs. (D) In the past, many innovative special-effects technologies were abandoned after the films for which they were developed proved to be unpopular. (E) The use of the new special-effects technology would lower the production costs of other films that use it. STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not work on any other section of the test.

Section 4 Time—35 minutes 27 Questions Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage or a pair of passages. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage or pair of passages. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. Passage A Jury nullification occurs when the jury acquits the defendant in a criminal case in disregard of the judge's instructions and contrary to the jury's findings of fact. Sometimes a jury's nullification decision is based on mercy for the defendant, sometimes on dislike for the victim. Juries have also sometimes nullified when the defendant engaged in civil disobedience and the jurors agreed with the actions. While instances of jury nullification are probably few, the problems created by the jury's power to nullify are great. First, we do not know how the power is used. Because juries are not required to and typically do not explain their verdicts, it is impossible to say how often nullification occurs. This means that we also do not know how often juries use this power for evil ends rather than for good ones. Second, juries often have insufficient evidence to make a reasoned nullification decision. Evidence that might inform such a decision, such as a defendant's past brushes with the law, usually is not admitted at trial because it is irrelevant to the technical question of guilt or innocence. Third, jurors are not legislators. We have an elected legislature to pass laws and elected or appointed judges to interpret them. The jury is unelected, is unaccountable, and has no obligation to think through the effect an acquittal will have on others. Reasonable people can disagree on the proper reach of the criminal laws. Nevertheless, the place for them to disagree is in public, where the reasons for revisions of the laws can be scrutinized and debated. Passage B Police and prosecutors have discretion to decide which violations of the law to pursue and which to overlook. Even with such discretion, however, these officials can sometimes be overzealous. In such cases, the jury can act as a safety valve and use its own discretion to decide, for example, that a case is too trivial or the circumstances too extenuating for the case to result in a conviction. When a jury nullifies because it does not believe a law should be applied to a particular defendant, the jury can also be viewed as assisting the legislature. Legislatures create general laws both because they cannot foresee every variation that may arise, and because legislators often have competing views about what should be included in legislation and so must settle for broad language if any laws are to be passed.

Similarly, when a jury nullifies because it believes a law is unjust, it also performs a useful function visà-vis the legislature, namely indicating to the legislature that there may be a problem with the law in question. It may happen that a jury will be persuaded to nullify by factors they should ignore, but such instances of nullification are likely to be uncommon. For a jury to agree to nullify means that the case for nullification must be so compelling that all twelve of the jurors, despite their different backgrounds and perspectives, nevertheless agree that nullification is the appropriate course of action. 1. The author of passage B suggests that some laws justify the use of jury nullification because they are too (A) complicated (B) antiquated (C) permissive (D) intrusive (E) general 2. The authors of the passages differ in their attitudes towards juries in that the author of passage B is (A) less trusting with regard to the motivations behind juries' nullification decisions (B) less skeptical of the capacity of juries to understand the laws they are expected to apply (C) more concerned about the fact that juries rarely provide the reasoning behind their verdicts (D) more confident in the ability of juries to exercise the power to nullify in a just manner (E) more disappointed in the failure of juries to use the power to nullify to effect social change 3. Based on what can be inferred from their titles, the relationship between the documents in which one of the following pairs is most analogous to the relationship between passage A and passage B? (A) “Cameras in the Courtroom: A Perversion of Justice?” “The Pros and Cons of Televising Courtroom Proceedings” (B) “Cameras in the Courtroom: Three Central Issues in the Debate” “The Unexpected Benefits of Permitting Cameras in Court” (C) “The Inherent Dangers of Permitting Cameras in Court” “How Televising Courtroom Proceedings Can Assist the Law” (D) “The Troublesome History of Cameras in the Courtroom” “The Laudable Motives Behind Televised Courtroom Proceedings”

(E) “Why Cameras Should Be Banned from the Courtroom” “The Inevitability of Televised Courtroom Proceedings” 4. The authors of the passages would be most likely to disagree over whether (A) juries should be more forthcoming about the reasoning behind their verdicts (B) laws are subject to scrutiny and debate by reasonable people (C) it is likely that elected officials are more biased in their decision making than jurors are (D) it is within the purview of juries not only to apply the law but to interpret it (E) police and prosecutors should have less discretion to decide which violations of the law to pursue 5. Which one of the following is a criticism that the author of passage A would be likely to offer regarding the suggestion in passage B that juries are justified in nullifying when they view a case as too trivial to result in a conviction? (A) Prosecutors rarely bring cases to trial that they regard as trivial. (B) Prosecutors are unlikely to present a case in a manner that makes it appear trivial to a jury. (C) The members of a jury are unlikely to be in accord in their evaluation of a case's seriousness. (D) Jurors may not have sufficient expertise to evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of a case. (E) Jurors may not be aware of all the reasons why a case was brought against a defendant. 6. Which one of the following most accurately characterizes the relationship between the two passages? (A) Passage A offers a critique of a power possessed by juries, while passage B argues in support of that power. (B) Passage A denounces a judicial custom, while passage B proposes improvements to that custom. (C) Passage A surveys a range of evidence about jury behavior, while passage B suggests a hypothesis to explain that behavior. (D) Passage A argues that a problem facing legal systems is intractable, while passage B presents a solution to that problem. (E) Passage A raises a question concerning a legal procedure, while passage B attempts to answer that question. Most sociohistorical interpretations of art view a body of work as the production of a class, generally a dominant or governing class, imposing its ideals. For example, Richard Taruskin writes in his Oxford History of Western Music that one of the defining characteristics of “high art” is that “it is produced by and for political and social elites.” What Taruskin and others fail to clarify, however, is that there are two

different ways that art, historically, was “produced by and for political and social elites.” The first way was for a member of the elite to engage a well-known artist to produce something for display. For instance, if one commissions a famous architect to design one's house, that may reflect great credit on one's taste, even if one finds the house impossible to live in. The second way was to create, or to have created, a work that expressed and mirrored one's ideals and way of life, like Raphael's frescoes in the Vatican apartments commissioned by Pope Julius II. Sociohistorical critics like Taruskin prefer to deal with art produced the second way, because it enables them to construct a subtle analysis of the way such art embodied the ideology of the elite, whatever the identity of the artist. For this kind of analysis to work, however, it must be the case that the elite had a recognizable identity and displayed some kind of consensus about the world and the way life was to be lived, and it must also be the case that we can eliminate the possibility that artists subverted the ideals of the patron for their own reasons. Historically, the two social classes able to commission art were the aristocratic, or governing class, and the well-to-do middle class, what used to be called the bourgeoisie. The taste of the aristocracy and the upper middle class has not always been apt to produce an art that endures. In his characterization of nineteenth-century English culture, cultural critic Matthew Arnold identified the aristocracy as Barbarians, interested largely in fox hunting and gaming, and the middle class as Philistines, obsessed with respectability. As a result, the more talented artists sometimes had to find a place in the margins of the establishment—engaged by a rich patron with eccentric tastes, for example. Moreover, a great deal of art that went against the grain of elite values was paid for by the establishment unwillingly and with misgivings. Because some of this art endured, the sociohistorical critic, like Taruskin, must engage in an analogue of Freudian analysis, and claim that in hidden ways such art embodied the ideals of the elite, who were unaware that those ideals are revealed by work of which they overtly disapproved. 7. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage? (A) Historically, art was primarily commissioned by the governing classes and the well-to-do middle classes, despite the fact that this arrangement was not apt to produce art that endures. (B) Sociohistorical interpretations of art that claim that art merely reflects the ideals and values of the elite classes are overly simplistic. (C) Historically, patrons of the arts have generally been more interested in what being a patron would do for their reputation than in influencing the development of the arts. (D) Sociohistorical critics must engage in a form of Freudian analysis to justify, in light of apparently conflicting evidence, the claim that works of art embody the ideals of the elite. (E) There have historically been two distinct ways in which members of the elite classes have had art produced for them. 8. In using the phrase “something for display” (first sentence of the second paragraph), the author most probably means art that

(A) allowed the patron to make a political statement to the world (B) could be used to attract customers to the patron's business (C) was meant to create an impression that reflected positively on the patron (D) was representative of the artist's broader body of work at the time (E) provided the patron with personal satisfaction 9. It can be inferred from the passage that the attitude of Matthew Arnold toward the aristocratic and middle classes can best be described as one of (A) respect (B) empathy (C) indifference (D) disappointment (E) scorn 10. The passage raises all of the following as complications for the sociohistorical interpretation of art EXCEPT: (A) artists who subverted the ideals of patrons for reasons of their own (B) patrons who had eccentric tastes not reflective of the ideals of the elite classes (C) patrons whose taste was unlikely to produce art that endured (D) patrons who bought artwork solely for the purpose of reselling that artwork for a profit (E) patrons who unwillingly bought artwork that conflicted with their values 11. The passage suggests that Taruskin's position commits him to which one of the following views? (A) The most talented artists throughout history have been those whose work embodied the ideology of the elite in hidden ways. (B) The most successful artists working today are those whose work reflects the ideology of the elite. (C) If it endures, high art that appears to undermine the ideology of the elite actually supports that ideology in some way. (D) Typically, art that reflects the ideology of the elite is produced by artists who are themselves members of the aristocratic or middle classes. (E) The most talented artists throughout history have been those whose work subverted the ideology of the

elite in subtle ways. 12. The primary function of the third paragraph is to (A) reject a possible response to the argument made in the first paragraph (B) identify assumptions relied upon by a type of analysis referred to in the first paragraph (C) present an argument that weakens the argument made in the second paragraph (D) offer additional evidence for the conclusion reached in the second paragraph (E) draw a definitive conclusion from the claims made in the second paragraph 13. The author mentions “Raphael's frescoes in the Vatican apartments” (last sentence of the second paragraph) for which one of the following reasons? (A) to provide an example that illustrates the understanding of elitism in art favored by sociohistorical critics (B) to illustrate the influence of religion on the historical development of art (C) to present an example of the most common type of relationship between a patron and an artist (D) to show how an artist can subvert the ideals of the patron (E) to show that there are cases of artist/patron relationships that do not fit the pattern preferred by sociohistorical critics 14. The passage suggests that Matthew Arnold would be most likely to identify which one of the following as the primary reason why, historically, people in the middle class became patrons of the arts? (A) a belief in the importance of the arts to society as a whole (B) a dislike for the kind of art typically sponsored by the aristocracy (C) a belief that patronage would ultimately prove profitable (D) a realization that patronage ensures the production of high-quality art (E) a desire to establish a reputation as a patron of the arts Hundreds of clay tablets marked in cuneiform have been found in excavations of the Sumerian city of Uruk (in present-day Iraq). Though the tablets date from roughly 3000 B.C., the writing on them uses relatively few pictographs; instead, numerous abstract symbols are used. The sign for “sheep,” for example, is not an image of a sheep, but rather a circled cross, while the sign for “metal” is a crescent with five lines. Because of its early date, this seemingly sudden appearance of such abstract writing has long puzzled researchers. At the same time, among prepottery clay artifacts found at archaeological sites along the Jordan and nearby rivers are thousands of small, hand-modeled tokens of fired clay, some dating to before

4000 B.C. Often ignored by archaeologists—some concluded without evidence that they were amulets or game pieces—the tokens are identified by Denise Schmandt-Besserat in her book Before Writing (1992) as overlooked predecessors to the written word. The earliest of the tokens were simple in form—small cones, spheres, and pyramids—and they were often inscribed. In 1966, a hollow tablet containing several of these tokens was discovered, and more than 100 additional tablets, which are now recognized as sealed envelopes of clay, have since been found. Later envelopes are also inscribed with impressions of tokens in the outer clay, signaling exactly what each envelope contained. Noting that these inscriptions are clearly traceable to later, known inscriptions of farm products, Schmandt-Besserat theorizes that the envelopes contained official records of villagers' contributions to temple-based grain and livestock pools. After 4000 B.C., hundreds of new token forms developed, as a rise in industry boosted the token system. Many forms are figurative, such as bowls or jars with handles, suggesting that villagers' crafts were becoming more diversified and sophisticated. The token system, essentially a system of three-dimensional nouns, was replaced in about 3100 B.C. by a system of marks on clay tablets. A few centuries later, this latter system was to display the first use of numerals, where simple marks coded the concepts of one, two, and so forth. The eventual evolution of this system into mature writing, Schmandt-Besserat suggests, can be seen in the following example: At first it took two ovoid tokens to record two jars of oil. A little later, it took two markings on a clay tablet to achieve this—one mark, using the outline of the old token, to record the customary unit measure for oil, the jarful, and a second mark to convey the numeral: two oil jars. Eventually, it took three signs on the tablet, one for the numeral 2, one for the standard jarful, and a new symbol that denoted oil itself. With three such signs, an abstract and flexible written form had arrived. 15. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage? (A) Based on her analysis of inscription-bearing clay envelopes containing tokens dating to roughly 4000 B.C., Schmandt-Besserat concludes that this system of tokens eventually evolved into an abstract written language. (B) The discovery of clay tablets bearing inscriptions representing the tokens they contain confirms the belief of Schmandt-Besserat that these tokens served to designate the products given by villagers to their temples. (C) Inscription-bearing clay envelopes containing tokens discovered in modern Iraq have provided Schmandt-Besserat with the evidence required to resolve the puzzlement of archaeologists over the sudden appearance of sophisticated crafts. (D) The inscriptions found on clay envelopes containing small clay tokens have enabled SchmandtBesserat to formulate a more detailed picture of the way in which a simple system of three-dimensional nouns evolved into modern languages. (E) The discovery of inscription-bearing clay envelopes containing small tokens confirms SchmandtBesserat's hypothesis that a language becomes increasingly abstract as the arts and crafts of the people who use the language become more abstract. 16. With which one of the following statements about the society in which the clay tokens were used would Schmandt-Besserat be most likely to agree?

(A) Society members' trade and other economic activities were managed by a strong centralized governmental authority. (B) Religious rituals were probably less important to the society's members than agriculture and trade were. (C) Society members regarded whatever was produced by any individual as the common property of all. (D) The society eventually came to regard the clay tokens as redundant. (E) Without a readily available supply of raw clay, the society could not have developed a system of representation that used tokens. 17. The passage states that the writing on clay tablets found in Uruk (A) was not deciphered by archaeologists until 1992 (B) used relatively few pictographic symbols (C) eventually evolved into a more abstract and flexible linguistic system (D) transcribed a language that was commonly spoken along the Jordan and nearby rivers (E) transcribed a language that was much older than archaeologists would have expected 18. According to the passage, the token system (A) was eventually abandoned because it was not capable of representing quantity and other abstractions (B) came to designate a broad range of objects as the crafts of the people who used it became more diverse and sophisticated (C) could be understood only because some tokens were inscribed with symbols known to represent agricultural products (D) was originally thought by most archaeologists to have had a primarily religious function (E) became physically unwieldy and cumbersome as its users' agricultural products became more diverse 19. By characterizing certain cuneiform inscriptions on the clay tablets found in Uruk as "abstract" (fourth sentence of the first paragraph) the author most likely means that (A) the meaning of the inscriptions is obscure and hard for linguists to decipher (B) the inscriptions are meant to represent intangible concepts (C) the inscriptions do not resemble what they designate (D) the inscriptions refer to general categories rather than specific things

(E) the terms represented by the inscriptions were more ceremonial in nature than most daily speech was 20. It can be inferred from the discussion of clay tokens in the second paragraph that (A) there were many tokens that designated more than one type of item (B) nonagricultural goods and products came to be preferred as contributions to temple-based pools (C) some later tokens were less abstract than some earlier ones (D) the storage and transportation of liquids were among the most important tasks performed by the token system's users (E) the token system was as abstract and flexible as later written languages 21. With which one of the following statements regarding the sign for "sheep" (third sentence of the first paragraph) would the author of the passage be most likely to agree? (A) It could have been replaced without loss of significance by any other sign that was not already being used for something else. (B) The sign gets its meaning in a radically different way from the way in which the cuneiform sign for "metal" gets its meaning. (C) The way in which it represents its meaning resulted from the fact that sheep are an agricultural commodity rather than a product of human industry. (D) The way in which it represents its meaning was not the subject of scientific scrutiny prior to that given it by Schmandt-Besserat. (E) The abstract nature of the sign reveals a great deal about the political life of the people who used the language expressed by cuneiform writing. 22. Which one of the following, if true, would most call into question Schmandt-Besserat's theory mentioned in the fourth sentence of the second paragraph? (A) The more than 100 clay envelopes discovered at archaeological sites along the Jordan come in many different dimensions, thicknesses, and styles of composition. (B) It was customary for villagers who performed services for another person to receive in return a record of a promise of agricultural products or crafted objects as compensation. (C) The tablets marked in cuneiform dating after 3000 B.C. do not seem to function as records of villagers' contributions to a temple-based pool of goods. (D) There is no archaeological evidence suggesting that the tokens in use from about 4000 B.C. to 3100 B.C. were necessarily meant to be placed in clay envelopes. (E) Villagers were required not only to contribute goods to central pools but also to contribute labor,

which was regularly accounted for. By 1970 it was well established that ultraviolet light from the sun contributes to skin cancer. Fortunately, much of the sun's most damaging ultraviolet radiation is screened out by a thin, diffuse layer of ozone—a toxic form of oxygen—in the stratosphere, 10 to 25 miles above the earth's surface. During the 1970s, however, public policy makers worldwide were alerted to the fragility of the ozone layer through the pioneering research and advocacy of two Nobel Prize-winning scientists, Mario Molina and F. Sherwood Rowland. In the absence of pollutants, stratospheric ozone concentrations should remain stable over time, with natural production and destruction of the gas in rough equilibrium. Molina and Rowland showed how manufactured chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)—highly volatile chemicals, millions of tons of which had been used each year in products such as aerosol sprays and refrigerants—chemically attack and deplete the ozone layer, diminishing its effectiveness as a shield against ultraviolet radiation. Studying two freon gases—types of CFCs—they observed that, when released into the lower atmosphere (troposphere), these gases slowly diffuse upward into the stratosphere. There, subjected to massive ultraviolet radiation, they break down into their constituent elements, including chlorine. The resulting increase in the concentration of chlorine in the stratosphere is devastating to the ozone layer. Chlorine and ozone chemically react in a way that both destroys the ozone and regenerates the chlorine atoms. As a result of this chemical reaction, each chlorine atom could destroy as many as 100,000 ozone molecules before becoming inactive. In 1974 the two scientists estimated that the atmosphere contained the accumulation of five years of global CFC production. This meant that, given the rate of diffusion and breakdown of CFCs in the atmosphere, the depletion of the ozone layer would continue for years, if not decades, even if the production and use of CFCs were to cease immediately. Recognizing this as a pressing environmental threat, Molina and Rowland became public advocates for a prompt and proportionate public policy response. As a result, Molina was invited to testify before the U.S. Congress and was later appointed to the U.S. National Science Foundation Committee on Fluorocarbon Technology Assessment. Predictably, the work of Molina and Rowland and their advocacy of dramatic policy changes were subjected to attacks by critics, especially scientists with ties to the CFC industry. However, over time their views were corroborated, especially by the discovery of a hole in the ozone layer over Antarctica, and this led to the development of an international agreement (the Montreal Protocol of 1987) to ban the production of ozone-depleting gases. In North America, CFCs were banned in the late 1970s, leading to a transformation in packaging for consumer spray products and the development of more environmentally friendly refrigerant chemicals. 23. The information in the passage most helps to answer which one of the following questions? (A) What laboratory experiments were conducted by Molina or Rowland in their research on CFCs? (B) What was the estimated concentration of CFCs in the atmosphere in 1987? (C) In what year did Molina testify before the U.S. Congress? (D) Does any chemical that does not contain chlorine contribute to the destruction of ozone molecules? (E) Which constituent element of CFCs is most damaging to ozone?

24. Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusions of Molina and Rowland concerning the long-term effects of CFCs in the stratosphere? (A) The hole in the ozone layer over Antarctica continued to grow for years after CFC emissions had almost ceased. (B) Other manufactured chemicals have been found to diffuse upward into the stratosphere when released into the troposphere. (C) Ozone has been shown to react more violently with chlorine than with many other chemicals. (D) Many scientists who in the 1970s were highly critical of the research methods of Molina and Rowland have come to accept the soundness of their methods. (E) Current CFC levels in the troposphere suggest that not all nations currently abide by the Montreal Protocol. 25. Which one of the following statements is most strongly supported by the information in the passage? (A) Little or no ozone destruction occurs naturally in the stratosphere unless chlorine is present. (B) Skin cancers occur primarily because of excessive absorption of ultraviolet light. (C) Few chemicals besides CFCs can result in the release of chlorine in the upper atmosphere. (D) Regulating the use of CFCs contributes indirectly to lowering the incidence of skin cancer. (E) The upward flow of CFCs into the stratosphere occurs mainly in Antarctica. 26. Based on the passage, the information yielded by which one of the following experiments would be most useful in determining whether a particular chemical could replace CFCs without damaging the ozone layer? (A) testing to see whether the chemical is capable of reacting with forms of oxygen other than ozone (B) testing to see whether the chemical, when released into the lower atmosphere, would react with other chemicals commonly found there (C) testing the chemical to determine whether it would chemically react with chlorine (D) testing to see what chemical properties the chemical or its constituent elements share with chlorine (E) testing the chemical to see if it would break down into its components when subjected to ultraviolet radiation 27. Which one of the following statements is most strongly supported by the information in the passage? (A) No refrigerant chemicals other than CFCs had been discovered when Molina and Rowland suggested that CFC production cease.

(B) Refrigerant chemicals developed as substitutes for CFCs after 1987 release fewer chlorine atoms into the stratosphere than CFCs do. (C) CFCs were originally used in refrigeration components because they provided the most energyefficient means of refrigeration. (D) The Montreal Protocol led to the cessation of CFC production in North America. (E) Some of the refrigerant chemicals being manufactured today contain chemicals known to be environmentally damaging. STOP If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not work on any other section of the test.

Acknowledgment is made to the following sources from which material has been adapted for use in this test booklet: T. L. Cairns and J. P. Jeeson, “Letters” in Science. ©1975 by the American Association for the Advancement of Science. M. A. A. Clyne, “Destruction of Atmospheric Ozone?” in Nature. ©1974 by Macmillan Journals Ltd. David Damrosch, “World Literature, National Contexts.” ©2003 by University of Chicago Press. Tom Gosiorowski, “Letter to the Editor” in Fortune Magazine. ©2008 by TIME Inc. Andrew D. Leipold, “Jury Nullification: A Perversion of Justice?” in USA Today. ©1997 by Society for Advancement of Education. Benedict A. Leerburger, “Mario Molina” in Dictionary of Hispanic Biography. ©1996 by Gale Research Inc. Nancy S. Marder, “The Myth of the Nullifying Jury” in Northwestern University Law Review. ©1999 by Northwestern University School of Law. Mario J. Molina and F. S. Rowland, “Stratospheric Sink for Chlorofluoromethanes: Chlorine AtomCatalysed Destruction of Ozone” in Nature. ©1974 by Nature Publishing Group. Philip Morrison, “Three Dimensional Words.” ©1992 by Scientific American, Inc. “On the Trail: Faint Praise of the Week” in The Economist. ©2000 by The Economist Newspaper, Ltd. Charles Rosen, “From the Troubadours to Frank Sinatra.” ©2006 by NYREV, Inc. F. S. Rowland and Mario J. Molina, “Letters” in Science. ©1975 by the American Association for the Advancement of Science.

Wait for the supervisor's instructions before you open the page to the topic. Please print and sign your name and write the date in the designated spaces below. Time: 35 Minutes General Directions You will have 35 minutes in which to plan and write an essay on the topic inside. Read the topic and the accompanying directions carefully. You will probably find it best to spend a few minutes considering the topic and organizing your thoughts before you begin writing. In your essay, be sure to develop your ideas fully, leaving time, if possible, to review what you have written. Do not write on a topic other than the one specified. Writing on a topic of your own choice is not acceptable. No special knowledge is required or expected for this writing exercise. Law schools are interested in the reasoning, clarity, organization, language usage, and writing mechanics displayed in your essay. How well you write is more important than how much you write. Confine your essay to the blocked, lined area on the front and back of the separate Writing Sample Response Sheet. Only that area will be reproduced for law schools. Be sure that your writing is legible. Both this topic sheet and your response sheet must be turned in to the testing staff before you leave the room.

LSAT Writing Sample Topic ©2016 by Law School Admission Council, Inc. All rights reserved. Directions: The scenario presented below describes two choices, either one of which can be supported on the basis of the information given. Your essay should consider both choices and argue for one over the other, based on the two specified criteria and the facts provided. There is no "right" or "wrong" choice: a reasonable argument can be made for either.

Topic An archaeological team has found the site of an ancient marketplace buried by centuries of accumulated soil. The team is deciding whether to excavate the site or scan its structures and artifacts from the surface with electronic instruments. Using the facts below, write an essay in which you argue for one option over the other based on the following two criteria: The structures and artifacts located on the site should be preserved from damage and theft. Information obtained from the site should be used to inform the country's people about their land's ancient history. If the site is excavated, transportable artifacts and structures would be shipped to various museums in the country. The museums grant researchers access to their collections. Roughly a third of the country's population visits the museums at least once during their lifetimes. The excavation tools and techniques used would pose some risk to delicate structures and artifacts. The country has the resources to keep the site guarded and secure during the excavation. If the site is electronically scanned, its artifacts and structures would remain in their original context, untouched. The scans would yield digital graphical reconstructions of the structures and artifacts. The scans would not yield conclusive information concerning the materials with which the structures and artifacts were made. The scanned information would be posted on the Internet for public access. Eighty percent of the country's people have Internet access. The country's national museum has expressed interest in using the scans to reconstruct the structures and layout of the site for exhibit. It is not possible to fully guarantee the security of the site after the scanning is complete. The country has seen few instances of looting of its other historically important sites.

Writing Sample Response Sheet



Computing Your Score Directions: 1. Use the Answer Key to check your answers. 2. Take the number of questions you answered correctly in each section and add those numbers together to compute your raw score. 3. Use the Score Conversion Table to convert your raw score into the 120–180 scale.

Score Conversion Table LSAT Form 7LSN122 (June 2016) Reported Score 180 179 178 177 176 175 174 173 172 171 170 169 168 167 166 165 164 163 162 161 160 159 158 157 156 155 154 153 152 151 150 149 148 147 146

Raw Score Lowest Highest 100 101 99 99 98 98 97 97 * * 96 96 95 95 94 94 93 93 92 92 90 91 89 89 87 88 86 86 84 85 83 83 81 82 79 80 77 78 75 76 73 74 71 72 69 70 67 68 65 66 64 64 62 63 60 61 58 59 56 57 54 55 53 53 51 52 49 50 48 48

145 144 143 142 141 140 139 138 137 136 135 134 133 132 131 130 129 128 127 126 125 124 123 122 121 120

46 44 43 41 40 39 37 36 35 33 32 31 30 29 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 0

47 45 43 42 40 39 38 36 35 34 32 31 30 29 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17

*There is no raw score that will produce this scaled score for this form.

Answer Key

Section I 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

A E A E B B B C A C A C D D E A E E E D E A B E C

Section II 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

C D A E B C E A D E A C B D A E B D C C E B A

Section III 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

A D B C E B E A E D E B A C C B A C B C A E C E D D

Section IV 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.

E D C D E A B C E D C B A E A D B B C C A B E A D D B

THE PREPTEST •Logical Reasoning .. ..... .. ... ........ .. ..................... SECTION I •Reading Comprehension .............. .... .. ....... ..... SECTION II •Analytical Reasoning ..... .. .... ... .. ..... ... .... .... .... ... SECTION Ill • Logical Reasoning ........................................... SECTION IV • Writing Sample Materials

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SECTION I Time-35 minutes 26 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

1. After a major toll highway introduced a system of electronic toll paying, delays at all of its interchanges declined significantly. Travel time per car trip decreased by an average of 10 percent. Tailpipe pollution for each trip decreased commensurately. Despite this, the total air pollution from vehicles on that highway did not decrease measurably. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent discrepancy in the information above? (A) (B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

The highway began charging higher tolls when it switched to electronic toll paying. Even after the switch to electronic toll paying, there were sometimes long delays at the highway's interchanges. The prospect of faster, more convenient travel induced more drivers to use the highway. Travel time on the highway for car trips under 30 kilometers (18.6 miles) did not decrease appreciably. Some drivers did not switch to the electronic system but instead continued to use cash to pay their tolls at toll booths.

2. A lack of trust in one's neighbors leads to their lack of respect for the law. A new study provides compelling evidence for this. Neighborhoods in which people routinely lock their doors have higher burglary rates than neighborhoods in which people do not routinely lock their doors. The reasoning in the argument is flawed in that the argument (A)

(B)

(C) (D)

(E)

treats something that is merely sufficient to produce a result as if it were necessary to produce that result draws a moral conclusion from evidence that could only support a factual conclusion bases its conclusion on data that are contradictory asserts in a premise what it is trying to establish in its conclusion treats what could be the effect of something as if it were the cause of that thing

3. In recent decades, government efforts to fight counterfeiting have been extremely successful, especially efforts to remove counterfeit bills from circulation. Yet counterfeiters are not finding it at all difficult to get away with passing counterfeit bills to merchants and even banks. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent discrepancy in the information above? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Government information campaigns that teach merchants and bank tellers how to detect counterfeit bills are more effective than ever. Governments are continually developing new currency designs with features that are difficult for criminals to counterfeit. Counterfeiters are generally unaware that the percentage of fake bills in circulation is the lowest it has ever been. Government success in removing counterfeit bills from circulation has caused merchants and bank tellers to become lax in checking for counterfeit bills. Governments are spending larger and larger sums of money in their efforts to remove counterfeit bills from circulation.

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[jJ 4. If a civilization as technologically advanced as human civilization existed on another planet and that planet were within 50 light years of Earth, that civilization would have found evidence of intelligent life on Earth and could have easily contacted us. Scientists can thus rule out the possibility of finding a civilization as technologically advanced as our own within 50 light years of Earth.

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6. Some have argued that body size influences mating decisions throughout all societies. Their argument rests largely on self-reports of university-age students and on analyses of personal advertisements in newspapers for dating partners. The reasoning in the argument described above is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument

(A)

Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Scientists who are searching for evidence of extraterrestrial life forms generally focus their search on evidence of technologically advanced life forms . There is no reason to doubt the possibility that there are technologically advanced civilizations on planets more than 50 light years from Earth. If scientists received a message from a technologically advanced civilization on another planet, they would be able to decipher it fully. A technologically advanced civilization on another planet would want to communicate with intelligent life that it detected on Earth. Intelligent life forms on other planets would be able to recognize all signs of intelligent life on Earth.

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

7.

Journalist: The new mayor is undeniably bold. His assertions are made with utter certainty and confidence. While these kinds of assertions may make him popular with the public, they also demonstrate that he is not an introspective person. Which one of the following is an assumption required by the journalist's argument?

5. Recently, many traffic lights and street markings were temporarily removed from a heavily traveled street in a major metropolitan area. Given that this street experiences significant volumes of automobile traffic, the number of accidents on the street was expected to increase. However, even though the street experienced no reduction in traffic, the number of accidents was greatly reduced.

(B)

Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent conflict described above?

(D)

(A)

(E)

(B) (C) (D)

(E)

People often disregard traffic lights and street markings. The lack of traffic lights and street markings caused drivers to drive more cautiously. Most drivers were not aware that traffic lights and street markings had been removed. Traffic lights and street markings are intended to have benefits in addition to those related to safety. Drivers were given advance notice that the traffic lights and street markings would be removed.

concludes that one kind of event causes another kind of event without ruling out the possibility that both kinds of events are the result of a third kind of event bases a conclusion on a sample that may be unrepresentative of the population about which the conclusion is drawn concludes that an effect has only one cause in the face of evidence that the effect has multiple causes uses a claim that applies only to entire societies to draw a conclusion about individual persons draws a universal conclusion on the basis of a very small number of individual cases

(A)

(C)

Introspective people do not make assertions with utter certainty and confidence. Politicians who make assertions with utter certainty and confidence are popular with the public. People who are bold make public assertions with utter certainty and confidence. People whose assertions are uncertain and lack confidence are introspective. Politicians who are not bold are unpopular with the public.

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-128. While studying a large colony of macaque monkeys, scientists interacting with baby monkeys under a week old found that the babies would imitate some, but not all, of the scientists' actions. The babies readily smacked their lips and stuck out their tongues when the scientists did, but stared impassively when the scientists opened and closed their mouths or made hand gestures. Of these four kinds of actions, only lip smacking and sticking out the tongue are used by adult macaques when interacting with babies.

10. The more sunlight our planet reflects back into space, the cooler the global atmosphere tends to become. Snow and ice reflect much more sunlight back into space than do ocean water or land without snow cover. Therefore, the greater the area of Earth's surface that is covered with snow and ice, the cooler, on average, the global atmosphere is likely to become. Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument? (A)

The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following? (A) (B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Baby macaques under a week old are natural mimics of whatever they see. Baby macaques under a week old cannot imitate hand gestures because they do not yet control the necessary muscles. Adult macaques use lip smacking and sticking out the tongue to entertain infant macaques. Baby macaques under a week old mistake the scientists interacting with them for adult macaques. Baby macaques under a week old only imitate human gestures also used by adult macaques.

9. Some scientists believe that small humanoid skeletons found on an Indonesian island are the remains of human beings with a growth disorder. It is more likely that they represent a distinct human species that became smaller over time due to environmental pressure. These skeletons do not fit the pattern of known growth disorders. And evidence suggests that certain fox and mouse species on the island have evolved into smaller versions of their common counterparts. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the conclusion drawn in the argument? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Some scientists believe that the humanoid skeletons are the remains of human beings with a growth disorder. It is more likely that the humanoid skeletons represent a distinct human species than that they are the remains of human beings with a growth disorder. The humanoid skeletons do not fit the pattern of known growth disorders. Certain fox and mouse species on an Indonesian island have evolved into smaller versions of their common counterparts. Environmental pressure can cause species living on islands to become smaller over time.

(B) (C) (D) (E)

11.

Low atmospheric temperatures are required for the formation of clouds that result in snow. Other factors besides the reflectivity of ice and snow affect the cooling of Earth's atmosphere. Ocean water and land heated by sunlight in tum warm Earth's atmosphere. The atmosphere derives most of its heat from the passage of sunlight through it. Lighter-colored soil reflects more sunlight back into space than does darker-colored soil.

Nick: The Pincus family and their construction company have supported our university financially for decades. The university should not give the contract for building its new library to the family's main competitor. Doing so would be disloyal to a friend of the university. Pedro: Accepting a donation does not oblige the university to give the donor any special privileges. Ifit did, then it wouldn't really be a charitable contribution. We should award the contract to whatever company makes the most competitive bid. The dialogue provides the most support for the claim that Nick and Pedro disagree over whether (A)

(B)

(C) (D)

(E)

loyalty should sometimes be a consideration in making business decisions the Pincus family and their construction company donated money for the purpose of acquiring special privileges from the university the acceptance of donations places a university under a special obligation to the donor the university should be more grateful to donors

with a long history of financial support than to new donors the Pincus family's construction company did not make the most competitive bid

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12. Ampicillin and other modem antibiotics kill a much wider variety of bacteria than penicillin does. They also carry higher profit margins, so drug companies now have an incentive to stop manufacturing the older, less profitable antibiotics. This could cause a penicillin shortage, forcing doctors to use the much more powerful new antibiotics in cases where they might otherwise be unnecessary. Thus, these newer antibiotics are likely to result in an outbreak of diseases caused by drug-resistant bacteria, since _ __ The conclusion of the argument is most strongly supported if which one of the following completes the passage?

14.

Activist: President Zagel should resign, because she is unable to govern effectively given the widespread belief that she rigged the election. President Zagel: Over the last decade, scandals have forced two presidents of this country to resign. If I were to resign, the rest of the world would see us as a country whose political system is hopelessly unstable. That would be unacceptable, so I must remain in office. Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify the activist's argument in the face of President Zagel's argument? (A)

(A)

(B) (C) (D)

(E)

drug-resistant bacteria flourish in the absence of competition from a wide variety of other bacteria older antibiotics like penicillin have been widely used for many decades a shortage of penicillin would drive up its price and profit margin treatment of diseases with the powerful new antibiotics is much more expensive than treatment with the older ones most bacteria that are resistant to penicillin are not resistant to ampicillin and other modem antibiotics

13. Weingarten claims that keeping animals in zoos is unethical. He points out that it involves placing animals in unnatural environments merely for the sake of human amusement. However, since Weingarten sees nothing wrong with owning pets, and keeping pets surely involves placing an animal in an unnatural environment merely for human amusement, his claim should be rejected.

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

A country whose election procedures are resistant to illegitimate manipulation will eventually become politically stable. The leader of a country should resign if doing so is likely to improve that country's international reputation for political stability. If a president is involved in a scandal that is more serious than scandals that have forced previous leaders to resign, then that president should resign. If it can be conclusively proven that an officeholder rigged an election, then that officeholder should be removed from office. It is more important for a country to have a leader who can govern effectively than it is to be viewed by other countries as having a stable political system.

15. A popular book argues that people who are successful in business have, without exception, benefited from a lot of luck on their way to success. But this is ridiculous. Anyone who has studied successful people knows that success requires a lot of hard work.

The reasoning in the argument is flawed in that the argument

The argument commits which one of the following errors of reasoning?

(A)

(A)

(B)

(C) (D)

(E)

takes for granted that Weingarten owns one or more pets inappropriately generalizes from a particular case misrepresents the conclusion of the opposing argument takes a necessary condition for a practice's being unethical as a sufficient condition for its being so rejects a claim merely on the grounds that its proponent holds another view inconsistent

with it

(D)

It mistakes the claim that something is required for a purpose for the claim that it is sufficient for that purpose. It accepts a view as authoritative without establishing the authority of the source of the view. It takes for granted in a premise what it is trying to prove in its conclusion. It treats an effect of something as the cause of

(E)

It attacks the source of an argument rather than

(B)

(C)

that thing. attacking the substance of that argument.

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16.

University president: When a faculty member 's falsification of research was uncovered, the media treated it as evidence of the university's low standards, even though in truth it was a mere case of dishonesty. But since vigilance with respect to academic standards is always necessary, it's good that standards have become a topic of discussion. Which one of the following conforms most closely to the principle illustrated above? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

The latest government scandal was caused primarily by a lack of oversight, which in tum led to corruption. Since no amount of oversight can eliminate all corruption, it is important that the problems with oversight are not the only topic of discussion. The latest government scandal has been attributed to lack of oversight, although the true cause of the scandal was simple corruption. Nonetheless, this discussion of oversight is welcome, because oversight is important in its own right. The latest government scandal has been attributed to both lack of oversight and corruption. As a result, these important concerns are now being discussed. So, despite the harm that it caused, it is good that the scandal occurred. The latest government scandal has been analyzed as a case of simple corruption, although corruption had little to do with it. Because the true cause of the scandal was lack of oversight, attributing the cause of the scandal to simple corruption is harmful. The latest government scandal has been analyzed as a case of simple corruption, with no mention of the role played by lack of oversight. Nonetheless, the focus on corruption is welcome, because corruption played the largest role in the scandal.

17.

Politician: Over the next decade, our city will be replacing all of its street signs with signs that are designed for improved readability. But since no one is complaining about the current signs, installing the new ones is a colossal waste of time and money. Which one of the following would be most useful to know in evaluating the politician's argument? (A) (B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

What features of the new street signs improve the readability of the signs? Are the new street signs considerably more expensive to manufacture than the current street signs were? What percentage of its street signs does the city replace annually in the course of ordinary maintenance? Do any other cities plan to replace their street signs with signs designed for improved readability? Were experts consulted when the new street signs were designed?

18. A large survey of scientists found that almost all accept Wang's Law, and almost all know the results of the Brown-Eisler Experiment. But those results together with Wang's Law contradict the Minsk Hypothesis. Therefore, most of the scientists surveyed reject the Minsk Hypothesis. The argument requires assuming which one of the following? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D) (E)

The scientists surveyed are generally aware that the results of the Brown-Eisler Experiment together with Wang's Law contradict the Minsk Hypothesis. The scientists in the survey who know the results of the Brown-Eisler Experiment are exactly the same ones who accept Wang's Law. Almost all of the scientists surveyed are familiar with the way in which the results of the Brown-Eisler Experiment were obtained. The sample is large enough to be representative of scientists in the field. Wang's Law has in fact been shown to be true.

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1 19. Any literary translation is a compromise between two goals that cannot be entirely reconciled: faithfulness to the meaning of the text and faithfulness to the original author's style. Thus, even the most skillful translation will be at best a flawed approximation of the original work. Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify the reasoning in the argument above? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

20.

A translation of a literary work should be entirely faithful to neither the meaning of the text nor the original author's style. If a literary translation is flawed as an approximation of the original work, it cannot be regarded as a successful compromise between faithfulness to the meaning of the text and faithfulness to the original author's style. The most skillful literary translation of a work will not necessarily be the most balanced compromise between faithfulness to the meaning of the text and faithfulness to the original author's style. Any translation that is not entirely faithful to both the meaning of the text and the original author's style will be at best a flawed approximation of that work. Not even the most skillful literary translation could be faithful to both the literal meaning of the text and the original author's style.

Sociologist: Television, telephones, and other electronic media encourage imprecise, uncritical thinking. Yet critical thinking is the only adequate protection against political demagogues, who seek to exploit people by presenting emotionally loaded language as an objective description of reality.

If the sociologist's statements are true, then each of the following statements could be true EXCEPT: (A) (B)

(C) (D)

(E)

There are no political demagogues in some highly technological societies. Political demagogues are not the only ones who seek to exploit people by presenting emotionally loaded language as an objective description of reality. Highly emotional people are more easily exploited than less emotional people. The mere presence of an orderly system of government in a society provides adequate protection against political demagogues. The mere presence of electronic communications technology in a society provides adequate protection against the erosion of media freedoms.

-1521. People with higher-than-average blood levels of a normal dietary by-product called homocysteine are twice as likely to be diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease as are those with average or below-average homocysteine levels. Thus, it is likely that the risk of developing Alzheimer's disease could be reduced by including in one's diet large amounts of B vitamins and folic acid, which convert homocysteine into substances known to have no relation to Alzheimer's disease. Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument? (A) (B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

22.

Many Alzheimer's patients have normal homocysteine levels. The substances into which homocysteine is converted can sometimes have harmful effects unrelated to Alzheimer's disease. B vitamins and folic acid are not metabolized by the body very efficiently when taken in the form of vitamin-mineral supplements. People whose relatives contracted Alzheimer's disease are much more likely to develop Alzheimer's than those whose relatives did not. Alzheimer's disease tends to increase the levels of homocysteine in the blood.

Consumer advocate: Economists reason that price gouging- increasing the price of goods when no alternative seller is available-is efficient because it allocates goods to people whose willingness to pay more shows that they really need those goods. But willingness to pay is not proportional to need. In the real world, some people simply cannot pay as much as others. As a result, a price increase will allocate goods to the people with the most money, not to those with the most need. Which one of the following most accurately describes the role played in the consumer advocate's argument by the claim that willingness to pay is not proportional to need? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

It disputes one explanation in order to make way for an alternative explanation. It is the overall conclusion of the argument. It is a component of reasoning disputed in the argument. It is a general principle whose validity the argument questions. It denies a claim that the argument takes to be assumed in the reasoning that it rejects.

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Zoologist: Plants preferentially absorb heavy nitrogen from rainwater. Heavy nitrogen consequently becomes concentrated in the tissues of herbivores, and animals that eat meat in tum exhibit even higher concentrations of heavy nitrogen in their bodily tissues. We compared bone samples from European cave bears of the Ice Age with blood samples from present-day bears fed meat-emiched diets, and the levels of heavy nitrogen present in these samples were identical. Thus, the prehistoric European cave bears were not exclusively herbivores. Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the zoologist's argument? (A) (B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Plants can also absorb heavy nitrogen from a variety of sources other than rainwater. The rate at which heavy nitrogen accumulated in the blood of Ice Age herbivores can be inferred from samples of their bones. The same number of samples was taken from present-day bears as was taken from Ice Age cave bears. Bone samples from present-day bears fed meat-enriched diets exhibit the same levels of heavy nitrogen as do their blood samples. The level of heavy nitrogen in the bones of any bear fed a meat-enriched diet is the same as that in the bones of any other meat-eating bear.

24.

Biologist: Some computer scientists imagine that all that is required for making an artificial intelligence is to create a computer program that encapsulates the information contained in the human genome. They are mistaken. The operation of the human brain is governed by the interactions of proteins whose structures are encoded in the human genome. Which one of the following is an assumption required by the biologist's argument? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

The functions of the human brain are governed by processes that cannot be simulated by a computer. The interactions of the proteins that govern the operation of the human brain are not determined by the information contained in the human genome. The only way to create an artificial intelligence is to model it on the operation of the human brain. The amount of information contained in the human genome is too large to be easily encapsulated by a computer program. It is much more difficult to write a program that encapsulates the interactions of proteins than to write a program that encapsulates the information contained in the human genome.

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25. Some advertisers offer certain consumers home computers free of charge. Advertisements play continuously on the computers' screens whenever they are in use. As consumers use the computers to browse the Internet, information about their browsing patterns is sent to the advertisers, enabling them to transmit to each consumer advertising that accurately reflects his or her individual interests. The advertisers can afford to offer the computers for free because of the increased sales that result from this precise targeting of individual consumers.

26. Some eloquent speakers impress their audiences with the vividness and clarity of the messages conveyed. Speakers who resort to obscenity, however, are not genuinely eloquent, so none of these speakers impress their audiences. The flawed reasoning in which one of the following is most similar to that in the argument above? (A)

Which one of the following is most strongly supported by the information above? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

(B)

At least some consumers who use a computer offered free of charge by advertisers for browsing the Internet spend more money on purchases from those advertisers than they would if they did not use such a computer to browse the Internet. No advertisers could offer promotions that give away computers free of charge if consumers never used those computers to browse the Internet. There are at least some consumers who browse the Internet using computers offered free of charge by the advertisers and who, if they did not use those computers to browse the Internet, would spend little if any money on purchases from those advertisers. The advertisers would not be able to offer the computers absolutely free of charge if advertisements that accurately reflected the interests of the computers' users did not play continuously across the computers' screens whenever they were in use. Consumers who use a computer offered free of charge by the advertisers can sometimes choose to abstain from having information about their browsing patterns sent to the advertisers.

s T

(C)

(D)

(E)

0

A culture without myths will also lack fundamental moral certainties. Thus, this culture must lack fundamental moral certainties, since it is devoid of myth. There are authors who write one page a day and produce one book per year. Serious authors, however, do not write one page per day, so some authors who write one book a year are not serious. Cities that are centers of commerce are always centers of industry as well. It follows that some centers of commerce are small cities, since there are centers of industry that are not small cities. Most farmers like living in rural areas. Since Carla is not a farmer, she probably would not enjoy living in the country. Sculptors sometimes produce significant works of art. But musicians are not sculptors. Hence, musicians never produce significant works of art.

p

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

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-18SECTION II Time-35 minutes 27 Questions Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage or a pair of passages. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage or pair of passages. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

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Passage A Muscle memory is a puzzling phenomenon. Most bodybuilders have experienced this phenomenon, yet virtually no discussions of it have appeared in scientific publications. Bodybuilders who start training again after a period of inactivity find that gaining muscle size seems easier the second time aroundeven if starting from the same place. With so many athletes observing muscle memory, some plausible explanation must exist. One potential explanation of muscle memory involves the neurons (nerve cells) that stimulate your muscles, telling the muscle fibers to contract. It is well established that during weight lifting, only a small percentage of neurons for the working muscles are recruited. The more weight you lift, the more neurons are involved and the more muscle fibers are stimulated. But even when attempting your maximum weight, you don't recruit all the fibers in your working muscles. Now it could be that one way your body adapts to the demands of consistent training is by gradually increasing the percentage of muscle fibers that are stimulated by neurons during maximal lifts. When you're making a comeback, this ability to recruit more muscle fibers may remain intact. If so, your muscles would start with a greater capacity to develop force. Although you may think you 're starting from the same place, this greater strength would enable faster progress. Then again, it's also possible that the ease of retraining has nothing to do with your muscles: it could all be in your head. The first time you trained, you didn' t know how much you could lift. So you increased weight cautiously. When retraining, you already know you can handle increasing weight because you've done it before. So you are likely to add weight more rapidly. These more rapid weight increases produce quicker gains in strength and size. Passage B Pumping up is easier for people who have been buff before, and now scientists think they know why-muscles retain one aspect of their former fitness even as they wither from lack of use. Because muscle cells are huge, more than one nucleus is needed for making the large amounts of the proteins that give muscles their strength. Previous research has demonstrated that with exercise, muscle cells get even bigger by merging with stem cells that

are nested between them. The muscle cells incorporate the nuclei that previously belonged to the stem cells. Researchers had thought that when muscles atrophy,

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the extra cell nuclei are killed by a cell death program called apoptosis. In a recent study, researchers regularly stimulated the leg muscles of mice over a two-week period, during which time the muscle cells gained nuclei and increased in size. The researchers then let the muscles rest. As the muscles atrophied, the cells deflated to about 40 percent of their bulked-up size, but the number of nuclei in the cells did not change. Since the extra nuclei don't die, they could be poised to make muscle proteins again, providing a type of muscle memory at the cellular level.

l. Both passages seek an answer to which one of the following questions? (A) (B) (C)

(D) (E)

Why are explanations in the field of exercise physiology so inconclusive? What is the best way for bodybuilders to begin training again after a period of inactivity? Why is building muscle easier for people who have done so in the past? Is muscle memory a purely psychological phenomenon? Is there a psychological basis for the increases in muscle size and strength that result from exercise?

2. Passage B, but not passage A, seeks to achieve its purpose by (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

questioning the reality of an alleged phenomenon discussing the results of a recent scientific experiment appealing to the reader's personal experience considering the psychological factors involved in bodybuilding speculating about the cause of an observed phenomenon

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3. Passage B, unlike passage A, suggests that the phenomenon of muscle memory might be due to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

muscle cells' ability to merge with stem cells the body's ability to adapt to consistent training psychological factors a cell death program known as apoptosis the neurons that stimulate muscles

4. It can be inferred from the passages that the author of passage A (A) (B) (C)

(D)

(E)

is more certain than the author of passage B about the existence of muscle memory probably agrees with the author of passage B about the explanation for muscle memory was probably not aware of the scientific research that is described in passage B probably disagrees with the author of passage B about how muscle cells' nuclei affect muscle strength tends to be more skeptical than the author of passage B about conclusions drawn about one species on the basis of experiments involving another species

5. Given the style and tone of each passage, which one of the following is most likely to correctly describe the expected audience of each passage? (A)

(B) (C)

(D) (E)

Passage A: skeptics of the phenomenon under discussion Passage B: people with personal experience of the phenomenon under discussion Passage A: scientific researchers Passage B: athletic trainers and coaches Passage A: athletes who work with a trainer Passage B: people who pursue a fitness program on their own Passage A: bodybuilders Passage B: a general audience Passage A: sports psychologists Passage B: exercise physiologists

6. The author of passage B would be most likely to hold which one of the following views about the characterization of muscle memory offered in the first sentence of passage A? (A)

It confirms that bodybuilders' experiences

(B)

It reflects a dichotomy between athletes'

should not be accepted at face value.

(C)

(D) (E)

experience and processes occurring at the cellular level of their muscles. It would not be accepted by most athletes who have started retraining after a period of inactivity. It is less apt now in light of recent research than it was before that research was conducted. It stems from a fundamental misunderstanding of the principles of exercise psychology.

7. Which one of the following is explicitly mentioned in passage B but not in passage A? (A) (B) (C)

(D) (E)

the condition of a person's muscles when that person begins retraining muscles' adaptation to exercise the percentage of muscle fibers used in a working muscle the prevalence of discussions of muscle memory in scientific publications the large amounts of protein responsible for muscles' strength

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A Best known for her work with lacquer, Eileen Gray (1878- 1976) had a fascinating and multifaceted artistic career: she became a designer of ornaments, furniture, interiors, and eventually homes. Though her attention shifted from smaller objects to the very large, she always focused on details, even details that were forever hidden. In Paris she studied the Japanese tradition of lacquer, employing wood surfaces-e.g., bowls, screens, furniture-for the application of the clear, hard-drying liquid. It is a time-consuming craft, then little known in Europe, that superimposes layer upon layer, sometimes involving twenty layers or more. The tradition of lacquer fit well with her artistic sensibilities, as Gray eschewed the flowing, leafy lines of the Art Nouveau movement that had flourished in Paris, preferring the austere beauty of straight lines and simple forms juxtaposed. In addition to requiring painstaking layering, the wood used in lacquer work must be lacquered on both sides to prevent warping. This tension between aesthetic demands and structural requirements, which invests Gray's work in lacquer with an architectural quality, is critical but not always apparent: a folding screen or door panel reveals more of the artist's work than does a flat panel, which hides one side. In Gray 's early work she produced flat panels; later she made door panels and even unfolded the panels into screens. In a screen she made for the lobby of an apartment, she fully realizes the implications of this expansion from two to three dimensions: the screen juts out from a wall, and that wall visually disintegrates into panels of lacquered bricks on the screen. The screen thus becomes a painting, a piece of furniture, and an architectural element all at once. She subsequently became heavily invested in the design of furniture, often tailoring pieces to fit a particular interior environment. She often used modem materials, such as tubular steel, to create furniture and environments that, though visually austere, meet their occupants' needs. Gray's work in both lacquer and interior design prefigures her work as an architect. She did not believe that one should divorce the structural design of the exterior from the design of the interior. She designed the interior elements of a house together with the more permanent structures, as an integrated whole. Architecture for her was like work in lacquer: it could only be achieved from the inside out. But in architecture we discover the hidden layers; in fact we inhabit them. We find storage cabinets in the recesses of a staircase, desks that are also cabinets, and tables that are set on pivots to serve different functions in different contexts. One such table can be positioned either outside, on a balcony, or inside the house. Gray placed a carpet underneath it in each location, as though to underscore that there is no important distinction between exterior and interior.

A

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8. Which one of the following most accurately summarizes the main point of the passage? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Eileen Gray's artistic career, which ranged from interior to exterior design, was greatly influenced by her early work in lacquer, which molded her aesthetic sensibilities and caused her to develop independence as an artist, yet prevented her from garnering acclaim by critics of contemporary art. Eileen Gray 's artistic career, ranging from the design of ornaments and interiors to architectural design, was exemplified by her work in lacquer, from which she derived an aesthetic that downplayed the distinctions between interior and exterior and sought integral wholeness in a work of art. Eileen Gray, a multifaceted artist whose designs ranged from ornaments to houses, is best known for her use of modem materials such as tubular steel in the design of furniture and houses, which, while informed by an austerity of line, create humanistic environments that meet their occupants' needs. Although Eileen Gray's artistic endeavors ranged from the design of ornaments and interiors to architectural design, her distinctive style, which is characterized by a sense of the hidden, is evident in all her work, making it readily identifiable. The fact that Eileen Gray's artistic career evolved from the design of ornaments and furniture to architecture ultimately derives from her eventual dissatisfaction with Japanese traditional art and its emphasis on integral wholeness.

9. Which one of the following comes closest to exemplifying the characteristics of Gray's work as described in the passage? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

an upholstered sofa with tasseled fringes and curved, wooden arms a coffee table decorated with intricate carvings of birds, trees, and grasses that are painted in bright colors a thin, stainless steel vase intended to resemble the ornate flowers it will hold a round, wooden picture frame inlaid with glass beads, pearls, and gracefully cut pieces of colorful shells a metal chair whose simple shape is adapted to fit the human form

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10. The passage provides information that most strongly supports which one of the following assertions? (A)

(B) (C)

(D) (E)

Gray's reputation rests primarily on the range of styles and media in which she worked, rather than on her work in any particular medium. Gray personally constructed most of the interior furnishings that she designed. In Paris in Gray's time, wood was generally considered an inappropriate medium for visual art. Few of Gray's works in lacquer were intended for public viewing. Much of Gray's later work was functional as well as ornamental.

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13. The passage most strongly suggests that which one of the following principles was used by Gray in her work? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

11. Information in the passage most helps to answer which one of the following questions?

(A) (B) (C)

(D)

(E)

When did the tradition of lacquer first become known in Europe? What types of wood are usually considered best for use in traditional Japanese lacquer work? Were the artistic motifs of traditional lacquer work similar to those that were typical of Art Nouveau? Did Gray allow the style of her architecture to be infonned by the landscape that surrounded the building site? What is a material that Gray used both structurally for its superior strength and decoratively for its visual interaction with another material?

12. Which one of the following most accurately

characterizes the author's attitude toward Gray's artistic accomplishments? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

appreciation of the fact that her aesthetic philosophy, as well as the materials she used and the range of her work, sets her work apart from that of many of her contemporaries admiration for her artistic independence and refusal to confonn to contemporary art trends even though such refusal positioned her on the periphery of the art world appreciation for the interpretation of Japanese tradition in her work, by which she made a unique contribution to modem architectural design while remaining faithful to Japanese architectural traditions admiration for the rapid development in her career, from the production of smaller works, such as ornaments, to large structures, like houses, that ensured her reputation as an avant-garde artist appreciation for her help in revolutionizing the field of structural design through her use of traditional materials and modern materials in her furniture creations and architectural work

(E)

Traditional lacquering techniques can be applied to nontraditional materials, such as brick and steel, with artistically effective results. The nature and placement of a dwelling's interior features can be essential factors in determining the overall structural design of the dwelling. Traditional ornamental techniques that are usually applied to small items are especially suitable for use on large structural elements of buildings. Excellent artistic effects can be achieved through the juxtaposition of visually austere elements with gracefully ornate elements of design. The superficial visual aspects of a building's decor can give evidence of the materials that have been used in its basic, unseen structural components.

14. The passage most strongly suggests that the author would agree with which one of the following statements about Gray's architectural work? (A)

(B)

(C) (D)

(E)

It was considered by other architects of her time to be iconoclastic and inconsistent with sound principles of structural design. Her involvement in it was marked by a radical shift in her attitude toward the relation between the expressive and functional aspects of her work. The public is less knowledgeable about it than about at least some of her other work. It has been less controversial among recent critics and scholars than has at least some of her work in interior design. Unlike her work in lacquer, it was not influenced by an established tradition of Asian art.

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It is generally accepted that woodland clearings were utilized by Mesolithic human populations (populations in Europe roughly 7,000 to 12,000 years ago) for food procurement. Whether there was (5) deliberate removal of tree cover to attract grazing animals or whether naturally created clearings just afforded opportunistic hunting, the common view is that clearings had an economic use. The archaeological evidence for this, however, is at best circumstantial. (10) Some locales where the presence of clearings has been demonstrated in the paleoecological record of vegetation have also yielded human artifacts from around the same time, but the two kinds of evidence are never securely linked. Furthermore, artifactual (15) evidence that preparation of animals for human consumption took place within or near such clearings is generally lacking. Most of the evidence invoked in favor of the resource-procurement model for clearings comes from (20) ethnography rather than archaeology, and principally from the recognition that some recent premodern populations used fire to increase grazing areas. But while some ethnographic evidence has been used to bolster the resource-procurement model, other (25) ethnographic evidence may suggest a different vision, a noneconomic one, of why clearings may have been deliberately created and/or used. Geographer Yi-Fu Tuan argues that right up through the modem era, human behavior has been (30) driven by fear of the wilderness. While we might be tempted to see this kind of anxiety as a product of modem urban life, it is clear that such fears are also manifest in preliterate and nonurban societies. If we apply this insight to the Mesolithic era, our view of the (35) purpose and use of woodland clearings may change. We have recently become aware of the importance of woodland paths in prehistory. The fact that Mesolithic human populations moved around the landscape is not a new idea. However, the fact that (40) they may have done so along prescribed pathways has only recently come to the fore . I propose that one of the primary motivators in establishing paths may have been fear of the wooded surroundings-whether fear of harm from wildlife or spirits, or of simply (45) getting lost. From this view an alternative hypothesis may be developed. First, paths become established and acquire a measure oflong-term permanence. Then this permanence leads to concentration of activity in some (50) areas (near the paths) rather than others (away from the paths). This allows us to legitimately consider wilderness as a motivating concept in the Mesolithic, and may force us to consider environment as more than "backdrop." And finally, it may lead us to (55) explain some clearings as purely social phenomena, since where paths meet, wider clearings emerge as corners are cut and intersections become convenient spots for resting.

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15. Which one of the following most accurately states the main idea of the passage? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Though fear of the wilderness is commonly thought to be a modem urban phenomenon, archaeological evidence suggests that the concept of wilderness may go as far back as the Mesolithic period. Though the resource-procurement model for Mesolithic woodland clearings is widely accepted, the available evidence provides comparable support for an alternative, noneconomic model. Though ethnographic evidence appears to support the resource-procurement model for woodland clearings, archaeological evidence suggests that clearings were used for multiple purposes by Mesolithic human populations. Evidence of woodland clearings from the paleoecological record of plant types may lend support to the hypothesis that Mesolithic human populations moved around the landscape via established paths. Ethnography provides clear and unambiguous insight into the purpose and use of woodland clearings during the Mesolithic period.

16. According to the resource-procurement model for clearings, Mesolithic human populations engaged in which one of the following practices? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

They They They They They

traveled on preestablished pathways. hunted animals that grazed in clearings. grazed domesticated animals in clearings. used clearings as resting sites. planted crops in clearings.

17. Which one of the following is most clearly an example of the kind of evidence that would lend support to the author's proposal in the next-to-last paragraph? (A)

(B)

(C) (D)

(E)

Mesolithic artwork that appears to depict woodland paths and clearings the ubiquity of paths and roads in areas densely settled by humans maps showing pathways used by certain recent premodem human populations survey results showing that modern urban dwellers experience heightened anxiety in wilderness areas rituals performed by certain recent premodern populations for the purpose of protection in the forest

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18. The author suggests that which one of the following may have been true of Mesolithic human populations? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

They were the first people to use fire to increase grazing areas. They were the first people to travel in prescribed pathways. They worshipped nature. They possessed a concept of wilderness. They had a complex economic system.

21. Which one of the following comes closest to capturing what the phrase "purely social phenomena" means in line 55? (A) (B) (C) (D)

19. In the thlrd paragraph, the author mentions Yi-Fu Tuan's argument primarily in order to (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

render doubtful the hypothesis about clearings that the author seeks to challenge exemplify the kind of argument about clearings that the author seeks to challenge give credit to the scholar who developed the hypothesis about clearings that the author favors lay the groundwork for the hypothesis about clearings that the author outlines point out the similarity between Tuan's view about clearings and the author 's view

20. It can be inferred that the author would be more likely to endorse the resource-procurement model for clearings if this model were supported by which one of the following kinds of evidence?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

artifactual evidence that it was near or within clearings that Mesolithic human populations processed animals for human consumption ethnographic evidence that certain recent premodem populations used clearings for resource procurement experimental evidence that the creation of clearings is an effective means of attracting grazing animals paleoecological evidence that the majority of woodland clearings during the Mesolithic period were the result of wildfires statistical evidence that there was a significant increase in the number of woodland clearings during the Mesolithic period

(E)

phenomena that arise as by-products of a society's noneconomic practices phenomena that are universal and unique to human societies phenomena that serve the purpose of strengthening ties between a society's members phenomena that are intentionally created by human actions to produce a social benefit phenomena that reveal information about a society's cultural and economic development

22. Which one of the following arguments is most closely analogous to the author's argument in the second paragraph?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

The prosecution's case against the defendant rests almost entirely on circumstantial evidence. The defense, in contrast, has provided direct evidence that establishes that the defendant could not have committed the crime in question. The prosecution maintains that the physical evidence presented establishes the defendant's guilt. However, that same physical evidence can be interpreted in such a way that it instead establishes the defendant's innocence. The prosecution's case against the defendant rests entirely on circumstantial evidence. This suggests that there is no direct evidence to support the charge against the defendant. The prosecution's primary witness against the defendant is known to be untrustworthy. The defense, in contrast, has provided a parade of witnesses whose reputations are beyond reproach. The prosecution's case against the defendant rests almost entirely on circumstantial evidence. However, there is other circumstantial evidence that suggests that the defendant is innocent.

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(5)

(10)

(15)

(20)

(25)

(30)

(35)

(40)

(45)

(50)

A A remedy that courts sometimes use in disputes involving a breach of contract is simply to compel the participants in the contract to do precisely what they have agreed to do. Specific performance, as this approach is called, can be used as an alternative to monetary damages-that is, to requiring the one who has violated the agreement to pay a specified amount of money in compensation for the loss that is incurred or the wrong that is suffered. But while there are some cases for which specific performance can be a better alternative than monetary damages, there are many instances in which it is clearly not a suitable remedy. Whether or not specific performance is an appropriate remedy in a case depends on the particular characteristics of that case. It is often the only reasonable remedy when monetary damages could not adequately compensate the one who has been harmed by the breach of contract. For example, a contract may provide for one party to sell some item of personal property that is unique or of such subjective importance to the buyer that there is no way to assign an accurate financial measure of the buyer's loss in not possessing the item. When the promised seller in such a case refuses to complete the sale, the best remedy would be to order that the contract be fulfilled exactly according to its terms. Nevertheless, in many cases monetary payment can adequately compensate for the refusal to fulfill the terms of a contract, and thus the court commonly need not consider ordering specific performance. In fact, in some types of cases, court-enforced performance of the contract would actually be detrimental to those involved in the dispute and thus should be avoided. This most often occurs when a contract calls for a service to be performed and the one who has previously agreed to perform the service now refuses to do soespecially if a contract has been broken through someone's refusal to undertake employment as promised. The most compelling reasons against enforcement of contracts in such cases have to do with the kind of coercion that enforcement would necessitate. Forcing someone to perform a service in association with, and especially under the direction of, another who has become an antagonist can, at the very least, heighten dissatisfaction and intensify psychological friction. Even if a court had the resources necessary to ensure that such a contract would be enforced according to its terms, it would often do better to avoid imposing such uncomfortable conditions. Awarding monetary compensation where possible in such cases permits the court to steer clear of entanglement in troublesome aspects of the disputed relationship while still providing relief to the wronged party.

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23. Based on the information in the passage, which one of the following is most clearly an example of a court's ordering specific performance? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

A publishing house is ordered by a court to return a manuscript to a writer after it has broken its contract for publication of the manuscript, and the contract has subsequently been nullified. A systems analyst who refuses to work for a certain company as she has contracted to do is ordered by a court to assume her contracted duties with the company, and the company is ordered to pay her the contracted salary. A building contractor who has received the full payment specified in his contract with a developer for the construction of a new mall but fails to complete the project is ordered to transfer all of the funds to a new contractor who will complete the construction. A dealer in rare antique furniture is ordered to return a contracted buyer's down payment for a chair after an expert appraiser has informed the buyer and the court that the chair's authenticity is questionable. An engineer who has agreed to work for a certain company but no longer intends to do so is ordered to pay the company for the losses it will incur as a result of the breach of agreement, but the company is not ordered to compensate the engineer.

24. Based on the passage, the author would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements regarding cases in which someone is deemed by the court to have failed to undertake employment as contracted? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Often specific performance in such cases can help the courts avoid problematic involvement in difficult aspects of the cases. While specific performance costs the court less to enforce than monetary damages, the savings should be weighed against the former's negative psychological repercussions. Enforcement of specific performance by the courts in such cases would often be less than fully successful. If the person who failed to fulfill the contract also refuses to pay monetary damages, specific performance should be imposed instead. Specific perfonnance is more often considered by the courts in such cases than in other cases involving someone's refusal to perform services.

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-2525. The main purpose of the passage is to (A)

(B) (C)

(D) (E)

predict the consequences of following a policy whereby a particular legal remedy becomes the standard approach argue for the implementation of a set of standards for the use of a new legal measure explain the differences among a group of interrelated legal procedures generate a set of guidelines for the evaluation of evidence in a particular type of legal dispute identify some criteria for the application of two different legal remedies

27. Which one of the following would, if true, most strengthen the author's position with regard to remedies in employment contract cases?

(A) (B)

(C)

(D) 26. The passage most strongly suggests that the author would agree with which one of the following statements? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Courts should examine the suitability of assessing monetary damages in breach-ofcontract cases before they consider ordering specific performance. Specific performance is usually the most appropriate remedy for violations of contracts to sell personal property. In general, coercive court-ordered remedies in contract violation cases are unfair and should be avoided. Specific performance is successful at resolving disputes only when the objective value of the personal property contracted for sale is reasonably low. To provide fair enforcement of contracts, legal systems should offer disputing parties the option to use any of a number of resolution methods.

s

(E)

T 0

Court-ordered compensation in employment cases is often nearly impossible to enforce. All types of court-ordered remedies for contract violations entail coercion of one or more of the parties involved in the dispute. Most people who are sued for violating their agreement to undertake employment have adequate financial resources to compensate their would-be employers. The legal issues involved in employment contract disputes are for the most part very different from the legal issues involved in other disputes over contracts for performance of services. The rights of potential employees often override the monetary considerations involved in employment contract disputes.

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SECTION III

Time-35 minutes 23 Questions

Directions: Each group of. questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. Questions 1-5 In one week- Monday through Friday- a library's bookmobile will visit five of the following six neighborhoodsHidden Hills, Lakeville, Nottingham, Oldtown, Park Plaza, and Sunnyside. Exactly one neighborhood will be visited on each of the five days, and none of the neighborhoods will be visited on more than one day. The bookmobile's schedule must conform to the following conditions: Hidden Hills is visited, but not on Friday. If Oldtown is visited, then it is visited on the day immediately before Hidden Hills is visited. If Lakeville is visited, then it is visited on Wednesday. Nottingham and Sunnyside are both visited, but not on consecutive days.

1. The five neighborhoods visited by the bookmobile, listed in order from Monday through Friday, could be (A) (B) (C)

(D) (E)

Nottingham, Lakeville, Oldtown, Hidden Hills, and Sunnyside Nottingham, Oldtown, Hidden Hills, Sunnyside, and Park Plaza Oldtown, Hidden Hills, Lakeville, Nottingham, and Sunnyside Sunnyside, Oldtown, Lakeville, Hidden Hills, and Nottingham Sunnyside, Park Plaza, Nottingham, Oldtown, and Hidden Hills

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-272. Which one of the following neighborhoods CANNOT be visited on Thursday? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Hidden Hills Nottingham Oldtown Park Plaza Sunnyside

3. If Hidden Hills is visited on Monday, which one of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Lakeville is visited on Wednesday. Nottingham is visited on Tuesday. Park Plaza is visited on Thursday. Sunnyside is visited on Tuesday. Sunnyside is visited on Friday.

4. If Hidden Hills is visited on Wednesday, which one of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Nottingham is visited on Monday. Oldtown is visited on Tuesday. Park Plaza is visited on Friday. Sunnyside is visited on Monday. Sunnyside is visited on Thursday.

5. If Nottingham is visited on Thursday, which one of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Hidden Hills is visited on Wednesday. Lakeville is visited on Wednesday. Oldtown is visited on Monday. Park Plaza is visited on Friday. Sunnyside is visited on Tuesday.

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-28Questions 6--12 Six park rangers-Jefferson, Koguchi, Larson, Mendez, Olsen, and Pruitt-are each to be assigned to monitor one of three areas-area I, area 2, and area 3-in a national park. At least one ranger, but no more than three, is assigned to each area. The assignment must conform to the following conditions: Mendez is assigned to area 3. Neither Olsen nor Pruitt is assigned to area l. Larson is assigned to the same area as either Koguchi or Mendez but not to the same area as both. If Olsen is assigned to area 2, then Jefferson is assigned to the same area as Koguchi; otherwise, Jefferson is assigned to a different area than Koguchi.

6. Which one of the following is a permissible assignment of rangers to park areas? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

area area area area area area area area area area area area area area area

1: Jefferson, Koguchi 2: Larson, Olsen 3: Mendez, Pruitt 1: Koguchi, Larson 2: Olsen, Pruitt 3: Jefferson, Mendez l: Koguchi, Pruitt 2: Jefferson 3: Larson, Mendez, Olsen l: Jefferson, Koguchi, Larson 2: Mendez, Olsen 3: Pruitt l: Jefferson, Koguchi, Larson 2: Olsen, Pruitt 3: Mendez

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7. If Olsen is the sole ranger assigned to area 2, then which one of the following could be the complete assignment of rangers to area 3? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Mendez Larson, Mendez Mendez, Pruitt Jefferson, Koguchi, Mendez Jefferson, Mendez, Pruitt

8. If exactly one ranger is assigned to area 1, then which one of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Jefferson is assigned to area I. Koguchi is assigned to area 2. Larson is assigned to area 3. Olsen is assigned to area 3. Pruitt is assigned to area 2.

9. Which one of the following rangers CANNOT be assigned to area 3? (A) (B)

(C) (D) (E)

Pruitt Olsen Larson Koguchi Jefferson

I 0. If Koguchi is assigned to area 2, then which one of the following could be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Jefferson is assigned to area 2. Jefferson is assigned to area 3. Larson is assigned to area I. Olsen is assigned to area 2. Pruitt is assigned to area 3.

11 . If Larson and Olsen are assigned to the same area, then which one of the following could be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Jefferson is assigned to area 3. Koguchi is assigned to area 2. Larson is assigned to area 1. Olsen is assigned to area 2. Pruitt is assigned to area 3.

12. If Jefferson is assigned to area 2, then which one of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Koguchi is assigned to area l. Larson is assigned to area I. Olsen is assigned to area 2. Pruitt is assigned to area 2. Pruitt is assigned to area 3.

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-30Questions 13-17 An economics department is assigning six teaching assistantsRamos, Smith, Taj, Vogel, Yi, and Zane-to three coursesLabor, Markets, and Pricing. Each assistant will be assigned to exactly one course, and each course will have at least one assistant assigned to it. The assignment of assistants to courses is subject to the following conditions: Markets must have exactly two assistants assigned to it. Smith and Taj must be assigned to the same course as each other. Vogel and Yi cannot be assigned to the same course as each other. Yi and Zane must both be assigned to Pricing if either one of them is.

13. Which one of the following could be the complete assignment of assistants to Pricing? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ramos, Yi, and Zane Smith, Taj, and Yi Smith, Taj, Yi, and Zane Taj, Yi, and Zane Vogel, Yi, and Zane

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-3114. Which one of the following CANNOT be the complete assignment of assistants to Labor? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ramos, Vogel Ramos, Zane Smith, Taj Vogel, Zane Yi, Zane

15 . Which one of the following could be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ramos and Vogel are both assigned to Markets. Ramos and Taj are both assigned to Markets. Smith and Vogel are both assigned to Markets. Smith and Zane are both assigned to Pricing. Vogel and Zane are both assigned to Pricing.

16. If Vogel is assigned to the same course as Zane, which one of the following CANNOT be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ramos is assigned to Labor. Smith is assigned to Labor. Taj is assigned to Markets. Ramos is assigned to Pricing. Smith is assigned to Pricing.

17. If no other assistant is assigned to the same course as Ramos, which one of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Taj is assigned to Labor. Vogel is assigned to Labor. Yi is assigned to Markets. Zane is assigned to Markets. Smith is assigned to Pricing.

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-32Questions 18-23

18. One possible route of the virus from the first computer in the network infected to Q is

There are exactly six computers-P, Q, R, S, T, and Uon a small network. Exactly one of those computers was infected by a virus from outside the network, and that virus was then transmitted between computers on the network. Each computer received the virus exactly once. The following pieces of information concerning the spread of the virus have been established: No computer transmitted the virus to more than two other computers on the network. S transmitted the virus to exactly one other computer on the network. The computer that transmitted the virus to R also transmitted it to S. Either R or T transmitted the virus to Q. Either T or U transmitted the virus to P.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

from from from from from

R to P to T to Q T to S to R to Q T to S to U to Q U to P to R to Q U to T to P to R to Q

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-3319. Which one of the following could be the computer that was infected from outside the network? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

22. The spread of the virus among the computers is completely determined if which one of the following is true?

p

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Q R

s T

23. If P is the only computer that transmitted the virus to two other computers on the network, which one of the following must be true?

20. If T did not transmit the virus to any other computer on the network, which one of the following must be true? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

P transmitted the virus to S. Q transmitted the virus to R. U transmitted the virus to S. P did not transmit the virus to any other computer on the network. R did not transmit the virus to any other computer on the network.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

21 . Any of the following computers could have transmitted the virus to two other computers on the network EXCEPT: (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

R transmitted the virus to Q. T transmitted the virus to Q. T transmitted the virus to S. U transmitted the virus to P. U transmitted the virus to R.

S transmitted the virus to T. T transmitted the virus to P. Q did not transmit the virus to any other computer on the network. R did not transmit the virus to any other computer on the network. U did not transmit the virus to any other computer on the network.

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Q R T U

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SECTION IV Time-35 minutes 25 Questions Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. I. Cool weather typically weakens muscle power in cold-blooded creatures. In the veiled chameleon, a cold-blooded animal, the speed at which the animal can retract its tongue declines dramatically as the temperature falls. However, the speed at which this chameleon can extend its tongue does not decline much as the temperature falls. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent discrepancy in the information above? (A) (B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Most cold-blooded animals are much more active in warmer weather than in cooler weather. Many cold-blooded animals, including the veiled chameleon, have tongues that can extend quite a distance. Veiled chameleons are found in a wide range of habitats, including ones with wide variations in temperature and ones with moderate climates. In the veiled chameleon, tongue retraction is powered by muscles, whereas tongue extension is driven by energy stored in a rubber band-like sheath. Compared with the muscles in the tongues of most cold-blooded animals, the retraction muscles in the veiled chameleon's tongue are considerably stronger.

2. Acme's bank loan must be immediately repaid in full if Acme's earnings fall below $1 million per year. If Acme has to repay the entire loan immediately, it will have to declare bankruptcy. Acme had seemed safe from bankruptcy, having reported annual earnings of well over $1 million in each year it has had the bank loan. However, Acme has now admitted overstating its earnings for last year, so it will have to declare bankruptcy. The argument requires the assumption that (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Acme's earnings for last year, when accurately stated, are below $1 million Acme has other debts besides the bank loan last year is not the only year for which Acme overstated earnings Acme's earnings for the current year will fall below $1 million Acme would be able to avoid bankruptcy if it did not have to repay the bank loan

3. Hospital patients generally have lower infection rates and require shorter hospital stays if they are housed in private rooms rather than semiprivate rooms. Yet in Woodville's hospital, which has only semiprivate rooms, infection rates and length of stays are typically the same as in several nearby hospitals where most of the rooms are private, even though patients served by these hospitals are very similar to those served by Woodville's hospital. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent conflict in the information above? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Many of the doctors who routinely treat patients · in Woodville 's hospital also routinely treat patients in one or more of the nearby hospitals. Most of the nearby hospitals were built within the last 10 years, whereas Woodville's hospital was built about 50 years ago. Infection is more likely to be spread where people come into close contact with one another than where they do not. Woodville's hospital has a policy of housing one patient per room in semiprivate rooms whenever possible. Woodville's hospital is located in its central business district, whereas most of the nearby hospitals are located outside their municipalities' business districts.

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Economist: Unemployment will soon decrease. If total government spending significantly increases next year, the economy will be stimulated in the short term and unemployment will decrease. If, on the other hand, total government spending significantly decreases next year, businesses will retain more of their earnings in the short term and employ more workers, thereby decreasing unemployment.

0 6.

The conclusion drawn by the economist is properly inferred if which one of the following is assumed? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D) (E)

5.

Tyne: I disagree. Though it is true that the recent increase in the stringency of zoning regulations could be seen by developers as merely an activists' ploy to restrict development further, the value of natural, undisturbed areas can only be better preserved by such regulatory protection. Tyne's response to Marisa suggests that Tyne has misinterpreted which one of the following words in Marisa's remarks? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

regulations development prohibitive values significantly

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Scientist: Laboratory animals have access to ample food, and they get relatively little exercise. These factors can skew the results of research using animals, since such studies often rely on the assumption that the animal subjects are healthy. For instance, animal studies that purport to show that extreme caloric restriction can extend lifespans take for granted that their subjects were not overfed to begin with. The scientist's argument requires assuming which one of the following?

Either total government spending will significantly decrease next year or else total government spending will significantly increase next year. Government officials are currently implementing policies that are intended to reduce unemployment. If there is a significantly increased demand for workers, then there will be a significant decrease in unemployment. A significant increase in total government spending will slow the economy in the long run. If the economy is not stimulated and businesses do not retain more of their earnings, then unemployment will not decrease.

Marisa: Existing zoning regulations must be loosened; in some places the restrictions on development are now so prohibitive as to reduce the property values of undeveloped areas significantly.

0

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

7.

Laboratory animals are healthy if they are fed a carefully restricted diet and get plenty of exercise. Laboratory conditions that provide animals with ample food but relatively little exercise can be unhealthy for the animals. It is not unusual for animals outside of laboratory settings to have access to ample food and get relatively little exercise. Some animal studies take into consideration the differences between the living conditions of laboratory animals and those of other animals. When provided with unlimited food over a long period of time, animals show little day-to-day variation in their eating habits.

Trade negotiator: Increasing economic prosperity in a country tends to bring political freedom to its inhabitants. Therefore, it is wrong for any country to adopt trade policies that are likely to seriously hinder growth in the prosperity of any other country. Which one of the following principles, if valid, would most help to justify the trade negotiator's reasoning? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Every country should adopt at least some policies that encourage the development of political freedom in other countries. Both economic prosperity and political freedom can contribute to the overall well-being of any country's inhabitants. The primary reason that any country seeks economic prosperity is to foster political freedom in that country. A country should not do anything that might hinder the growth of political freedom in any other country. It is wrong for any country to adopt trade policies that might diminish the prosperity of its inhabitants.

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8. Whenever an artist endowed with both a high level of artistic skill and a high degree of creativity combines these two abilities in the process of creating an artwork, the resulting product is a great work of art. Moreover, no work of art can be great unless both of these elements are combined in its execution. Thus, great works of art are necessarily rare.

0 10.

(B)

(C)

(D) (E)

9.

Not every artist possesses a high level of artistic skill. A high degree of creativity and a high level of artistic skill are seldom combined in the creation of a work of art. An artist endowed with a high degree of creativity and a high level of artistic skill will necessarily produce great works of art. Few artists are endowed with a high degree of creativity. Anyone endowed with both a high level of artistic skill and a high degree of creativity will produce only a few great works of art.

Cereal advertisement: Fitness experts say that regular exercise is the most effective way to become physically fit, and studies have shown that adults who eat cereal every day exercise more regularly than adults who do not eat cereal. So by eating Fantastic Flakes every morning, you too will be on the most effective path to physical fitness. The argumentation in the advertisement is flawed in that it (A) (B)

(C)

(D) (E)

infers a cause from a mere correlation presumes, without providing justification, that Fantastic Flakes are more nutritious than other cereals infers that a given factor is the sole predictor of a result merely on the grounds that the factor has been shown to contribute to that result draws a conclusion about all adults from a sample that is too small to be representative infers that some members of a group have a particular characteristic merely from the fact that the group as a whole has it

Journalist: Some critics argue that as the entertainment value of news reporting increases, the caliber of that reporting decreases. Yet the greatest journalists have been the most entertaining. So these critics are mistaken. The journalist's conclusion is properly drawn if which one of the following is assumed?

Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument? (A)

0

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

1I.

The news reporting of the greatest journalists has been of the highest caliber. The greatest journalists have been entertainers who report the news. Journalistic greatness involves producing news that is very valuable in some sense. Entertainment and news are not mutually exclusive categories. The worst journalists have been more entertaining than informative.

Linguist: Three of the four subfamilies of the so-called "Austronesian" languages are found only among indigenous peoples in Taiwan, whereas the fourth is found on islands over a huge area stretching from Madagascar to the eastern Pacific Ocean. Since these subfamilies all originated in the same language, which must have been originally spoken in a single geographic location, these facts suggest that Taiwan is the homeland where Austronesian languages have been spoken longest and, hence, that Austronesian-speaking peoples originated in Taiwan and later migrated to other islands. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the overall conclusion drawn in the linguist's argument? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

The Austronesian family of languages has four subfamilies, three of which are found only among indigenous peoples in Taiwan. Wherever most subfamilies of the Austronesian family of languages have been spoken longest is probably the homeland where Austronesian languages originated. Taiwan is probably the homeland where Austronesian languages have been spoken longest. Austronesian-speaking peoples originated in the homeland where Austronesian languages have been spoken longest. Austronesian-speaking peoples probably originated in Taiwan and later migrated to other islands.

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West: Of our company's three quality control inspectors, Haynes is clearly the worst. Of the appliances that were returned to us last year because of quality control defects, half were inspected by Haynes. Young: But Haynes inspects significantly more than half the appliances we sell each year. Young responds to West's argument by (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

contending that the argument presupposes what it is trying to prove questioning the relevance of West's conclusion disputing the accuracy of one of the argument's stated premises arguing for a less extreme version of West's conclusion denying one of the argument's presuppositions

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Which one of the following conforms most closely to the principle illustrated above? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

While looking after her neighbor's pets, Laura left the door to her neighbor's house unlocked. Fortunately, nothing bad happened as a result. But her neighbor should not trust Laura to look after her pets in the future. Gerald hired Linda and Seung to move his furniture to a new residence. Linda and Seung carefully followed Gerald's instructions, but not all of the furniture fit in the moving truck. Gerald should still be required to pay Linda and Seung for the work they did. Terry and Chris were racing their cars on a public street. Chris lost control of his car and struck a parked car. Chris, but not Terry, should be required to pay to repair the damage. Alexis and Juan rented a boat for the afternoon. Because of improper use by the previous renter, the boat's engine malfunctioned during their excursion. The boat's owner should be required to refund Alexis's and Juan's rental fees . Susan and Leland disregarded posted warnings in order to skate on a frozen pond. When the ice broke, Susan's ankle was injured. Susan cannot hold the pond's owners responsible for her injuries.

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14. Psychology researchers observed that parents feel emotion while singing to their infants. The researchers hypothesized that this emotion noticeably affects the sound of the singing. To test this hypothesis the parents were recorded while singing to their infants and while singing with no infant present. They were instructed to make the two renditions as similar as possible. These recordings were then played for psychologists who had not observed the recordings being made. For 80 percent of the recordings, these psychologists were able to correctly identify, by listening alone, which recordings were of parents singing to their children. The researchers concluded that their hypothesis was correct. Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the researchers' reasoning? (A)

13 . While playing a game with a ball, both Emma and John carelessly ignored the danger their game posed to nearby objects. An errant throw by John struck and broke a neighbor's window. Because his throw broke the window, John, but not Emma, should be required to perform chores for the neighbor as compensation for the damage.

0

(B)

(C) (D)

(E)

A separate study by the same researchers found that parents feel more emotion when singing to their own children than when singing to other children. Some, but not all, of the parents in the study realized that their song renditions were being recorded. Parents displayed little emotion when singing with no child or adult present. When a person feels emotion, that emotion provokes involuntary physiological responses that affect the vocal cords and lungs. Most of the parents who participated in the study believed that the emotion they felt while singing to their infants affected their singing.

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15. Many scholars claim that Shakespeare's portrayal of Richard III was extremely inaccurate, arguing that he derived that portrayal from propagandists opposed to Richard III. But these claims are irrelevant for appreciating Shakespeare's work. The character of Richard III as portrayed in Shakespeare's drama is fascinating and illuminating both aesthetically and morally, regardless of its relation to historical fact. Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify the reasoning in the argument above? (A)

(B)

(C) (D) (E)

16.

Which one of the following arguments is most similar in its flawed reasoning to the voter's argument?

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Kao must be a golfer. Kao is planning to run for office, and most people who run for office play golf. Franklin will lose the coming election. The opposing candidate has better policy ideas and brings more relevant experience to the job. Ramirez is evidently able to control the traffic signals. Just now, as Ramirez approached the curb, the traffic signal changed from red to green. Thompson must be negotiating a personal loan. Thompson was at the bank yesterday, and people who are negotiating a personal Joan go to the bank to meet with a loan agent. McKinsey must have committed a crime at some point. After all, despite extensive background checks no one has been able to show that McKinsey has never committed a crime.

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17. It is pointless to debate the truth of the law of noncontradiction, a fundamental logical principle according to which two statements that contradict each other cannot both be true. For a debate to be productive, participants must hold some basic principles in common. But the principles held in common in a debate over the law of noncontradiction would be much less certain than that law, so it matters little whether the law of noncontradiction can be defended on the basis of those principles. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the overall conclusion drawn in the argument?

In historical drama, the aesthetic value of the work is not necessarily undermined by historical inaccuracies. In dealing with real people, dramatists should reflect their lives accurately. Shakespeare's historical importance puts him beyond the scope of all literary criticism. History is always told by propagandists from the winning side. Historical inaccuracies should be corrected only when they impugn the reputations of good people.

Voter: Our prime minister is evidently seeking a job at an international organization. Anyone seeking a job at an international organization would surely spend a lot of time traveling abroad, and our prime minister has spent more days abroad than at home so far this year.

(A)

0

(A) (B) (C)

(D)

(E)

18.

It is pointless to debate the truth of the law

of noncontradiction. Statements that contradict each other cannot both be true. The participants in a productive debate must hold at least some basic principles in common. The law of noncontradiction is a principle that the participants in a productive debate must hold in common. Any principles that could be used to defend the law of noncontradiction are less certain than it is.

Pundit: For many high school graduates, attending a university would be of no help in getting a corporate job. The attributes corporations value most in potential employees are initiative, flexibility, and the ability to solve practical problems. Many new high school graduates have these attributes already. The pundit's argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

fails to establish that university graduates do not have initiative, flexibility, and the ability to solve practical problems overlooks the possibility that corporations may require an attribute that potential employees can obtain only by attending a university provides no justification for the presumption that corporations only hire employees who have initiative, flexibility, and the ability to solve practical problems takes for granted that the only reason that high school graduates go on to attend university is to improve their job prospects takes for granted that initiative, flexibility, and the ability to solve practical problems are attributes that can be acquired through study

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Archaeologist: Neanderthals, a human-like species living 60,000 years ago, probably preserved meat by smoking it. Burnt lichen and grass have been found in many Neanderthal fireplaces. A fire of lichen and grass produces a lot of smoke but does not produce nearly as much heat or light as a wood fire. Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the archaeologist's argument? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

20.

In close proximity to the fireplaces with lichen and grass are other fireplaces that, evidence suggests, burned material that produced more heat than smoke. In the region containing the Neanderthal fireplaces in which lichen and grass were burnt, no plants that could be burned more effectively to produce heat or light were available 60,000 years ago. Some of the fireplaces containing burnt lichen are in regions in which lichen is not believed to have been plentiful and so would have had to have been brought in from some distance. There is clear evidence that at least some groups of Neanderthals living more recently than 60,000 years ago developed methods of preserving meat other than smoking it. The ability to preserve meat through smoking would have made the Neanderthal humans less vulnerable to poor periods of hunting.

Edgar: Some of the pumps supplying water to our region have been ordered shut down in order to protect a species of small fish. But it is absurd to inconvenience thousands of people for the sake of something so inconsequential. Rafaela: You're missing the point. The threat to that fish species is a sign of a very serious threat to our water supply. The dialogue provides the most support for the claim that Edgar and Rafaela disagree over whether (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

shutting down the pumps will actually inconvenience a large number of people the survival of the fish species is the only reason for shutting down the pumps species of small fish are inconsequential the order to shut down the pumps was legal shutting down the pumps will be sufficient to protect the fish species

0

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21. Only engineering is capable of analyzing the nature of a machine in terms of the successful working of the whole; physics and chemistry determine the material conditions necessary for this success, but cannot express the notion of purpose. Similarly, only physiology can analyze the nature of an organism in terms of organs' roles in the body's healthy functioning. Physics and chemistry cannot ascertain by themselves any of these operational principles. Which one of the following is an assumption required by the analogy? (A) (B)

(C)

(D) (E)

The functioning of the human organism is machine-like in nature. Physics and chemistry determine the material conditions required for good physiological functioning. The notion of purpose used by engineers to judge the success of machinery has an analog in organisms. Physiology as a science is largely independent of physics and chemistry. Biological processes are irreducible to mechanical or chemical processes.

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22. After a hepadnavirus inserts itself into a chromosome of an animal, fragments of the virus are passed on to all of that animal's descendants. A hepadnavirus fragment is present in a chromosome of the zebra finch and in precisely the same location in a corresponding chromosome of the dark-eyed junco. The fact that these two bird species diverged from each other about 25 million years ago therefore means that the hepadnavirus is at least 25 million years old. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Viruses can affect the evolution of an organism and can thereby influence the likelihood of their diverging into two species. The chromosomes of the zebra finch and the dark-eyed junco contain fragments of no virus other than the hepadnavirus. When a virus inserts itself into an animal's chromosome, the insertion occurs at a random spot. Many bird species other than the zebra finch and the dark-eyed junco contain fragments of the hepadnavirus. The presence of a hepadnavirus in an animal species does not affect the likelihood of that species' survival.

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23. The diet of Heliothis subjlexa caterpillars consists entirely of fruit from plants of the genus Physalis. These fruit do not contain linolenic acid, which is necessary to the growth and maturation of many insects other than H. subflexa. Linolenic acid in an insect's diet is also necessary for the production of a chemical called volicitin. While most caterpillar species have volicitin in their saliva, H. subjlexa does not. Which one of the following can be properly inferred from the statements above? (A) (B) (C)

(D) (E)

H. subjlexa caterpillars synthesize linolenic acid within their bodies. Most species of caterpillar have sources of linolenic acid in their diets. Any caterpillar that has linolenic acid in its diet has volicitin in its saliva. A food source containing linolenic acid would be poisonous to H. subflexa caterpillars. No caterpillars other than H. subjlexa eat fruit from plants of the genus Physalis.

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Politician: Democracy requires that there be no restrictions on the ability of citizens to share their ideas freely, without fear of reprisal. Therefore the right to have private conversations, unmonitored by the government, is essential to democracy. For a government to monitor conversations on the Internet would thus be a setback for democracy.

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Which one of the following is most strongly supported by the information above? (A)

It is a claim for which no support is provided, and which is used to support only the argument's main conclusion. It is a claim for which no support is provided, and which is used to support a claim that is itself used to support the argument's main conclusion. It is a claim for which support is provided, and which is in tum used to support the argument's main conclusion. It is the argument's main conclusion and is inferred from two other statements in the argument, one of which is used to support the other. It is the argument's main conclusion and is inferred from two other statements in the argument, neither of which is used to support the other.

s

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25. One way to compare chess-playing programs is to compare how they perform with fixed time limits per move. Given any two computers with which a chess-playing program is compatible, and given fixed time limits per move, such a program will have a better chance of winning on the faster computer. This is simply because the program will be able to examine more possible moves in the time allotted per move.

Which one of the following most accurately describes the role played in the argument by the claim that democracy depends on the ability of citizens to share their ideas freely, without fear of reprisal? (A)

0

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

T 0

If one chess-playing program can examine more

possible moves than a different chess-playing program run on the same computer under the same time constraints per move, the former program will have a better chance of winning than the latter. How fast a given computer is has no effect on which chess-playing computer programs can run on that computer. In general, the more moves a given chess-playing program is able to examine under given time constraints per move, the better the chances that program will win. If two different chess-playing programs are running on two different computers under the same time constraints per move, the program running on the faster computer will be able to examine more possible moves in the time allotted. If a chess-playing program is run on two different computers and is allotted more time to examine possible moves when running on the slow computer than when running on the fast computer, it will have an equal chance of winning on either computer.

p

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

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Acknowledgment is made to the following sources from which material has been adapted for use in this test booklet: Paul Clerkin and Beth Mclendon, "Eileen Gray" in Irish Architecture Online. ©1997 by Archeire. Paul Davies, John G. Robb, and Dave Ladbrook, "Woodland Clearance in the Mesolithic: The Social Aspects" in

Antiquity. ©2005 by Antiquity Publications, Ltd. David Lewis, Letter in The Law of Non-Contradiction. Graham Priest, J.C. Beall, and Bradley Armour-Garb, eds. ©2004 by Oxford University Press. Sandra Prior, "Does Muscle Memory Occur?" in EzineArticles.com ~ ©2007 by EzineArticles.com. http:// ezi nea rticles.com/?Does-M uscl e-Memo ry-Occu r? &id= 759493. Tina Hesman Saey, "Muscles Can Remember Past Glory" in ScienceNews. ©2010 by Society for Science & the Public.

Wait for the supervisor's instructions before you open the page to the topic. Please print and sign your name and write the date in the designated spaces below.

Time: 35 Minutes General Directions You will have 35 minutes in which to plan and write an essay on the topic inside. Read the topic and the accompanying directions carefully. You will probably find it best to spend a few minutes considering the topic and organizing your thoughts before you begin writing. In your essay, be sure to develop your ideas fully, leaving time, if possible, to review what you have written. Do not write on a topic other than the one specified. Writing on a topic of your own choice is not acceptable. No special knowledge is required or expected for this writing exercise. Law schools are interested in the reasoning, clarity, organization, language usage, and writing mechanics displayed in your essay. How well you write is more important than how much you write . Confine your essay to the blocked, lined area on the front and back of the separate Writing Sample Response Sheet. Only that area will be reproduced for law schools. Be sure that your writing is legible.

Both this topic sheet and your response sheet must be turned in to the testing staff before you leave the room.

Topic Code

Print Your Full Name Here

Last

133273

LSAC ®

Date

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First

Sign Your Name Here

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11

M.I.

LSAT® Writing Sample Topic ©2016 by Law School Admission Council, Inc. All rights reserved.

Directions: The scenario presented below describes two choices, either one of which can be supported on the basis of the information given. Your essay should consider both choices and argue for one over the other, based on the two specified criteria and the facts provided. There is no "right" or "wrong" choice: a reasonable argument can be made for either.

Stonewall Construction is deciding which of two upcoming construction projects to bid on-resurfacing Hilltop Road or expanding Carlene Boulevard. Since Stonewall cannot fulfill both contracts at the same time and bids constitute binding commitments, Stonewall can only bid on one of them. Using the facts below, write an essay in which you argue for bidding on one project over the other based on the following two criteria: • Stonewall wants to enhance its reputation among potential clients. • Stonewall wants to increase its capacity to take on bigger projects. The Hilltop Road resurfacing is a small project. The potential profit is relatively low. With Stonewall's experience and resources, it is almost certain to win the contract, and it is highly likely to finish on time and within budget. Stonewall has an established reputation for finishing projects on time and within budget. Stonewall has specialized in small projects. Construction firms specializing in small projects find it increasingly difficult over time to win contracts for bigger projects. If the project is completed under budget, Stonewall will keep the extra money. If it is over budget, Stonewall must cover the additional costs. Stonewall will use any extra money to purchase additional heavy equipment. The Carlene Boulevard expansion is a large project. The potential profit is much higher. It involves kinds of work Stonewall has not done before and would require it to expand its operation. Because of the overall nature of this project Stonewall believes it has a good chance of winning the contract. It is uncertain whether Stonewall can finish the project on time and within budget. Even if Stonewall exceeds time and budget constraints, it will gain valuable experience. If the project goes over budget, Stonewall will lose money.

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--NAME LAST I (Print) .__.___._____._

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COMPUTING YOUR SCORE Directions: 1. Use the Answer Key on the next page to check your answers. 2. Use the Scoring Worksheet below to compute your raw score. 3. Use the Score Conversion Chart t o co nvert your raw score into the 120-180 scale.

Scoring Worksheet 1. Enter the number of questions you answered correctly in each section.

Number Correct

SECTION SECTION SECTION SECTION

1... .... .. ....... . 11. ............ .. . 111 ........ ...... . IV ............. .

2. Enter the sum here:

This is your Raw Score.

Conversion Chart For Converting Raw Score to the 120-180 LSAT Scaled Score LSAT Form 6LSN120 Reported Score

180 179 178 177 176 175 174 173 172 171 170 169 168 167 166 165 164 163 162 161 160 159 158 157 156 155 154 153 152 151 150 149 148 147 146 145 144 143 142 141 140 139 138 137 136 135 134 133 132 131 130 129 128 127 126 125 124 123 122 121 120

Raw Score Lowest

Highest

99 98 97 96 * 95 94 93

101 98 97 96 * 95 94 93 92 91 90 88 87 86 84 83 82 80 78

92

91 89 88 87 85 84 83 81 79 78 76 74 72

71 69 67 65 63 61 59 58

56 54

52

so

49 47 45 44 42 41 39 38 36 35 33 32 31 29 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 * 0

77

75 73 71 70 68 66 64

62 60 58 57 55 53 51 49 48 46

44 43 41 40 38 37 35 34 32 31 30 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 * 17

*There is no raw sco re that will produce this scaled score for this form .

ANSWER KEY SECTION I 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

c E D D B B

A

8. 9. 10. 11 . 12. 13. 14.

E B

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21 .

c c

A E E

A B

c A D D E

22. E 23. D 24. B 25. A 26. E

SECTION II 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

c B

A

c

D D E

8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

B E E

c

A B

c

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21 .

B B E D D

A A

22. E 23. B 24. c 25. E 26. A 27 . c

SECTION Ill 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

B

c

A B D E

c

8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

D D E B

A A B

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

A

c

22. 23.

c

22. 23. 24. 25.

c

c

D D E

A

c

SECTION IV 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

D

A D

A D B D

8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

B

A A E E

c

D

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

A D

A B B B

c

B B

c