Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology [11th ed.] 9780134396026

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 1 An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology Multiple Choice Questions 1) Anatomy is to ________ as physiology is to ________. A) function; form B) form; structure C) structure; function D) structure; form E) growth; form Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) The analysis of the internal structure of individual cells is called A) cytology. B) histology. C) embryology. D) physiology. E) anatomy. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) The study of the general form and superficial markings of an organism is called ________ anatomy. A) gross B) surface C) systemic D) regional E) surgical Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Anatomical features that change during illness are studied in ________ anatomy. A) gross B) surface C) microscopic D) pathological E) regional Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) The study of the first two months of development is termed A) histology. B) embryology. C) cytology. D) pathology. E) organology. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) The study of the function of specific organ systems is called A) systemic physiology. B) organ physiology. C) cell physiology. D) pathological physiology. E) histology. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) Cardiovascular function is an example of A) histophysiology. B) organ physiology. C) systemic physiology. D) pathological physiology. E) physiological chemistry. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) The study of the liver is to gross anatomy as the study of a liver cell is to A) physiology. B) regional anatomy. C) cytology. D) systemic anatomy. E) radiographic anatomy. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) Identify the branch of biological science that studies the external and internal structure of the body and the physical relationship among body parts. A) genetics B) physiology C) embryology D) anatomy E) cytology Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) Identify the branch of biological science that deals with the study of how living organisms perform their vital functions. A) genetics B) physiology C) embryology D) anatomy E) cytology Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) The study of the changes in form that occur between conception and physical maturity is called ________ anatomy. A) developmental B) clinical C) systemic D) embryological E) physiological Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) The study of the anatomical organization of specific areas of the body is called ________ anatomy. A) gross B) surface C) systemic D) regional E) clinical Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) The study of the relationships of the body's structures by examining cross sections of tissues or organs is called ________ anatomy. A) gross B) surface C) systemic D) regional E) sectional Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) Which of the following is arranged in correct order from the most complex to the simplest? A) cellular, tissue, molecular, system, organ, organism B) molecular, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism C) tissue, cellular, molecular, organ, system, organism D) organ, organism, molecular, cellular, tissue, system E) organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, molecular Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 15) Which organ system provides support, protection of soft tissue, mineral storage, and blood formation? A) integumentary B) muscular C) skeletal D) nervous E) endocrine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Which organ system transports nutrients, metabolic wastes, gases, and defense cells? A) cardiovascular B) digestive C) muscular D) respiratory E) urinary Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) Which organ system includes the spleen and the tonsils? A) digestive B) endocrine C) nervous D) cardiovascular E) lymphatic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) The kidneys and ureters are organs of the ________ system. A) endocrine B) digestive C) respiratory D) urinary E) lymphatic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) The pituitary gland and thyroid gland are organs of the ________ system. A) endocrine B) cardiovascular C) respiratory D) lymphatic E) digestive Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) Which organ system removes carbon dioxide from the bloodstream? A) cardiovascular B) lymphatic C) respiratory D) digestive E) endocrine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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21) Lungs are to the respiratory system as the liver is to the ________ system. A) lymphatic B) urinary C) digestive D) cardiovascular E) nervous Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 22) Skin, hair, and nails are associated with the ________ system. A) skeletal B) muscular C) integumentary D) endocrine E) immune Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) A chemical imbalance in the body can cause the heart to stop pumping blood, which in turn will cause other tissues and organs to cease functioning. This observation supports the view that A) all organisms are composed of cells. B) all levels of organization within an organism are interdependent. C) chemical molecules make up cells. D) blood has magical properties. E) congenital defects can be life-threatening. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 24) In general, the nervous system does each of the following except A) help to maintain homeostasis. B) respond rapidly to change. C) direct long-term responses to change. D) direct very specific responses. E) interpret sensory information. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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25) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system? A) releases chemical messengers called hormones B) produces a more rapid response than the nervous system C) produces effects that last for days or longer D) produces an effect that involves several organs or tissues at the same time E) important homeostatic system Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 26) Systemic physiology is A) the study of the effects of diseases on system functions. B) the study of the function of specific organs. C) the study of the functional chemistry of cells. D) the study of all aspects of the functioning of specific organs systems. E) the study of functions of the whole human body. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) Anatomy uses a special language, called ________ terminology, which involves the use of word roots, prefixes, suffixes, and combining forms to construct terms related to the body in health and disease. A) clinical B) pathological C) medical D) anatomical E) surgical Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) ________ serves as a worldwide official standard of anatomical vocabulary. A) Gray's Anatomy B) Terminologia Anatomica C) Hippocratic Corpus D) Anatomia Inteligencia E) De Materia Medica Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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29) Many medical terms are rooted in A) Latin. B) German. C) Greek. D) Phoenician. E) Greek or Latin. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) The quadrants of the abdominopelvic region include all of the following except A) right upper quadrant (RUQ). B) right lower quadrant (RLQ). C) left upper quadrant (LUQ). D) left lower quadrant (LLQ). E) pelvic quadrant. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) Which of the following is not considered an abdominopelvic region? A) right hypochondriac B) right inguinal region C) left lumbar D) left hypochondriac E) upper Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 32) A person who is standing facing forward with hands at the sides and palms facing forward is in the ________ position. A) supine B) prone C) anatomical D) frontal E) sagittal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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33) An anatomical term that means the same as ventral is A) posterior. B) inferior. C) abdominal. D) anterior. E) superior. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) The heart is ________ to the lungs. A) lateral B) medial C) posterior D) proximal E) distal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 35) The wrist is ________ to the elbow. A) proximal B) distal C) lateral D) medial E) horizontal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 36) The chin is ________ to the nose. A) anterior B) superior C) posterior D) inferior E) medial Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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37) Which of the following regions corresponds to the buttocks? A) pelvic B) cephalic C) gluteal D) lumbar E) thoracic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) Which of the following terms refers to the foot? A) cervical B) brachial C) antebrachial D) femoral E) pedal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) Which plane divides the body into right and left parts? A) proximal B) frontal C) orthogonal D) transverse E) sagittal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) A midsagittal section of the body would pass through the A) kidney. B) lung. C) heart. D) spleen. E) leg. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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41) The plane that separates the abdominal and the pelvic cavities is A) the mediastinum. B) sagittal on the brachium. C) transverse at the hips. D) midsagittal on the trunk. E) superior to the thorax. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) Terms of anatomical direction are used to describe A) one body part in relation to another. B) surgical procedures. C) a supine position. D) the nervous system. E) living matter. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 43) While standing erect, the direction of caudal is A) toward the head. B) toward the heel. C) lateral to the trunk. D) medial to the sides. E) posterior to the head. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 44) While standing in the anatomical position, A) front refers to anterior. B) front refers to ventral. C) back refers to posterior. D) back refers to dorsal. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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45) The liver is primarily located in the ________ quadrant. A) right upper B) left upper C) right lower D) left lower E) hepatic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 46) The urinary bladder is found in the ________ quadrant and the ________ quadrant. A) right upper; right lower B) left upper; left lower C) left upper; right upper D) right lower; left lower Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 47) A person lying face down is in the ________ position. A) anatomical B) prone C) supine D) ventral E) prostrate Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) A person lying on the bed and gazing at the ceiling is in the ________ position. A) prone B) supine C) anatomical D) dorsal E) caudal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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49) The common term for the buccal region is the A) back. B) waist. C) breast. D) cheeks. E) buttocks. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) The common term for the carpal region is the A) wrist. B) fingers. C) ankle. D) shin. E) chest. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) The common name for the pollex is the A) ear lobe. B) belly. C) big toe. D) hand. E) thumb. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) The common name for the patella is the A) forehead. B) knee. C) heel. D) palm of the hand. E) chin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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53) A cut parallel to the midsagittal plane would produce a(n) ________ section. A) frontal B) transverse C) oblique D) parasagittal E) coronal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) The abdominopelvic region that is immediately superior to the umbilical region is the A) hypogastric region. B) left hypochondriac region. C) right inguinal region. D) epigastric region. E) left lumbar region. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) The abdominopelvic region that is immediately superior to the hypogastric region is the A) umbilical region. B) left hypochondriac region. C) right inguinal region. D) epigastric region. E) left lumbar region. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) The diaphragm muscle separates the ________ from the ________. A) pleural cavity; mediastinum B) thoracic cavity; abdominopelvic cavity C) pericardial cavity; pleural cavity D) abdominal cavity; pelvic cavity E) pericardial sac; pericardial cavity Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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57) The thoracic cavity contains the A) coelom. B) pericardial cavity. C) pelvic cavity. D) pleural cavities. E) pericardial and pleural cavities. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) The serous membrane covering the stomach and most of the intestines is called the A) pericardium. B) peritoneum. C) pleura. D) mediastinum. E) abdomen. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) Which of the following organs is described as retroperitoneal? A) stomach B) kidney C) urinary bladder D) large intestine E) spleen Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) The right pleural cavity contains A) the heart. B) the trachea. C) the left lung. D) the right lung. E) both lungs. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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61) Visceral pericardium is located A) on the heart itself. B) lining the pleural cavity. C) lining the pericardial cavity. D) on the lung itself. E) lining the peritoneal cavity. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) The mediastinum A) contains the pleural cavities. B) separates the pleural cavities. C) contains the pericardial cavity. D) contains the pleural cavities and pericardial cavity. E) separates the pleural cavities and includes the pericardial cavity. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) Identify the structure located within the mediastinum. A) pericardial cavity B) small intestine C) lung D) spleen E) stomach Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) Which of the following imaging techniques is used to monitor blood flow through specific organs, such as the brain, heart, lungs, and kidneys? A) PET scan B) ultrasound C) digital subtraction angiography D) MRI E) CT scan Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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65) The ________ is the membrane that covers the internal organs. A) parietal serosa B) visceral serosa C) mucous membrane D) cutaneous membrane E) serous membrane Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) The ________ is the membrane that covers the inner surface of cavity walls. A) parietal serosa B) visceral serosa C) mucous membrane D) cutaneous membrane E) serous membrane Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) Which of the following imaging techniques causes particles within atoms to line up in uniform direction allowing the imaging of soft tissue? A) PET scan B) ultrasound C) digital subtraction angiography D) MRI E) CT scan Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 68) The imaging technique that assesses metabolic and physiological activity of a structure is called a A) PET scan. B) ultrasound. C) digital subtraction angiography. D) MRI. E) CT scan. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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69) The imaging technique that builds an image by using sound waves reflected by internal structures is called a A) PET scan. B) ultrasound. C) digital subtraction angiography. D) MRI. E) CT scan. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 70) The central principle of physiology is A) nutrition. B) reflexes. C) homeostasis. D) stimulation. E) temperature regulation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) The maintenance of a relatively constant internal environment in an organism is termed A) positive feedback. B) homeostasis. C) negative feedback. D) effector control. E) integration. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) The tendency for physiological systems to stabilize internal conditions is called A) self-regulation. B) homeostasis. C) equilibriosis. D) hemopoiesis. E) amplification. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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73) Homeostatic regulation usually involves a(n) ________ that detects a particular stimulus, and a(n) ________ that responds to the stimulus by communicating with a(n) ________ whose activity has an effect on the same stimulus. A) control center; effector; receptor B) receiver; communicator; effector C) receptor; control center; effector D) effector; receiver; communicator E) control center; receiver; effector Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 74) ________ results from the activities of the nervous or endocrine system. A) Self-regulation B) Automatic regulation C) Intrinsic regulation D) Extrinsic regulation E) Autoregulation Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) The process that occurs when a cell, tissue, organ, or organ system adjusts in response to some environmental change is A) negative feedback. B) positive feedback. C) homeostatic equilibrium. D) dynamic equilibrium. E) autoregulation. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) When body temperature rises, a center in the brain initiates physiological changes to decrease the body temperature. This is an example of A) negative feedback. B) positive feedback. C) nonhomeostatic regulation. D) diagnostic regulation. E) fever. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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77) A cell or an organ that responds to commands of the control center in negative feedback is termed a(n) A) receptor. B) thermoregulator. C) hypothalamus. D) effector. E) stimulus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) This type of feedback exaggerates the effects of variations from normal. A) negative B) positive C) neutral D) depressing E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) If a response decreases a disturbance, the control system is classified as a ________ feedback system. A) deficit B) negative C) neutral D) polarized E) positive Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 80) If a response increases a disturbance, the control system is classified as a ________ feedback system. A) deficit B) negative C) neutral D) polarized E) positive Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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81) An example of a receptor in a negative feedback loop controlling body temperature would be A) temperature sensors on the skin that detect a stimulus. B) sweat glands that increase secretion. C) regulatory centers that send commands to an effector. D) effectors that cause blood vessels to dilate. E) sweat glands that act like effectors. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 82) The integrating center for the negative feedback loop that regulates body temperature is the A) hypothalamus. B) skin. C) temperature sensor. D) positive feedback center. E) thermostat. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) Disease is an indicator of A) negative feedback. B) signs and symptoms. C) homeostatic failure. D) positive feedback. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 84) In ________ a stimulus produces a response that opposes or negates the original stimulus. A) negative feedback B) positive feedback C) homeostatic equilibrium D) dynamic equilibrium E) homeostasis Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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85) In ________ a stimulus produces a response that amplifies or enhances the original stimulus. A) negative feedback B) positive feedback C) homeostatic equilibrium D) dynamic equilibrium E) homeostasis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Are the following anatomical landmarks visible from the anterior or posterior view: dorsal, gluteal, calcaneal? (Figure 1-3) A) anterior B) posterior Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) In which abdominopelvic quadrant and region is the stomach predominantly found? (Figure 14) A) right upper quadrant and epigastric region B) left lower quadrant and umbilical region C) left upper quadrant and epigastric region D) right lower quadrant and umbilical region E) left lower quadrant and hypochondriac region Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Using directional references for a person in anatomical position, how would you describe the relationship of the hand compared to the elbow? To the groin? (Figure 1-5) A) proximal; medial B) proximal; posterior C) proximal; lateral D) distal; medial E) distal; lateral Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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4) Which plane separates the body into superior and inferior portions? Which plane separates the body into anterior and posterior portions? (Figure 1-6) A) transverse/horizontal; sagittal B) sagittal; transverse/horizontal C) frontal/coronal; sagittal D) transverse/horizontal; frontal/coronal E) frontal/coronal; transverse/horizontal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 5) If a person's body temperature gets too high, the body will respond by decreasing its temperature to restore homeostasis. What are some of the body's homeostatic responses to decrease body temperature? (Figure 1-9) A) blood vessels constrict, sweating increases B) blood vessels are not affected but sweating decreases C) blood vessels dilate, sweating increases D) shivering increases E) sweating decreases, shivering increases Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Essay Questions 1) What is homeostatic regulation, and what is its physiological importance? Answer: Homeostatic regulation refers to adjustments in physiological systems that are responsible for the preservation of a constant internal environment. This enables cells to maintain metabolism and the chemical environment that stabilizes the living state. Learning Outcome: 1-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 2) During exercise, blood flow to skeletal muscles increases. The initial response that increases blood flow is automatic and independent of the nervous and endocrine systems. Which type of homeostatic regulation is this? Why? Answer: The initial increase in blood flow to active muscles is an example of autoregulation. For example, when oxygen levels decline in a tissue, the cells release chemicals that dilate local blood vessels. This dilation increases the rate of blood flow and provides more oxygen to the region even before responses from the nervous or endocrine system take place. Autoregulation does not require the nervous or endocrine system. Learning Outcome: 1-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

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3) Name the organs found in the thoracic cavity. Answer: lungs, heart, trachea, esophagus, thymus, major blood vessels connected to the heart Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Name the two upper abdominal quadrants and list the organs that lie in each. Answer: right upper quadrant (RUQ): right lobe of liver, gallbladder, right kidney, portions of stomach, large and small intestines; left upper quadrant (LUQ): left lobe of liver, stomach, pancreas, left kidney, spleen, portions of large intestine Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 5) Explain what dynamic equilibrium is and how it affects homeostasis. Answer: Dynamic equilibrium is defined by a system that is capable of adapting and adjusting to changing conditions in order to maintain a normal range of values. In thermal regulation at equilibrium heat loss is equal to heat production. As circumstances changing and our bodies experience more muscle contraction we increase heat production. In order to maintain equilibrium the body must shed excess heat produced by the muscles so that heat loss and heat production are again equal or in equilibrium. Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 2 The Chemical Level of Organization Multiple Choice Questions 1) The smallest stable units of matter are A) atoms. B) molecules. C) protons. D) neutrons. E) electrons. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) The "atomic number" of an atom is determined by the number of ________ it has. A) electrons B) protons C) neutrons D) protons + neutrons E) protons + electrons Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) The "atomic weight" of an atom reflects the average number of A) protons. B) neutrons. C) electrons. D) protons + neutrons. E) protons + neutrons + electrons. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) One mole of any element has the same A) mass. B) weight. C) number of atoms. D) number of electrons. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) The nucleus of an atom consists of A) electrons. B) protons. C) neutrons. D) protons + neutrons. E) protons + electrons. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) Isotopes of an element differ in the number of A) protons in the nucleus. B) electrons in the nucleus. C) neutrons in the nucleus. D) electron clouds. E) electrons in energy shells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) The innermost electron shell in an atom holds up to ________ electrons. A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 E) 8 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 8) Radioisotopes have unstable A) ions. B) nuclei. C) isotopes. D) electron clouds. E) protons. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) By weight, which element is the most plentiful in the human body? A) sulfur B) sodium C) oxygen D) potassium E) carbon Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) Which of these lists contains only trace elements? A) sulfur, chlorine, oxygen B) selenium, hydrogen, calcium C) boron, oxygen, carbon D) silicon, fluorine, tin E) cobalt, calcium, sodium Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) Helium (HE) has an atomic number of 2. It is chemically stable because it A) is neutral in electrical charge. B) readily ionizes to react with other atoms. C) has a full outer electron shell. D) will form a covalent bond with another He atom. E) lacks electrons, thus the He atom is stable. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 12) Which element commonly has only a proton as its nucleus? A) helium B) neon C) argon D) hydrogen E) carbon Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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13) By weight, which element is the second most abundant in the human body? A) oxygen B) carbon C) hydrogen D) nitrogen E) calcium Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) In any given molecule, the sum of the atomic weights of its component atoms is called A) molecular mass. B) molecular weight. C) atomic mass. D) atomic weight. E) chemical mass. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) Given the following approximate values, calculate the molecular weight for NaCl. Atomic number for Na: 11, Atomic weight for Na: 23 g/mol, Atomic number for Cl: 17,Atomic weight for Cl: 35 g/mol, Boiling point for Cl: -34 °C A) 11 g/mol B) 28 g/mol C) 34 g/mol D) 40 g/mol E) 58 g/mol Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 16) If an isotope of oxygen has 8 protons, 10 neutrons, and 8 electrons, its mass number is A) 26. B) 16. C) 18. D) 8. E) 12. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

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17) If an element is composed of atoms with an atomic number of 6 and a mass number of 14, then a non-isotopic atom of this element contains A) 6 protons. B) 8 electrons. C) 8 neutrons. D) 6 protons and 8 electrons. E) 6 protons and 8 neurons. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 18) A(n) ________ is a pure substance composed of atoms of only one kind. A) element B) macromolecule C) ion D) isotope E) compound Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) The center of an atom is called the A) core. B) hub. C) middle point. D) nucleus. E) focus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) Electrons whirl around the center of the atom at high speed, forming a(n) A) spiral. B) figure 8. C) cylinder. D) electron cloud. E) helix. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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21) Electrons in an atom occupy an orderly series of electron shells or A) energy levels. B) electron clouds. C) energy circles. D) electron lanes. E) energy fields. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) The actual mass of an atom is known as its A) chemical weight. B) atomic weight. C) atomic mass. D) chemical mass. E) chemical force. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) Atoms of the same element whose nuclei contain the same number of protons, but different numbers of neutrons, are called A) isotonics. B) heterotopes. C) isotopes. D) homotopes. E) heterotonics. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) The ________ of a radioactive substance is the time required for 50 percent of a given amount of radioisotope to decay. A) decay-point B) mid-life C) deterioration point D) half-life E) entropy Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) The molecule NO is known as A) nitric oxide. B) noxious oxide. C) noxious oxygen. D) nitric oxygen. E) nitrous oxide. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) The molecule CO2 is known as A) carbonized oxygen. B) carbonated oxygen. C) carbon monoxide. D) carbon oxide. E) carbon dioxide. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) The molecule H2 is known as A) hydrohydrogen. B) hydrogen. C) hydroxide. D) helium. E) semi-water. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 28) When electrons are transferred from one atom to another, and the two atoms unite as a result of the opposite charges, a(n) ________ is formed. A) ion B) molecule C) hydrogen bond D) ionic bond E) covalent bond Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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29) Magnesium atoms have two electrons in the outermost shell. As a result, you would expect magnesium to form ions with a charge of A) +1. B) +2. C) -1. D) -2. E) either +2 or -2. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 30) Which of the following statements about hydrogen bonds is false? A) Hydrogen bonds are strong attractive forces between hydrogen atoms and negatively charged atoms. B) Hydrogen bonds can occur within a single molecule. C) Hydrogen bonds can form between neighboring molecules. D) Hydrogen bonds are important for holding large molecules together. E) Hydrogen bonds are responsible for many of the properties of water. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 31) The molecule O2 is known as A) oxide. B) oxygen. C) organic. D) oxate. E) a salt. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) H2O is an example of a(n) A) ionic formula. B) glucose molecule. C) compound. D) ion. E) covalent formula. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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33) Which of the following is not a cation? A) Na+ B) ClC) K+ D) Ca2+ E) Mg2+ Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 34) A dust particle floating on a water surface illustrates A) surface tension. B) chemical tension. C) static electricity. D) heat capacity. E) hydrophilic attraction. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 35) In an aqueous solution, cations are attracted toward A) sodium. B) salt. C) buffers. D) anions. E) hydrogen ions. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) In an aqueous solution, sodium ions would move toward A) a negative terminal. B) a positive terminal. C) a pH terminal. D) an organic terminal. E) the bottom. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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37) The chemical behavior of an atom is determined by the A) number of protons. B) number of neutrons. C) outermost electron shell. D) size of the atom. E) mass of the nucleus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 38) Ions with a + charge are called A) cations. B) anions. C) radicals. D) positrons. E) isotopes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) When atoms complete their outer electron shell by sharing electrons, they form A) ionic bonds. B) covalent bonds. C) hydrogen bonds. D) anions. E) cations. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) Ionic bonds are formed when A) atoms share electrons. B) an electron or electrons are completely transferred from one atom to another. C) a pair of electrons is shared unequally by two atoms. D) hydrogen forms bonds with negatively charged atoms. E) two or more atoms lose electrons at the same time. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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41) If a pair of electrons is unequally shared between two atoms, a(n) ________ bond occurs. A) single covalent B) double covalent C) triple covalent D) polar covalent E) hydrogen Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) Elements that have atoms with full outer shells of electrons A) will form many compounds. B) will normally form anions. C) will normally form cations. D) frequently form hydrogen bonds. E) are inert gases. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) Ions in an ionic molecule are held together due to A) the sharing of electrons. B) the attraction of opposite electrical charges. C) each electron orbiting all of the ions in the molecule. D) the presence of water molecules. E) the attraction of similar charges of the ions' protons. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) Sodium (NA) has an atomic number of 11. How many electrons are in the outer electron shell of a neutral sodium atom? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 8 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

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45) Oxygen (atomic number 8) requires how many additional electrons to fill its outer electron shell? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 E) 8 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 46) The formula for methane gas is CH4. What does the formula 4CH4 represent? A) a molecule with 4 carbon atoms B) a molecule with 4 carbon atoms and 16 hydrogen atoms C) 4 molecules, each containing a carbon and a hydrogen atom D) 4 molecules, each containing a carbon atom and 4 hydrogen atoms E) an inorganic compound with ionic bonds Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 47) In an ionic bond, the electron donor is the ________, whereas the electron acceptor is the ________. A) acid; base B) salt; ion C) anion; cation D) base; acid E) cation; anion Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) In a molecule of nitrogen, three pairs of electrons are shared by two nitrogen atoms. The type of bond that is formed is an example of a ________ bond. A) single trivalent B) double divalent C) triple covalent D) polar covalent E) hydrogen Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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49) In chemical notation, the symbol Ca2+ means A) two calcium atoms. B) a calcium ion that has lost two electrons. C) a calcium ion that has gained two protons. D) a calcium ion that has gained two electrons. E) a calcium ion that has lost two protons. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 50) Magnesium atoms have two electrons in the outermost shell and chlorine atoms have seven. The compound magnesium chloride would contain A) 1 magnesium and 1 chlorine. B) 1 magnesium and 2 chlorine. C) 2 magnesium and 1 chlorine. D) 2 magnesium and 7 chlorine. E) impossible to tell without more information Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 51) Ions with a negative charge are called A) cations. B) anions. C) radicals. D) positrons. E) isotopes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) The three familiar states of matter are solids, liquids, and A) globules. B) fibroids. C) gases. D) crystals. E) vapors. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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53) A molecule that has unpaired electrons is a(n) A) isotope. B) free radical. C) ion. D) triple bonded molecule. E) compound. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) Cumulative damage from reactive ________ is thought to be a major factor in aging. A) nitrogen B) double bonds C) isotopes D) free radicals E) helium Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) Oxygen, which forms naturally as two atoms, are bonded together with what type of bond? A) nonpolar covalent bond B) single covalent bond C) polar covalent bond D) ionic bond E) hydrogen bond Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 56) The electrostatic attraction between the slight positive charge of a hydrogen of one molecule and the slight negative charge of an oxygen, nitrogen, or fluorine of another molecule is called a(n) A) nonpolar covalent bond. B) single covalent bond. C) polar covalent bond. D) ionic bond. E) hydrogen bond. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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57) AB → A + B is to decomposition as A + B → AB is to A) exchange. B) synthesis. C) combustion. D) replacement. E) metabolism. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 58) The reaction A + B + energy → AB is an example of a(n) ________ reaction. A) exergonic B) endergonic C) equilibrium D) decomposition E) exchange Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 59) In hydrolysis reactions, compounds react with A) hydrogen, causing decomposition. B) glucose, causing decomposition. C) water, causing decomposition. D) carbon, causing decomposition. E) water, causing synthesis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) In dehydration synthesis reactions, compounds A) lose water molecules. B) gain water molecules. C) convert water molecules to hydrogen and oxygen. D) convert hydrogen and oxygen to water. E) gain electrons. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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61) Kinetic energy is stored as ________ energy when a spring is stretched or compressed. A) potential B) possible C) plausible D) probable E) positive Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 62) Stored energy that has the ability to do work is called A) kinetic energy. B) heat energy. C) light energy. D) potential energy. E) dark energy. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 63) The energy of motion is A) kinetic energy. B) heat energy. C) light energy. D) potential energy. E) dark energy. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) Collectively, reactions that break down molecules are known as A) anabolism. B) metabolism. C) synthesis reactions. D) exchange reactions. E) catabolism. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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65) Collectively, reactions that build new molecules are known as A) anabolic. B) metabolic. C) synthetic reactions. D) exchange reactions. E) catabolic. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) The reaction HCl → H+ + Cl- is what type of reaction? A) decomposition B) exchange C) hydrolysis D) synthesis E) reversible Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 67) The reaction H2CO3 ↔ H+ + HCO3 is what type of reaction? A) decomposition B) exchange C) hydrolysis D) synthesis E) reversible Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 68) The reaction HCl + NaOH → H2O + NaCl is what type of reaction? A) decomposition B) exchange C) hydrolysis D) synthesis E) reversible Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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69) Chemical reactions that yield energy, such as heat, are said to be A) endergonic. B) activated. C) exergonic. D) neutral. E) thermonuclear. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) Which of the following descriptors is false regarding enzymes? A) They are proteins. B) They function as biological catalysts. C) They lower the activation energy required for a reaction. D) They affect only the rate of a chemical reaction. E) They are consumed during the reaction. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 71) Chemical reactions that absorb energy are called A) exergonic. B) endergonic. C) equilibrial. D) decomposition. E) exchange. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) Chemical reactions that occur in the body are accelerated by A) vitamins. B) cofactors. C) hormones. D) electrons. E) enzymes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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73) In living cells, complex metabolic reactions proceed in a series of steps called A) maneuvers. B) degrees. C) pathways. D) increments. E) cascades. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 74) Activation energy is A) the energy of motion. B) stored energy. C) the same as heat energy. D) the energy in chemical bonds. E) the energy needed to start a reaction. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) Each of the following is an inorganic compound except A) water. B) acids. C) bases. D) salts. E) carbohydrates. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 76) Which of the following is both an anion and a compound? A) Na+ B) ClC) K+ D) HCO3E) NaCl Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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77) Compounds that contain carbon as the primary structural atom are called ________ molecules. A) carbonic B) organic C) inorganic D) catabolic E) anabolic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) Compounds that do not usually contain carbon and hydrogen atoms as the primary structural ingredients are called ________ molecules. A) non-carbonic B) organic C) hydro-carbonic D) metabolic E) inorganic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) Nonpolar organic molecules are good examples of A) electrolytes. B) molecules that will dissociate when placed into water. C) hydrophobic compounds. D) hydrophilic compounds. E) solutes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 80) During ionization, water molecules disrupt the ionic bonds of a salt to produce a mixture of ions. These ions can carry a current and so are called A) cations. B) anions. C) acids. D) electrolytes. E) counterions. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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81) Oppositely charged ions in solution are prevented from combining by A) heat capacity of water. B) hydration spheres. C) water's nonpolar nature. D) free radicals. E) hydrogen bonding. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) Hydrophilic molecules readily associate with A) lipid molecules. B) hydrophobic molecules. C) water molecules. D) acids. E) salts. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) Which of the following statements about water is false? A) It is composed of polar molecules. B) It is responsible for much of the mass of the human body. C) It has a relatively low heat capacity. D) It can dissolve many substances. E) It contains hydrogen bonds. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 84) Which property of water helps keeps body temperature stabilized? A) kinetic energy B) lubrication C) surface tension D) reactivity E) thermal inertia Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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85) Soluble inorganic compounds whose solutions will conduct an electric current are called A) electrolytes. B) ions. C) isotopes. D) free radicals. E) metabolites. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) A(n) ________ is a homogeneous mixture containing a solvent and a solute. A) emulsion B) blend C) compound D) infusion E) solution Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) Molecules that do not readily interact with water are called A) inert. B) stable. C) hydrophobic. D) unstable. E) hydrophilic. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) Muddy lake water is an example of a(n) A) colloid. B) suspension. C) solute. D) solvent. E) solution. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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89) Water has the ability to dissolve polar covalent molecules like sucrose by A) forming hydration spheres around the molecule. B) pulling atoms out of the molecule and into solution. C) creating crystals of positively and negatively charged atoms. D) taking electrons from the polar covalent molecule. E) ionization. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 90) Which of the following has the highest concentration of hydroxide ions? A) pH 1 B) pH 14 C) pH 7 D) pH 10 E) pH 2 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 91) Which pH is closest to normal body pH? A) pH 7 B) pH 8 C) pH 4 D) pH 3 E) pH 2 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) An excess of hydrogen ions in the body fluids can have fatal results because this can A) break chemical bonds. B) change the shape of proteins, rendering them nonfunctional. C) disrupt tissue functions. D) change body fluid pH. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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93) A solution containing equal numbers of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions is A) acidic. B) basic. C) neutral. D) alkaline. E) in equilibrium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 94) The chemical notation that indicates concentration is represented as A) (). B) . C) [ ]. D) {}. E) ||. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) If a substance has a pH that is greater than 7, it is A) neutral. B) acidic. C) alkaline. D) a buffer. E) a salt. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) An important buffer in body fluids is A) NaCl. B) NaOH. C) HCl. D) NaHCO3. E) H2O. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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97) Which of the following substances would be most acidic? A) lemon juice, pH = 2 B) urine, pH = 6 C) tomato juice, pH = 4 D) white wine, pH = 3 E) stomach secretions, pH = 1 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 98) Of the following choices, the pH of the least acidic solution is A) 6.0. B) 4.5. C) 2.3. D) 1.0. E) 12.0. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 99) Which has the greater concentration of hydrogen ions, a substance with a pH of 5 or a substance with a pH of 4? A) A pH of 4 is greater. B) A pH of 5 is greater. C) They are both equal; 4 and 5 are relative values. D) pH 9, if you mixed the solutions. E) There is not enough information to determine the answer. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 100) The ________ of a solution is the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration expressed in moles per liter. A) charge B) pH C) solubility D) acidity E) basicity Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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101) What is the [H+] in pure water? A) 1X10-7 mol/L B) 1X10-14 mol/L C) 7 mol/L D) 1X107 mol/L E) 1X1014 mol/L Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 102) What is the pH of a solution with a [H+]=1X10-7 mol/L? A) 2 B) 7.4 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8.2 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 103) If the pH of the stomach is 2 what is the [H+]? A) 1X10-2 mol/L B) .2 mol/L C) 200 mol/L D) 2 mol/L E) .10 mol/L Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 104) A(n) ________ removes hydrogen ions and a(n) ________ releases hydrogen ions. A) acid; base B) base; acid C) compound; element D) element; compound E) molecule; acid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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105) In the body, inorganic compounds A) can serve as buffers. B) can make up proteins. C) are made from organic compounds. D) are structural components of cells. E) are metabolized for cellular energy. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 106) When placed in water, an inorganic compound dissociates 99 percent, forming hydrogen ions and anions. This compound would be a A) strong base. B) weak base. C) strong acid. D) weak acid. E) salt. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 107) When a small amount of HCl or NaOH is added to a solution of Na2HPO4, the pH of the solution barely changes. Based on these observations, all of the following are true concerning the compound Na2HPO4, except A) Na2HPO4 is able to accept extra hydrogen ions from the HCl. B) Na2HPO4 is able to donate hydrogen ions to the OH- from NaOH. C) Na2HPO4 adsorbs excess H+ and OH- directly onto the surface of its crystalline structure. D) Na2HPO4 is a salt formed from reacting a strong base with a weak acid. E) Na2HPO4 acts as a buffer. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 108) Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are classified as A) organic molecules. B) inorganic molecules. C) acids. D) salts. E) bases. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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109) A functional group is best described as reoccurring clusters of A) elements that occur in a salt and that can neither be hydrolyzed nor dehydrated. B) atoms that form the main reactive area for a particular compound. C) atoms that function in the body even if temperatures and pH reach extreme values. D) elements that form at high pH and who can successfully resist the action of buffers. E) amino acids in a globular protein such as hemoglobin, immunoglobulins, and albumins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 110) To bond two monomers together, a molecule of water must be ________ to/from monomers. This process is called ________. A) added; hydrolysis B) removed; dehydration synthesis C) removed; crenation D) added; denaturation E) added; ionization Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) Which of the following functional groups is the hydroxyl group? A) -NH2 B) -PO4 C) -COOH D) -SH E) -OH Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) Which of the following functional groups is the carboxyl group? A) -NH2 B) -PO4 C) -COOH D) -SH E) -OH Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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113) Which of the following functional groups is the phosphate group? A) -NH2 B) -PO4 C) -COOH D) -SH E) -OH Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 114) Fructose is A) a hexose. B) an isomer of glucose. C) found in male reproductive fluids. D) a carbohydrate. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) Molecules that have the same molecular formula but different structural formulas are called A) isotopes. B) isomers. C) isozymes. D) isotypes. E) isomoles. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) The most important metabolic fuel molecule in the body is A) sucrose. B) caffeine. C) protein. D) vitamins. E) glucose. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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117) A polysaccharide that is formed in liver and muscle cells to store glucose is A) lactose. B) cellulose. C) glycogen. D) sucrose. E) fructose. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 118) The group of organic compounds containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a near 1:2:1 ratio is defined as a A) carbohydrate. B) lipid. C) protein. D) nucleic acid. E) saturated fat. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) Carbohydrate molecules A) are the building blocks of cellular membranes. B) form the regulatory molecules known as enzymes. C) are the body's most readily available source of energy. D) are composed of C, H, O, and N atoms. E) contain the genetic information found in cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) When two monosaccharides undergo a dehydration synthesis, A) two new monosaccharides are formed. B) a disaccharide is formed. C) a polysaccharide is formed. D) a starch is formed. E) hydrolysis occurs. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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121) ________ is a type of indigestible polysaccharide. A) Glycogen B) Starch C) Cellulose D) Sucrose E) Galactose Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 122) Lipids A) form essential structural components of cells. B) provide a significant energy reserve. C) help to maintain body temperature. D) cushion organs against shocks. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 123) A fatty acid that contains two or more double covalent bonds is said to be A) saturated. B) monounsaturated. C) polyunsaturated. D) hydrogenated. E) carboxylated. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 124) Which of the following is/are needed to form a triglyceride molecule? A) 3 glycerol molecules B) 1 glycerol molecule C) 3 fatty acid molecules D) 3 glycerol molecules and 3 fatty acid molecules E) 3 fatty acid molecules and 1 glycerol molecule Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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125) A shortage of steroids in the body would result in a shortage of A) sex hormones. B) proteins. C) plasma membranes. D) glycogen. E) sex hormones and plasma membranes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 126) Lipids that are produced by nearly every tissue in the body and act as local regulators are the A) prostaglandins. B) steroids. C) monoglycerides. D) phospholipids. E) glycolipids. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 127) Cholesterol, phospholipids, and glycolipids are examples of A) dietary fats. B) prostaglandins. C) structural lipids. D) lipid drugs. E) steroids. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 128) A fatty acid with no double bonds between carbon atoms is A) unsaturated. B) polyunsaturated. C) dehydrated. D) saturated. E) denatured. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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129) Many lipids are composed of fatty acids and A) glycerol. B) amino acids. C) sugars. D) monosaccharides. E) polypeptides. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 130) All fatty acids contain a functional group at one end called the ________ acid group. A) linoleic B) ribonucleic C) hydroxyl D) glycosidic E) carboxylic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 131) Molecules with two fatty acid chains and a phosphate group that form biological membranes are called A) diglycerides. B) disaccharides. C) dipeptides. D) prostaglandins. E) phospholipids. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) In water, phospholipids tend to form tiny droplets with hydrophobic tails buried inside called A) micelles. B) chylomicrons. C) glycocalyces. D) eicosanoids. E) hydroceles. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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133) Which of the following is not a function of triglycerides? A) They are a reserve and important source of energy. B) They help insulate against heat loss in cold climates. C) They help protect organs by creating a cushion around the organ. D) They act as a reserve for lipid soluble vitamins. E) They act as a structural component of plasma membranes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 134) Which of the following is not a function of steroids? A) They are a significant energy reserve for the body. B) They are structural components of the plasm membrane. C) They are involved in regulation of sexual function. D) They regulate tissue metabolism and mineral balance. E) They are required for normal processing of dietary fats. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 135) Which of the following are functions of proteins? A) support B) defense C) metabolic regulation D) buffering E) All of these are functions of proteins. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 136) The monomers of protein are A) glucose. B) fatty acids. C) amino acids. D) nucleotides. E) nitrogen base. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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137) Substrate molecules bind to enzymes at the ________ sites. A) amino B) active C) carboxyl D) reactant E) neutral Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 138) The term ________ refers to certain amino acids, which can have both a positive charge and a negative charge. A) anion B) cation C) twinion D) zwitterion E) double ion Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 139) You would expect a peptide bond to link A) two simple sugars. B) two amino acids. C) two nucleotides. D) a sugar and a peptide. E) a peptide and a fatty acid. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 140) Each amino acid differs from another in the A) number of central carbon atoms. B) size of the amino group. C) number of carboxyl groups. D) nature of the side chain. E) number of peptide bonds in the molecule. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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141) A side chain on an amino acid is sometimes called A) fibrous or globular. B) a polypeptide chain. C) an R group. D) an isozyme. E) nucleic acid. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 142) The alpha-helix and beta sheet are examples of ________ protein structure. A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary E) pentanary Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 143) Interaction between individual polypeptide chains to form a protein complex is ________ structure. A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary E) pentagonal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 144) Glycoproteins and proteoglycans are combinations of amino acids and A) carbohydrates. B) fatty acids. C) lipids. D) nucleic acids. E) inorganic compounds. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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145) Which of the following is the symbol for an amino group? A) -COOH B) -PO3 C) -NH2 D) -AMO E) -OH Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 146) The maximum rate of an enzyme reaction A) occurs during dehydration. B) occurs during hydrolysis. C) occurs during synthesis. D) is reversible. E) occurs at the saturation limit. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 147) How would the lack of a cofactor for an enzyme affect that enzyme's function? A) The enzyme's function would not be altered. B) The enzyme would function more slowly. C) The enzyme would function more quickly. D) The enzyme would not be able to function. E) The enzyme would cease to function after reaching a maximum rate. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 148) Identify the correct statement regarding the process of denaturation. A) It is affected by low temperatures. B) It is unaffected by changes in pH. C) It is the loss of protein structure. D) It is an increase in enzyme activity. E) It results in decreased substrate availability. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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149) ________ structure results primarily from hydrophobic and hydrophilic interactions between the R-groups of the polypeptide chain and water. A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary E) Pentanary Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 150) In tertiary structure the ________ bond is formed between two cysteine amino acids. A) hydrophilic B) hydrophobic C) hydrogen D) ionic E) disulfide Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 151) Mucins are a type of ________ that absorb water to form mucus. A) glycolipid B) glycoprotein C) proteoglycan D) glyceride E) glycerol Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 152) Molecules that store and process genetic information are the A) proteins. B) nucleic acids. C) carbohydrates. D) lipids. E) steroids. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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153) An amino acid is to a protein as a ________ is to a nucleic acid. A) purine B) nucleotide C) protein D) proton E) neutron Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 154) A nucleotide consists of a A) five-carbon sugar and phosphate group. B) five-carbon sugar and a nitrogenous base. C) phosphate group and a nitrogenous base. D) five-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group. E) five-carbon sugar and an amino acid. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 155) According to the rules of complementary base pairing in nucleic acids, cytosine would pair with the base A) thymine. B) adenine. C) uracil. D) cytosine. E) guanine. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 156) Adenine and guanine are A) purines represented by T and C. B) pyrimidines represented by A and G. C) purines represented by A and G. D) pyrimidines represented by T and C. E) nucleotides represented by A and G. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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157) The structure of RNA differs from DNA in that A) the backbone of RNA contains ribose. B) RNA contains pyrimidines but not purines. C) RNA contains purines but not pyrimidines. D) DNA contains pyrimidines but not purines. E) DNA contains purines but not pyrimidines. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 158) The molecule DNA contains a five-carbon sugar called A) glucose. B) fructose. C) maltose. D) ribose. E) deoxyribose. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 159) The three structural components of a nucleotide are a pentose, a phosphate group, and a ________ base. A) nucleic B) hydrophilic C) hydrochloric D) nitrogenous E) sulfuric Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 160) The purines found in DNA are ________ and guanine. A) cytosine B) adenine C) thymine D) uracil E) niacin Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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161) The pyrimidine bases found in DNA are ________ and cytosine. A) cytosine B) adenine C) thymine D) uracil E) niacin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 162) The most abundant high-energy compound in cells is A) DNA. B) adenosine diphosphate. C) adenosine monophosphate. D) adenosine triphosphate. E) RNA. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 163) A high-energy bond in ATP is present between A) adenine and ribose. B) adenine and a phosphate group. C) the first and second phosphate group. D) the second and third phosphate group. E) phosphate groups 1 and 2 and between phosphate groups 2 and 3. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 164) The phosphorylation of adenosine forms A) ADP. B) ATP. C) AMP. D) 2ATP. E) ribose. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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165) Identify the product formed from the phosphorylation of ADP. A) adenosine diphosphate B) adenine C) adenosine triphosphate D) deoxyribonucleic acid E) ribose Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 166) AMP + P → A) ADP. B) 2ADP. C) DNA. D) ATP. E) adenine. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 167) A(n) ________ bond is a covalent bond that stores an unusually large amount of energy. A) forceful B) charged C) excitable D) power E) high-energy Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 168) In the process of ________ a phosphate group is transferred to a molecule. A) ionization B) buffering C) amination D) dissociation E) phosphorylation Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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169) The hydrolysis of ATP yields ADP, phosphate ion, and A) AMP. B) H2O. C) energy. D) adenosine. E) nuclease. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) How many electrons can the second energy level hold when it is completely filled? (Figure 23) A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 10 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Hydrogen bonds do not form between two hydrogen atoms. Where do hydrogen bonds form? (Figure 2-8) A) between the slight positive charge on the hydrogen atom and the slight negative charge on the oxygen atom B) between the slight negative charge on the hydrogen atom and the slight positive charge on the oxygen atom C) between the slight positive charge on the sodium atom and the slight negative charge on the chlorine atom D) between the slight negative charge on the sodium atom and the slight negative charge on the chlorine atom E) between two ions Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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3) Which number represents the greatest amount of energy that must be overcome during the reaction? Which number represents the lowest amount of reaction energy? (Figure 2-9) A) 1; 2 B) 1; 4 C) 4; 2 D) 2; 4 E) 4; 3 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 4) How many atoms are shown in each glucose structure? (Figure 2-12) A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 10 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 5) What type of bond does an unsaturated fatty acid contain that a saturated fatty acid does not? (Figure 2-15) A) at least 4 single covalent bonds B) at least one double covalent bond C) an ionic bond D) a hydrogen bond E) at least one triple covalent bond Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) What makes fatty acid 3 an unsaturated fatty acid? (Figure 2-17) A) the presence of only single covalent bonds B) the presence of a double covalent bond C) the presence of an ionic bond D) the presence of a hydrogen bond E) the presence of a triple covalent bond Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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7) What structural differences make adenine and guanine different from cytosine, thymine, and uracil? (Figure 2-24) A) Adenine and guanine have a phosphate group, while cytosine, thymine, and uracil do not. B) Adenine and guanine do not have a phosphate group, while cytosine, thymine, and uracil do. C) Adenine and guanine are double-ringed nitrogenous bases, while cytosine, thymine, and uracil are single-ringed. D) Adenine and guanine are single-ringed nitrogenous bases, while cytosine, thymine, and uracil are double-ringed. E) Adenine and guanine have ribose as the sugar, while cytosine, thymine, and uracil have deoxyribose. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) How many phosphorylations does AMP undergo to become ATP? (Figure 2-26) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Essay Questions 1) The element sulfur has an atomic number of 16 and mass number of 32. How many neutrons are in the nucleus of a sulfur atom? If sulfur forms covalent bonds with hydrogen, how many hydrogen atoms can bond to one sulfur atom? Answer: The number of neutrons in an atom is equal to the mass number minus the atomic number. Thus, sulfur has 32 - 16 = 16 neutrons. The atomic number indicates the number of protons, so a neutral sulfur atom contains 16 protons plus 16 electrons to balance the protons electrically. The electrons would be distributed as follows: 2 in the first electron shell, 8 in the second, and the remaining 6 in the third. To achieve a full 8 electrons in the third (outermost) electron shell, the sulfur atom can accept 2 electrons in an ionic bond or can share 2 electrons in a covalent bond. Because hydrogen atoms can share one electron in a covalent bond, the sulfur atom can form two covalent bonds with hydrogen, one with each of two hydrogen atoms. In chemical notation, this is H2S. Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 2) What role do buffer systems play in the human body? Answer: Buffer systems help maintain pH within normal limits by removing or replacing hydrogen ions as needed. Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 3) Blood has a very narrow normal pH range but urine has a very broad normal pH range. What does that indicate about the physiology of pH? Answer: Homeostasis requires that the pH of body fluids be maintained almost constant to avoid disruptions of healthy function. To accomplish this, the urinary system eliminates or retains hydrogen ion as needed. These actions cause the pH of urine to vary widely, depending on whether there is too much or not enough hydrogen ion in the body. Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 4) Explain the role of water molecules in polysaccharide formation. Answer: Water molecules are removed in the dehydration synthesis of polysaccharides. Learning Outcome: 2-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 5) How does the DNA molecule control the appearance and function of a cell? Answer: The DNA molecule controls the synthesis of enzymes and structural proteins. By controlling the synthesis of structural proteins, the DNA is able to influence the physical appearance of a cell. By controlling the production of enzymes, the DNA is able to control all aspects of cellular metabolism and thus control the activity and biological functions of the cell. Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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6) Explain three physiological benefits that are a result of the heat capacity of water. Answer: First, because water requires a large amount of heat to break the hydrogens bonds and vaporize the resulting benefit is that water is a liquid over a broad range of temperatures allowing physiological reactions to function. Second, because water absorbs a lot of heat before it vaporizes, as perspiration evaporates from the skin it takes with it a lot of heat thereby providing us with a mechanism for cooling. Third, because water requires a large amount of heat to change temperature, large bodies of water will change temperature slowly. This means that the water in the body will be slow to change overall and will provide a thermally stabilizing effect around which we can maintain our core body temperature. Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 3 The Cellular Level of Organization Multiple Choice Questions 1) What is an advantage of the electron microscope over the compound light microscope? A) It can function in complete darkness. B) It is older, more reliable technology. C) It is less expensive. D) It allows much greater magnification of a specimen. E) It is portable. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) The smallest living unit within the human body is A) a protein. B) a cell. C) a tissue. D) an organ. E) an organ system. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) The cell theory includes all of these concepts except A) each cell maintains homeostasis at the cellular level. B) cells are the smallest units that carry out the essential functions of life. C) cells are the building blocks of all organisms. D) all cells come from the division of preexisting cells. E) every cell is capable of living on its own if isolated from the body. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 4) The only kind of cell in the body that is not produced by the division of preexisting cells is A) a gamete (sperm or egg cell). B) a neuron (nerve cell). C) an osteocyte (bone cell). D) none, because every cell is produced by the division of another cell. E) a liver cell. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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5) What would be an example of a cell maintaining homeostasis at the cellular level? A) a cell of the intestine secretes digestive enzymes B) a muscle cell contracts C) a sperm fertilizes an egg D) a cell takes up potassium to maintain the proper cytoplasmic potassium concentration E) a cell divides to become two cells Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 6) Cytology is the study of A) biological macromolecules. B) causes and treatment of cancer. C) the origins of life on Earth. D) genes and their function. E) the structure and function of cells. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) ________ cells are all of the cells of the body except the reproductive cells (sperm and oocytes). A) Core B) Somatic C) Corpus D) Main E) Primary Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Most cells have only one A) nucleus. B) ribosome. C) peroxisome. D) lysosome. E) mitochondrion. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) The extracellular fluid in most tissues is called ________ fluid. A) interstitial B) cytosolic C) cytoplasmic D) outside E) peripheral Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) What is a structure that separates the contents of a human cell from its surrounding medium? A) cell wall B) tissue C) plasma membrane D) skin E) nucleus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) If a hole is torn in a cell's plasma membrane, the cell will die because A) it will not be able to maintain differences between the cytoplasm and extracellular fluid. B) germs are attracted toward cytoplasm leaking from a cell. C) it will not be able to undergo cell division. D) its chromosomes will not be held in place. E) cells can only make more plasma membrane during cell division. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 12) What is the first part of the cell that is affected when the pH of extracellular fluid changes? A) the nucleus B) the nucleolus C) the cytosol D) the plasma membrane E) the cytoskeleton Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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13) How is the plasma membrane involved in structural support of body tissues? A) It has specialized connections to other cells or extracellular materials. B) It primarily consists of fibrous proteins. C) It is inflated by cytoplasm at high pressure. D) Tissues are largely composed of empty plasma membranes left by dead cells. E) It is hydrophobic, so it repels extracellular fluid and attracts the membranes of other cells. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) Functions of the plasma membrane include all of the following except A) separation of the cytoplasm from the extracellular fluid. B) regulation of exchange of materials with the extracellular environment. C) sensitivity to chemical changes in the extracellular fluid. D) thermal insulation. E) structural support. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) Which of the following is not a function of membrane proteins? A) bind to ligands B) regulate the passage of ions C) act as carrier molecules for various solutes D) act as anchors or stabilizers for the cell membrane E) store cellular nutrients Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Most of the surface area of a plasma membrane consists of A) a protein bilayer. B) a phospholipid bilayer. C) carbohydrate molecules. D) DNA. E) cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) The tails of a phospholipid molecule in a plasma membrane are A) hydrophilic. B) composed of amino acids. C) hydrophobic. D) facing the cytosol. E) interlocked to provide membrane strength. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) The plasma membrane does not include A) integral proteins. B) glycolipids. C) phospholipids. D) cholesterol. E) silk mesh. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) Identify the role of cholesterol in the plasma membrane. A) enables ions to pass B) forms enzymes C) reduces membrane fluidity and permeability D) anchors the phospholipids E) provides energy Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 3-1 The Plasma membrane Use Figure 3-1 to answer the following questions. 20) What part of the plasma membrane is hydrophobic? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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21) Which structure is water most likely to pass through? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 8 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 22) Which structure has a "gate" to control transport? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 7 E) 8 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 23) Microfilaments are labeled A) 1. B) 2. C) 3. D) 5. E) 6. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) Membrane proteins perform all of the following functions except A) anchoring the cell to other structures. B) binding to extracellular ligands. C) transporting solutes across the membrane. D) catalyzing chemical reactions. E) metabolizing glucose to gain energy. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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25) Identify the mismatched pair. A) receptor proteins—bind to extracellular ligands B) channel proteins—provide passageway for ions C) recognition glycoproteins and glycolipids—identify the cell as "self" D) carrier proteins—allow a cell to move E) enzymes—speed up chemical reactions Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 26) Proteins of the plasma membrane carry out all of the following functions except A) binding to DNA to turn on genes. B) sending and receiving signals to and from other cells. C) transporting substances across the membrane. D) anchoring the cell to external structures. E) catalyzing chemical reactions at the inner or outer surface of the membrane. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 27) Receptor molecules on the surface of cells bind specific molecules called, in general, A) recognizers. B) binders. C) ligands. D) bonders. E) reactants. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) Water and small hydrophilic solutes A) may pass through the phospholipid bilayer of the plasma membrane. B) cannot pass through a plasma membrane. C) can dissolve holes in the plasma membrane. D) may pass through channels in the plasma membrane. E) do not mix with each other. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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29) The watery component of the cytoplasm is called A) cytosol. B) protoplasm. C) extracellular fluid. D) interstitial fluid. E) matrix. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) Which of the following descriptors regarding cytoplasm is false? A) contains less protein than extracellular fluid B) the material that fills a cell C) syrupy or gel-like consistency D) includes cytoskeleton E) includes cytosol Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) Many proteins in the cytosol are ________ that accelerate metabolic reactions. A) carbohydrates B) enzymes C) lipids D) messengers E) ions Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) Compared to the extracellular fluid, cytosol contains A) a higher concentration of potassium ions. B) a lower concentration of dissolved proteins. C) almost no glycogen. D) a higher concentration of amino acids. E) almost no lipids. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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33) The cytoplasm contains the fluid cytosol, insoluble inclusions, and the A) microvilli. B) nucleolus. C) enzymes. D) organelles. E) cilia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) Masses of insoluble material that are sometimes found in cytosol are known as A) colloids. B) emulsifiers. C) solutes. D) crystals. E) inclusions. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) The endoplasmic reticulum is an example of a(n) ________ organelle. A) filamentous B) extracellular C) interstitial D) membranous E) bound Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) ________ are compartments within the cell whose contents are isolated from the cytosol. A) Cytoskeleton B) Microvilli C) Nonmembranous organelles D) Membranous organelles E) Ribosomes Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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37) Each of the following is an example of a nonmembranous organelle except A) lysosomes. B) cilia. C) centrioles. D) ribosomes. E) cytoskeleton. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) Match the organelle (1-4) with the correct description (5-8). 1) mitochondrion 2) centriole 3) endoplasmic reticulum 4) cytosol

5) synthesizing molecules 6) liquid in cell 7) provides cell with energy 8) aids the formation of the spindle apparatus

A) 1 and 7, 2 and 6, 3 and 8, 4 and 5 B) 1 and 8, 2 and 5, 3 and 6, 4 and 7 C) 1 and 7, 2 and 8, 3 and 5, 4 and 6 D) 1 and 5, 2 and 6, 3 and 7, 4 and 8 E) 1 and 6, 2 and 8, 3 and 5, 4 and 7 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) Tubulin is to microtubules as actin is to A) ribosomes. B) microfilaments. C) intermediate filaments. D) flagella. E) microvilli. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 40) Microfilaments do not A) anchor the cytoskeleton to membrane proteins. B) help determine the consistency of cytoplasm. C) produce cell movement, with myosin. D) consist of the protein called actin. E) distribute chromosomes to opposite ends of a dividing cell. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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41) Microfilaments A) are usually composed of myosin. B) are hollow, filamentous structures. C) anchor the cytoskeleton to integral proteins of the cell membrane. D) interact with filaments composed of tubulin to produce muscle contractions. E) are found in the cytoplasm radiating away from the centrosome. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) Which of the following cytoskeleton components moves the chromosomes during cell division? A) microfilaments B) intermediate filaments C) thick filaments D) microtubules E) basal bodies Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) Which of following properties of microtubules is correct? A) made of myosin B) made of actin C) found only in the terminal web D) another term for microfilaments E) interact with dynein and kinesin Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) Which of following properties of the cytoskeleton is incorrect? A) supports organelles B) controls cell shape C) provides cell strength D) connects cells to each other E) moves organelles Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 3-2 The Anatomy of a Representative Cell Use Figure 3-2 to answer the following questions: 45) The structure labeled "1" permits the cell to A) attach to neighboring cells. B) produce more cells. C) increase its surface area for increased absorption. D) swim in extracellular fluid. E) trap bacteria. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 13 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

46) Which structure organizes the mitotic spindle during cell division? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 47) Synthesis of carbohydrates and lipids occurs in the structure labeled A) 4. B) 5. C) 6. D) 7. E) 8. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 48) Which organelle renews the cell membrane and modifies and packages proteins for secretion? A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 49) Which structure produces ATP for the cell? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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50) Microvilli are found on cells of the inner surface of the small intestine, where they A) slow the movement of food through the digestive tract. B) increase the absorption of nutrients from digested food. C) sense the presence of food in the digestive tract. D) push food along the digestive tract. E) protect the intestinal lining from irritants or toxins in the food. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 51) If an animal cell lacked centrioles, it would not be able to A) move. B) synthesize proteins. C) produce DNA. D) metabolize sugars. E) divide. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 52) The ________ is the microtubule organizing center of the cell. A) flagellum B) ribosome C) nucleus D) centrosome E) plasma membrane Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53) Centrioles form the basal bodies that anchor microtubules within cilia and A) flagella. B) microfilaments. C) microvilli. D) ribosomes. E) chromosomes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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54) Cilia and flagella contain nine pairs of ________ surrounding a central pair. A) microvilli B) microfilaments C) microsomes D) microtubules E) intermediate filaments Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) Motile cilia move fluids across a cell's surface, while a flagellum A) cools a cell. B) is not motile. C) fastens one cell to another. D) propels a cell through fluid. E) detects environmental stimuli. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 56) ________ may be scattered in the cytoplasm or bound to endoplasmic reticulum. A) Mitochondria B) Ribosomes C) Vesicles D) Proteosomes E) Nuclei Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 57) Ribosomes are composed of protein and A) glycogen. B) rRNA. C) ATP. D) DNA. E) steroids. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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58) The "r" in rRNA stands for A) regeneration. B) recurrence. C) rebuilding. D) ribosomal. E) radiation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) ________ are responsible for identifying and digesting damaged or denatured proteins. A) Peroxisomes B) Proteasomes C) Lysosomes D) Endosomes E) Nucleosomes Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) Proteosomes ________ proteins that have been damaged or denatured. A) tag for destruction by a different organelle B) break down C) expel from the cell D) repair E) duplicate Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 61) Synthesis of lipids and glycogen takes place at the A) ribosomes. B) rough ER. C) smooth ER. D) Golgi apparatus. E) mitochondria. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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62) Which of the following consists of a network of intracellular membranes with attached ribosomes? A) rough endoplasmic reticulum B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) mitochondria D) nucleoli E) Golgi apparatus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) Which form of endoplasmic reticulum modifies and packages newly synthesized proteins? A) all forms of endoplasmic reticulum B) simple endoplasmic reticulum C) raised endoplasmic reticulum D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum E) rough endoplasmic reticulum Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) The endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for all of the following except A) drug and toxin neutralization. B) lipid synthesis. C) modification of new proteins. D) passing molecules to the Golgi apparatus. E) housing the chromosomes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 65) Each of the following is a function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum except A) storage and release of calcium ions. B) synthesis of protein. C) synthesis of steroid hormones. D) synthesis of triglycerides. E) detoxification of drugs. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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66) Examination of a sample of glandular cells reveals an extensive network of smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Which of the following is the likeliest product of these cells? A) digestive enzymes B) steroid hormones C) protein hormones D) transport proteins E) antibodies Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 67) Which of the following statements about the Golgi apparatus is false? A) It receives transport vesicles from the RER. B) It sends transport vesicles to the RER. C) It produces lysosomes. D) It supplies new membrane components. E) It produces secretory vesicles. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 68) The following is a list of the steps involved in the process of secretion by the Golgi apparatus. What is the proper order for these steps? 1. Cisternae move from the forming face toward the maturing face. 2. Exocytosis 3. Products from RER are packaged into transport vesicles. 4. Secretory vesicles are formed at the maturing face. 5. Vesicles arrive at the forming face. 6. Enzymes modify arriving proteins and glycoproteins. A) 5, 6, 1, 4, 2, 3 B) 2, 3, 5, 6, 1, 4 C) 4, 3, 1, 6, 5, 2 D) 3, 5, 6, 1, 4, 2 E) 1, 3, 6, 4, 2, 5 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 69) The ________ typically consists of five or six flattened membranous discs called cisternae. A) centrioles B) rough endoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi apparatus D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum E) mitochondria Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

70) When activated, lysosomes function in A) formation of new cell membranes. B) synthesis of proteins. C) digestion of materials. D) synthesis of lipids. E) cell division. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) Macrophages are cells that engulf and consume germs or debris. What organelle must be especially plentiful in these cells? A) centrioles B) lysosomes C) mitochondria D) ribosomes E) nuclei Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 72) Peroxisomes A) both generate and break down hydrogen peroxide. B) pull the chromosomes toward the poles of a dividing cell. C) manufacture proteins. D) manufacture most of a cell's ATP. E) contain the genetic information of a cell. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 73) Organelles that break down fatty acids and hydrogen peroxide are A) lysosomes. B) peroxisomes. C) endocytic vesicles. D) nuclei. E) toxisomes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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74) What is the source of new material for the plasma membrane? A) microtubules B) mitochondria C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) ribosomes E) Golgi apparatus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 75) In addition to secreting products from the cell, vesicles produced by the Golgi apparatus can A) house chromosomes. B) produce ATP. C) synthesize proteins. D) add new material to the plasma membrane. E) transport materials to the endoplasmic reticulum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 76) Which of the following statements concerning mitochondria is false? A) The cristae increase the inner surface area of the organelle. B) The matrix contains metabolic enzymes involved in ATP synthesis. C) Respiratory enzymes are attached to the surface of the cristae. D) The mitochondria produce oxygen in the process of energy transformation. E) The mitochondria produce most of a cell's ATP. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 77) Some cells contain large numbers of mitochondria while others have relatively few or none. This suggests that A) cells with large numbers of mitochondria are short-lived. B) cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a high energy demand. C) cells with small numbers of mitochondria have a large ATP supply. D) cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a low energy demand. E) some cells are older than others. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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78) Most of the ATP required to power cellular operations is produced in the A) cytoplasm. B) endoplasmic reticulum. C) nucleus. D) mitochondria. E) cilia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) Most of a cell's DNA is located in its A) ribosomes. B) lysosomes. C) Golgi apparatus. D) nucleus. E) nucleolus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) The control center for cellular operations is the A) nucleus. B) mitochondria. C) Golgi apparatus. D) endoplasmic reticulum. E) ribosome. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 81) A mature red blood cell lacks a nucleus; therefore, it A) can repair itself readily. B) is malformed. C) can only divide once more. D) will be a long-lived cell. E) cannot make new proteins and will be worn out within a few months. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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82) The nucleus is surrounded by the A) plasma membrane. B) membranous sac. C) phospholipid bilayer. D) nuclear envelope. E) chromosome shield. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) Which organelle is more prominent in cells that make large amounts of protein? A) nucleus B) nucleolus C) chromosome D) proteasome E) mitochondria Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 84) The components of ribosomes are formed within A) the endoplasmic reticulum. B) Golgi complexes. C) lysosomes. D) mitochondria. E) nucleoli. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 85) Histones are found in A) nucleosomes. B) proteasomes. C) lysosomes. D) vesicles. E) endosomes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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86) Chromosomes consist of ________ and ________. A) RNA; carbohydrates B) DNA; lipids C) DNA; proteins D) water; RNA E) RNA; proteins Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) In cells that are not dividing, chromosomes uncoil to form a tangle of fine fibers known as A) histones. B) histiocytes. C) chromatin. D) chromaffin. E) genes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) How do chromosomes become visible under a light microscope as a cell prepares to divide? A) The cell becomes flat and thin, and its internal structures become easier to see. B) Thin strands of chromatin coil tightly and then coil again. C) DNA is thicker after it has replicated. D) Chromosomes become more intensely colored before cell division. E) Chromosomes are created before cell division, and then broken down afterward. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 89) Each triplet of bases in a gene corresponds to A) one amino acid in a protein. B) one DNA nucleotide. C) one protein. D) one mRNA. E) one chromosome. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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90) The functional units of DNA that contain the instructions for making one or more proteins are A) chromosomes. B) genes. C) ribosomes. D) codons. E) RNA. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) A gene is a set of specific instructions that A) produces amino acids for proteins. B) copies DNA strands for mitosis. C) controls the process of mitosis. D) indicates the sequence of amino acids in a protein molecule. E) directs carbohydrate synthesis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 92) Which of the following is false about DNA fingerprinting? A) determined by analyzing proteins B) unique to each individual with the exception of identical twins C) used extensively during crime scene investigations D) may be obtained from blood, semen, hair, and other tissues E) based on short tandem repeats (STRs) in the DNA Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 93) The "m" in mRNA stands for A) messenger. B) modifier. C) metabolic. D) molecular. E) matching. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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94) The enzyme ________ is required for the synthesis of mRNA. A) RNA polymerase B) deoxyribase C) phosphatase D) RNA synthetase E) ribase Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) The process of forming mRNA is called A) replication. B) transcription. C) translation. D) ribolation. E) auscultation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) The start of each gene begins with a(n) ________ segment. A) neocodon B) intron C) histone D) promoter E) boosting Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) Thymine is replaced by which nitrogen base in RNA? A) ribose B) uracil C) guanine D) thymine is not replaced in RNA E) cytosine Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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98) The mRNA sequence that is complementary to the sequence ATC on DNA is A) ATC. B) TAG. C) UAG. D) AUG. E) AUC. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 99) Before the mRNA transcribed from a gene can be used to translate into a protein, it must be A) edited to remove introns. B) edited to remove exons. C) transported into the cytoplasm. D) edited to remove introns and transported into the cytoplasm. E) coated with phospholipids for transport out of the nucleus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 100) Transfer of mRNA from the nucleus to the cytosol occurs through A) carrier proteins. B) gap junctions. C) nucleosides. D) gap lines. E) nuclear pores. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) mRNA is needed to synthesize ________ in the cytoplasm. A) carbohydrates B) lipids C) proteins D) phospholipids E) salts Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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102) A molecule of ________ contains all the codons needed to produce a particular polypeptide. A) rRNA B) mRNA C) dRNA D) tRNA E) cRNA Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 103) The process of protein formation directed by mRNA is called A) replication. B) transcription. C) translation. D) mitosis. E) auscultation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) The anticodon for the triplet UCA is A) AGU. B) AGC. C) TCA. D) TGT. E) AGT. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 105) During protein synthesis, amino acids are assembled in the proper sequence because each tRNA has a(n) ________ that binds to the next codon in the mRNA. A) enzyme B) nucleotide C) anticodon D) promotor E) transporter Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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106) Amino acids are transferred to the ribosome to be incorporated into a growing polypeptide chain by A) aRNA. B) mRNA. C) rRNA. D) tRNA. E) pRNA. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) The "t" in tRNA stands for A) translate. B) transport. C) transfer. D) transcribe. E) transmit. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) What is the correct order of occurrence for the steps of protein synthesis? 1. mRNA is produced in nucleus. 2. Ribosome moves along mRNA. 3. DNA uncoils for transcription. 4. Polypeptide is produced. 5. tRNA brings amino acids to ribosome. 6. mRNA moves to ribosome. A) 3, 1, 6, 2, 5, 4 B) 2, 4, 6, 1, 3, 5 C) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3, 6 D) 3, 5, 1, 6, 2, 4 E) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2, 6 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 109) The duplication of DNA is called ________, the copying of DNA to mRNA is called ________, and the reading of the mRNA by the cell to make a protein is called ________. A) replication; transcription; translation B) interphase; replication; active transport C) replication; translation; transcription D) mitosis; duplication; protein synthesis E) reproduction; duplication; initiation Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 29 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

110) Permanent alterations in a cell's DNA that affect the nucleotide sequence of one or more genes are called A) interferons. B) mutations. C) reconstructions. D) polymorphs. E) changelings. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) The ________ of a cell membrane indicates how easy it is for substances to cross. A) thickness B) pliability C) density D) permeability E) charge Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) Cell membranes are said to be ________ because they allow some substances to pass but not others. A) impermeable B) doubly amphipathic C) hydrophilic D) selectively permeable E) hydrophobic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 113) A cell can increase how fast a substance diffuses across its plasma membrane by inserting channels, which modify the A) distance across the membrane. B) concentration gradient of the substance. C) size and mobility of the substance. D) membrane's permeability to the substance. E) charge of the substance. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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114) The movement of oxygen from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is an example of A) osmosis. B) active transport. C) diffusion. D) facilitated transport. E) filtration. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) Breathing faster and deeper eliminates more carbon dioxide from the body than normal breathing. Under these circumstances, in the lungs A) more carbon dioxide will diffuse out of the blood. B) more carbon dioxide will diffuse into the blood. C) less carbon dioxide will diffuse out of the blood. D) less carbon dioxide will diffuse into the blood. E) the amount of carbon dioxide diffusion will remain unchanged. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 116) Diffusion of a substance across the cell membrane may be influenced by all of the following except A) the availability of ATP. B) the presence of membrane channels for the substance. C) its charge of the substance. D) its concentration gradient. E) its lipid solubility. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 117) There is a direct correlation between the potency of a general anesthetic such as ether and its ability to A) dissolve in water. B) dissolve in lipids. C) bind to proteins. D) interact with carbohydrates. E) bind to DNA. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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118) Water molecules and small ions enter a cell through A) channels formed by integral membrane proteins. B) peripheral proteins. C) lipid channels. D) peripheral carbohydrates. E) defects in the lipid layer of the membrane. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) Which of the following best describes osmosis? A) active transport of water across the cell membrane B) diffusion of water from a greater to a lesser water concentration C) movement of water into a solute D) diffusion of water from a greater to a lesser water concentration across a selectively permeable membrane E) random movement of water due to kinetic energy Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 120) Imagine a beaker divided down the center by a rigid membrane that is freely permeable to water but impermeable to glucose. Side 1 contains a 10 percent glucose solution and side 2 contains the same volume of pure water. At equilibrium, what will be the situation? A) Water will continue to move from side 1 to side 2. B) Water will continue to move from side 2 to side 1. C) The volume of liquid will be greater in side 1. D) The volume of liquid will be greater in side 2. E) The volume of liquid remain equal on both sides. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 121) A blood cell undergoes crenation when it is placed in a(n) ________ solution. A) isotonic B) hypertonic C) hypotonic D) merotonic E) homotonic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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122) Hemolysis may occur when a blood cell is placed into a(n) ________ solution. A) isotonic B) hypertonic C) hypotonic D) merotonic E) homotonic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 123) If the amount of chloride ion in blood plasma increases, which of the following would initially occur? A) The blood osmotic pressure will increase. B) The blood osmotic pressure will decrease. C) The blood osmotic pressure will stay the same. D) The blood hydrostatic pressure will increase. E) The blood hydrostatic pressure will decrease. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 124) If the concentration of sodium chloride in the interstitial fluid surrounding cells decreases and the concentration of other solutes remains constant, A) the cells will shrink. B) the cells will swell. C) the fluid outside of the cells will become isotonic. D) the fluid outside of the cells will become hypertonic. E) the cells will not change. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 125) A solution that contains a lower osmotic pressure than the cytoplasm of a cell is called A) merotonic. B) hypertonic. C) isotonic. D) hypotonic. E) homotonic. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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126) A patient suffers blood loss and is given IV fluids that contain an impermeable carbohydrate called dextran, which serves to ________ leading to an increase in blood volume. A) provide nutrition B) increase the osmolarity of the blood C) increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood D) decrease the osmolarity of the blood E) reduce blood clotting Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 127) In ________, one substance is transported into the cell and another is transported out. A) cotransport B) ditransport C) countertransport D) protransport E) throughtransport Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 128) Assume that the import of a particular amino acid across the plasma membrane is observed (1) to occur only down its concentration gradient and (2) to slow when a different but similar amino acid is added to the extracellular fluid. The movement of the amino acid through the membrane is most likely by A) osmosis. B) diffusion. C) facilitated diffusion. D) active transport. E) pinocytosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 129) The process by which molecules such as glucose are moved into cells along their concentration gradient with the help of membrane-bound carrier proteins is called A) osmosis. B) facilitated diffusion. C) active transport. D) endocytosis. E) exocytosis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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130) Facilitated diffusion differs from ordinary diffusion in that A) facilitated diffusion consumes ATP. B) facilitated diffusion moves molecules from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration. C) the rate of facilitated diffusion is limited by the number of available carrier proteins. D) facilitated diffusion never eliminates the concentration gradient. E) facilitated diffusion does not rely on carrier proteins. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 131) Membrane-bound proteins that use metabolic energy to move ions across the plasma membrane are called ________ pumps. A) channel B) receptor C) active D) motor E) ion Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) A process that requires cellular energy to move a substance against its concentration gradient is called A) active transport. B) passive transport. C) facilitated transport. D) osmosis. E) diffusion. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 133) Secondary active transport A) is not carried out by membrane proteins. B) is not directly linked to the hydrolysis of ATP. C) does not link the pumping of one substance to the concentration gradient of another. D) does not require the cell to invest energy, either directly or indirectly. E) cannot move a substance against its concentration gradient. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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134) An extracellular cation whose concentration gradient drives the secondary active transport of many different solutes is A) sodium. B) calcium. C) potassium. D) chloride. E) glucose. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 135) In order to maintain cellular homeostasis, one abundant type of exchange pump ejects ________ ions from the cell and imports ________ ions. A) potassium; calcium B) sodium; calcium C) potassium; sodium D) sodium; potassium E) calcium; sodium Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 136) All of the following membrane transport mechanisms are passive processes except A) diffusion. B) facilitated diffusion. C) vesicular transport. D) osmosis. E) movement of water. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 137) The intake of materials from the extracellular fluid using vesicles is called A) osmosis. B) exocytosis. C) facilitated transport. D) endocytosis. E) an ion exchange pump. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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138) Endocytosis is a A) method for transporting substances into the cell. B) method for metabolizing within the cytosol. C) form of anabolism. D) viral infection. E) method for packaging secretions. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 139) Receptor-mediated endocytosis A) is a type of secretion. B) imports target molecules after they bind to membrane proteins. C) does not require energy from the cell. D) can only move a substance down its concentration gradient. E) imports extracellular fluid, including all of its dissolved molecules. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 140) A defense cell engulfing a bacterium illustrates A) pinocytosis. B) receptor-mediated exocytosis. C) exocytosis. D) phagocytosis. E) receptor-mediated endocytosis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 141) The electric potential difference across the cell membrane is known as A) the membrane potential. B) the membrane difference. C) the cellular potential. D) the cellular difference. E) the plasmalemma potential. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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142) The membrane potential in an undisturbed cell is called its A) quiet potential. B) inactive state. C) passive state. D) resting membrane potential. E) interphase. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 143) In a series of measurements of resting membrane potentials, the following values were recorded. Which one is likeliest to be an error? A) -10 mV B) -20 mV C) -40 mV D) -70 mV E) +100 mV Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 144) The potential difference across the cell membrane is due to the unequal distribution of ________ across the membrane. A) carbohydrate molecules B) water molecules C) cations and anions D) acids and bases E) phospholipids and proteins Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 145) Which of these substances could be driven across a membrane by the resting membrane potential? A) H2O B) O2 C) glucose D) Na+ E) CO2 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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146) The genetically programmed death of cells is called A) differentiation. B) replication. C) apoptosis. D) metastasis. E) mitosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 147) If a cell lacked the enzyme DNA polymerase, it could not A) maintain the integrity of the nuclear envelope. B) form complementary strands of DNA during replication. C) link segments of DNA together. D) form spindle fibers. E) form a new nuclear membrane during telophase. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 148) In DNA replication, A) 23 copies are made of each chromosome. B) one new copy is made of each chromosome, and the original chromosome remains intact. C) two new copies are made of each chromosome, and the original chromosome is destroyed. D) two copies are made of each chromosome, and each copy contains one of the DNA strands from the original chromosome. E) the chromosome is copied to RNA, which is then copied to DNA for a new chromosome. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 149) When is DNA replicated? A) interphase B) anaphase C) metaphase D) telophase E) interkinesis Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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150) The stage in a cell's life cycle in which the cell performs its normal functions and prepares for division is called A) prophase. B) metaphase. C) interphase. D) telophase. E) anaphase. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 151) The process of duplicating chromosomes prior to cell division is called A) replication. B) repetition. C) recurrence. D) remodeling. E) reassembling. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 152) A cell duplicates its chromosomes during the ________ phase. A) Go B) G1 C) G2 D) Gm E) S Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 153) Before a cell divides, its DNA must be replicated to A) provide a backup copy of DNA in case the original DNA is damaged during mitosis. B) replace the DNA lost during transcription. C) supply each new cell with a full set of the genetic material. D) replace genetic instructions used by the original cell. E) use as an energy source during cytokinesis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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154) The proper distribution of a somatic cell's genetic material to two daughter cells is accomplished by the process of A) cytosis. B) mitosis. C) cytokinesis. D) phoresis. E) meiosis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 155) During mitosis, chromatids separate into daughter chromosomes at the start of A) prophase. B) metaphase. C) interphase. D) telophase. E) anaphase. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 156) During this phase of cell division, the chromosomes uncoil, the nuclear membrane forms, and cytokinesis occurs. A) anaphase B) prophase C) interphase D) telophase E) metaphase Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 157) During mitosis, two daughter cells form, each of which has A) a different number of chromosomes than the original cell. B) twice as many chromosomes as the original cell. C) the same number of chromosomes as the original cell. D) a lesser number of chromosomes than the original cell. E) half as many chromosomes as the original cell. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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158) The correct order of phases in the cell cycle is A) prophase, interphase, anaphase, metaphase, and telophase. B) telophase, anaphase, metaphase, interphase, and prophase. C) interphase, prophase, anaphase, metaphase, and telophase. D) interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. E) metaphase, anaphase, interphase, prophase, and telophase. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 159) If an animal cell has 18 chromosomes and undergoes mitosis, how many chromosomes would each daughter cell have? A) 9 B) 36 C) 23 D) 18 E) It varies, but the total number in the two daughter cells will always add up to 18. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 160) Which phase of the cell cycle has the biggest extremes in duration? A) S phase B) G0 phase C) G1 phase D) G2 phase E) V phase Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 161) Generally, cells with a very brief interphase and lacking a G0 phase A) are stem cells. B) do not exhibit cytokinesis. C) have brief life spans. D) are reproductive cells. E) lack the enzyme DNA polymerase. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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162) Special cells called ________ cells maintain tissues by unending cycles of cell division. A) cytogenic B) mother C) stem D) root E) omnipotent Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 163) The physical process by which a single animal cell separates into two cells is called A) cytosis. B) mitosis. C) cytokinesis. D) phoresis. E) meiosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 164) During growth, a tissue increases in size by A) increasing the size of its cells. B) increasing the osmolarity of its tissue fluid to draw in water. C) increasing its rate of cell division. D) dilating blood vessels to increase its blood supply. E) recruiting cells from surrounding tissues. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 165) A chemical from outside a cell that promotes cell division is called a A) nutrient. B) promoter. C) mutagen. D) telomere. E) growth factor. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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166) Cyclin, a protein that becomes more abundant as the cell cycle proceeds, A) delays cytokinesis. B) activates repressor genes. C) triggers DNA replication. D) damages telomeres. E) takes part in triggering mitosis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 167) When telomeres get too short after repeated cell divisions, A) the cell dies. B) the cell becomes cancerous. C) the cell stops dividing. D) the chromosomes uncoil. E) the cell divides more frequently. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 168) An alternate term for tumor is A) neoplasm. B) cytoplasm. C) benign malignancy. D) primary metastasis. E) nucleoplasm. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 169) Cancer cells A) are indistinguishable from normal body cells. B) have a slow mitotic rate. C) may exhibit metastasis. D) do not form neoplasms. E) generally form benign tumors. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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170) A(n) ________ is a mutated regulatory gene that causes cancer. A) neogene B) plasmogene C) toxogene D) oncogene E) monogene Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 171) ________, which is usually inactive in adult cells, is active in 90% of cancer cells. A) Phagocytosis B) Apoptosis C) The p53 gene D) Telomerase E) DNA polymerase Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 172) The process by which cells become specialized is called A) determination. B) cytokinesis. C) mutation. D) differentiation. E) distinction. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 173) Different cell types in the body A) produce exactly the same proteins. B) have different genes. C) are identical except for their superficial appearance. D) have the same genes, but different sets of genes are inactivated. E) have the ability to take on the characteristics of each other or any cell in the body. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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174) Embryonic stem cells might be used to replace neurons lost in Parkinson's Disease because A) they are readily available. B) they divide quickly. C) they are young and vigorous. D) they have not yet differentiated. E) they are taken from the brain of the embryo. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) What are the three different components that make up the cytoskeleton in all body cells? (Figure 3-3) A) thick filaments, thin filaments, intermediate filaments B) microfilaments, microvilli, villi C) microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules D) thick filaments, thin filaments, microvilli E) microtubules, macrotubules, tubules Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) What are the two reactants shown here that are necessary for energy production? What are the three products shown here as a result of this reaction? (Figure 3-9) A) oxygen and ATP; carbon dioxide, pyruvate, and water B) oxygen and carbon dioxide; pyruvate, carbon dioxide, and water C) water and pyruvate; oxygen, carbon dioxide, and ATP D) oxygen and pyruvate; carbon dioxide, ATP, and water E) carbon dioxide and pyruvate; oxygen, ATP, and water Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) How is DNA organized in the nucleus when the cell is prepared for division? How is DNA organized in the nucleus when the cell is not dividing? (Figure 3-11) A) tightly coiled as chromosomes; loosely coiled as chromatin B) tightly coiled as chromatin; loosely coiled as chromosomes C) loosely coiled as chromosomes; tightly coiled as chromatin D) loosely coiled as chromatin; tightly coiled as chromosomes E) loosely coiled as chromosomes; loosely coiled as chromatin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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4) How do small water-soluble molecules and ions diffuse across the plasma membrane? How do lipid-soluble molecules diffuse across the plasma membrane? (Figure 3-15) A) diffuse by osmosis; diffuse by carrier-mediated transport B) diffuse by endocytosis; diffuse by pinocytosis C) diffuse by carrier-mediated transport; diffuse by passive transport D) diffuse directly through the plasma membrane; diffuse through membrane channels E) diffuse through membrane channels; diffuse directly through the plasma membrane Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 5) Describe the concentration of the intracellular fluid relative to the extracellular fluid in parts b and c. (Figure 3-17) A) hypotonic to the extracellular fluid; hypertonic to the extracellular fluid B) hypertonic to the extracellular fluid; hypotonic to the extracellular fluid C) isotonic to the extracellular fluid; hypertonic to the extracellular fluid D) isotonic to the extracellular fluid; hypotonic to the extracellular fluid E) hypertonic to the extracellular fluid; isotonic to the extracellular fluid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) In the facilitated diffusion of glucose, what determines the direction in which glucose molecules will be transported? (Figure 3-18) A) the amount of ATP available inside the cell versus outside the cell B) the amount of sodium available to bind inside the cell versus outside the cell C) the concentration gradient D) the voltage of the membrane E) the tonicity of the cell Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 7) What provides the energy for the sodium-potassium exchange pump? (Figure 3-19) A) breaking the high energy bond of ADP B) the concentration gradient of sodium C) the concentration gradient of potassium D) breaking the high energy bond of ATP E) the voltage of the cell Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Essay Questions 1) Describe the ways that proteins of the plasma membrane allow a cell to control its internal environment or interact with its external environment. Answer: Carrier proteins and channels help control the cell's internal environment by allowing specific materials to enter the cell. Anchoring proteins connect the cell's cytoskeleton to extracellular proteins or to other cells. Recognition proteins allow immune cells to identify the cell. Receptor proteins allow the cell to respond to external signals such as hormones. Finally, enzymes can carry out chemical reactions inside or outside the cell, depending on which face of the membrane they are attached to. Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) Which organelles are involved in membrane flow? Trace the route of a single integral membrane protein from formation to incorporation into the plasma membrane. Answer: All membranous organelles are involved in membrane flow. Those most directly associated are the ER, Golgi apparatus, secretory vesicles, and plasma membrane. A membrane protein would be synthesized in the RER, then flow through the cisternae to a transport vesicle. There the protein will be moved to the forming face of the Golgi apparatus, where it will slowly travel upward toward the maturing face, usually becoming modified along the way. Once reaching the maturing face of the Golgi apparatus, the protein would be embedded in the membrane of a secretory vesicle and transported to the plasma membrane. There the vesicle will fuse with the membrane, inserting the protein in the cell membrane. Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 3) What organelles would be enhanced in a cell that produces digestive enzymes and secretes them into the intestine? Why? Answer: Digestive enzymes are proteins, and they are produced at a high rate while a meal is being digested. Organelles that would be enhanced include the nucleus, which would have larger or more numerous nucleoli for making ribosomes; a larger number of ribosomes for making proteins; increased rough ER, where proteins to be secreted are made; more numerous or larger Golgi apparatus, where proteins are packaged for secretion; and more secretory vesicles to carry the enzymes to the surface of the cell. Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 4) Differentiate between transcription and translation. Answer: In transcription, RNA polymerase uses the nucleotide sequence on DNA to construct a complementary strand of mRNA. In translation, ribosomes use information carried by the mRNA strand and tRNA to synthesize the corresponding polypeptide. Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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5) When a person receives intravenous fluids to help build up blood volume, why is it important for the fluid to be isotonic? Answer: Intravenous fluids must be isotonic to prevent the cells from losing or gaining water. If the solution was hypertonic, the cells of the body would lose water, shrink, and possibly be harmed. On the other hand, the introduction of hypotonic fluid would cause the cells to swell and tissues to rupture. Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 6) Define osmosis and tell in what direction it occurs. Answer: Osmosis is the transfer of water across a semipermeable membrane due to a difference in concentration of impermeant solutes. Water moves from lower to higher solute concentration (or from higher to lower water concentration, or from lower to higher osmolarity, or from lower to higher tonicity). Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 7) During kidney dialysis, a person's blood is passed through a bath that contains several ions and molecules. The blood is separated from the dialysis fluid by a membrane that allows water, small ions, and small molecules to pass, but does not allow large proteins or blood cells to pass. What should the composition of dialysis fluid be for it to remove urea (a small molecule without changing the blood volume (removing water from the blood)? Answer: For the dialysis fluid to remove urea without removing water, it should not contain urea. Because urea is a small molecule, it will diffuse through the dialysis membrane from an area of high concentration (the blood to an area of low concentration (the dialysis fluid). To prevent an associated osmotic water movement, the dialysis fluid should have an osmotic concentration similar to that of blood plasma, but with higher concentrations of solutes such as bicarbonate ions or glucose. As urea diffuses into the dialysis fluid, glucose and bicarbonate diffuse into the blood; as a result, the solute concentrations remain in balance and no osmotic water movement occurs. Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 8) A) What are the similarities between facilitated diffusion and active transport? B) What are the differences? Answer: A) Both processes use carrier proteins and exhibit saturation. B) Facilitated diffusion is driven by a concentration gradient, does not consume ATP, and so is "passive," whereas active transport is active, consumes ATP, and moves a substance up its concentration gradient. Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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9) Tell how a carcinogen can cause cancer, and describe the progression of cancer. Answer: Some carcinogens directly cause rapid cell division and others are mutagens that may mutate a gene that regulates cell growth, differentiation, or division. Cancer begins with increased cell division to produce a cluster of cells called a tumor or neoplasm. These cells change their appearance, lose their response to certain inhibitory signals, and may acquire other mutations. Malignancy occurs as cells from the tumor invade surrounding tissues. Metastasis occurs when these cells enter the circulatory system and start tumors in distant regions of the body. Angiogenesis is the growth of blood vessels into the region of the tumor. Tumors can disrupt normal function by failing to carry out their regular functions, physically interfering with normal tissue, outcompeting normal tissues for nutrients, or overproducing their normal products, such as hormones. Learning Outcome: 3-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 4 The Tissue Level of Organization Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which statement about tissues is correct? A) Tissues are always in the form of sheets of cells. B) All the organs of an organ system are composed of a single tissue type. C) A tissue is composed of a single type of cell. D) An organ combines several different tissues. E) Tissues are microscopic, and invisible to the naked eye. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) Where is the tissue level of organization? A) between cells and organs B) between organelles and cells C) between organs and organ systems D) between atoms and molecules E) between molecules and organelles Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 3) The study of tissues is called A) cytology. B) toxicology. C) microbiology. D) histology. E) mycology. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Which one of the following is not one of the four main tissue categories? A) muscle tissue B) neural tissue C) osseous tissue D) connective tissue E) epithelial tissue Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) Which of the four basic tissue types form coverings or linings of organs? A) muscle tissue B) epithelial tissue C) protective tissue D) neural tissue E) connective tissue Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) Neural tissue A) carries information from one part of the body to another. B) can contract. C) fills spaces in the body. D) stores energy. E) forms glands. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) Any substance that enters or leaves your body must cross A) muscle tissue. B) connective tissue. C) secretory tissue. D) neural tissue. E) epithelial tissue. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) The tissue that always has an apical and a basal surface is ________ tissue. A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle D) basal E) apical Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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9) Characteristics of epithelia include all of the following except A) attachment. B) avascularity. C) regeneration. D) polarity. E) extracellular matrix. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) Epithelial cells that line the small intestine transport nutrients into the body. Directional transport is associated with the epithelial tissue property of A) avascularity. B) regeneration. C) cellularity. D) polarity. E) attachment. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 11) Epithelial cells that are adapted for absorption usually have ________ at their free surface. A) mitochondria B) cilia C) microvilli D) junctional complexes E) Golgi complexes Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 12) Close examination of a healthy organ reveals a lining of several layers of cells. The layers do not contain any blood vessels and one surface of the cells lines the cavity of the organ. This tissue is a type of A) epithelium. B) muscle tissue. C) connective tissue. D) neural tissue. E) fat tissue. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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13) An epithelial cell can be divided into two functional regions. They are the ________ and the basal surface. A) apical B) pinnacle C) topical D) crest E) apogeal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) The junction type that lets neighboring cells exchange small molecules is the A) desmosome. B) hemidesmosome. C) gap junction. D) tight junction. E) zonula adherens. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) A type of intercellular junction that stops materials from crossing an epithelium between cells is called a(n) A) tight junction. B) gap junction. C) intermediate junction. D) desmosome. E) hemidesmosome. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Dead skin cells are shed in thin sheets because they are held together by "spots" of proteoglycan reinforced by intermediate filaments. Such strong intercellular connections are called A) gap junctions. B) intermediate junctions. C) tight junctions. D) desmosomes. E) junctional complexes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) ________ are proteins that connect adjacent cells at a gap junction. A) Bindins B) Adhesions C) Connexins D) Attachons E) Tieons Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) In stratified epithelia adapted to resist mechanical forces, which of the following types of cell-to-cell junctions are especially abundant? A) tight junctions B) basolateral junctions C) gap junctions D) hemidesmosomes E) desmosomes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 19) Epithelium is connected to underlying connective tissue by A) keratin. B) interfacial canals. C) a basement membrane. D) a reticular lamina. E) proteoglycan. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) Germinative cells A) start in the superficial layers of epithelial tissue. B) cannot divide in the deep layers of epithelial tissue. C) make up most of the epithelial type of tissue. D) divide continually to produce new epithelial cells. E) cannot function in the repair of epithelial tissue. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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21) Cells that are flat and thin are classified as A) columnar. B) squamous. C) blasts. D) transitional. E) cuboidal. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) The two major types of cell layering in epithelia are A) simple and proper. B) stratified and pseudostratified. C) squamous and simple. D) simple and stratified. E) cuboidal and columnar. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) The epithelium that lines the body cavities is known as A) perithelium. B) myothelium. C) intrathelium. D) endothelium. E) mesothelium. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) The epithelia that line body cavities and blood vessels are classified as A) simple squamous. B) stratified squamous. C) simple cuboidal. D) stratified cuboidal. E) transitional. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) An example of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium would be A) exposed skin. B) air sacs of the lungs. C) the lining of the anus. D) the outer covering of the intestines. E) the lining of the oral cavity. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 26) The function of simple cuboidal epithelium is A) support and structure. B) protection and transport. C) phagocytosis and immunity. D) absorption and secretion. E) storage and retrieval. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) Which tissue lines the small intestine and the stomach? A) simple squamous epithelium B) simple cuboidal epithelium C) simple columnar epithelium D) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium E) stratified squamous epithelium Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) Transitional epithelium is found A) lining the urinary bladder. B) lining the ducts that drain sweat glands. C) lining kidney tubules. D) lining the stomach. E) at the surface of the skin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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29) You would find pseudostratified columnar epithelium lining the A) trachea. B) urinary bladder. C) secretory portions of the pancreas. D) surface of the skin. E) stomach. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) The Pap test for cervical cancer utilizes A) histology. B) physiology. C) anatomy. D) embryology. E) exfoliative cytology. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 31) Gland cells produce A) mesenchyme. B) antibodies. C) secretions. D) phagocytes. E) fibers. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) Glands that secrete hormones into the interstitial fluid are ________ glands. A) endocrine B) interstitial C) exocrine D) merocrine E) holocrine Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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33) The pancreas produces ________ secretions that include digestive enzymes and hormones, respectively. A) serous and sebaceous B) mucous and acid C) merocrine and holocrine D) exocrine and endocrine E) secretory and absorptive Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 34) Unicellular exocrine glands secrete A) milk. B) sweat. C) mucus. D) sebum. E) insulin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 35) A gland formed by cells arranged in a one blind pocket with a single unbranched duct would be called A) simple tubular. B) simple branched tubular. C) compound tubular. D) compound alveolar. E) tubuloalveolar. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 36) Which of the following glands have a compound rather than a simple structure? A) salivary glands B) sebaceous glands C) mucous glands D) sweat glands E) gastric glands Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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37) Glands that secrete their product by the bursting of cells are ________ glands. A) apocrine B) sudoriferous C) holocrine D) endocrine E) merocrine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) The process of lactation (milk production) depends on both merocrine and ________ secretion by mammary gland epithelial cells. A) epicrine B) eccrine C) holocrine D) apocrine E) endocrine Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 39) Glands whose secretions contain mucins are classified as A) serous glands. B) compound glands. C) mucous glands. D) mixed glands. E) endocrine glands. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 40) Epithelial tissue is always attached to which other major tissue type? A) neural tissue B) membrane tissue C) fascial tissue D) muscle tissue E) connective tissue Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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41) The combination of fibers and ground substance in supporting connective tissues is known as A) collagen. B) cartilage. C) chondroitin. D) matrix. E) scaffold. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) The three categories of connective tissues are A) connective tissue proper, fluid connective tissue, and supporting connective tissue. B) epithelial connective tissue, muscle connective tissue, and neural connective tissue. C) glandular connective tissue, exocrine connective tissue, and endocrine connective tissue. D) connective tissue proper, cartilage connective tissue, and bone connective tissue. E) areolar connective tissue, adipose connective tissue, and dense connective tissue. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) Which tissue is correctly paired with its category of connective tissue? A) bone—connective tissue proper B) fat—supporting connective tissue C) lymph—fluid connective tissue D) cartilage—fluid connective tissue E) tendon—supporting connective tissue Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) Which of the following tissues are classified as "connective tissue proper"? 1. areolar connective tissue 2. adipose tissue 3. fibrocartilage 4. dense irregular connective tissue A) 3 and 4 B) 1, 2, and 3 C) 1 and 2 D) 1, 2, and 4 E) 1 and 3 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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45) Blood is which type of tissue? A) mesenchyme B) nerve C) epithelial D) muscle E) connective Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) Which of the following connective tissue cells produces collagen? A) adipocytes B) fibroblasts C) macrophages D) mast cells E) lymphocytes Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) Cells that store fat are called A) fibrocytes. B) macrocytes. C) adipocytes. D) podocytes. E) melanocytes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) Cells that respond to injury by dividing to assist in connective tissue repair are A) mast cells. B) fibroblasts. C) plasmocytes. D) mesenchymal cells. E) lymphocytes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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49) Cells that engulf bacteria or cell debris within loose connective tissue are A) fibroblasts. B) macrophages. C) adipocytes. D) mast cells. E) melanocytes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 50) In areolar connective tissue, ________ cells release histamine to stimulate inflammation. A) plasma B) mast C) mesenchymal D) gland E) goblet Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) Antibodies are produced by A) macrophages. B) microphages. C) plasma cells. D) mast cells. E) fibroblasts. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 52) Two types of microphages include A) mesenchymal cells and melanocytes. B) mast cells and basophils. C) fixed macrophages and free macrophages. D) neutrophils and eosinophils. E) microphages and adipocytes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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53) The three types of protein fibers in connective tissue are A) tendons, ligaments, and elastic ligaments. B) loose, dense, and irregular. C) cartilage, bone, and collagen. D) collagen, reticular, and elastic. E) polar, cellular, and permeable. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) The viscous component of connective tissue matrix is called A) basal layer. B) ground substance. C) collagen. D) lymph. E) plasma. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) Loose connective tissue functions in all of the following ways except A) providing strong connections between muscles and bones. B) supporting epithelia. C) anchoring blood vessels and nerves. D) cushioning and stabilizing. E) filling spaces between organs. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 56) Wharton's jelly is a form of A) Marfan's syndrome. B) mucous connective tissue. C) ground substance. D) collagen fiber. E) embryonic epithelium. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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57) The color distinction between white fat and brown fat exists because brown fat A) includes active melanocytes. B) is more superficial. C) traps pollutants. D) is highly vascular. E) is more mature. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 58) If an obese person loses weight, a factor that increases the risk of regaining the weight is A) weight loss causes the metabolic rate to slow. B) during weight loss, calories are only temporarily displaced from fat to other tissues. C) brown fat can become white fat if dietary intake increases again. D) the adipose cells do not die but merely shrink, so they can easily store lipid again. E) the body feels unfamiliar after weight loss. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) The internal framework or stroma of organs such as the spleen, liver, and lymph nodes is made up of ________ tissue. A) loose connective B) regular dense connective C) irregular dense connective D) reticular tissue E) adipose Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) A tissue that provides strength and support for areas subjected to stresses from many directions is A) any connective tissue proper. B) elastic or hyaline cartilage. C) dense irregular connective tissue. D) reticular connective tissue. E) dense regular connective tissue. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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61) The dominant type of extracellular protein fiber in dense connective tissue is A) collagen. B) elastin. C) actin. D) myosin. E) connectin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) Each of the following is an example of dense connective tissue except A) tendons. B) ligaments. C) aponeuroses. D) areolar tissue. E) elastic tissue. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) Which kind of connective tissue has collagen fibers aligned parallel to each other? A) adipose tissue B) areolar tissue C) superficial fascia D) dense regular connective tissue E) dense irregular connective tissue Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 64) Microscopic examination of a tissue reveals a loose framework of fibers embedded in a large volume of fluid ground substance, with a wide variety of cell types. This tissue would most likely have come from the A) inner wall of a blood vessel. B) lungs. C) spleen. D) superficial fascia between skin and muscle. E) bony socket of the eye. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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65) The framework of connective tissue between the skin and underlying muscles is called the A) dermis. B) superficial fascia. C) deep fascia. D) cutaneous layer. E) subserous fascia. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) Which of the following refers to the dense connective tissue that surrounds a muscle and blends with the tendon? A) superficial fascia B) hypodermis C) deep fascia D) subserous fascia E) subcutaneous layer Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 67) The watery fluid component of blood is called A) hemosol. B) liquid elements. C) formed elements. D) hemoplasm. E) plasma. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) The three kinds of formed elements in blood are erythrocytes, leukocytes, and A) lymphocytes. B) platelets. C) phagocytes. D) plasma cells. E) mast cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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69) What type of cell makes up almost half the volume of blood? A) erythrocyte B) leukocyte C) platelet D) monocyte E) phagocyte Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) Lymphocytes can develop into cells that secrete defense proteins against disease. These cells are termed ________, while these proteins are called antibodies. A) T cells B) B cells C) plasma cells D) immunocytes E) phagocytes Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 71) Defense cells in blood are called white blood cells or A) leukocytes. B) lymphocytes. C) erythrocytes. D) thrombocytes. E) immunocytes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) The three major subdivisions of extracellular fluid found in the body are plasma, interstitial fluid, and A) synovial fluid. B) urine. C) sweat. D) lymph. E) serous fluid. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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73) Which blood vessels have porous walls that allow water and small solutes to seep through? A) veins B) arterioles C) venules D) arteries E) capillaries Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 74) Interstitial fluid that enters a lymphatic vessel is called A) plasma. B) lymph. C) blood. D) humoral fluid. E) plasmin fluid. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) How can cartilage maintain its function even though it is avascular? A) Cartilage is only the thickness of a few cell layers. B) Nutrients and waste products diffuse through the cartilage's matrix. C) Cartilage has extensive blood vessels. D) Cartilage does not contain living cells. E) The perichondrium prevents any exchange of nutrients and waste products. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 76) Chondroitin sulfate is abundant in the matrix of A) epithelial tissue. B) cartilage. C) areolar tissue. D) elastic connective tissue. E) adipose tissue. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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77) A tissue with a firm gel matrix and cells inside lacunae is A) areolar connective tissue. B) cartilage. C) bone. D) epithelium. E) dense regular connective tissue. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) Antiangiogenesis factor is a chemical produced by ________ that blocks the growth of blood vessels. A) leukocytes B) lymphocytes C) chondrocytes D) erythrocytes E) mesenchymal cells Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 79) Cartilage is separated from surrounding tissues by a fibrous A) perichondrium. B) ground substance. C) periosteum. D) chondroplasm. E) matrix. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) The most common type of cartilage is ________ cartilage. A) ligamentous B) hyaline C) elastic D) fibrous E) osseous Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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81) Which type of connective tissue is found in the trachea and between the ribs and sternum? A) areolar connective tissue B) hyaline cartilage C) elastic cartilage D) fibrous cartilage E) dense regular connective tissue Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) The auricle, or outer ear, contains A) muscle. B) hyaline cartilage. C) bone. D) fibrous cartilage. E) elastic cartilage. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) A herniated disc is an injury of the pads of cartilage between the vertebrae in which the cartilage bulges from normal position. What type of cartilage is affected? A) mesenchymal B) fibrous C) elastic D) hyaline E) articular Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 84) Growth of cartilage by accumulation of new matrix around chondrocytes that are embedded in existing matrix is called ________ growth. A) appositional B) intrasitional C) transitional D) transformational E) interstitial Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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85) In ________ growth, cartilage grows wider or thicker in diameter. A) appositional B) intrasitional C) transitional D) transformational E) interstitial Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 86) Osseous tissue is also called A) cartilage. B) fat. C) cellulite. D) bone. E) ligament. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) Chondrocytes are to cartilage as osteocytes are to A) blood. B) epithelium. C) fat. D) bone. E) neural tissue. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 88) Unlike cartilage, bone A) is a connective tissue. B) has a matrix that contains collagen. C) undergoes remodeling throughout life. D) has an outer covering. E) has cells within lacunae. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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89) Tendons and ligaments attach to the ________ of bone. A) osteocytes B) lacunae C) periosteum D) calcium phosphate E) central canals Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 90) Epithelia and connective tissues combine to form ________ that cover and protect other structures and tissues in the body. A) fasciae B) aponeuroses C) organ capsules D) cutaneous layers E) tissue membranes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) The loose connective tissue component of a mucous membrane is called the A) lamina densa. B) basal lamina. C) areolar lamina. D) lamina propria. E) mucina lamina. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) Tissue membranes combine A) muscle and connective tissue. B) neural and epithelial tissue. C) epithelial and connective tissue. D) neural and muscle tissue. E) epithelial and muscle tissue. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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93) Which of the following membranes line cavities that communicate with the exterior of the body? A) mucous B) serous C) cutaneous D) synovial E) pleural Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) Which of the following membranes covers the surface of visceral organs? A) synovial B) plasma C) serous D) cutaneous E) mucous Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) The reduction of friction between the parietal and visceral surfaces of an internal cavity is the function of A) cutaneous membranes. B) mucous membranes. C) serous membranes. D) synovial membranes. E) the lamina propria. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) The serous membrane lining the abdominal cavity is the A) pleura. B) peritoneum. C) pericardium. D) periosteum. E) perichondrium. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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97) The term transudate describes fluid associated with A) mucus membranes. B) mammary glands. C) cutaneous membranes. D) serous membranes. E) endocrine glands. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 98) Which type of tissue membrane is characteristically dry? A) synovial B) cutaneous C) serous D) mucous E) pleural Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) The fluid that lubricates movable joints is produced by A) mucous membrane. B) cutaneous membrane. C) synovial membrane. D) serous membrane. E) plasma membrane. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) Tissue that is specialized for contraction is ________ tissue. A) loose connective B) dense connective C) epithelial D) nerve E) muscle Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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101) What is the cause of the striated appearance of skeletal and cardiac muscle? A) the nuclei of the muscle cells B) the connections of neurons to muscle cells C) the arrangement of intercalated discs D) the repeating arrangement of the contractile proteins, actin and myosin E) the stacking of muscle cells Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 102) Voluntary movements are carried out by the contraction of A) nonstriated muscle. B) all types of muscle. C) smooth muscle. D) skeletal muscle. E) cardiac muscle. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 103) Myosatellite cells are found in association with ________ muscle. A) skeletal B) smooth C) cardiac D) involuntary E) both smooth and cardiac Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) Intercalated discs and pacemaker cells are characteristic of ________ tissue. A) smooth muscle B) cardiac muscle C) skeletal muscle D) all types of muscle E) nerve Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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105) The muscle tissue that shows no striations is ________ muscle. A) skeletal B) cardiac C) smooth D) voluntary E) multinucleated Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) Which kind of muscle is best able to regenerate after an injury? A) both types of striated muscle B) skeletal muscle C) no type of muscle can regenerate D) cardiac muscle E) smooth muscle Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) The muscle found in the walls of most hollow organs of the body is A) smooth muscle. B) involuntary striated muscle. C) skeletal muscle. D) cardiac muscle. E) voluntary striated muscle. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) Tissue that is specialized for the conduction of electrical impulses is ________ tissue. A) connective B) neural C) areolar D) osseous E) epithelial Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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109) Most of the nervous tissue of the body is in the A) nerves and muscles. B) hands. C) brain and spinal cord. D) skin. E) eyes, ears, nose and tongue. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 110) The function of ________ is to propagate electrical signals from one place to another. A) muscle cells B) neurons C) transmitter cells D) teleocytes E) neuroglia Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) ________ support, protect, and nourish nerve cells. A) Nurse cells B) Neuroglia C) Neurons D) Nurturons E) Nutrient cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 112) All of the following are true of neurons except that A) they cannot divide. B) they conduct a nervous impulse. C) they are composed of a cell body and axon. D) they are a very specialized form of connective tissue. E) they receive information from other neurons through their dendrites. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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113) The body's longest cells are A) muscle cells. B) connective tissue. C) epithelia. D) neurons. E) neuroglia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 114) The body's first tissue response to any injury is A) fever. B) inflammation. C) bleeding. D) shivering. E) regeneration. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 115) Inflammation is A) a repair process that restores normal function to injured tissue. B) a fever. C) an infection of a wound. D) a process that clears damaged cells and dangerous microorganisms from an injury. E) the process of blood clotting. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 116) During an inflammatory response to injury, which of the following is the least likely in the region of the injury? A) increase in basophils B) increase in histamine C) increase in blood flow D) cold, pale skin E) swelling Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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117) The permanent replacement of normal tissue by fibrous tissue is called A) inflammation. B) apoptosis. C) fibrosis. D) cystosis. E) necrosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 118) Tissue changes with age include all of the following except A) less efficient tissue maintenance. B) proliferation of epidermal cells. C) thinner epithelia. D) more fragile connective tissues. E) decreased ability to repair tissue damage. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) As a person ages, exercise contributes to A) inflammation of the muscles. B) faster aging due to exhaustion. C) an increased incidence of cancer. D) cumulative damage of tissues throughout the body. E) maintaining bone strength. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 120) The majority of cancers are caused by A) a sedentary lifestyle. B) negative thoughts. C) genetic factors. D) contact with a person who has cancer. E) chemical exposure or other environmental factors. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Which is the only type of cell junction shown here that allows the diffusion of ions and molecules between cells? (Figure 4-3) A) tight junction B) gap junction C) hemidesmosome D) spot desmosome E) adhesion belt Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) In "simple columnar epithelium," which word describes cell shape and which word describes the number of cell layers? (Figure 4-6) A) columnar; simple B) simple; columnar C) simple; epithelium D) epithelium; columnar E) columnar; epithelium Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Which method of secretion destroys the cell? (Figure 4-8) A) merocrine B) apocrine C) holocrine D) endocrine E) exocytosis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Which type of loose connective tissue provides padding, cushions shock, reduces heat loss, and stores energy? Where are some places in the body this type of tissue is commonly found? (Figure 4-11) A) reticular tissue; spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow B) areolar tissue; deep to the dermis, between muscles and around joints C) adipose tissue; deep to the skin at sides, buttocks, and breasts D) areolar tissue; liver and kidney E) reticular tissue; around eyes and kidneys Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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5) Which formed element of the blood contains a nucleus? (Figure 4-14) A) red blood cells B) platelets C) white blood cells Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) What is the only type of cell found in cartilage matrix? (Figure 4-16) A) fibroblasts B) osteoblasts C) osteoclasts D) chondroblasts E) chondrocytes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) What is the name of the epithelium that lines the peritoneal cavity? (Figure 4-18) A) endothelium B) mesothelium C) synovial D) cutaneous E) lamina propria Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Which muscle tissue consists of multinucleate cells? (Figure 4-19) A) skeletal muscle B) cardiac muscle C) smooth muscle Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Essay Questions 1) Explain why sunburned skin peels rather than being shed as a powder. Answer: The abundant desmosomes between cells in the superficial layers of the skin hold the cells together as a sheet instead of loosely organized cells. Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) Indicate an advantage for having simple rather than stratified epithelium lining the gasexchange surfaces of the lungs. Answer: The epithelia are thin, keeping diffusion distance between blood and airspaces to a minimum. This speeds gas exchange across the layers. Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 3) A biology student accidentally loses the labels of two prepared slides she is studying. One is a slide of an intestine, the other of an esophagus. You volunteer to help her sort them out. How would you decide which slide is which? Answer: Because animal intestine is modified for absorption, you would look for a slide that shows a single layer of epithelium lining the cavity. The cells would be cuboidal or columnar and would probably have microvilli on the surface to increase surface area. Because the esophagus receives undigested food, it would have a stratified epithelium consisting of squamous cells to protect it. Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 4) Analysis of a glandular secretion indicates that it contains some DNA, RNA, and membrane components such as phospholipids. What kind of secretion is this and why? Answer: The presence of DNA, RNA, and membrane components suggest that the cell was destroyed during the process of secretion. This is consistent with a holocrine type of secretion. Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 5) Harriet had liposuction several years ago, but has since gained back all the weight lost through the procedure. She does not understand her weight gain because adipocytes are incapable of dividing. Provide a plausible explanation. Answer: While it is true that adipocytes do not divide and the number of fat cells in peripheral tissues is limited, mesenchymal cells can divide and give rise to cells that differentiate into fat cells. Thus, areolar connective tissue can become adipose tissue in times of nutritional excess. Along with this, the fat cells that remain after surgery can enlarge by storing more triglyceride if the patient continues to overeat. Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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6) Which is likely to heal faster, a bone injury or a cartilage injury? Why? Answer: Bone injuries heal relatively quickly because of the good nutrient supply by way of nearby blood vessels and the canaliculi, whereas cartilage is supplied nutrients via diffusion from the outside, a far slower process. In addition, in bone the cellular layer of the surface periosteum takes part in remodeling and repair, whereas chondrocytes do not usually divide in an adult. Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 7) The four types of tissue membrane consist of an epithelium supported by connective tissue. What do the qualities of each of these two tissues contribute to the function of the membrane? Use one type of tissue membrane as an example. Answer: The connective tissue provides structural support and strength, and its blood supply sustains the membrane. The epithelial tissue gives a smooth surface that protects against friction by being slippery (or keratinized, for cutaneous membrane), it is secretory (mucus, serous fluid, synovial fluid, sweat and skin oil), and it may control the passage of materials (for example, cutaneous membrane reducing water loss from the body). Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 8) Why is cardiac muscle tissue that has been damaged by injury or disease incapable of regeneration? Answer: Cardiac muscle can't regenerate because it contains no stem cells (satellite cells). Since mature cardiac muscle cells can't divide, there is no basis for tissue regeneration. Learning Outcome: 4-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 9) Compare the three types of muscle tissue. List three similarities and three differences among them. Answer: Similarities: All have contractile proteins; skeletal and cardiac have striations; cardiac and smooth are involuntary; cardiac and smooth are uninucleate. Differences: Skeletal is voluntary; cardiac has intercalated discs; smooth is nonstriated; skeletal is multinucleate. Learning Outcome: 4-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 10) What is the difference between neurons and neuroglia? Answer: Neurons are specialized to respond to chemical and electrical signals and communicate by propagating an electric impulse along their axon. Neuroglia are a diverse group of cell types within neural tissue that support, nourish, and protect neurons. Learning Outcome: 4-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 11) During the inflammatory process, blood vessels dilate. What does this accomplish? Answer: It allows for increased blood flow for delivery of nutrients, oxygen, and defense cells and proteins and for the removal of waste products and debris from the site of injury. Learning Outcome: 4-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 34 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 5 The Integumentary System Multiple Choice Questions 1) Accumulations of fluid within the epidermis or between the epidermis and the dermis is/are called A) keloids. B) scabs. C) blisters. D) scars. E) pus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) Rapid water loss from burned skin is an extreme form of ________ perspiration. A) imprudent B) non-sense C) impractical D) vacuous E) insensible Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 3) Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system except A) protection of underlying tissue. B) excretion of salts and wastes. C) maintenance of body temperature. D) synthesis of vitamin C. E) detection of sensations. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 4) The two components of the integumentary system are the A) epidermis and dermis. B) cutaneous membrane and hypodermis. C) cutaneous membrane and accessory structures. D) integument and hypodermis. E) epidermis and superficial fascia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) The type of cells that form the strata in the epidermis are A) adipocytes. B) keratinocytes. C) fibroblasts. D) melanocytes. E) dendritic cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) The tough superficial layer of the epidermis is known as the stratum A) corneum. B) lucidum. C) basale. D) granulosum. E) spinosum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) The largest quantities of keratin are found in the epidermal layer called the stratum A) corneum. B) lucidum. C) basale. D) granulosum. E) spinosum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 8) Water loss due to evaporation of fluid that has penetrated through the skin is called ________ perspiration. A) sensible B) insensible C) latent D) active E) inactive Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) The layer of the epidermis that contains several layers of living cells connected by abundant desmosomes is the stratum A) corneum. B) lucidum. C) basale. D) granulosum. E) spinosum. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 10) The layer of the skin that provides a barrier against bacteria as well as chemical and mechanical injuries is the A) dermis. B) subcutaneous layer. C) epidermis. D) stratum basale. E) sebaceous layer. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) Characteristics of the epidermis include A) multilayered. B) flexible. C) contains desmosomes. D) serves as UV radiation protection. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 12) All of the following are true of epidermal ridges except that they A) extend into the hypodermis. B) increase surface area and friction on fingertips. C) cause ridge patterns on the surface of the skin. D) produce patterns that are determined partially genetically. E) interconnect with the dermal papillae. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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13) ________ are cells in the epidermis that are part of the immune system. A) Dendritic cells B) Basal cells C) Merkel cells D) Squamous cells E) Melanocytes Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) Water loss from insensible perspiration A) is unaffected by damage to the epidermis. B) is too small to be measured reliably. C) is approximately 0.5 liters a day. D) always exceeds sensible perspiration. E) depends on apocrine sweat glands. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 15) The epidermis of the skin is composed of what type of tissue? A) keratinized stratified squamous epithelium B) simple squamous epithelium C) transitional epithelium D) areolar connective tissue E) nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) The layer of stem cells that constantly divide to renew the epidermis is the A) stratum corneum. B) stratum basale. C) papillary layer. D) basal lamina. E) stratum granulosum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) The protein that reduces water loss at the skin surface is A) eleidin. B) collagen. C) mucin. D) keratin. E) melanin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) Thin skin contains ________ epidermal layer(s) and thick skin contains ________ layers. A) 1; 2 B) 2; 3 C) 3; 4 D) 4; 5 E) 5; 6 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 19) While walking barefoot on the beach, Joe stepped on a thorn that penetrated through the sole of his foot to the dermis. How many layers of epidermis did the thorn penetrate? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 20) Which of following is not an accessory structure of the integumentary system? A) sweat glands B) hair follicles C) exocrine glands D) nails E) dermis Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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21) All of the following contain blood vessels except the A) epidermis. B) papillary layer. C) reticular layer. D) subcutaneous layer. E) hypodermis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 22) The sensory cells associated with the deep layers of the epidermis are A) Pacinian corpuscles. B) Merkel cells. C) melanocytes. D) Meissner's corpuscles. E) keratinocytes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) The layer of epidermis where most cells have stopped dividing and started making large amounts of keratin is the A) stratum spinosum. B) stratum corneum. C) stratum granulosum. D) stratum lucidum. E) stratum basale. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) The layer of epidermis where keratohyalin crosslinks keratin fibers is the A) stratum spinosum. B) stratum corneum. C) stratum granulosum. D) stratum lucidum. E) stratum basale. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) The amount of time it takes for a cell to progress from stratum basale to stratum corneum is A) 7-10 days. B) 14 days. C) 5 days. D) 1 day. E) 1 minute. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 5-1 The Components of the Integumentary System Use Figure 5-1 to answer the following questions: 26) From what structure does sensible perspiration occur? A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9 E) 10 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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27) Which layer is the primary barrier against environmental hazards? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 28) Which layer contains most of the accessory structures? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 29) Adipose tissue is a major component of the region labeled A) 1. B) 2. C) 3. D) 4. E) 5. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 30) Which tissue is located in the region labeled "2"? A) stratified squamous epithelium B) areolar connective tissue C) adipose tissue D) cartilage and blood E) reticular connective tissues Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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31) The layer of the skin that contains bundles of collagen and elastic fibers responsible for the strength of the skin is the ________ layer. A) papillary B) reticular C) epidermal D) subcutaneous E) hypodermal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) The drug tretinoin (Retin-A) A) reduces the appearance of fine wrinkles. B) minimizes scarring after surgery. C) stimulates hair growth. D) improves night vision. E) is used to treat dandruff. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 33) Skin inflammation that primarily involves the papillary layer is termed A) papillitis. B) dermatitis. C) epidermatitis. D) superficialis. E) melanocytis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) A surgical incision parallel to the lines of cleavage A) closes and heals with relatively little scarring. B) has a tendency to reopen. C) heals slower than incisions made perpendicular to the lines of cleavage. D) does not affect the healing process. E) requires no sutures. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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35) While assessing a patient, you discover that after pinching the skin on the back of the hand, it remains peaked. This is a sign of A) hydration intoxication. B) water intoxication. C) dehydration. D) advanced skin cancer. E) malfunctioning elastin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 36) Stretch marks occur when A) the skin is stretched in normal movements. B) surgical incisions are made perpendicular to the skin's lines of cleavage. C) the skin is so extensively stretched that its elastic limits are exceeded. D) athletes overextend a muscle. E) individual epidermal layers separate. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 37) The cutaneous plexus is A) a network of nerves in the cutaneous membrane. B) a superficial network of dermal arteries. C) a deep network of dermal arteries along the boundary of the reticular layer. D) a neural plexus responsible for deep pressure. E) a network of arteries in the epidermis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 38) The subpapillary plexus is A) a network of nerves in the cutaneous membrane. B) a superficial network of dermal arteries. C) a deep network of dermal arteries along the boundary of the reticular layer. D) a neural plexus responsible for deep pressure. E) a network of arteries in the epidermis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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39) What are the dermal sensory structures that sense deep pressure? A) Meissner's corpuscles B) lamellar corpuscle C) tactile corpuscles D) tactile dics E) Merkel cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) All of the following are true of the subcutaneous layer except it A) contains many blood vessels. B) permits independent movement of deeper structures. C) contains large amounts of adipose tissue. D) is attached to the dermis by a basement membrane. E) is well supplied with nerves that pass into the skin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 41) The layer of loose connective tissue deep to the dermis is the A) epidermis. B) subcutaneous layer. C) hyperdermis. D) deep fascia. E) reticular layer. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) The primary pigments contained in the epidermis are A) carotene, hemoglobin, and xanthophyll. B) carotene, eumelanin, and pheomelanin. C) melanin, chromatin, and chlorophyll. D) xanthophyll, hemoglobin, and melanin. E) melanin, carotene, and chromatin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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43) An albino individual lacks the ability to produce A) melanin. B) keratin. C) carotene. D) perspiration. E) eleidin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) Cyanosis signifies that a patient has A) had too much sun. B) been kept out of the sun. C) an allergic reaction. D) oxygen-starved skin. E) been exposed to cyanide. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 45) Jaundice is indicated by a(n) ________ skin coloration. A) reddish B) yellowish C) orange D) bluish E) brown Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) Exposure to ultraviolet light (sunlight) causes the skin to darken by increasing the production of A) hemoglobin. B) carotene. C) collagen. D) keratin. E) melanin. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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47) The ________ in keratinocytes protects the epidermis and dermis from the harmful effects of sunlight. A) sebum B) hemoglobin C) melanin D) carotene E) keratin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 48) The pigment found in vegetables that can make the skin appear orange or yellow is called A) cadmium. B) carotene. C) hemoglobin. D) keratin. E) melanin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 49) Melanin is produced by melanocytes within the stratum A) corneum. B) lucidum. C) granulosum. D) spinosum. E) basale. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) Which one of the following is the red-yellow form of melanin? A) eumelanin B) phycomelanin C) anthomelanin D) pheomelanin E) promelanin Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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51) Which of the following is the brown-black form of melanin? A) eumelanin B) phycomelanin C) anthomelanin D) pheomelanin E) promelanin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) Which of the following is not true of melanin? A) There is more than 1 type of melanin. B) Melanin is released by exocytosis. C) It is manufactured from tyrosine. D) It is packaged in vesicles called melanosomes. E) It absorbs UV radiation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 53) Which of the following causes yellowing of the skin? A) vitiligo B) pituitary tumor affecting melanocyte stimulating hormone C) Addison's disease D) cyanosis E) faulty bile excretion in the liver Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 54) Which pigment is responsible for blushing? A) eumelanin B) pheomelanin C) carotene D) hemoglobin E) melanocyte stimulating hormone Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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55) Which of the following is not an effect of ultraviolet radiation? A) increased activity by melanocytes B) production of cholecalciferol within epidermal cells C) reduced amounts of elastic fibers in the dermis D) chromosomal damage in germinative cells or melanocytes E) loss in skin pigmentation as seen in vitiligo Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 56) Which of the following is formed in the skin when it is exposed to sunlight? A) vitamin A B) vitamin B C) vitamin C D) vitamin D E) vitamin E Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 57) Which of the following statements about rickets is not true? A) It is usually genetic. B) It leads to weak bones. C) It leads to skeletal deformity. D) It is prevented by vitamin D. E) It is prevented by sunlight. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 58) A deficiency disease that illustrates the effect of integumentary system function on the structure of the skeletal system is A) osteoporosis. B) seborrheic dermatitis. C) decubitus ulcers. D) rickets. E) beriberi. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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59) The most dangerous type of skin cancer is called A) keratosis. B) psoriasis. C) squamous cell carcinoma. D) melanoma. E) basal cell carcinoma. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) Vitamin D3 is important for proper ________ development. A) skin B) bone C) muscle D) vision E) neural Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 61) Skin cancer that starts in the mitotically most active epidermal layer is called A) keratosis. B) psoriasis. C) squamous cell carcinoma. D) melanoma. E) basal cell carcinoma. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) Children in northern regions experience months of inadequate sunlight exposure on the skin. To prevent possible abnormal bone development, what essential organic nutrient is necessary in the diet? A) vitamin C B) calcium C) cholecalciferol D) protein E) retinol-A Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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63) The layer of hard keratin that acts as the surface of the hair is termed the A) medulla. B) cuticle. C) hair bulb. D) root. E) shaft. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) Variations in hair color reflect differences in the pigment produced by A) keratinocytes. B) melanocytes. C) dermal papillae. D) soft keratin. E) carotene cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 65) Which of the following is correct about Lanugo hairs? A) also known as "peach fuzz" B) persists throughout the entire life C) deeply pigmented and somewhat coarse D) exists primarily in fetuses E) never found on the feet Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 66) If the papilla of a hair follicle is destroyed, A) the hair produced by the follicle will change from terminal to vellus. B) the color of the hair will become lighter. C) the texture of the hair will become coarser. D) the hair matrix will lose its blood supply. E) hair production will not be affected. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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67) When the arrector pili muscles contract, A) "goose bumps" are formed. B) hairs are shed. C) sweat is released from sweat glands. D) shivering occurs. E) the skin changes color. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 68) Which of the following statements concerning hair is false? A) The medulla is the soft core of the hair. B) The cortex of the hair is composed of hard keratin. C) Terminal hairs are heavy and more darkly pigmented than other types of hair. D) Club hair is hair that has ceased growing. E) Scalp hairs grow constantly throughout life. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 69) Fine hairs (like "velvet") that lack pigment and cover much of the body surface are called ________ hairs. A) veneer B) gossamer C) lanugo D) vellus E) terminal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) Coarse pigmented hairs are called ________ hairs. A) veneer B) gossamer C) lanugo D) vellus E) terminal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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71) The network of sensory nerves that surrounds the base of each hair follicle is the A) root hair plexus. B) hair papilla. C) hair matrix. D) cutaneous plexus. E) subpapillary plexus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) Arrange the layers of the hair follicle from outermost to innermost layers. 1. cuticle 2. glassy membrane 3. medulla 4. connective tissue sheath 5. external root sheath 6. internal root sheath 7. cortex A) 1,5,7,6,2,3,4 B) 4,2,5,6,1,7,3 C) 4,2,6,5,1,7,3 D) 4,6,2,5,7,1,3 E) 4,2,5,6,3,7,1 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 73) A common cause of dandruff is A) inflammation around sebaceous glands. B) lack of sebaceous glands. C) too many sebaceous glands. D) inactive apocrine glands. E) inactive eccrine glands. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 74) Glands that discharge an oily secretion into hair follicles are ________ glands. A) ceruminous B) apocrine sweat C) merocrine sweat D) sebaceous E) mammary Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

75) The ________ glands in the axilla become active at the time of puberty. A) ceruminous B) apocrine sweat C) merocrine sweat D) sebaceous E) axillary Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) Sensible perspiration is produced by ________ glands. A) ceruminous B) apocrine sweat C) merocrine sweat D) sebaceous E) mammary Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) Earwax is produced by ________ glands. A) sebaceous B) apocrine sweat C) merocrine sweat D) ceruminous E) eccrine sweat Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) The highest concentration of merocrine sweat glands is found A) in the axillae. B) on the chest. C) on the palms of the hands. D) on the upper back. E) surrounding the genitals. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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79) ________ sweat glands are widely distributed across the body surface, ________ glands are located wherever hair follicles exist, and ________ sweat glands are found only in a few areas. A) Sebaceous; merocrine; apocrine B) Apocrine; merocrine; sebaceous C) Merocrine; sebaceous; apocrine D) Merocrine; apocrine; sebaceous E) Apocrine; sebaceous; merocrine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 80) Which of the following happens if body temperature rises above normal? A) Circulation in the skin decreases. B) Sweat gland activity decreases. C) Evaporative cooling stops. D) Blood flow to the skin increases. E) The activity of melanocytes increases. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 81) Merocrine sweat glands A) are compound alveolar glands. B) produce organic secretions that are metabolized by bacteria to produce body odor. C) secrete a watery fluid directly onto the surface of the skin. D) increase in number and activity with aging. E) primarily function in lubricating the hairs. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 82) All of the following are true of perspiration produced by merocrine sweat glands except that it A) is more than 99 percent water. B) contains electrolytes and waste products. C) helps cool the body when it evaporates. D) helps to prevent bacteria from colonizing the skin. E) produces the body odor characteristic of "sweating." Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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83) Which of the following is not a function of the sebum? A) It inhibits growth of bacteria. B) It lubricates the hair shaft. C) It conditions the surrounding skin. D) It helps the skin shed excess heat. E) It protects the hair shaft. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 84) Which of the following is not a function of the exocrine sweat gland? A) It cools the surface of the skin. B) It conditions the surrounding skin with its lipid secretion. C) It excretes electrolytes. D) It interferes with adhesion of microorganisms. E) It uses dermicidin as antibiotic protection. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 85) The nail body covers the A) nail root. B) nail bed. C) lunula. D) free edge. E) hyponychium. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) Nail production occurs at the nail A) body. B) bed. C) root. D) cuticle. E) hyponychium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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87) The cuticle around a nail is the A) eponychium. B) hyponychium. C) free edge. D) perinychium. E) lunula. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) The stratum corneum just under the free edge of a nail is the A) hyponychium. B) lunula. C) eponychium. D) nail root. E) cuticle. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 89) A child who skins his knee in a fall has a(n) A) abrasion. B) laceration. C) puncture. D) incision. E) contusion. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) In a penetrating wound, ________ divide to produce mobile cells that repair the dermis. A) granulation cells B) dendritic cells C) macrophages D) fibroblasts E) muscle cells Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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91) The type of burn that may require a skin graft is a ________ burn. A) first-degree B) second-degree C) third-degree D) partial-thickness E) epidermal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 92) If a fair-skinned person is outside on a hot sunny day, why does his or her skin turn red? A) The blood flow to the skin increases. B) The number of red melanocytes in the skin increases. C) Melanocytes increase production of red pigments. D) Carotene production greatly increases. E) Decreased heat causes the skin to turn red. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 93) Skin can regenerate effectively even after considerable damage has occurred because A) the epidermis of the skin has a rich supply of small blood vessels. B) stem cells persist in the skin even after injury. C) fibroblasts in the dermis can give rise to new germinal cells in the epidermis. D) contraction in the area of the injury brings cells of adjacent strata together. E) cells of the stratum basale cannot migrate to other positions in the skin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 94) The following are stages in the regeneration of skin following an injury. What is the correct order for these events? 1. inflammation 2. cellular migration 3. epidermis covers granulation tissue 4. epidermis covers scar tissue A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 4, 3, 2, 1 C) 4, 3, 1, 2 D) 3, 4, 1, 2 E) 2, 4, 1, 3 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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95) Scar tissue is the result of A) large numbers of inflexible fibers and relatively few blood vessels in the injured area. B) increased numbers of keratinocytes in the epidermal layers in the area of the injury. C) a thickened stratum basale in the area of the injury. D) increased numbers of fibroblasts in the reticular layer of the injured area. E) a lack of sebaceous glands in the injured area. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 96) During repair of the integument, fibroblasts follow areas of new capillary growth and produce ________ tissue. A) scar B) epithelial C) granulation D) pus E) keloid Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 97) Charlie is badly burned in an accident. When he reaches the emergency room, the examining physician finds that he can remove entire hair follicles from Charlie's arm when he gently pulls on a hair with his forceps. Charlie is suffering from a(n) ________ burn. A) first-degree B) second-degree C) third-degree D) partial-thickness E) epidermal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 98) A thickened area of scar tissue that is covered by a shiny, smooth epidermal surface is called a A) keloid. B) contusion. C) hematoma. D) psoriasis. E) sclerotome. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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99) A fibrin clot that is formed over a skin wound is called a A) scar. B) keloid. C) graft. D) scab. E) plug. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) The combination of blood clot, fibroblasts, and extensive capillary network that is formed in injured skin is called ________ tissue. A) germinative B) spinous C) fibrocytic D) granulation E) abscess Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) A bacterial infection that is often fatal in burn patients is called A) sepsis. B) necrosis. C) toxis. D) pernicious. E) noxious. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 102) The effects of aging on the skin include A) a decline in the activity of sebaceous glands. B) increased production of vitamin D. C) thickening of the epidermis. D) an increased blood supply to the dermis. E) a decreased number of sweat glands. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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103) Wrinkles in individuals are the result of A) increased production of epidermal layers. B) loss of elastic fibers in the reticular layer of the dermis. C) increased keratinization of the epidermis. D) the loss of glands and hair follicles from the skin. E) decreased thickness of the dermis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 104) Why would an elderly person be more prone to skin infections than a younger person? A) Skin repairs take longer in the elderly. B) The epidermis is thinner in the elderly. C) There are fewer dendritic cells in the skin of the elderly. D) Basal cell activity is reduced in the elderly. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) What types of glands are found in the skin? (Figure 5-1) A) salivary glands and submucosal glands B) endocrine glands and salivary glands C) mucus glands and submucosal glands D) sebaceous glands and sweat glands E) cerumen glands and endocrine glands Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Which plexus supplies blood to the capillary loops that follow the epidermis-dermis boundary? (Figure 5-6) A) submucosal plexus B) mucosal plexus C) subcapillary plexus D) cutaneous plexus E) epidermal plexus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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3) In which layer of the skin are melanocytes found? (Figure 5-8) A) stratum basale B) stratum spinosum C) stratum granulosum D) stratum lucidum E) stratum corneum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) What are the body's two sources of cholecalciferol (vitamin D3)? (Figure 5-10) A) air and water B) air and food C) sunlight and water D) sunlight and food E) air and sunlight Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 5) Where do sebaceous glands and sebaceous follicles discharge their secretions? (Figure 5-13) A) epidermis; hair follicle B) hair follicle; epidermis C) hair root; dermis D) dermis; hair root E) both into the dermis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Essay Questions 1) Many lipid-soluble medications can be delivered by diffusion across the skin. This process is called transdermal administration and is commonly done by applying patches that contain the medication to the surface of the skin. These patches can be attached anywhere on the skin except the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet. Why? Answer: Thick skin slows the rate of diffusion of the medication and thus decreases its effectiveness. In addition, excessive sweat formed on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet would make the patch fall off more readily. Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 2) In a condition known as sunstroke, the victim appears flushed, the skin is warm and dry, and the body temperature rises dramatically. Explain these observations based on what you know concerning the role of the skin in thermoregulation. Answer: When the body temperature increases, more blood flow is directed to the vessels of the skin. The red cells in the blood give the skin a redder-than-usual color and account for the victim's flushed appearance. The skin is dry because the sweat glands are not producing sweat (avoiding further dehydration). Without evaporation cooling, not enough heat is dissipated from the skin, the skin is warm, and the body temperature rises. This situation represents positive feedback operating in a disease state. Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 3) Why is regional infection or inflammation of the skin usually very painful? Answer: Inflammation of the skin is painful because sensory receptors are abundant in the skin. Changes associated with swelling stimulate the sensory receptors, resulting in a painful sensation. Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 4) Why is a subcutaneous injection with a hypodermic needle a useful method of administering drugs? Answer: The subcutaneous layer has a limited capillary supply and contains no vital organs; thus, the potential for tissue damage is reduced. Learning Outcome: 5-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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5) A new mother notices that her 6-month-old infant has a yellow-orange complexion. Fearful that the child may have jaundice, she takes him to her pediatrician. After examining the child and learning about the infant's diet, the pediatrician declares him perfectly healthy and advises the mother to watch the child's diet. What is likely the cause for the change in skin color? Answer: The infant probably has a fondness for vegetables that are high in carotene, such as sweet potatoes, squash, and carrots. It is not uncommon for parents to feed babies what they will eat best. If the child consumes large amounts of carotene, the yellow-orange pigment will be stored in the skin, producing a yellow-orange skin color. This harmless condition is known as carotenosis. Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 6) Explain how to use the mnemonic ABCD when checking for signs of skin cancer. Answer: When checking for signs of skin cancer one can take a careful look at the appearance of existing moles. The mnemonic ABCD assists with this process because each letter corresponds with a physical characteristic of moles. A stands for asymmetry (healthy moles appear symmetrical); B stands for border (healthy moles have a regular, well defined border); C stands for color (healthy moles have a single color); D stands for diameter (healthy moles have a diameter of less than 5 mm). Learning Outcome: 5-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 7) Explain how skin helps to thermally regulate body temperature. Answer: When body temperature rises, the blood vessels beneath your epidermis are dilated and filled with blood, your skin reddens, and the surface of your skin is warm and wet due the excess heat in the blood. As the moisture evaporates, the excess heat evaporates with it, and your skin cools. If your body temperature then falls below normal, sensible perspiration stops, blood flow to the skin is reduced, and the skin surfaces cools and dries, releasing little heat into the environment. Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 8) Why is scab formation important in wound healing? Answer: Scabs temporarily restore epidermal integrity, restricting further entry of microorganisms. They also prevent the loss of fluids, maintaining internal fluid balance, and protect the delicate granulation tissue during tissue recovery. Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 9) Vanessa's 80-year-old grandmother sets her thermostat at 26°C (80°F) and wears a sweater on balmy spring days. When asked why, the grandmother says she feels cold. What is a possible cause for her feeling cold? Answer: Most elderly people have poor blood flow to the skin. Thus, their skin becomes cold. This triggers thermal receptors in the skin to signal cold skin. The brain interprets this as a cold body temperature. Learning Outcome: 5-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 31 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 6 Bones and Bone Structure Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of following is a function of the skeletal system? A) body support B) calcium homeostasis C) protection of internal organs D) blood cell production E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Which of the following are not components of the skeletal system? A) tendons B) bones C) ligaments D) cartilage E) other tissues that connect bones Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 3) The shaft of long bones is called the A) epiphysis. B) metaphysis. C) diaphysis. D) paraphysis. E) endophysis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) A ________ is a smooth, grooved bone process shaped like a pulley. A) tubercle B) trochanter C) trochlea D) tuberosity E) trabeculae Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) A small rough bump on bone where a tendon attaches is called a A) tubercle. B) trochanter. C) trochlea. D) tuberosity. E) trabecula. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) A chamber within a bone normally filled with air is a A) foramen. B) sinus. C) fossa. D) canal. E) meatus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) The expanded articular end of an epiphysis that is separated from the shaft by a narrower neck is called a A) head. B) crown. C) capitulum. D) corona. E) bulb. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) A ________ is a rounded passageway for passage of blood vessels and/or nerves. A) sinus B) fossa C) meatus D) foramen E) cavernosa Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) The adult skeleton contains ________ major bones. A) 88 B) 115 C) 174 D) 206 E) 251 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) Which of the following bones is classified as "irregular" in shape? A) patella B) frontal C) vertebra D) metatarsal E) ulna Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) The proximal and distal ends of a long bone are called the A) epiphyses. B) diaphyses. C) epiphyseal plates. D) metaphyses. E) periphyses. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) The carpal bones are examples of ________ bones. A) long B) short C) flat D) irregular E) sesamoid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) A rib is an example of a ________ bone. A) long B) short C) flat D) sutural E) sesamoid Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) The patella is an example of a(n) ________ bone. A) irregular B) sesamoid C) sutural D) sagittal E) flat Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) Small bones that fill gaps between bones of the skull are called ________ bones. A) irregular B) sesamoid C) sutural D) sagittal E) tendon Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) ________ bones develop inside tendons, commonly near the knees, hands, and feet. A) Irregular B) Sesamoid C) Short D) Long E) Flat Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) The humerus is an example of a(n) ________ bone. A) long B) short C) flat D) irregular E) sesamoid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) A ________ is a large rough proximal projection on a bone. A) ramus B) trochanter C) tuberosity D) tubercle E) condyle Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) A rounded passage or hole through a bone is called a A) ramus. B) foramen. C) linea. D) tubercle. E) facet. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) The smooth, rounded articular process of a bone is termed a A) crest. B) ridge. C) head. D) condyle. E) trochlea. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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21) A shallow depression on a bone is termed a A) fossa. B) sulcus. C) facet. D) fissure. E) line. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) The region of a long bone between the end and the shaft is known as the A) diaphysis. B) epiphysis. C) osseophysis. D) metaphysis. E) medullary cavity. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) Bones that are relatively long and slender, consisting of a shaft with two ends are A) long bones. B) flat bones. C) sesamoid bones. D) short bones. E) irregular bones. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) Bones that have thin parallel surfaces are A) long bones. B) flat bones. C) sesamoid bones. D) short bones. E) irregular bones. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) Bones that are boxy with approximately equal dimensions are A) long bones. B) flat bones. C) sesamoid bones. D) short bones. E) irregular bones. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) Bones that have complex shapes are A) long bones. B) flat bones. C) sesamoid bones. D) short bones. E) irregular bones. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) Bones that are small, round and tend to develop in tendons are A) long bones. B) flat bones. C) sesamoid bones. D) short bones. E) irregular bones. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) Canaliculi are A) also known as Volkmann's channels. B) the same as Haversian canals. C) narrow passageways in the matrix connecting lacunae to blood supply. D) layers of bony matrix laid down in rings. E) have both a fibrous outer layer and a cellular inner layer. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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29) Which of the following is not true of osteocytes? A) Osteocytes maintain protein and mineral content of matrix. B) Osteocytes take part in repair of damaged bone. C) Osteocytes form cytoplasmic extensions within canaliculi. D) Osteocytes are located within lacunae. E) Osteocytes have 50 or more nuclei. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) Which of the following is true of osteoclasts? A) Osteoclasts maintain protein and mineral content of matrix. B) Osteoclasts are responsible for laying down osteoid. C) Osteoclasts form cytoplasmic extensions within canaliculi. D) Osteoclasts are located within lacunae. E) Osteoclasts secretes protein digesting enzymes and acids that dissolve matrix. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 31) Which of following is/are produced from the monocyte stem cells? A) osteoblasts B) osteoclasts C) osteocytes D) osteoprogenitor cells E) osteogenic cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) Which of the following labels best matches osteocyte? A) stem cell B) dissolves matrix C) mature bone cell D) secretes organic matrix E) immature bone cell Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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33) Bone is composed of ________ percent cells. A) 25 B) 10 C) 2 D) 15 E) 50 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) Cells that secrete the organic components of the bone matrix are called A) osteocytes. B) osteoprogenitor cells. C) osteoblasts. D) osteoclasts. E) osteoid cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) ________ are stem cells that develop into osteoblasts. A) Osteoclasts B) Osteocytes C) Osteomedullary cells D) Osteogenic cells E) Osteoid cells Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) Through the action of osteoclasts, A) new bone is formed. B) an organic framework is formed. C) bony matrix is dissolved. D) osteoid is calcified. E) fractured bones regenerate. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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37) The space occupied by an osteocyte is called A) Volkmann's canal. B) a lacuna. C) a trabecula. D) a Haversian canal. E) a canaliculus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) Which of the following chemicals is not present in bone? A) calcium phosphate B) collagen fibers C) calcium carbonate D) chondroitin sulfate E) hydroxyapatite Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 39) ________ account(s) for almost two-thirds of the weight of bone. A) Water B) Calcium carbonate C) Collagen fibers D) Fluoride E) Calcium phosphate Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) ________ cells are located in the inner cellular layer of the periosteum. A) Osteocyte B) Osteoclast C) Osteoid D) Osteogenic E) Osteolytic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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41) The ________ interactions allow bone to be strong, somewhat flexible, and highly resistant to shattering. A) collagen-fiber B) protein-crystal C) mineral-crystal D) protein-protein E) hydroxyapatite-crystal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 42) The most abundant cell type in bone is A) osteoclasts. B) osteoblasts. C) osteolytes. D) osteoprogenitor cells. E) osteocytes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 43) The lacunae of osseous tissue contain A) blood cells. B) osteocytes. C) chondroblasts. D) bone marrow. E) capillaries. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 44) How would removing hydroxyapatite from bone matrix affect the physical properties of a bone? A) The bone would be less flexible. B) The bone would be stronger. C) The bone would be more brittle. D) The bone would be more flexible. E) The bone would be more compressible. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

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45) The narrow passageways that contain cytoplasmic extensions of osteocytes are called A) central canals. B) lacunae. C) canaliculi. D) medullary cavities. E) foramina. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) In bone, the calcium phosphate forms crystals of A) osteoid matrix. B) calcium carbonate. C) hydroxyapatite. D) calcitriol. E) proteolytic enzymes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) Stem cells that can differentiate into osteoblasts are called ________ cells. A) osteopropagator B) osteoforming C) osteocreator D) osteotrophic E) osteogenic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) Cells that free calcium from bone to maintain blood calcium levels are called A) osteolytics. B) osteoclasts. C) osteoblasts. D) osteogenics. E) osteocytes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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49) ________ prevents damaging bone-to-bone contact within movable joints. A) A synovial membrane B) Elastic cartilage C) A serous membrane D) Articular cartilage E) Serous fluid Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) Cells that are found in small depressions on the endosteal surfaces are the A) osteolytic cells. B) osteoclasts. C) osteoblasts. D) osteocytes. E) osteogenic cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) Cells that secrete protein fibers in bone are called A) osteolytic cells. B) osteoclasts. C) osteoblasts. D) osteocytes. E) osteogenic cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) The organic component of the matrix in developing or repairing bone is called A) osteon. B) osteoid. C) hydroxyapatite. D) mesenchymal tissue. E) calcium phosphate. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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53) Layers of bony matrix at the outer and inner surfaces of bone and covered by the periosteum and the endosteum are A) concentric lamellae. B) osteons. C) Haversian systems. D) interstitial lamellae. E) circumferential lamellae. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) The layer of bone that is interwoven with tendons is the A) circumferential lamellae. B) periosteum. C) endosteum. D) concentric lamellae. E) perichondrium. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) Connective tissue fibers incorporated into bone tissue from ligaments are called A) elastic fibers. B) reticular fibers. C) perforating fibers. D) superficial fibers. E) calcified fibers. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) The central canal of an osteon contains A) bone marrow. B) osteocytes. C) concentric lamellae. D) blood vessels. E) lacunae. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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57) The interconnecting tiny arches of bone tissue found in spongy bone are called A) osteons. B) trabeculae. C) concentric lamellae. D) interstitial lamellae. E) lacunae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) The type of bone that is adapted to withstand stresses that arrive from many directions is ________ bone. A) spongy B) osteon C) compact D) lamellar E) irregular Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 59) The structural units of mature compact bone are called A) trabeculae. B) osteocytes. C) osteons. D) canaliculi. E) lamellae. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) Adipose tissue is stored within the A) medullary cavity. B) metaphysis. C) spongy bone. D) epiphysis. E) diaphysis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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61) Which of the following is a characteristic of bone? A) The bone matrix is very dense and contains deposits of calcium salts. B) The matrix of the bone contains osteoclasts and chondroblasts. C) Narrow channels pass through the matrix to allow for muscle attachment. D) The matrix of bone is mostly collagen with very little calcium. E) For strength, compact bone is organized into a meshwork of matrix called trabeculae. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 62) In relationship to the diaphysis of a long bone, the osteons are A) radial. B) anterior. C) parallel. D) proximal. E) diagonal. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 63) The femur can withstand ________ times the body's weight without breaking. A) 3 B) 5 to 10 C) 8 D) 10 to 15 E) 30 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) ________ marrow is found between the trabeculae of spongy bone. A) Blue B) Yellow C) White D) Gray E) Red Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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65) The lining of the medullary cavity is called the A) endosteum. B) periosteum. C) epiosteum. D) mediosteum. E) paraosteum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) ________ bone reduces the weight of the skeleton and reduces the load on muscles. A) Short B) Irregular C) Spongy D) Compact E) Long Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) The layers of bone tissue immediately deep to the periosteum are A) circumferential lamellae. B) osteoid plates. C) trabeculae. D) concentric lamellae. E) epiphseal ridges. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 68) Which statement is true regarding calcium in bone matrix? A) Calcium is found in crystals called hydroxyapatite. B) Calcium is secreted by osteoblasts into the matrix. C) Once deposited, calcium cannot be removed from bone. D) Calcium provides flexibility to the bone matrix. E) Calcium is the organic part of the matrix. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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69) The trabeculae of spongy bone A) are organized parallel to the long axis of the bone. B) are organized along stress lines. C) are composed mostly of cartilage. D) will collapse under stress. E) are concentrated in the cortex of the diaphysis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Figure 6-1 The Structure of Compact Bone Use Figure 6-1 to answer the following questions: 70) Which structure is called an osteon? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 18 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

71) Which structure is characteristic of spongy bone? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 72) The structure labeled "3" is the result of which process? A) bone cells adding matrix between existing osteons B) surface growth of bone C) remodeling of compact bone D) remodeling of spongy bone E) osteoporosis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 73) Identify the structures labeled "4." A) concentric lamellae B) circumferential lamellae C) interstitial lamellae D) trabeculae E) periosteum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 74) What lines the structure labeled "7"? A) the endosteum B) blood vessels C) the central canal D) spongy bone E) trabeculae Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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75) Blood is distributed from the surface of a bone to deeper central canals through channels known as A) perforating canals. B) canaliculi. C) interstitial canals. D) concentric ducts. E) concentric canals. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) ________ fibers are stronger than steel when stretched. A) Calcium B) Mineral C) Elastic D) Carbon E) Collagen Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) The superficial membrane of a bone is called the A) endosteum. B) ectosteum. C) cortical membrane. D) periosteum. E) osteoid collar. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) The process by which osteoblasts add layers to circumferential lamellae is A) appositional growth. B) interstitial growth. C) intramembranous growth. D) endochondral ossification. E) epiphyseal ossification. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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79) During endochondral ossification these vessels invade the cartilage of the diaphysis. A) metaphyseal vessels B) nutrient arteries and veins C) periosteal vessels D) endosteal vessels E) diaphyseal artery and vein Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 80) During the process of ________, an existing tissue is replaced by bone. A) phosphorylation B) resorption C) ossification D) osteopropagation E) remodeling Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 81) A calcified skeletal muscle is an example of A) bone spurs. B) osteoporosis. C) heterotopic bone formation. D) osteodysplasia. E) osteomalacia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) What type of tissue is replaced in the embryo during endochondral ossification? A) connective tissue membranes B) fibrocartilage C) mesenchymal tissue D) hyaline cartilage E) Wharton's jelly Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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83) The articular cartilage of a typical long bone is composed of what type of cartilage? A) elastic cartilage B) synovial cartilage C) hyaline cartilage D) fibrocartilage E) osseous cartilage Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 84) The deposition of calcium salts in bone tissues is referred to as A) hardening. B) ossification. C) calcification. D) osteogenesis. E) remodeling. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 85) Which of the following is formed by intramembranous ossification? A) roof of the skull B) carpal bones C) femur D) clavicle E) the roof of the skull and the clavicle Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) Endochondral ossification begins with the formation of a(n) A) fibrous connective-tissue model. B) cartilage model. C) membranous model. D) calcified model. E) osteoid model. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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87) The following are important steps in the process of endochondral ossification. What is the correct order for these events? 1. Enlarged chondrocytes die. 2. Osteoblasts replace calcified cartilage with spongy bone. 3. Chondrocytes enlarge and the surrounding matrix begins to calcify. 4. Blood vessels grow around the edges of the cartilage. 5. Perichondrial cells become osteoblasts and produce a superficial layer of bone. A) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2 B) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2 C) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2 D) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 E) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 88) Secondary ossification centers occur A) in the diaphysis. B) at the periosteum. C) in the epiphyses. D) in the metaphyses. E) in dermal bones. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 89) Intramembranous ossification begins with differentiation of ________ cells. A) osteoclast B) osteolytic C) mesenchymal D) osteoblast E) osteocyte Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) Which of the following statements about Marfan's syndrome is false? A) It results in short, stubby fingers. B) It results from a mutation. C) It affects connective tissue structures. D) It affects epiphyseal cartilages. E) It may also cause cardiovascular problems. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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91) Bone growth in length occurs by mitosis of A) concentric lamellae. B) cartilage cells in the epiphyseal side of the metaphysis. C) growth of trabeculae. D) osteoblasts in the endosteum. E) cartilage cells in the diaphyseal side of the metaphysis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 92) Intramembranous ossification A) produces flat bones, as in the bones of the roof of the skull. B) explains how a juvenile's bone can grow in length. C) occurs in the diaphysis of a long bone. D) occurs inside a bag of cartilage. E) occurs in all bones before birth. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 93) Primary ossification centers develop in long bones in the A) proximal epiphysis. B) periosteum. C) metaphysis. D) distal epiphysis. E) diaphysis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) Suppose that epiphyseal lines appear in a 10-year-old's long bones. Which of the following statements is, therefore, true? A) The epiphyseal plates have ossified and further growth in length is not possible. B) Administration of growth hormone will stimulate future bone growth in length. C) Osteoclasts will dissolve the metaphysis so length growth can continue until adulthood. D) More growth will occur during the teenage years as sex hormones stimulate rebuilding of growth plates. E) Intramembranous ossification will enable further growth in length. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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95) During appositional growth, A) bones grow longer. B) bones grow wider. C) cartilage replaces bone. D) the epiphysis fuses with the diaphysis. E) compact bone replaces spongy bone. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 96) When the epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone, A) puberty begins. B) interstitial bone growth begins. C) appositional bone growth begins. D) long bones have reached their adult length. E) the bone becomes more brittle. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 97) When cartilage is produced at the epiphyseal side of the metaphysis at the same rate as bone is deposited on the opposite side, bones A) grow longer. B) grow wider. C) become shorter. D) become more porous and weaker. E) become thicker. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 98) Accelerated closure of the epiphyseal plates could be caused by A) high levels of vitamin D. B) too much calcium in the diet. C) elevated levels of estrogen. D) too little thyroxine. E) an excess of growth hormone. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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99) When production of sex hormones increases at puberty, epiphyseal plates A) widen. B) become narrower. C) increase slowly. D) accelerate rapidly, but mostly in thickness. E) are hardly affected. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 100) The following are major steps in the process of intramembranous ossification: 1. Clusters of osteoblasts form osteoid that becomes mineralized. 2. Osteoblasts differentiate within mesenchymal connective tissue. 3. Spicules of bone radiate out from the ossification centers. 4. Mesenchymal cells aggregate. What is the correct order for these events? A) 4, 1, 2, 3 B) 2, 1, 3, 4 C) 4, 2, 1, 3 D) 2, 3, 1, 4 E) 3, 4, 2, 1 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 6-2 Endochondral Ossification Use Figure 6-2 to answer the following question(s): 101) Where does growth in length occur? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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102) What type of tissue occurs at #1? A) elastic tissue B) fibrocartilage C) bone D) hyaline cartilage E) marrow tissue Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 103) What process is shown at #6? A) primary ossification B) secondary ossification C) length growth D) width growth E) fracture repair Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 104) Identify the structure at #4. A) intramembranous bone B) spongy bone C) hyaline cartilage D) periosteum E) mesenchyme Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 105) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) epiphysis B) diaphysis C) metaphysis D) marrow cavity E) trabeculae Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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106) In normal adult bones, A) there is no turnover of minerals. B) a portion of the protein and mineral content is replaced each year. C) osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity, once bone has been formed. D) osteoclasts continue to be active long after osteoblast activity ceases. E) exercise will have no effect on bone remodeling. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 107) The ongoing process of tearing down and rebuilding bone matrix is called A) restoration. B) osteolysis. C) resorption. D) ossification. E) remodeling. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) How do sex hormones affect bone growth? A) Testosterone stimulates osteoclast activity. B) They cause ossification to be faster than cartilage replacement. C) They stimulate the cleavage of hydroxyapetite. D) They cause osteoporosis. E) Estrogen causes slower epiphyseal closure. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 109) Which hormone increases calcium and phosphate ion absorption by the intestines? A) parathyroid hormone B) calcitriol C) thyroxine D) calcitonin E) estrogen Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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110) A lack of exercise could A) cause bones to become thicker. B) cause bones to store more calcium. C) result in porous and weak bones. D) cause bones to become longer. E) cause bones to lose their medullary cavity. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) When stress is applied to a bone, A) the minerals in the bone produce a weak electrical field that attracts osteoblasts. B) osteoclast activity increases and osteoblast activity decreases. C) the bone becomes thin and brittle and ultimately fractures. D) the bone compensates by becoming thinner in the region of stress. E) blood supply through the nutrient artery diminishes and thus remodeling proceeds at a much slower rate. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) Excessive growth hormone prior to puberty could result in A) osteoporosis. B) osteopenia. C) rickets. D) gigantism. E) dwarfism. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 113) Factors that are necessary for proper bone formation include all of the following, except A) vitamin A. B) vitamin E. C) vitamin C. D) the hormone thyroxine. E) vitamin D. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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114) Where in the body does the production of precursors for the synthesis of calcitriol occur? A) bone B) kidneys C) small intestine D) liver E) skin Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 115) ________ hormones stimulate osteoblasts to produce bone matrix. A) Sex B) Growth C) Thyroid D) Parathyroid E) Pancreatic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) RANKL or receptor activators of nuclear factor kB A) are receptors that bind directly to PTH. B) are found on the surface of osteoclasts. C) are molecules that cause osteoblasts to lay down bone. D) is a signal molecule that stimulates osteoclasts development. E) causes calcium to be excreted by the kidneys. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 117) Calcitonin does all of the following except A) increase bone deposition. B) inhibit osteoclasts. C) cause kidneys to excrete calcium. D) cause less calcitriol to be secreted. E) increase its level in pregnant women. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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118) If blood calcium levels drop below 8.5 mg/dL which hormone is likely to be activated? A) parathyroid hormone B) estrogen C) calcitonin D) calcitriol E) both calcitriol and parathyroid hormone Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 119) If blood calcium levels rise above 11mg/dL which hormone is likely to be activated? A) parathyroid hormone B) estrogen C) calcitonin D) calcitriol E) both calcitriol and parathyroid hormone Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 120) Of the total inorganic components in bone, calcium accounts for what percent? A) 17% B) 9.7% C) 39% D) 72% E) 0.72% Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 121) Of the total organic components in bone most of it is A) collagen. B) keratin. C) keratohyalin. D) elastin. E) actin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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122) The most abundant mineral in the human body is A) sodium. B) potassium. C) phosphorus. D) calcium. E) hydrogen. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 123) Elevated levels of calcium ion in the blood stimulate the secretion of the hormone A) calcitonin. B) thyroid hormone. C) parathyroid hormone. D) growth hormone. E) testosterone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 124) The hormone calcitonin functions to A) stimulate osteoclast activity. B) decrease the rate of calcium excretion. C) decrease the rate of calcium absorption. D) decrease the level of calcium ion in the blood. E) stimulate osteoblasts and inhibit osteoclasts. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 125) Parathyroid hormone functions in all of the following ways except A) stimulating osteoclast activity. B) increasing the rate of calcium absorption. C) decreasing the rate of calcium excretion. D) raising the level of calcium ion in the blood. E) inhibiting calcitonin secretion. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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126) A child with rickets often has A) oversized facial bones. B) long fingers. C) frequent bruises. D) bowed legs. E) inadequate muscle development. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 127) Bone plays a central role in the regulation of blood levels of A) potassium. B) iron. C) sulfate. D) calcium. E) sodium. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 128) Hundreds of years ago, explorers often died of scurvy. How can this bone-related disease be prevented? A) Supplement the diet with more calcium from meat. B) Increase levels of testosterone to stimulate bone repair. C) Supplement the diet with fresh fruit rich in vitamin C. D) Drink more water to promote bone remodeling and repair. E) Amputate fractured limbs to prevent the spread of scurvy. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 129) How is vitamin D (vitamin D3) related to calcium homeostasis in bone? A) Vitamin D provides a framework for calcium in the matrix. B) Vitamin D is regulated by osteoclast activity. C) Vitamin D is produced by osteoblasts during endochondral ossification. D) Vitamin D is involved in calcium absorption by the digestive tract. E) Vitamin D replaces calcium in the skeleton. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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130) The disease osteomalacia causes calcium loss from the skeleton, which would result in bones that are A) more resistant to compression. B) stronger and heavier. C) stronger and contain more spongy bone. D) weaker and more flexible. E) weaker and more brittle. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 131) Damage to a bone because of extreme load, sudden impact, or stresses applied from an unusual direction is called a A) dislocation. B) contortion. C) rupture. D) fragmentation. E) fracture. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) A(n) ________, or closed, fracture does not break the skin. A) plain B) internal C) simple D) contained E) common Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 133) An open or ________ fracture projects through the skin. A) external B) exposed C) complex D) compound E) complicated Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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134) A ________ fracture shatters the bone. A) comminuted B) greenstick C) compression D) transverse E) spiral Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 135) A fracture of the bone across its long axis is called a ________ fracture. A) comminuted B) greenstick C) compression D) transverse E) spiral Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 136) In a ________ fracture one side of the shaft is split and the other side is bent. A) comminuted B) greenstick C) compression D) transverse E) spiral Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 137) A ________ fracture is produced by twisting stresses applied to the bone. A) comminuted B) greenstick C) compression D) transverse E) spiral Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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138) A transverse fracture of the wrist that may be comminuted is called a ________ fracture. A) Pott's B) Long's C) tarsal D) common E) Colles Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 139) A fracture that affects the malleolus on both lower leg bones is called a ________ fracture. A) carpal B) Pott's C) Colles D) complex E) double-split Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 140) The fracture of vertebrae subjected to extreme vertical stress is called a ________ fracture. A) comminuted B) greenstick C) compression D) transverse E) spiral Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 141) After a fracture of the diaphysis has healed, the thickened region that results is called the A) epiphyseal plate. B) external callus. C) dense tuberosity. D) condyle. E) fracture facet. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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142) A fracture at the ankle involving both lower leg bones is often called a ________ fracture. A) compression B) Pott's C) displaced D) greenstick E) Colles Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 143) While on a school skiing trip in Colorado, Heidi falls and breaks her tibia and fibula in a Pott's fracture. What would you expect as a prominent part of her clinical assessment several hours after the fall? A) hypertension B) tachycardia C) erythema D) hematoma E) cyanosis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 144) What is the correct sequence of steps in bone repair? 1. Cartilage in the external callus is replaced by bone. 2. A hematoma occurs. 3. An internal callus forms at the site of injury. 4. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts remodel the bone at the site of repair. A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 2, 1, 3, 4 C) 3, 1, 4, 2 D) 4, 2, 3, 1 E) 2, 3, 1, 4 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 145) Osteoclast-activating factor does all of the following except that it A) is released in large amounts early in life. B) increases the number of osteoclasts. C) increases the activity of osteoclasts. D) produces a severe osteoporosis. E) is released by some cancer tumors. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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146) A condition in which bone becomes riddled with holes making them brittle and compromises normal function is called A) osteopenia. B) osteoporosis. C) osteomyelitis. D) osteitis. E) osteomalacia. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 147) The condition known as osteopenia A) affects mostly women. B) causes a gradual reduction in bone mass. C) is caused by too much vitamin D in the diet. D) is rarely seen as people age. E) only affects the femur. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 148) If osteoclasts are more active than osteoblasts, bones will become A) denser. B) thicker. C) osteopenic. D) stronger. E) calcified. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 149) Why does osteoporosis affect more women than men? A) Women typically do not get enough calcium in their diet. B) Men do not remodel the skeleton as fast as women. C) Pregnancy causes deossification of bones in women and will lead to osteoporosis. D) Men exercise more than women and therefore have less osteoporosis. E) Women have a decrease in sex hormones after menopause. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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150) Aging has what effect on the skeletal system? A) progressive loss of processes and tuberosities B) fusion of joints, especially in the vertebral column C) loss of calcium and collagen fibers from matrix D) increase in the number of cranial foramina E) increase in adipose tissue in epiphyses Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 151) If a tumor secretes high levels of osteoclast-activating factor, which of the following would you expect to occur as a result of this condition? A) increases in blood levels of calcium B) bone fragility C) decreased bone density D) increased osteoclast activity E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 152) Mary is 50 years old and has entered menopause. During a checkup, a bone scan reveals the beginnings of osteoporosis. Her physician suggests hormone therapy. What hormone might she prescribe for Mary? A) thyroid hormone B) growth hormone C) estrogen D) parathyroid hormone E) calcitonin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 153) Mary is 50 years old and has entered menopause. During a checkup, a bone scan reveals the beginnings of osteoporosis. Her physician suggests nutritional therapy. What might she recommend for Mary? A) vitamin C B) vitamin D C) calcium supplements D) dairy products E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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154) The natural age-related loss of bone mass is called A) osteogenesis imperfecta. B) osteoporosis. C) osteomalacia. D) osteodysplasia. E) osteopenia. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Where is spongy bone found in long bones? Where is spongy bone found in flat bones? (Figure 6-3) A) diaphysis; between the compact bone layers B) epiphyses; between the compact bone layers C) metaphyses; between the compact bone layers D) between the compact bone layers; medullary cavity E) epiphyses; metaphyses Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Which three types of bone cells are developmentally related and what is their progression from the earliest to the latest stage? (Figure 6-5) A) osteoclasts to osteoblasts to osteocytes B) osteocytes to osteoblasts to osteoclasts C) osteogenic to osteoclasts to osteoblasts D) osteogenic to osteocytes to osteoblasts E) osteogenic to osteoblasts to osteocytes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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3) What are the three ways in which lamellae are organized in compact bone? (Figure 6-7) A) horizontally around an osteon, vertically between osteons, and transversely around the entire bone B) concentrically around an osteon, vertically between osteons, and transversely around the entire bone C) vertically around an osteon, interstitially between osteons, and horizontally around the entire bone D) concentrically around an osteon, vertically between osteons, and parallel around the entire bone E) concentrically around an osteon, interstitially between osteons, and circumferentially around the entire bone Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 4) Select the correct words for the following sentence: The (endosteum/periosteum) covers the superficial layer of compact bone and is made up of (the fibrous and cellular layers/osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteocytes). (Figure 6-10) A) periosteum; fibrous and cellular layers B) endosteum; fibrous and cellular layers C) periosteum; osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteocytes D) endosteum; osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteocytes E) endosteum and periosteum; osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteocytes Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 5) What gland responds when the blood calcium level is too low? (Figure 6-16a) A) thyroid gland B) adrenal gland C) parathyroid gland D) pituitary gland E) hypothalamus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Essay Questions 1) During the growth of a long bone, how is the epiphysis forced farther from the shaft? Answer: The chondrocytes of the epiphyseal cartilage enlarge and divide, increasing the thickness of the cartilage. On the shaft, the chondrocytes become ossified, "chasing" the expanding epiphyseal cartilage away from the shaft. Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) What is the difference between ossification and calcification? Answer: Ossification means specifically the conversion of connective tissue into bone tissue. Calcification means the depositing of calcium salts in any tissue, including bone. Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 3) Todd is 13 and lives in an urban apartment. He spends most of his time watching TV and eating "junk" food. One afternoon, during recess, he falls on the playground and breaks his leg. Although he appears to be healthy, his leg takes longer to heal than expected. What might be the cause of the longer healing time? Answer: Assuming that there is no other disease process involved, Todd's problem is probably related to his poor diet. Good nutrition is important for promoting the healing process. Insufficient quantities of protein, vitamin C, vitamin A, and vitamin D would cause the normal healing process to occur at a much slower rate. Todd's inactivity may also contribute to his slower rate of healing. Learning Outcome: 6-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 4) An elderly patient has a broken femur that is healing very slowly. A young resident suggests using a device that will create an electrical field in the area of the fracture to help speed the healing process. Why might this possibly help? Answer: Osteoblasts are attracted to electrical fields produced by bone crystals when they are stressed. This is one of the reasons that trabeculae of bones are organized along stress lines. If the same type of electrical field could be duplicated at the site of the fracture, osteoblasts may be stimulated to migrate to the area and increase the rate of bone production and thus healing of the fracture. Learning Outcome: 6-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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5) Would you expect to see changes in blood levels of the hormones calcitonin and PTH as a result of vitamin D3 deficiency? Explain. Answer: A person deficient in vitamin D3 would not be able to absorb calcium effectively from the digestive tract, leading to a shortage of calcium in the blood. To maintain homeostasis, the decrease in blood calcium would trigger the release of PTH. The PTH, in turn, would stimulate osteoclasts to release enough calcium from the bone to maintain proper calcium levels in the blood. Levels of calcitonin would decrease, because release of this hormone is triggered by high blood calcium levels. Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 6) What is osteopenia? Name and define two forms of osteopenia. Answer: Osteopenia is a general term for reduced bone mass. Osteoporosis and osteomalacia are forms. Osteoporosis is a condition of reduced bone density, bone weakness, and pain resulting from the loss of mineral from bone with advancing age. Osteomalacia is bone weakness caused by insufficient calcium deposits. It is known as rickets in the young. Learning Outcome: 6-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 7 The Axial Skeleton Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is not true regarding the axial skeleton? A) has 80 bones B) includes the skull C) includes the pelvic and pectoral girdles D) includes auditory ossicles E) includes the thoracic cage Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton? A) provides an attachment for muscles that move the appendicular skeleton B) provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, neck, and trunk C) provides an attachment for muscles involved in breathing D) provides protection for the brain and spinal cord E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton? A) skull B) false ribs C) sternum D) hyoid bone E) pelvic girdle Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) The skull and vertebral column are part of the ________ skeleton. A) axial B) apical C) appendicular D) articulated E) sagittal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) Identify the mismatched pair. A) skull bones: 8 cranial and 14 facial bones B) bones associated with the skull: 6 auditory ossicles and 1 hyoid bone C) vertebral column: 24 vertebrae and 1 sacrum and 1 coccyx D) thoracic cage: sternum and 24 ribs and 2 clavicles E) There is no mismatched pair. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 6) In some individuals the supra-orbital foramen is incomplete and called the A) supra-orbital fissure. B) supra-orbital suture. C) supra-orbital fontanelle. D) supra-orbital notch. E) supra-orbital meatus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) The olfactory foramina are found in which of the following bones? A) ethmoid B) sphenoid C) temporal D) nasal E) zygomatic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) A thickening of the frontal bone that helps protect the eye is the A) optic canal. B) supra-orbital margin. C) superior orbital fissure. D) frontal suture. E) frontal sinuses. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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9) Which portion of the temporal bone houses the structures of the internal ear? A) squamous B) petrous C) styloid D) zygomatic E) mastoid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 10) Which paired bones form the lateral, posterior portions of the cranium? A) frontal B) maxilla C) sphenoid D) parietal E) zygomatic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) Delicate projections that form from the ethmoidal labyrinth are A) olfactory foramina. B) pterygoid processes. C) sphenoidal sinuses. D) superior and middle nasal conchae. E) auditory ossicles. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 12) Which of the following is not a cranial bone? A) frontal B) parietal C) palatine D) temporal E) occipital Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) Air-filled chambers found in several bones of the skull are called A) conchae. B) sinuses. C) fontanelles. D) sutures. E) fossae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) mandible: movable facial bone in skull B) maxilla: alveolar processes C) sphenoid: external acoustic meatus D) frontal: glabella E) occipital: foramen magnum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 15) Which of the following articulate in the mandibular fossa? A) condylar process B) mastoid process C) acromion process D) coronoid process E) zygomatic process Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) The internal acoustic meatus is located in which bone? A) occipital B) ethmoid C) sphenoid D) temporal E) parietal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) The occipital ________ are where the occipital bone articulates with the first cervical vertebra. A) processes B) condyles C) foramina D) fossae E) tubercles Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) The auditory ossicles are housed in which cranial bone? A) sphenoid B) ethmoid C) zygomatic D) temporal E) lacrimal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) The parietal bones and occipital bone articulate at the ________ suture. A) lambdoid B) central C) sagittal D) coronal E) posterior Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) The ________ is the bony chamber that protects and supports the brain. A) skull B) centrum C) cranium D) cephalum E) cortex Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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21) Infection of the large process on the temporal bone would be called A) tinnitus. B) encephalitis. C) meningitis. D) petrositis. E) mastoiditis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 22) The inferior portion of the nasal septum is formed by the A) nasal bone. B) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone. C) inferior nasal conchae. D) vomer. E) palatine bone. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) The optic nerve passes through which structure? A) superior orbital fissure B) inferior orbital fissure C) optic canal D) internal optic meatus E) external acoustic meatus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) The four primary sutures are lambdoid, coronal, sagittal, and A) lateral. B) cuboidal. C) parietal. D) squamous. E) frontal. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) The ________ bone is unusual because it doesn't contact another bone. A) vomer B) lacrimal C) hyoid D) atlas E) ethmoid Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) The hard palate of the roof of the mouth is mostly formed by the A) palatine processes of the maxillae. B) lesser wings of the sphenoid bone. C) nasal bones. D) zygomatic process. E) palatine bones. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) The foramen magnum is found in the ________ bone. A) frontal B) parietal C) ethmoid D) occipital E) temporal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) The suture that forms the articulation of the parietal bones with the frontal bone is the ________ suture. A) lambdoid B) rostral C) coronal D) squamous E) sagittal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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29) The calvaria (or skullcap) is formed by the ________ bones. A) frontal, temporal, and parietal B) frontal, parietal, and occipital C) temporal, parietal, and occipital D) frontal, temporal, and occipital E) frontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) The zygomatic arch is formed by the articulation of processes from which two bones? A) zygomatic and maxilla B) frontal and temporal C) sphenoid and temporal D) zygomatic and sphenoid E) temporal and zygomatic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) The prominent bulge just posterior and inferior to the external auditory meatus is the A) mastoid process. B) styloid process. C) occipital condyle. D) condyloid process. E) temporal process. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) Which of these is not one of the facial bones? A) frontal B) maxilla C) vomer D) mandible E) zygomatic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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33) Each of the following regions/markings is associated with the occipital bone except the A) superior and inferior nuchal lines. B) foramen magnum. C) hypoglossal canals. D) glabella. E) external occipital crest. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) A point of attachment for muscles that rotate or extend the head is the A) styloid process. B) mastoid process. C) palatine process. D) coronoid process. E) zygomatic process. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) Ligaments that support the hyoid bone are attached to the A) styloid process. B) mastoid process. C) palatine process. D) coronoid process. E) zygomatic process. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) Each of the following is associated with the temporal bone except the A) mastoid cells. B) petrous portion. C) sella turcica. D) internal acoustic meatus. E) mandibular fossa. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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37) The hypophyseal fossa of the sella turcica contains the ________ gland. A) lacrimal B) pituitary C) olfactory D) nasal E) sellar Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) Each of the following structures is associated with the sphenoid bone except the A) foramen ovale. B) optic canals. C) pterygoid processes. D) sella turcica. E) cribriform plate. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 39) A skull bone that could be described as looking like a bat with wings extended is the A) maxilla. B) crista galli. C) sphenoid. D) ethmoid. E) temporal. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) The nasal conchae A) attach muscles that move the eye. B) contain the nerves for olfaction. C) create turbulence in the nasal passageways. D) protect the pituitary gland. E) attach muscles that move the mouth. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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41) The bony portion of the nasal septum is formed by the A) nasal bones. B) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone. C) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and vomer bone. D) vomer and sphenoid bone. E) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and sphenoid bone. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) Of the following bones, which is unpaired? A) vomer B) maxillae C) palatine D) nasal E) lacrimal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) The styloid process, zygomatic process, and auditory ossicles are associated with the A) parietal bone. B) occipital bone. C) sphenoid bone. D) temporal bone. E) lacrimal bone. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) The skull contains ________ bones. A) 32 B) 22 C) 42 D) 12 E) 27 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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45) While playing softball, Gina is struck in the frontal bone by a wild pitch. Which of the following complaints would you expect her to have? A) a sore jaw B) a black eye C) a headache D) a sore chest E) a sore back Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 46) The alveolar processes of the mandible A) support the upper teeth. B) support the lower teeth. C) anchor the tongue. D) are part of the temporomandibular joint. E) articulate with the hyoid bone. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) The smallest facial bones are the A) ethmoid bones. B) lacrimal bones. C) lacerum bones. D) nasal bones. E) zygomatic bones. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 48) Ridges that anchor muscles that stabilize the head are the A) anterior and posterior nuchal lines. B) anterior and superior nuchal lines. C) inferior and superior nuchal lines. D) medial and lateral nuchal lines. E) cranial and caudal nuchal lines. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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49) The hyoid bone A) attaches to tongue muscles. B) is linked to the styloid process by a ligament. C) is superior to the larynx. D) does not directly articulate with other bones. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 50) Damage to the temporal bone would most likely affect the sense(s) of A) balance. B) hearing and balance. C) smell and taste. D) vision. E) touch and pressure. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 51) Premature closure of the sagittal suture would result in A) a long and narrow head. B) a very broad head. C) an unusually small head. D) a distorted head with one side being longer than the other. E) death. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 52) During development a cleft palate forms when which bones fail to meet along the midline of the hard palate? A) temporal B) maxillae C) zygomatic D) sphenoid E) ethmoid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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53) Kristen went to the dentist complaining of jaw tenderness and popping noises when she opens and closes her mouth. He notices abnormal wearing on the articulating surfaces of her teeth. Which of the following conditions does she most likely suffer from? A) deviated nasal septum B) cleft palate C) temporomandibular joint syndrome D) dislocated jaw E) sinusitis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 54) Jack gets into a fight and is punched in the nose. Which of the following bones might be fractured? A) ethmoid bone B) zygomatic bone C) temporal bone D) mandible E) parietal bone Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 55) As the result of an accident, Bill suffers a dislocated jaw. This injury would involve the A) stylohyoid ligaments. B) hyoid bone. C) condylar process of the mandible. D) alveolar process of the mandible. E) greater horn of the hyoid bone. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 56) Your friend Greg is hit in the jaw and when looking at him, his face looks misaligned. You immediately take him to the emergency room and are not surprised to learn that he has a broken A) temporal bone. B) zygomatic bone. C) mandible. D) external auditory meatus. E) clavicle. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Figure 7-1 Floor of the Cranial Cavity Use Figure 7-1 to answer the following questions: 57) Which bone structure has foramina for the olfactory nerves? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 8 E) 5 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 58) Identify the sphenoid bone. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

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59) Which structure encloses the pituitary gland? A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 60) What is the name of the structure labeled "7"? A) optic canal B) foramen spinosum C) foramen rotundum D) foramen lacerum E) foramen ovale Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 61) What is the name of the structure labeled "8"? A) sella turcica B) foramen ovale C) foramen rotundum D) carotid canal E) foramen spinosum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 62) The facial nerve (VII) passes through the internal acoustic meatus and then through the A) mastoid foramen. B) stylomastoid foramen. C) jugular foramen. D) carotid foramen. E) foramen lacerum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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63) The large foramen that serves as a passageway for the medulla of the brain and the accessory nerve (XI) is the A) foramen lacerum. B) foramen rotundum. C) carotid canal. D) jugular foramen. E) foramen magnum. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) Nerves carrying sensory information from the lips and the chin pass through the A) ramus of the mandible. B) condylar process. C) mental foramina. D) mandibular foramen. E) maxillary foramina. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 65) The ________ passes through the ________. A) vagus nerve; foramen magnum B) optic nerve; foramen ovale C) vestibulocochlear nerve; external acoustic meatus D) internal jugular vein; jugular foramen E) internal carotid artery; jugular foramen Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) The nasal complex includes the bones that enclose the nasal cavity and the ________ sinuses. A) hyponasal B) paranasal C) endonasal D) epinasal E) intranasal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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67) Sinus inflammation is called A) sinusitis. B) asthma. C) congestion. D) postnasal drip. E) encephalitis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 68) Each of the following bones is a component of the orbital complex except the ________ bone. A) lacrimal B) nasal C) sphenoid D) ethmoid E) frontal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 69) The greater wings of which bone form a large portion of the posterior wall orbit? A) lacrimal B) ethmoid C) sphenoid D) nasal E) zygomatic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 70) How many bones make up the orbital complex? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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71) The nasal complex consists of all of the following bones except the A) zygomatic. B) ethmoid. C) sphenoid. D) frontal. E) maxillary. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) Which statement(s) about the functions of the paranasal sinuses is/are not true? A) They provide an extensive area of mucous epithelium. B) They make skull bones lighter. C) The mucus they secrete enters the oral cavities. D) They support cilia that move the mucus. E) They are located in the sphenoid, ethmoid, frontal, palatine and maxillae. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 73) The floor of the orbital complex is formed mainly by the A) maxilla. B) ethmoid. C) zygomatic. D) sphenoid. E) frontal. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) The largest sinus is within which bone? A) nasal B) sphenoid C) ethmoid D) frontal E) maxilla Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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75) The role(s) of the sinuses include(s) A) making the skull lighter. B) production of mucus that moistens and cleans the air. C) increasing surface area for gas exchange. D) extra source of air and increasing surface area for gas exchange. E) making the skull lighter and production of mucus that moistens and cleans the air. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 76) A bent nasal septum that slows or prevents sinus drainage is known clinically as a ________ septum. A) deviated B) crooked C) obstructive D) deviant E) restrictive Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 77) Sutures can be found at all of the joints of an adult skull except between A) the mandible and the cranium. B) the zygomatic bone and the maxillary bone. C) the occipital bone and the parietal bone. D) the vomer and the zygomatic bone. E) the sphenoid bone and the ethmoid bone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 78) The condition in which distortions of the skull occur due to the premature closure of fontanelles is called A) anencephaly. B) microcephaly. C) craniostenosis. D) membranitis. E) epicranial block. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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79) In the condition known as ________, premature closure of all of the cranial sutures results in restricted brain growth and an undersized head. A) anencephaly B) microcephaly C) craniostenosis D) membranitis E) epicranial block Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 80) Each of the following statements concerning the development of the skull is true except that A) all the bones of the skull develop from one single ossification center. B) at birth the cranial bones are connected by areas of fibrous connective tissue. C) the growth of the cranium is usually coordinated with the growth of the brain. D) the skulls of infants and adults differ in shape and structure of the skeletal elements. E) the most significant growth of the skull occurs before the age of 5. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 81) Which two fontanelles form along the sagittal suture? A) anterior and sphenoidal B) anterior and posterior C) posterior and sphenoidal D) anterior and mastoid E) posterior and mastoid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) Identify the correct statement regarding fontanelles. A) They form fibrous connections between facial bones. B) They persist throughout childhood. C) They enable easier delivery through the birth canal. D) The occipital fontanelles are also known as the soft spot. E) The sphenoidal fontanelles are the largest. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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83) The fibrous connective tissue membranes between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are A) fontanelles. B) sutures. C) Wormian bones. D) foramina. E) fibrocartilaginous discs. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 84) The most significant skull growth occurs before the age of A) 3. B) 2. C) 5. D) 1. E) 4. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 85) While you're visiting your friend who recently gave birth, she comments on her infant's soft spot. You think to yourself that the correct term for the "soft spot" located at the intersection of the frontal, sagittal, and coronal sutures is A) sphenoidal fontanelle. B) anterior fontanelle. C) occipital fontanelle. D) mastoid fontanelle. E) cushion spot. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 86) The most common distortion of the spinal curvature is A) kyphosis. B) lordosis. C) scoliosis. D) spinosis. E) spina bifida. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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87) The four curves of the adult spinal column are not all present at birth. Which of the following are the secondary curves, which do not appear until several months later? A) cervical and lumbar B) thoracic and lumbar C) sacral and lumbar D) thoracic and sacral E) cervical and sacral Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) What is the purpose of the secondary curves? A) accommodate the thoracic organs B) shift the weight of the body to permit an upright posture C) accommodate the abdominal organs D) form a humpback E) accommodate the pelvic organs Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 89) The four spinal curves include all but one of the following. Identify the exception. A) thoracic B) cervical C) lumbar D) axial E) sacral Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) The primary spinal curves A) are also called compensation curves. B) accommodate the thoracic and abdominopelvic viscera. C) develop several months after birth. D) are the lumbar and cervical curves. E) help shift the weight to permit an upright posture. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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91) Successive vertebrae articulate at facets on the inferior articular processes of the superior vertebra and facets on the ________ of the adjacent inferior vertebrae. A) dens B) pedicles C) lamellae D) transverse processes E) superior articular processes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 92) The five vertebral regions are the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and A) medial. B) proximal. C) distal. D) coccygeal. E) os coxal. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 93) The first cervical vertebra is called the A) primum. B) atlas. C) axis. D) cervix. E) apex. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) The second cervical vertebra is called the A) primum. B) atlas. C) axis. D) cervix. E) apex. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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95) The term ________ is used to describe an injury caused by displacement of the cervical vertebrae during a sudden change in body position. A) remodel B) rearrangement C) fracture D) whiplash E) adjustment Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 96) The ________ allow for a wide range of head movements. A) hyoid bones B) temporomandibular joints C) cervical vertebrae D) intervertebral discs E) occipital condyles Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 97) The vertebral column contains ________ thoracic vertebrae. A) 4 B) 5 C) 7 D) 12 E) 31 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) The vertebral arch is formed by the pedicles and the A) transverse spinous processes. B) dorsal spinous processes. C) laminae. D) costal facets. E) intervertebral disc. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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99) The part of the vertebrae that transfers weight along the axis of the vertebral column is the A) vertebral arch. B) vertebral body. C) articular processes. D) intervertebral space. E) transverse process. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) Most mammals, including humans and giraffes, have ________ cervical vertebrae. A) 11 B) 6 C) 7 D) 19 E) 10 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) Vertebrae of which regions are fused in the adult? A) lumbar region B) sacral region C) coccygeal region D) thoracic E) sacral and coccygeal regions Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 102) The widest intervertebral discs are found in the ________ region. A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral E) coccygeal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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103) As you move in an inferior direction along the vertebral column, A) the vertebral foramen become relatively larger. B) the vertebral bodies become relatively larger. C) the dorsal spines grow progressively longer. D) the transverse processes move anteriorly. E) the vertebrae get progressively smaller and thinner. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 104) The dens process is found on the A) atlas. B) axis. C) sacrum. D) coccyx. E) ribs. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) The sacrum consists of how many fused bones? A) 7 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3 E) 6 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) Which of the following is not true regarding the vertebral canal? A) It encloses the spinal cord. B) It is formed by vertebral foramina of successive vertebrae. C) The anterior border is the vertebral body. D) It is found only in cervical and thoracic vertebrae. E) The posterior border is the vertebral arch. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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107) The ability to nod "yes" is due to the articulation of which two bones? A) atlas and axis B) axis and C3 C) atlas and C3 D) axis and occipital E) atlas and occipital Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 108) Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of A) transverse processes. B) transverse foramina. C) facets for the articulation of ribs. D) notched spinous processes. E) costal cartilages. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) The distinguishing feature of a cervical vertebra is the A) costal facet. B) vertebral arch. C) transverse foramina. D) spinous process. E) pedicle. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 110) Which of the following types of vertebrae and their numbers is not correct? A) cervical: 7 B) thoracic: 12 C) lumbar: 5 D) sacral: 2 fused E) coccygeal: 3 to 5 fused Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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111) All of the following are true of the sacrum except that it A) provides protection for reproductive, digestive, and excretory organs. B) provides a point of attachment for leg muscles. C) articulates with the pelvic bones. D) articulates with the second and third lumbar vertebrae. E) articulates with the coccyx. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) Gesturing "no" with the head depends on the structure(s) of which cervical vertebrae? A) atlas B) axis C) vertebra prominens D) both the atlas and the axis E) both the atlas and the vertebra prominens Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 113) The ribs articulate with the ________ of the vertebrae. A) spinous processes B) transverse processes C) laminae D) pedicles E) auric arches Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 114) The thickened area that is the site of articulation of the sacrum to the ilium at the sacroiliac joint is the A) sacral hiatus. B) sacral canal. C) auricular surface. D) ala. E) lateral sacral crest. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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115) The spinous processes of the sacral vertebrae fuse to form the A) median sacral crest. B) lateral sacral crest. C) sacral hiatus. D) sacral canal. E) sacral tuberosity. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) Which of the following statements about the coccyx is true? A) It is the most caudal vertebral region. B) It anchors a muscle that constricts the anal opening. C) It consists of three to five coccygeal vertebrae. D) Fusion is delayed until the mid-twenties. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 7-2 Typical Vertebra (inferior view) Use Figure 7-2 to answer the following questions: 117) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) transverse process B) lamina C) pedicle D) vertebral body E) spinous process Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 118) Which structure contacts the intervertebral disc? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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119) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) lateral process B) spinous process C) lamina D) transverse process E) pedicle Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 120) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) pedicle B) transverse process C) lamina D) spinous process E) transverse articular facet Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 121) Where is the spinal cord located? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 122) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) transverse process B) superior articular process C) pedicle D) inferior articular process E) lamina Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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123) The clavicles articulate with which portion of the sternum? A) manubrium B) body C) xiphoid process D) sternal angle E) jugular notch Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 124) Ribs 8 to 12 are called ________ because they do not attach directly to the sternum. A) free B) false C) floating D) fibrous E) filamentous Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 125) The superior part of the sternum is called the A) apex. B) xiphoid. C) coccyx. D) manubrium. E) head. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 126) Give the clinical term for the condition in which the vertebral laminae fail to unite during development. A) spina imperfecta B) laminaecta C) laminal cleft D) ossificans imperfecta E) spina bifida Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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127) The ribs articulate with the A) cervical vertebrae. B) thoracic vertebrae. C) lumbar vertebrae. D) sacrum. E) hyoid bone. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 128) Humans normally have ________ pairs of ribs. A) 2 B) 6 C) 10 D) 12 E) 24 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 129) The part of the sternum that articulates with the clavicles is the A) manubrium. B) body. C) xiphoid process. D) angle. E) tuberculum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 130) Which bone(s) include(s) a manubrium? A) scapula B) clavicle C) sternum D) cervical vertebrae #1 and #2 E) all of the vertebrae Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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131) A tubercle of a rib articulates with the A) manubrium. B) costal facets of thoracic vertebrae. C) hyoid. D) xiphoid process. E) cervical and thoracic vertebrae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) The true ribs are A) ribs 1-7. B) called vertebrosternal ribs. C) ribs 8-12. D) called vertebrochondral ribs. E) ribs 1-7 and are called vertebrosternal ribs. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 133) The ribs that have no attachment to the sternum are A) true ribs. B) ribs 8-12 and are called false ribs. C) floating ribs. D) ribs 11 and 12. E) ribs 11 and 12 and are called floating ribs. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 134) Which connective tissue is found between the ribs and the sternum? A) dense regular connective tissue B) hyaline cartilage C) elastic cartilage D) fibrocartilage E) dense irregular connective tissue Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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135) While performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an unconscious person, you are careful to position your hands correctly to avoid damage to the A) ribs. B) scapula. C) xiphoid process. D) sacrum. E) ribs and xiphoid process. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Looking at all the views of the skull, name the major sutures. (Figure 7-3) A) sagittal, lambdoid, and squamous B) frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal C) frontal, sagittal, and coronal D) sagittal, lambdoid, squamous, and coronal E) mastoid, styloid, and zygomatic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Name the fontanelles found on the infant skull. Why aren't they labeled on the adult skull? (Figure 7-16) A) frontal, parietal, occipital, and sphenoid; they became foramen B) sphenoidal (paired), mastoid (paired), anterior, and posterior; they fused and are not on the adult skull C) superior, inferior, anterior, and posterior; they fused and are not on the adult skull D) sphenoidal (paired), mastoid (paired), anterior, and posterior; they became foramen E) coronal, sagittal, lambdoid, and squamous; they fused and are not on the adult skull Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 3) Which two regions of the spine form primary curves? (Figure 7-17) A) cervical and sacral B) lumbar and sacral C) cervical and thoracic D) thoracic and lumbar E) thoracic and sacral Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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4) Which two pairs of ribs are the floating ribs? What distinguishes them from the other false ribs? (Figure 7-23) A) ribs 11 and 12; they do not attach to the sternum B) ribs 9 and 10; they do not attach to the sternum C) ribs 1 and 12; they attach to the sternum by costal cartilage D) ribs 1 and 2; they attach to the sternum directly E) ribs 1 and 12; they do not attach to the sternum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Essay Questions 1) Frank gets into a brawl at a sports event and receives a broken nose. After the nose heals, he starts to have sinus headaches and discomfort in the area of his maxillae. What is probably the cause of Frank's discomfort? Answer: Frank probably has a deviated septum as the result of his broken nose. In a deviated septum the cartilaginous portion of the septum is bent where it joins the bone. This condition often blocks the drainage of one or more sinuses with resulting sinus headaches, infections, and sinusitis. Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 2) Caroline goes to the doctor complaining of ear pain and fever. The doctor notices that the ear infection is not limited to the middle and inner ear but has traveled posteriorly. Explain where the infection has likely traveled, how it was able to move beyond the inner ear, and what additional symptoms she may exhibit with the infection. Answer: Caroline's inner ear infection has likely spread to the mastoid process causing mastoiditis. The infection traveled through the mastoid air cells which are connected to the middle ear cavity. She may also experience swelling and redness behind the ear at the mastoid process. Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 3) Consider a disease whereby cilia within the epithelial lining of the paranasal sinuses are destroyed. What would be some of the consequences? Answer: The ciliated epithelium moves mucus back toward the throat, where it is eventually swallowed or expelled coughing. Mucus traps foreign particulates, such as dust or microorganisms, which in the absence of cilia would build up within the paranasal sinuses. Possible consequences may include congestion, pain, sinusitis, and spread of infections into the respiratory tract. Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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4) What role do the fontanelles play in infant development? Answer: These fibrous connective tissue structures fill in between the bones of the cranium in a newborn infant. As the brain grows, the skull bones can move apart and allow for brain growth without interfering with nervous system development and function. If they are prematurely ossified, brain development is restricted, leading to skull deformity and mental retardation. This condition is called craniostenosis. Learning Outcome: 7-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 5) Joe is 40 years old and 30 pounds overweight. Like many middle-aged men, Joe carries most of this extra weight in his abdomen and jokes with his friends about his "beer gut." During an annual physical, Joe's physician advises him that his spine is developing an abnormal curvature. Why is the curvature of Joe's spine changing, and what is this condition called? Answer: The curvature of the spine is changing as a result of the heavy abdomen pulling on the anterior cavity. This extra weight causes abnormal spinal curvature to compensate for balance. The condition is called lordosis because its effects are prevalent in the lumbar region. Learning Outcome: 7-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 6) Why are ruptured intervertebral discs more common in lumbar vertebrae and dislocations and fractures more common in cervical vertebrae? Answer: The lumbar vertebrae have massive bodies and carry a lot of weight; these factors contribute to the rupturing of an intervertebral disc. The cervical vertebrae are more delicate and have small bodies; these factors increase the possibility of dislocations and fractures in the cervical vertebrae. Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 7) Billy is injured during a high school football game. His chest is badly bruised and he is experiencing difficulty in breathing. What might the problem be? Answer: Billy has probably broken one or more of his ribs. Movement of the ribs changes the size of the thoracic cavity, which is an important part of breathing. When the ribs are broken, breathing can become difficult (labored) because of pain when the ribs are moved. Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 8 The Appendicular Skeleton Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton? A) scapula B) tibia C) sacrum D) coxal bones E) clavicles Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) The medial end of the clavicle is also known as the ________ end. A) acromial B) sternal C) coracoidal D) manubrial E) scapular Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Which of the following is the term for the articulation of the clavicles with the sternum? A) acromioclavicular joint B) sternoclavicular joint C) acromiosternal joint D) sternoacromial joint E) costalclavicular joint Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Which of the following is the term for the articulation of the clavicles with the scapulae? A) acromioclavicular joint B) sternoclavicular joint C) acromiosternal joint D) sternoacromial joint E) costalclavicular joint Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) The acromion is continuous with a prominent ridge of bone on the posterior surface of the scapula known as the A) conoid tubercle. B) glenoid cavity. C) coracoid process. D) spine. E) inferior angle. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) The anterior surface of the scapula is smooth and concave. The name of the concave depression is the A) supraspinous fossa. B) infraspinous fossa. C) subscapular fossa. D) subspinous fossa. E) glenoid fossa. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) The scapula is roughly triangular in shape. Which of the following are correct terms for the borders? A) superior, medial, and lateral borders B) dorsal and costal borders C) anterior, posterior, and superior borders D) scapular, sternal, and clavicular borders E) pectoral borders Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the A) clavicle articulates with the humerus. B) clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum. C) coxal bones articulate with the femur. D) vertebral column articulates with the sacrum. E) clavicle articulates with the xiphoid process. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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9) The clavicle articulates with the A) coracoid process and the humerus. B) glenoid cavity and scapular spine. C) coracoid process and acromion. D) manubrium and xiphoid process. E) manubrium and acromion. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) Which of the following constitutes the pectoral girdle? A) clavicles only B) clavicles and scapulae C) clavicles, scapulae, and humerus D) clavicles, scapulae, humerus, radius, and ulna E) clavicles, scapulae, humerus, radius, ulna, and carpal bones Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) Which of the following is located closest to the jugular notch? A) medial end of scapula B) medial end of clavicle C) lateral end of scapula D) lateral end of clavicle E) xiphoid process Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 12) Which of the following is most commonly fractured in a fall? A) radius B) scapula C) clavicle D) sternum E) glenoid cavity Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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13) The appendicular skeleton includes the bones of the upper and lower extremities and their supporting elements called A) joints. B) girdles. C) sutures. D) ball and socket. E) rotator cuffs. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) Two prominent features of the clavicle are the conoid tubercle at the lateral end and the ________ tuberosity at the medial end. A) costal B) sternal C) acromial D) deltoid E) scapular Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) The scapula articulates with the humerus at the ________ joint. A) acromiogleno B) acromiohumoral C) glenohumoral D) glenoscapular E) humeroscapular Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) The ________ are S-shaped bones that articulate lateral to the jugular notch. A) scapulae B) manubria C) coracoid processes D) clavicles E) acromial processes Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 8-1 The Scapula Use Figure 8-1 to answer the following questions: 17) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) spine of scapula B) scapular process C) acromion D) coracoid process E) scapular notch Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

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18) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) glenoid cavity B) acetabulum C) scapular cavity D) subscapular fossa E) rotator cup Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 19) Which structure is the acromion? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 20) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) acromion B) scapular process C) spine of scapula D) coracoid process E) scapular notch Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 21) What bone articulates on the structure labeled "2"? A) femur B) clavicle C) humerus D) manubrium E) radius Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

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22) Which of the following features is located near the proximal end of the humerus? A) medial epicondyle B) lateral epicondyle C) greater tubercle D) olecranon fossa E) capitulum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) The depression on the posterior surface at the distal end of the humerus is the A) olecranon fossa. B) coronoid fossa. C) radial fossa. D) intertubercular groove. E) radial groove. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) The ulnar nerve is exposed when it crosses the posterior surface of what process? A) greater tubercle B) lesser tubercle C) deltoid tuberosity D) medial epicondyle E) trochlea Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 25) The deltoid muscle attaches to what process? A) radial groove B) deltoid fossa C) intertubercular groove D) deltoid tuberosity E) greater tubercle Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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26) The short projections at the distal ends of both the radius and ulna are the A) styloid processes. B) radial head and ulnar head. C) radial head and olecranon. D) medial and lateral epicondyles. E) medial and lateral malleolus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) Which of the following processes is not found on the ulna? A) styloid process of ulna B) olecranon C) radial notch D) coronoid process E) trochlea Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) The attachment site for the biceps brachii muscle to the radius is at the A) deltoid tuberosity. B) greater tubercle. C) radial tuberosity. D) brachial tuberosity. E) styloid process of the radius. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 29) Which of the following is not one of the four proximal carpal bones? A) scaphoid B) lunate C) pisiform D) hamate E) triquetrum Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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30) The radius and ulna are bound to each other by a(n) ________ ligament. A) radioulnar B) interosseous C) antebrachial D) lateromedial E) intrabrachial Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) The trochlea is located on the A) tibia. B) humerus. C) radius. D) scapula. E) ulna. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) The bones of the forearm, or ________, consist of the radius and ulna. A) olecranon region B) brachium C) antecubital region D) antebrachium E) cubital region Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 33) Identify the mismatched pair. A) lunate; comma-shaped B) triquetrum; boat-shaped C) pisiform; pea-shaped D) trapezoid; wedge-shaped E) hamate; hook-shaped Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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34) In the anatomical position, the ulna is located ________ to the radius. A) distal B) proximal C) medial D) superior E) lateral Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) The condyle of the humerus consists of the A) medial and lateral epicondyles. B) trochlea and olecranon fossa. C) capitulum and trochlea. D) head and neck. E) capitulum and coronoid process. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) Which of the following surface features is found on the radius? A) olecranon B) coronoid process C) trochlear notch D) radial notch E) ulnar notch Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 37) There are ________ carpal bones located in the wrist, which form ________ rows of bones. A) 2; 8 B) 10; 3 C) 4; 2 D) 8; 2 E) 6; 2 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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38) The bones that form the fingers are the A) carpals. B) tarsals. C) metacarpals. D) metatarsals. E) phalanges. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) The rough surface feature present along the lateral border of the shaft of the humerus is the A) radial groove. B) medial epicondyle. C) lateral epicondyle. D) deltoid tuberosity. E) coronoid process. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) The bones that give the hand a wide range of motion are the A) carpals. B) tarsals. C) metacarpals. D) metatarsals. E) phalanges. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 41) The head of the radius articulates with the A) trochlea. B) capitulum. C) carpals. D) olecranon process. E) styloid process. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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42) The hand has ________ bones in the wrist and ________ bones in the palm. A) 5; 5 B) 10; 5 C) 8; 4 D) 8; 5 E) 4; 5 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) Which of the following is not an upper limb bone? A) ulna B) radius C) humerus D) metatarsals E) carpals Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) The ________ of the radius helps stabilize the wrist joint. A) olecranon process B) coronoid process C) styloid process D) radial tuberosity E) capitulum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 45) The bones that form the palm are the A) carpals. B) tarsals. C) metacarpals. D) metatarsals. E) phalanges. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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46) Tina falls and fractures her pisiform bone. What part of her body was injured? A) foot B) forearm C) wrist D) hand E) ankle Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 8-2 The Humerus Use Figure 8-2 to answer the following questions: 47) Which structure is the lateral epicondyle? A) 7 B) 8 C) 9 D) 3 E) 4 14 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 48) Identify the structure labeled "9." A) olecranon process B) medial epicondyle C) lateral epicondyle D) greater tubercle E) trochlea Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 49) When the arm is straight, which structure accepts the olecranon? A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 8 E) 9 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 50) Identify the place where the humerus often fractures. A) 1 B) 2 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 51) Upon which structure does the radius articulate? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

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52) Which of the following is not a part of the pelvis? A) sacrum B) coccyx C) coxal bone D) lumbar vertebrae E) pubic symphysis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53) What bone articulates with the coxal bone at the acetabulum? A) sacrum B) femur C) humerus D) tibia E) fibula Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) When seated, the weight of the body is borne by the A) ischial tuberosities. B) posterior inferior iliac spines. C) iliac crests. D) obturator foramina. E) inferior rami of the pubis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 55) The pubic and ischial rami encircle the A) pubic symphysis. B) lesser sciatic notch. C) greater sciatic notch. D) obturator foramen. E) acetabulum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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56) The two pubic bones join medially at the A) pubic tuberosity. B) superior ramus. C) inferior ramus. D) pubic tubercle. E) pubic symphysis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) The smooth articular surface of the acetabulum is called the A) ovale surface. B) obturator surface. C) lunate surface. D) sciatic surface. E) hamate surface. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) The sacroiliac joint is stabilized by ligaments attaching to a roughened area superior to the auricular surface of the ilium called the A) iliac fossa. B) anterior superior iliac spine. C) greater sciatic notch. D) iliac tuberosity. E) arcuate line. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) The bony edge of the true pelvis consisting of the ilium and pubis is called the A) pelvic spine. B) pelvic brim. C) pubic symphysis. D) sacral curvature. E) pelvic crest. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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60) The opening surrounded by the pelvic brim is called the A) pelvic inlet. B) false pelvis. C) pelvic crest. D) pelvic outlet. E) lesser pelvis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 61) The largest component of the coxal bone is the A) pubis. B) ischium. C) ilium. D) femur. E) tibia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) A male has a ________ pelvic outlet when compared to the woman's pelvic outlet. A) larger B) longer C) narrower D) wider E) deeper Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) The superior border of the ilium that acts as a point of attachment for both ligaments and muscles is the A) anterior iliac spine. B) acetabulum. C) posterior superior iliac spine. D) iliac crest. E) iliac notch. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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64) The sacrum articulates with the A) ilium. B) ischium. C) pubis. D) ilium and ischium. E) ischium and pubis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 65) The ilium, ischium, and pubis fuse into a single bone called the A) patella. B) pelvic girdle. C) pectoral girdle. D) coccyx. E) coxal bone. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) Which surface feature(s) along the ilium mark(s) attachment sites for large hip muscles? A) lunate surface B) greater sciatic notch C) gluteal lines D) lesser sciatic notch E) pubic symphysis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) The greater sciatic notch is a feature on the A) ilium. B) ischium. C) pubis. D) femur. E) patella. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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68) The pelvic organs are mostly found within the A) ischial spine. B) iliac fossa. C) ischial fossa. D) obturator foramen. E) pubic symphysis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 69) One type of hip fracture is a fracture of the A) patellar surface of the femur. B) pubic ramus. C) coxal bones. D) distal epiphysis of the femur. E) neck of the femur. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 70) The ridge of bone that separates the medial and lateral condyles of the tibia is called the A) anterior margin. B) medial malleolus. C) intercondylar eminence. D) interosseous membrane. E) intertrochanteric crest. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) The ________ is a large sesamoid-shaped bone sometimes called the kneecap. A) talus B) cuboid C) patella D) fibula E) navicular Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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72) Which lower leg bone does not carry any body weight? A) talus B) tibia C) navicular D) fibula E) calcaneus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 73) The foot arch that is maintained by ligaments running from the calcaneus to the metatarsals is the A) longitudinal arch. B) transverse arch. C) superior arch. D) posterior arch. E) distal arch. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the A) humerus. B) femur. C) tibia. D) fibula. E) coxal bone. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) Which of the following is the heel bone? A) talus B) navicular C) calcaneus D) cuboid E) patella Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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76) The distal end of the tibia articulates with the A) talus. B) fibula. C) patella. D) calcaneus. E) navicular. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) Which of the following is not a tarsal bone? A) medial cuneiform B) capitate C) cuboid D) navicular E) talus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) The part of the tibia that is easily felt through the skin and is known as the shin is the A) medial malleolus. B) anterior crest. C) tibial tuberosity. D) linea aspera. E) anterior margin. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) The medial malleolus is located on the A) fibula. B) femur. C) tibia. D) patella. E) ischium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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80) The ligament that surrounds the ________ attaches to the tibial tuberosity. A) tibia B) calcaneus C) talus D) patella E) head of the fibula Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 81) A ligament attaches the acetabulum to the femur at the ________, a small pit in the center of the femoral head. A) greater trochanter B) lesser trochanter C) fovea capitis D) gluteal tuberosity E) lateral lip Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) Identify the incorrect descriptor of congenital talipes equinovarus (club foot). A) due to inappropriately developed arches B) may involve one or both feet C) may affect the tibia, ankle, and foot D) feet are turned laterally and everted E) may be treated with casts or supports in infancy Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 83) The patella slides in a groove on the femur called the A) medial condyle. B) interpatellar groove. C) patellar surface. D) femoral head. E) patellar canal. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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84) The linea aspera is located on the A) humerus. B) tibia. C) ischium. D) femur. E) fibula. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 85) The lateral malleolus is found on the A) femur. B) tibia. C) fibula. D) patella. E) calcaneus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) The medial border of the fibula is bound to the lateral border of the tibia by the A) lateral malleolus. B) medial malleolus. C) intercondylar eminence. D) interosseous membrane. E) tibial ligament. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) The tarsus contains ________ bones. A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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88) The weight of the body is supported by the A) distal metacarpals. B) proximal metatarsals. C) hallux. D) calcaneus. E) distal ends of the metatarsals and the calcaneus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 89) Tom stumbles and injures his hallux. What part of his anatomy is injured? A) his hand B) his foot C) his ankle D) his knee E) his hip Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 90) The talus articulates with the A) calcaneus. B) navicular bone. C) tibia. D) calcaneus and navicular bones. E) tibia, calcaneus, and navicular bones. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 91) Compared to the hand, the foot A) has more phalanges. B) has fewer metatarsals than the hand has metacarpals. C) has more tarsal bones than the hand has carpal bones. D) contains arches that help distribute body weight. E) has the same number of tarsal bones as the hand has carpal bones. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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92) When standing normally, most of your weight is transmitted to the ground by the A) tibia, talus, and calcaneus. B) talus and proximal ends of metatarsals. C) calcaneus and talus. D) talus and cuneiforms. E) calcaneus and proximal ends of metatarsals. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 93) The condition known as "flat feet" is due to a lower-than-normal longitudinal arch in the foot. A problem with which of the following would most likely contribute to this condition? A) a loose calcaneal tendon B) weak tarsometatarsal joints C) weakness in the ligaments that attach the calcaneus to the distal ends of the metatarsals D) weakness in the ligaments that attach the talus to the tibia E) poor alignment of the phalanges with the metatarsals Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Figure 8-3 The Femur Use Figure 8-3 to answer the following questions: 94) Which structure articulates with the acetabulum? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 E) 9 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 27 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

95) Identify the diaphysis of the femur. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 7 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 96) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) greater trochanter B) linea aspera C) head D) lateral epicondyle E) lesser trochanter Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 97) Identify the structure labeled "12." A) greater trochanter B) linea aspera C) head D) lateral epicondyle E) lateral condyle Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 98) Identify the area of the femur most likely to fracture. A) 9 B) 8 C) 1 D) 7 E) 3 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

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Figure 8-4 Bones of the Ankle and Foot Use Figure 8-4 to answer the following questions: 99) Identify the bones labeled "9." A) metatarsals B) carpals C) metacarpals D) tarsals E) phalanges Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

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100) Identify the bones named for their wedge shape. A) 3 B) 8 C) 7 D) 1 E) 2 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 101) On which bone does the tibia press? A) 1 B) 7 C) 9 D) 2 E) 3 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 102) Identify the bone labeled "4." A) 5th distal phalanx B) 5th proximal phalanx C) 5th middle phalanx D) 1st distal phalanx E) 1st middle phalanx Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 103) Identify the bone labeled "1." A) talus B) calcaneus C) cuneiform V D) cuboid E) metatarsal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

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104) Compared to the male pelvis, the female pelvis A) is larger. B) is heavier. C) has a greater pubic angle. D) has a thicker ischial tuberosity. E) has deep acetabula. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the male pelvis? A) heavy, rough textured bone B) heart-shaped pelvic inlet C) angle of pubic arch greater than 100 degrees D) relatively deep iliac fossa E) ilia extend far above sacrum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) The clearest distinction between a male and female skeleton is seen in the characteristics of the A) skull. B) pelvis. C) sacrum. D) teeth. E) thoracic cage. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) Which of the following describes the female pelvis? A) broad and smooth B) prominent bone markings C) acetabulum directed laterally D) bones are heavy E) pelvic outlet is narrow Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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108) Study of human skeletons can reveal all of the following information except the person's A) sex. B) age and nutritional status. C) size and handedness. D) health. E) intelligence. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) Which of the following is not an age-related change in the skeleton? A) closure of the fontanels B) bone remodeling C) reduction in mineral content D) appearance of major vertebral curves E) fusion of the coxal bones Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 110) On a field trip you discover a skeleton with the following characteristics: the acetabulum is directed laterally, the ischial spine points medially, and the angle inferior to the pubic symphysis is less than 90 degrees. The long bones of the arms and legs are relatively light and show epiphyseal plates. This skeleton is probably from A) a young male. B) a young female. C) an elderly male. D) an elderly female. E) an infant male. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) What structures comprise the appendicular skeleton? (Figure 8-1) A) skull, pectoral girdles, and upper limbs B) skull, thoracic cage, and vertebral column C) vertebral column, pelvic girdles, and lower limbs D) pectoral girdles, upper limbs, pelvic girdles, and lower limbs E) thoracic cage, pectoral girdles, and pelvic girdles Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) With which carpal bones does metacarpal IV articulate? (Figure 8-6) A) hamate and capitate B) trapezium and trapezoid C) trapezoid and capitate D) lunate and triquetrum E) scaphoid and lunate Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) What is the correct term for the opening formed by the pubis and the ischium? (Figure 8-8) A) foramen magnum B) pubic symphysis C) obturator foramen D) ischial foramen E) foramen rotundum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Which of the leg bones does not articulate with the femur? (Figure 8-12) A) tibia B) fibula C) ulna D) radius E) ilium Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Essay Questions 1) Why is it necessary for the bones of the pelvic girdle to be more massive than the bones of the pectoral girdle? Answer: The pelvic girdle must withstand the load of bearing and moving the entire body whereas the pectoral girdle only supports the upper limbs. Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) What is the distinction between the false pelvis and the true pelvis? Answer: The true pelvis encloses the pelvic cavity and its superior limit is a line that extends from either side of the base of the sacrum, along the arcuate line and pectineal line to the pubic symphysis. The false pelvis consists of the expanded, bladelike portions of each ilium superior to the pelvic brim. Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 3) Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female. Answer: These include: an enlarged pelvic outlet, a broader pubic angle, less curvature on the sacrum and coccyx, wider and more circular pelvic inlet, a relatively broad pelvis that does not extend as far superiorly, and ilia that project farther laterally, but do not extend as far superior to the sacrum. Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 4) A runner visits a podiatrist complaining of pain at the bottom of the foot. The podiatrist quickly notes that the patient has flatfeet and decides to take an x-ray of his foot. Explain what it means to have flatfeet. What are some possible consequences of flatfeet and why did the podiatrist take an x-ray? What treatments might the doctor recommend? Answer: The normal arches in the foot are lower than normal because they have lost elasticity or didn't form correctly. When you stand normally the arches provide an elastic connection as the weight is transferred from the calcaneus to the metatarsals. The arches act as shock absorbers but when the arches are flat the load is distributed into the metatarsals causing pain. The patient may have a stress fracture of one of the metatarsals as a result of the stress of running with poor arches. The doctor would recommend wearing shoes with extra arch support. Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 5) To settle a bet, you need to measure the length of your lower limb (head of femur to distal end of tibia). What landmarks would you use to make the measurement? Answer: You could feel the lesser sciatic notch, which is at the same level as the head of the femur. You could feel the medial malleolus of the tibia at the ankle. Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 9 Joints Multiple Choice Questions 1) Joints can be classified structurally as A) bony. B) fibrous. C) cartilaginous. D) synovial. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) The synarthrosis that binds the teeth to the bony sockets is a A) suture. B) gomphosis. C) synchondrosis. D) synotosis. E) syndesmosis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) An immovable joint is a(n) A) synarthrosis. B) diarthrosis. C) amphiarthrosis. D) syndesmosis. E) symphysis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) A synovial joint is an example of a(n) A) synarthrosis. B) amphiarthrosis. C) diarthrosis. D) symphysis. E) syndesmosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) A ligamentous connection such as an antebrachial interosseous membrane is called a A) syndesmosis. B) symphysis. C) synchondrosis. D) synostosis. E) gomphosis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) A slightly movable joint is a(n) A) synarthrosis. B) diarthrosis. C) amphiarthrosis. D) gomphosis. E) synostosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) A suture is an example of a(n) A) synarthrosis. B) syndesmosis. C) symphysis. D) diarthrosis. E) amphiarthrosis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) An epiphyseal line is an example of a A) gomphosis. B) synchondrosis. C) synostosis. D) symphysis. E) syndesmosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) Dense fibrous connective tissue is to a suture as a periodontal ligament is to a(n) A) amphiarthrosis. B) syndesmosis. C) synostosis. D) synchondrosis. E) gomphosis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 10) An example of a synchondrosis is the articulation of the A) ribs with the sternum. B) radius and the ulna. C) femur with the acetabulum. D) atlas and the axis. E) navicular bone with the cuniform bones. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) A freely movable joint is a(n) A) synarthrosis. B) diarthrosis. C) amphiarthrosis. D) syndesmosis. E) symphysis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) The intervertebral disc joint is called a A) synarthrosis. B) glide joint. C) condylar joint. D) synchondrosis. E) symphysis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) Which of the following is one of the four major types of synarthrotic joints? A) suture B) gomphosis C) synchondrosis D) synostosis E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) Syndesmosis is to ligament as symphysis is to A) fibrous cartilage. B) dense regular connective tissue. C) periodontal ligament. D) rigid cartilaginous bridge. E) completely fused. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 15) Structurally, the pubic symphysis is classified as a ________ articulation. A) cartilaginous B) bony C) synovial D) fibrous E) diarthrotic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Identify the incorrect pair. A) synarthrosis; immovable joint B) amphiarthrosis; slightly movable joint C) chondrosis; freely moving joint D) gomphosis; articulation between tooth and bone E) They are all correct; there is no incorrect pair. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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17) Which of the following occurs when the articular cartilage is damaged? A) The matrix begins to break down. B) The exposed surface appears rough. C) Friction in the joint increases. D) Normal synovial joint function is unable to continue. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) Which of the following is not a function of synovial fluid? A) shock absorption B) increases osmotic pressure within joint C) lubrication D) provides nutrients E) protects articular cartilages Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 19) Bursae are found in all of the following areas except A) tendon sheaths. B) beneath the skin covering a bone. C) within connective tissue exposed to friction or pressure. D) around blood vessels. E) around many synovial joints. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) Which of the following is not a property of articular cartilage? A) covered by perichondrium B) lubricated by synovial fluid C) enclosed by an articular capsule D) similar to hyaline cartilage E) smooth, low-friction surface Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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21) The surface of articular cartilage is A) slick. B) flat. C) smooth. D) rough. E) both slick and smooth. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) Which of the following is not considered an accessory synovial structure? A) fat pads B) menisci C) tendons D) bursae E) synovial membrane Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) Mike falls off his skateboard and sprains his ankle. Which of the following most likely occurs with this type of accident? A) A bursa is damaged and leaks synovial fluid. B) A ligament is stretched and collagen fibers in the ligament are damaged. C) Articulating bones are forced out of position and ligaments are torn. D) Dislocation of the ankle occurs. E) The tibia is broken and must be set in a cast. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 24) Which of the following is not a property of synovial joints? A) freely movable B) lined by a secretory epithelium C) covered by a serous membrane D) contain synovial fluid E) covered by a capsule Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 9-1 A Simplified Sectional View of the Knee Joint Use Figure 9-1 to answer the following questions: 25) Which structure acts as a cushion and consists of fibrous cartilage? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 26) Identify the structure at label "1." A) meniscus B) bursa C) articular cartilage D) synovial membrane E) joint cavity Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 7 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

27) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) serous membrane B) synovial membrane C) joint capsule D) periosteum E) intracapsular ligament Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 28) What type of tissue occurs at the structure labeled "3"? A) fibrocartilage B) synovial membrane C) articular cartilage D) bone tissue E) dense connective tissue Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 29) Identify the structure labeled "5." A) serous membrane B) synovial membrane C) joint capsule D) periosteum E) intracapsular ligament Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 30) Usually found outside the capsule, ________ protect the articular cartilages and act as packing material for the joint. A) ligaments B) tendons C) bursae D) menisci E) fat pads Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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31) Small pockets of synovial fluid that reduce friction and act as a shock absorber where ligaments and tendons rub against other tissues are called A) fat pads. B) menisci. C) bursae. D) lacunae. E) fasciae. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) ________ subdivide synovial cavities, channel the flow of synovial fluid, and allow for variations in the shapes of the articular surfaces. A) Fat pads B) Menisci C) Bursae D) Lacunae E) Fasciae Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 33) A ________ occurs when articulating surfaces are forced out of position. A) fracture B) bunion C) bursitis D) dislocation E) sprain Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 34) The three functions of synovial fluid are nutrient distribution, shock absorption, and A) stabilization. B) lubrication. C) padding. D) strengthening. E) enzyme secretion. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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35) A ________ is a tender nodule formed around bursae over the base of the great toe. A) spur B) blister C) callus D) bunion E) pimple Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) A collagenous type of connective tissue that reinforces the synovial joint and is found outside the joint capsule is called the A) extracapsular tendon. B) intracapsular ligament. C) extracapsular ligament. D) intracapsular tendon. E) meniscus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 37) Which one of the following is not a stabilizing factor of synovial joints? A) skeletal muscles around the joint B) the presence of a meniscus C) collagen fibers of the joint capsule D) fat pads around the joint E) the synovial membrane Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 38) The joint between the forearm bones and the wrist is a ________ joint. A) saddle B) glide C) hinge D) condylar E) pivot Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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39) Ankle extension is also called A) dorsiflexion. B) inversion. C) eversion. D) plantar flexion. E) protraction. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) Pronation is defined as A) a rolling of the distal epiphysis of the radius over the ulna. B) a twisting of the ulna medially. C) twisting the forearm so that the palms face anteriorly. D) the shortening of the angle between the radius and the humerus. E) movement of the mandible anteriorly, as seen when biting the upper lip. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 41) A movement away from the midline of the body is called A) inversion. B) abduction. C) adduction. D) flexion. E) extension. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) To pinch with a thumb and finger involves a movement called A) rotation. B) opposition. C) circumduction. D) eversion. E) retraction. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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43) A common injury to the ankle occurs by excessive turning of the sole inward, called A) eversion. B) protraction. C) dorsiflexion. D) plantar flexion. E) inversion. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) The ankle joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint. A) condylar B) saddle C) hinge D) ball-and-socket E) gliding Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 45) Which of the following movements is a good example of flexion? A) opening the mouth B) turning the hand palm upward C) extreme bending of the head backwards D) bending the elbow E) spreading the fingers Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 46) A twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole of the foot outward is known as A) inversion. B) plantar flexion. C) eversion. D) dorsiflexion. E) pronation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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47) The joints that connect the four fingers with the metacarpal bones are A) condylar joints. B) saddle joints. C) pivot joints. D) hinge joints. E) condyloid joints. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 48) The joint between the trapezium and metacarpal bone of the thumb is an example of a ________ joint. A) saddle B) gliding C) condylar D) hinge E) pivot Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 49) Monaxial joints are known as ________ joints. A) saddle B) gliding C) ball-and-socket D) condylar E) hinge Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 50) Which type of joint is found between the carpal bones? A) saddle B) gliding C) hinge D) ball-and-socket E) pivot Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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51) Which of the following types of joints is monaxial, but capable of only rotation? A) saddle B) gliding C) hinge D) ball-and-socket E) pivot Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) Curling into the "fetal position" ________ the intervertebral joints. A) hyperextends B) flexes C) abducts D) extends E) rotates Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 53) The movements known as dorsiflexion and plantar flexion involve moving the A) hand. B) arm. C) foot. D) leg. E) hip. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) The elbow joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint. A) saddle B) gliding C) condylar D) hinge E) pivot Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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55) In a triaxial articulation, A) movement can occur in all three axes. B) movement can occur in only two axes. C) movement can occur in only one axis. D) only circumduction is possible. E) no movement is possible. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 56) An extension past the anatomical position is known as A) double-jointed. B) extension. C) flexion. D) rotation. E) hyperextension. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) Which of the following joints is an example of a ball-and-socket joint? A) elbow B) knee C) ankle D) wrist E) shoulder Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) The joints between vertebrae are examples of ________ joints. A) saddle B) pivot C) condylar D) hinge E) gliding Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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59) Which foot movement enables the ballerina to stand on her toes? A) dorsiflexion B) plantar flexion C) inversion D) rotation E) eversion Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 60) Which of the following movements is a good example of supination? A) opening the mouth B) turning the hand palm upward C) extreme bending of the head backwards D) moving the hand toward the shoulder E) spreading the fingers Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 61) Lifting a stone with the tip of foot is A) circumduction. B) eversion. C) inversion. D) plantar flexion. E) dorsiflexion. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 62) Which of the following movements is a good example of hyperextension? A) opening the mouth B) turning the hand palm upward C) extreme bending of the head backwards D) moving the hand toward the shoulder E) spreading the fingers Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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63) Which of the following movements is a good example of abduction? A) opening the mouth B) turning the hand palm upward C) extreme bending of the head backwards D) moving the hand toward the shoulder E) spreading the fingers Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 64) Which of the following movements is a good example of depression? A) opening the mouth B) turning the hand palm upward C) extreme bending of the head backwards D) moving the hand toward the shoulder E) spreading the fingers Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 65) Nodding your head "yes" is an example of A) lateral and medial rotation. B) circumduction. C) flexion and extension. D) pronation and supination. E) protraction and retraction. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 66) Which of the following movements would you associate with chewing food? A) elevation B) abduction C) flexion D) pronation E) circumduction Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 9-2 Bones of the Wrist and Hand Use Figure 9-2 to answer the following questions: 67) Identify the type of joint at label "1." A) hinge B) condylar C) gliding D) saddle E) pivot Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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68) Identify the type of joint at label "2." A) hinge B) condylar C) gliding D) saddle E) pivot Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 69) Identify the type of joint at label "3." A) hinge B) gliding C) condylar D) saddle E) pivot Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 70) Identify the type of joint at label "4." A) hinge B) gliding C) condylar D) saddle E) pivot Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 71) Identify the type of joint at label "5." A) hinge B) condylar C) gliding D) saddle E) pivot Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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72) The movement of rotating a limb toward the anterior surface of the body is called ________ rotation. A) frontal B) external C) lateral D) outward E) medial Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 73) The movement of rotating a limb outward is called ________ rotation. A) lateral B) internal C) medial D) superficial E) abductive Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) The atlantoaxial joint is an example of a ________ joint. A) ball and socket B) pivot C) gliding D) condyloid E) saddle Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) The movement of the forearm while twisting a doorknob is A) protraction and retraction. B) abduction and adduction. C) flexion and extension. D) lateral rotation and medial rotation. E) supination and pronation. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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76) Identify the incorrect pair. A) gliding joint; sacroiliac joint B) pivot joint; hip joint C) hinge joint; ankle joint D) condylar joint; radiocarpal joint E) saddle joint; first carpometacarpal joint Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 77) You ________ your mandible when you grasp your upper lip with your lower teeth. A) rotate B) extend C) pivot D) protract E) pronate Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 78) The movement of a body part upward is called A) extension. B) protraction. C) supination. D) elevation. E) abduction. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) Which of the following types of movement are not permitted at a synovial joint? A) eversion B) flexion C) retraction D) gliding E) They are all permitted. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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80) The movement of a body part downward is called A) retraction. B) pronation. C) depression. D) protraction. E) eversion. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 81) ________ is a type of angular movement that increases the angle between articulating bones. A) Adduction B) Abduction C) Flexion D) Extension E) Rotation Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) ________ is a type of angular movement that decreases the angle between articulating bones. A) Adduction B) Abduction C) Flexion D) Extension E) Rotation Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) Which of the following is not a type of synovial joint? A) gliding B) hinge C) pivot D) symphysis E) condylar Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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84) All of the following movements occur at the intervertebral joints except A) flexion. B) rotation. C) dorsiflexion. D) lateral flexion. E) extension. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 85) The gelatinous core of an intervertebral disc is called the A) annulus fibrosus. B) nucleus pulposus. C) synovial fluid. D) gelatinous pulposus. E) gelatinous fibrosus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) The fibrocartilage outer layer of the intervertebral disc is called the A) annulus fibrosus. B) nucleus pulposus. C) synovial fluid. D) gelatinous pulposus. E) gelatinous fibrosus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) The flava ligament is A) a paired ligament that connect the laminae of adjacent vertebrae. B) a fibrous band that connects the posterior surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies. C) a band of fibrous tissue connecting the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae. D) a longitudinal fibrous band that is attached to the tips of spinous processes from C7 to the sacrum. E) a wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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88) The supraspinous ligament is A) a paired ligament that connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae. B) a fibrous band that connects the posterior surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies. C) a band of fibrous tissue connecting the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae. D) a longitudinal fibrous band that is attached to the tips of spinous processes from C7 to the sacrum. E) a wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 89) The interspinous ligament is A) a paired ligament that connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae. B) a fibrous band that connects the posterior surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies. C) a band of fibrous tissue connecting the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae. D) a longitudinal fibrous band that is attached to the tips of spinous processes from C7 to the sacrum. E) a wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) The anterior longitudinal ligament is A) a paired ligament that connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae. B) a fibrous band that connects the posterior surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies. C) a band of fibrous tissue connecting the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae. D) a longitudinal fibrous band that is attached to the tips of spinous processes from C7 to the sacrum. E) a wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) The posterior longitudinal ligament is A) a paired ligament that connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae. B) a fibrous band that connects the posterior surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies. C) a band of fibrous tissue connecting the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae. D) a longitudinal fibrous band that is attached to the tips of spinous processes from C7 to the sacrum. E) a wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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92) The elbow joint is extremely stable because A) the ulna and humerus interlock. B) the articular capsule is thin. C) the capsule lacks ligaments. D) several muscles support the joint capsule. E) the joint lacks bursae. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 93) Contraction of the muscle that is attached to the radial tuberosity results in A) flexion of the forearm. B) extension of the forearm. C) abduction of the forearm. D) adduction of the forearm. E) rotation of the shoulder. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 94) The largest and strongest articulation at the elbow is the A) humero-ulnar joint. B) ulnar joint. C) ulnaradial joint. D) radial joint. E) humeroradial joint. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) The ligament that provides support to the front of the knee joint is the ________ ligament. A) anterior cruciate B) posterior cruciate C) patellar D) popliteal E) tibial collateral Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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96) The ligaments that limit the anterior-posterior movement of the tibia and maintain the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles are the ________ ligaments. A) cruciate B) fibular collateral C) patellar D) popliteal E) tibial collateral Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) In the knee joint, the medial and lateral menisci A) are cartilages that bind the knee to the tibia. B) act as cushions between the articulating surfaces. C) take the place of bursae. D) are found between the patella and femur. E) are prominent fat pads to protect the articulating bones. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) The structures that assist the bursae in reducing friction between the patella and other tissues are the A) fat pads. B) medial menisci. C) lateral menisci. D) popliteal ligaments. E) cruciate ligaments. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) The normal movement of the knee joint during walking involves A) abduction. B) adduction. C) flexion. D) extension. E) both flexion and extension. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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100) The back of the knee joint is reinforced by ________ ligaments. A) tibial collateral B) anterior cruciate C) posterior cruciate D) patellar E) popliteal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) The medial surface of the knee joint is reinforced by the ________ ligament. A) cruciate B) fibular collateral C) patellar D) popliteal E) tibial collateral Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 102) Complete dislocation of the knee is rare because A) the knee is protected by the patella. B) the femur articulates with the tibia at the knee. C) the knee contains seven major ligaments. D) the knee contains fat pads to absorb shocks. E) the knee is extremely resilient. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 103) The most common athletic knee injury produces damage to the A) patella. B) lateral meniscus. C) ligaments. D) tendons. E) medial meniscus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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104) The ligament that encloses the ________ attaches to the tibial tuberosity. A) head of the femur B) greater trochanter C) medial malleolus D) lesser trochanter E) patella Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) The knee joint is stabilized by ________ major ligaments. A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9 E) 11 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) In nursemaids elbow the radial head is dislocated from the A) ulnar collateral ligament. B) radial collateral ligament. C) articular capsule. D) anular ligament. E) antebrachial interosseous membrane. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) Which ligament connects the clavicle and the acromion? A) coracohumeral B) coracoacromial C) coracoclavicular D) glenohumeral E) acromioclavicular Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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108) The joint that permits the greatest range of mobility of any joint in the body is the ________ joint. A) hip B) shoulder C) elbow D) knee E) wrist Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) Which of the following is false? A) The rotator cuff functions to limit the range of movements of the shoulder joint. B) The shapes of the articulating surfaces within the joint help prevent movement in a particular direction and strengthen and stabilize the joint. C) The tighter two bones are held together within a joint, the stronger the joint. D) The more movement a joint allows, the stronger the joint. E) The tension produced by muscle tendons surrounding a joint help stabilize the joint. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 110) The "rotator cuff" of the shoulder functions to A) reinforce the joint capsule. B) limit the range of movements. C) allow biaxial movement. D) allow monaxial movement. E) reinforce the joint capsule and limit the range of movements. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 111) Which of the following ligaments assists in stabilization of the shoulder joint? A) coracoacromial B) subscapularis C) coracoclavicular D) coracoacromial and subscapular ligaments E) coracoacromial and coracoclavicular ligaments Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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112) Which of the following athletes are at greatest risk of developing a rotator cuff injury? A) tennis players B) soccer players C) runners D) baseball pitchers E) high jumpers Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 113) Which of the following ligaments is not associated with the hip joint? A) iliofemoral ligament B) pubofemoral ligament C) ischiofemoral ligament D) ligamentum teres E) anterior cruciate ligament Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 114) Which of the following explains the occurrence of a hip fracture rather than a hip dislocation? A) There is a severe lack of capsular fibers in hip joints compared to other synovial joints. B) Only three ligaments are present in hip joints to provide stability. C) Stress gets transferred from head of femur to the diaphysis via the thin neck. D) Muscles surrounding the hip joint are altogether small and thus provide little stability. E) All of the above. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 115) Factors that increase the stability of the hip joint include A) strong muscular padding. B) tough capsule. C) almost complete bony socket. D) supporting ligaments. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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116) The coxal bones articulate with the sacrum at the ________ joint. A) vertebrocoxal B) coxosacral C) iliocoxal D) vertebroilial E) sacroiliac Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 117) The glenoid fossa is rimmed by the fibrocartilaginous A) fovea capitis. B) glenoid labrum. C) menisci glenoidum. D) annulus fibrosus. E) nucleus pulposus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 118) The shoulder joint, or ________ joint, permits the greatest range of motion of any joint. A) coracocondylar B) humeroacromial C) clavicoscapular D) glenohumeral E) deltobrachial Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) Which of the following is not a member of the rotator cuff? A) teres major B) subscapularis C) teres minor D) infraspinatus E) supraspinatus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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120) Arthritis always involves damage to the ________ cartilages, but the specific cause can vary. A) articular B) intervertebral C) costal D) elastic E) fibrous Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 121) A general term for pain and stiffness that affects the skeletal or muscular system is A) rheumatism. B) atherosclerosis. C) bursitis. D) bunions. E) arthritis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 122) The clinical term for joint inflammation is A) rheumatism. B) atherosclerosis. C) bursitis. D) bunions. E) arthritis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 123) In ________ crystals of uric acid form within the synovial fluid of joints. A) rheumatism B) degenerative joint disease C) rheumatoid arthritis D) osteoporosis E) gouty arthritis Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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124) In ________ an autoimmune response attacks joints and causes an inflammation condition. A) rheumatism B) degenerative joint disease C) rheumatoid arthritis D) osteoporosis E) gouty arthritis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 125) The most common type of joint inflammation is called A) rheumatism. B) degenerative joint disease. C) rheumatoid arthritis. D) osteoporosis. E) gouty arthritis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) What structure covers the bony surfaces of a synovial joint to prevent the surfaces from touching? (Figure 9-1) A) fibrous joint capsule B) synovial membrane C) articular cartilage D) elastic cartilage E) meniscus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) List the various types of angular movements. (Figure 9-3) A) inversion and eversion B) dorsiflexion and plantar flexion C) circumduction D) pronation and supination E) flexion/extension/hyperextension, abduction/adduction, and circumduction Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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3) Within an intervertebral disc, which structure provides the tough outer layer of fibrocartilage and which structure provides the soft inner core for resiliency and shock absorption? (Figure 9-6) A) anulus fibrosus; nucleus pulposus B) nucleus pulposus; anulus fibrosus C) anulus pulposus; nucleus fibrosus D) nucleus fibrosus; anulus pulposus E) anular ligament; spinous ligament Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) What two bones does the acromioclavicular ligament connect? (Figure 9-9) A) acromion and clavicle B) scapula and clavicle C) sternum and clavicle D) humerus and clavicle E) rib 1 and clavicle Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Essay Questions 1) Explain how the structure of synovial fluid allows it to function as a lubricant in a joint. Answer: Synovial fluid is a viscous fluid like egg white or molasses and made up of proteoglycans and hyaluranon. It is absorbed by the sponge-like articular cartilage of joints and creates a slick film on the surfaces that reduces friction. Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) When the triceps brachii muscle contracts, what movements does it produce? Answer: The triceps brachii attaches to the olecranon process. Contraction of the triceps brachii muscle causes the ulna to rotate around the distal humerus, causing extension of the forearm. Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 3) Why is the inferior region of the shoulder joint most vulnerable to dislocation? Answer: The anterior, superior, and posterior surfaces of the shoulder joint are reinforced by ligaments, muscles, and tendons, but the inferior capsule is poorly reinforced. As a result, a dislocation caused by an impact or a violent muscle contraction is most likely to occur at this site. Such a dislocation can tear the inferior capsular wall and the glenoid labrum. Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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4) A high school student comes to the emergency room complaining of persistent pain and stiffness in her shoulder joint. In talking with her, you discover that she has been spending many hours trying to improve her pitching skills for her school's softball team. What is likely causing the pain? Answer: Her pain is probably caused by injury to the rotator cuff, which can result from repetitive motion, trauma, or excessive force. The rotator cuff consists of the tendons of four muscles that stabilize the shoulder joint. If torn, surgical repair may be indicated. Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 5) How are osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis different? Answer: Osteoarthritis is a "wear-and-tear" disease seen usually in the elderly. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease in which the body's immune system attacks synovial joints, triggered by an infection or some other cause. Learning Outcome: 9-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 10 Muscle Tissue Multiple Choice Questions 1) Muscle tissue, one of the four basic tissue groups, consists chiefly of cells that are highly specialized for A) conduction. B) contraction. C) peristalsis. D) cushioning. E) secretion. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Which of the following is a recognized function of skeletal muscle? A) produce movement B) maintain posture C) maintain body temperature D) guard body entrances and exits E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) At each end of the muscle, the collagen fibers of the epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium, come together to form a A) tendon. B) satellite cell. C) ligament. D) tenosynovium. E) sheath. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) The dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds an entire skeletal muscle is the A) tendon. B) epimysium. C) endomysium. D) perimysium. E) fascicle. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 1 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Nerves and blood vessels that service a muscle fiber are located in the connective tissues of its A) endomysium. B) perimysium. C) sarcolemma. D) sarcomere. E) myofibrils. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) A fascicle is a A) group of muscle fibers that are encased in the perimysium. B) layer of connective tissue that separates muscle from skin. C) group of muscle fibers that are all part of the same motor unit. D) group of muscle fibers and motor neurons. E) collection of myofibrils in a muscle fiber. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) The delicate connective tissue that surrounds the skeletal muscle fibers and ties adjacent muscle fibers together is the A) endomysium. B) perimysium. C) epimysium. D) superficial fascia. E) periosteum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) The bundle of collagen fibers at the end of a skeletal muscle that attaches the muscle to bone is called a(n) A) fascicle. B) tendon. C) ligament. D) epimysium. E) myofibril. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) Put the following structures in order from superficial to deep. 1. muscle fiber 2. perimysium 3. myofibril 4. fascicle 5. endomysium 6. epimysium A) 1, 5, 4, 3, 2, 6 B) 6, 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 C) 6, 2, 4, 5, 1, 3 D) 1, 3, 5, 6, 4, 2 E) 2, 3, 1, 4, 6, 5 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 10) A(n) ________ can be described as a broad tendinous sheet. A) fasciae B) retinaculum C) aponeurosis D) interstitium E) tympanum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for A) muscle fatigue. B) the conduction of neural stimulation to the muscle fiber. C) muscle contraction. D) muscle relaxation. E) the striped appearance of skeletal muscle. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) In a sarcomere, the central portion of thick filaments are linked laterally by proteins of the A) Z line. B) M line. C) H band. D) A band. E) I band. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) The advantage of having many nuclei in a skeletal muscle fiber is the ability to A) contract much more forcefully. B) produce more ATP with little oxygen. C) store extra DNA for metabolism. D) produce large amounts of muscle proteins. E) produce nutrients for muscle contraction. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) Skeletal muscle fibers are formed from embryonic cells called A) sarcomeres. B) myofibrils. C) myoblasts. D) fascicles. E) myomeres. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) The repeating unit of a skeletal muscle fiber is the A) sarcolemma. B) sarcomere. C) sarcoplasmic reticulum. D) myofibril. E) myofilament. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber is called the A) sarcolemma. B) sarcomere. C) sarcosome. D) sarcoplasmic reticulum. E) sarcoplasm. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) Which of the following best describes the term sarcomere? A) protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle B) repeating unit of striated myofibrils C) storage site for calcium ions D) thin filaments are anchored here E) largely made of myosin molecules Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) Muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that muscle fibers A) lack a plasma membrane. B) have many nuclei. C) are very small. D) lack mitochondria. E) have large gaps in the cell membrane. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) Which of the following best describes the term sarcoplasmic reticulum? A) protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle B) repeating unit of striated myofibrils C) storage and release site for calcium ions D) thin filaments are anchored here E) largely made of myosin molecules Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) Which of the following best describes the term Z line? A) protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle B) repeating unit of striated myofibrils C) storage site for calcium ions D) thin filaments are anchored here E) largely made of myosin molecules Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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21) The region of the sarcomere containing the thick filaments is the A) Z line. B) M line. C) H band. D) A band. E) I band. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) The skeletal muscle complex known as the triad consists of A) actin, myosin, and titin filaments. B) a transverse tubule and two terminal cisternae. C) filaments, myofibrils, and sarcomeres. D) A bands, H bands, and I bands. E) actin, myosin, and sarcomeres. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) The area in the center of the A band that contains no thin filaments is the A) Z line. B) M line. C) H band. D) I band. E) zone of overlap. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) At rest, the tropomyosin molecule is held in place by A) actin molecules. B) myosin molecules. C) troponin molecules. D) ATP molecules. E) calcium ions. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) Each thin filament consists of A) two actin protein strands coiled helically around each other. B) chains of myosin molecules. C) six molecules coiled into a helical structure. D) a rod-shaped structure with "heads" projecting from each end. E) a double strand of myosin molecules. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) The region of the sarcomere that always contains thin filaments is the A) Z line. B) M line. C) H band. D) A band. E) I band. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) At rest, active sites on the actin are blocked by A) myosin molecules. B) troponin molecules. C) tropomyosin molecules. D) calcium ions. E) ATP molecules. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) The series of membranous channels that surround each myofibril is the A) sarcoplasmic reticulum. B) sarcoplasm. C) sarcomere. D) sarcolemma. E) endomysium. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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29) All of the following proteins are part of the thin filaments except A) actin. B) tropomyosin. C) troponin. D) titin. E) None of the answers is correct; there are no exceptions. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) When a skeletal muscle fiber contracts, the A) H bands and I bands get larger. B) zones of overlap get larger. C) Z lines move further apart. D) width of the A band increases. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 31) Since each myofibril is attached at either end of the muscle fiber, when sarcomeres shorten, the muscle fiber A) lengthens. B) shortens. C) strengthens. D) weakens. E) pulls from the middle. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 10-1 Skeletal Muscle Fiber Use Figure 10-1 to answer the following questions: 32) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) mitochondria B) glycogen C) ATP D) myofibril E) synaptic vesicle Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 33) Which of the following are found in the structure labeled "3"? A) actin B) myosin C) titin D) tropomyosin E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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34) What physiological process occurs in the structure labeled "7"? A) release of neurotransmitter B) conduction of the action potential into the cell interior C) activity of acetylcholinesterase D) release of protein and calcium ions into the muscle fiber E) opening of sodium channels and subsequent influx of sodium Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 35) What is released from the structure labeled "9"? A) sarcoplasm B) acetylcholine C) protein D) calcium ions E) acetylcholinesterase Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 36) Where would calcium ions be predominately found? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 E) 9 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 37) Which structure has pumps to remove calcium ions from the sarcoplasm to produce relaxation? A) 6 B) 7 C) 1 D) 3 E) 2 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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38) Where are the myosin molecules located? A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 39) Which structure contains the motor end plate? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 8 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 40) Identify the structure where ATP is produced. A) 6 B) 7 C) 1 D) 3 E) 2 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 41) Identify the structure(s) where ATP is consumed? A) 3 B) 6 C) 3 and 6 D) 7 E) 3 and 7 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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42) Active sites on the actin become available for binding after A) actin binds to troponin. B) troponin binds to tropomyosin. C) calcium binds to troponin. D) calcium binds to tropomyosin. E) myosin binds to troponin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) The action potential is conducted into a skeletal muscle fiber by A) motor end plates. B) neuromuscular junctions. C) transverse tubules. D) triads. E) sarcoplasmic reticulum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) The most important factor in decreasing the intracellular concentration of calcium ion after contraction is A) active transport of calcium across the sarcolemma. B) active transport of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. C) active transport of calcium into the synaptic cleft. D) diffusion of calcium out of the cell. E) diffusion of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 45) When calcium ion binds to troponin, A) tropomyosin rolls away from the active site. B) active sites on the myosin are exposed. C) actin heads will bind to myosin. D) muscle relaxation occurs. E) myosin shortens. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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46) Physical evidence that supports the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction includes A) constant distance between Z lines during contraction. B) decreased width of the H band during contraction. C) increased width of the I band during contraction. D) decreased width of the A band during contraction. E) the I band + H band distance is constant during contraction. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) The protein that is found in the Z line of a sarcomere is called A) actinin. B) titin. C) nebulin. D) myosin. E) actin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) The protein that regulates muscle contraction by controlling the availability of active sites on actin is called A) actin. B) titin. C) myosin. D) tropomyosin. E) nebulin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 49) Thin filaments are mostly made of the protein A) actin. B) titin. C) myosin. D) tropomyosin. E) nebulin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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50) Thick filaments are made of the protein A) actin. B) titin. C) myosin. D) tropomyosin. E) nebulin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) Stem cells located between the endomysium and sarcolemma that function in the repair of damaged muscle tissue are called A) myocytes. B) satellite cells. C) endocytes. D) sarcocytes. E) creatinocytes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) The complex of a transverse tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae is known as a A) trimer. B) triad. C) triptych. D) trisome. E) trilogy. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53) The structural theory that explains how a muscle fiber contracts is called the ________ theory. A) sliding filament B) excitation-contraction coupling C) neuromuscular D) muscle contraction E) action-myosin interaction Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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54) The region of sarcomere where thin and thick filaments are located is called the A) I band. B) A band. C) Z line. D) M line. E) zone of overlap. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) In the sarcomere which elastic protein attaches the thick filament to the Z line? A) titin B) actin C) G actin D) nebulin E) myosin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) In the sarcomere the protein that forms two twisted strands around a central rod-like protein is called A) titin. B) actin. C) G actin. D) nebulin. E) myosin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) In the myofibril the protein that possesses the active site for myosin heads to bind is called A) titin. B) actin. C) G actin. D) nebulin. E) myosin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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58) In the myofibril the thin filament is organized around a rod-like core protein called A) titin. B) actin. C) G actin. D) nebulin. E) myosin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) In response to action potentials arriving along the transverse tubules, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases A) acetylcholine. B) sodium ions. C) potassium ions. D) calcium ions. E) hydrogen ions. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) Each skeletal muscle fiber is controlled by a motor neuron at a single A) synaptic knob. B) sarcomere. C) neuromuscular junction. D) synaptic cleft. E) transverse tubule. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 61) The narrow space between the synaptic terminal and the muscle fiber is the A) synaptic knob. B) motor end plate. C) motor unit. D) synaptic cleft. E) M line. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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62) Which of the following become connected by myosin cross-bridges during muscle contraction? A) thin filaments and thick filaments B) thick filaments and titin filaments C) z disks and actin filaments D) thick filaments and t-tubules E) thin filaments and t-tubules Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) After death, muscle fibers run out of ATP and calcium begins to leak from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. This results in a condition known as A) tetany. B) treppe. C) depolarization. D) rigor mortis. E) oxygen debt. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 64) In rigor mortis A) the myosin heads are attached to actin. B) ATP is depleted. C) calcium ions keep binding to troponin. D) sustained contractions occur. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 65) In a sarcomere, cross-bridge attachment occurs specifically in the A) zone of overlap. B) A band. C) I band. D) M line. E) H band. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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66) Triggering of the muscle action potential occurs after A) acetylcholine binds to chemically-gated channels in the motor end plate. B) acetylcholinesterase is released from synaptic vesicles into the synaptic cleft. C) calcium ion binds to channels on the motor end plate. D) the action potential jumps across the neuromuscular junction. E) Any of these can produce an action potential in the muscle cell. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) The following is a list of the events that occur during a muscle contraction. What is the correct sequence of these events? 1. Myosin cross-bridges bind to the actin. 2. The free myosin head splits ATP. 3. Calcium ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. 4. The myosin head pivots toward the center of the sarcomere. 5. Calcium ion binds to troponin. 6. The myosin head binds an ATP molecule and detaches from the actin. A) 1, 3, 5, 4, 6, 2 B) 5, 1, 4, 6, 2, 3 C) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4, 6 D) 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2 E) 1, 4, 6, 2, 3, 5 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 68) How would the loss of acetylcholinesterase from the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle? A) It would make the muscles less excitable. B) It would produce muscle weakness. C) It would cause muscles to stay contracted. D) It would cause muscles to stay relaxed. E) It would have little effect on skeletal muscles. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 69) When acetylcholine binds to receptors at the motor end plate, the sarcolemma becomes A) more permeable to sodium ions. B) less permeable to sodium ions. C) more permeable to calcium ions. D) less permeable to potassium ions. E) less permeable to potassium and sodium ions. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 18 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

70) The cytoplasm of the neuromuscular terminal contains vesicles filled with molecules of the neurotransmitter A) epinephrine. B) norepinephrine. C) acetylcholine. D) antidiuretic hormone. E) adrenaline. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) At what point during excitation contraction coupling does exocytosis play a role? A) during calcium ion reuptake into the sarcoplasmic reticulum B) when sodium channels open up on the motor end plate C) during acetylcholine release from the synaptic terminal D) when the action potential surges through the T-tubules E) when ATP splits into ADP and P on the free myosin head Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) Which of the following statements about excitation-contraction coupling is incorrect? A) Calcium ions travel through the transverse tubule. B) Calcium ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. C) Tropomyosin moves to expose myosin binding sites on actin. D) Troponin binds calcium ion and signals tropomyosin to move. E) Relaxation requires uptake of calcium ion by the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 73) Synaptic vesicles contain neurotransmitters that are released by ________ when the action potential arrives. A) endocytosis B) apoptosis C) exocytosis D) hydrolysis E) sodium Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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74) A patient takes a medication that blocks ACh receptors of skeletal muscle fibers. What is this drug's effect on skeletal muscle contraction? A) increases tone in the muscle B) causes a strong contraction similar to a "charlie horse" cramp C) increases the muscle's excitability D) produces a strong, continuous state of contraction E) reduces the muscle's ability for contraction Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 75) Communication between axons and muscle fibers occurs at specialized synapses called A) nervous units. B) synaptic terminals. C) motor end plates. D) motor units. E) neuromuscular junctions. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) Active sites become exposed when calcium ions bind to A) tropomyosin. B) actin. C) myosin. D) troponin. E) calcium channels. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) Cross bridge detachment is caused by ________ binding to the myosin head. A) ATP B) calcium C) magnesium D) acetylcholine E) acetylcholinesterase Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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78) The sequence of processes that links the action potential to contraction is called A) neuromuscular junction. B) action potential propagation. C) excitation-contraction coupling. D) cross bridge formation. E) sliding filament theory. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) The role of acetylcholinesterase is to A) bind to ligand gated sodium channels. B) activate acetylcholine. C) release acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft. D) transport acetylcholine across the synaptic cleft. E) break down acetylcholine into acetate and choline components. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) Which of the following is not true of acetylcholine? A) It binds to receptor membrane channels. B) It diffuses across the synaptic cleft. C) It is stored in the neuron in vesicles. D) It enters the muscle fiber to release calcium form the sarcoplasmic reticulum. E) It is digested by acetylcholinesterase. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 81) Put the following events of excitation-contraction coupling in the order in which they occur. 1. Excitation 2. Sarcomere shortening 3. Generation of muscle tension 4. Neural control 5. Contraction cycle begins 6. Release of calcium ions A) 4,1,5,2,6,3 B) 4,1,6,5,2,3 C) 1,2,5,6,3,4 D) 6,1,4,2,5,3 E) 1,4,6,2,5,3 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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82) Put the following events of the neuromuscular junction in the order in which they occur. 1. Action potential is propagated in the sarcolemma. 2. Acetylcholine binds to ligand gated sodium channels. 3. Action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction. 4. Vesicles full of acetylcholine are stored at the axon terminal. 5. Acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft. A) 4,3,5,2,1 B) 4,3,5,1,2 C) 4,5,3,2,1 D) 4,3,1,5,2 E) 4,1,3,2,5 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 83) Put the following events of the contraction cycle in the order in which they occur. 1. Cross-bridge detachment 2. Cross-bridge formation 3. Active site exposure 4. Myosin reactivation 5. Calcium ions bind troponin 6. Myosin head pivoting A) 5,3,6,2,1,4 B) 5,3,2,6,4,1 C) 5,3,2,6,1,4 D) 5,3,6,2,4,1 E) 3,5,2,6,1,4 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 84) The rapid rise and fall in force produced by a muscle fiber after a single action potential is a(n) A) tetanus. B) unfused tetanus. C) twitch. D) motor end plate potential. E) muscle action potential. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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85) When a muscle is stimulated repeatedly at a high rate, the amount of tension gradually increases to a steady maximum tension. This state of maximum tension is called A) incomplete tetanus. B) complete tetanus. C) a twitch. D) wave summation. E) recruitment. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) A muscle producing almost peak tension during rapid cycles of contraction and relaxation is said to be in A) incomplete tetanus. B) complete tetanus. C) treppe. D) wave summation. E) recruitment. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) If a second stimulus arrives before the relaxation phase has ended, a second, more powerful contraction occurs. This addition of one twitch to another is called A) incomplete tetanus. B) complete tetanus. C) treppe. D) wave summation. E) recruitment. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 10-2 Muscle Contractions Use Figure 10-2 to answer the following questions: 88) What is the contraction in graph (a) called? A) complete tetanus B) incomplete tetanus C) twitch D) wave summation E) treppe Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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89) What is thought to happen in a muscle during the response shown in graph (a)? A) It is strengthening with exercise. B) There is a gradual increase in calcium ion concentration in the sarcoplasm. C) It is fatigued and must make repeated efforts to twitch normally. D) It is aged and has lost contractile proteins. E) It is producing more ATP as tension increases. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 90) To produce a contraction similar to the one in graph (b), the muscle A) must be stimulated to the point of fatigue. B) must be stimulated again before it has relaxed from the previous stimulation. C) is excited by a stimulus of increasing intensity. D) must go through a rapid series of isolated twitches. E) generates more and more thin and thick filaments. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 91) Why is there partial relaxation in graph (c)? A) Calcium ion release is slow. B) The muscle is starting to fatigue. C) Stimulation intensity is fluctuating. D) ATP reserves are cycling. E) Nerve stimulation frequency is below maximum. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 92) What is the contraction in graph (d) called? A) complete tetanus B) incomplete tetanus C) twitch D) wave summation E) treppe Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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93) A single contraction-relaxation cycle in a muscle fiber produces a(n) A) cramp. B) twitch. C) tetanic contraction. D) action potential. E) motor unit. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) A muscle produces its highest tension when in complete A) recovery. B) treppe. C) wave summation. D) aerobic metabolism. E) tetanus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) During the time when the action potential moves through the sarcolemma a muscle twitch is in A) contraction phase. B) relaxation phase. C) stimulus phase. D) latent period. E) isotonic period. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) The point in a muscle twitch when the troponin is bound to calcium is called the A) contraction phase. B) relaxation phase. C) stimulus phase. D) latent period. E) isotonic period. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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97) Detachment of myosin cross-bridges occurs during the A) contraction phase. B) relaxation phase. C) stimulus phase. D) latent period. E) isotonic period. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) A single motor neuron together with all the muscle fibers it innervates is called a(n) A) end foot. B) end plate. C) motor unit. D) dermatome. E) myotome. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) The increase in muscle tension that is produced by increasing the number of active motor units is called A) incomplete tetanus. B) complete tetanus. C) treppe. D) wave summation. E) recruitment. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) The type of contraction in which the muscle fibers do not shorten is called A) tetany. B) treppe. C) concentric. D) isotonic. E) isometric. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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101) A weight-lifter strains to lift a heavy weight and there is no movement of the person's arms holding on to the weight. This type of contraction is called a(n) ________ contraction. A) isometric B) tetanus C) isotonic D) treppe E) concentric Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 102) You try to pick up an object and discover that it is much heavier than you expected. Which process must occur in the muscle to increase tension so you can pick up the object? A) wave summation B) isotonic contraction C) complete tetanus D) recruitment E) treppe Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 103) In which of the following would the motor units have the fewest muscle fibers? A) muscles of the neck B) postural muscles of the back C) muscles that control the eyes D) thigh muscles E) calf muscles Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) In an isotonic contraction, A) muscle tension exceeds the load and the muscle lifts the load. B) tension rises and falls but the muscle length is constant. C) the peak tension is less than the load. D) many twitches always fuse into one. E) postural muscles stabilize the vertebrae. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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105) Identify the incorrect statement about a single motor unit. A) The more neurons involved, the more powerful the contraction. B) The smaller the number of muscle fibers, the more precise the movement. C) Fine motor skills depend on the development of small motor units. D) Some motor units include as many as 2000 muscle fibers. E) Muscle fibers of one motor unit intermingle with the fibers of another motor unit. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 106) The type of contraction where the tension exceeds the load is called A) isometric contraction. B) isotonic eccentric contraction. C) isotonic concentric contraction. D) isometric concentric contraction. E) isometric eccentric contraction. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) The type of contraction where the tension is less than the load is called A) isometric contraction. B) isotonic eccentric contraction. C) isotonic concentric contraction. D) isometric concentric contraction. E) isometric eccentric contraction. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) Which of the following allows muscles to return to their original shape during relaxation? A) gravity B) opposing muscle contractions C) elastic forces D) myosin binding E) gravity, opposing muscle contractions, and elastic forces Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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109) A resting muscle generates most of its ATP by A) hydrolysis of creatine phosphate. B) anaerobic respiration. C) aerobic metabolism of fatty acids. D) glycogenolysis. E) the tricarboxylic acid cycle. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 110) Creatine phosphate A) is produced by the process of anaerobic respiration. B) can replace ATP in binding to myosin molecules during contraction. C) acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue. D) is only formed during strenuous exercise. E) cannot transfer its phosphate group to ADP. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) During anaerobic glycolysis, A) ATP is produced. B) pyruvic acid is produced. C) oxygen is not consumed. D) carbohydrate is metabolized. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) Aerobic metabolism normally provides ________ percent of the ATP demands of a resting muscle cell. A) 25 B) 50 C) 70 D) 95 E) 100 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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113) During the recovery period following exercise, all of the following are true except A) lactic acid is removed from muscle cells. B) the muscle actively produces ATP. C) muscle fibers are unable to contract. D) oxygen is consumed at above the resting rate. E) heat is generated. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 114) Which of the following hormones directly stimulates growth of muscle tissue, leading to increased muscle mass? A) epinephrine B) thyroid hormone C) testosterone D) parathyroid hormone E) calcitonin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) How would an elevated level of thyroid hormone in the body affect skeletal muscles? A) It would stimulate atrophy. B) It would stimulate hypertrophy. C) It would stimulate energy use and heat production. D) It would decrease heat production by muscle tissue. E) It would cause an increase in muscle mass. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) Heat energy gained from muscle contraction is released by the ________ system. A) integumentary B) respiratory C) cardiovascular D) urinary E) endocrine Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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117) The type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the ________ fiber. A) fast B) slow C) intermediate D) anaerobic E) high-density Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 118) Fast fibers A) have low resistance to fatigue. B) rely on aerobic metabolism. C) have many mitochondria. D) have twitches with a very brief contraction phase. E) have low resistance to fatigue and quick twitches. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) Muscles that move the eyeball have ________ fibers. A) fast B) slow C) intermediate D) circular E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) Which of the following statements is/are false regarding human muscles? A) Most have both slow and fast fibers. B) Slow fibers are abundant in the muscles of the hand. C) Eye muscles are composed entirely of fast fibers. D) Slow fibers are abundant in the back muscles. E) All of the answers are correct; none of them are true regarding human muscles. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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121) Large-diameter, densely packed myofibrils, large glycogen reserves, and few mitochondria are characteristics of A) slow fibers. B) intermediate fibers. C) fast fibers. D) red muscles. E) fatty muscles. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 122) Which of the following types of muscle fibers are best adapted for prolonged contraction such as standing all day? A) uninucleated fibers B) striated fibers C) fast fibers D) slow fibers E) intermediate fibers Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 123) Which of the following is not an effect of aging on the muscular system? A) hypertrophy B) smaller muscle fibers C) decreased recovery from muscle injuries D) exercise tolerance decreases E) muscles become less elastic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 124) The ability of smooth muscle to function over a wide range of lengths is called A) elasticity. B) contractility. C) extensibility. D) plasticity. E) variability. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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125) Which of the following is not characteristic of smooth muscle? A) The striations are due to the orderly arrangement of actin and myosin. B) Neurons that innervate smooth muscles are under involuntary control. C) Smooth muscle cells are uninucleate. D) Smooth muscles do not contain sarcomeres. E) The thin filaments of smooth muscle fibers are attached to dense bodies. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 126) Which of the following is not a function of smooth muscle tissue? A) altering the diameter of the respiratory passageways B) elevating hairs on the arm C) forcing blood from the heart into the major arteries D) moving food materials along the digestive tract E) forcing urine out of the urinary tract Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 127) Which of the following is true about the difference between cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells? A) Cardiac muscle cells does not have striations like skeletal muscle cells. B) Cardiac muscle cells does not have t-tubules. C) Cardiac muscle cells does not have sarcomeres. D) Cardiac muscle cells have intercalated discs where skeletal muscle cells do not. E) Cardiac muscle cells have more nuclei in them than skeletal muscle cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) The terminal cisternae that form a triad along with a T tubule are part of what organelle? (Figure 10-3) A) endoplasmic reticulum B) sarcoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi apparatus D) myofibril E) sarcolemma Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Match the level of organization with the structure that surrounds it: Level of organization: skeletal muscle, muscle fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril Surrounding structure: endomysium, epimysium, perimysium, sarcoplasmic reticulum. (Figure 10-6) A) skeletal muscle—epimysium; muscle fascicle—perimysium; muscle fiber—endomysium; myofibril— sarcoplasmic reticulum B) skeletal muscle—sarcoplasmic reticulum; muscle fascicle—epimysium; muscle fiber— perimysium; myofibril—endomysium C) skeletal muscle—endomysium; muscle fascicle—epimysium; muscle fiber—perimysium; myofibril— sarcoplasmic reticulum D) skeletal muscle—endomysium; muscle fascicle—perimysium; muscle fiber—sarcoplasmic reticulum; myofibril—epimysium E) skeletal muscle—epimysium; muscle fascicle—endomysium; muscle fiber—perimysium; myofibril— sarcoplasmic reticulum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) What happens to sarcomere length if the zone of overlap is decreased? (Figure 10-14) A) sarcomere length decreases B) sarcomere length stays the same C) sarcomere length increases Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 4) Which skeletal muscle fiber type—slow or fast—contains more mitochondria? (Figure 10-21) A) slow B) fast Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Essay Questions 1) Describe the basic sequence of events that occurs as an action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction and is transmitted to the muscle cell. Answer: The action potential triggers the exocytosis of neurotransmitters stored in vesicles in the axon terminal. This acetylcholine binds to receptors in the motor end plate, increasing the muscle membrane permeability to sodium. Acetylcholinesterase destroys the acetylcholine, ensuring that each nerve action potential produces only a single twitch. The influx of these positive sodium ions triggers an action potential. The action potential spreads in both directions away from the motor end plate across the entire surface of the muscle fiber and into the interior via transverse tubules, triggering a pulse of calcium ion release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which generates a brief small twitch. With additional stimuli, calcium ion builds up and higher tensions are produced. Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) A hypothetical genetic disease causes the body to produce antibodies that compete with acetylcholine for receptors on the motor end plate. Patients with this disease exhibit varying degrees of muscle weakness in the affected muscles. If you could administer a drug that inhibits acetylcholinesterase or a drug that blocks acetylcholine, which one would you use to alleviate these symptoms? Answer: This is a case of competition between acetylcholine and the antibody. To make the patient's acetylcholine more effective, a drug that inhibits acetylcholinesterase would slow the breakdown of acetylcholine, relieving some of the weakness. An acetylcholine blocker would be worse than doing nothing. Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 3) Describe a motor unit. How many fibers does a motor unit contain? Answer: A motor unit consists of all of the skeletal muscle fibers controlled by a single motor neuron. They may have as few as 10 fibers (eye muscles) or as many as 10,000 (back muscles). Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Thirty minutes after Mary has completed a 25-km race, she begins to notice severe muscle soreness and stiffness in her legs. Her urine is dark colored. She wonders whether she may have damaged her muscles during the race. She visits the ER, and the doctor orders several blood tests. What kind of blood tests can help determine whether muscle damage has occurred? Answer: If muscle damage occurred, the doctor would find enzymes such as creatine kinase and proteins such as myoglobin or troponin in the bloodstream released by injured skeletal muscle cells. The level of these substances correlates with the severity of the injury. Learning Outcome: 10-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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5) Megan wants to enter a weight-lifting competition and consults you as to what type of muscle fibers she needs to develop and how she should go about it. What would you suggest to her? Answer: Weight lifting requires anaerobic endurance. Megan would want to develop her fast fibers for short-term maximum strength. She would achieve this by engaging in activities that involve frequent, brief, but intensive workouts, such as with heavy weights to the point of muscle fatigue. The fatigue triggers the production of new myofilament proteins, leading to muscle bulk and strength. Learning Outcome: 10-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 6) Many visceral smooth muscle cells lack motor neuron innervation. How are their contractions coordinated and controlled? Answer: Gap junctions interconnect visceral smooth muscle fibers. An action potential that begins in one will spread to its surrounding neighbors. The action potential can be triggered by stretching, hormones, chemical changes, or stimulation at a myoneural junction on a distant smooth muscle cell. Learning Outcome: 10-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 11 The Muscular System Multiple Choice Questions 1) Muscles that guard entrances and exits of internal passageways are ________ muscles. A) parallel B) convergent C) pennate D) bipennate E) circular Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) In a ________ muscle, the fascicles are concentrically arranged around an opening. A) convergent B) parallel C) straight D) pennate E) circular Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) The type of muscle whose functional characteristics most closely resemble those of its muscle fibers is the ________ muscle. A) pennate B) circular C) parallel D) convergent E) divergent Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) In a ________ muscle, the muscle fibers and fascicles lie in a slanted or oblique position to the tendon. A) parallel B) circular C) pennate D) convergent E) divergent Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 1 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) ________ muscle fibers pull in different directions, permitting different actions depending on stimulation. A) Convergent B) Parallel C) Straight D) Pennate E) Circular Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) Most of the skeletal muscles in the body are ________ muscles. A) convergent B) parallel C) straight D) pennate E) circular Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) In a convergent muscle, fascicles converge on a common attachment site that may be a slender band of collagen fibers known as a(n) A) retinaculum. B) raphe. C) aponeurosis. D) orbicularis. E) ligament. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Which of the following is not a type of fascicle arrangement? A) parallel B) palmate C) unipennate D) circular E) convergent Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) A lever consists of A) a tendon and a muscle. B) a rigid structure. C) a fulcrum. D) a bone, a muscle, and a nerve. E) a rigid structure and a fulcrum. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) The most common lever systems in the body are those that have the applied force between the fulcrum and the load. These are called ________ levers. A) first-class B) second-class C) third-class D) fourth-class E) fifth-class Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) Contracting the gastrocnemius muscles to elevate the body on the toes involves a ________ lever. A) first-class B) second-class C) third-class D) fourth-class E) fifth-class Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) The fulcrum of a lever system is the A) joint. B) muscle. C) bone. D) resistance. E) load. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) When the fulcrum is located between the load and the force, it is called a ________ lever. A) first-class B) second-class C) third-class D) fourth-class E) compound Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) A(n) ________ is a muscle whose contraction is chiefly responsible for producing a particular movement. A) prime mover B) motor-unit C) antagonist D) opposition E) synergist Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) Which of these phrases most aptly describes "muscle insertion"? A) broad tendon sheet B) connective tissue that surrounds a single muscle fiber C) tendon attachment that doesn't move D) tendon attachment that moves E) connective tissue that surrounds an entire muscle Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Muscles that insert on the olecranon process of the ulna can act to A) flex the forearm. B) extend the forearm. C) abduct the forearm. D) adduct the forearm. E) extend the carpals. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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17) A muscle that assists the muscle that is primarily responsible for a given action is a(n) A) agonist. B) antagonist. C) synergist. D) originator. E) levator. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) The insertion end of the biceps brachii muscle of the anterior upper arm is A) at the proximal end of the muscle. B) at the distal end of the muscle. C) on the dorsal side of the muscle. D) on the lateral side of the muscle. E) the thumb. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 19) The end of a muscle that is attached to the point that moves when the muscle contracts is called the A) origin. B) aponeurosis. C) insertion. D) tendon. E) lever. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) The end of a muscle that remains stationary when the muscle contracts is called the A) origin. B) aponeurosis. C) insertion. D) tendon. E) lever. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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21) A type of muscle whose action opposes that of another muscle is called a(n) A) synergist. B) fixator. C) agonist. D) prime mover. E) antagonist. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) A muscle that assists another by preventing movement at another joint is called a(n) A) synergist. B) fixator. C) agonist. D) prime mover. E) antagonist. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) The names of the muscles can indicate all of the following except A) the angle of the muscle relative to the long axis of the body. B) the action of the muscle. C) the location of the muscle. D) structural characteristics of the muscle. E) the collagen content of the muscle. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) A muscle whose name ends in the suffix -glossus would be found within or attached to the A) chin. B) cheek. C) jaw. D) tongue. E) lips. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) Muscles including the term capitis would be found within or attached to the A) head. B) neck. C) thorax. D) abdomen. E) groin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) Muscles with fibers that run parallel to the long axis of the body are called A) lateralis. B) transversus. C) rectus. D) obliquus. E) medialis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) Each of the following terms is a descriptive term for a muscle's action except A) levator. B) pronator. C) extensor. D) sartorius. E) adductor. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) Muscles visible at the body surface are often called A) internus. B) extrinsic. C) profundus. D) intrinsic. E) superficialis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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29) Muscles located close to the midline of the body may be called A) rectus. B) distalis. C) proximal. D) medialis. E) lateralis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) Muscles with fibers that run at an angle to the long axis of the body are called A) lateralis. B) transversus. C) rectus. D) oblique. E) medialis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) Muscles with fibers that run perpendicular to the long axis of the body are called A) lateralis. B) transversus. C) rectus. D) oblique. E) medialis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) Which muscle is named for either shape or size? A) pectoralis major B) latissimus dorsi C) deltoid D) vastus lateralis E) All of the above are named for shape or size. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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33) Which of the following is not a pennate muscle? A) rectus femoris B) extensor digitorum longus C) deltoid D) pectoralis E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 34) Muscles visible at the body surface often called A) externus. B) profundus. C) rectus. D) transversus. E) oblique. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) Muscles that position or stabilize an organ are called A) externus. B) superficialis. C) intrinsic. D) extrinsic. E) oblique. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) Which of the following is not primarily a muscle of facial expression? A) buccinator B) depressor labii C) risorius D) masseter E) mentalis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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37) The mentalis muscle inserts on the A) orbicularis oris. B) skin of the chin. C) angle of the mouth. D) hyoid bone. E) skin around the eyelids. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) The "kissing muscle" that purses the lips is the A) zygomaticus. B) orbicularis oris. C) buccinator. D) levator labii. E) procerus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) All of the following are innervated by the facial nerve (N VII) except for the ________ muscle. A) risorius B) orbicularis oculi C) levator palpebrae superioris D) mentalis E) temporoparietalis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) The origin of the frontalis muscle is the A) mandible. B) frontal bone. C) occipital bone. D) epicranial aponeurosis. E) forehead. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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41) The temporalis muscle passes through the A) alveolar processes of the maxillae and mandible. B) tendinous band around the optic foramen. C) epicranial aponeurosis. D) zygomatic arch. E) fascia surrounding the submandibular salivary gland. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) The temporoparietalis muscle acts to A) move the external ear. B) purse the lips. C) depress the lip. D) draw the corner of the mouth back and up. E) close the eye. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) The iliac crest is the origin of the A) quadratus lumborum. B) iliocostalis cervicis. C) longissimus cervicis. D) semispinalis capitis. E) splenius. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 44) Which of the following describes the action of the digastric muscle? A) elevates the larynx B) elevates the larynx and depresses the mandible C) depresses the larynx D) depresses and retracts the tongue E) elevates the mandible Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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45) Which of the following is not an extrinsic eye muscle? A) inferior rectus B) rectus abdominis C) lateral rectus D) medial rectus E) superior oblique Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 46) The muscle that elevates the tongue is the A) genioglossus. B) hyoglossus. C) palatoglossus. D) styloglossus. E) digastric. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) Which of the following muscles has its origin on the hyoid and inserts on the tongue? A) hyoglossus B) lateral pterygoideus C) sternohyoid D) thyrohyoid E) geniohyoid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 48) Which of the following is a spinal flexor? A) quadratus lumborum B) longus capitis C) longus colli D) All of the answers are correct. E) both the longus capitis and the longus colli Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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49) The sternocleidomastoid inserts on the A) occipital bone. B) clavicle. C) mastoid process of the temporal bone. D) sternum. E) mandible. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) The anterior muscle of facial expression that inserts widely on the periosteum of the mandible is the A) temporalis. B) masseter. C) lateral pterygoideus. D) medial pterygoideus. E) platysma. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) The scalenes have their origin on the A) transverse and costal processes of cervical vertebrae. B) inferior border of the previous rib. C) superior border of the next rib. D) cartilages of the ribs. E) thoracodorsal fascia and iliac crest. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) Which of the following muscles has its insertion on the sternum? A) internal oblique B) external intercostal C) rectus abdominis D) internal intercostal E) scalene Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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53) Which of the following muscles compresses the abdomen? A) diaphragm and intercostals B) external oblique and latissimus dorsi C) rectus abdominis and pectoralis major D) transverse abdominis E) external oblique, rectus abdominis, and transverse abdominis Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) Which of the following is the origin of the bulbospongiosus in the female? A) ischial spine B) inferior ischial ramus C) linea alba and pubis D) coccyx E) collagen sheath at the base of the clitoris Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) The levator ani inserts on the A) iliac crest. B) coccyx. C) ischial spine. D) central tendon of the perineum. E) sacrum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) The ________ muscle allows you to look down. A) inferior rectus B) medial rectus C) lateral rectus D) superior rectus E) inferior oblique Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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57) A muscle that inserts on the body of the mandible is probably involved in A) kissing. B) blowing. C) chewing. D) frowning. E) spitting. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 58) The muscle that originates from the superior surface of the pubis around the symphysis is the A) internal oblique. B) external oblique. C) rectus abdominis. D) transversus abdominis. E) scalene. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) The eye muscles include which of the following muscles? A) medial rectus B) inferior rectus C) superior oblique D) inferior oblique E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) Which eye muscle sends its tendon of origin through a pulley or trochlea before inserting on the globe? A) superior rectus B) superior oblique C) lateral rectus D) inferior rectus E) inferior oblique Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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61) The ________ allows you to look up. A) inferior rectus B) medial rectus C) lateral rectus D) superior rectus E) inferior oblique Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) The ________ muscle is the strongest jaw muscle. A) lateral pterygoid B) digastric C) pterygoid D) medial pterygoid E) masseter Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) The ________ extends the neck. A) spinalis thoracis B) splenius capitis C) trapezius D) splenius E) splenius cervicis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) Which of these is true about the muscle named levator palpebrae superioris? A) lifts the scapula B) elevates the eyebrow C) raises the upper eyelid D) originates at the back of the orbit E) originates at the back of the orbit and raises the upper eyelid Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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65) In assessing a stroke patient, you ask her to stick out (protract) her tongue. You note that it deviates to one side. You suspect that damage to the neural control of the ________ muscle has occurred. A) hyoglossus B) genioglossus C) palatoglossus D) styloglossus E) None of the answers are correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 66) Ryan hears a loud noise and quickly turns his eyes sideways in the direction of the sound. To accomplish this action he must use his ________ muscles. A) superior rectus B) lateral rectus C) inferior rectus D) medial rectus E) lateral and medial rectus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 67) During abdominal surgery, the surgeon makes a cut lateral to the linea alba. The muscle that would be cut is the A) digastric. B) external abdominal oblique. C) rectus abdominis. D) scalenus. E) splenius. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 68) Medial rotation of the eyeball is performed by the ________ muscle. A) inferior rectus B) lateral rectus C) medial rectus D) superior rectus E) inferior oblique Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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69) Each of the following muscles is involved in the process of chewing or manipulating food in the mouth except the A) masseter. B) temporalis. C) pterygoid. D) omohyoid. E) genioglossus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 70) Which of the following muscles functions to expel urine or semen in males? A) bulbospongiosus B) superficial transverse perineus C) coccygeus D) levator ani E) anconeus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) Pam's daughter is born cross-eyed. As she grows, the problem does not become any better. Her physician suggests cutting an eye muscle to bring the eyes into a more normal position. Which muscle will he cut? A) inferior rectus B) lateral rectus C) medial rectus D) superior rectus E) superior oblique Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 72) Tom, a trumpet player, asks you which muscles he should develop in order to be a better trumpeter. What would you tell him? A) the masseter and buccinator B) the buccinator and orbicularis oris C) the orbicularis oris and risorius D) the risorius and zygomaticus E) the levator labii and mentalis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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73) Damage to the pectoralis major would interfere with a person's ability to A) extend the forearm. B) abduct the humerus. C) flexion of the humerus. D) elevate the scapula. E) rotate the elbow. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 74) The spinous processes of the upper thoracic vertebrae are the origin of the A) levator scapulae. B) rhomboid major. C) trapezius. D) supraspinatus. E) rhomboid major and the trapezius. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 75) Which of the following is the insertion of the pectoralis major? A) the vertebral border near the spine B) the greater tubercle of the humerus C) the mastoid region of the skull D) the occipital bone of the skull E) the clavicle and scapula Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) Which of the following describes the action of the serratus anterior? A) adducts the arm B) adducts and flexes the humerus C) protracts the shoulder, abducts and medially rotates the scapula D) medial rotation of the humerus E) lateral rotation of the humerus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 11-1 Major Anterior Skeletal Muscles Use Figure 11-1 to answer the following questions: 77) Identify the muscle labeled "1." A) trapezius B) deltoid C) sternocleidomastoid 20 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

D) temporalis E) pectoralis major Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 78) Identify the muscle labeled "15." A) sternocleidomastoid B) platysma C) sartorius D) stylohyoid E) risorius Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 79) Identify the muscle labeled "19." A) external oblique B) internal oblique C) rectus abdominis D) iliacus E) linea alba Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 80) The muscle that raises the corners of the mouth as when smiling is the ________ muscle. A) orbicularis oculi B) zygomaticus major C) orbicularis oris D) masseter E) buccinator Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 81) The action of the masseter muscle is to ________ the mandible. A) depress B) elevate C) abduct D) flex E) open Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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82) The muscle that retracts and elevates the upper lip is the ________ muscle. A) orbicularis oculi B) zygomaticus minor C) orbicularis oris D) masseter E) buccinator Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) The thick, flat sheet of tendon deep to the scalp is called the A) retinaculum. B) calcaneal tendon. C) linea alba. D) plantar aponeurosis. E) epicranial aponeurosis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 84) The muscle that elevates the larynx is the ________ muscle. A) masseter B) buccinator C) platysma D) sternocleidomastoid E) stylohyoid Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 85) The inferior rectus is innervated by which nerve? A) abducens B) trigeminal C) facial D) trochlear E) oculomotor Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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86) The stylohyoid is innervated by which nerve? A) abducens B) trigeminal C) facial D) trochlear E) oculomotor Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) Which of the following does not depress the hyoid bone? A) omohyoid B) stylohyoid C) sternohyoid D) sternothyroid E) thyrohyoid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 11-1 Major Anterior Skeletal Muscles Use Figure 11-1 to answer the following questions: 88) Identify the muscle labeled "20." A) biceps brachii B) brachioradialis C) triceps brachii 24 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

D) pronator teres E) deltoid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 89) Identify the muscle labeled "7." A) supinator B) brachioradialis C) brachialis D) pronator teres E) palmaris longus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 90) Identify the muscle labeled "11." A) rectus anterior B) vastus lateralis C) soleus D) serratus anterior E) tibialis anterior Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 91) Identify the muscle labeled "25." A) rectus femoris B) biceps femoris C) adductor longus D) risorius E) sartorius Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 92) Identify the muscle labeled "27." A) rectus femoris B) gastrocnemius C) soleus D) gracilis E) biceps femoris Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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93) The infraspinatus has its insertion on the A) greater tubercle of the humerus. B) tuberosity of the radius. C) lesser tubercle and intertubercular groove of the humerus. D) clavicle and scapula. E) vertebral border near the spine. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) The muscle that inserts on the acromion and scapular spine is the A) serratus anterior. B) trapezius. C) sternocleidomastoid. D) pectoralis minor. E) levator scapulae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) The muscle that adducts the thumb is the A) adductor pollicis. B) abductor pollicis. C) extensor digitorum. D) flexor digitorum profundus. E) flexor pollicis longus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) All of the following originate on the scapula except the A) pectoralis major. B) teres major. C) teres minor. D) subscapularis. E) supraspinatus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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97) The powerful abductor muscle of the upper arm is the A) supraspinatus. B) subscapularis. C) deltoid. D) coracobrachialis. E) teres major. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) The muscle that extends the forearm when doing push-ups is the A) deltoid. B) pectorals. C) brachialis. D) triceps. E) biceps. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 99) The muscle(s) that adduct(s) the humerus is/are the A) coracobrachialis. B) deltoid. C) trapezius. D) latissimus dorsi. E) coracobrachialis and latissimus dorsi. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) Which of the following does not originate on the humerus? A) anconeus B) brachialis C) brachioradialis D) biceps brachii E) anconeus and brachioradialis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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101) Which of the following is the insertion of the triceps brachii? A) olecranon process of the ulna B) infraglenoid tuberosity of the scapula C) lateral condyle of the humerus D) medial epicondyle of the humerus E) base of the second metacarpal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 102) Which of the following originates on the medial epicondyle of the humerus? A) flexor carpi radialis B) flexor carpi ulnaris C) palmaris longus D) pronator teres E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 103) The band of collagen fibers that laterally braces the knee is the A) linea alba. B) tensor fasciae latae. C) linea aspera. D) iliotibial tract. E) piriformis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) The adductor brevis has its origin on the A) ilium. B) pubis. C) sacrum. D) iliac crest. E) linea aspera. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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105) Which of these muscles is a member of the quadriceps group? A) vastus lateralis B) vastus medialis C) vastus intermedius D) rectus femoris E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) The muscle that inserts on the iliotibial tract and gluteal tuberosity of the femur is the A) tensor fasciae latae. B) piriformis. C) gluteus minimus. D) gluteus medius. E) gluteus maximus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) Muscles that laterally rotate the thigh include all of the following except the A) gluteus maximus. B) obturator internus. C) obturator externus. D) piriformis. E) tensor fasciae latae. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 108) Which of the following are members of the hamstring group? A) biceps femoris and rectus femoris B) semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius C) biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus D) adductor longus and adductor magnus E) gluteus maximus and rectus femoris Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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109) The only knee flexor that originates superior to the acetabulum is the A) biceps femoris. B) gracilis. C) sartorius. D) iliopsoas. E) semimembranosus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 110) The insertion of the flexor hallucis longus is A) above the femoral condyles. B) the superior surface of the distal phalanx of the great toe. C) the inferior surface of the distal phalanx of the great toe. D) the lateral condyle of the tibia and anterior surface of the fibula. E) the posterior surface of the medial condyle of the tibia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) The inferior ramus of the pubis is the origin and the medial tibia is the insertion of the ________ muscle. A) biceps femoris B) gracilis C) sartorius D) vastus intermedius E) piriformis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 112) A muscle that dorsiflexes the foot is the A) tibialis anterior. B) tibialis posterior. C) peroneus brevis. D) soleus. E) gastrocnemius. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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113) Muscles of the rotator cuff include all of the following except the A) supraspinatus. B) infraspinatus. C) subscapularis. D) teres minor. E) rhomboid. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 114) Which of these muscles produces lateral rotation at the hip? A) gluteus maximus B) piriformis C) obturator externus D) obturator internus E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) The quadriceps group includes all of the following except the A) biceps femoris. B) vastus intermedius. C) vastus lateralis. D) vastus medialis. E) rectus femoris. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 116) Tom is having difficulty with plantar flexion and eversion of his foot. Which muscle is most likely involved in this problem? A) tibialis anterior B) soleus C) gastrocnemius D) flexor digitorum longus E) fibularis longus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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117) Individuals who are engaged in repetitive hand movements such as typing or playing the piano may suffer wrist pain, especially during palmar flexion. All of the following are true concerning this condition except that it A) is called carpal tunnel syndrome. B) results from inflammation of the synovial tendon sheaths. C) never causes muscle weakness. D) results from inflammation of the carpal retinacula. E) irritates the median nerve. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 118) If you bruised your gluteus maximus, you would expect to experience discomfort when A) flexing your hip. B) extending your hip. C) abducting your hip. D) laterally rotating your hip. E) extending and laterally rotating the hip. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 119) Jill suffers a severe cut that severs the tendon that attaches the insertion of the flexor carpi ulnaris. As a result of this injury, what action is difficult for her to perform? A) flex her forearm B) flex her elbow C) flex her ulna D) flex and adduct her hand E) flex her shoulder Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 11-2 Major Posterior Skeletal Muscles Use Figure 11-2 to answer the following questions: 120) Identify the muscle labeled "1." 33 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

A) deltoid B) trapezius C) sternocleidomastoid D) triceps brachii E) brachioradialis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 121) Identify the muscle labeled "2." A) deltoid B) teres major C) sternocleidomastoid D) trapezius E) rhomboid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 122) Identify the muscle labeled "3." A) rhomboid major B) supraspinatus C) infraspinatus D) deltoid E) teres minor Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 123) Identify the muscle labeled "6." A) trapezius B) tensor fasciae latae C) latissimus dorsi D) adductor magnus E) rhomboid major Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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124) Identify the muscle labeled "17." A) anconeus B) extensor carpi ulnaris C) extensor digitorum D) pronator teres E) brachioradialis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 125) Identify the structure labeled "9." A) quadriceps tendon B) femoral aponeurosis C) linea alba D) iliotibial tract E) calcanean tendon Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 126) Identify the muscle labeled "11." A) gracilis B) semitendinosus C) gluteus medius D) biceps femoris E) adductor magnus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 127) Identify the muscle labeled "12." A) soleus B) gastrocnemius C) sartorius D) tibialis posterior E) peroneus longus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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128) The whole deltoid muscle ________ the humerus. A) abducts B) flexes C) pronates D) rotates E) inverts Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 129) The muscle group on the posterior thigh is called the ________ group. A) hamstring B) quadricep C) femoris D) adductor E) extensor Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 130) The four prominent muscles on the anterior thigh comprise the ________ muscle group. A) quadriceps femoris B) hamstring C) gluteal D) rhomboid E) adductor Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 131) The long strap-like muscle on the anterior thigh is the ________ muscle. A) gracilis B) rectus femoris C) iliotibial tract D) adductor longus E) sartorius Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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132) What is the action of the subclavius? A) elevates the scapula B) depresses the shoulder C) protracts the shoulder D) depresses and protracts the shoulder E) adducts the scapula Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 133) Which of the following controls abduction at the shoulder? A) supraspinatus B) subscapularis C) teres major D) infraspinatus E) teres minor Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 134) Which of the following controls adduction at the shoulder? A) supraspinatus B) subscapularis C) teres major D) infraspinatus E) teres minor Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 135) Which of the following muscles is innervated by the ulnar nerves? A) flexor carpi radialis B) flexor carpi ulnaris C) palmaris longus D) extensor carpi radialis longus E) extensor carpi ulnaris Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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136) The median nerve innervates all of the following except the A) flexor carpi radialis. B) palmaris longus. C) pronator teres. D) extensor carpi ulnaris. E) pronator quadratus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 137) Which of the following does not control flexion of the hip? A) adductor longus B) pectineus C) psoas major D) gluteus maximus E) adductor brevis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 138) Which of the following is not innervated by the lateral plantar nerve? A) adductor hallucis B) abductor hallucis C) plantar interosseus D) dorsal interosseus E) abductor digiti minimi Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 139) Which of the following is innervated by the sciatic nerve? A) soleus B) tibialis anterior C) plantaris D) fibularis longus E) gasctrocnemius Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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140) The adductor longus is innervated by which nerve? A) obturator B) femoral C) sciatic D) fibular E) tibial Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 141) The Sartorius is innervated by which nerve? A) obturator B) femoral C) sciatic D) fibular E) tibial Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Given its name, what does the levator anguli oris do? (Figure 11-5) A) raise the eyebrows B) raise the eyelids C) raise the mouth D) tense the mouth E) close the eyelids Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 2) Six muscles control eye movement. How many of these muscles can you see from the lateral surface and how many can you see from the medial surface, respectively? (Figure 11-6) A) 2; 4 B) 4; 2 C) 4; 4 D) 5; 5 E) 1; 6 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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3) Which muscles insert on the hyoid bone? (Figure 11-10) A) sternothyroid and digastric B) sternocleidomastoid, digastric, and geniohyoid C) omohyoid, thyrohyoid, and sternothyroid D) sternocleidomastoid, digastric, sternothyroid, geniohyoid, mylohyoid, and omohyoid E) digastric, geniohyoid, omohyoid, sternohyoid, stylohyoid, thyrohyoid, and mylohyoid Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Give the origins of the heads of the triceps brachii. (Figure 11-17) A) lateral surface of the humerus, infraglenoid tubercle of scapula, posterior surface of the humerus B) lateral surface of the humerus, medial surface of the humerus, posterior surface of the humerus C) lateral surface of the humerus, anterior surface of the humerus, posterior surface of the humerus D) all on olecranon of ulna E) coracoid process of scapula, supraglenoid tubercle of scapula, anterior surface of humerus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 5) Which two intrinsic thumb muscles are an agonist-antagonist pair? (Figure 11-19) A) lumbricals and opponens digiti minimi B) adductor pollicis and abductor pollicis brevis C) flexor retinaculum and extensor retinaculum D) flexor pollicis brevis and palmar interosseous E) palmar interosseous and dorsal interosseous Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 6) Which quadriceps femoris muscle is not visible from the superficial anterior thigh? (Figure 11-21) A) vastus lateralis B) vastus medialis C) vastus intermedius D) rectus femoris E) biceps femoris Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Essay Questions 1) How do first-, second-, and third-class levers differ? Answer: Levers differ in the position of their fulcrum in relation to the applied force and the load. A first-class lever has the fulcrum positioned between the applied force and the load. Second-class levers have the fulcrum at one end, adjacent to the load, with the applied force at the other end. Third-class levers have the fulcrum at one end, the load at the other, and the applied force in the middle. Learning Outcome: 11-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) Which three functional roles in a movement are used to characterize muscle groups? Give a brief description of each action. Answer: Agonist, antagonist, or synergist. Agonists are chiefly responsible for a movement. Antagonists oppose the agonists, keeping the movements smooth. Synergists provide additional force or stabilize the origin. Learning Outcome: 11-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 3) Jeff is interested in toning his abdomen. What muscles would you tell Jeff to exercise to accomplish his goal? What movements would best exercise these muscles? Answer: Jeff should do exercises that flex and twist the trunk. The muscles he should target are the rectus abdominis muscles, and the external and internal oblique muscles. Sit-ups and twisting movements will stimulate these muscles. If he places a weight on his chest as he does sit-ups, it will produce faster results because the rectus abdominis muscle would be working against a greater load. Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 4) Shelly gives her son an ice-cream cone. The boy grasps the cone with his right hand, opens his mouth, and begins to lick the ice cream. Which muscles does he use to perform these actions? Answer: As the child grasps the ice-cream cone, he uses flexor muscles, principally the flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor digitorum profundus, and flexor pollicis longus muscles. Opening his mouth requires the contraction of the platysma and digastric muscles and the relaxation of the masseter, temporalis, and pterygoid muscles. The licking action would involve the genioglossus muscle (to depress and protract the tongue and the palatoglossus muscle (to elevate the tongue). Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 5) While playing softball, Sid pulls his hamstring muscle. As a result of the injury, he has difficulty extending and medially rotating his thigh. Which muscle(s) of the hamstring group did he probably injure? Answer: Sid probably injured the semimembranosus and/or the semitendinosus, since both of these muscles have these actions. Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 41 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 12 Nervous Tissue Multiple Choice Questions 1) The ________ nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord. A) autonomic B) peripheral C) central D) efferent E) afferent Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) The ________ nervous system controls the skeletal muscles. A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) afferent D) somatic E) autonomic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) The part of the peripheral nervous system that carries sensory information to the CNS is designated A) motor. B) afferent. C) efferent. D) autonomic. E) somatic. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) The efferent division of the peripheral nervous system innervates ________ cells. A) skeletal muscle B) smooth muscle C) heart muscle D) glandular E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) The nervous tissue outside of the central nervous system composes the ________ nervous system. A) somatic B) peripheral C) autonomic D) afferent E) parasympathetic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) The ________ division of the peripheral nervous system brings sensory information to the central nervous system. A) somatic B) peripheral C) autonomic D) afferent E) parasympathetic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) The ________ division of the nervous system carries motor commands to muscles and glands. A) spinal B) peripheral C) autonomic D) afferent E) efferent Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) The ________ nervous system provides involuntary regulation of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandular activity. A) somatic B) peripheral C) autonomic D) afferent E) motor Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) ________ carry motor information to peripheral effectors. A) Unipolar neurons B) Efferent neurons C) Multipolar neurons D) Afferent neurons E) Interneurons Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) ________ nerves are nerves that connect to the spinal cord. A) Spinal B) Cranial C) Afferent D) Multipolar E) Autonomic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) ________ nerves are nerves that connect to the brain. A) Spinal B) Unmyelinated C) Myelinated D) Cranial E) Interneural Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) The axoplasm of the axon contains which of the following? A) neurotubules B) mitochondria C) vesicles D) neurofibrils E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) Which of the following is not a recognized structural classification for neurons? A) anaxonic B) bipolar C) multipolar D) pseudopolar E) unipolar Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) The most abundant class of neuron in the central nervous system is A) anaxonic. B) bipolar. C) multipolar. D) pseudopolar. E) unipolar. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) The cytoplasm that surrounds the nucleus of a neuron is called the A) protoplasm. B) nucleoplasm. C) sarcoplasm. D) neuroplasm. E) perikaryon. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Clusters of RER and free ribosomes in neurons are called A) neurofilaments. B) neurofibrils. C) perikaryon. D) Nissl bodies. E) microglia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) The axon is connected to the soma at the A) telodendria. B) synaptic terminal. C) collaterals. D) axon hillock. E) synapse. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) Branches that may occur along an axon are called A) telodendria. B) synaptic terminals. C) collaterals. D) hillocks. E) synapses. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) Axons terminate in a series of fine extensions known as A) telodendria. B) terminals. C) collaterals. D) dendrites. E) synapses. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) The site of intercellular communication between a neuron and another cell is the A) telodendria. B) axolemma. C) collateral. D) hillock. E) synapse. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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21) The rabies virus travels to the CNS via A) anterograde axoplasmic transport. B) retrograde axoplasmic transport. C) blood vessels. D) subcutaneous connective tissue. E) cerebrospinal fluid. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 22) Neurons that are rare, small, and lack features that distinguish dendrites from axons are called A) anaxonic. B) unipolar. C) bipolar. D) tripolar. E) multipolar. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) Neurons in which dendritic and axonal processes are continuous and the soma lies off to one side are called A) anaxonic. B) unipolar. C) bipolar. D) tripolar. E) multipolar. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) Neurons that have one axon and one dendrite, with the soma in between, are called A) anaxonic. B) unipolar. C) bipolar. D) tripolar. E) multipolar. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) Neurons that have several dendrites and a single axon are called A) anaxonic. B) unipolar. C) bipolar. D) tripolar. E) multipolar. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) Sensory neurons of the PNS are A) unipolar. B) bipolar. C) anaxonic. D) multipolar. E) tripolar. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) Which of the following activities or sensations is/are not monitored by interoceptors? A) sight B) pain C) activities of the digestive system D) cardiovascular activities E) urinary activities Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 28) ________ are the most numerous type of neuron in the CNS. A) Sensory neurons B) Motor neurons C) Unipolar neurons D) Bipolar neurons E) Interneurons Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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29) How does blocking retrograde axoplasmic transport in an axon affect the activity of a neuron? A) The neuron becomes unable to produce neurotransmitters. B) The neuron becomes unable to produce action potentials. C) The soma becomes unable to export products to the synaptic terminals. D) The soma becomes unable to respond to changes in the distal end of the axon. E) The neuron becomes unable to depolarize when stimulated. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Figure 12-1 The Neuron Use Figure 12-1 to answer the following questions: 30) The structures labeled "1" are dendrites. Their membranes contain numerous chemicallygated ion channels. A) The first statement is true but the second statement is false. B) The first statement is false but the second statement is true. C) Both statements are true. D) Both statements are false. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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31) The structure labeled "2" is a(n) A) neurofilament. B) dendrite. C) initial segment. D) perikaryon. E) axon. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 32) Which type of membrane channels are found at label "3"? A) voltage-gated Na+ channels B) voltage-gated K+ channels C) chemically-gated Na+ and K+ channels D) voltage-gated Ca2+ channels E) both voltage-gated Na+ channels and voltage-gated K+ channels Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 33) Identify the structure labeled "4." A) synaptic terminals B) telodendria C) dendritic spines D) collateral branches E) axons Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 34) Identify the structure labeled "5." A) axons B) telodendria C) dendritic spines D) synaptic terminals E) collateral branch Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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35) What is contained inside the structure labeled "5"? A) neuroglia B) sodium ions C) acetylcholinesterase D) calcium ions E) neurotransmitter molecules Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 36) Which part(s) of the neuron can propagate an action potential? A) 1 B) 1 and 2 C) 2 and 3 D) 3 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 37) On which structure do most neuron to neuron communications occur? A) 2 B) 1 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 38) ________ monitor the position of skeletal muscles and joints. A) Proprioceptors B) Internoceptors C) Photoreceptors D) Exteroceptors E) Pressoreceptors Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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39) ________ carry sensory information to the CNS. A) Motor neurons B) Efferent neurons C) Multipolar neurons D) Afferent neurons E) Interneurons Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) ________ provide information about the external environment. A) Spinal nerves B) Anaxonic neurons C) Internoceptors D) Exteroceptors E) Proprioceptors Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 41) ________ monitor the digestive, respiratory, cardiovascular, urinary, and reproductive systems. A) Spinal nerves B) Unipolar neurons C) Internoceptors D) Exteroceptors E) Proprioceptors Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) The plasma membrane of an axon is called the A) axon terminal. B) neurilemma. C) myelin sheath. D) sarcolemma. E) axolemma. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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43) The basic functional unit of the nervous system is the A) neuron. B) axon. C) nerve. D) glial cell. E) receptor. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) The most common neuron of the nervous system is the A) interneuron. B) externoceptor. C) bipolar neuron. D) unipolar neuron. E) microglial cell. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 45) Most neurons lack ________ and so are permanently blocked from undergoing cell division. A) ribosomes B) endoplasmic reticula C) a nucleus D) centrioles E) cytoplasm Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) Deteriorating changes in the distal segment of an axon as a result of a break between it and the soma is called ________ degeneration. A) neural B) central C) peripheral D) Wallerian E) conduction Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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47) Which of the following is not a function of the neuroglia? A) support B) memory C) secretion of cerebrospinal fluid D) maintenance of blood-brain barrier E) phagocytosis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 48) Which of the following is a type of glial cell found in the peripheral nervous system? A) astrocytes B) satellite cells C) oligodendrocytes D) microglia E) ependymal cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 49) The largest and most numerous of the glial cells in the central nervous system are the A) astrocytes. B) satellite cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) ependymal cells. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) Functions of astrocytes include all of the following except A) maintaining the blood-brain barrier. B) conducting action potentials. C) guiding neuron development. D) responding to neural tissue damage. E) forming a three-dimensional framework for the CNS. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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51) ________ account for roughly half of the volume of the nervous system. A) Axons B) Dendrites C) Neuroglia D) Synapses E) Efferent fibers Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) The neuroglial cells that participate in maintaining the blood-brain barrier are the A) astrocytes. B) ependymal cells. C) microglia. D) oligodendrocytes. E) Schwann cells. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53) The myelin sheath that covers many CNS axons is formed by A) astrocytes. B) satellite cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) ependymal cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) ________ line the brain ventricles and spinal canal. A) Astrocytes B) Satellite cells C) Oligodendrocytes D) Microglia E) Ependymal cells Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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55) Small, wandering cells that engulf cell debris and pathogens in the CNS are called A) astrocytes. B) satellite cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) ependymal cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) The neurilemma of axons in the peripheral nervous system is formed by A) astrocytes. B) satellite cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) Schwann cells. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) Glial cells that surround the neurons in ganglia are A) astrocytes. B) satellite cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) ependymal cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) Damage to ependymal cells would most likely affect the A) formation of myelin sheaths. B) formation of cerebrospinal fluid. C) formation of ganglia. D) repair of axons. E) transport of neurotransmitters within axons. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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59) When pressure is applied to neural tissue, all of the following effects are possible except A) a decrease in blood flow. B) a decrease in available oxygen. C) a change in neuron excitability. D) glial cells degenerate. E) neurons are triggered to divide. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 60) In the peripheral nervous system, Schwann cells participate in the repair of damaged nerves by A) producing new axons. B) regenerating cell bodies for the neurons. C) forming a cellular cord that directs axonal regrowth. D) clearing away cellular debris. E) producing more satellite cells that fuse to form new axons. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 61) The tiny gaps between adjacent Schwann cells are called A) neurillema. B) nodes of Ranvier. C) axolemma. D) terminals. E) vesicles. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) Regions of the CNS with an abundance of myelinated axons constitute the ________ matter. A) gray B) white C) neural D) brain E) ganglion Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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63) Regions of the CNS where neuron cell bodies dominate constitute the ________ matter. A) white B) gray C) neural D) brain E) ganglion Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) Which of the following is not a function of astrocytes? A) They create a three dimensional framework for the CNS. B) They maintain the blood-brain barrier. C) They guide neuron development. D) They rebuild injured neurons. E) They adjust the composition of the interstitial tissue. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 65) All of the following cause demyelination except A) heavy-metal ion poisoning. B) diphtheria. C) multiple sclerosis. D) dopamine deficiency. E) All of these cause demyelination. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 66) Which of the following can cause demyelination? A) arsenic poisoning B) diphtheria C) multiple sclerosis D) mercury exposure E) Demyelination can be caused by arsenic, diphtheria, multiple sclerosis and mercury. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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67) Which of the following is not true regarding the establishment of a neuron's resting membrane potential? A) Chemical and electrical forces both favor sodium ions entering the cell. B) Electrical forces do not push sodium ions into the cell. C) The chemical gradient for potassium ions tends to drive them out of the cell. D) Ion pumps in the plasma membrane eject sodium ions as fast as they cross the membrane. E) Resting membrane permeability to Na+ is very low. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 68) At the normal resting membrane potential of a typical neuron, its sodium-potassium exchange pump transports A) 1 intracellular sodium ion for 2 extracellular potassium ions. B) 2 intracellular sodium ions for 1 extracellular potassium ion. C) 3 intracellular sodium ions for 1 extracellular potassium ion. D) 3 intracellular sodium ions for 2 extracellular potassium ions. E) 3 extracellular sodium ions for 2 intracellular potassium ions. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 69) Ion channels that are always open are called ________ channels. A) active B) gated C) leak D) regulated E) local Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) Opening of sodium channels in the axon membrane causes A) depolarization. B) repolarization. C) hyperpolarization. D) increased negative charge inside the membrane. E) inhibition. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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71) Voltage-gated channels are present A) at the motor end plate. B) on the surface of dendrites. C) in the membrane that covers axons. D) on the soma of neurons. E) along the perikaryon of neurons. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) The sodium-potassium ion exchange pump A) must reestablish ion concentrations after each action potential. B) transports sodium ions into the cell during depolarization. C) transports potassium ions out of the cell during repolarization. D) moves sodium and potassium opposite to the direction of their electrochemical gradients. E) depends on a hydrogen gradient for energy. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 73) ________ open or close in response to binding specific molecules. A) Leak channels B) Activated channels C) Chemically gated channels D) Voltage-gated channels E) Voltage-gated and chemically gated channels Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) ________ channels open or close in response to physical distortion of the membrane surface. A) Voltage-gated B) Chemically gated C) Active D) Mechanically gated E) Leak Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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75) Any stimulus that opens a ________ ion channel will produce a graded potential. A) voltage-gated B) chemically gated C) sodium D) mechanically gated E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) If the permeability of a resting axon to sodium ion increases, A) the membrane potential will repolarize. B) the membrane potential will hyperpolarize. C) inward movement of sodium ion will increase. D) outward movement of sodium ion will decrease. E) inward movement of sodium will increase and the membrane will depolarize. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) Which of the following is not involved in creating the resting membrane potential of a neuron? A) diffusion of potassium ions out of the cell B) diffusion of sodium ions into the cell C) membrane permeability for sodium ions greater than potassium ions D) membrane permeability for potassium ions greater than sodium ions E) The interior of the plasma membrane has an excess of negative charges. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 78) If the sodium-potassium pumps in the plasma membrane fail to function, all of the following occur except A) the intracellular concentration of potassium ions will increase. B) the neuron will slowly depolarize. C) the membrane will slowly lose its capacity to generate action potentials. D) the inside of the membrane will have a resting membrane potential that is more positive than normal. E) the intracellular concentration of sodium ions will increase. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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79) Graded potentials A) produce an effect that increases with distance from the point of stimulation. B) produce an effect that spreads actively across the membrane surface. C) may be either a depolarization or a hyperpolarization. D) are often all-or-none. E) cause repolarization. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) When potassium channels open and the ions diffuse through the membrane, A) the inside of the membrane will become more positive. B) the inside of the membrane will become more negative. C) there will be almost no effect on transmembrane potential. D) the membrane will become depolarized. E) the membrane will depolarize to threshold. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 81) Ions can move across the plasma membrane in which of the following ways? A) through voltage-gated channels as in the action potential B) through passive or leak channels C) by ATP-dependent ion pumps like the sodium-potassium exchange pump D) through chemically gated channels as in neuromuscular transmission E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) Raising the potassium ion concentration in the extracellular fluid surrounding a nerve cell will have what effect? A) depolarize it B) hyperpolarize it C) increase the magnitude of the potassium equilibrium potential D) decrease the magnitude of the potassium equilibrium potential E) both hyperpolarize it and decrease the magnitude of the potassium equilibrium potential Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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83) Voltage-gated sodium channels have both an activation gate and a(n) ________ gate. A) inactivation B) ion C) swinging D) repolarization E) threshold Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 84) If acetylcholine (ACh) causes inhibition of a postsynaptic neuron, to what type of membrane channel did the ACh bind? A) mechanically-regulated channel B) voltage-regulated sodium channel C) voltage-regulated calcium channel D) chemically-regulated potassium channel E) chemically-regulated sodium channel Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 85) A movement of charges in response to a potential difference is called A) current. B) depolarization. C) hyperpolarization. D) action potential. E) electricity. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) The sum of the electrical and chemical forces acting on an ion is known as its A) permeability gradient. B) thermodynamic difference. C) electrochemical gradient. D) action potential. E) summation difference. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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87) A shift of the resting transmembrane potential toward 0 mV is called A) potential difference. B) depolarization. C) hyperpolarization. D) polarization. E) repolarization. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) The equilibrium potential of potassium is A) -90mV. B) -65mV. C) -70mV. D) +30mV. E) +66mV. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 89) The equilibrium potential of sodium is A) -90mV. B) -65mV. C) -70mV. D) +30mV. E) +66mV. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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90) The following are the main steps in the generation of an action potential. 1. Sodium channels are inactivated. 2. Voltage-gated potassium channels open and potassium moves out of the cell, initiating repolarization. 3. Sodium channels regain their normal properties. 4. A graded depolarization brings an area of an excitable membrane to threshold. 5. A temporary hyperpolarization occurs. 6. Sodium channel activation occurs. 7. Sodium ions enter the cell and depolarization occurs. What is the proper sequence of these events? A) 4, 6, 7, 3, 2, 5, 1 B) 4, 6, 7, 1, 2, 3, 5 C) 6, 7, 4, 1, 2, 3, 5 D) 2, 4, 6, 7, 1, 3, 5 E) 4, 2, 5, 6, 7, 3, 1 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 91) The all-or-none principle states that A) all stimuli will produce identical action potentials. B) all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials. C) the greater the magnitude of the stimuli, the greater the magnitude of the action potential. D) only sensory stimuli can activate action potentials. E) only motor stimuli can activate action potentials. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) Which of the following statements about the action potential is false? A) The rapid depolarization phase is caused by the entry of potassium ions. B) During the repolarization phase, sodium channels close and potassium channels open. C) During the depolarization phase, membrane potential becomes positive. D) During the hyperpolarization phase, the ion pumps re-establish the sodium and potassium concentrations across the cell membrane. E) Repolarization occurs as potassium ions leave the axon. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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93) How would the absolute refractory period be affected if voltage-regulated sodium channels failed to inactivate? A) It would last indefinitely. B) It would be much briefer. C) It would be basically unaffected. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) During repolarization of a neuron A) sodium ions move out of the cell. B) potassium ions move out of the cell. C) potassium ions move into the cell. D) both sodium and potassium ions move into the cell. E) sodium ions move into the cell. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) How would a chemical that prevents the opening of voltage-regulated Na+ channels affect the function of a neuron? A) The neuron will only be able to hyperpolarize. B) The neuron will depolarize more rapidly. C) Action potentials will lack a repolarization phase. D) The neuron will automatically and repeatedly produce graded potentials. E) The neuron will only be capable of producing graded potentials. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 96) A threshold stimulus is the A) depolarization necessary to cause an action potential. B) peak of an action potential. C) hyperpolarization of an axon. D) resting membrane potential. E) electrical current that crosses the synaptic cleft. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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97) Which of the following is true about threshold for an action potential? A) It is more positive than the resting membrane potential. B) Voltage-gated potassium channels begin to close. C) Voltage-gated potassium channels begin to open. D) The membrane begins to hyperpolarize. E) Threshold for a typical neuron is approximately -30 mV. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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98) Puffer fish poison blocks voltage-gated sodium channels like a cork. What effect would this neurotoxin have on the function of neurons? A) Neurons would depolarize more rapidly. B) Action potentials would lack a repolarization phase. C) The absolute refractory period would be shorter than normal. D) The axon would be unable to generate action potentials. E) None, because the chemically gated sodium channels would still function. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

Figure 12-2 The Nerve Action Potential Use Figure 12-2 to answer the following questions: 99) What is occurring at the area labeled #4? A) An inhibitory stimulus has occurred. B) Chemically gated potassium channels have opened. C) Excessive potassium has diffused out causing hyperpolarization. D) Sodium ions have been pumped out of the neuron. E) Excessive depolarization of the axon has occurred. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 27 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

100) What is occurring in the area between #2 and #3? A) An excitatory graded potential is occurring. B) Potassium ions are entering the axon and causing depolarization. C) Chemically gated sodium channels are open and sodium is diffusing into the axon. D) Sodium ions are entering the axon and causing depolarization. E) Repolarization of the axon due to sodium ions leaving the axon is occurring. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 101) Which area of the graph shows when chemically gated sodium channels are open? A) 3 B) 1 C) 2 D) 5 E) 4 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 102) Which area of the graph shows when voltage-gated sodium channels are open? A) 2 B) 4 C) 1 D) 5 E) 3 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 103) Which area of the graph shows when potassium channels open? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 104) In which area of the graph do you see a sudden rush of sodium ions into the neuron? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 28 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

105) Which area of the graph shows when membrane potential approaches the potassium equilibrium potential? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 106) Which point of the graph shows when potassium ion outflow exceeds sodium ion inflow? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 107) When is the neuron in the relative refractory period? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 108) Rapid impulse conduction from "node" to "node" is called A) spatial propagation. B) saltatory propagation. C) divergent propagation. D) synaptic transmission. E) continuous propagation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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109) Which of the following does not influence the time necessary for a nerve impulse to be transmitted? A) length of the axon B) presence or absence of a myelin sheath C) diameter of the axon D) presence or absence of nodes E) whether or not the impulse begins in the CNS Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 110) Which of the following types of nerve fiber possesses the fastest speed of impulse propagation? A) type A B) type B C) type C D) type D E) type E Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) Type ________ fibers have the largest diameter axons. A) S B) F C) A D) B E) C Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) Sensory information from skeletal muscles travels over ________ fibers. A) type A B) type B C) type C D) type D E) type E Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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113) In which of the following would the rate of impulse conduction be the greatest? A) a myelinated fiber of 10-µm diameter B) a nonmyelinated fiber of 20-µm diameter C) a myelinated fiber of 1-µm diameter D) a nonmyelinated fiber of 10-µm diameter E) It would be the same in all because of the all-or-none principle. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 114) The minimum stimulus required to trigger an action potential is known as the A) threshold. B) all-or-none response. C) potential. D) incentive. E) summation. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) The ________ principle states that the size and speed of the action potential are independent of the stimulus strength. A) threshold B) all-or-none C) summation D) polarization E) potential Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) The period during which an excitable membrane cannot respond to further stimulation is the ________ period. A) relative refractory B) absolute refractory C) resting D) lag E) stationary Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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117) The period during which an excitable membrane can respond again, but only if the stimulus is greater than the threshold stimulus, is the ________ period. A) relative refractory B) absolute refractory C) resting D) lag E) stationary Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 118) The presence of ________ dramatically increases the speed at which an action potential moves along an axon. A) a capsule B) plasma protein C) neurilemma D) glial cells E) myelin Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 119) Below are the events that occur during continuous propagation of action potential. Select the correct order in which the events occur. 1. Adjacent membrane segment depolarizes. 2. Local current spreads to adjacent voltage gated channel. 3. Threshold is met. 4. Local current develops due to sodium moving in the cytosol. A) 2,4,3,1 B) 2,4,1,3 C) 4,2,3,1 D) 4,2,1,3 E) 1,4,2,3 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) A neuron that receives neurotransmitter from another neuron is called A) the presynaptic neuron. B) the motor neuron. C) an oligodendrocyte. D) a satellite cell. E) the postsynaptic neuron. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

121) Which type of synapse is most common in the nervous system? A) chemical B) electrical C) mechanical D) processing E) radiative Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 122) The ion that triggers the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft is A) sodium. B) potassium. C) calcium. D) chloride. E) magnesium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 123) Cholinergic synapses release the neurotransmitter A) norepinephrine. B) adrenalin. C) serotonin. D) acetylcholine. E) GABA. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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124) The following are the steps involved in transmission at a cholinergic synapse. What is the correct sequence for these events? 1. Chemically-gated sodium channels on the postsynaptic membrane are activated. 2. Calcium ions enter the synaptic terminal. 3. Acetylcholinesterase hydrolyzes acetylcholine. 4. An action potential depolarizes the synaptic terminal at the presynaptic membrane. 5. The pre-synaptic terminal reabsorbs choline. 6. Acetylcholine is released from storage vesicles by exocytosis. 7. Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. 8. Calcium ions are removed from the cytoplasm of the pre- synaptic terminal. A) 4, 2, 6, 7, 8, 5, 3, 1 B) 4, 2, 6, 7, 1, 8, 3, 5 C) 2, 4, 6, 7, 1, 8, 3, 5 D) 2, 5, 4, 6, 7, 1, 8, 3 E) 6, 4, 2, 7, 1, 8, 3, 5 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 125) If the chemically gated sodium channels in the postsynaptic membrane were completely blocked, A) synaptic transmission would fail. B) release of neurotransmitter would stop. C) smaller action potentials would result. D) the presynaptic membrane would be unable to reach threshold. E) the presynaptic neuron would release a different neurotransmitter. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 126) The effect that a neurotransmitter has on the postsynaptic membrane depends on the A) frequency of neurotransmitter release. B) nature of the neurotransmitter. C) characteristics of the receptors. D) quantity of neurotransmitters released. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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127) When cholinergic receptors are stimulated, A) sodium ions enter the postsynaptic neuron. B) sodium ions leave the postsynaptic neuron. C) chloride ions enter the postsynaptic neuron. D) chloride ions leave the postsynaptic neuron. E) norepinephrine deactivates acetylcholine. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 128) What triggers the release of acetylcholine from a synaptic terminal? A) release of calcium ions from the synaptic vesicles B) graded potentials in the synaptic terminal C) synaptic vesicles fuse to dendrites D) diffusion of sodium ions out of the synaptic terminal E) diffusion of calcium ions into the synaptic terminal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 129) At a(n) ________ synapse, a neurotransmitter is released to stimulate the postsynaptic membrane. A) electrical B) cell C) chemical D) osmotic E) gap Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 130) In a(n) ________ synapse, current flows directly between cells. A) electrical B) cell C) chemical D) osmotic E) gap Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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131) At a synapse the 0.2-0.5 milliseconds it takes for calcium influx and neurotransmitter release is called A) latency period. B) synaptic delay. C) recovery period. D) repolarization. E) synaptic diffusion. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) Synaptic delay is caused by A) neurotransmitter diffusion. B) binding of acetylcholine to post-synaptic receptors. C) calcium influx and neurotransmitter release. D) production and transport of neurotransmitter within the neuron. E) the lack of permeability of the post-synaptic membrane. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 133) Adrenergic synapses release the neurotransmitter A) acetylcholine. B) norepinephrine. C) dopamine. D) serotonin. E) GABA. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 134) Which of the following is the most important excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain that is important in learning and memory? A) glutamate B) gamma aminobutyric acid C) serotonin D) noradrenaline E) glycine Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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135) After acetylcholinesterase acts, the synaptic terminal A) reabsorbs the acetylcholine. B) reabsorbs the acetate. C) reabsorbs the choline. D) reabsorbs axoplasm. E) pinches off and a new terminal grows. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 136) A deficiency in which neurotransmitter would cause Parkinson's-like symptoms? A) dopamine B) norepinephrine C) serotonin D) GABA E) endorphins Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 137) Which neurotransmitter has a direct effect on opening chloride channels? A) dopamine B) norepinephrine C) serotonin D) GABA E) endorphins Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 138) Which neurotransmitter has widespread effects on a person's attention and emotional state? A) dopamine B) norepinephrine C) serotonin D) GABA E) endorphins Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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139) Which of the following neurotransmitters is a dissolved gas? A) serotonin B) glutamate C) aspartate D) nitric oxide E) histamine Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 140) Which of the following neurotransmitters are known to bind to G-protein coupled receptors? A) epinephrine B) serotonin C) dopamine D) GABA E) All of these bind to G-protein coupled receptors. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 141) The molecule responsible for making cyclic AMP is called A) adenylate cyclase. B) adenosine. C) anandamide. D) adenosine synthase. E) G-protein. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 142) Which of the following is the primary second messenger in G-protein coupled post-synaptic cells? A) NO B) CO C) cAMP D) GABA E) ATP Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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143) A postsynaptic neuron will have an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) when A) chemically regulated potassium channels are open and potassium is diffusing out of the cell. B) more calcium ions than usual diffuse into the neuron. C) chemically regulated sodium channels are open and sodium is diffusing into the cell. D) the neuron is hyperpolarized. E) more potassium ions than usual diffuse out of the neuron. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 144) The site in the neuron where EPSPs and IPSPs are integrated is the A) chemical synapse. B) electrical synapse. C) axon hillock. D) dendritic membrane. E) synaptic terminal. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 145) EPSPs (excitatory postsynaptic potentials) occur when A) more potassium ions than usual leak out of a cell. B) more calcium ions than usual leak out of a cell. C) chloride ions enter a cell. D) extra sodium ions enter a cell. E) hyperpolarizations occur. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 146) IPSPs (inhibitory postsynaptic potentials) A) are local depolarizations. B) are local hyperpolarizations. C) increase membrane permeability to sodium ions. D) block the efflux of potassium ions. E) block the efflux of calcium ions. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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147) When a second EPSP (excitatory postsynaptic potential) arrives at a single synapse before the effects of the first have disappeared, what occurs? A) spatial summation B) temporal summation C) inhibition of the impulse D) hyperpolarization E) decrease in speed of impulse transmission Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 148) Summation that results from the cumulative effect of multiple synapses at multiple places on the neuron is designated A) spatial summation. B) temporal summation. C) inhibition of the impulse. D) hyperpolarization. E) impulse transmission. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 149) A neuron whose membrane potential shifts closer to threshold is said to be A) hyperpolarized. B) depolarized. C) facilitated. D) repolarized. E) at equilibrium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 150) In ________, activity at an axoaxonic synapse increases the amount of neurotransmitter released when an action potential arrives at the axon terminus. A) presynaptic inhibition B) presynaptic facilitation C) spatial summation D) temporal summation E) spatial facilitation Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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151) In one form of presynaptic inhibition the release of ________ inhibits the opening of voltage gated calcium channels in the axon terminus. A) glutamate B) GABA C) serotonin D) dopamine E) aspartate Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 152) The release of GABA and subsequent inhibition of voltage gated calcium channels is associated with A) presynaptic inhibition. B) presynaptic facilitation. C) spatial summation. D) temporal summation. E) spatial facilitation. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) The axon hillock is a region between what two general regions of a neuron? (Figure 12-2) A) dendrites and cell body B) nucleolus and nucleus C) axon and axon terminals D) cell body and axon E) dendrites and telodendria Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Which neuroglia myelinate CNS axons and which neuroglia myelinate PNS axons? (Figure 12-4) A) oligodendrocytes; Schwann cells B) Schwann cells; oligodendrocytes C) astrocytes; satellite cells D) satellite cells; astrocytes E) astrocytes; Schwann cells Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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3) Which part of an acetylcholine (ACh) molecule undergoes reuptake by the axon terminal to be reused in another acetylcholine molecule? (Figure 12-16) A) acetate B) choline C) coenzyme A D) calcium E) acetyl-CoA Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Essay Questions 1) Rabies is caused by a virus that attacks the central nervous system. The virus is normally introduced by an animal bite that breaks the surface of the skin. Since the virus is not motile, how does it travel to the central nervous system? Answer: When the skin is broken by an animal bite some cutaneous receptors are physically damaged. It is through these damaged axons that the virus gains entrance to the neuron. Retrograde axoplasmic transport carries the virus to the central nervous system, where it can reproduce and spread. Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) The myelination of central and peripheral axons occurs rapidly through the first few years of life. How can this developmental process explain the improved motor abilities of infants and toddlers? Answer: Without full myelination, information about limb movement and body position moves slowly to the CNS, and motor commands move slowly and erratically to the muscles. By the time the brain is aware of movement or position and can issue a motor command, the limb has already moved. When the motor command reaches the skeletal muscle, the response is no longer appropriate. As the neurons become fully myelinated, information processing speeds up, so we observe improved balance, coordination, and movement. Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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3) A drug that blocks ATP production is introduced into an isolated axon preparation. The axon is then repeatedly stimulated, and recordings are made of the response. What effects would you expect to observe? Answer: Initially, the recording would show normal action potentials in response to the repetitive stimulation. After 50,000 to 100,000 action potentials have passed, the recording would start to indicate less responsiveness from the axon; ultimately, the axon would fail to respond. Because very few ions actually move across the membrane during an action potential, axons can carry thousands of action potentials before the concentrations of sodium and potassium ions must be reestablished by the sodium-potassium pump. Without ATP production, the supply of ATP would be consumed, the pump would shut down, and so the cell could not restore the sodium and potassium ion gradients. The resulting slow depolarization would inactivate voltage-gated sodium channels, leading to a persistent absolute refractory state. The loss of the electrochemical gradients denies the axons their means of generating an action potential and transmission would stop. Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 13 The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal Reflexes Multiple Choice Questions 1) The spinal cord is part of the ________ nervous system. A) peripheral B) somatic C) central D) autonomic E) afferent Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) The adult spinal cord typically ends between vertebrae A) T12-L1. B) S4-S5. C) L5-S1. D) L1-L2. E) S5-Co1. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Arrange the spinal meninges from innermost layer to outermost layer. A) dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater B) dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater C) arachnoid mater, pia mater, dura mater D) pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater E) pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Enlarged area of the spinal cord from which nerves to the shoulder and upper limbs arise. A) cervical enlargement B) lumbar enlargement C) thoracic region D) conus medullaris E) sacral region Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) These structures extending from the pia mater through to the dura mater support the spinal cord by preventing lateral movement. A) coccygeal ligament B) rami communicantes C) cauda equina D) denticulate ligaments E) spinal ligaments Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 6) The conus medullaris anchors the spinal cord to the coccygeal ligament via a strand of fibrous tissue called the A) denticulate ligament. B) filum terminale. C) spinal ligament. D) meningeal ligament. E) dura mater. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) Spinal nerves are A) purely sensory. B) purely motor. C) both sensory and motor. D) interneuronal. E) involuntary. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) The spinal cord consists of four regions and ________ pairs of spinal nerves. A) five B) twelve C) twenty-five D) thirty-one E) The number varies widely among individuals. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) The posterior root ganglia mainly contain A) axons of motor neurons. B) axons of sensory neurons. C) cell bodies of motor neurons. D) cell bodies of sensory neurons. E) synapses. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) The posterior root of a spinal nerve contains A) axons of motor neurons. B) axons of sensory neurons. C) cell bodies of motor neurons. D) cell bodies of sensory neurons. E) interneurons. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) The anterior root of a spinal nerve contains A) axons of motor neurons. B) axons of sensory neurons. C) cell bodies of motor neurons. D) cell bodies of sensory neurons. E) interneurons. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) The tough, fibrous, outermost covering of the spinal cord is the A) arachnoid mater. B) pia mater. C) dura mater. D) coccygeal ligament. E) periosteum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) If the posterior root of a spinal nerve is severed, A) output to skeletal muscles would be blocked. B) output to visceral organs would be blocked. C) efferent fibers would be blocked. D) the brain would not be able to communicate with that level of the spinal cord. E) sensory input would be blocked. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 14) The subdural space lies between A) the arachnoid mater and the pia mater. B) the pia mater and the dura mater. C) the dura mater and the arachnoid mater. D) the pia mater and the subarachnoid space. E) the endosteum and the periosteum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 15) The layer of the meninges in direct contact with the spinal cord is the A) dura mater. B) subarachnoid space. C) arachnoid mater. D) pia mater. E) choroid plexus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) A posterior and anterior root of each spinal segment unite to form a A) cervical enlargement. B) lumbar enlargement. C) spinal nerve. D) denticulate ligament. E) spinal ganglion. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) Which of the following is not true of meningitis? A) Inflammation of the meninges occurs. B) Bacteria can be the cause. C) Viruses can be the cause. D) CSF flow can be disrupted. E) It only affects spinal meninges. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 18) Which of the following is not true regarding an epidural block? A) It is commonly used as a method of pain control during labor and delivery. B) This procedure does not provide sustained anesthesia. C) It can provide sensory and motor anesthesia, depending on the anesthetic selected. D) Intubation is not necessary because respiratory muscles are not paralyzed. E) It affects only the spinal nerves in the immediate area of the injection. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 19) Cerebrospinal fluid flows within the A) filum terminale. B) subarachnoid space. C) dura mater. D) pia mater. E) arachnoid mater. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 20) The spinal cord continues to elongate until about age A) 20 years. B) 10 years. C) 4 years. D) 6 months. E) 2 months. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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21) The specialized membranes that surround the spinal cord are termed the A) cranial meninges. B) cranial mater. C) spinal meninges. D) spinal mater. E) epidural membranes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) Blood vessels that supply the spinal cord run along the surface of the A) pia mater. B) dura mater. C) epidural space. D) subdural space. E) arachnoid mater. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) Samples of CSF for diagnostic purposes are normally obtained by placing the tip of a needle in the A) dura mater. B) arachnoid mater. C) epidural space. D) subarachnoid space. E) cerebral ventricles. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 24) In an adult, the conus medullaris is found at about A) T6. B) T10. C) L1. D) L5. E) C8. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) The dura mater tapers inferiorly to form the A) coccygeal ligament. B) conus medullaris. C) cauda equina. D) subarachnoid space. E) denticulate ligament. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) The condition in which a person loses all feeling and movement of the arms and legs due to spinal cord injury is termed A) paraplegia. B) hemiplegia. C) spinal shock. D) quadriplegia. E) spinal transection. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 27) The loss of feeling and movement of the legs is termed A) paraplegia. B) hemiplegia. C) spinal shock. D) quadriplegia. E) spinal transection. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 28) During the procedure known as a(n) ________, a needle is inserted into the subarachnoid space in the inferior lumbar region. A) myelography B) encephalomyelogram C) laminectomy D) lumbar puncture E) thoracic tap Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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29) Bill contracts a viral disease that destroys cells in the posterior gray horns in his spinal cord. As a result, which of the following would you expect? A) loss of sensation in his torso B) inability to breathe C) problems with moving his arms D) uncontrollable sweating of his feet E) problems moving his legs Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 30) Masses of gray matter within the central nervous system are A) ganglia. B) columns. C) nuclei. D) commissures. E) horns. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) Bundles of axons in the central nervous system are known as A) tracts. B) ganglia. C) nuclei. D) horns. E) commissures. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) Axons cross from one side of the spinal cord to the other through the A) lateral white column. B) posterior gray horn. C) central canal. D) posterior median sulcus. E) anterior white commissure. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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33) The white matter of the spinal cord is mainly A) unmyelinated axons. B) neuroglia. C) Schwann cells. D) myelinated axons. E) nodes of Ranvier. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) The gray horns of the spinal cord contain mainly A) nerve tracts. B) columns. C) meninges. D) neuron cell bodies. E) funiculi. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) The large anterior gray horns of the spinal cord contain mainly A) somatic sensory nuclei. B) somatic motor nuclei. C) visceral motor nuclei. D) visceral sensory nuclei. E) sympathetic nuclei. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 36) Nerve tracts or fasciculi make up the A) central canal. B) posterior gray horns. C) gray commissures. D) white columns. E) anterior gray horns. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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37) In the spinal cord, white matter is separated into ascending and descending tracts organized as A) nuclei. B) ganglia. C) columns. D) nerves. E) horns. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) The outward projections from the central gray matter of the spinal cord, seen easily in microscopic spinal cord cross sections, are called A) wings. B) horns. C) pyramids. D) fibers. E) tracts. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) Axons crossing from one side of the spinal cord to the other within the gray matter are found in the A) anterior gray horns. B) lateral gray horns. C) posterior gray horns. D) gray commissures. E) white commissures. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 13-1 The Spinal Cord Use Figure 13-1 to answer the following questions: 40) Ascending and descending tracts can be found in which area(s) of the spinal cord? A) 9 B) 8 C) 11, 12, 13, 14 D) 1, 2, 3 E) 4, 5, 6 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 41) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) anterior white column B) lateral white column C) lateral white horn D) median commissure E) posterior white column Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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42) Identify the structure labeled "4." A) posterior gray column B) posterior gray ganglion C) posterior white column D) posterior gray horn E) anterior gray horn Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) Identify the structure labeled "9." A) anterior white commissure B) anterior median fissure C) anterior white column D) anterior gray commissure E) anterior white horn Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) What is the function of the structure labeled "11"? A) somatic motor control B) somatic sensory receiving C) visceral sensory receiving D) visceral motor control E) ascending pathway Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 45) Where do somatic motor neurons reside? A) 9 B) 11 C) 12 D) 13 E) 14 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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46) Sensory information from visceral organs is carried by the A) parasympathetic nerve. B) sympathetic nerve. C) anterior ramus. D) posterior ramus. E) rami communicantes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) Nerve plexuses are formed by interconnecting branches of the A) posterior rami. B) anterior rami. C) posterior root. D) anterior root. E) white rami communicans. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) Regional loss of sensory or motor function from nerve trauma or compression is termed A) shingles. B) dermatome. C) peripheral neuropathy. D) hemisection. E) areflexia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 49) Large bundles of axons from several spinal nerves in the brachial plexus are termed A) cords. B) rami. C) dermatomes. D) trunks. E) roots. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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50) The largest peripheral nerve is the ________ nerve. A) median B) femoral C) phrenic D) obturator E) sciatic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) Loss of feeling in the thumb and first two fingers is most likely due to a damaged ________ nerve. A) radial B) musculocutaneous C) ulnar D) median E) axillary Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 52) The outermost connective tissue covering of nerves is the A) endoneurium. B) endomysium. C) perineurium. D) epineurium. E) epimysium. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53) The preganglionic fibers that connect a spinal nerve with an autonomic ganglion in the thoracic and lumbar region of the spinal cord and carries visceral motor fibers that are myelinated form the A) white rami communicantes. B) gray rami communicantes. C) posterior ramus. D) anterior ramus. E) dermatomes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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54) The postganglionic fibers that innervate glands in the body wall or smooth muscles in limbs are A) white rami communicantes. B) gray rami communicantes. C) posterior ramus. D) anterior ramus. E) dermatomes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 55) Preganglionic and postganglionic fibers of the autonomic nervous system that innervate internal organs are collectively called A) posterior rami. B) anterior rami. C) white rami. D) gray rami. E) sympathetic nerves. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) Which of the following associations is incorrect? A) 8 cervical spinal nerves B) 11 thoracic spinal nerves C) 5 lumbar spinal nerves D) 5 sacral spinal nerves E) 1 coccygeal spinal nerve Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) Muscles of the neck and shoulder are innervated by spinal nerves from the ________ region. A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral E) coccygeal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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58) The anterior rami of spinal nerves C5 to T1 contribute fibers to the ________ plexus. A) cervical B) brachial C) lumbar D) sacral E) thoracic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) In which plexus does the ulnar nerve arise? A) cranial B) cervical C) brachial D) lumbar E) sacral Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) In the condition ________, a virus infects posterior root ganglia, causing a painful rash whose distribution corresponds to that of the affected sensory nerves as seen in their dermatomes. A) myasthenia gravis B) neuronal damage C) shingles D) chickenpox E) Hodgkin's disease Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 61) The layer of connective tissue that surrounds a fascicle within a peripheral nerve is the A) perineurium. B) epineurium. C) endoneurium. D) epimysium. E) endosteum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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62) Spinal nerves from the sacral region of the cord innervate the ________ muscles. A) shoulder B) intercostal C) abdominal D) leg E) facial Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) The ________ innervates the ventrolateral body surface, structures in the body wall, and the limbs. A) white rami communicantes B) gray rami communicantes C) posterior rami D) anterior rami E) dermatomes Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) A viral disease that destroys the cells of the anterior gray horn will A) lead to skeletal muscle weakness or paralysis. B) interfere with position sense. C) mainly interfere with crude touch and temperature sense. D) block autonomic regulation. E) affect visceral motor function. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 65) The complex, interwoven network formed by contributions from the anterior rami of neighboring spinal nerves is termed a(n) A) dermatome. B) autonomic nerve. C) lateral nerve. D) tract. E) plexus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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66) Each of the following nerves originates in the lumbar plexus except the ________ nerve. A) saphenous B) sciatic C) femoral D) obturator E) genitofemoral Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) The ________ nerve, which arises in the cervical plexus, innervates the diaphragm. A) ansa cervicalis B) lesser occipital C) thoracic D) phrenic E) supraclaviculars Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) The layer of connective tissue that surrounds individual axons within a peripheral nerve is termed the A) endoneurium. B) perineurium. C) epineurium. D) metaneurium. E) subneurium. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 69) If a person has a crush injury to the C3-C5 spinal segments, you would expect that he A) might be unable to breathe on his own. B) could walk without difficulty. C) would have full range of motion in all extremities. D) would be in a coma. E) would have difficulty chewing and moving the tongue. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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70) Mary is in an automobile accident and suffers a spinal cord injury. She has lost feeling in her lower body. Her doctor tells her that swelling is compressing a portion of her spinal cord. Which part of her cord is likely to be compressed? A) the anterior gray horns B) the anterior gray commissures C) ascending tracts D) descending tracts E) the anterior white commissures Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 71) The brachial plexus gives rise to all of the following nerves except the A) radial. B) median. C) ulnar. D) musculocutaneous. E) phrenic. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 13-2 Spinal Nerves Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions: 72) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) anterior root B) posterior ramus C) spinal nerve D) anterior ramus E) white ramus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 73) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) spinal nerve B) gray ramus communicans C) white ramus communicans D) posterior ramus communicans E) anterior ramus communicans Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

74) Ken has a herniated disc which is pinching the structure labeled "10". He is most likely experiencing impairment in which sensory pathway? A) somatic sensory B) visceral sensory C) somatic and visceral sensory D) somatic and visceral motor E) visceral motor Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 75) Damage to which structure would lead to paralysis of limbs? A) 11 B) 2 C) 1 D) 7 E) 9 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 76) Identify the structure labeled "4." A) spinal nerve B) gray ramus C) white ramus D) posterior ramus E) anterior ramus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) Identify the structure labeled "6." A) autonomic nerve B) sympathetic ganglion C) posterior root ganglion D) rami communicantes E) anterior root Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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78) Identify the structure labeled "8." A) peripheral nerve B) posterior ramus C) spinal nerve D) anterior root E) posterior root Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) What is the function of the structure labeled "12"? A) somatic motor control B) visceral motor control C) somatic sensory input D) visceral sensory input E) sensory receptor for pain Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 80) Which branch carries motor neurons to structures on the back of the body trunk? A) 1 B) 2 C) 5 D) 7 E) 11 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 81) In which structure are sensory cell bodies located? A) 4 B) 6 C) 5 D) 10 E) 12 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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82) Suppose that you feel something brushing against your abdomen. The sensory information would be carried to the spinal cord over a(n) ________ ramus. A) posterior B) sympathetic C) lateral D) anterior E) ascending Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 83) The specific strip of skin that is innervated by a specific spinal nerve is called a A) root. B) ramus. C) trunk. D) ganglion. E) dermatome. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 84) A complex, interwoven network of nerves is called a A) dermatome. B) ramus. C) plexus. D) ganglion. E) tract. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 85) Recognized neuronal circuit patterns include all of the following except A) convergent. B) divergent. C) multipolar. D) reverberating. E) parallel processing. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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86) You are sitting at a Mexican restaurant waiting for your food. The waiter brings a very hot plate, telling you to be careful about touching it. You touch it anyway, producing a pain sensation in your fingers, a withdrawal of your hand, and an auditory comment of what you are thinking. This scenario represents a ________ neuronal circuit. A) parallel processing B) reverberating C) serial processing D) convergent E) divergent Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 87) In ________, one neuron synapses on several postsynaptic neurons. A) divergence B) reverberation C) serial processing D) parallel processing E) convergence Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) A motor neuron typically receives input from neurons that originate in various areas of the brain. This type of circuit is a A) divergent circuit. B) convergent circuit. C) serial processing circuit. D) parallel processing circuit. E) reverberating circuit. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 89) Which of the following is not a way that reflexes are classified? A) innate/acquired B) somatic/visceral C) sympathetic/parasympathetic D) monosynaptic/polysynaptic E) spinal/cranial Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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90) All of the following are true of neural reflexes except that they A) are automatic motor responses. B) are the simplest form of behavior. C) help preserve homeostasis. D) cannot be modified by the brain. E) involve at least two neurons. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 91) Reflexes based on synapses formed during development are ________ reflexes. A) visceral B) innate C) acquired D) somatic E) intersegmental Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) The neural "wiring" of a single reflex is called a(n) A) reflex arc. B) ramus. C) ganglion. D) tract. E) circuit. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 93) ________ reflexes activate skeletal muscles. A) Involuntary B) Cranial C) Spinal D) Autonomic E) Somatic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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94) The most complicated spinal reflexes are called A) collateral reflex arcs. B) ipsilateral reflex arcs. C) intersegmental reflex arcs. D) dermatomes. E) spinal plexuses. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) All of the following are true of muscle spindles except they A) are found within skeletal muscle. B) consist of specialized fibers called intrafusal fibers. C) are found in tendons. D) are the receptor for the stretch reflex. E) are innervated by gamma motor neurons. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 96) The reflex that prevents a muscle from exerting too much tension is the ________ reflex. A) stretch B) tendon C) flexor D) crossed extensor E) reciprocal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) Spinal interneurons inhibit antagonist motor neurons in a process called A) a crossed extensor reflex. B) a stretch reflex. C) a tendon reflex. D) reciprocal inhibition. E) reverberating circuits. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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98) Which of the following is not true of polysynaptic reflexes? A) They involve pools of interneurons. B) They are intersegmental in distribution. C) They involve reciprocal inhibition. D) They involve one muscle group. E) They have reverberating circuits. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 99) Place the following events of a reflex arc in the correct order: 1) motor neuron activation, 2) sensory neuron activation, 3) sensory receptor activation, 4) Information processing, 5) effector response. A) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 B) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5 C) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 D) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5 E) 1, 5, 3, 2, 4 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) The ________ reflex complements the flexor reflex by activating contralateral muscles. A) stretch B) tendon C) flexor D) crossed extensor E) reciprocal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) The flexor reflex A) prevents a muscle from overstretching. B) prevents a muscle from generating damaging tension. C) moves a limb away from a painful stimulus. D) usually depends on cranial neurons. E) is an example of a monosynaptic reflex. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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102) Reflexes that activate muscles on the same side of the body as the stimulus are called A) contralateral. B) ipsilateral. C) monosynaptic. D) involuntary. E) polysynaptic. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 103) Reflexes that activate muscles on the opposite side of the body as the stimulus are called A) contralateral. B) ipsilateral. C) monosynaptic. D) involuntary. E) polysynaptic. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) In a(n) ________ reflex, a sensory neuron synapses directly on a motor neuron. A) monosynaptic B) ipsilateral C) commensual D) contralateral E) polysynaptic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) A(n) ________ reflex has at least one interneuron placed between the sensory and motor neurons. A) monosynaptic B) ipsilateral C) contralateral D) involuntary E) polysynaptic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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106) Which of the following is not a reason a reflex response may fail during a clinical exam? A) The person may consciously suppress the response. B) The nerves may be damaged. C) The person may be elderly and no longer have any reflexes. D) The CNS may be damaged. E) There may be nerve conduction problems. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 107) Which of the following is not true about a positive Babinski reflex? A) normal in newborns B) abnormal in adults C) a sign of injury to descending spinal tracts D) clinicians test this when a peripheral nerve injury is suspected E) flaring of the toes when the sole is stroked Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) What is the area between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater? (Figure 13-3) A) dura mater B) subdural space C) subarachnoid space D) denticulate space E) epidural space Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) In which horn are somatic motor nuclei located? (Figure 13-5) A) anterior horn B) posterior horn C) lateral horn D) dorsal horn E) central horn Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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3) The axillary, radial, and ulnar nerves branch from which plexus? (Figure 13-9) A) cervical B) brachial C) lumbar D) sacral E) thoracic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) What are the four ways reflexes can be classified? (Figure 13-15) A) monosynaptic, polysynaptic, monosegmental, polysegmental B) flexor, extensor, crossed extensor, withdrawal C) somatic, muscle, visceral, autonomic D) development, response, complexity, processing site E) dorsal, ventral, lateral, central Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Essay Questions 1) The varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles. The virus attacks the dorsal roots of spinal nerves and sensory ganglia of cranial nerves. What are the characteristic symptoms of shingles and where are they localized on the body? Answer: The symptoms include red skin that is warm to the touch. The skin is extremely sensitive and very painful. Additionally, the skin forms painful blisters that are slow to heal. The rash follows the dermatome of the affected sensory nerve so it is typically a small area and usually affects only on one side of the body. Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 2) While playing football, Ramón is tackled hard, and as he tries to get up, he finds that he has difficulty flexing and adducting his left thigh and extending his left leg. Which nerve innervating the lower limb may be damaged, and how would the damage affect sensory perception in Ramón's left leg? Answer: Ramón has a damaged left femoral nerve. This nerve also supplies sensory innervation to the skin on the anteromedial surface of the thigh and medial surfaces of the leg and foot, so he will also experience numbness in those regions. Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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3) What is a reflex arc? What components must be present to qualify? Answer: A reflex arc is the wiring pattern of neurons that underlie a particular reflex. A reflex arc consists of three elements at the minimum: (1) a sensory receptor and neuron to carry afferent information to the CNS; (2) an excitatory synapse on a motor neuron; (3) the motor neuron to generate an action potential and conduct the impulse to an effector such as a skeletal muscle motor unit. Learning Outcome: 13-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 4) Sometimes, when it is difficult to initiate a knee-jerk reflex by tapping the patellar tendon, a patient will be asked to voluntarily make a fist. Then the reflex will be easily evoked. What does this illustrate about the relation between voluntary and involuntary reflex movement? Answer: Descending motor tracts that excite the motor neurons that activate forearm and hand muscles also send excitatory impulses to motor neurons lower down the spinal cord. These EPSPs spatially summate with the excitatory inputs from the muscle spindles to quadriceps motor neurons, bringing the quadriceps neurons to threshold, and thus generate a brisk "kneejerk" response. Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 14 The Brain and Cranial Nerves Multiple Choice Questions 1) The adult human brain contains almost ________ of the body's neural tissue. A) 15 percent B) 25 percent C) 68 percent D) 97 percent E) 35 percent Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Male brains are typically ________ compared to female brains. A) larger B) smaller C) the same size D) very smooth E) more convoluted Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) During embryonic development, which of the following secondary brain vesicles will form the cerebrum? A) telencephalon B) diencephalon C) mesencephalon D) metencephalon E) myelencephalon Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Which of these is not one of the main divisions of the adult brain? A) cerebrum B) diencephalon C) prosencephalon D) brainstem E) cerebellum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) Which of the following lies between the cerebrum and the brain stem? A) medulla oblongata B) pons C) mesencephalon D) diencephalon E) cerebellum Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) The floor of the diencephalon is formed by the A) hypothalamus. B) thalamus. C) brain stem. D) mesencephalon. E) pons. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) The tracts that connect the cerebellum to the brain stem are located in the A) medulla oblongata. B) pons. C) mesencephalon. D) diencephalon. E) thalamus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Autonomic centers that control blood pressure, heart rate, and digestion are located in the A) medulla oblongata. B) pons. C) midbrain. D) diencephalon. E) cerebellum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) The cerebellum and pons develop from the A) telencephalon. B) diencephalon. C) mesencephalon. D) metencephalon. E) myelencephalon. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) Sensory information is processed and relayed to the cerebrum by the A) medulla oblongata. B) pons. C) midbrain. D) thalamus. E) cerebellum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) As you ascend from the medulla oblongata to the cerebrum, the functions of each successive level become A) more complex. B) simpler. C) better understood. D) more crucial to visceral functions. E) critical to reflexes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 12) The ________ provides the principal link between the nervous and endocrine systems. A) cerebellum B) medulla oblongata C) cerebrum D) pons E) hypothalamus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) The ventricle associated with the pons and upper medulla is the A) first. B) second. C) third. D) fourth. E) lateral. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) Which of the following is true about the cerebral cortex? A) It is a deep layer of gray matter. B) It is a superficial layer of gray matter. C) It is a deep layer of white matter. D) It is a superficial layer of white matter. E) It is a deep layer of both white and gray matter. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) When you perform a physical activity that you have not done in a while, such as riding a bike, which area of your brain coordinates your movements with learned experiences? A) thalamus B) pons C) midbrain D) cerebellum E) medulla oblongata Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 16) During development, three primary brain vesicles form. The three vesicles are the A) prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and rhombencephalon. B) telencephalon, diencephalon, and mesencephalon. C) mesencephalon, metencephalon, and myelencephalon. D) cerebrum, diencephalon, and midbrain. E) rhombencephalon, diencephalon, and telencephalon. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) The lateral ventricles are found A) in the cerebellar hemispheres. B) between the pons and the midbrain. C) in the cerebral hemispheres. D) in the diencephalon. E) in the spinal cord. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) The medulla oblongata, pons, and midbrain comprise the A) basal ganglia. B) brain stem. C) mesencephalon. D) ventricles. E) diencephalon. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) The rounded elevations of the cerebrum that increase its surface area are called A) sulci. B) fissures. C) cortical folds. D) gyri. E) dural sinuses. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) The wall between the lateral ventricles is called the A) cerebral aqueduct. B) fornix. C) falx cerebri. D) corpus callosum. E) septum pellucidum. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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21) The passageway between the lateral ventricles and the third ventricle is the A) posterior foramen. B) interventricular foramen. C) cerebral aqueduct. D) lateral foramen. E) central canal. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) Specialized ________ form the secretory component of the choroid plexus. A) epididymal cells B) ependymal cells C) arachnoid cells D) astrocyte E) blood cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) The dural venous sinuses are located in the A) paranasal cavity. B) arachnoid folds. C) pia mater. D) dural folds. E) tentorium cerebelli. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) What structure is covered by many blood vessels and adheres tightly to the surface of the brain? A) pia mater B) arachnoid mater C) dura mater D) cranial plexus E) choroid plexus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) The brain requires a substantial blood supply. The vessels that deliver blood to the brain are the A) external carotid arteries. B) facial arteries. C) jugular veins. D) internal carotid and vertebral arteries. E) dural sinuses. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) Which of the following is not a property of the blood-brain barrier? A) The capillary endothelial cells are interconnected by tight junctions. B) It is very permeable to many water and lipid-soluble compounds. C) Astrocytes surround the CNS capillaries. D) It is absent in portions of the hypothalamus. E) It is intact except in areas known as circumventricular organs. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 27) The dural fold that projects into the longitudinal fissure between cerebral hemispheres is called the A) dural sinus. B) falx cerebri. C) tentorium cerebelli. D) falx cerebelli. E) choroid plexus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) Cerebrospinal fluid A) is secreted by ependymal cells. B) is formed by a passive process. C) is normally produced twice as fast as it is removed. D) has almost the same composition as blood plasma. E) contains blood cells and blood plasma. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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29) Which statement is true regarding the meninges and cerebrospinal fluid of the spinal cord and brain? A) Spinal fluid is secreted both in the brain and in the spinal cord areas. B) There is an epidural space associated with the spinal meninges, but not with the cranial meninges. C) The meninges around the brain are not the same as those around the spinal cord. D) There is a subarachnoid space within the spinal meninges but not the cranial meninges. E) The choroid plexuses are located only within the brain, not within the spinal cord. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 30) The choroid plexus is composed of A) lymphatic vessels. B) blood vessels. C) nerve fibers. D) ganglia. E) subarachnoid granulations. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) Cerebrospinal fluid enters the blood circulation at the A) jugular veins. B) central canal. C) arachnoid granulations. D) tentorium cerebelli. E) frontal sinus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) What contains a spider web-like network of cells and fibers through which cerebrospinal fluid flows? A) subdural space B) dural sinus C) falx cerebri D) subarachnoid space E) pia mater Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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33) Which of the following is not a function of cerebrospinal fluid? A) provides cushioning for delicate neural tissues B) provides buoyant support for the brain C) acts as a transport medium for nutrients D) produces ATP for impulse transmission E) acts as a transport medium for waste products Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) Which statement is true regarding cerebrospinal fluid? A) CSF is identical in composition to blood plasma. B) CSF is made during fetal development and does not change through the lifetime of the person. C) There is about a liter of CSF within the brain and spinal cord. D) If CSF is not properly resorbed, the result would be hydrocephalus. E) CSF moves back into the blood supply by the process of osmosis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 35) Hydrocephalus, or "water on the brain," may result from A) deficient production of cerebrospinal fluid. B) excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid. C) blockage of circulation of CSF. D) excessive water intake. E) blockage of CSF circulation or excessive CSF production. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 36) To return CSF to circulation, arachnoid granulations extend into the A) subarachnoid space. B) superior sagittal sinus. C) carotid canal. D) inferior sagittal sinus. E) jugular foramen. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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37) In each ventricle is a blood vessel network called the ________ that produces cerebrospinal fluid. A) choroid plexus B) jugular vein C) carotid artery D) vertebral artery E) dural sinus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) Chambers within the brain that contain cerebrospinal fluid are called A) plexuses. B) ganglia. C) sinuses. D) aqueducts. E) ventricles. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) Two large venous sinuses, the sagittal sinuses, lie within a dural fold called the A) cerebral aqueduct. B) basal ganglia. C) falx cerebri. D) tentorium cerebelli. E) septum pellucidum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) The dural sinuses form between which two layers of the cranial dura mater? A) pia and arachnoid layers B) periosteal and endosteal layers C) meningeal and cranial layers D) periosteal and meningeal layers E) superior and inferior sagittal layers Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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41) Tony hit his head in a car accident. The physicians diagnosed him with a subdural hemorrhage. Which of the following correctly states where the bleeding has occurred in his brain? A) Blood is between the dura mater and the skull. B) Blood is between the pia mater and arachnoid mater. C) Blood is between the pia mater and the brain. D) Blood is between the superior sagittal sinus and inferior sagittal sinus. E) Blood is between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 42) How rapidly is the CSF volume replaced? A) every 20 minutes B) every 2 hours C) every 8 hours D) every 2 days E) every week Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) Which dural fold separates the cerebral hemispheres from the cerebellum? A) tentorium cerebelli B) falx cerebelli C) falx cerebri D) longitudinal fissure E) superior sagittal sinus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) A patient comes into the emergency room with weakness on one side and difficulty walking and talking. You determine that the brain has been deprived of oxygen due to lack of regional blood flow. You suspect that patient has most likely experienced A) a subdural hemorrhage. B) meningitis. C) hydrocephalus. D) cranial trauma. E) a cerebrovascular accident. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Figure 14-1 The Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following questions: 45) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) choroid plexus B) cerebral aqueduct C) third ventricle D) subarachnoid space E) corpus callosum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

46) Ependymal cells are most likely found at which structure? A) 10 B) 2 C) 9 D) 3 E) 7 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) CSF is absorbed into the venous circulation via arachnoid granulations. Identify an arachnoid granulation. A) 8 B) 1 C) 10 D) 2 E) 4 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) lateral ventricles B) corpora quadrigemina C) cerebral aqueduct D) pons E) central canal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 49) Identify the structure labeled "4." A) cerebral aqueduct B) lateral ventricle C) sagittal sinus D) 4th ventricle E) choroid plexus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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50) Identify the structure labeled "6." A) choroid plexus B) fourth ventricle C) lateral ventricle D) cerebral aqueduct E) subarachnoid space Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) dura mater B) lateral ventricle C) fourth ventricle D) subarachnoid space E) filum terminale Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) Identify the structure labeled "9." A) dura mater B) superior sagittal sinus C) lateral ventricle D) subarachnoid space E) arachnoid granulation Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53) Identify the structure labeled "10." A) arbor vitae B) central canal C) corpus callosum D) pons E) diencephalon Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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54) The control of heart rate and blood pressure is based in the A) cerebrum. B) cerebellum. C) diencephalon. D) medulla oblongata. E) thalamus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) The medulla oblongata regulates A) somatic motor contractions. B) food intake. C) auditory reflexes. D) vision and hearing. E) blood pressure and respiration. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) This structure of the medulla oblongata relays information from the red nuclei, midbrain, and the cerebral cortex to the cerebellum. A) inferior olivary complex B) reticular formation C) nucleus gracilis D) nucleus cuneatus E) solitary nucleus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) Damage to the medulla oblongata can result in death because A) electrical activity originates within the medulla. B) the vital centers for the control of blood pressure, heart rate, and breathing are located there. C) the blood might not be able to circulate properly around the brain. D) body temperature is controlled by the medulla. E) digestive processes are controlled by the medulla. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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58) Cardiovascular centers located in the ________ adjust the heart rate, the strength of cardiac contractions, and the flow of blood through the peripheral tissues. A) pons B) medulla oblongata C) prefrontal cortex D) thalamus E) midbrain Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 59) The term used to describe the crossing over of a tract to the side of the nervous system opposite to where the axons originated is A) decussation. B) contralateral. C) ascending crossovers. D) pyramidal tracts. E) consensual tracts. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) Jane, a 79-year-old woman, has been diagnosed with a tumor in the brain. She has lost some sensory and motor functions associated with the face, like control of facial muscles for emotion and various sensory functions like taste. In addition, she has some hearing loss and balance problems. The location of the tumor is likely to be the A) cerebellum. B) cerebrum. C) medulla. D) thalamus. E) pons. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 61) If the pons was damaged, which of the following functions would be affected? A) breathing B) control of blood pressure C) coordination D) sleep patterns E) judgment Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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62) The nuclei of which cranial nerves are associated with the midbrain? A) I and II B) II and III C) III and IV D) IV and V E) V and VI Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) Descending fibers from the pons to the cerebellum pass through these structures of the midbrain? A) substantia nigra B) reticular formation C) superior colliculus D) corpora quadrigemina E) cerebral peduncles Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 64) The medulla oblongata relays auditory stimuli to the A) substantia nigra. B) red nuclei. C) cerebral peduncles. D) superior colliculi. E) inferior colliculi. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 65) The structure of the brain that carries ascending sensory information to the thalamus is the A) midbrain. B) cerebral aqueduct. C) 4th ventricle. D) basal ganglion. E) cerebellum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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66) Nerve fiber bundles on the ventrolateral surface of the mesencephalon are the A) tectum. B) corpora quadrigemina. C) cerebral peduncles. D) superior colliculi. E) inferior colliculi. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) The corpora quadrigemina is composed of the A) four cerebral lobes. B) superior and inferior colliculi. C) first four cranial nerves. D) cranial nerve IV. E) two superior cerebellar peduncles and the two inferior cerebellar peduncles. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) The reflex movement of the head toward a loud noise is directed by the mesencephalon. Which nuclei accomplish this? A) substantia nigra B) red nuclei C) tectum D) superior colliculi E) inferior colliculi Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 69) Damage to the corpora quadrigemina would interfere with A) control of autonomic function. B) regulation of body temperature. C) visual and auditory reflex movements of the head and neck. D) conscious control of skeletal muscles. E) control of breathing. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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70) Examination of a tissue sample from the central nervous system reveals many darkly pigmented cells. This tissue probably came from the A) nucleus gracilis. B) nucleus cuneatus. C) motor cortex. D) substantia nigra. E) cerebellar nucleus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 71) The ________ are the four masses on the posterior of the midbrain. A) cerebral peduncles B) reticular formation C) substantia nigra D) choroid plexuses E) corpora quadrigemina Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) The mesencephalon contains the headquarters of the ________, a specialized component of the reticular formation that controls alertness and attention. A) falx cerebri B) Wernicke's area C) general association area D) reticular activating system E) basal ganglia Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 73) Which of the following tracts is correctly matched? A) superior cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the spinal cord B) middle cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the pons C) inferior cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the cerebrum D) superior cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the medulla oblongata E) inferior cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the midbrain Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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74) Overseeing the postural muscles of the body and making rapid adjustments to maintain balance and equilibrium are functions of the A) cerebrum. B) thalamus. C) cerebellum. D) pons. E) medulla oblongata. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) The cerebellar hemispheres are separated by a band of cortex called the A) flocculonodular lobe. B) arbor vitae. C) folia. D) vermis. E) pyramid. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) The white matter of the cerebellum forms the A) flocculonodular lobe. B) arbor vitae. C) folia. D) vermis. E) pyramid. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) The presence of many large, highly-branched Purkinje cells in a sample of brain tissue indicates that it came from the A) pons. B) medulla. C) cerebral cortex. D) cerebellar cortex. E) arbor vitae. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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78) The cerebellum can be permanently damaged by stroke or temporarily affected by drugs or alcohol. The resulting disturbance in motor control is known as A) ataxia. B) aphasia. C) dysphagia. D) Parkinson's. E) epilepsy. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 79) The folds of the surface of the cerebellum A) are called folia and are less prominent than the cerebral folds. B) form a network of blood vessels over the brain. C) consist of axons and dendrites of neurons. D) are bathed in spinal fluid. E) are called sulci. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 80) Which of the following is not one of the thalamic nuclei? A) ventral nuclei B) medial nuclei C) superior nuclei D) anterior nuclei E) dorsal nuclei Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 81) Which hypothalamic nucleus is responsible for regulating circadian rhythms? A) suprachiasmatic nucleus B) preoptic area C) autonomic nucleus D) paraventricular nucleus E) tuber cinereum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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82) The hypothalamus produces which two hormones? A) ADH and epinephrine B) epinephrine and norepinephrine C) ADH and oxytocin D) growth hormone and melatonin E) oxytocin and melatonin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) Which of the following is true regarding the pineal gland? A) It is part of the epithalamus and secretes melatonin. B) It is part of the hypothalamus and secretes oxytocin. C) It is part of the thalamus. D) It is part of the limbic system. E) It controls heart rate and blood pressure. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 84) The pineal gland is part of the A) hypothalamus. B) diencephalon. C) midbrain. D) medulla oblongata. E) brainstem. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 85) Which of the following is not function of the hypothalamus? A) produces ADH B) secrete melatonin C) regulates body temperature D) secretes oxytocin E) controls autonomic centers Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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86) Which of the following is/are true of the epithalamus? A) contains the mammillary body B) forms the roof of the diencephalon C) processes sensory information and relays it to the cerebrum D) forms the cerebrum E) creates the lateral ventricles Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) The anterior nuclei of the thalamus A) are part of the limbic system. B) secrete pituitary hormones. C) secrete melatonin. D) receive axon collaterals from the optic nerve. E) secrete pituitary hormones and melatonin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) The medial nuclei of the thalamus A) are part of the limbic system. B) connect emotional centers in the hypothalamus with the frontal lobe. C) produce the hormone oxytocin. D) process visual information. E) process olfactory information. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 89) The dorsal/posterior nuclei of the thalamus includes the A) basal nuclei. B) lateral and medial geniculate nuclei. C) mammillary body. D) interthalamic adhesion. E) red nucleus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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90) The optic tracts carry visual information from the retina to the A) pulvinar nuclei. B) lateral geniculate nuclei. C) medial geniculate nuclei. D) supraoptic nuclei. E) paraventricular nuclei. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) Which of the following is a function of the thalamus? A) secrete cerebrospinal fluid B) secrete melatonin C) process sensory information and relay it to the cerebrum D) store memories E) regulate food intake Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 92) The thalamus is often called the "air traffic controller" of the brain because it A) controls the autonomic functions of the body, such as the fight-or-flight response. B) determines what can enter the brain from the blood. C) controls reflexes. D) determines the routing of incoming sensory information to the correct cerebral cortex area. E) passes motor information on to the cerebellum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 93) The mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus A) regulate lactation. B) secrete oxytocin. C) control feeding reflexes. D) control heart rate and blood pressure. E) secrete antidiuretic hormone. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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94) The ________ filters and relays sensory information to cerebral cortex. A) cerebrum B) thalamus C) pons D) medulla oblongata E) cerebellum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) Damage to the preoptic area of the hypothalamus leads to which problem? A) an intense thirst B) an uncontrolled sex drive C) reduced ability to regulate body temperature D) an insatiable appetite E) production of a large volume of urine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 96) Joe begins to experience mood swings and disturbed thirst and hunger. Imaging studies indicate that a brain tumor is the likely cause of these disorders. In what part of the brain is the tumor most likely located? A) prefrontal cortex B) postcentral gyrus C) basal nuclei D) hypothalamus E) reticular formation Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 97) Stimulation of the ________ within the hypothalamus produces the sensation of hunger. A) satiety center B) feeding center C) thirst center D) limbic system E) hormone center Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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98) The ________, a narrow stalk, connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland. A) hippocampus B) infundibulum C) supraoptic nucleus D) basal ganglia E) amygdala Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) The system that functions in tying together emotions, motivation and memory is the A) reticular activating system. B) circadian system. C) limbic system. D) hypothalamic system. E) apneustic system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) Which of the following is not a property of the limbic system? A) primarily a functional grouping B) functions in maintaining homeostasis in cold weather C) located between the border of the cerebrum and diencephalon D) links conscious functions of the cerebral cortex with unconscious functions of the brain stem E) functions in emotions, learning, and memory Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 101) The ________ is important in storage and recall of new long-term memories. A) amygdaloid body B) cingulate gyrus C) mammillary bodies D) hippocampus E) fornix Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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102) A tract of white matter that connects the hippocampus with the hypothalamus is the A) amygdaloid body. B) cingulate gyrus. C) mammillary bodies. D) hippocampus. E) fornix. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 103) Terry suffers from dissociation of memories from their emotional content as the result of an automobile accident. What system of the brain is probably damaged? A) the prefrontal lobe B) the general interpretive area C) the limbic system D) the preoptic area E) the reticular activating system Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 104) Which of the following is not correctly matched? A) commissural fibers: interconnect the cerebral hemispheres B) arcuate fibers: short association fibers C) projection fibers: pass through the diencephalon D) association fibers: interconnect areas within a single cerebral hemisphere E) internal capsule: bands of association fibers Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 105) Which of the following is not true regarding the lentiform nucleus? A) It is part of the basal nuclei. B) It contains white matter. C) It controls subconscious control of skeletal muscle. D) It contains the putamen and the globus pallidus. E) It is located deep to the floor of the lateral ventricle on each cerebral hemisphere. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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106) The olfactory cortex is located in the A) frontal lobe. B) parietal lobe. C) temporal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) cerebellum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) A person touches you lightly with a feather. What two areas of the brain allow you to feel and interpret this touch? A) primary motor cortex and the primary sensory cortex B) primary sensory cortex and the somatic sensory association area C) primary sensory cortex and the visceral sensory association area D) primary motor cortex and the somatic motor association area E) gustatory cortex and the gustatory association area Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 108) In order to take notes the primary motor cortex must receive input from the ________ first. A) postcentral gyrus B) primary sensory cortex C) somatic sensory association area D) premotor cortex E) olfactory association area Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) The complex integration of sensory information with visual and auditory memories occurs in this area near the auditory cortex? A) somatosensory area B) precentral gyrus C) premotor cortex D) Wernicke's area E) Broca's area Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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110) Following a head injury, Kevin can think of the word he wants to say but cannot make his mouth form the correct sounds to produce the word. He is most likely suffering from damage to A) Wernicke's area. B) Broca's area. C) Brodmann's area. D) the general interpretive area. E) the basal nuclei. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 111) Which of the following is not true regarding hemispheric lateralization? A) Sensory analysis occurs in the right hemisphere. B) Emotional recognition of facial expressions occurs in the right hemisphere. C) Speech and language control is in the left hemisphere. D) Analytic tasks like math and decision making occurs in the right hemisphere. E) Reading and writing control is in the left hemisphere. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 112) Which EEG wave if seen in an awake adult may indicate a pathological condition? A) alpha B) beta C) theta D) delta E) No waves should be seen in awake adults. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 113) Damage to the substantia nigra causes a decrease in the neurotransmitter dopamine. This causes a gradual, generalized increase in muscle tone, which is the main symptom of A) Parkinson's disease. B) rabies. C) Alzheimer's disease. D) myasthenia gravis. E) tetanus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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114) The two cerebral hemispheres are separated by the A) longitudinal fissure. B) central sulcus. C) transverse fissure. D) parieto-occipital sulcus. E) postcentral sulcus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) Divisions of the cerebral hemispheres that are named after the overlying skull bones are A) fissures. B) sinuses. C) lobes. D) sulci. E) gyri. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) The cerebral lobe posterior to the central sulcus is the A) parietal lobe. B) temporal lobe. C) frontal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) insula. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 117) The region(s) of the cerebral cortex superior to the lateral sulcus is/are the A) parietal lobe. B) temporal lobe. C) frontal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) parietal and frontal lobes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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118) The region of the cerebral cortex that is medial and deep to the temporal lobe is the A) parietal lobe. B) temporal lobe. C) frontal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) insula. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) The primary motor cortex is the surface of the A) insula. B) precentral gyrus. C) postcentral gyrus. D) arcuate gyrus. E) corpus callosum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) The corpus callosum is composed of A) arcuate fibers. B) longitudinal fasciculi. C) association fibers. D) commissural fibers. E) projection fibers. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 121) The surface of the postcentral gyrus contains the ________ cortex. A) primary sensory B) primary motor C) visual D) olfactory E) auditory Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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122) Commissural fibers A) carry pain information to the correct brain structure. B) are divided by the longitudinal fissure. C) link the cerebral cortex to the diencephalon. D) interconnect and allow communication between cerebral hemispheres. E) connect the frontal lobe to other lobes of the same hemisphere. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 123) The visual cortex is located in the A) frontal lobe. B) parietal lobe. C) temporal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) insula. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 124) The auditory cortex is located in the A) frontal lobe. B) parietal lobe. C) temporal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) insula. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 125) Cortical regions that interpret sensory information or coordinate motor responses are called ________ areas. A) commissural B) sensory C) association D) somesthetic E) processing Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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126) The region of the brain responsible for predicting the consequence of events or actions is the A) prefrontal cerebral cortex. B) occipital association cortex. C) reticular formation. D) temporal lobe. E) premotor cortex. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 127) Parkinson's disease is the result of A) excess production of GABA by neurons in the basal nuclei. B) decreased levels of acetylcholine from neurons in the substantia nigra. C) inadequate production of dopamine by substantia nigra neurons. D) hyperactivity of the limbic system. E) weak response of the red nuclei of the mesencephalon. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 128) After suffering a stroke, Mary finds that she cannot move her right arm. This would suggest that the stroke damage is in the area of the ________ lobe. A) right frontal B) left frontal C) right temporal D) left temporal E) occipital Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 129) After suffering a blow to the back of the head, Phil loses his vision. The blow probably caused damage to the A) frontal lobe. B) postcentral gyrus. C) temporal lobe. D) limbic system. E) occipital lobe. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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130) Difficulties in estimating temporal relationships between events may stem from damage to A) the prefrontal cortex. B) the general interpretive area. C) Broca's area. D) Wernicke's area. E) the postcentral gyrus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 131) Within each hemisphere, deep to the floor of the lateral ventricle, you will find the A) anterior commissures. B) basal nuclei. C) motor association areas. D) visual cortex. E) auditory cortex. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) Which cerebral area is involved with judgment and predictive abilities? A) Broca's area B) Brodmann area C) prefrontal cortex D) Wernicke's area E) general interpretive area Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 133) The highest levels of information processing occur in the A) cerebrum. B) diencephalon. C) cerebellum. D) medulla oblongata. E) corpus callosum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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134) A person with a damaged visual association area may be A) unable to see rows of letters. B) declared legally blind. C) unable to recognize letters but able to identify whole words and their meanings. D) able to see letters but unable to associate them into words. E) unable to understand spoken words. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 135) Jane suffers from chronic seizures and in order to control the problem undergoes surgery in which the fibers of the corpus callosum are cut. As a result of this surgery she would likely be unable to A) speak. B) move her left arm. C) verbally identify an object placed in her left hand. D) recognize written words. E) touch her nose with her eyes closed. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 136) ________ centers receive information from many association areas and direct extremely complex motor activities such as speech. A) Frontal B) Integrative C) Communication D) Terminal E) Vocal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 137) What symptoms would you expect to see in a patient with damage to the basal nuclei? A) inability to process thoughts in a rational way B) visual problems C) facial tics D) problems in rhythmic movements related to skeletal muscles E) anger problems Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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138) Bob is struck on the left side of the head and is knocked unconscious. When he recovers consciousness, he can hear individual words but cannot understand the meaning of phrases or sentences. This implies damage to his A) somatosensory association area. B) general interpretive area. C) speech center. D) prefrontal lobe. E) temporal lobe. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 139) Damage to the premotor cortex of the frontal lobe would interfere with the ability to A) understand written words. B) understand spoken words. C) understand visual images. D) play the piano. E) sense the texture of velvet. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 140) ________ is a temporary cerebral disorder accompanied by abnormal movements, unusual sensations, and/or inappropriate behavior. A) Dyslexia B) Apraxia C) Aphasia D) Parkinson's disease E) A seizure Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 141) A(n) ________ is a printed record of the brain's electrical activity over a period of time. A) electrocardiogram B) electroencephalogram C) x-ray D) MRI E) CT scan Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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142) ________ is a disorder affecting the ability to speak or read. A) Aphasia B) Ataxia C) Apraxia D) Bell's palsy E) Dysphagia Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 143) The basal nuclei A) initiate voluntary muscle activity. B) provide the general pattern and rhythm for movements such as walking. C) coordinate sensory information. D) control the secretions of the pituitary gland. E) control respiration and blood pressure. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 144) In most cases, the general interpretive center and the speech center are located in A) the left cerebral hemisphere. B) the right cerebral hemisphere. C) neither of the cerebral hemispheres. D) both of the cerebral hemispheres. E) the cerebellum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 145) The dominant cerebral hemisphere of the brain A) is for emotional status. B) is for interpretation of art and music. C) performs analytical tasks. D) controls vital functions such as blood pressure and heart rate. E) controls emotions. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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146) Cortical regions that interpret sensory information or coordinate motor responses are called ________ areas. A) association B) motor C) cranial D) sensory E) intercalated Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 147) The white structure that connects the cerebral hemispheres is the A) geniculate nucleus. B) basal ganglia. C) amygdala. D) arbor vitae. E) corpus callosum. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 148) The only sensation that is received directly by the cerebrum is A) olfaction. B) gustation. C) hearing. D) vision. E) dizziness. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 149) Which of the following nerves is purely sensory? A) vagus B) trochlear C) abducens D) optic E) hypoglossal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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150) A patient suffers an inability to shrug their shoulders. The nerve most likely to be damaged is the A) vagus. B) accessory. C) facial. D) trigeminal. E) vestibulocochlear. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 151) Which cranial nerve sends balance sensations to the brain? A) facial B) trigeminal C) olfactory D) vagus E) vestibulocochlear Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 152) Which cranial nerve is tested by having the patient stick out their tongue? A) hypoglossal B) vagus C) facial D) glossopharyngeal E) abducens Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 153) ________ is a condition resulting from an inflammation of a facial nerve. A) Cerebral palsy B) Bell's palsy C) Addison's disease D) Gout E) Tic douloureux Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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154) There are ________ pairs of cranial nerves. A) 2 B) 6 C) 12 D) 22 E) 31 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 155) Droopy eyelids and double vision can result from injury to the ________ nerve. A) optic B) oculomotor C) trochlear D) olfactory E) facial Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 156) The cranial nerves that innervate the extrinsic eye muscles are A) I, II, and III. B) III, IV, and VI. C) II, III, and IV. D) II and VI. E) III and V. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 157) The cranial nerve that has three major branches is the A) abducens. B) facial. C) vagus. D) trigeminal. E) glossopharyngeal. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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158) Sensory innervation of the lower teeth and gums is by the ________ nerve. A) ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal B) maxillary branch of the trigeminal C) mandibular branch of the trigeminal D) glossopharyngeal E) hypoglossal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 159) Difficulty in swallowing may be a sign of damage to which cranial nerve(s)? A) vagus B) facial C) glossopharyngeal D) hypoglossal E) glossopharyngeal and vagus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 160) A reflex that is used to assess the sensory function of the trigeminal nerve is the ________ reflex. A) corneal B) tympanic C) auditory D) vestibulocochlear E) spinal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 161) Which sensation(s) does the vestibulocochlear nerve carry? A) hearing B) balance C) atmospheric pressure D) hearing and balance E) hearing, balance, and taste Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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162) Jean needs to have a tooth in her mandible filled. Her dentist injects a local anesthetic to block pain afferents in one of her cranial nerves. What cranial nerve does the dentist numb? A) trochlear B) trigeminal C) facial D) glossopharyngeal E) hypoglossal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 163) You suspect your friend has damage to cranial nerve I when he is unable to A) smell his food. B) smile. C) blink his eyes. D) nod his head. E) hear your voice. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 164) Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate and synapse on neurons in the A) medulla. B) thalamus. C) cerebral cortex. D) olfactory bulb. E) olfactory tract. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 165) At the optic chiasm, A) axons from the medial halves of each retina cross. B) axons from the lateral halves of each retina cross. C) axons from the retinae synapse on those from the other half. D) the olfactory nerve crosses to the opposite side of the brain. E) the optic nerve enters the cerebellum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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166) A patient develops a tumor of a cranial nerve that leads to difficulty in speaking from a loss of tongue movement. Which cranial nerve is affected? A) glossopharyngeal B) hypoglossal C) vagus D) spinal accessory E) trigeminal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 167) Which of the following symptoms would you associate with damage to the spinal accessory nerve? A) loss of the sense of taste B) tooth pain C) weakness of the sternocleidomastoid muscle D) lack of facial expression E) dry mouth from lack of saliva Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 168) The patient has the following symptoms: change in vocal tone, problems swallowing, inability to control urination, erratic heart rate, and gastric problems. You would identify the problem as being related to the A) vagus nerve. B) accessory nerve. C) abducens nerve. D) trigeminal nerve. E) hypoglossal nerve. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Figure 14-2 Cranial Nerves Use Figure 14-2 to answer the following questions: 169) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) mammillary body B) infundibulum C) oculomotor nerve D) olfactory bulb E) optic nerve Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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170) Identify the nerve labeled "3." A) facial B) abducens C) trochlear D) trigeminal E) vagus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 171) What is the function of the nerve labeled "4"? A) vision B) olfaction C) taste D) hearing and balance E) eye movement Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 172) What is the function of the nerve labeled "5"? A) movement of the tongue B) facial expression C) vision D) taste E) visceral sensation and motor control Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 173) What is the function of the structure labeled "7"? A) vision B) olfaction C) taste D) auditory E) eye movement Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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174) Identify the nerve labeled "11." A) oculomotor B) trigeminal C) trochlear D) abducens E) optic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 175) Identify the nerve labeled "12." A) trochlear B) trigeminal C) facial D) abducens E) vagus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 176) Identify the spinal accessory nerve (XI). A) 10 B) 11 C) 9 D) 6 E) 3 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 177) Identify the nerve that goes beyond the head and neck to innervate the thorax and abdomen. A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 10 E) 2 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) What structures make up the brainstem? (Figure 14-1) A) cerebrum, cerebellum, diencephalon B) diencephalon, midbrain, cerebellum C) midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata D) hypothalamus, thalamus, epithalamus E) pons, medulla oblongata, cerebellum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) List the maters surrounding the brain from the deepest layer to the most superficial layer. (Figure 14-3) A) dura, arachnoid, pia B) pia, arachnoid, dura C) arachnoid, dura, pia D) arachnoid, pia, dura E) pia, dura, arachnoid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) What makes up the gray matter in the cerebellum? (Figure 14-9) A) superior, middle, and inferior cerebellar peduncles B) transverse pontine fibers and arbor vitae C) arbor vitae and superior, middle, and inferior cerebellar peduncles D) transverse pontine fibers and cerebellar nuclei E) cerebellar cortex and cerebellar nuclei Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 4) The central sulcus divides which two lobes? (Figure 14-13) A) left parietal lobe and right parietal lobe B) occipital lobe and parietal lobe C) frontal lobe and parietal lobe D) frontal lobe and temporal lobe E) parietal lobe and temporal lobe Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) Which portion of the lentiform nucleus is more medial and which portion is more lateral? (Figure 14-15) A) putamen is more medial; globus pallidus is more lateral B) globus pallidus is more medial; putamen is more lateral C) claustrum is medial; septum pellucidum is lateral D) septum pellucidum is medial; claustrum is lateral E) insula is medial; caudate nucleus is lateral Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) Which structure receives visual information before it reaches the visual cortex? (Figure 14-20) A) lateral geniculate body of the thalamus B) medial geniculate body of the thalamus C) ventral nucleus of the thalamus D) paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus E) supra-optic nucleus of the hypothalamus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 7) What are the three divisions of the trigeminal nerve? (Figure 14-22) A) lingual, mental, salivary B) optic, auditory, buccal C) temporal, zygomatic, buccal D) ophthalmic, maxillary, mandibular E) otic, ophthalmic, vestibular Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Essay Questions 1) Why is injury to the medulla oblongata frequently fatal? Answer: This region of the brain contains the centers for regulating the cardiovascular system and initiating respiration, both vital to life. In addition, most sensory and motor tracts pass through the medulla oblongata between higher and lower centers of the nervous system. Learning Outcome: 14-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 2) A patient develops a clot that blocks the blood supply to the right cerebral hemisphere. What signs and symptoms would you expect as a result of this blockage? Answer: Because the right primary motor cortex controls the muscles of the left side of the body, you would expect left-sided paralysis whose extent and severity will depend on the extent of brain injury. Similarly, the patient will experience somatic sensory loss on the left side of the body. Higher-order functions such as memory, planning, spatial orientation, and emotional control could be damaged but many language skills would be spared. Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 3) Bell's palsy is caused by inflammation of the facial nerve (VII). What signs and symptoms would you expect in this condition? Is it permanent? Answer: Patients suffering from Bell's palsy usually experience paralysis of the facial muscles on the affected side along with a loss of sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Pain is rare and the condition usually resolves without specific treatment. Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 15 Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions 1) The term general senses refers to sensitivity to all of the following, except A) temperature. B) taste. C) touch. D) vibration. E) pain. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) The sensory receptors, neurons and pathways make up the ________ division of the nervous system. A) voluntary B) efferent C) afferent D) involuntary E) somatic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) The general senses A) involve receptors that are relatively simple in structure. B) are located in specialized structures called sense organs. C) are localized to specific areas of the body. D) cannot generate action potentials. E) include taste and smell. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) The ________ nervous system carries impulses to skeletal muscles. A) somatic B) sympathetic C) parasympathetic D) afferent E) autonomic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) The heart muscle is a ________ effector. A) somatic B) sympathetic C) visceral D) afferent E) higher-order Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) The conversion of the stimulus into an action potential to be interpreted by the brain is called A) transformation. B) transduction. C) translation. D) transcription. E) transpotential. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) Gustatory receptors are sensitive to dissolved chemicals but insensitive to light. This is due to A) receptor specificity. B) accessory cells. C) the fact that they are interoceptors. D) receptor potentials. E) receptor speciation. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 8) Using the two-point discrimination test you can fairly accurately determine whether you have been touched with one point or two because of the density of the A) effectors. B) perception. C) labeled line. D) receptor fields. E) action potential. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) General sense receptors are typically the A) dendrites of motor neurons. B) dendrites of sensory neurons. C) axons of motor neurons. D) axons of sensory neurons. E) cell bodies of sensory neurons. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) Your brain is not constantly bombarded with signals telling it that you are wearing socks. This is because the touch receptors around your ankle are A) tonic receptors. B) tonic receptors and slow-adapting. C) phasic receptors and slow-adapting. D) phasic receptors and fast-adapting. E) nociceptors. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 11) Which is an example of a slow-adapting receptor? A) phasic B) touch C) smell D) temperature E) pain Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) In order for a sensation to become a perception, A) it must be received by the somatosensory cortex. B) the individual must vocalize about it. C) it must arrive over fast-conducting nerve fibers. D) the other senses must be silent. E) it must be received by the pulvinar nucleus of the thalamus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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13) All of the following can contribute to receptor specificity except A) the structure of the receptor cell. B) characteristics of the receptor cell membrane. C) accessory cells that function with the receptor. D) accessory structures and tissues that shield the receptors from other stimuli. E) the metabolism of the receptor cell. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 14) Central adaptation refers to A) the decline in activity of peripheral receptors when stimulated. B) a characteristic of phasic receptors. C) inhibition of nuclei located along a sensory pathway. D) increases in conscious perception of a sensory stimulus. E) a change in motor receptivity of a neuron. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) A receptor potential may cause all of the following responses except A) increase neurotransmitter release. B) decrease neurotransmitter release. C) cause hyperpolarization. D) cause depolarization. E) turning off the original stimulus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Peripheral adaptation ________ the number of action potentials that reach the CNS. A) decreases B) increases C) stabilizes D) neutralizes E) amplifies Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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17) Which of the following statements is true about general senses? A) They are distributed all over the body. B) They are all mechanoreceptors. C) All receptors involved in general sensation consist of free nerve endings. D) They are located in sense organs. E) The reception of the stimulus occurs slowly with these receptors. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 18) Sensory encoding of the perceived location of a stimulus depends on A) the frequency of action potentials. B) which labeled line is active. C) the specific location of the cortical neuron that is stimulated. D) the specific sensitivity of the peripheral receptor. E) the number of receptors stimulated. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) Action potentials from receptors involved in general sensations are interpreted in the A) premotor cortex. B) primary sensory cortex. C) general interpretive area. D) mesencephalon. E) reticular activating system. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) Sensory information from all parts of the body is routed to A) the prefrontal cortex. B) the cerebellum. C) the primary motor cortex. D) the somatosensory cortex. E) Broca's area. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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21) The conversion of a sensory input to a change in membrane potential in the receptor is known as A) transduction. B) reception. C) effection. D) potential. E) stimulation. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) The link between peripheral receptor and cortical neuron is called a(n) A) efferent pathway. B) spinocortical line. C) sympathetic chain. D) adaptation pathway. E) labeled line. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) A ________ potential is a depolarization of a sensory dendrite that can lead to an afferent nerve impulse if strong enough. A) resting B) refractory C) postsynaptic D) generator E) presynaptic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) Sensory neurons that adapt quickly are called ________ receptors. A) phasic B) tonic C) intracellular D) chemical-channel E) opioid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) A reduction in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus is referred to as A) transduction. B) adaptation. C) negation. D) exhaustion. E) transformation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) Sensory neurons that are always active are called ________ receptors. A) tonic B) static C) phasic D) isometric E) isotonic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) You cannot tell when your small intestines shift position as food enters because you do not have any ________ there. A) chemoreceptors B) nociceptors C) proprioceptors D) thermoreceptors E) photoreceptors Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 28) Receptors in your stomach that determine when food enters because the pH changes would be classified as A) mechanoreceptors. B) nociceptors. C) proprioceptors. D) baroreceptors. E) chemoreceptors. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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29) Free nerve endings detect which stimulus/stimuli? A) chemical B) temperature, pain, stretch and touch C) pain only D) stretch E) deep pressure Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) Two types of receptors that are least likely to adapt are the A) proprioceptors and nociceptors. B) free nerve endings and the root hair plexus. C) tactile discs and the free nerve endings. D) lamellar corpuscles and baroreceptors. E) chemoreceptors and baroreceptors. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) Chemoreceptors of the general senses do not send information to the primary sensory cortex but instead send information to the ________ to control autonomic function. A) cerebellum B) cerebrum C) brain stem D) spinal cord E) corpus callosum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 32) A receptor that contains many mechanically-gated ion channels would function best as a A) tactile receptor. B) chemoreceptor. C) photoceptor. D) thermoreceptor. E) light receptor. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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33) A mechanoreceptor in the papillary layer of the dermis that responds to fine touch is a A) tactile (Merkel) disc. B) root hair plexus. C) free nerve ending. D) Bulbous corpuscle. E) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) Which of the following is/are sometimes called "prickling pain"? A) mechanical damage B) proprioception C) extremes of temperature D) fast pain E) fast and slow pain Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) All of the following are true of fast pain sensations except that they A) are carried by type A fibers. B) reach the CNS quickly. C) are interpreted by the pre-frontal cortex. D) receive conscious attention. E) often trigger somatic reflexes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 36) Endorphins can reduce perception of sensations initiated by A) nociceptors. B) mechanoreceptors. C) thermoreceptors. D) chemoreceptors. E) proprioceptors. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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37) Receptors that monitor the position of joints belong to the category called A) nociceptors. B) chemoreceptors. C) baroreceptors. D) proprioceptors. E) thermoreceptors. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) Mechanoreceptors that respond to changes in blood pressure are called A) nociceptors. B) baroreceptors. C) chemoreceptors. D) proprioceptors. E) thermoreceptors. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) Tactile receptors located in the reticular dermis that are tonic and show little if any adaptation are called A) Bulbous corpuscles. B) lamellar corpuscles. C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscles. D) tactile discs. E) root hair plexuses. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) A tactile receptor composed of highly coiled dendrites that are surrounded by modified Schwann cells and a fibrous capsule is a A) lamellar corpuscle. B) Bulbous corpuscle. C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. D) tactile (Merkel) disc. E) root hair plexus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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41) A very large, fast-adapting tactile receptor that is composed of a single dendrite enclosed by concentric layers of collagen is a A) Bulbous corpuscle. B) lamellar (Pacinian) corpuscle. C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. D) tactile (Merkel) disc. E) root hair plexus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) Sensations of burning or aching pain A) are carried by type A fibers. B) reach the CNS quickly. C) cause a generalized activation of the reticular formation and the thalamus. D) are well localized. E) are fast adapting. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 43) Bladder fullness is to ________ as blood pH is to ________. A) nociceptors; thermoreceptors B) baroreceptors; chemoreceptors C) baroreceptors; nociceptors D) chemoreceptors; nociceptors E) baroreceptors; thermoreceptors Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 44) A highly sensitive tactile receptor composed of dendritic processes of a single myelinated fiber that makes contact with specialized cells of the stratum basale is a A) lamellar corpuscle. B) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. C) Bulbous corpuscle. D) tactile (Merkel) disc. E) root hair plexus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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45) A sensory receptor characterized peripherally as a free nerve ending which centrally uses glutamate and/or substance P as neurotransmitters would most likely be a A) chemoreceptor. B) mechanoreceptor. C) thermoreceptor. D) nociceptor. E) free receptor. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) We are constantly bombarded by a variety of stimuli inside and outside of our bodies. Why are we not overwhelmed by sensory information? A) We do not have receptors for most stimuli. B) Stimuli are blocked from the receptors by our immune systems. C) Most stimuli are external to our bodies and we have very few exteroceptors on the outside of the body. D) A particular receptor type can have different sensitivities to different stimuli. E) A very tiny percentage of incoming sensory information is received by the cerebral cortex. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 47) Pain is to ________ as cold is to ________. A) nociceptors; thermoreceptors B) baroreceptors; chemoreceptors C) baroreceptors; nociceptors D) chemoreceptors; nociceptors E) baroreceptors; thermoreceptors Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 48) If a friend is talking about someone she knows who lost his special senses, you would correct her when you hear her mention ________ because it is not a special sense. A) smell B) sight C) balance D) cold E) hearing Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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49) ________ are receptors in the aorta that monitor the blood pressure. A) Chemoreceptors B) Nociceptors C) Baroreceptors D) Proprioceptors E) Hair cells Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 50) Which of the following is a property of thermoreceptors? A) involves specialized receptors B) monitor heat stimuli, not cold C) found in skin only D) project to reticular formation E) cold receptors are less numerous than warm receptors Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 51) For the last few weeks, you have had an odd sensation on your upper thigh. When you touch the naked skin, it feels very strange, like you are touching your skin through layers of cloth. The surrounding area feels normal. Your doctor thinks that this may be related to spinal nerve damage related to a herniated disc. The doctor calls this change in sensation A) paresthesia. B) anesthesia. C) hypesthesia. D) synesthesia. E) kinesthesia. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 52) Chemoreceptors are located in all of the following except A) carotid bodies. B) aortic bodies. C) the skin. D) the organs of taste. E) the organs of smell. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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53) Why is it that one cannot identify the location of internal organs, although joints and bone location can be identified? A) The internal organs have no proprioceptors like joints, bones, and muscles. B) Internal organs have no pain receptors. C) Although internal organs have some receptors, the information is not interpreted by the brain. D) Internal organs have no receptors of any kind. E) Sensory information from internal organs is processed by a different part of the brain than the joints, bones, and muscles. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 54) Sensory neurons synapse in the CNS with an interneuron known as a A) first-order neuron. B) second-order neuron. C) third-order neuron. D) motor neuron. E) efferent neuron. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) All of the following pathways require third-order neurons synapsing in the thalamus except A) the lateral spinothalamic tract. B) the anterior spinothalamic tract. C) the anterior and posterior spinocerebellar tracts. D) the gracile fasciculus. E) the cuneate fasciculus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 56) Which of the following is true of all the sensory pathways? A) They all have third-order neurons. B) They all synapse in the thalamus. C) They all synapse in the cerebellum. D) They all enter through dorsal roots. E) Axons in each pathway decussate. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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57) Activity of neurons in the spinothalamic pathway may still send signals even if the first order sensory receptor does not receive a signal such as in amputation. This situation might cause A) referred pain. B) phantom limb pain. C) pain adaptation. D) paresthesia. E) anesthesia. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 58) Which ascending tract carries the sensations for fine touch and vibration? A) corticobulbar B) corticospinal C) posterior (dorsal) column D) spinothalamic E) spinocerebellar Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) The spinal tract that relays information concerning pain and temperature to the CNS is the A) gracile fasciculus. B) cuneate fasciculus. C) posterior spinocerebellar. D) lateral spinothalamic. E) anterior spinothalamic. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) Your uncle was just diagnosed with a heart attack. One of his major symptoms is left arm pain. You are not surprised because you are familiar with the phenomenon of ________ pain. A) referred B) phantom C) psychosomatic D) somatic E) neurogenic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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61) Stimulation of a neuron that terminates in the superior region of the left postcentral gyrus would produce A) a sensation in the right leg. B) a sensation in the lips. C) a muscle twitch in the right leg. D) a muscle twitch in the lips. E) both sensations and muscle twitches in the right leg. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 62) The spinal tract that relays information concerning crude touch and pressure to the CNS is the A) gracile fasciculus. B) cuneate fasciculus. C) posterior spinocerebellar. D) lateral spinothalamic. E) anterior spinothalamic. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) Each of the following is an ascending tract in the spinal cord except the A) gracile fasciculus. B) cuneate fasciculus. C) posterior spinocerebellar. D) reticulospinal tract. E) anterior spinothalamic. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) The afferent neuron that carries the sensation and enters the CNS is a ________ neuron. A) receptor B) first-order C) second-order D) third-order E) fourth-order Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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65) What loss would result from cutting through the medial lemniscus on the right side? A) loss of pain sensation on the left side of the body B) loss of pain sensation on the right side of the body C) loss of fine touch sensation on the left side of the body D) loss of fine touch sensation on the right side of the body E) complete hemiplegia (paralysis) on the left side of the body Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 66) Thalamic neurons that project to the primary sensory cortex are ________ neurons. A) receptor B) first-order C) second-order D) third-order E) fourth-order Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) Which neuron delivers sensations to the CNS? A) first-order B) second-order C) third-order D) fourth-order E) sensory receptor Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) We can localize sensations that originate in different areas of the body because A) sensory neurons carry only one modality. B) sensory neurons from specific body regions project to specific cortical regions. C) incoming sensory information is first processed by the thalamus. D) different types of sensory receptors produce action potentials of different sizes and shapes. E) of the many types of tactile receptors. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 15-1 Spinothalamic Tracts Use Figure 15-1 to answer the following questions: 69) Identify the axon labeled "3." A) axon of a lower motor neuron B) axon of a upper motor neuron C) axon of a first-order neuron D) axon of a second-order neuron E) axon of a ganglionic neuron Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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70) Where in the spinal cord is the structure labeled "2" located? A) anterior gray horns B) dorsal root ganglion C) anterior white column D) anterior median fissure E) posterior white column Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 71) Identify the neuron labeled "1." A) lower motor neuron B) upper motor neuron C) first-order neuron D) second-order neuron E) ganglionic neuron Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 72) Identify the structure labeled "5." A) thalamus B) cerebral cortex C) primary motor cortex D) primary sensory cortex E) autonomic ganglion Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 73) The third-order neuron in this pathway synapses in what structure labeled "7"? A) cerebellum B) thalamus C) primary sensory cortex D) pons E) medulla oblongata Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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74) Which structure conducts action potentials directly from a sensory receptor? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 7 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 75) Identify the type of information that travels along the structure labeled "2." A) motor commands to skeletal muscles B) proprioception to the cerebral cortex C) fine touch to the cerebral cortex D) crude touch and pressure sensations E) visceral motor commands to smooth muscle Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 76) The sense of proprioception passes along the ________ pathway. A) rubriocerebellar B) corticospinal C) spinocerebellar D) decussation pathways E) ganglion Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) In the spinothalamic pathway, the sensory neuron that synapses with a neuron in the cerebral cortex is called the ________ neuron. A) first-order B) second-order C) third-order D) fourth-order E) receptive Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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78) Ascending tracts in the spinal cord relay ________ information. A) sensory B) motor C) sensory and motor D) only somatic E) autonomic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) Which of the following is a progressive, degenerative disorder that affects upper and lower motor neurons causing skeletal muscle atrophy? A) cerebral palsy B) stroke C) paralysis D) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis E) multiple sclerosis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) In motor pathways, the only portion of the pathway that is outside of the CNS is the A) lower motor neuron. B) upper motor neuron. C) axon of the lower motor neuron. D) axon of the upper motor neuron. E) interneuron. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 81) Which motor pathway does not end in the spinal cord? A) corticobulbar tract B) corticospinal tract C) vestibulospinal tract D) tectospinal tract E) rubrospinal tract Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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82) The corticospinal pathway begins in which area of the brain? A) somatosensory cortex B) primary motor cortex C) midbrain D) vestibular nuclei E) red nuclei Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) The motor homunculus shows larger structures in areas of the body that A) have more surface area. B) have more sensory receptors. C) have bigger skeletal muscles. D) are highly sensitive. E) have more motor units. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 84) The rubrospinal tracts originate in the A) primary motor cortex. B) vestibular nuclei. C) thalamus. D) red nuclei. E) reticular formation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 85) Which areas of the brain monitor and adjust activities of the motor pathways? A) basal nuclei B) cerebellum C) basal nuclei and cerebellum D) midbrain E) pons Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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86) The neurons of the primary motor cortex are ________ cells. A) neuroglial B) dendritic C) pyramidal D) cortical E) astrocyte Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) The descending spinal tract that crosses to the opposite side of the body within the medulla oblongata is the ________ tract. A) lateral corticospinal B) anterior corticospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) The spinal tract that normally plays a role in the subconscious regulation of the muscles of the arms is the ________ tract. A) lateral corticospinal B) anterior corticospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 89) Descending (motor) pathways always involve at least ________ motor neuron(s). A) one B) two C) three D) four E) spinal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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90) The spinal tract that unconsciously maintains balance and muscle tone is the ________ tract. A) lateral corticospinal B) anterior corticospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) The medial pathway that controls involuntary movements of head, neck, and arm position in response to sudden visual and auditory stimuli is the ________ tract. A) lateral corticospinal B) tectospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) The pyramidal system provides A) voluntary control over skeletal muscles. B) voluntary control over smooth muscles. C) involuntary control over skeletal muscles. D) involuntary control over smooth muscles. E) involuntary control over cardiac muscle. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 93) Upper motor neurons of the corticospinal tract synapse with neurons in A) autonomic ganglia. B) the anterior gray horns of the spinal cord. C) the spinothalamic tract. D) the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord. E) the dorsal root ganglia. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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94) The corticospinal system is often referred to as the A) red nucleus. B) reticular formation. C) spinothalamic tracts. D) pyramidal system. E) medullary centers. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) The area of the motor cortex that is devoted to a particular region of the body is proportional to the A) size of the body area. B) distance of the body area from the brain. C) number of motor units in that region. D) number of sensory receptors in the area of the body. E) size of the nerves that serve the area of the body. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) Axons of the corticobulbar tract terminate in the A) sensory neurons. B) somatic motor neurons in the spinal cord. C) autonomic motor neurons in the spinal cord. D) motor nuclei of cranial nerves. E) nuclei in the thalamus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) The ________ tract provides subconscious regulation of upper limb muscle tone and movement and is part of the ________ pathway. A) tectospinal; lateral B) rubrospinal; lateral C) reticulospinal; medial D) vestibulospinal; lateral E) corticobulbar; medial Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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98) Based on the motor homunculus, which of the following body regions has the fewest number of motor units involved? A) tongue B) face C) hands D) back trunk Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 99) The pyramids on the ventral surface of the medulla oblongata are formed by fibers of the ________ tracts. A) corticospinal B) corticobulbar C) reticulospinal D) vestibulospinal E) tectospinal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) The basal nuclei A) initiate conscious motor activity. B) activate spinal reflexes. C) provide the background patterns of movement involved in voluntary motor activities. D) exert direct control over lower motor neurons. E) act as gatekeepers, filtering out unnecessary sensorimotor activity. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) The upper motor neurons of the medial pathway are located within any of the following except the A) vestibular nuclei. B) reticular formation. C) superior colliculi. D) inferior colliculi. E) mammillary bodies. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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102) A brain injury to a patient results in facial paralysis. Which descending tract is most likely affected? A) corticospinal tract B) tectospinal tract C) rubrospinal tract D) corticobulbar tract E) reticulospinal tract Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 103) Some neurons within the basal nuclei are known to A) stimulate neurons with GABA. B) inhibit neurons with GABA. C) stimulate neurons with acetylcholine. D) stimulate neurons with GABA and stimulate neurons with acetylcholine. E) inhibit neurons with GABA and stimulate neurons with acetylcholine. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) Damage to the pyramidal cells of the cerebral cortex would directly affect A) perception of pain. B) sight. C) voluntary motor activity. D) hearing. E) balance. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 105) The cerebellum adjusts motor activity in response to all of the following except A) touch sensations. B) visual information. C) equilibrium-related sensations. D) input from the motor cortex. E) input from proprioceptors. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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106) Motor neurons whose cell bodies are within the spinal cord are called ________ neurons. A) upper motor B) lower motor C) preganglionic D) postganglionic E) somesthetic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) Upper motor neurons are located in the A) precentral gyrus. B) postcentral gyrus. C) brain stem. D) spinal cord. E) cerebral hemispheres and the brain stem. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 108) Damage to the tectospinal tracts would interfere with the ability to A) position the arms. B) monitor body position. C) make reflex responses of the head and neck in response to sudden movements or loud noises. D) control motor units located in the leg. E) coordinate eating and swallowing movements. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 109) Descending tracts in the spinal cord relay ________ information. A) sensory B) motor C) sensory and motor D) only somatic E) autonomic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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110) In the corticospinal pathway, the neuron that exits the spinal cord and enters the spinal nerve is called the ________ neuron. A) upper sensory B) lower sensory C) upper motor D) lower motor E) pyramidal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 15-2 The Corticospinal Pathway Use Figure 15-2 to answer the following questions: 111) Identify the origin of the axon labeled "2." A) lower motor neuron B) upper motor neuron C) decussation neuron D) second-order neuron E) ganglionic neuron Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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112) The axon labeled "2" synapses with which structure? A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 113) Identify the structure labeled "5." A) ventral root B) upper motor neuron C) first-order neuron D) second-order neuron E) dorsal root Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 114) What occurs in this neural pathway at label "3"? A) synapse B) communication between sensory and motor neurons C) amplification of motor signals D) decussation E) autonomic reflexes Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 115) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) primary sensory cortex B) primary motor cortex C) thalamus D) autonomic motor center E) basal nuclei Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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116) Identify the type of information that travels along the structure labeled "4." A) motor commands to skeletal muscles B) proprioception to the cerebral cortex C) fine touch to the cerebral cortex D) pain and crude touch sensations E) visceral motor commands to smooth muscle Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Which motor pathway directs a faster response: voluntary or involuntary? (Figure 15-1) A) voluntary B) involuntary Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) Describe the receptive field. (Figure 15-2) A) The area receptive to stimuli monitored by a single receptor cell. B) The overlap where many receptors detect stimuli. C) The distance the generator potential travels after receptor stimulation. D) The distance covered by action potentials after receptor stimulation. E) The areas of the brain that process the receptor stimuli. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 3) Which tactile receptors are located in the dermis? (Figure 15-4) A) free nerve endings and tactile corpuscles B) free nerve endings and the root hair plexus C) tactile discs and tactile corpuscles D) root hair plexus, bulbous corpuscle, and lamellar corpuscles E) tactile discs and proprioceptors Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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4) Which pathway or tract detects sensations of pain and temperature? (Figure 15-7) A) posterior spinocerebellar B) anterior spinocerebellar C) posterior column pathway D) anterior spinothalamic E) lateral spinothalamic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 5) Identify the descending (motor) tracts in the spinal cord. (Figure 15-10) A) anterior spinothalamic, posterior spinothalamic, lateral spinothalamic B) anterior spinocerebellar, posterior spinocerebellar, lateral spinocerebellar C) lateral corticospinal, anterior corticospinal, rubrospinal, medial and lateral reticulospinal, tectospinal, vestibulospinal D) gracile fasciculus and cuneate fasciculus E) medial lemniscus, anterior spinothalamic, posterior spinothalamic, anterior spinocerebellar, posterior spinocerebellar Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Essay Questions 1) What are the four types of sensory receptors for the general senses? What is the nature of the stimuli that excite each type? Answer: (1) Nociceptors: a variety of stimuli associated with tissue damage; (2) thermoreceptors: respond to changes in temperature; (3) mechanoreceptors: stimulated by physical distortion, contact, or pressure; and (4) chemoreceptors: monitor the presence of specific chemical substances. Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) Jake steps on a piece of ice with his right foot. Outline the pathway this sensation will travel to reach his brain being specific about the structures along the way. Answer: When Jake steps on a piece of ice it will activate a thermoreceptor which are free nerve endings in the dermis. This sensation will travel up the axon of a first-order neuron entering the CNS through the dorsal root. The first-order neuron will synapse with a second-order (interneuron) in the posterior gray horn. The second-order axons will enter the lateral spinothalamic tract on the opposite side of the spinal cord and ascend to the thalamus. At the thalamus the second-order neuron will synapse with a third-order neuron which will end at the primary sensory cortex on the left side of the brain. Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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3) What are differences and similarities between "crude" touch and "fine" touch sensations? Answer: Crude touch refers to sensations from stimulation of tactile receptors of low sensitivity with large receptive fields. In contrast, fine touch refers to tactile receptors of high sensitivity with small receptive fields. Crude touch ascends in the anterior spinothalamic pathway whereas fine touch ascends in the posterior column pathway. The spinothalamic pathway crosses the neural axis in the spinal cord but the posterior column pathway crosses in the medulla oblongata. Both ultimately project to the somatosensory cortex on the contralateral side of the stimulus in the same region of cortex. Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 4) How can an understanding of the neurotransmitters important in the function of the basal nuclei contribute to an understanding the underlying cause for Parkinson's disease? Answer: Two distinct populations of neurons exist: one that stimulates neurons by releasing acetylcholine, and another that inhibits neurons through the release of gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA). Under normal conditions, the excitatory interneurons are kept inactive, and the tracts leaving the basal nuclei have an inhibitory effect on upper motor neurons. In Parkinson's disease, the excitatory neurons become more active, leading to problems with the voluntary control of movement. Treatment directed at increasing the supply of GABA is being investigated actively. Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 16 The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher-Order Functions Multiple Choice Questions 1) The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system is said to function during "rest and digest." A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) thoracolumbar D) visceral E) somatomotor Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) The sympathetic division of the ANS is also known as which of the following? A) somatic division B) craniosacral division C) resting division D) thoracolumbar division E) lumbosacral division Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Preganglionic fibers leave the CNS and then synapse on A) postganglionic fibers. B) visceral reflex responses. C) motor neurons. D) ganglionic neurons. E) afferent neurons. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Preganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system are located in A) the brain. B) the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord. C) the posterior gray horns of the spinal cord. D) both the brainstem and the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord. E) the cerebrum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) Ganglionic neurons innervate all of the following except A) smooth muscle. B) cardiac muscle. C) adipose tissue. D) glands. E) skeletal muscle. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) The parasympathetic nervous system is especially active during which physiological state? A) exertion B) trauma C) digestion D) stress E) exercise Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) A visceral motor neuron whose cell body is within the CNS is called a(n)________ neuron. A) upper motor B) lower motor C) preganglionic D) postganglionic E) somatomotor Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) In which system are the ganglia in or near the target organ? A) sympathetic division of the ANS B) parasympathetic division of the ANS C) somatic nervous system D) afferent nervous system E) central nervous system Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) The parasympathetic division is also called the ________ division. A) thoracolumbar B) craniosacral C) thoracocranial D) craniolumbar E) craniococcygeal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) Which of the following is not controlled by the ANS? A) skeletal muscle system B) cardiovascular system C) respiratory system D) digestive system E) urinary system Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 11) Visceral motor neuron nuclei are located in which part of the brain? A) midbrain B) primary motor cortex C) hypothalamus D) thalamus E) cerebellum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) Sympathetic postganglion fibers that innervate the small intestines originate from the A) inferior mesenteric ganglion. B) cardiac plexus. C) celiac ganglion. D) sacral splanchnic nerves. E) superior mesenteric ganglion. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) Sympathetic nerves contain postganglionic fibers that innervate organs in which cavity? A) thoracic B) pelvic C) abdominal D) cranial E) abdominopelvic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) Which is not a sympathetic ganglion? A) celiac B) otic C) inferior mesenteric D) superior mesenteric E) sacral chain Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) A pedestrian narrowly avoids being hit by an oncoming car. He notices that it takes a little while for his heart rate and respiratory rate to return to normal. This is likely because A) the parasympathetic nervous system has become activated. B) sympathetic activation of the adrenal medulla has released epinephrine and norepinephrine into the bloodstream. C) the splanchnic nerves have become activated. D) somatic motor neurons have increased the heart and respiratory rate. E) the corticospinal pathway has become activated. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 16) Sympathetic preganglionic fibers are ________ and have ________ axons. A) short; myelinated B) short; unmyelinated C) long; myelinated D) long; unmyelinated E) intermediate; small Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) In the sympathetic nervous system, where are the preganglionic neurons located? A) cervical and sacral segments of the spinal cord B) sacral segments of the spinal cord C) brain stem D) thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord E) cerebellum Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) Preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system are located in the A) lateral gray horns of the cervical cord. B) anterior gray horns of the cervical and thoracic spinal cord. C) lateral gray horns of segments T1 to L2 of the spinal cord. D) anterior gray horns of segments T1 to L2 of the spinal cord. E) lateral gray horns of T1 to S2 of the spinal cord. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) Clusters of ganglionic sympathetic neurons lying along either side of the spinal cord are called sympathetic ________ ganglia. A) intramural B) collateral C) chain D) paravertebral E) adrenal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) Clusters of ganglionic sympathetic neurons that innervate organs in the abdominopelvic region are called ________ ganglia. A) intramural B) collateral C) chain D) paravertebral E) adrenal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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21) Injury to the neurons of a collateral ganglion would affect the function of the A) heart. B) pupils. C) sweat glands. D) digestive tract. E) arrector pili muscles. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 22) Damage to the ventral roots of the first five thoracic spinal nerves on the right side of the body would interfere with the ability to A) dilate the right pupil. B) constrict the right pupil. C) dilate the left pupil. D) constrict the left pupil. E) smile and frown. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 23) Postganglionic axons usually are A) myelinated. B) unmyelinated. C) larger than preganglionic fibers. D) located in the brain. E) located in the spinal cord. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) Stimulation of the neurons in the celiac ganglion would lead to A) relaxation of the urinary sphincter. B) increased heart rate. C) conversion of liver glycogen reserves into glucose. D) activation of ventral sweat glands. E) increased gastric motility. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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25) Collateral ganglia contain neurons that innervate tissues and organs in which cavity? A) thoracic B) pelvic C) abdominal D) craniosacral E) abdominopelvic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) Sympathetic nerves A) provoke feelings of sympathy. B) allow us to relax, rest, and recover. C) contains short preganglionic fibers and longer postganglionic fibers. D) control swallowing. E) stimulate gastric secretion. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 27) Preganglionic fibers that innervate the collateral ganglia form the A) adrenal medulla. B) celiac ganglia. C) sympathetic chain ganglia. D) inferior mesenteric ganglia. E) splanchnic nerves. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) Which of the following is not innervated by the celiac ganglia? A) liver B) spleen C) stomach D) pancreas E) bladder Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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29) The adrenal medullae secrete A) medullin. B) epinephrine. C) norepinephrine. D) renin. E) both epinephrine and norepinephrine. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) Specialized ganglionic sympathetic neurons that release hormones into the bloodstream are found within the A) intramural ganglia. B) collateral ganglia. C) chain ganglia. D) brain stem. E) adrenal medullae. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) Postganglionic fibers that innervate targets in the body wall or thoracic cavity originate on neurons within A) intramural ganglia. B) collateral ganglia. C) sympathetic chain ganglia. D) suprarenal ganglia. E) white rami communicantes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) Each of the following effects is associated with the action of postganglionic sympathetic fibers except A) increased sweat secretion. B) reduced circulation to the skin. C) decreased heart rate. D) dilation of the pupils. E) increased blood flow to skeletal muscles. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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33) Splanchnic nerves A) originate from first-order neurons located in the upper five thoracic segments of the spinal cord. B) innervate the viscera or internal organs. C) control sympathetic function of structures in the thorax. D) connect chain ganglia. E) are formed of parasympathetic fibers. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) Autonomic disorders would not cause A) excessive perspiration. B) appetite. C) sexual arousal. D) problems in maintenance of blood pressure. E) problems related to skeletal muscle function. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 35) The celiac, superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric ganglia are collectively called ________ ganglia. A) chain B) collateral C) intramural D) paravertebral E) terminal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) The ________ nervous system stimulates the arrector pili muscles and gives you "goosebumps." A) parasympathetic B) afferent C) dorsal D) sympathetic E) somatic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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37) As the result of an accident, the white rami communicantes of spinal nerves T1 and T2 on the left side of Brad's body are severed. What organ(s) would you expect to be affected by this injury? A) left pupil B) right pupil C) heart D) both pupils E) left pupil and heart Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

Figure 16-1 ANS Pathway Use Figure 16-1 to answer the following questions: 38) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) somatic motor neuron B) preganglionic neuron C) sensory neuron D) ganglionic neuron E) astrocyte Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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39) Identify the round structure labeled "3." A) dorsal root ganglion B) spinal nerve C) chain ganglion D) intramural ganglion E) rami communicantes Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 40) Identify the structure labeled "4." A) preganglionic neuron B) postganglionic fibers of sympathetic nerve C) preganglionic fibers of sympathetic nerve D) collateral ganglion E) white ramus communicans Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 41) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) ventral root B) dorsal ramus C) spinal nerve D) ventral ramus E) white ramus communicans Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) Identify the structure labeled "6." A) somatic motor neuron B) preganglionic neuron C) sensory neuron D) ganglionic neuron E) astrocyte Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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43) Tom suffers from hypertension (high blood pressure). Which of the following might help deal with his problem? A) a drug that blocks alpha-1 receptors in smooth muscle B) a drug that blocks alpha-2 receptors in adipose tissue C) a drug that increases cAMP levels in cardiac muscle tissue D) a drug that blocks beta receptors in cardiac muscle tissue E) a drug that blocks alpha-1 receptors in smooth muscle and blocks beta receptors in cardiac muscle tissue Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 44) Drugs that have effects similar to those of sympathetic activation are called sympathomimetic drugs. Which of the following would you not expect to observe in a person who has taken a sympathomimetic drug? A) sweating B) increased heart rate C) dilation of respiratory passages D) decreased blood pressure E) increased blood sugar level Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 45) Drugs known as beta-blockers may be useful for treating A) constipation. B) diarrhea. C) excessive salivation. D) excessive heart rate. E) prostate disorders. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 46) Sympathetic axon terminals form a branching network of swollen segments called A) ganglia. B) receptors. C) varicosities. D) nuclei. E) bulbs. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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47) The majority of norepinephrine released by varicosities only briefly affects the target tissue because it is quickly reused or broken down by A) monoamine oxidase. B) acetylcholinesterase. C) nitroxide. D) decarboxylase. E) catalase. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) Which of the following is a sympathetic neurotransmitter used for vasodilation? A) acetylcholine B) norepinephrine C) dopamine D) serotonin E) nitric oxide Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 49) Stimulation of the beta receptors on heart muscle cells results in A) the decrease in ATP production. B) increased heart rate and force of contraction. C) decreased force of contraction. D) slower heart rate. E) inhibition of the heart muscle. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) Regarding the sympathetic nervous system, the neurotransmitter ACh is A) always excitatory when used in the synapses of the sympathetic nervous system. B) broken down by COMT. C) going to reduce the activity of the other neurotransmitter norepinephrine. D) broken down by monoamine oxidase. E) a chemical similar to the structure of adrenaline. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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51) Which of the following statements is true? The stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors can lead to 1. an increase in metabolic activity. 2. contraction of airway smooth muscle. 3. the breakdown of triglycerides within adipocytes. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 1 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) An inhaler used to treat airway constriction in asthma or allergy might contain a drug that A) activates β1 adrenergic receptors. B) activates β2 adrenergic receptors. C) activates muscarinic cholinergic receptors. D) blocks β2 adrenergic receptors. E) activates β2 adrenergic receptors or activates muscarinic cholinergic receptors. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 53) Most sympathetic effector junctions release norepinephrine but a significant number release acetylcholine instead. Which of these is an example of an organ of the cholinergic type? A) the heart B) a blood vessel in the skin C) a sweat gland D) the liver E) the salivary glands Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 54) A certain drug decreases heart rate by blocking a receptor on cardiac pacemaker cells. This drug probably binds to ________ receptors. A) nicotinic cholinergic B) muscarinic cholinergic C) alpha-1 adrenergic D) alpha-2 adrenergic E) beta-1 adrenergic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 14 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

55) Drugs that stimulate alpha receptors, causing constriction of peripheral vessels, are A) sympathetic blocking agents. B) sympathomimetic. C) parasympathetic blocking agents. D) parasympathomimetic. E) autonomic blocking agents. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 56) Sympathomimetic drugs might be used to A) decrease heart rate. B) decrease blood pressure. C) dilate airways. D) increase gastric motility. E) reduce blood sugar levels. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 57) If the receptor on the postsynaptic membrane binds to norepinephrine, the synapse is called A) cholinergic. B) anergic. C) adrenergic. D) synergic. E) noradrenergic. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) Disorders involving the vagus nerve might cause A) food to remain in your stomach longer. B) a drop in blood pressure. C) constriction of the pupils. D) more saliva production. E) increased sweating. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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59) The statement "It initiates contraction of urinary bladder smooth muscle" is A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system. B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system. C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems. D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems. E) true only for the somatic nervous system. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) Preganglionic fibers of parasympathetic neurons are present in all of the following cranial nerves except A) III. B) VII. C) IX. D) X. E) XII. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 61) Almost 75 percent of all parasympathetic outflow travels along the ________ nerve(s). A) splanchnic B) facial C) vagus D) glossopharyngeal E) trigeminal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) Which of the following is not a parasympathetic ganglion? A) ciliary B) pterygopalatine C) submandibular D) otic E) celiac Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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63) Parasympathetic functions include all of the following, except A) decrease in the rate of cardiac contraction. B) constriction of the pupils. C) dilation of the airways. D) stimulation of urination. E) stimulation of defecation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) Which of the following statements concerning the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is false? A) Preganglionic neurons are located in the brain stem and sacral region of the spinal cord. B) Ganglionic neurons are located in ganglia within or near to effectors. C) Preganglionic fibers are relatively short and postganglionic fibers are relatively long. D) The actions of the parasympathetic division are more localized than those of the sympathetic division. E) The ganglionic neurons always release acetylcholine. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 65) Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers leave the CNS in all of the following locations except A) the midbrain. B) the pons. C) the medulla oblongata. D) spinal segments T1-L2. E) spinal segments S2-S4. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) Preganglionic fibers from the sacral segments of the spinal cord form the ________ nerve(s). A) pelvic B) splanchnic C) celiac D) sympathetic E) mesenteric Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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67) Parasympathetic stimulation A) increases heart rate. B) increases gastric motility. C) causes sweat glands to secrete. D) causes blood vessels in the skin to dilate. E) causes the pupils to dilate. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) Intramural ganglia in the digestive, urinary, and reproductive organs are innervated by the ________ nerves. A) spinal B) splanchnic C) chain D) pelvic E) collateral Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 69) Damage to the glossopharyngeal nerve would likely cause A) increase in heart rate. B) problems in sexual arousal. C) a reduction in saliva. D) visual problems. E) urine retention. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 70) Parasympathetic ganglia that are near the eyes and salivary glands are called ________ ganglia. A) somatic B) collateral C) contralateral D) intramural E) terminal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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71) The statement "Its postganglionic axons always use acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter" is A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system. B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system. C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems. D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems. E) true only for the somatic nervous system. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) Nicotinic receptors A) respond to epinephrine. B) respond to norepinephrine. C) open chemically-gated sodium ion channels. D) can be either excitatory or inhibitory in function. E) are found at synaptic junctions of the sympathetic nervous system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 73) Muscarinic receptors A) are normally activated by acetylcholine. B) are found mostly in autonomic ganglia. C) always produce an excitatory response. D) control sodium channels in the affected membrane. E) are blocked by norepinephrine. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) The statement "Preganglionic axon terminals release acetylcholine" is A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system. B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system. C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems. D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems. E) true only for the somatic nervous system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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75) Parasympathetic effects are localized and short-lived because A) muscarinic receptors are deactivated by norepinephrine. B) acetylcholine is inactivated at the synapse by acetylcholinesterase. C) norepinephrine hyperpolarizes the postganglionic membrane. D) norepinephrine is inactivated at the synapse by monoamine oxidase. E) epinephrine blocks the muscarinic receptors. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 76) Nicotine poisoning differs from muscarine poisoning in that A) it causes vomiting. B) it causes salivation. C) it causes sweating. D) it causes skeletal muscle convulsions. E) it causes diarrhea. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 77) Drugs that block nicotinic receptors would be A) sympathomimetic. B) parasympathomimetic. C) parasympathetic blocking agents. D) sympathetic blocking agents. E) autonomic blocking agents. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 78) Parasympathetic blocking agents can be useful in treating A) heart failure. B) high blood pressure. C) urinary incontinence. D) hyperactivity. E) excessive sweating. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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79) A doctor places drops in the eyes to dilate the pupils for an examination. The type of drug that is used is a(n) ________ drug. 1. sympathomimetic 2. parasympathomimetic 3. adrenergic activating 4. cholinergic activating A) 1, 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 1, 3 E) 2, 4 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 80) Mary accidentally ate poisonous mushrooms that contain muscarine. You would expect to observe all of the following symptoms except A) diarrhea. B) salivation. C) very fast heart rate. D) sweating. E) low blood pressure. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 81) The ganglia located lateral to the vertebral column are part of the sympathetic A) chain. B) tract. C) decussation. D) tubes. E) canal. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) Which of the following is not a true statement regarding the sympathetic division? A) PNS ganglia are near the vertebral column. B) Preganglionic fibers are relatively short. C) Preganglionic neurons are located between T1 and L2 of the spinal cord. D) The effects are not widespread but very specific and localized. E) Postganglionic fibers are relatively long. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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83) All parasympathetic neurons are A) adrenergic. B) cholinergic. C) nitroxidergic. D) gamma-aminobutyric. E) dopaminergic. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 84) Which of the following is correctly matched? A) sympathetic: short preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers B) sympathetic: short preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers C) sympathetic: long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers D) parasympathetic: short preganglion and long postganglionic fibers E) parasympathetic: contains only preganglionic fibers Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 85) Dual innervation refers to an organ receiving A) two nerves from the spinal cord. B) both autonomic and somatomotor nerves. C) both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation. D) nerves from both the brain and the spinal cord. E) both sensory and motor nerves. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) The statement "It controls the diameter of the pupil" is A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system. B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system. C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems. D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems. E) true only for the somatic nervous system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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87) Sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers that innervate the heart pass through the A) celiac plexus. B) hypogastric plexus. C) cardiac plexus. D) sphenopalatine ganglia. E) otic ganglia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) Control of the diameter of the respiratory passages depends upon A) sympathetic stimulation only. B) parasympathetic stimulation only. C) somatomotor stimulation only. D) both parasympathetic and sympathetic levels of stimulation. E) sensory receptors sensitive to changes in lung ventilation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 89) Nerve networks that include both sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers that reach the same structure are called A) somatic plexuses. B) somatic ganglia. C) autonomic plexuses. D) autonomic ganglia. E) central plexuses. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) Descending branches of the vagus and splanchnic nerves travel through the ________ plexus. A) cardiac B) pulmonary C) hypogastric D) esophageal E) celiac Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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91) Autonomic tone is an important aspect of ANS function because it A) allows ANS neurons to be silent under normal conditions. B) allows ANS neurons to increase activity on demand but not decrease their activity. C) allows ANS neurons to decrease their activity on demand but not increase their activity. D) allows ANS neurons to increase or decrease their activity, providing a range of control options. E) provides for a narrow range of control options that keeps target tissues constantly active. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) A decrease in the autonomic tone of the smooth muscle in a blood vessel would result in A) no change in vessel diameter. B) a decrease in vessel diameter. C) oscillation in vessel diameter. D) a decrease in blood flow through the vessel. E) an increase in blood flow through the vessel. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 93) In general, autonomic tone of peripheral blood vessels increases when A) sympathetic stimulation is increased. B) sympathetic stimulation is decreased. C) parasympathetic stimulation is increased. D) parasympathetic stimulation is decreased. E) somatomotor stimulation is increased. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) Most vital organs receive ________ innervation. That is, they receive input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. A) single B) dual C) biaxial D) ambitonic E) autonomic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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95) Which of the following is not true regarding visceral reflex arcs? A) They are monosynaptic. B) They have the same basic components as somatic reflexes. C) Short visceral reflexes bypass the CNS. D) They can be short or long reflexes. E) The processing steps involve interneurons in the CNS. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 96) Which of the following visceral reflexes is not coordinated by the medulla oblongata? A) swallowing reflex B) vasomotor reflex C) coughing reflex D) cardioacceleratory reflex E) pupillary reflex Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) Which of the following would be an example of higher-level control of autonomic function? A) gagging on food that does not appeal to you B) a violent coughing attack in response to an irritant C) increased heart rate when you see a person you fear D) dilation of the pupils when you enter a dark room E) increased salivation when you smell food that appeals to you Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) ________ reflexes perform the simplest functions of the autonomic nervous system. A) Somatic B) Cranial C) Spinal D) Visceral E) Consensual Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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99) Visceral reflex arcs can bypass CNS neurons in ________ reflexes. A) short B) intermediate C) long D) hyper E) spinal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) The integrative centers for autonomic activity are located in the A) cerebrum. B) thalamus. C) cerebellum. D) pituitary gland. E) hypothalamus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) Which of the following is essential for memory consolidation? A) occipital lobe B) basal nuclei C) hippocampus D) insula E) prefrontal lobe Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 102) Mechanisms involved in memory formation and storage involve all of the following except A) increased release of neurotransmitters. B) anterograde amnesia. C) the formation of additional synaptic connections. D) the formation of memory engrams. E) facilitation at synapses. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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103) Long-term memories that are with you for a lifetime are called ________ memories. A) tertiary B) reflexive C) consolidated D) multilobar E) secondary Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) Most long-term memories are stored in the A) cerebellum. B) hypothalamus. C) cerebral cortex. D) pons. E) thalamus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) For minor surgical procedures, Valium is typically given to patients to cause anterograde amnesia. This means the patient will temporarily A) forget all fact memories such as the color of a stop sign. B) forget skill memories like how to ride a bike. C) forget long-term memories like their name. D) forget memories from before surgery. E) forget memories from during and immediately after surgery. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 106) Blocking ________ receptors in the ________ prevents long-term memory formation. A) serotonin; hypothalamus B) NMDA; hippocampus C) NMDA; midbrain D) serotonin; midbrain E) norepinephrine; hippocampus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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107) Which of the following is an inherited disease characterized by destruction of AChsecreting and GABA-secreting neurons in the basal nuclei causing difficulty controlling movements? A) schizophrenia B) Parkinson's disease C) Huntington's disease D) Alzheimer's disease E) senile dementia Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) Conversion of a short-term memory to a long-term memory is called A) memory conversion. B) anterograde amnesia. C) memory programming. D) memory consolidation. E) memory engraving. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) The conscious state is maintained by the A) prefrontal lobes. B) general interpretive area. C) limbic system. D) reticular activating system. E) nucleus gracilis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 110) Based on stimulation studies, the "headquarters" of the reticular activating system appears to be based in the A) medulla. B) pons. C) midbrain. D) diencephalon. E) cerebrum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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111) A state of unconsciousness in which an individual cannot be aroused even by strong stimuli is A) somnolence. B) sleep. C) stupor. D) coma. E) a chronic vegetative state. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) The brain waves produced by normal adults while resting with their eyes closed are ________ waves. A) alpha B) beta C) theta D) delta E) gamma Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 113) The regulation of awake-asleep cycles appears to involve an interplay between brain stem nuclei that use different neurotransmitters. The one that favors alertness is ________ and the other promoting deep sleep is ________. A) acetylcholine; serotonin B) serotonin; norepinephrine C) norepinephrine; serotonin D) dopamine; GABA E) glutamate; serotonin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 114) During ________ sleep, dreaming occurs. A) REM B) deep C) beta D) stage 1 E) stage 2 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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115) Hallucinogenic drugs, such as LSD, function by A) stimulating receptors for norepinephrine. B) blocking acetylcholine receptors. C) increasing the production of GABA. D) stimulating serotonin receptors. E) mimicking the action of dopamine. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 116) The inherited brain disorder Huntington's disease is caused by the destruction of basal nuclei that use different neurotransmitters. One neurotransmitter is ________ and the other is ________. A) acetylcholine; serotonin B) serotonin; norepinephrine C) norepinephrine; serotonin D) acetylcholine; GABA E) glutamate; serotonin Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 117) What mental illness is often improved by drugs that block serotonin re-uptake? A) agitation B) hallucinations C) depression D) Parkinson's E) Huntington's Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 118) An age-related decline in mental function characterized by difficulties with spatial orientation, memory, language, and personality is called A) delirium agitans. B) senile dementia. C) persistent vegetative state. D) somnolence of the aged. E) progressive cerebral dysfunction. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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119) Changes in the central nervous system that accompany aging include all of the following except A) reduction in brain size and weight. B) decrease in the number of neurons. C) decreased blood flow to the brain. D) changes in synaptic organization in the brain. E) increased memory storage. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) Alzheimer's disease is characterized by all of the following except that it A) is the most common cause of senile dementia. B) is characterized by a progressive loss of memory. C) has a clear genetic basis. D) is associated with the formation of plaques and neurofibrillary tangles. E) may be associated with damage to the nucleus basalis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) The somatic nervous system affects skeletal muscles. Name effectors of the autonomic nervous system. (Figure 16-1) A) bone and spinal cord B) smooth muscle, glands, cardiac muscle, adipocytes C) bone and joints D) spinal cord and brainstem E) cerebrum and cerebellum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Which type of ganglionic neuron innervates visceral organs in the abdominopelvic cavity? (Figure 16-3) A) adrenal medullary neurons B) sympathetic chain ganglionic neurons C) collateral ganglionic neurons D) sacral ganglionic neurons E) cervical ganglionic neurons Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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3) What neurotransmitter is released from most varicosities in the sympathetic division? (Figure 16-4) A) dopamine B) serotonin C) epinephrine D) norepinephrine E) GABA Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 4) The short reflex bypasses what part of the nervous system? (Figure 16-7) A) peripheral nervous system B) enteric nervous system C) spinal cord D) brainstem E) central nervous system Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 5) Special sensory inputs arrive by which cranial nerves? (Figure 16-11) A) I and II B) II and IV C) II and VIII D) V and VII E) VII and VIII Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Essay Questions 1) List the different types of adrenergic receptors, the responses they produce, and by what mechanisms. Answer: There are two types of alpha receptors and two types of beta receptors. The alpha-1 receptor produces excitation or stimulation of metabolism. It works by activation of an enzyme and/or by release of calcium ion from internal stores. The alpha-2 receptor is inhibitory on its target cell by reducing the level of cAMP. Beta-1 receptors are stimulating and/or lead to increased energy consumption. They activate cellular enzymes. Beta-2 receptors inhibit activity or produce relaxation in smooth muscle cells. They operate through enzyme activation. Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) Mr. Martin is suffering from a condition known as ventricular tachycardia, in which his heart beats too quickly. Would an alpha-blocker or a beta-blocker help alleviate his problem? Why? Answer: You would want to use a beta-blocker, because the stimulation of beta-1 receptors increases heart rate. By blocking these receptors, parasympathetic influence will predominate and the heart will slow down. Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 3) What effect would cutting the vagus nerve branch that innervates the stomach have on gastric function? Answer: The vagus nerve carries parasympathetic preganglionic fibers to many organs within the ventral cavity, including the digestive organs. It stimulates gastric motility and secretion of acid and enzymes. Removing the vagus innervation will eliminate parasympathetic stimulation, leaving only sympathetic innervation, which is inhibitory. This procedure will thus greatly reduce gastric activity. Hormonal stimulation will remain but higher centers will no longer influence secretion of gastric juice. Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 4) Explain what dual innervation means with regard to the autonomic nervous system. Using the cardiovascular, respiratory and digestive systems as examples, explain how dual innervation regulates the function of each system. Answer: Dual innervation means that both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems control some areas of the body. In general, they have opposing actions. In the cardiovascular system, sympathetic stimulation increases heart rate and contractility while parasympathetic stimulation decreases heart rate. In the respiratory system, sympathetic stimulation dilates the airways while parasympathetic stimulation constricts the airways. In the digestive system, sympathetic stimulation slows down motility and release of secretions while parasympathetic stimulation increases motility and release of secretions. Learning Outcome: 16-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 17 The Special Senses Multiple Choice Questions 1) Olfactory glands A) house the sense of smell. B) regenerate to form new olfactory epithelium. C) react to aromatic molecules. D) coat the olfactory epithelium with a pigmented mucus. E) group as olfactory bulbs. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Olfactory information is first received by which part of the brain? A) pons B) cerebellum C) thalamus D) cerebrum E) medulla oblongata Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Before an olfactory receptor can detect an odorant, it has to A) contact a basal cell. B) bind to receptors on olfactory dendrites. C) open ion channels. D) respond to applied pressure. E) be transported to the olfactory bulbs. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Which of the following is true of olfactory discrimination? A) There are 6 primary smells known. B) The number of olfactory receptors decline as we age. C) All odorants require the same concentration to activate an olfactory receptor. D) There are different types of olfactory receptor cells to detect each type of odorant. E) The olfactory receptor population does not divide. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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5) All of the following are true of olfactory pathways except which one? A) They project first to the occipital lobes and then to the thalamus. B) Neurons from the olfactory epithelium synapse in the olfactory bulb. C) Information flows to the olfactory cortex, hypothalamus, and limbic system. D) They reach the forebrain without first synapsing in the thalamus. E) The limbic system-olfactory pathway connection means that there are close ties between experiences and memories with smell. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 6) Some neural tissues retain stem cells and thus the capacity to divide and replace lost neurons. Which of these special senses can replace its damaged neural receptors? A) olfaction B) hearing C) equilibrium D) proprioception E) vision Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 7) A normal, relaxed inhalation carries about ________ of the inhaled air to the olfactory organs. A) 50 percent B) 8 percent C) 2 percent D) 35 percent E) 10 percent Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate. They synapse on neurons in the A) medulla oblongata. B) medial geniculate. C) cerebral cortex. D) olfactory bulb. E) olfactory tract. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) Olfactory organs are located in the nasal cavity inferior to the perforated bony structure known as the A) cribriform plate. B) sphenoid bone. C) sella turcica. D) vomer. E) zygomatic process. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) The olfactory organ consists of the ________ and the lamina propria. A) gustatory cells B) basilar membrane C) olfactory epithelium D) hippocampus E) ethmoid bone Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) The olfactory receptors are highly modified A) epithelial cells. B) interneurons. C) sensory neurons. D) motor neurons. E) neuroglial cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 12) Which of the following types of sensory information reaches the cerebral cortex directly? A) visual B) hearing C) equilibrium D) olfactory E) gustatory Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) When odorant molecules contact the dendritic processes of olfactory receptors the initial response is A) an action potential. B) activation of a kinase. C) a generator potential. D) a hyperpolarization potential. E) a conversion of 11-trans retinal to 11-cis retinal. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 14) During a sinus infection it is difficult to smell because A) basal cell division decreases. B) olfactory glands stop producing mucus. C) olfactory supporting cells block odorant molecules from reaching the receptors. D) the hypothalamus stops responding to olfactory stimulation. E) excess mucus blocks odorant molecules from reaching the receptors. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 15) Damage to the insula is most likely to affect which of the following senses? A) olfaction B) gustation C) vision D) hearing E) equilibrium Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 16) Our taste buds are most receptive to which of the following types of compounds? A) sweet B) salty C) sweet and salty D) bitter E) umami Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) As we age A) taste bud sensitivity increases. B) taste bud sensitivity doubles. C) the number of taste buds increases. D) the number of taste buds decreases. E) the number of taste buds decreases but the number of olfactory receptors increases to compensate. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 18) Which of the following correctly states how a gustatory receptor will be stimulated by an acidic or sour compound? A) G proteins will be activated. B) Hydrogen ions will diffuse into the receptor cell causing depolarization. C) Sodium ions will diffuse into the receptor cell causing depolarization. D) Second messengers will be activated. E) Adenylate cyclase will be activated. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 19) The function of gustatory receptors parallels that of A) photoreceptors in the eye. B) mechanoreceptors in the ear. C) olfactory receptors. D) lamellar corpuscles. E) proprioceptors. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) Which of the following lingual papillae has the largest number of taste buds? A) pharynx B) foliate papillae C) filiform papillae D) fungiform papillae E) vallate papillae Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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21) Destruction to your left glossopharyngeal nerve would result in A) inability to sense sweetness at the tip of your tongue. B) inability to identify sour and bitter foods at the posterior one-third of the tongue. C) inability to smell. D) inability to see. E) inability to hear. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 22) Stimulation of receptors within the trigeminal nerve might produce a perception of A) intensely sweet. B) intensely sour. C) quite salty. D) peppery hot. E) bitter. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 23) An adult has approximately ________ taste buds. A) 100 B) 10,000 C) 4,000,000 D) 500 E) 50,000 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) A patient who experienced head trauma has lost the ability to taste spicy food. You should expect damage to cranial nerve A) VII. B) III. C) IX. D) V. E) XII. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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25) Which of the following is not one of the six primary taste sensations? A) sweet B) peppery C) sour D) salty E) umami Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) The taste sensation that is triggered by the amino acid glutamate is known as A) sweet. B) umami. C) salty. D) peppery. E) sour. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) The sense of taste is also known as A) proprioception. B) maculation. C) gustation. D) olfaction. E) sublation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) The membrane structures that respond to chemical stimuli to produce sweet, bitter, and umami sensations are called A) gustatory hairs. B) chemically-gated ion channels. C) voltage-regulated ion channels. D) G proteins. E) papillae. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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29) Taste buds are clusters of individual A) vallate papillae. B) gustatory hairs. C) epithelial cells. D) olfactory receptors. E) gustatory receptors. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) Each gustatory cell extends ________ (called taste hairs) into the surrounding fluids through a narrow taste pore. A) microvilli B) villi C) papillae D) palpebra E) G proteins Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) Taste buds on the tongue are often associated with epithelial projections called A) macula. B) lingual papillae. C) ganglion cells. D) pharyngeal papillae. E) ampulla. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) A typical gustatory cell survives for only about ________ day(s) before it is replaced. A) 10 B) 1 C) 60 D) 30 E) 365 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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33) Tears pass through which of the following structures before emptying into the nasal cavity? A) anterior chamber B) posterior chamber C) nasolacrimal duct D) scleral venous sinus E) corneoscleral junction Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) Which structure of the eye is the most sensitive but contains no blood vessels? A) iris B) choroid C) retina D) sclera E) cornea Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) Which of the following is incorrectly matched? A) anterior chamber: between the cornea and the iris B) posterior chamber: between the iris and the lens C) ciliary body: site of extrinsic eye muscle attachment D) retina: consists of a pigmented layer and a neural layer E) sclera: covers most of the ocular surface Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) Which of the following is a function of the pigmented layer of the retina? A) provide eye color B) house the photoreceptors C) secrete vitreous humor D) absorb light passing through the neural layer E) refract light onto the photoreceptors Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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37) The purpose of the intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cell (ipRGC) photoreceptors are A) to give clear sharp vision. B) to allow us to see in dim light. C) to replace rods as we age. D) influence the circadian rhythm. E) to provide color vision. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 38) The primary cause of blindness in the United States is A) cataracts. B) diabetic retinopathy. C) glaucoma. D) retinal detachment. E) retinopathy of prematurity. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) Jonathan received a strong blow to the eye. The eyeball remained intact but he suddenly could not see. This has likely caused A) development of cataracts. B) a detached retina. C) development of glaucoma. D) astigmatism. E) myopia. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 40) Which of the following is false concerning lacrimal glands? A) They produce a strongly hypertonic fluid. B) They produce most of the volume of tears. C) They produce lysozyme. D) They produce watery, slightly alkaline secretions. E) They are located in recesses in the frontal bones. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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41) All of the following are true of the fibrous layer of the eye except that it A) consists of the sclera and cornea. B) provides mechanical support and some protection for the eye. C) produces aqueous humor. D) contributes substantial focusing power. E) is where extrinsic eye muscles insert. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) What structure changes the shape of the lens for far and near vision? A) aqueous humor B) ciliary body C) iris D) extrinsic eye muscles E) macula Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) The eyelids are connected at the A) palpebral fissure. B) medial and lateral angles. C) lacrimal caruncle. D) chalazion. E) conjunctiva. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) The space between the iris and the lens is the A) anterior chamber. B) posterior chamber. C) pupil. D) scleral venous sinus. E) vitreous body. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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45) All of the following are true of the neural layer of the eye except that it A) contains ganglion cells. B) contains the photoreceptor cells. C) contains bipolar cells. D) is the innermost layer of the eyeball. E) consists of dense fibrous connective tissue. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) The human lens focuses light on the photoreceptor cells by A) moving up and down. B) moving in and out. C) changing shape. D) opening and closing. E) dilating and constricting. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) A structure that is located at the medial angle and contains glands that contribute to a gritty deposit is the A) palpebra. B) lacrimal caruncle. C) chalazion. D) tarsal gland. E) conjunctiva. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) Which of the following produces a lipid-rich secretion that prevents the upper and lower eyelids from sticking together at their edges? A) palpebra B) lacrimal caruncle C) chalazion D) tarsal gland E) conjunctiva Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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49) The vitreous body A) fills the anterior chamber. B) helps to stabilize the eye and holds the retina up against the eyewall. C) is replaced at the rate of 20 percent per year until middle age. D) circulates through the pupil. E) holds the retina against the lens for proper refraction. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) The space between the cornea and the iris is the A) anterior chamber. B) posterior chamber. C) scleral venous sinus. D) aqueous humor. E) pupil. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) The shape of the lens is controlled by the A) pupillary sphincter muscles. B) pupillary radial muscles. C) ciliary muscles. D) iris. E) cornea. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) The ________ covers most of the exposed surface of the eye. A) conjunctiva B) cornea C) iris D) anterior chamber E) caruncle Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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53) The transparent portion of the fibrous layer is the A) conjunctiva. B) cornea. C) iris. D) pupil. E) angle. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) The part of the eye that determines eye color is the A) conjunctiva. B) cornea. C) iris. D) pupil. E) scleral venous sinus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) The opening in the iris through which light passes is the A) conjunctiva. B) cornea. C) pupil. D) anterior chamber. E) posterior chamber. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) An area of the retina that contains only cones and is the site of sharpest vision is the A) outer segment. B) inner segment. C) fovea. D) optic disc. E) tapetum lucidum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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57) A ray of light entering the eye will encounter the following structures in which order? A) conjunctiva → cornea → aqueous humor → lens → vitreous body → retina B) vitreous body → retina → choroids → aqueous humor → lens → conjunctiva → cornea C) cornea → aqueous humor → vitreous body → lens → conjunctiva → choroids → retina D) conjunctiva → cornea → lens → aqueous humor → vitreous body → retina E) cornea → aqueous humor → conjunctiva → lens → vitreous body → retina → choroid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 58) The cornea is part of the A) iris. B) fibrous layer. C) neural layer. D) uvea. E) choroid. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) The gelatinous material that gives the eyeball its basic shape is the A) vitreous humor. B) aqueous humor. C) ora serrata. D) perilymph. E) posterior cavity. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) Pupillary muscle groups are controlled by the ANS. Parasympathetic activation causes pupillary ________, and sympathetic activation causes ________. A) dilation; constriction B) dilation; dilation C) constriction; dilation D) constriction; constriction E) vasoconstriction; vasoconstriction Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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61) Trace the circulation of aqueous humor from the site of production to the site of where it is reabsorbed. 1. posterior chamber 2. anterior chamber 3. ciliary body 4. scleral venous sinus 5. pupil A) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2 B) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4 C) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2 D) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 E) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 62) What structure regulates the amount of light that passes to the photoreceptors of the eye? A) vitreous body B) cornea C) ciliary muscle D) iris E) lens Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 63) The optic disc is a blind spot because A) there are no photoreceptors in that area. B) the retina lacks nerves in the optic disc. C) humans are unable to focus light on that area of the retina. D) the vitreous body is too thick in this area for the passage of light. E) the fovea prevents light from striking the optic disc. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 64) Modified sebaceous glands located along the margin of the eyelid that secrete a lipid-rich product are called ________ glands. A) carpal B) mucous C) optic D) ocular E) tarsal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

65) A(n) ________ is an infection in one of the glands on the eyelids. A) sty B) furuncle C) abscess D) lesion E) carbuncle Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) The abnormality that develops when a lens loses its transparency is known as A) glaucoma. B) myopia. C) macular degeneration. D) a cataract. E) Fuch's dystrophy. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) ________ cells connect photoreceptors to ganglion cells. A) Bipolar B) Ganglion C) Amacrine D) Cone E) Rod Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) Amacrine and ________ cells facilitate or inhibit communication between photoreceptors and ganglion cells. A) bipolar B) ganglion C) nuclear D) hair E) horizontal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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69) ________, or pinkeye, results from damage to or irritation of the conjunctival surface. A) Fuch's dystrophy B) Conjunctivitis C) Glaucoma D) Myopia E) Uveitis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 17-1 The Sectional Anatomy of the Eye Use Figure 17-1 to answer the following questions: 70) Identify the space labeled "1." A) posterior cavity B) posterior chamber C) pupil D) anterior chamber E) vitreous chamber Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 19 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

71) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) choroid B) optic disc C) sclera D) retina E) cornea Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 72) Which structure is commonly called the blind spot? A) 4 B) 10 C) 14 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 73) Identify the structure labeled "12." A) pupil B) optic disc C) sclera D) fovea E) retina Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 74) Identify the structure labeled "14." A) pupil B) optic disc C) sclera D) fovea E) suspensory ligaments Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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75) An abnormal blind spot appearing in vision is called a(n) A) astigmatism. B) cataract. C) scotoma. D) chalazion. E) sty. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) Light refraction takes place at the A) cornea and lens. B) lens only. C) optic disc. D) cornea and optic disc. E) cornea only. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) Which of the following is not true regarding image formation? A) The greatest amount of refraction occurs at the cornea. B) The focal distance must equal the distance between the center of the lens and the retina to form a sharp image. C) A round lens has a short focal distance. D) Images arrive at the retina upside down and reversed. E) To view a distant object the lens will become rounder. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 78) The visible spectrum for humans extends between a wavelength of A) 700 and 1000 nm. B) 100 and 200 nm. C) 200 and 400 nm. D) 2000 and 2500 nm. E) 400 and 700 nm. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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79) In the human eye, most refraction occurs when light passes through the A) iris. B) cornea. C) lens. D) aqueous humor. E) vitreous humor. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) The ciliary muscle contracts to A) control the amount of light reaching the retina. B) adjust the shape of the lens for distant vision. C) adjust the shape of the lens for near vision. D) control the production of aqueous humor. E) adjust the shape of the cornea. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 81) If your vision is 20/15, this means that you can see A) 20-point font at 15 feet. B) objects at 20 feet that individuals with normal eyesight can see at 15 feet. C) objects at 15 feet that individuals with eye problems see at 20 feet. D) all 15 eye chart letters from 20 feet. E) objects that are 20 feet or less away. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 82) During accommodation, the ciliary muscle ________ causing the ciliary body to move ________ and apply ________ tension on the lens. A) relaxes; toward the lens; more B) contracts; toward the lens; less C) contracts; away from the lens; more D) relaxes; inward; less E) contracts; away from the lens; less Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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83) When light encounters a medium of different density, it is A) refracted. B) diffracted. C) reflected. D) angled. E) absorbed. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 84) An irregularity in curvature in the cornea or lens, called ________, causes a reduction in visual acuity. A) astigmatism B) glaucoma C) a cataract D) macular degeneration E) corneal atrophy Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 85) A person suffering from ________ can see objects that are close, but distant objects appear blurred. A) myopia B) hyperopia C) emmetropia D) presbyopia E) diplopia Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) A person suffering from ________ can see distant objects more clearly than those that are close. A) myopia B) hyperopia C) emmetropia D) presbyopia E) diplopia Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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87) A type of farsightedness that results from a loss of lens elasticity with age is A) myopia. B) hyperopia. C) emmetropia. D) presbyopia. E) diplopia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) Old discs shed from rods and cones are phagocytosed by A) the outer segment. B) the inner segment. C) the pigment epithelium. D) the bipolar cells. E) the ganglion cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 89) Which of the following is not true about the resting state of rods? A) It is during darkness. B) Retinal is in 11-cis form. C) Gated sodium channels are open. D) Bleaching occurs. E) Membrane potential is around -40mV. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) Rods exposed to a phosphodiesterase inhibitor would A) remain in the resting state. B) return to resting membrane potential. C) break down rhodopsin. D) cause bleaching to occur. E) decrease neurotransmitter release. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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91) Dietary deficiency of vitamin A is likely to cause A) retinitis pigmentosa. B) color blindness. C) night blindness. D) retinal detachment. E) altered depth perception. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 92) A sudden increase of light into the eye would cause A) contraction of the sphincter pupillary muscles. B) contraction of the radial pupillary muscles. C) conversion of 11-trans to 11-cis retinal. D) an increase in the size of the pupil. E) parasympathetic stimulation to the pupil. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 93) In the light-adapted state, A) photoreceptors are much more sensitive to stimulation. B) photoreceptors are much less sensitive to stimulation. C) we can only see color, and not black and white. D) we would see better in the dark. E) colors are dull. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 94) Under which condition would the release of neurotransmitter by photoreceptors be greatest? A) under normal room light B) in a pitch-black room after 30 minutes C) immediately after going outside in bright sunlight D) focusing intently on a close object E) focusing intently on a distant object Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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95) There are three different types of cones, each one sensitive to different light energies. These cones are designated A) red, yellow, blue. B) red, green, blue. C) red, green, yellow. D) yellow, red, blue. E) red, white, blue. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) The cell of the retina that produces an action potential that goes to the brain is a(n) A) bipolar cell. B) photoreceptor. C) ganglion cell. D) amacrine cell. E) horizontal cell. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) When all three cone populations are stimulated equally, we perceive A) red. B) blue. C) green. D) white. E) black. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) The first step in the process of photoreception is A) the bleaching of rods. B) the bleaching of cones. C) absorption of a photon by a visual pigment. D) inhibition of the sodium pumps. E) release of neurotransmitter. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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99) Visual pigments are derivatives of the compound A) retinal. B) opsin. C) rhodopsin. D) transducin. E) cGMP. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) The following steps occur in rods when they are excited by photons of light. What is the proper sequence for these steps? 1. Membrane sodium channels close. 2. Increased phosphodiesterase breaks down cGMP. 3. Retinal changes from the 11-cis form to the 11-trans form. 4. The membrane hyperpolarizes and the rate of neurotransmitter release declines. 5. Opsin activates transducin. 6. Opsin activation occurs. A) 1, 6, 5, 2, 4, 3 B) 3, 6, 5, 2, 1, 4 C) 6, 3, 5, 2, 1, 4 D) 3, 6, 5, 1, 2, 4 E) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 2 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 101) A period of adjustment is required when moving from a dark room into bright light because A) the breakdown of rhodopsin to opsin occurs slowly. B) the lens requires time to accommodate dim light. C) rods exposed to strong light need time to regenerate rhodopsin. D) rhodopsin does not function in dim light. E) only cones function in dim light. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 102) Where are the visual pigments located in the rods and cones? A) in the inner segment of photoreceptors B) in mitochondria located in the outer segment C) inside membrane discs stacked in the outer segment D) inside a photosensitive nucleus E) sandwiched in the cell membrane of the photoreceptors Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 27 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

103) A young child has been diagnosed with a recessive hereditary disease that results in destruction of the lateral geniculate body. The result of this would be A) inability to change the focus with your lens. B) excessive light bouncing around within the posterior portion of the eyeball. C) total blindness. D) no production of rhodopsin. E) partial loss of vision. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 104) Photoreceptor cells that are most useful in dim light are A) rods. B) cones. C) amacrine cells. D) horizontal cells. E) bipolar cells. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) Photoreceptors that convey our ability to see color are A) rods. B) cones. C) amacrine cells. D) horizontal cells. E) bipolar cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) Color blindness is a(n) A) hereditary disease involving a lack of certain cones. B) nutritional disease related to a deficiency of vitamin A. C) progressive deterioration of the ganglion cells of the retina. D) inflammatory reaction causing damage to the photoreceptors. E) infection of the retina, resulting in destruction of the cones. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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107) Otitis media is A) an infection of the pinna. B) also known as swimmer's ear. C) an infection of the middle ear. D) an infection of semicircular canals. E) a ringing in the ears. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) Our inner ear is protected from very loud noises by A) the tensor tympani stiffening the tympanic membrane. B) the stapedius reducing movement of the stapes. C) the tensory tympani stiffening the tympanic membrane and the stapedius reducing movement of the stapes. D) cerumen in the auditory canal. E) contraction of the auditory tube. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 109) Between the bony and membranous labyrinth flows ________, while the membranous labyrinth contains ________. A) perilymph; endolymph B) endolymph; perilymph C) endolymph; air D) cerebrospinal fluid; perilymph E) perilymph; air Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 110) The vestibular complex includes the A) cochlea and organ of Corti. B) cochlea and tympanic membrane. C) vestibule and semicircular canals. D) vestibule and cochlea. E) auditory ossicles and oval window. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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111) Conflicting sensory information from visual and movement signals may cause A) ringing in the ears. B) temporary deafness. C) difficulty hearing low tones. D) motion sickness. E) enhanced hearing. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) Shaking your head "no" will stimulate the hair cells of the A) anterior semicircular duct. B) lateral semicircular duct. C) posterior semicircular duct. D) utricle. E) saccule. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 113) Vertical movement is detected by which structure? A) ampullary crest of the lateral semicircular canal B) ampullary crest of the anterior semicircular canal C) ampullary crest of the posterior semicircular canal D) macula in the utricle E) macula in the saccule Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 114) The cochlear duct lies between which two structures? A) utricle and saccule B) vestibule and semicircular canals C) basilar and tectorial membranes D) scala vestibuli and scala tympani E) ganglion cells and the cochlear nerve Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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115) When the tympanic membrane vibrates with the same frequency as the incoming sound waves it is known as A) resonance. B) amplitude. C) pitch. D) hertz. E) cycles. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) As the stapes vibrates the oval window, pressure waves first begin A) in the endolymph of the scala vestibuli. B) in the endolymph of the scala tympani. C) in the perilymph of the scala vestibuli. D) in the perilymph of the scala tympani. E) in the endolymph of the cochlear duct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 117) Which structure of the brain does not receive any auditory input? A) superior olivary nucleus of the pons B) inferior colliculi of the midbrain C) auditory cortex of the temporal lobe D) medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus E) pineal gland of the epithalamus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 118) The ________ ear collects sounds waves and transmits them to the ________ ear, which contains auditory ossicles. A) inner; middle B) outer; middle C) outer; inner D) middle; inner E) superficial; deep Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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119) The external acoustic meatus ends at the A) tympanic membrane. B) auditory ossicles. C) cochlea. D) pinna. E) vestibule. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term basilar membrane? A) moves up and down due to currents in the perilymph B) transmits movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear C) supports the olfactory organ D) tiny duct necessary for the static sense of equilibrium E) covers over the oval window Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 121) The ________ convey(s) information about head position with respect to gravity. A) cochlea B) utricle C) ampulla D) saccule E) utricle and the saccule Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 122) A sound with a frequency of 12,000 hertz would A) be very loud. B) be barely audible. C) be high-pitched. D) be low-pitched. E) damage the tympanic membrane. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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123) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term otoliths? A) move up and down when the stapes moves back and forth B) transmit movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear C) bending these produces receptor potential in hair cells D) tiny weights necessary for the static sense of equilibrium E) seal the oval window Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 124) The auditory ossicles connect the A) tympanic membrane to the oval window. B) tympanic membrane to the round window. C) oval window to the round window. D) stapedius to the tympanic membrane. E) otitis to the media. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 125) The structure that forms the "roof" of the spiral organ is the A) basilar membrane. B) tectorial membrane. C) stapedius. D) perilymph. E) endolymph. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 126) The structure that supports the spiral organ is the A) tectorial membrane. B) basilar membrane. C) membranous labyrinth. D) vestibular duct. E) tympanic membrane. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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127) Gravity and linear acceleration are sensed in the A) semicircular canals. B) cochlea. C) scala tympani. D) saccule and utricle. E) spiral organ. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 128) The sensory receptors of the semicircular canals are located in the A) saccules. B) ampullary crest. C) perilymph. D) utricles. E) basilar membrane. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 129) The region of the ampulla that contains the receptors for rotational (dynamic) equilibrium are called A) utricles. B) ampullary crests. C) saccules. D) fovea. E) maculae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 130) The superficial hard part of the inner ear is called the ________ and contains ________. A) bony labyrinth; perilymph B) membranous labyrinth; perilymph C) membranous labyrinth; endolymph D) cochlea; perilymph E) bony labyrinth; endolymph Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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131) Movement of the endolymph in the semicircular canals A) produces a rushing sound. B) allows us to hear low tones. C) signals rotational movements. D) signals body position with respect to gravity. E) signals linear acceleration. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) The structure attached to the oval window that transmits vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear is the A) malleus. B) basilar membrane. C) incus. D) stapes. E) auditory tube. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 133) Low frequency sounds stimulate hair cells on which part of the basilar membrane? A) area close to the round window B) the entire membrane C) the distal end D) the middle region E) area close to the oval window Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 134) The energy from a pressure wave in the cochlear fluid is released by the bulging and stretching of the A) tectorial membrane. B) cochlear duct. C) round window. D) vestibular membrane. E) oval window. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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135) The function of the auditory tube is to A) help maintain equilibrium. B) amplify sounds. C) equalize air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane. D) redistribute endolymph after hearing a sound. E) provide a passageway for sound waves to enter the ear. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 136) Standing still in an elevator that suddenly lowers will stimulate receptors in the A) basilar membrane. B) spiral organ. C) semicircular canals. D) bony labyrinth. E) utricle and saccule. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 137) An infection that damages the vestibular nerve could result in a loss of A) hearing and equilibrium. B) olfaction. C) visual acuity. D) hearing. E) equilibrium. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 138) The hair cells of the utricle and saccule are clustered in A) ampullae. B) cristae. C) ampullary cupulae. D) maculae. E) otoconia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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139) The frequency of a perceived sound depends on A) the frequency of stereocilia vibration. B) the number of hair cells that are stimulated. C) which part of the cochlear duct is stimulated. D) the movement of perilymph in the cochlear duct. E) the frequency of vibration of the tectorial membrane. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 140) The following is a list of the steps that occur in the production of an auditory sensation. What is the proper sequence for these steps? 1. The pressure wave distorts the basilar membrane on its way to the round window. 2. Movement of the tympanic membrane causes displacement of the malleus. 3. Displacement of the stereocilia stimulates sensory neurons of the cochlear nerve. 4. Movement of the malleus causes movement of the incus and stapes. 5. Distortion of the basilar membrane forces the hair cells of the spiral organ to vibrate against the tectorial membrane. 6. Movement of the oval window establishes pressure waves in the perilymph of the scala vestibuli. A) 2, 4, 1, 6, 5, 3 B) 2, 4, 6, 3, 5, 1 C) 2, 1, 4, 6, 5, 3 D) 2, 4, 6, 1, 5, 3 E) 2, 5, 4, 6, 1, 3 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 141) Perception of gravity and linear acceleration depends on A) changes in the pressure exerted by the ampullary cupula on hair cells. B) vibrations of the tectorial membrane striking hair cells. C) the force exerted by otoliths on hair cells of the maculae. D) the movement of endolymph within the semicircular canals. E) the bending of hair cells in the ampullae. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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142) Sound waves are converted into mechanical movements by the A) auditory ossicles. B) cochlea. C) oval window. D) round window. E) tympanic membrane. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 143) The cell bodies of sensory neurons that innervate the hair cells of the cochlea form the ________ ganglion. A) vestibular B) spiral C) cochlear D) acoustic E) auditory Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 144) The vestibular nuclei at the boundary of the pons and the medulla function in all of the following except A) integrating the vestibular information arriving from each side of the head. B) relaying vestibular information to the cerebellum. C) relaying vestibular information to the cerebral cortex. D) sending commands to motor nuclei in the brain stem and spinal cord. E) sending information to the vestibular complex of the inner ear. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 145) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term stereocilia? A) move up and down when the stapes moves back and forth B) transmit movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear C) bending these produces receptor potential in hair cells D) tiny weights necessary for the static sense of equilibrium E) seal the oval window Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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146) The elevated ridges within the semicircular canals that support the hair cells are known as A) ampullary crests. B) maculae. C) canals. D) vestibules. E) otoliths. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 147) ________ fills the membranous labyrinth. A) Perilymph B) CSF C) Interstitial fluid D) Endolymph E) Blood Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 148) The ________ is a region of dense bone that surrounds and protects the membranous labyrinth. A) sella turcica B) ossicle C) auditory canal D) membranous labyrinth E) bony labyrinth Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 149) ________ is a fluid similar to cerebrospinal fluid that fills the space between the bony labyrinth and the membranous labyrinth. A) Perilymph B) Endoplasma C) Interstitial fluid D) Endolymph E) Blood Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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150) The hair cells of the cochlear duct are located in the A) spiral organ. B) ossicles. C) ampullary crest. D) utricle. E) saccule. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 151) ________ deafness results from conditions in the outer or middle ear that block the transfer of vibrations from the environment to the tympanic membrane or to the oval window. A) Sensory B) Nerve C) Conductive D) Mechanical E) Macular Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 152) ________ deafness occurs because of a problem in the cochlea or somewhere along the auditory pathway. A) Vibrational B) Nerve C) Conductive D) Mechanical E) Macular Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 153) Abnormal jumpy eye movements that may appear after brain stem or inner ear damage are called A) tinnitus. B) vertigo. C) strabismus. D) nystagmus. E) trismus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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154) ________ sensations inform us of the position of the head in space by monitoring gravity, linear acceleration, and rotation. A) Nociceptor B) Proprioceptor C) Olfactory D) Gustatory E) Vestibular Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 155) When you spin quickly, you may feel dizzy. Which component of the inner ear generates the sensations that can lead to this feeling? A) spiral organ B) maculae C) otoliths D) semicircular canals E) ossicles Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 17-2 The Ear Use Figure 17-2 to answer the following questions: 156) Identify the structures labeled "8." A) cochlea B) auditory ossicles C) auricle D) tympanic membrane E) vestibule Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 157) Which structure contains the receptors for hearing? A) 6 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10 E) 11 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 42 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

158) Which structure is known as the vestibule? A) 6 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10 E) 11 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 159) Identify the structure that is called the pinna or auricle. A) 1 B) 5 C) 6 D) 8 E) 9 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 160) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) cochlea B) semicircular canals C) auricle D) tympanic membrane E) vestibule Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Choose the correct word from each pairing: The lacrimal gland is located (inferior, superior) and (lateral, medial) to the eye. (Figure 17-4) A) inferior; lateral B) inferior; medial C) superior; lateral D) superior; medial Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Amacrine cells are found where what other types of cells synapse? Horizontal cells are found where what other types of cells synapse? (Figure 17-7) A) bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells; photoreceptors synapse with bipolar cells B) photoreceptors synapse with bipolar cells; bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells C) photoreceptors synapse with ganglion cells; bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells D) horizontal cells synapse with photoreceptors; amacrine cells synapse with ganglion cells E) horizontal cells synapse with bipolar cells; amacrine cells synapse with bipolar cells Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) The tympanic cavity and auditory ossicles are found in which anatomical region of the ear? (Figure 17-21) A) external ear B) middle ear C) internal ear D) temporal ear E) vestibule of ear Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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4) The scala vestibuli and scala tympani contain a different fluid than the cochlear duct. What type of fluid does each chamber contain? (Figure 17-28) A) The scala vestibuli and scala tympani contain vitreous humor; the cochlear duct contains aqueous humor. B) The scala vestibuli and scala tympani contain aqueous humor; the cochlear duct contains vitreous humor. C) The scala vestibuli and scala tympani contain perilymph, the cochlear duct contains endolymph. D) The scala vestibuli and scala tympani contain endolymph, the cochlear duct contains perilymph. E) The scala vestibuli and scala tympani contain CSF; the cochlear duct contains otoliths. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Essay Questions 1) Robbie has been diagnosed with pigmentary glaucoma. In this type of glaucoma, pigment granules from the iris break off into the aqueous humor. Describe the steps of aqueous humor formation, circulation, and drainage and how glaucoma may develop. Answer: The epithelial cells of the ciliary processes of the ciliary body produce aqueous humor. It is secreted into the posterior chamber then flows into the anterior chamber through the pupil. After filtering through connective tissues at the base of the iris it enters the scleral venous sinus into veins in the sclera. If pigment pieces block the scleral venous sinus canal the fluid that is continuously produced cannot drain at the same rate and intraocular pressure will increase causing glaucoma. Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 2) Sally's driver's license indicates that she must wear glasses when she drives. She does not need glasses to see objects that are close. What type of lenses is in Sally's eyeglasses? How do they work? Answer: Sally is apparently nearsighted (myopic) and needs diverging lenses to correct the condition by moving the focal distance back in the eye to the retina. Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 3) Trace the pathway of a nerve impulse from the eye to the cortex. Answer: ganglion cell → optic nerve (cranial nerve I) through optic chiasm → lateral geniculate nucleus of thalamus → primary visual cortex (occipital lobe) Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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4) What six basic steps are involved in the process of hearing? Answer: (1) Sound waves arrive at the tympanic membrane. (2) Movement of the tympanic membrane causes displacement of the auditory ossicles. (3) Movement of the stapes at the oval window establishes pressure waves in the perilymph of the vestibular duct. (4) The pressure waves distort the basilar membrane on their way to the round window of the tympanic duct. (5) Vibration of the basilar membrane causes vibration of hair cells and bending of stereocilia against the tectorial membrane. (6) Information about the region and intensity of stimulation is relayed to the brain stem over the cochlear branch of N VIII. Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 5) Each of the special senses can be expected to decline in some way over time. Describe some of the changes commonly seen in the function of the special senses with age. Answer: Olfactory receptors are reduced in number and olfactory glands decline in activity. Both changes reduce olfactory acuity. Gustatory sense declines with a decline in the number of taste buds and taste receptors. Vision suffers from a loss of retinal function, clouding of lens and cornea, and loss of lens elasticity, leading to senile hyperopia (presbyopia). Hearing declines due to accumulation of cerumen, scarring of the tympanum, arthritis of the ossicular chain, and loss of proximal hair cells in the organ of Corti, leading to high-tone deafness. Balance declines due to nerve problems, fluid problems, and vascular problems, leading to faulty or delayed vestibular information. That decline coupled with a sluggish and weak motor response increases the risk of falls and consequent trauma. Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 6) How would blockage of the auditory (Eustachian) tube at its exit in the nasopharynx by lymphatic tissue ("adenoids") affect ear function and health? Answer: Blockage of the auditory tube leads to pain because pressure cannot equilibrate between the middle ear and the atmosphere. Also, fluid can accumulate (otitis media) in the middle ear, which is also painful and potentially infective. Untreated, adenoids can lead to scarring of the tympanum and some loss of hearing. Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 18 The Endocrine System Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is true of the endocrine system? A) It responds rapidly to stimuli. B) It responds specifically to digestive stimuli. C) It communicates by the release of neurotransmitters. D) It responds with motor output. E) It responds slowly but effectively for maintaining homeostatic functions. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Endocrine cells A) are a type of nerve cell. B) release their secretions onto an epithelial surface. C) release their secretions directly into body fluids such as blood. D) contain few vesicles. E) are modified connective tissue cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) ________ are chemical messengers that are released by cells and transported in the bloodstream to alter the activities of specific cells in other tissues. A) Hormones B) Neuropeptides C) Neurotransmitters D) Humoral antibodies E) Antigens Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) A hormone might A) alter a membrane channel by changing its shape, thereby affecting what can go through it. B) depolarize a skeletal muscle cell. C) interfere with norepinephrine at a neuronal synapse. D) inactivate glucose so it cannot be used by a cell. E) block the production of a cell membrane. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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5) Which of the following is not true regarding target cells? A) They have receptors for a specific hormone. B) They can be anywhere in the body. C) They are associated with synapses. D) They can respond to more than one hormone if they have receptors for each one. E) If a target cell lacks receptors for a hormone then it cannot bind that hormone. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 6) Hormones known as "catecholamines" are A) lipids. B) peptides. C) steroids. D) derivatives of the amino acid tyrosine. E) derivatives of reproductive glands. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) Peptide hormones are A) composed of amino acids. B) produced by the adrenal glands. C) derived from the amino acid tyrosine. D) lipids. E) chemically related to cholesterol. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) A kinase is an enzyme that performs A) phosphorylation. B) as a membrane channel. C) active transport. D) protein synthesis. E) as an antibody. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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9) Calcium ions serve as messengers, often in combination with the intracellular protein A) calcitonin. B) calcitriol. C) calmodulin. D) calcium-binding globulin. E) calcitropin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 10) Which of the following substances activates protein kinases and thus acts as a second messenger? A) insulin B) ACTH C) epinephrine D) cyclic AMP E) TSH Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 11) All of the following are true of steroid hormones except that they A) are produced by the adrenal medulla. B) are derived from cholesterol. C) are produced by reproductive glands. D) bind to receptors within the cell. E) are lipids. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) Each of the following hormones is an amino acid derivative except A) epinephrine. B) norepinephrine. C) thyroid hormone. D) testosterone. E) melatonin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) Membrane receptors are used by which of the following types of hormones? A) catecholamines B) peptide hormones C) eicosanoids D) thyroid E) catecholamines, peptide hormones, and eicosanoids Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 14) Steroid hormones A) are proteins. B) cannot diffuse through cell membranes. C) bind to receptors in the nucleus of their target cells. D) act on target cells by activating second messenger cascades. E) are transported in the blood dissolved in the plasma. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) When a catecholamine or peptide hormone binds to receptors on the surface of a cell, the A) hormone receptor complex moves into the cytoplasm. B) cell membrane becomes depolarized. C) second messenger appears in the cytoplasm. D) cell becomes inactive. E) hormone is transported to the nucleus where it alters the activity of DNA. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Hormones can be divided into different groups based on their chemistry. These categories include all of the following except A) peptides. B) steroids. C) eicosanoids. D) amino acid derivatives. E) acetylcholine derivatives. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) Hormonal actions on cells affect all of the following except A) quantities of enzymes. B) activities of enzymes. C) synthesis of enzymes. D) gating of ion channels. E) thickness of the plasma membrane. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 18) The link between a first messenger and a second messenger in a cell that responds to peptide hormones is usually A) cAMP. B) cGMP. C) adenyl cyclase. D) a G protein. E) calcium ion levels. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) When adenyl cyclase is activated, A) ATP is consumed. B) cAMP is formed. C) cAMP is broken down. D) ATP is produced. E) ATP is consumed and cAMP is formed. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) After a steroid hormone binds to its receptor to form an active complex, A) adenyl cyclase is activated. B) cyclic nucleotides are formed. C) G proteins are phosphylated. D) gene transcription is initiated. E) protein kinases are activated. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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21) The humoral control of hormone release may be triggered which of the following factors? A) blood level of an ion like calcium B) blood level of a pituitary hormone C) blood level of a hypothalamic hormone D) nervous stimuli E) neurotransmitter activation Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 22) Which of the following hormones is/are water soluble and therefore bind(s) to extracellular receptors? A) insulin B) epinephrine C) cortisol D) calcitriol E) insulin and epinephrine Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 23) If the adenyl cyclase activity of liver cells were missing, which of these hormones could no longer stimulate release of glucose? A) progesterone B) glucagon C) cortisol D) thyroxine E) leptin Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 24) Increased activity of phosphodiesterase in a target cell would decrease its level of A) testosterone. B) estrogen. C) thyroid hormone. D) cAMP. E) progesterone. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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25) The intracellular protein ________ binds calcium ion. This complex can then activate enzymes. A) prostaglandin B) phosphodiesterase C) cyclic AMP D) calmodulin E) kinase Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) Receptors for ________, peptide hormones, and eicosanoids are found in the cell membranes of target cells. A) catecholamines B) carbohydrates C) kinases D) genes E) acetylcholine Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 27) Cells that respond to a hormone are called ________ cells. A) stem B) pluripotent C) germ D) target E) peripheral Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) One cause for insulin resistance in non-insulin dependent (Type II) diabetes is A) insulin receptor up-regulation. B) decreased insulin secretion. C) decreased cortisol secretion. D) insulin receptor down-regulation. E) cortisol receptor up-regulation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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29) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the second-messenger mechanism of hormone action? A) Hormone effects are amplified. B) G proteins and cAMP are used. C) Receptors are on the cell surface. D) Cellular operations are altered by direct stimulation of a gene. E) Kinases may phosphorylate proteins. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 30) Upon binding of a single first messenger to a plasma membrane, thousands of second messengers may become activated. This effect is known as A) receptor down-regulation. B) receptor up-regulation. C) amplification. D) humoral stimuli. E) synergism. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) Intracellular calcium stores open in response to intracellular activation of A) protein kinase C, diacylglycerol, and inositol triphosphate. B) calmodulin. C) leukotrienes. D) adenylate cyclase. E) phosphodiesterase, adenylate cyclase, and prostacyclins. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) Leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and thromboxanes are all examples of A) amino acid derivatives. B) eicosanoids. C) tyrosine derivatives. D) glycoproteins. E) steroid hormones. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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33) Which hormone is not correctly matched? A) epinephrine: amino acid derivative B) insulin: peptide hormone C) testosterone: amino acid derivative D) cortisol: lipid derivative E) eicosanoids: lipid derivative Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) The hypothalamus acts as both a neural and a(n) ________ organ. A) endocrine B) cardiovascular C) renal D) muscular E) hepatic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 35) The most complex endocrine responses involve the A) thyroid gland. B) pancreas. C) adrenal glands. D) hypothalamus. E) thymus gland. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 36) Destruction of the supra-optic nucleus of the hypothalamus would have which of the following results? A) loss of ADH secretion B) loss of GH secretion C) loss of melatonin secretion D) loss of thyroid stimulating hormone secretion E) loss of prolactin secretion Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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37) If the hypophyseal portal system is destroyed, the hypothalamus would no longer be able to control the secretion of which of the following hormones? A) TSH B) ACTH C) PRL D) ADH and OXT E) TSH, ACTH, PRL Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 38) Changes in blood osmotic pressure would most affect the secretion of A) ACTH. B) ADH. C) oxytocin. D) TSH. E) LH. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) The hypothalamus controls secretion in the adenohypophysis by A) direct neural stimulation. B) indirect osmotic control. C) secreting releasing and inhibiting hormones into the hypophysealportal system. D) altering ion concentrations and pH in the anterior pituitary. E) gap synaptic junctions. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 40) Neurons of the supra-optic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus manufacture A) CRF and GnRH. B) TSH and FSH. C) ADH and oxytocin. D) FSH and PRL. E) GHIH and GHRH. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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41) The main action of antidiuretic hormone is A) increased water conservation by kidneys. B) to stimulate kidney cells to secrete renin. C) increase urine output to remove excess fluid. D) increased blood pressure by increased Na+ reabsorption. E) inhibition of aldosterone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 42) Excess secretion of growth hormone during early development will cause A) dwarfism. B) rickets. C) gigantism. D) acromegaly. E) diabetes insipidus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) Which of the following hormones may lead to acromegaly if hypersecreted after closure of the epiphyseal plates? A) cortisol B) parathyroid hormone C) insulin D) growth hormone E) epinephrine Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 44) The hormone produced by the pars intermedia of the adenohypophysis during early childhood is A) FSH. B) ADH. C) TSH. D) MSH. E) ACTH. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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45) Each of the following hormones is produced by the pars distalis of the adenohypophysis except A) FSH. B) oxytocin. C) TSH. D) corticotropin. E) somatotropin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) All of the following are true of oxytocin except? A) It promotes uterine contractions. B) It is responsible for milk expression from the mammary glands. C) It triggers prostate gland contraction. D) It is produced in the hypothalamus. E) It is stored in the anterior pituitary. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 47) Growth hormone does all of the following except A) promote bone growth. B) promote muscle growth. C) promote cortisol release. D) spare glucose. E) promote amino acid uptake by cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) Liver cells respond to growth hormone by releasing hormones called A) gonadotrophins. B) prostaglandins. C) hepatic hormones. D) somatomedins. E) glucocorticoids. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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49) The pituitary hormone that triggers the release of thyroid hormone from the thyroid gland is A) TSH. B) ACTH. C) FSH. D) LH. E) GH. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) The pituitary hormone that controls the release of glucocorticoids from the adrenal cortex is A) TSH. B) ACTH. C) FSH. D) LH. E) GH. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) The pituitary hormone that promotes egg development in ovaries and sperm development in testes is A) TSH. B) ACTH. C) FSH. D) LH. E) GH. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) The pituitary hormone that promotes ovarian secretion of progesterone and testicular secretion of testosterone is A) TSH. B) ACTH. C) FSH. D) LH. E) GH. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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53) The pituitary hormone that stimulates milk production by the mammary glands is A) TSH. B) ACTH. C) growth hormone. D) FSH. E) prolactin. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) The pituitary hormone that stimulates cell growth and replication by accelerating protein synthesis is A) ACTH. B) MSH. C) prolactin. D) insulin. E) growth hormone. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) After brain surgery, a patient receiving postoperative care in an intensive care unit began to pass large volumes of very dilute urine. The ICU nurse administered a medicine that mimics one of the following hormones. Which one? A) aldosterone B) epinephrine C) renin D) ADH E) cortisol Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 56) The term used to describe excess production of urine is A) polyuria. B) polydipsia. C) hematuria. D) glycosuria. E) polyphagia. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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57) The two lobes of the pituitary gland together produce or store how many hormones? A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9 E) 16 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) The hormone(s) that may be slowly administered by intravenous drip to accelerate labor and delivery is/are A) oxytocin. B) prolactin. C) luteinizing hormone. D) follicle stimulating hormone. E) both oxytocin and luteinizing hormone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 59) The posterior lobe of the pituitary is also known as the A) basal ganglion. B) infundibulum. C) adenohypophysis. D) mesencephalon. E) neurohypophysis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) The anterior lobe of the pituitary is also known as the A) basal ganglion. B) infundibulum. C) adenohypophysis. D) mesencephalon. E) neurohypophysis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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61) The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland can be divided into three parts: the pars distalis, the pars intermedia, and the pars A) tuberalis. B) nervosa. C) pinea. D) intermedia. E) magnus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) Hormones produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland that regulate the male and female reproductive organs are collectively called A) tropic hormones. B) androgens. C) somatotropins. D) immunogens. E) gonadotropins. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) Abnormally low production of LH and FSH results in A) diabetes insipidus. B) a diabetogenic effect. C) hypogonadism. D) a glucose-sparing effect. E) hypocortisolism. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) Vasopressin is a common term for this hormone. A) ADH B) GH C) oxytocin D) prolactin E) TSH Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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65) The pituitary gland is located within this structure. A) the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone B) hypoglossal canal C) crista galli D) sella turcica of the sphenoid bone E) petrous part of the temporal bone Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) Milk production is stimulated by ________, milk ejection is stimulated by ________. A) somatomedin; MSH B) prolactin; oxytocin C) oxytocin; prolactin D) MSH; somatomedin E) LH; FSH Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) All of the following are functions of LH except A) triggering ovulation. B) stimulating secretion of testosterone. C) stimulating the formation of the corpus luteum. D) stimulating the secretion of progesterone. E) stimulating follicle development. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) A tumor in the pituitary gland could directly result in all of the following except A) hypercortisolism. B) pituitary dwarfism. C) diabetes insipidus. D) gigantism. E) hypogonadism. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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69) Hormones that stimulate endocrine glands to release other hormones are A) humoral. B) tropic. C) reflexive. D) up-regulators. E) paracrine factors. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) Hypophyseal portal system capillaries are A) lined by tight junctions. B) lined by microglial cells. C) fenestrated. D) impermeable. E) lined by podocytes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 18-1 Pituitary Hormones and Their Targets Use Figure 18-1 to answer the following questions: 71) Identify the hormone labeled "4." A) thyroid-releasing hormone B) thyroid-stimulating hormone C) thyroxin D) thyrotropin E) calcitonin Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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72) Identify the hormone labeled "1." A) mineralocorticoid B) cortisol C) dopamine D) ACTH E) aldosterone Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 73) A deficiency of which hormone can lead to diabetes insipidus? A) 3 B) 7 C) 2 D) 8 E) 14 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 74) Identify the hormone labeled "5." A) thyroid-releasing hormone B) thyroid-stimulating hormone C) thyroxine D) thyrotropin E) parathyroid hormone (PTH) Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 75) Identify the hormone labeled "13." A) LH B) progesterone C) estrogen D) oxytocin E) testosterone Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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76) Which of the following elements is necessary for the production of thyroid hormone? A) sodium B) iodine C) potassium D) iron E) colloid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) Activity of which of the following cells is inhibited by calcitonin release? A) alpha cells B) osteoclasts C) osteoblasts D) C cells E) all cells in the body Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 78) All of the following are known effects of thyroid hormone on peripheral tissues except A) increased oxygen consumption. B) increased heart rate. C) increased sensitivity to autonomic stimulation. D) increased body temperature. E) decreased cellular metabolism. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) Mental and physical sluggishness and low body temperature may be signs of A) hyperthyroidism. B) hypothyroidism. C) hyperparathyroidism. D) hypoparathyroidism. E) diabetes insipidus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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80) The hormone that plays a pivotal role in setting the metabolic rate and thus impacting body temperature is A) somatotropin. B) thyroxine. C) calcitonin. D) parathyroid hormone. E) glucagon. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 81) A hormone that can lower blood levels of calcium ion is A) parathyroid hormone. B) thyroxine. C) calcitonin. D) glucagon. E) oxytocin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) The C cells of the thyroid gland produce A) thyroxine. B) TSH. C) calcitonin. D) PTH. E) triiodothyronine. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) Increased levels of the hormone ________ will lead to decreased levels of calcium ion in the blood via inhibition of ________. A) thymosin; osteocytes B) calcitonin; osteoclasts C) PTH; osteocytes D) aldosterone; osteoclasts E) cortisol; osteoblasts Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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84) Where does the chemical reaction between thyroglobulin and iodine take place? A) in lysosomes B) in rough endoplasmic reticulum C) in the follicle cavity D) in pinocytotic vesicles E) in apical microvilli Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 85) TSH plays a key role in the ________ of thyroid hormones. A) inhibition B) synthesis C) release D) inhibition and secretion E) synthesis and release Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 86) The control of calcitonin excretion is an example of direct ________ regulation. A) endocrine B) pancreatic C) homeostatic D) hepatic E) vascular Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) Thyroxine and calcitonin are secreted by the A) kidneys. B) heart. C) thyroid gland. D) gonads. E) pituitary gland. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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88) Which of the following is not an action of TSH? A) stimulates T3 and T4 secretion B) stimulates iodide trapping by thyroid follicle cells C) inhibits T3 and T4 secretion D) stimulates pinocytosis of colloid by thyroid follicle cells E) increases cyclic AMP concentration within thyroid follicle cells Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 89) The two lobes of the thyroid gland are connected by the A) isthmus. B) pars intermedia. C) commissure. D) aqueduct. E) infundibulum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) The thyroid gland is composed of many ________ that produce and store thyroid hormone. A) tubules B) follicles C) ducts D) capillaries E) plexuses Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) Thyroid hormones are structural derivatives of the amino acid A) glutamic acid. B) epinephrine. C) iodine. D) tyrosine. E) glycine. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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92) The specific target cells of the thyroid hormones, thyroxine and triiodothyronine are A) the cells of the parathyroid glands. B) the cells of the pituitary gland. C) all cells of the body. D) the cells of the ovaries and testes. E) the cells of the thymus gland. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 93) Follicle cells synthesize a protein called A) calcitonin. B) thyroglobulin. C) transthyretin. D) albumin. E) colloid. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) The majority of thyroid hormones are secreted as ________ but small amounts of ________ is also secreted from the follicle. A) transthyretin; calcitonin B) T3; calcitonin C) T4; T3 D) thyroglobulin; transthyretin E) calcitonin; colloid Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) Thyroid hormone may increase cellular ATP production by binding to A) the cytoplasm. B) the outer surface of the plasma membrane. C) the inner surface of the plasma membrane. D) the mitochondria. E) the vesicles. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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96) If dietary iodine levels are deficient you would expect that plasma TSH levels would be ________ and that plasma thyroxine levels would be ________. A) high; low B) low; high C) unchanged; low D) low; unchanged E) low; low Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 97) Before the discovery of these glands, thyroid surgery often led to a rapid drop in blood calcium levels, which triggered muscle contractions and cardiac arrhythmias. What glands are these and which hormone is lacking? A) thyroid glands; calcitonin B) parathyroid glands; calcitonin C) parathyroid glands; parathyroid hormone D) thyroid glands; levothyroxine E) parathyroid glands; levothyroxine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 98) Parathyroid hormone does all of the following except A) stimulate osteoclast activity. B) inhibit osteoblast activity. C) build up bone. D) stimulate the formation and secretion of calcitriol at the kidneys. E) enhance the reabsorption of calcium at the kidneys. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 99) The hormone that does the opposite of calcitonin is A) insulin. B) glucagon. C) growth hormone. D) parathyroid hormone. E) thyroid hormone. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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100) The parathyroid glands produce a hormone that A) stimulates the formation of white blood cells. B) increases the level of calcium ions in the blood. C) increases the level of sodium ions in the blood. D) increases the level of potassium ions in the blood. E) increases the level of glucose in the blood. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) A tumor present on the parathyroid gland causing hyperparathyroidism may lead to A) osteoporosis and kidney stones. B) diabetes mellitus and hypercortisolism. C) diabetes mellitus. D) diabetes insipidus. E) hypogonadism. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 102) The zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex produces A) androgens. B) glucocorticoids. C) mineralocorticoids. D) epinephrine. E) norepinephrine. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 103) The zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex produces A) androgens. B) glucocorticoids. C) mineralocorticoids. D) epinephrine. E) norepinephrine. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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104) The zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex produces A) androgens. B) glucocorticoids. C) mineralocorticoids. D) epinephrine. E) norepinephrine. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) The adrenal medulla produces A) androgens. B) glucocorticoids. C) mineralocorticoids. D) catecholamines. E) corticosteroids. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) A hormone that promotes gluconeogenesis in the liver is A) aldosterone. B) erythropoietin. C) thymosin. D) cortisol. E) calcitonin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) A hormone that helps to regulate the sodium ion content of the body is A) cortisol. B) parathormone. C) thymosin. D) somatotropin. E) aldosterone. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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108) Cushing's disease results from an excess of A) growth hormone. B) parathyroid hormone. C) ADH. D) glucocorticoids. E) epinephrine. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 109) Reduction of fluid losses at the kidneys due to the retention of Na+ is the action of A) antidiuretic hormone. B) calcitonin. C) aldosterone. D) cortisone. E) oxytocin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 110) The adrenal medulla produces the hormones A) synephrine and neosynephrine. B) epinephrine and norepinephrine. C) corticosterone and testosterone. D) androgens and progesterone. E) cortisone and cortisol. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) Damage to cells of the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex would result in A) the loss of axillary and pubic hair. B) increased volume of urine formation. C) decreased levels of sodium ion in the blood. D) decreased ability to convert amino acids to glucose. E) increased water retention. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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112) A rise in cortisol would cause an increase in each of the following except A) the rate of glucose synthesis by the liver. B) the rate of glycogen formation by the liver. C) the level of fatty acids in the blood. D) fatty acid metabolism by muscle cells. E) ACTH levels. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 113) If a patient is administered a powerful glucocorticoid (such as prednisone) to suppress the immune system, what unintended effects might this have on blood chemistry? A) increase of sodium B) decrease of sodium C) increase of blood glucose D) decrease of blood glucose E) both an increase in insulin and an increase in glucose Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 114) Hyposecretion of cortisol causes A) goiter. B) diabetes mellitus. C) diabetes insipidus. D) Addison's disease. E) Cushing's disease. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) A hormone that is synergistic to growth hormone is A) aldosterone. B) insulin. C) cortisol. D) calcitonin. E) renin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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116) Which of the following hormones increases and prolongs effects of the sympathetic nervous system? A) cortisol B) parathyroid hormone C) insulin D) growth hormone E) acetylcholine Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 117) Which gland is called the "emergency gland" and helps the body adjust to stress? A) thyroid B) adrenal (suprarenal) C) pituitary D) pancreas E) thymus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 118) Which group of hormones cause an anti-inflammatory action? A) thyroglobulins B) mineralocorticoids C) pancreatic hormones D) antidiuretic hormones E) glucocorticoids Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 119) Hormones from the adrenal cortex that regulate electrolyte balance are A) antidiuretics. B) calcitonin and parathyroid hormone. C) mineralocorticoids. D) androgens. E) glucocorticoids. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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120) During dehydration the body would increase production of A) aldosterone and cortisol. B) cortisol and ADH. C) epinephrine and cortisol. D) aldosterone and ADH. E) epinephrine and ADH. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 121) Which hormone may be prescribed in chronic inflammatory disorders such as Lupus? A) aldosterone B) cortisol C) androgens D) calcitonin E) insulin Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 122) The adrenal medulla primarily secretes A) epinephrine. B) norepinephrine. C) dopamine. D) cortisol. E) aldosterone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 123) Excess production of hormones by the zona reticularis may lead to which disorder? A) aldosteronism B) gigantism C) pheochromocytoma D) adrenogenital syndrome E) Cushing's disease Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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124) A patient is receiving exogenous cortisol in the form of hydrocortisone shots for a sinus infection. Their natural adrenal secretion of cortisol will decrease due to negative feedback on the ________ reducing the secretion of ________. A) hypothalamus; ACTH B) anterior pituitary; CRH C) hypothalamus; cortisol D) anterior pituitary; cortisol E) anterior pituitary; ACTH Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 125) Which of the following is false concerning melatonin? A) Exposure to light inhibits production. B) Exposure to light stimulates production. C) It inhibits releases of GnRH. D) It is produced by pinealocytes. E) It is made from serotonin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 126) Melatonin is produced by the A) thymus. B) pineal gland. C) kidneys. D) skin. E) heart. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 127) Each of the following is true of the pineal gland except that it A) is a component of the epithalamus. B) is a component of the hypothalamus. C) secretes melatonin. D) contains pinealocytes. E) responds to light and darkness. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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128) The condition known as seasonal affective disorder (SAD) may be caused by A) increased levels of melanin. B) increased levels of melatonin. C) increased levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone. D) increased levels of gonadotrophins. E) decreased levels of testosterone. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 129) All of the following may be functions of melatonin except that it A) can act as an antioxidant. B) protects against free-radicals. C) may maintain circadian rhythms. D) can act as an insulin synergist. E) may influence sexual maturation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 130) Alpha cells are to ________ as beta cells are to ________. A) glucagon; insulin B) somatostatin; insulin C) insulin; glucagon D) glucagon; somatostatin E) pancreatic polypeptide; insulin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 131) If a diabetic patient received too much insulin, the low blood sugar could be corrected by injecting A) glucagon. B) GHIH. C) thyroid hormone. D) aldosterone. E) antidiuretic hormone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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132) The pancreatic hormone that causes blood sugar levels to fall is A) cortisol. B) somatotropin. C) insulin. D) glucagon. E) aldosterone. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 133) In persons with untreated diabetes mellitus all of the following are true, except A) blood glucose levels are very high. B) excessive thirst is shown. C) glucose is present in the urine in large amounts. D) a large excretion of urine occurs. E) intracellular and tissue levels of glucose is very high. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 134) Which of the following might occur in an overdose of insulin? A) glycosuria B) ketoacidosis C) high blood glucose D) low blood glucose E) polyuria Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 135) Which of the following statements is true about the pancreas? A) The pancreas lies over the top of the stomach. B) The sole function of the pancreas is to produce hormones. C) The pituitary gland produces stimulating hormones that control the pancreas. D) The islets contain a variety of different cells producing different hormones. E) The pancreas stores glucose, which can be released into the blood. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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136) When blood glucose levels fall, A) insulin is released. B) glucagon is released. C) peripheral cells take up more glucose. D) protein synthesis increases. E) calcitonin is secreted. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 137) The beta cells of the pancreatic islets produce A) insulin. B) glucagon. C) somatostatin. D) cortisol. E) peptide P. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 138) The delta cells of the pancreatic islets produce A) insulin. B) glucagon. C) somatostatin. D) cortisol. E) peptide P. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 139) Type II diabetes is characterized by A) a lack of response by target cells to insulin. B) a decrease in secretion by pancreatic beta cells. C) excessive secretion of glucagon. D) inadequate insulin production. E) low blood-glucose concentration. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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140) Which of the following hormones stimulates skeletal muscle fibers to take in glucose from the blood? A) calcitonin B) cortisol C) insulin D) glucagon E) parathyroid hormone Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 141) Which of the following directly regulates the secretion of insulin? A) parasympathetic nervous system B) sympathetic nervous system C) blood glucose concentration D) hypothalamus E) tropic hormones from the pituitary gland Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 142) All of the pancreatic hormones are regulated by A) the adenohypophysis. B) the liver. C) the neurohypophysis. D) the thyroid gland. E) nutrient concentrations in the blood. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 143) Cells in the brain A) can absorb glucose without insulin stimulation. B) prefer fats to glucose for energy production. C) are sensitive to insulin but not to glucagon. D) are very sensitive to high concentrations of glucagon. E) can store glycogen, to be used later for glucose release. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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144) Inability of the pancreas to produce insulin results in A) acromegaly. B) goiter. C) diabetes mellitus. D) diabetes insipidus. E) Addison's disease. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 145) Which problem is related to untreated diabetes mellitus? A) damage to the retina B) neuropathy C) gastric ulcers D) goiter E) retinal problems and nerve problems Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 146) Type 2 diabetes A) can usually be controlled by diet and exercise rather than with medication. B) is associated with an immune reaction to the pancreatic cells. C) is a lack of insulin production. D) is typically diagnosed in the very young. E) is not as common as type 1 diabetes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 147) Which hormone is not produced by the pancreas? A) glucagon B) pancreatic polypeptide C) somatostatin D) calcitriol E) insulin Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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148) At about 4pm in the afternoon, you could expect that ________ will be released if you have not eaten since 12pm. A) insulin B) glucagon C) melatonin D) pancreatic polypeptide E) insulin and glucagon Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 149) Which of the following is not true regarding Type 1 Diabetes? A) pancreatic destruction of beta cells B) need insulin injections or infusion C) tissues exhibit insulin resistance D) accounts for only about 5% of cases of diabetes E) usually diagnosed in children or young adults Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 150) Poorly managed diabetes can adversely affect which organ(s)? A) kidneys B) eyes C) heart and blood vessels D) nerves E) kidneys, eyes, nerves, heart and blood vessels Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 151) The interstitial endocrine cells of the testes produce A) LH. B) progesterone. C) testosterone. D) inhibin. E) FSH. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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152) Follicle cells in the ovary secrete ________ when stimulated by FSH. A) estrogen B) progesterone C) testosterone D) inhibin E) gonadotropins Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 153) A structure known as the corpus luteum secretes A) testosterone. B) progesterone. C) aldosterone. D) cortisone. E) androstenedione. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 154) The hormone that opposes the release of FSH in both males and females is A) testosterone. B) LH. C) inhibin. D) aldosterone. E) somatostatin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 155) The hormones that are important for coordinating the immune response are A) thymosins. B) corticosteroids. C) aldosterones. D) thyroxines. E) somatotropins. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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156) Which of the following hormones increases production of red blood cells? A) cortisol B) erythropoietin C) thymosin D) aldosterone E) atrial natriuretic peptide Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 157) Cholecalciferol is synthesized within the A) bone marrow of the skeletal system. B) splenic pulp of the lymphatic system. C) endothelial linings of the cardiovascular system. D) hypothalamus of the nervous system. E) epidermis of the integumentary system. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 158) The heart secretes the hormone A) progesterone. B) oxytocin. C) thymosin. D) thyroxine. E) atrial natriuretic peptide. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 159) Adipocytes produce a peptide hormone called ________ that acts on the hypothalamus. A) leptin B) grehlin C) lipase D) glucagon E) adipocin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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160) The hormone related to appetite control is A) thymosin. B) brain natriuretic peptide. C) melanin. D) leptin. E) erythropoietin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 161) Why might someone want to take erythropoietin in a non-medical situation? A) to increase muscle mass B) to sleep C) to increase oxygen-carrying capacity and increase stamina D) to increase the chance of getting pregnant E) to increase sex drive Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 162) The effects of this hormone oppose aldosterone. A) ADH B) oxytocin C) inhibin D) atrial natriuretic peptide E) renin Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 163) This hormone is released in response to PTH and its actions are synergistic to PTH. A) calcitriol B) calcitonin C) inhibin D) cholecystokinin E) pancreatic polypeptide Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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164) Which is not a component of the RAAS and does not contribute to blood volume and electrolyte homeostasis? A) renin B) angiotensin C) ADH D) aldosterone E) androgens Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 165) Increased aggressive and assertive behavior is associated with an increase in which of the following hormones? A) somatostatin B) thyroxine C) growth hormone D) androgens E) insulin Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 166) The hormone that dominates during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is A) testosterone. B) aldosterone. C) cortisol. D) thyroid hormone. E) epinephrine. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 167) You have just become the nurse manager of a nursing home and you are reminding yourself about what problems your nursing home population might have by studying your old pathophysiology books from nursing school. Many of the residents are tired and have problems with blood glucose levels. All of the following hormones might be related except A) insulin. B) cortisol. C) thymosin. D) thyroid hormones. E) GH. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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168) During the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS), there is A) decreased blood flow to skeletal muscles and skin. B) decreased mental alertness. C) mobilization of energy reserves. D) increased urine release. E) decreased rate of respiration. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 169) If stress lasts longer than a few hours, an individual will enter the ________ phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS). A) alarm B) resistance C) exhaustion D) extension E) prolonged Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 170) Hormones that dominate during the resistance phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) are the A) mineralocorticoids. B) androgens. C) glucocorticoids. D) catecholamines. E) gonadotropins. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 171) During the resistance phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS), A) lipid reserves are mobilized. B) proteins are conserved. C) blood glucose levels fall drastically. D) levels of growth hormone decrease. E) levels of insulin decrease. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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172) The exhaustion phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is characterized by A) failure of electrolyte balance. B) an increasing ability to produce glucose from glycogen. C) increased pumping effectiveness of the heart. D) a sharp increase in motivation and energy. E) an increase in urine output. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 173) Two hormones that have opposing effects are called A) antagonists. B) agonists. C) resistors. D) synergists. E) adjuvants. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 174) Two hormones that have additive effects are called A) antagonists. B) agonists. C) resistors. D) synergists. E) adjuvants. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 175) Hormones that produce different but complementary results are called A) permissive. B) integrative. C) radicals. D) synergists. E) antagonists. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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176) Normal growth is dependent on all of the following hormones except A) thyroid hormones. B) oxytocin. C) growth hormone. D) insulin. E) glucocorticoids. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 177) Which of the following is not an antagonistic hormone pair? A) glucagon; insulin B) calcitonin; parathyroid hormone C) leptin; thymosins D) aldosterone; atrial natriuretic peptide E) FSH; inhibin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 178) The absence of which hormone during development will cause the nervous system to develop abnormally and cause developmental delays? A) thymosin B) calcitriol C) calcitonin D) androgens E) thyroxine Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) The regulatory hormones from the hypothalamus control secretion from endocrine cells, which are located where? (Figure 18-6) A) anterior lobe of the pituitary gland B) posterior lobe of the pituitary gland C) thalamus D) cortex of the adrenal gland E) medulla of the adrenal gland Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) In a typical regulation pattern of endocrine secretion, which hormone is responsible for negative feedback? (Figure 18-8) A) the releasing hormone B) hormone 1 from the pituitary gland C) hormone 2 from the endocrine target gland D) the inhibiting hormone E) the posterior pituitary hormone Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 3) What hormones are released from the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland and how does their release differ from hormones released by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland? (Figure 18-9) A) melanocyte stimulating hormone and growth hormone; posterior pituitary hormones are released in response to circadian rhythms B) LH and FSH; posterior pituitary hormones are released at puberty C) epinephrine and norepinephrine; posterior pituitary hormones are released following neural stimulation by the SNS D) ADH and oxytocin; posterior pituitary hormones are released following stimulation by hypothalamic releasing hormones E) ADH and oxytocin; posterior pituitary hormones are released directly from the hypothalamus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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4) Which zone of the adrenal cortex produces mineralocorticoids and what is the primary mineralocorticoid? (Figure 18-14) A) zona reticularis; cortisol B) zona reticularis; aldosterone C) zona fasciculata; epinephrine D) zona glomerulosa; aldosterone E) zona glomerulosa; cortisol Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 5) Which pancreatic cells secrete glucagon? List the effects of glucagon. (Figure 18-17) A) alpha; to increase blood glucose levels by increasing the breakdown of glycogen and fat, and by increasing the synthesis and release of glucose by the liver B) beta; to increase blood glucose levels by increasing the breakdown of glycogen and fat, and by increasing the synthesis and release of glucose by the liver C) delta; to increase blood glucose levels by increasing the breakdown of glycogen and fat, and by increasing the synthesis and release of glucose by the liver D) alpha; to decrease blood glucose levels by decreasing the breakdown of glycogen and fat, and by increasing cellular uptake of glucose E) beta; to decrease blood glucose levels by decreasing the breakdown of glycogen and fat, and by increasing cellular uptake of glucose Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Essay Questions 1) Communication between cells is key to organism-level regulation of the internal environment to maintain health, that is, nearly constant internal conditions (homeostasis). Outline and compare the intercellular communication pathways that function to provide homeostasis. Answer: Intercellular communication occurs largely through the nervous system and the endocrine system. In general, the nervous system performs short-term "crisis management," whereas the endocrine system regulates longer-term, ongoing metabolic processes. Ideally, the nervous system communicates by an impulse over an axon to a neuron or some other effector. This is a very fast and spatially specific process. In contrast, the endocrine system relies on blindly sending out chemical messages to the whole body through the blood and interstitial fluid. This process is slow, and relies on the response of a different target cell. Learning Outcome: 18-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 2) You see a patient with a goiter. You run some tests and find the patient is iodine deficient. Explain how iodine is used in the production of thyroid hormones. Also, explain how a goiter might form as a result of iodine deficiency. Be sure to include the role of TSH in your response. Answer: Iodine atoms are attached to tyrosine molecules. Tyrosine molecules join together forming thyroid hormones as triiodothyronine (with 3 iodine atoms) or thyroxine (with 4 iodine atoms). If the patient is iodine deficient then he cannot produce adequate levels of thyroid hormones and negative feedback to the anterior pituitary does not occur. When the body is deficient in thyroid hormone the anterior pituitary will produce excess TSH trying to stimulate the thyroid gland. Excess TSH will cause the gland to hypertrophy and form a goiter. Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 3) When patients who are receiving glucocorticoid therapy (for example, with prednisone need to stop taking it, the doctor will prescribe a series of doses of tapering size to gradually lower the dose rather than suddenly stop it. Explain this dosage strategy in terms of the negative feedback control of cortisol secretion. Answer: Glucocorticoids inhibit the production of corticotrophin-releasing hormone by the hypothalamus and ACTH by the anterior pituitary. High doses of prednisone will mean that levels of ACTH in the patient have been quite low, and so the zona fasciculate of the adrenal cortex will have not been stimulated for a while and can't do much synthesis. By slowly reducing the prednisone, it gives the patient's own ability to make cortisol a chance to recover and thus prevents collapse of blood pressure and other serious effects of suddenly withholding the corticosteroid. Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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4) What does it mean to say that the pancreas is both an endocrine and an exocrine organ? Answer: The pancreas contains both exocrine and endocrine cells. Cells of the endocrine pancreas form clusters called pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans) and the exocrine cells cluster in structures called pancreatic acini. The endocrine cells secrete at their basal surfaces into the interstitial space, exactly opposite to the exocrine gland cells, which secrete fluid and digestive enzymes out of their apical surfaces into tiny ducts. The pancreatic islets secrete the hormones glucagon, insulin, somatostatin, and pancreatic polypeptide, which diffuse into nearby capillaries and then reach cells throughout the body via the circulation. The pancreatic exocrine secretions enter the intestine during digestion and play a key role in both protecting the epithelium and dissolving food particles into their constituent building blocks. Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 5) Describe the three phases of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) that constitute the body's response to stress. Which endocrine secretions play dominant roles in the alarm and resistance phases? Answer: The three phases are alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. During the alarm phase, energy reserves are mobilized and the body prepares itself with "fight or flight" responses. During the resistance phase, glucocorticoids are released to (1) mobilize lipid and protein reserves, (2) conserve glucose for neural tissue, (3) elevate and stabilize blood glucose concentrations, (4) conserve salts and water, and (5) lose K+ and H+. During the exhaustion phase, homeostatic regulation breaks down. Epinephrine plays a dominant role in the alarm phase and glucocorticoids are dominant in the resistance phase. Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 19 Blood Multiple Choice Questions 1) Plasma is closest in composition to A) urine. B) isotonic saline solution. C) sterile water. D) CSF. E) interstitial fluid. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the A) viscosity. B) specific gravity. C) packed volume. D) hematocrit. E) differential cell count. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Which of the following statements about blood is false? A) Blood contains buffers that control pH. B) The normal pH of blood is 6.8 to 7.0. C) Blood is more viscous than water. D) Blood is about 55 percent plasma. E) Cells in blood comprise the formed elements. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) The combination of plasma and formed elements is called A) serum. B) lymph. C) whole blood. D) extracellular fluid. E) packed blood. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) Whole blood for testing in a clinical laboratory is usually collected from A) the heart. B) a superficial artery. C) a superficial vein. D) a capillary. E) an arteriole. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) Consider the following results from a blood lab test. Which value is most likely abnormal? A) RBCs—5.2 million/µl B) platelets—280,000/µl C) leukocytes—8600/µl D) hemoglobin—10.7 g/100 ml E) hematocrit—44 percent Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 7) Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood, except a A) temperature of approximately 38 degrees Celsius. B) viscosity about the same as water. C) pH of 7.4. D) built-in system for clotting. E) red color from hemoglobin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) The total volume of blood in the body of a 76-kg man is approximately ________ liters. A) 10 B) 6 to 8 C) 5.3 D) 4.4 E) 3.8 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) The most abundant component of plasma is A) ions. B) proteins. C) water. D) gases. E) nutrients. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) A person who has a low blood volume is said to be A) hypovolemic. B) hypervolemic. C) normovolemic. D) isovolemic. E) antivolemic. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) The chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the concentration of A) water. B) electrolytes. C) nitrogen wastes. D) proteins. E) glucose. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) A typical adult hematocrit is A) 85. B) 75. C) 65. D) 45. E) 25. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) Which of the following is not one of the formed elements of blood? A) RBCs B) platelets C) antibodies D) lymphocytes E) basophils Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) Plasma composes about ________ percent of whole blood and water composes ________ percent of the plasma volume. A) 55; 92 B) 92; 7 C) 92; 55 D) 45; 55 E) 50; 50 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) A hematocrit provides information on A) blood type. B) clotting factors. C) formed elements abundance. D) plasma composition. E) sedimentation rate. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) You are caring for an adult patient who weighs 48 kg. What would her approximate blood volume be? A) 6.6 L B) 6.0 L C) 5.6 L D) 4.8 L E) 3.8 L Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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17) Approximately 45 percent of blood volume is composed of the A) clotting factors. B) formed elements. C) leukocytes. D) plasma. E) antibodies. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) Blood volume represents about ________ percent of a person's body weight. A) 7 B) 15 C) 2 D) 25 E) 42 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) Thyroid-binding globulin is an example of which kind of plasma protein? A) metalloprotein B) steroid-binding C) hormone-binding D) apolipoprotein E) transport albumin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) Transferrin is an example of which kind of plasma protein? A) metalloprotein B) steroid-binding protein C) hormone-binding protein D) apolipoprotein E) transport albumin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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21) Which plasma protein transports fatty acids and some hormones? A) apolipoprotein B) steroid-binding protein C) hormone-binding protein D) albumin E) gamma globulin Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins? A) pancreas B) heart C) kidney D) brain E) liver Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are A) globulins. B) transport proteins. C) albumins. D) lipoproteins. E) fibrinogens. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the A) albumins. B) fibrinogens. C) immunoglobulins. D) metalloproteins. E) lipoproteins. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) A plasma protein essential for blood clotting is A) albumin alpha. B) fibrinogen. C) immunoglobulin A. D) metalloprotein D. E) lipoprotein C. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) All of the following are functions of blood except A) regulating pH. B) transporting gases and hormones. C) generating action potentials. D) defending against pathogens. E) regulating ion concentration. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) In what way does blood assist in immune function? A) Platelets allow clotting. B) Red blood cells transport gases. C) White blood cells defend against pathogens. D) Albumins transport hormones. E) Plasma antibodies and white blood cells defend against pathogens. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 28) The protein(s) that are the major contributors to plasma osmolarity is/are A) globulins. B) albumins. C) fibrinogen. D) lipoprotein. E) transferrin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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29) Blood that has clotting proteins removed is termed A) whole blood. B) hematocrit. C) formed elements. D) serum. E) plasma. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) In an emergency situation, a patient may be given plasma expanders while blood typing occurs. The plasma expanders are used to A) stimulate blood clotting. B) replace lost albumin. C) increase blood volume and maintain osmolarity. D) elevate blood pH. E) stimulate immune responses. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 31) Antibodies are what type of plasma protein? A) apolipoprotein B) metalloprotein C) steroid-binding protein D) immunoglobulin E) fibrinogen Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) The primary reason males have a higher hematocrit than females is because A) males have more skeletal muscle. B) males have larger livers. C) males have longer blood vessels. D) males have fewer white blood cells. E) males have androgens. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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33) You have spent 24 hours traveling from the U.S to New Zealand, on quite a few airplanes with many stops. Because of the stress, changes in time zones, and short blocks of time between planes, you find yourself tired with a headache when you arrive. You are severely dehydrated. A hematocrit value of your blood would be ________ than normal because ________. A) lower; more red blood cells are being made by the bone marrow B) higher; you have less blood plasma volume C) lower; the bone marrow is making fewer red blood cells due to the latitude of the airplanes D) higher; more plasma proteins are made by the liver E) lower; you have less blood plasma volume Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 34) Jane has been taking the antibiotic chloramphenicol for a few weeks as treatment for a serious bacterial infection. There is a possibility that a future side effect of long-term antibiotic therapy could cause her to develop problems in blood cell counts. The result is A) autoimmune disease. B) aplastic anemia. C) drug resistance. D) thrombocytopenia. E) erythroblastosis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 35) All the circulating red blood cells in an adult originate in the A) heart. B) thymus. C) spleen. D) red bone marrow. E) lymph tissue. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone A) thymosin. B) angiotensin. C) erythropoietin. D) thymopoietin. E) renin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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37) Which of the following statements concerning red blood cells is false? A) Red cells are biconcave discs. B) Red cells lack mitochondria. C) Red cells are about 18 µm in diameter. D) Red cells are specialized for carrying oxygen. E) Red cells can form stacks called rouleaux. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) Which of these proteins functions to store or transport iron? A) hemoglobin B) ferritin C) hemosiderin D) transferrin E) ferritin, hemosiderin, and transferrin Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 39) The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if A) the diet is deficient in iron. B) there is insufficient heme in the hemoglobin. C) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal. D) red blood cells bind too much oxygen. E) hemolysis is prevented by a mutated gene. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 40) Surgical removal of the stomach could cause A) hemophilia. B) pernicious anemia. C) thrombocytopenia. D) leukocytosis. E) jaundice. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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41) Mary is tested for the amount of hemoglobin in her blood. The test results indicate that her hemoglobin level is 16 g/dL of blood. This value indicates that A) she is suffering from anemia. B) she has fewer red blood cells than normal. C) her hematocrit is probably lower than normal. D) she may be suffering from a form of leukemia. E) her hemoglobin level is normal. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 42) An obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would result in A) pernicious anemia. B) renal anemia. C) increased erythropoiesis. D) decreased erythropoiesis. E) increased sensitivity to vitamin K. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 43) The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following except A) anemia. B) high altitude. C) as a consequence of hemorrhage. D) periods of fasting. E) when blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 44) The average life span of a red blood cell is A) 24 hours. B) 1 month. C) 4 months. D) about 1 year. E) many years. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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45) The function of red blood cells is to A) carry oxygen from the cells to the lungs. B) carry carbon dioxide from the lungs to the body's cells. C) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells. D) defend the body against infectious organisms. E) carry oxygen to the cells and then carry away carbon dioxide. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest candidate? A) aplastic anemia B) iron-deficiency anemia C) sickle cell anemia D) vitamin K deficiency E) vitamin B6 deficiency Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 47) In adults, the only site of red blood cell production, and the primary site of white blood cell formation, is the A) liver. B) spleen. C) thymus. D) red bone marrow. E) yellow bone marrow. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of A) magnesium. B) calcium. C) iron. D) sodium. E) copper. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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49) Excess iron is stored in the liver and spleen as A) transferrin. B) urobilin and stercobilin. C) bilirubin and biliverdin. D) hemoglobin. E) hemosiderin and ferritin. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) In which of the following situations would you expect the blood level of bilirubin to be elevated? A) during coagulation B) an alcoholic with a damaged liver C) iron-deficient diet D) low hematocrit E) low blood volume Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 51) If bile ducts are blocked, A) more bilirubin appears in the plasma. B) bilirubin appears in the saliva. C) more hemolysis takes place. D) more red blood cells are produced. E) more white blood cells are produced. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 52) More than 95 percent of the protein in a red blood cell is A) albumin. B) porphyrin. C) hemoglobin. D) immunoglobulin. E) fibrinogen. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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53) The function of hemoglobin is to A) carry dissolved blood gases. B) carry bicarbonate ion. C) aid in the process of blood clotting. D) produce antibodies. E) stimulate erythropoiesis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) ________ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced. A) Polycythemia B) Leukemia C) Anemia D) Leukopenia E) Thrombocytopenia Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) Pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated by A) oral doses of iron. B) injections of iron. C) oral doses of vitamin B12. D) injections of vitamin B12. E) blood transfusion. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 56) Which of the following would you expect to see in increased numbers in a peripheral blood sample after donating a unit of blood? A) fibrocytes B) platelets C) reticulocytes D) lymphocytes E) neutrophils Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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57) A red blood cell that contains excessive amounts of hemoglobin would be called A) hyperchromic. B) normochromic. C) hypochromic. D) normocytic. E) macrocytic. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) A bruise appears as a greenish spot in the skin because A) hemoglobin has leaked from the blood into the injury and hemoglobin has a green color. B) the heme group in the hemoglobin has broken down into biliverdin. C) bilirubin from iron recycling has built-up in the bruise. D) red blood cells lyse releasing biliverdin from inside. E) dead white blood cells accumulate at the site of injury. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 59) Aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by macrophages in the A) spleen. B) liver. C) bone marrow. D) digestive tract. E) spleen, liver, and bone marrow. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) The waste product bilirubin is produced from A) globin chains of hemoglobin. B) heme molecules plus iron. C) heme molecules lacking iron. D) iron found in hemoglobin molecules. E) abnormal proteins found in red blood cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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61) Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is A) excreted by the kidneys. B) excreted by the liver. C) excreted by the intestines. D) recycled to the red bone marrow. E) stored in yellow bone marrow. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) In adults, erythropoiesis exclusively takes place in A) the liver. B) yellow bone marrow. C) red bone marrow. D) the spleen. E) lymphoid tissue. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) The process of red blood cell production is called A) erythrocytosis. B) erythropenia. C) hemocytosis. D) erythropoiesis. E) hematopenia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) The developmental stage at which erythrocytes enter the circulation is as A) hemocytoblasts. B) reticulocytes. C) band forms. D) myeloid cells. E) proerythrocytes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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65) ________ are immature erythrocytes that are present in the circulation. A) Erythroblasts B) Normoblasts C) Myeloblasts D) Band cells E) Reticulocytes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) Erythropoiesis is stimulated when A) oxygen levels in the blood increase. B) carbon dioxide levels in the blood decrease. C) blood flow to the kidney declines. D) coagulation begins. E) blood pressure increases. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) Each hemoglobin molecule contains A) four alpha chains. B) one alpha and one beta chain. C) four iron atoms. D) one heme group. E) a molecule of oxygen and a molecule of carbon dioxide. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) Reticulocytes complete their development into ________ in the circulation. A) neutrophils B) megakaryocytes C) thrombocytes D) macrophages E) erythrocytes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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69) Which mature cell has no nucleus, no mitochondria and no ribosomes? A) erythrocyte B) leukocyte C) platelet D) thrombocyte E) neutrophil Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) Erythropoietin is a hormone A) released by the liver to stimulate red blood cell production. B) released by the liver to stimulate white blood cell production. C) released by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production. D) released by the kidneys to stimulate red and white blood cell production. E) released by the bone marrow to stimulate red blood cell production. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) Which of the following is not a way that red blood cell shape is significant? A) It gives the red blood cell a large surface area to volume ratio. B) It allows fast exchange of gases between the inside of the cell and the plasma. C) It enables red blood cells to form stacks. D) It allows red blood cells to bend and flex. E) It enables red blood cells to phagocytose bacteria. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 72) Which of the following is true regarding red blood cells? A) They are anucleate. B) They survive for approximately one year. C) They have a biconvex shape. D) They are produced in the spleen. E) They primarily carry carbon dioxide. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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73) When hemoglobin does not have oxygen bound to hemoglobin it is termed A) carbaminohemoglobin. B) deoxyhemoglobin. C) oxyhemoglobin. D) hemolyzed. E) sickle hemoglobin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) When hemoglobin is saturated with oxygen atoms it is termed A) carbaminohemoglobin. B) deoxyhemoglobin. C) oxyhemoglobin. D) hemolyzed. E) sickle hemoglobin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) When carbon dioxide is bound to hemoglobin it is termed A) carbaminohemoglobin. B) deoxyhemoglobin. C) oxyhemoglobin. D) hemolyzed. E) sickle hemoglobin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) Hydroxyurea is a common drug treatment for sickle cell anemia patients. Hydroxyurea improves sickle cell symptoms because it A) causes more hemoglobin alpha chains to be produced improving oxygen transport. B) causes more hemoglobin beta chains to be produced improving oxygen transport. C) increases the free iron in plasma. D) stimulates the production of fetal hemoglobin improving oxygen transport. E) increases the production of heme. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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77) During fetal development the primary site(s) of red blood cell production is/are A) bone marrow. B) liver. C) thymus. D) kidneys. E) liver and spleen. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) A person's blood type is determined by the A) size of the RBCs. B) volume of the RBCs. C) chemical composition of the hemoglobin. D) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane. E) shape of the RBCs. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because A) their blood cells lack A and B antigens. B) their blood lacks A or B agglutinins. C) their blood is plentiful in A and B agglutinins. D) they usually have very strong immune systems. E) they are usually Rh negative. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 80) Type AB blood has which of the following characteristics? A) RBCs have the Rh positive antigens and the anti-D plasma antibodies. B) RBCs have no surface antigens and both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. C) RBCs have both the A & B surface antigens and no ABO plasma antibodies. D) RBCs have the A and the B surface antigens and the plasma has anti-A and anti-B antibodies. E) RBCs have the A antigen and the plasma has the anti-B antibody. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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81) Anti-D antibodies are present in the blood of A) all individuals with type AB blood. B) Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen. C) all Rh positive individuals. D) Rh positive individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen. E) all Rh negative individuals. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 82) Antigens of the surface of red blood cells are also called ________ and antibodies in the blood plasma are also called ________. A) agglutinins; agglutinogens B) agglutinogens; agglutinins C) T-cells; B-cells D) erythrogens; antibiotics E) serum; plasma Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 83) Which of the following combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the newborn? A) mother Rh positive, baby Rh negative B) mother Rh negative, baby Rh negative C) mother Rh negative, baby Rh positive D) mother type A+, baby type O+ E) mother Rh positive, baby Rh positive Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 84) A cross-match test is performed between donor blood and recipient blood, even though the ABO and Rh blood types match between the two because A) there are many more surface antigens on red blood cells other than A, B and Rh. B) all antibodies of the donor blood and the recipient blood must be identified. C) coagulation can occur even in a small percentage of cases. D) one has to make sure that the same agglutinogens have to be on both donor and recipients red blood cells. E) errors are commonly made by the clinical staff regarding donor-recipient matches. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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85) Type A blood has ________ antibodies in the blood plasma. A) anti-A B) anti-D C) anti-B D) anti-Rh E) anti-O Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) The clumping of red blood cells, when the specific antibody against the antigen on the cells is added, is called A) coagulation. B) agglutination. C) hemostasis. D) vascularization. E) areolation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) Jane has Type A blood; therefore, she A) has antibodies to B agglutinogens. B) can give blood to other people with Type A blood only. C) can receive blood from other people with Type A blood only. D) makes anti-A without ever having been exposed to Type A blood. E) has B antigen on her RBCs. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 88) You have type B positive blood. What are all the types of packed RBCs you can receive? A) A positive and A negative B) B positive and B negative C) A positive and B positive D) B positive, B negative, O positive, O negative E) O positive and O negative Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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89) The most common blood type is A) type A. B) type B. C) type AB. D) type O. E) type AO. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) In an emergency situation when you have no time to wait for cross-matched blood you could give a patient type ________ until the cross-match is available. A) A positive B) O negative C) B negative D) AB positive E) AB negative Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 91) The process of lymphopoiesis occurs mainly in the A) spleen. B) kidneys. C) lymph nodes. D) red bone marrow. E) thymus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) All of the following are true of neutrophils except that they are A) granular leukocytes. B) phagocytic. C) also known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes. D) important in coagulation. E) active in fighting bacterial infections. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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93) The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) ________ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells. A) Neutrophils B) Eosinophils C) Basophils D) Lymphocytes E) Monocytes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term colony stimulating factor? A) adheres to collagen beneath endothelium B) helper cells are one type C) hormone that regulates white blood cell formation D) kills bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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97) White blood cells that are increased in allergic individuals are the A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) platelets. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) A hormone that stimulates production of granulocytes and monocytes is A) M-CSF. B) G-CSF. C) GM-CSF. D) multi-CSF. E) thymosin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) Monocytes can be stimulated by which of the following colony-stimulating factors? A) G-CSF B) G-CSF and GM-CSF C) EPO D) G-CSF and EPO E) M-CSF, GM-CSF, multi-CSF Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) The most numerous WBCs in a differential count of a healthy individual are A) neutrophils. B) basophils. C) lymphocytes. D) monocytes. E) leukocytes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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101) Which of the following is not true of neutrophils? A) less abundant than lymphocytes B) can make hydrogen peroxide C) can exit capillaries D) can destroy bacteria E) attracted to complement-coated bacteria Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 102) Which of these descriptions best matches the term B lymphocytes? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) helper cells are one type C) develop into plasma cells and produce antibodies in response to antigens D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 103) Which of these descriptions best matches the term T lymphocytes? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) are involved in cell mediated immunity C) develop into plasma cells and produce antibodies in response to antigens D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) Which of the following is not true of monocytes? A) about same size as basophils B) enter tissues and wander C) become macrophages D) are long-lived E) can phagocytize bacteria Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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105) Eosinophils function in A) destroying antibody-labeled antigens. B) blood coagulation. C) production of surface antigens for red blood cells. D) antibody production. E) production of heparin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 106) During a bacterial infection you would expect to see increased numbers of A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) reticulocytes. E) thrombocytes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 107) The blood cells involved in specific immunity are the A) neutrophils. B) monocytes. C) basophils. D) erythrocytes. E) lymphocytes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 108) Non-specific immunity, such as phagocytosis, is a function of which blood cells? A) basophils and eosinophils B) neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes C) lymphocytes and monocytes D) platelets E) lymphocytes Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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109) A patient has an infected puncture wound to her foot. Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be elevated in a differential white cell count? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) basophils D) lymphocytes E) monocytes Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 110) Hormones called ________ are involved in regulation of white blood cell populations. A) erythropoietin B) bilirubin C) thrombopoietin D) colony-stimulating factors E) plasmin Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) The ________ is a procedure that is used to determine the number of each of the various types of white blood cells. A) differential count B) hematocrit C) sedimentation rate D) WBC count E) complete cell count (CBC) Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) A small white blood cell with a large round nucleus would be a A) neutrophil. B) lymphocyte. C) monocyte. D) basophil. E) eosinophil. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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113) Which feature of WBCs makes them particularly important in tissue injury? A) They undergo aerobic respiration. B) They stick to injured blood vessels. C) They undergo a fast rate of mitosis. D) They can squeeze out through blood vessel walls into tissues. E) They carry loads of oxygen. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 114) Which of the following white blood cells are mobile? A) lymphocytes B) neutrophils C) monocytes D) neutrophils and monocytes E) basophils Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) Which white blood cell is most effective against parasitic infections? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) basophils D) monoctyes E) lymphocytes Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) During routine bloodwork, Mary's doctor noticed significant leukocytosis. He is concerned she might have A) pernicious anemia. B) sickle cell anemia. C) thalassemia. D) leukemia. E) leukopenia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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117) Macrophages develop from A) neutrophils. B) lymphocytes. C) thrombocytes. D) eosinophils. E) monocytes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 118) Natural killer cells are one of the functional classes of A) neutrophils. B) lymphocytes. C) thrombocytes. D) eosinophils. E) monocytes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 19-1 The Origins and Differentiation of Formed Elements Use Figure 19-1 to answer the following questions: 119) Identify the cell labeled "5." A) erythrocyte B) lymphocyte C) eosinophil D) basophil E) monocyte Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 30 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

120) Identify the cell labeled "6." A) erythrocyte B) lymphocyte C) eosinophil D) basophil E) monocyte Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 121) Identify the cell labeled "4." A) neutrophil B) lymphocyte C) platelet D) basophil E) monocyte Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 122) Identify the cell labeled "2." A) lymphocyte B) eosinophil C) basophil D) neutrophil E) monocyte Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 123) Identify the formed element that originated as a megakaryocyte. A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 2 E) 7 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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124) The function of platelets is to assist in the A) destruction of bacteria. B) process called hemostasis. C) removal of worn out red blood cells. D) immune response during an infection. E) transport of blood gases such as oxygen. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 125) Platelets are pinched off from giant multinucleated cells in the bone marrow called A) erythroblasts. B) normoblasts. C) megakaryocytes. D) myeloblasts. E) lymphoblasts. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 126) Platelets are A) red blood cells that lack a nucleus. B) red blood cells that have a nucleus. C) large cells with a prominent, concave nucleus. D) tiny cells with a polynucleus. E) cytoplasmic fragments of large cells. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 127) In case of hemorrhage, platelets are stored as a reserve in A) the heart. B) the kidneys. C) the spleen. D) the thymus gland. E) bone marrow. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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128) Which of the following descriptions best matches the function of platelets? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) helper cells are one type C) produce antibodies in response to antigens D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 129) A person whose platelet count is 40,000/µl is suffering from A) thrombocytosis. B) leukocytosis. C) hemocytosis. D) thrombocytopenia. E) leukopenia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 130) A sign of thrombocytopenia would be A) a drop in oxygen-carrying capacity. B) allergic reactions. C) bacterial infections. D) excessive clotting. E) bleeding. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 131) The hormone that stimulates platelet formation is A) thymosin. B) thrombopoietin. C) erythropoietin. D) colony-stimulating factor. E) endothelin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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132) ________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. A) Vascular spasm B) The platelet phase C) Retraction D) Coagulation E) Fibrinolysis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 133) Most of the protein factors that are required for clotting are synthesized by A) platelets. B) megakaryocytes. C) the liver. D) the kidneys. E) the spleen. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 134) The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. D) release of heparin from the liver. E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 135) The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the A) sticking of platelets to each other. B) activation of Factor XII by platelet factors. C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. D) release of heparin from the liver. E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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136) The common pathway of coagulation begins with the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium. D) activation of Factor X and production of prothrombin activator. E) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 137) The process of fibrinolysis A) activates fibrinogen. B) draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer together. C) dissolves clots. D) forms emboli. E) forms thrombi. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 138) The enzyme that can digest fibrin and dissolve a clot is A) thrombin. B) plasmin. C) heparin. D) fibrinase. E) phosphokinase. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 139) Tissue factor (Factor III) is a factor in the ________ pathway. A) extrinsic B) intrinsic C) common D) retraction E) fibrinolytic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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140) Tissue factor is a factor in the ________ pathway. A) extrinsic B) intrinsic C) common D) retraction E) fibrinolytic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 141) Some rat poisons contain a toxin that blocks the liver's ability to utilize vitamin K. Animals that consume this poison would die of A) anemia. B) acidosis. C) hemorrhage. D) thrombocytopenia. E) starvation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 142) A substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to A) cause clots to form faster. B) cause clot dissolution to proceed faster. C) initiate clot formation. D) recruit platelets to the area. E) recruit neutrophils to an infection. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 143) How would removal of calcium ions from a blood sample affect coagulation? A) The coagulation pathway would be more sensitive to activation. B) Coagulation would be prevented. C) There would be no important effect because magnesium can substitute for calcium. D) Coagulation would occur only in Rh positive individuals. E) More blood cells would be produced. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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144) Which of the following vitamins is needed for the formation of clotting factors? A) vitamin A B) vitamin B C) vitamin K D) vitamin D E) vitamin E Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 145) A moving blood clot is called a(n) A) embolus. B) thrombus. C) plaque. D) procoagulant. E) platelet plug. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 146) Areas in a vessel wall where large quantities of lipid accumulate are called A) thrombi. B) emboli. C) plaques. D) clots. E) occlusions. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 147) People who suffer from hemophilia A fail to produce a functional Factor VIII; as a result, A) they lack a functional intrinsic pathway. B) they lack a functional extrinsic pathway. C) they lack a functional common pathway. D) their coagulation times are much longer than normal. E) their coagulation times are too quick. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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148) The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by the enzyme A) fibrinogen-converting enzyme. B) plasmin. C) factor VIII. D) thrombin. E) prothrombinase. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 149) The phase of hemostasis that involved clotting of blood is called A) coagulation. B) hemolysis. C) vascular spasm. D) a platelet plug. E) diapedesis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 150) A fibrin network that contains trapped blood cells and platelets is called a(n) A) platelet plug. B) rouleaux. C) agglutinin. D) blood clot. E) lysin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 151) Which common over the counter drug can decrease blood clotting and thus may be beneficial for preventing a heart attack? A) cough syrup B) anti-histamines C) aspirin D) acetaminophen E) tums Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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152) Which of these is used clinically to impede or prevent blood clotting? A) thrombin B) heparin C) fibrin D) tissue factor E) prothrombin Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 153) A blood clot attached to the inner surface of a blood vessel is called a A) embolus. B) plaque. C) thrombus. D) platelet plug. E) fibrin mesh. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 154) The first step of hemostasis is A) coagulation. B) agglutination. C) clot retraction. D) vascular spasm. E) platelet phase. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 155) Which of the following could be used as a treatment for a stroke if given early in the disease progression? A) tissue factor B) vitamin K C) calcium channel blockers D) factor X E) tissue plasminogen activator Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Each molecule of heme contains a single ion of what element? (Figure 19-3) A) sodium B) potassium C) magnesium D) iron E) calcium Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Where are red blood cells produced? (Figure 19-5) A) spleen B) liver C) red bone marrow D) kidney E) large intestine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Type A blood has what type of RBC surface antigen and what type of opposing antibodies? (Figure 19-6) A) antigen A; anti-B antibodies B) antigen B; anti-A antibodies C) antigen A; anti-A antibodies D) antigen B; anti-B antibodies E) antigen A; both anti-A and anti-B antibodies Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 4) Granulocytes consist of what three types of mature cells and from what blast cell do granulocytes differentiate? (Figure 19-10) A) monocytes, lymphocytes, and platelets; lymphoblast B) basophil, eosinophil, and neutrophil; myeloblast C) erythrocyte, neutrophil, and lymphocyte; proerythroblast D) reticulocyte, megakaryocyte, and promonocyte; monoblast E) platelets, erythrocyte, and monocyte; reticulocyte Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Essay Questions 1) Why do people with advanced kidney disease commonly become anemic? Answer: For three reasons: (1) Damaged kidneys produce less erythropoietin and so there is less stimulation of the marrow to produce RBCs. (2) Erythropoietin is more easily lost into the urine by leaky kidneys. (3) Finally, during dialysis treatment, the patient's erythropoietin is washed away. Treatment for kidney patients today includes injections of synthetic erythropoietin. Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 2) How does Rhogam prevent erythroblastosis fetalis (HDN, hemolytic disease of the newborn)? Answer: If a mother who is Rh negative carries a fetus who is Rh positive, she will make antibodies against its Rh positive RBCs after being exposed to the infant's blood during labor and delivery. By giving a dose of anti-Rh antibody (Rhogam) just before or after delivery, the fetal red cells will be agglutinated and removed from the mother's circulation before her immune system will have time to make anti-Rh antibodies that would endanger her next Rh-positive offspring. Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 3) Which of the formed elements would increase after the donation of a pint of blood? Answer: Reticulocytes would increase in number as additional numbers of immature RBCs move into the bloodstream to compensate for the reduction in blood volume. Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 20 The Heart Multiple Choice Questions 1) The heart beats approximately ________ times each day. A) 1,000 B) 10,000 C) 100,000 D) 1,000,000 E) 10,000,000 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) The heart pumps approximately ________ liters of blood each day. A) 8,000 B) 15,000 C) 20,000 D) 50,000 E) 100,000 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) The adult heart is roughly the size of A) the liver. B) a man's clenched fist. C) the gallbladder. D) the hand of a 10-year-old. E) the brain. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) The term used to describe fluid collecting in the pericardial cavity that restricts the movement of the heart is known as A) cardiac tamponade. B) mitral valve prolapse. C) pleural effusion. D) cardiomyopathy. E) pericarditis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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5) The structure that permits blood flow from the right atrium to the left atrium in the fetal circulation is the A) foramen ovale. B) interatrial septum. C) coronary sinus. D) fossa ovalis. E) ligamentum arteriosus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) Blood leaves the right ventricle by passing through the A) aortic valve. B) pulmonary valve. C) mitral valve. D) tricuspid valve. E) bicuspid valve. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) The atrioventricular valves permit blood flow A) in one direction only. B) in both directions. C) in many directions. D) in opposite directions on the right and left. E) from a ventricle to an atrium. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Blood returning to the heart from the systemic circuit first enters the A) right atrium. B) right ventricle. C) left atrium. D) left ventricle. E) conus arteriosus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary circuit first enters the A) right atrium. B) right ventricle. C) left atrium. D) left ventricle. E) conus arteriosus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) The earlike extension of the atrium is the A) ventricle. B) coronary sinus. C) coronary sulcus. D) auricle. E) interatrial septum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) The coronary sulcus is a groove that A) marks the border between the atria and ventricles. B) marks the boundary line between the right and left ventricles. C) marks the boundary line between the right and left atria. D) separates the atrioventricular valves from the atria. E) separates the coronary arteries from the coronary veins. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) In the middle of the thoracic cavity is a region occupied by the heart, great vessels, thymus, esophagus, and trachea called the A) pleural space. B) pericardial space. C) mediastinum. D) cardiac notch. E) ventral cavity. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) The cusps (leaflets) of atrioventricular valves attach directly to A) papillary muscles. B) trabeculae carneae. C) chordae tendineae. D) interatrial septa. E) coronary sulci. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) Contractions of the papillary muscles A) close the atrioventricular valves. B) close the semilunar valves. C) eject blood from the ventricles. D) prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria. E) eject blood from the atria into the ventricles. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) The visceral pericardium is the same as the A) mediastinum. B) parietal pericardium. C) epicardium. D) myocardium. E) endocardium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Most of the middle layer in the heart wall is composed of A) cardiac muscle cells. B) chondrocytes. C) epithelial cells. D) fibrocytes. E) smooth muscle cells. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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17) The right ventricle pumps blood to the A) right and left lungs. B) left ventricle. C) left atrium. D) aorta. E) right atrium. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) The left ventricle pumps blood to the A) lungs. B) right ventricle. C) right atrium. D) aorta. E) pulmonary circuit. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) The right atrium receives blood from all of the following structures except the A) coronary sinus. B) superior vena cava. C) inferior vena cava. D) systemic circuit. E) pulmonary veins. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) When a blood clot forms on a ruptured plaque in a coronary artery, the condition is referred to as a(n) A) coronary spasm. B) myocardial infarction. C) coronary thrombosis. D) angina pectoris. E) pulmonary embolism. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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21) Cardiac cells damaged by infarction will show all of the following except A) a switch to anaerobic metabolism. B) release of enzymes into the circulation. C) release of troponin T and I into the circulation. D) release of CK-MB into the circulation. E) an increase in metabolic activity. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 22) As blood leaves the right ventricle, it passes through the ________ and then into the pulmonary trunk. A) pulmonary veins B) conus arteriosus C) aorta D) inferior vena cava E) superior vena cava Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) Coronary veins empty into the A) left atrium. B) left ventricle. C) right atrium. D) right ventricle. E) conus arteriosus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 24) There are ________ pulmonary veins. A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 12 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) Rupture of the papillary muscles in the left ventricle may result in A) pulmonary valve regurgitation. B) mitral valve prolapse. C) tricuspid regurgitation. D) tricuspid prolapse. E) aortic valve prolapse. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 26) Blood is supplied to the muscular wall of the left atrium by the A) brachiocephalic artery. B) right coronary artery. C) left coronary artery. D) phrenic arteries. E) pulmonary arteries. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) The pulmonary valve prevents backward flow into the A) aorta. B) pulmonary trunk. C) pulmonary veins. D) right ventricle. E) left atrium. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) The bicuspid or mitral valve is located A) in the opening of the aorta. B) in the opening of the pulmonary trunk. C) where the venae cavae join the right atrium. D) between the right atrium and right ventricle. E) between the left atrium and left ventricle. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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29) The ________ valve prevents backward flow into the left atrium. A) semicaval B) semilunar C) bicuspid D) tricuspid E) pulmonic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) The function of an atrium is to A) store blood for use by the myocardial cells. B) pump blood to the lungs. C) pump blood into the systemic circuit. D) pump blood to the ventricle. E) collect blood then pump it to the ventricle. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) Compared to the right ventricle, the left ventricle has all the following characteristics except A) has a thicker wall. B) is round in cross section. C) pumps a greater volume. D) works harder. E) produces about four to six times more pressure when it contracts. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) Which of the following are involved in the pulmonary circuit? A) superior vena cava, right atrium, left ventricle B) right ventricle, pulmonary veins, aorta C) right ventricle, pulmonary trunk, left atrium D) inferior vena cava, right atrium, aorta E) left ventricle, pulmonary veins, right atrium Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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33) The right pulmonary veins carry ________ blood to the ________. A) deoxygenated; left atrium B) oxygenated; right lung C) deoxygenated; superior vena cava D) deoxygenated; right atrium E) oxygenated; left atrium Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 34) The following is a list of vessels and structures that are associated with the heart. What is the correct order for the flow of blood entering from the systemic circulation? 1. right atrium 2. left atrium 3. right ventricle 4. left ventricle 5. venae cavae 6. aorta 7. pulmonary trunk 8. pulmonary veins A) 1, 2, 7, 8, 3, 4, 6, 5 B) 1, 7, 3, 8, 2, 4, 6, 5 C) 5, 1, 3, 7, 8, 2, 4, 6 D) 5, 3, 1, 7, 8, 4, 2, 6 E) 5, 1, 3, 8, 7, 2, 4, 6 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the A) heart. B) lungs. C) brain. D) intestines. E) liver. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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36) The pulmonary veins carry blood to the A) heart. B) lungs. C) brain. D) intestines. E) liver. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 37) The foramen ovale in the fetal heart is located in the A) right atrium. B) left atrium. C) right ventricle. D) left ventricle. E) interatrial septum. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 38) Blood is supplied to the myocardium by A) the coronary sinus. B) contact with blood in the pumping chambers. C) the coronary arteries. D) arteries that branch from the pulmonary arteries. E) arteries that branch off the subclavian arteries. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) The first blood vessels to branch from the aorta are the ________ arteries. A) pulmonary B) coronary C) circumflex D) carotid E) subclavian Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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40) The marginal branch and posterior interventricular branch are branches of the A) right coronary artery. B) left coronary artery. C) circumflex artery. D) coronary sinus. E) aorta. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 41) The circumflex branch and the anterior interventricular artery are branches of the A) right coronary artery. B) left coronary artery. C) interventricular artery. D) coronary sinus. E) aorta. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) The great and middle cardiac veins drain blood into the A) superior vena cava. B) inferior vena cava. C) coronary sinus. D) coronary sulcus. E) aorta. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) The heart lies within the ________ cavity. A) peritoneal B) pleural C) orbital D) dorsal E) pericardial Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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44) The superior portion of the heart where major blood vessels enter and exit is the A) apex. B) hilum. C) base. D) septum. E) mediastinum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 45) The inferior point of the heart is called the A) apex. B) hilum. C) base. D) septum. E) mediastinum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) Pericardial fluid A) provides oxygen to the heart muscle. B) is located between the myocardium and the endocardium. C) is a lubricant between the heart and the pericardial sac. D) consists of plasma that has leaked out of whole blood. E) flows through the four chambers of the heart. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) The ________ is shared by the two ventricles. A) vena cava B) bicuspid valve C) chordae tendineae D) interventricular septum E) trabeculae carneae Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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48) Muscular ridges on the inner surface of the ventricles are called A) coronary sinuses. B) trabeculae carneae. C) intercalated discs. D) papillary muscles. E) chordae tendineae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 49) The ________ circuit carries blood to and from the lungs. A) pulmonary B) systemic C) oxygen D) portal E) primary Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) The ________ circuit carries blood from the aorta to the right ventricle. A) pulmonary B) systemic C) oxygen D) portal E) primary Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) The ________ carry blood away from the heart. A) arterioles B) arteries C) veins D) venules E) capillaries Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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52) The ________ carry blood toward the heart. A) arterioles B) arteries C) veins D) lacteals E) capillaries Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53) The ________ covers the outer surface of the heart. A) epicardium B) myocardium C) endocardium D) parietal pericardium E) mediastinum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) The muscle layer of the heart is the A) epicardium. B) myocardium. C) endocardium. D) parietal pericardium. E) mediastinum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) The ________ lines the chambers of the heart, covers the heart valves, and is continuous with the endothelium. A) epicardium B) myocardium C) endocardium D) visceral pericardium E) mediastinum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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56) Oxygen is added to blood as it flows through the ________ circuit. A) pulmonary B) systemic C) oxygen D) portal E) primary Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) The term ________ refers to blockage in the coronary circulation. A) congestive heart failure B) atherosclerosis C) coronary artery disease D) embolism E) phlebitis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 58) ________ is the symptom generally brought on by coronary ischemia. A) Angina pectoris B) Memory loss C) A rash D) Hematuria E) Fluid in the lungs Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 59) In a procedure known as ________, an inflatable balloon at the end of a catheter is used to press plaque back against the vessel wall. A) balloon angioplasty B) coronary arterial bypass graft C) intravenous catheterization D) ablation E) atherectomy Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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60) A procedure in which a length of the patient's vein or artery is used to create a detour around an obstruction in a coronary artery is called A) balloon angioplasty. B) coronary artery bypass graft. C) intravenous catheterization. D) ablation. E) atherectomy. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 61) A fine tubular wire mesh called a ________ may be inserted into a coronary vessel, holding it open. A) angioplast B) stent C) angiogram D) keyhole E) catheter Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) The coronary sinus drains the ________ into the ________. A) coronary arteries; left ventricle B) cardiac veins; right atrium C) interventricular artery; left ventricle D) right atrium; right ventricle E) cardiac vein; right ventricle Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) The ________ is a remnant of an important fetal blood vessel that once linked the pulmonary and systemic circuits. A) fossa ovalis B) ductus arteriosus C) foramen ovale D) ductus venosus E) ligamentum arteriosum Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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64) Which of the following statements is true concerning differences between the right and left ventricles? A) The right ventricle pumps with more force compared to the left. B) The left ventricles pumps twice as much blood as the right ventricle. C) The right ventricles pumps blood to the body, whereas the left ventricle pumps blood to the lungs. D) The right ventricle is conical-shaped while the left ventricle is half-moon shaped. E) The efficiency of the right ventricle is increased by the left ventricle because the wall of the left ventricle pushes into the right ventricle. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 65) Cardiac muscle layers form this distinct pattern. A) inner longitudinal layer B) outer longitudinal layer C) outer circular layer D) figure eight E) weave Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) The endocardium consists of this type of tissue. A) cardiac muscle B) simple squamous epithelium C) dense irregular connective tissue D) reticular connective tissue E) stratified squamous epithelium Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) A hole in the interventricular septum in an infant may cause all of the following symptoms except A) mixing of oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood. B) a murmur to be heard. C) the heart to work harder. D) the individual to have low peripheral oxygen saturation. E) build-up of atherosclerotic plaque. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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68) Thick projections of muscle in the ventricles that anchor chordae tendineae are called A) pectinate muscles. B) conus arteriosus. C) papillary muscles. D) trabeculae carneae. E) auricles. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 69) Prominent muscular ridges in the anterior atrial wall and auricles are called A) pectinate muscles. B) conus arteriosus. C) papillary muscles. D) trabeculae carneae. E) fossa ovalis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) Which of the following is not true regarding the right atrioventricular valve? A) It has 3 cusps. B) It is also called the tricuspid valve. C) It prevents backflow of blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium. D) The valve closes when the right atrium contracts. E) The cusps provide one-way flow of blood. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 71) The ________ is an important ridge of muscle extending horizontally around the right ventricle from the interventricular septum to the base of the anterior papillary muscle containing part of the conducting system. A) auricle B) pectinate muscle C) trabeculae carneae D) moderator band E) conus arteriosus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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72) Which valve(s) contains 2 cusps? A) right AV valve B) left AV valve C) right and left AV valves D) left AV and aortic valves E) right AV and pulmonary valves Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 73) Which valve(s) cusps open up toward the base of the heart? A) right and left AV valves B) aortic and pulmonary valves C) left AV and aortic valves D) right AV and pulmonary valves E) right AV, left AV, aortic and pulmonary valves Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 74) These structures keep the aortic valve cusps from sticking to the wall of the aorta. A) auricles B) chordae tendineae C) papillary muscles D) pectinate muscles E) aortic sinuses Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) Which statement correctly describes the term left atrioventricular valve? A) Its cusps open into the left atrium. B) Its cusps open into the superior vena cava. C) Its cusps open into the aorta. D) Its cusps open into the left ventricle. E) Its cusps open into the pulmonary trunk. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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76) Which chamber has the thickest wall? A) left atrium B) right atrium C) left ventricle D) right ventricle E) left auricle Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) An MI that affects the ________ side of the heart is more severe because it has to pump blood with ________ force. A) right; less B) right; more C) left; less D) left; more E) right; equal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 78) One possible consequence of untreated strep throat is a disease causing inflammation of heart called A) rheumatic fever. B) rheumatoid arthritis. C) coronary thrombosis. D) coronary ischemia. E) angina pectoris. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 79) Rheumatic fever causes generalized inflammation of the heart called A) rheumatoid arthritis. B) coronary thrombosis. C) carditis. D) coronary ischemia. E) myocardial infarction. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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80) The connective tissues of the heart are important for all of the following reasons except A) they help distribute the forces of contraction. B) they prevent overexpansion of the heart. C) they provide support for blood vessels and nerves. D) they produce the pericardial fluid. E) they provide elasticity to help the heart return to its original shape after contraction. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 20-1 The Heart Use Figure 20-1 to answer the following questions: 81) Identify the structure labeled "19." A) tricuspid valve B) pulmonary semilunar valve C) aortic semilunar valve D) bicuspid valve E) ligamentum arteriosum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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82) Identify the structure(s) labeled "8." A) moderator band B) pectinate muscles C) papillary muscles D) trabeculae carneae E) chordae tendineae Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 83) Identify the structure labeled "6." A) cusp of tricuspid valve B) pulmonary semilunar valve C) aortic semilunar valve D) bicuspid valve E) ligamentum arteriosum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 84) Which chamber receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circuit? A) 5 B) 10 C) 16 D) 13 E) both 5 and 16 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 85) Identify the structure labeled "22." A) pulmonary trunk B) aortic arch C) pulmonary veins D) superior vena cava E) carotid artery Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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86) Tetanic muscle contractions don't occur in a normal cardiac muscle because A) cardiac muscle tissue contracts on its own. B) neural stimulation is lacking. C) the refractory period lasts until the muscle relaxes. D) the refractory period ends before the muscle reaches peak tension. E) potassium channels outnumber sodium channels. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 87) Cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells differ in a few ways. Which of the following is not one of them? A) Cardiac muscle cells are smaller in size. B) Cardiac muscle cells have a single, centered nucleus. C) Cardiac muscle cells branch. D) Skeletal muscle cells lack intercalated discs. E) Cardiac muscle cells lack transverse tubules. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 88) In cardiac muscle, the fast depolarization phase of the action potential is the result of A) increased membrane permeability to sodium ions. B) increased membrane permeability to potassium ions. C) decreased membrane permeability to calcium ions. D) decreased membrane permeability to sodium ions. E) increased membrane permeability to chloride ions. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 89) The long plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential is due to A) movement of fewer sodium ions across the cell membrane. B) calcium channels remaining open. C) increased membrane permeability to potassium ion. D) decrease in the amount of calcium diffusing across the membrane. E) increased membrane permeability to sodium ions. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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90) In cardiac muscle, A) calcium ions are not released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. B) calcium ions do not bind to troponin molecules. C) calcium ions play no role in the process of contraction. D) about 20 percent of the calcium ion required for contraction comes from outside the cell. E) calcium ions play an important role in repolarizing the membrane after the depolarization phase. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) The normal pacemaker of the heart is located in A) the Purkinje fibers. B) the sinoatrial node. C) the atrioventricular node. D) the wall of the left ventricle. E) both the left and right ventricles. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the shape of the ________ in an ECG tracing. A) P wave B) T wave C) QRS complex D) P-R interval E) R-T interval Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 93) As a result of the long refractory period in the cardiac action potential, cardiac muscle cannot exhibit A) tonus. B) treppe. C) tetany. D) recruitment. E) fatigue. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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94) If the pacemaker cells in the SA node become more permeable to potassium ions, the A) heart rate will increase. B) heart rate will decrease. C) cells will depolarize. D) cells will hyperpolarize. E) heart rate will decrease and cells will hyperpolarize. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 95) If the connection between the SA node and AV node becomes blocked, A) the ventricles will beat faster. B) the ventricles will beat more slowly. C) the ventricular beat will remain unchanged. D) cardiac output will increase. E) the atria will contract more forcefully. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 96) The following are structural components of the conducting system of the heart. 1. Purkinje fibers 2. AV bundle 3. AV node 4. SA node 5. bundle branches The sequence in which excitation would move through this system is A) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5. B) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1. C) 3, 5, 4, 2, 1. D) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1. E) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) The P wave of the electrocardiogram is a signal from A) the SA node. B) depolarization of the AV node. C) depolarization of the atria. D) repolarization of the atria. E) depolarization of the ventricles. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

98) If there is a complete block between the SA node and the AV node, how would the ECG be affected? A) The P-R interval will be shorter. B) The QRS duration will be longer. C) There will be much bigger P waves. D) The ventricles will stop beating. E) The rate of P waves will be faster than the rate of QRS complexes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 99) Depolarization of the ventricles is represented on an electrocardiogram by the A) P wave. B) T wave. C) S wave. D) QRS complex. E) PR complex. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) The T wave on an ECG tracing represents A) atrial depolarization. B) atrial repolarization. C) ventricular depolarization. D) ventricular repolarization. E) ventricular contraction. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) Analysis of the electrocardiogram can reveal all of the following except A) heart rate. B) stroke volume. C) the condition of the conducting system. D) the effects of drugs and poisons. E) the duration of the ventricular action potential. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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102) Pacemaker cells isolated from the SA node generate action potentials at ________ beats per minute. A) 20-40 B) 40-60 C) 80-100 D) 100-140 E) 140-180 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 103) ________ is to slow heart rate as ________ is to fast heart rate. A) Tachycardia; bradycardia B) Bradycardia; cardiomyopathy C) Bradycardia; tachycardia D) Cardiac tamponade; bradycardia E) Angina; infarction Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 104) Depolarization of the atria corresponds to the EKG's A) P wave. B) QRS complex. C) QT interval. D) T wave. E) S-T segment. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 105) Which of the following statements is true regarding cardiac muscle? A) Its main source of ATP production is glycogen. B) The actin and myosin myofilaments are not arranged in sarcomeres. C) Cardiac muscle preferentially metabolizes anaerobically. D) There are specialized gap junctions in cardiac muscle not found in skeletal or smooth muscles. E) Cardiac muscle goes into sustained contractions faster than skeletal muscle. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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106) The property of heart muscle to contract in the absence of neural or hormonal stimulation is called A) intrinsic. B) extrinsic. C) automaticity. D) self-replicating. E) self-starting. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) The structures responsible for distributing excitation to the contractile cells are A) contractile cells. B) conducting cells. C) intercalated cells. D) pacemaker cells. E) intermodal cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) A slower-than-normal heart rate is called A) tachycardia. B) bradycardia. C) hypercardia. D) hypocardia. E) procardia. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) A faster-than-normal heart rate is called A) tachycardia. B) bradycardia. C) hypercardia. D) hypocardia. E) procardia. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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110) Collectively, the conducting cells that carry the impulse from the SA node to the AV node is known as the A) conducting system. B) AV block. C) internodal pathway. D) bundle branches. E) pacemaker cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) Which of the following describes what is directly measured by an ECG? A) the force of contractions B) blood vessel resistance C) end-systolic volume D) electrical conduction E) neural stimulation of cardiac myocytes Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 112) Gradual drifting of membrane potential toward threshold in autorhythmic cells is termed a A) receptor potential. B) pacemaker potential. C) gated potential. D) ligand-gated potential. E) action potential. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 113) The basic heartrate established by the SA node is called the A) pacemaker potential. B) action potential. C) vagal tone. D) sinus rhythm. E) SA potential. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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114) The AV node delay is beneficial because A) it allows time for the atria to contract. B) it allows time for the ventricles to contract. C) it allows time to send feedback to the brain about heartrate. D) it decreases neural stimulation of the heart. E) it hyperpolarizes the ventricular cell membranes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 115) An ECG is used to diagnose all of the following conditions except A) an AV block. B) an ectopic pacemaker. C) angina pectoris. D) premature atrial contractions. E) ventricular tachycardia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 116) The first heart sound ("lubb") is associated with A) atrial systole. B) closing of the atrioventricular valves. C) opening of the atrioventricular valves. D) closing of the semilunar valves. E) opening of the semilunar valves. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 117) Considering the left ventricle, why does isovolumetric ventricular contraction occur during ventricular systole? A) The ventricle needs to pressurize the blood to close the aortic valve. B) Ventricular pressure is greater than atrial pressure so the ventricle cannot eject blood. C) The bicuspid valve needs time to shut before the ventricle can eject blood. D) Aortic pressure is higher than ventricular pressure and the ventricle must pressurize the blood to open the aortic valve. E) The ventricle is still filling with blood and therefore cannot eject blood during this time. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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118) The phase in the cardiac cycle when the mitral valve is closed and the aortic valve is open is the A) atrial systole. B) early diastolic filling phase. C) late diastolic filling phase. D) systolic ejection phase. E) dicrotic phase. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 119) During ventricular systole, the A) atria are contracting. B) blood is entering the ventricles. C) AV valves are closed. D) pressure in the ventricles remains constant. E) pressure in the aorta remains constant. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 120) With each ventricular systole, A) blood pressure remains steady. B) the ventricles fill with blood. C) blood pressure decreases. D) cardiac output decreases. E) blood pressure increases. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 121) The contraction phase of the cardiac cycle is called A) depolarization. B) systole. C) diastole. D) hyperpolarization. E) asystole. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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122) The relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle is called A) depolarization. B) systole. C) diastole. D) hyperpolarization. E) asystole. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 123) Abnormal heart sounds caused by turbulent flow through faulty valves are called A) ectopic foci. B) murmurs. C) asystole. D) fibrillations. E) flutters. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 124) The backward flow of blood from a ventricle to its atrium or from a outflow vessel to its ventricle is called A) emesis. B) flutter. C) fibrillation. D) regurgitation. E) stenosis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 125) In mitral valve prolapse, the cusps of the mitral valve are pushed into the A) left ventricle. B) right ventricle. C) left atrium. D) right atrium. E) aorta. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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126) The ________ is the amount of blood in a ventricle after it has contracted and before it begins to refill. A) ejection fraction B) end-diastole volume C) start-diastolic volume D) end-systolic volume E) stroke volume Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 127) The ________ is the volume of blood in a ventricle at the beginning of systole. A) ejection fraction B) end-diastole volume C) asystolic volume D) end-systolic volume E) stroke volume Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 128) The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle when the semilunar valve closes is the A) ejection fraction. B) end-diastole volume. C) start-diastolic volume. D) end-systolic volume. E) stroke volume. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 129) The heart spends most of the cardiac cycle in which phase? A) atrial systole B) atrial diastole C) ventricular systole D) ventricular diastole E) isovolumetric contraction Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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130) During the beginning of ventricular systole when the muscle is contracting but not enough pressure has built up to open the semilunar valves the heart is said to be in A) atrial kick. B) isovolumetric contraction. C) isovolumetric relaxation. D) atrial systole. E) passive ventricular filling. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 131) When heart rate increases, the time spent in A) systole increases. B) diastole increases. C) all phases decreases but most of the decrease is during systole. D) all phases decreases but most of the decrease is during diastole. E) isovolumetric contraction increases. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 132) In an adult at rest, the end-diastolic volume is typically A) 50 mL. B) 80 mL. C) 130 mL. D) 320 mL. E) 560 mL. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 133) Which of the following is occurring during ventricular diastole? A) The ventricles are passively filling. B) The ventricles are passively filling and atria are contracting. C) The AV valves are closed. D) The SL valves are open. E) Ventricular ejection. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 20-2 Cardiac Cycle Use Figure 20-2 to answer the following questions: 134) What occurs at the circle labeled "3" on the graph? A) atrial systole B) isovolumetric relaxation C) atrial diastole and ventricle systole D) atrial ejection E) ventricular ejection Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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135) What volume is labeled "G" on the graph? A) cardiac output B) stroke volume C) end-systolic volume D) end-diastolic volume E) ejection fraction Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 136) What occurs at "A" on the graph? A) Semilunar valve opens. B) Semilunar valve closes. C) AV valve opens. D) AV valve closes. E) end systolic volume Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 137) What volume is labeled "E" on the graph? A) cardiac output B) stroke volume C) end-diastolic volume D) end-systolic volume E) total cardiac volume Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 138) What occurs at the circle labeled "5" on the graph? A) peak systolic pressure B) isovolumetric systole C) isovolumetric contraction D) ventricular refilling E) increased heart rate Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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139) What occurs at the area labeled "B" on the graph? A) Ventricular ejection occurs. B) AV valve closes. C) Semilunar valve opens. D) Semilunar valve closes. E) AV valve opens. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 140) What occurs at the circle labeled "4" on the graph? A) ventricular ejection B) sympathetic stimulation C) isovolumetric ventricular contraction D) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation E) ventricular filling Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 141) What occurs at the circle labeled "7" on the graph? A) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation B) sympathetic stimulation C) isovolumetric ventricular contraction D) ventricular ejection E) ventricular filling Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 142) What volume is labeled "F" on the graph? A) cardiac output B) end-systolic volume C) end-diastolic volume D) total cardiac volume E) stroke volume Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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143) What occurs at the area labeled "C" on the graph? A) AV valve opens. B) AV valve closes. C) Ventricular filling begins. D) Semilunar valve closes. E) Semilunar valve opens. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 144) What is occurring in the left atrium at the circle labeled "2" on the graph? A) Left atrium is pressurizing the left ventricle. B) Left atrium is in systole. C) Left atrial pressure is decreasing. D) Left atrium is in diastole. E) Left atrium is receiving pressure from the left ventricle. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 145) An increase in the rate of action potentials from baroreceptors will trigger a reflex to A) increase heart rate. B) decrease heart rate. C) decrease blood pressure. D) both decrease heart rate and decrease pressure. E) both increase heart rate and increase pressure. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 146) The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the A) end-diastolic volume. B) end-systolic volume. C) stroke volume. D) cardiac output. E) cardiac reserve. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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147) Each of the following factors will increase cardiac output except increased A) venous return. B) parasympathetic stimulation. C) sympathetic stimulation. D) heart rate. E) force of contraction. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 148) Which of the following would not increase heart rate? A) increased sympathetic stimulation of SA node B) decreased parasympathetic stimulation of nodal fibers C) increased levels of epinephrine D) faster depolarization of the pacemaker potential E) beta blocking drugs Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 149) Stroke volume depends on all of the following factors except A) end diastolic volume. B) the contractility of the ventricle. C) the pressure required to pump blood into the aorta. D) venous return of blood to the heart. E) respiratory rate. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 150) Cardiac output can be increased by all of the following except A) decreasing ejection fraction. B) decreasing end systolic volume. C) increasing stroke volume. D) increasing ejection fraction. E) increasing heart rate. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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151) Heart rate is controlled by neurons of the cardiovascular center located in the A) pons. B) thalamus. C) medulla oblongata. D) hypothalamus. E) higher centers. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 152) Which of the following would cause stroke volume to increase? A) when venous return is decreased B) when ventricular contraction is reduced C) drugs that stimulate beta-1 receptors D) decrease in heart rate E) decreased sympathetic stimulation Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 153) Cardiac output is increased by A) sympathetic stimulation. B) increased end systolic volume. C) decreased end diastolic volume. D) decreased venous return. E) inhibiting the atrial reflex. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 154) Activation of which kind of receptor causes heart rate to increase? A) alpha-one B) beta-one C) muscarinic D) beta-two E) preganglionic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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155) Drugs that block the beta-one adrenergic receptors will A) increase heart rate. B) decrease heart rate. C) increase contractility. D) increase cardiac output. E) decrease the end-systolic volume. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 156) If the force of ventricular contraction increases, what will happen to the end-systolic volume? A) increase B) fluctuate rapidly C) remain the same D) decrease E) reduced to zero Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 157) End-systolic volume is defined as the A) amount of blood a ventricle ejects per cycle. B) amount of blood which backflows into a ventricle. C) amount of blood remaining in an atrium after atrial systole. D) amount of blood remaining in a ventricle after contraction. E) stroke volume multiplied by the heart rate. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 158) A patient has an end-diastolic volume of 125 ml. A heart attack has weakened her left ventricle so it can pump a stroke volume of only 40 ml. Calculate her end-systolic volume. A) 85 ml B) 3.1 ml C) 5000 ml D) 165 ml E) There is not enough data given to calculate the end-systolic volume. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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159) Calculate cardiac output if the heart rate is 125 beats/minute, the end-diastolic volume is 130 ml, and the end-systolic volume is 40 ml. A) 21,250 ml / min B) 16,250 ml / min C) 11,250 ml / min D) 195 ml / min E) 200 ml / min Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 160) Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with a heart rate of 100 beats/minute and a stroke volume of 75 ml. A) 0.75 ml / min B) 750 ml / min C) 7500 ml / min D) 175 ml / min E) 25 ml / min Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 161) ________ is when the heart can't maintain adequate cardiac output. A) Heart failure B) Fibrillation C) Flutter D) Murmur E) Coronary heart disease Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 162) The ________ is the difference between the resting and maximal cardiac output. A) end-systolic volume B) end-diastolic volume C) cardiac reserve D) stroke volume E) ejection fraction Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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163) The principle that increasing the end-diastolic volume results in a corresponding increase in the stroke volume is known as A) afterload. B) cardiac capacity. C) cardiac reserve. D) Frank-Starling principle. E) expandibility. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 164) The amount of blood returning to the heart is the A) afterload. B) stroke volume. C) end-diastolic volume. D) cardiac reserve. E) venous return. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 165) Which factor directly influences preload? A) contractility B) heart rate C) stroke volume D) venous return E) parasympathetic tone Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 166) Positive inotropic drugs such as glucagon and thyroid hormone cause A) decreased heart rate. B) increased heart rate. C) increased contractility. D) decreased contractility. E) asystole. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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167) Hypertension increases ________ causing stroke volume to ________. A) afterload; increase B) afterload; decrease C) preload; increase D) preload; decrease E) contractility; increase Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 168) John encounters a bear while hiking. His heart will respond in all of the following ways except A) increasing preload. B) increasing heart rate. C) increasing contractility. D) decreasing heart rate and contractility. E) increasing venous return. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 169) A tumor on the adrenal gland increasing catecholamine release will cause all of the following cardiovascular responses except A) decreased heart rate. B) increased contractility. C) increased venous return. D) increased preload. E) decreased ESV. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) The ________ side of the heart supplies blood to the systemic circuit, while the ________ side of the heart supplies blood to the pulmonary circuit. (Figure 20-1) A) superior; inferior B) inferior; superior C) left; right D) right; left E) left; superior Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Beginning with the right atrium, what is the order of the valves through which blood will pass? (Figure 20-5) A) mitral valve, aortic valve, tricuspid valve, pulmonary valve B) aortic valve, tricuspid valve, mitral valve, pulmonary valve C) tricuspid valve, mitral valve, pulmonary valve, aortic valve D) pulmonary valve, tricuspid valve, aortic valve, mitral valve E) tricuspid valve, pulmonary valve, mitral valve, aortic valve Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) What happens to the electrical impulse when it reaches the AV node? (Figure 20-11) A) It fizzles out. B) It gets delayed. C) It gets stronger. D) It spreads across the purkinje fibers. E) It causes ventricular contraction to occur. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 4) Which ion's entry causes rapid depolarization? Which ion's entry causes the plateau? Which ion's exit causes repolarization? (Figure 20-15) A) sodium; calcium; potassium B) potassium; calcium; sodium C) calcium; sodium; potassium D) sodium; potassium; calcium E) sodium; iron; potassium Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) Which division of the autonomic nervous system would increase heart rate? (Figure 20-21) A) sympathetic nervous system B) parasympathetic nervous system Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) What is considered a "normal" cardiac output when resting? Please provide units. (Figure 2024) A) 1-2 L/min B) 2-5 L/min C) 5-7.5 L/min D) 10-12.5 L/min E) 20-25 L/min Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Essay Questions 1) A doctor tells her nursing students that it is important to monitor patients' blood pressure when they are receiving verapamil (a calcium channel blocker). Why? Answer: Calcium channel blockers inhibit the movement of calcium ions from the interstitial fluid into cardiac and smooth muscle cells. This would cause a decrease in heart rate, stroke volume, and cardiac output. These in turn would lower blood pressure. In addition, the calcium channel blockers would also inhibit contraction of the smooth muscle in the wall of blood vessels, causing them to get wider and thus also lower blood pressure. Because both heart and smooth muscle cells are inhibited by verapamil, its effects on blood pressure are particularly potent. Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 2) A patient's ECG recording shows a very long P-R interval. What is the cause of this abnormal wave pattern? Answer: The P wave marks the time of atrial depolarization and the QRS complex signals ventricular depolarization. Between those two events the AV node was excited and the action potential was spread through the conducting tissue to the ventricular myocardium. A prolonged P-R interval signifies an unusually slow conduction through the AV node and conducting system, possibly due to insufficient blood flow (ischemia). Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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3) If a patient's resting cardiac output is 5.6 l/min and on a stress test she elevated her heart rate to a maximum of 176 beats/min with a stroke volume of 115 ml/beat, what is her cardiac reserve? Show your work. Answer: Cardiac reserve equals maximum cardiac output - resting cardiac output. Maximum CO = HR × SV = 176 beats/minute × 0.115 liters/beat = 20.2 liters/minute. Cardiac reserve equals 14.6 liters/minute. Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 21 Blood Vessels and Circulation Multiple Choice Questions 1) The muscular layer in the wall of a blood vessel is the tunica A) intima. B) externa. C) media. D) interna. E) adventitia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Compared to arteries, veins A) are rounder in a sectional cut. B) have more smooth muscle in their tunica media. C) have a pleated endothelium. D) have thinner walls. E) hold their shape better when cut. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Capillaries that have a complete lining are called A) continuous capillaries. B) fenestrated capillaries. C) sinusoidal capillaries. D) sinusoids. E) vasa vasorum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) The smallest arterial branches are called the A) muscular arteries. B) arterioles. C) capillaries. D) venules. E) veins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) The layer between the tunica media and the tunica externa in a large artery is the A) tunica intima. B) external elastic membrane. C) tunica media. D) internal elastic membrane. E) tunica externa. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) Which of the following layers of a vessel contains collagen fibers with scattered bands of elastic fibers? A) tunica intima B) external elastic membrane C) tunica media D) internal elastic membrane E) tunica externa Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) After blood leaves the capillaries, it enters the A) arteries. B) arterioles. C) capillaries. D) venules. E) veins. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Which layer of a blood vessel contains concentric sheets of smooth muscle tissue? A) tunica intima B) external elastic membrane C) tunica media D) internal elastic membrane E) tunica externa Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) The large vessels that return blood to the heart are called A) arteries. B) arterioles. C) capillaries. D) venules. E) veins. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) In arteries, the thick layer of elastic fibers associated with the tunica intima is called the A) tunica intima. B) external elastic membrane. C) tunica media. D) internal elastic membrane. E) tunica externa. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) Which of the following is the innermost layer of a blood vessel? A) tunica intima B) external elastic membrane C) tunica media D) internal elastic membrane E) tunica externa Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) Venoconstriction ________ the amount of blood within the venous system, which ________ the volume in the arterial and capillary systems. A) doubles; decreases B) reduces; increases C) decreases; doubles D) increases; reduces E) reduces; reduces Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) Venous valves are responsible for A) preventing anterograde flow. B) channeling blood away from the heart. C) channeling blood toward the heart. D) preventing blood from re-entering a ventricle. E) regulating blood pressure in veins. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 14) Venae cavae are the largest of what type of vessel? A) artery B) arteriole C) capillary D) venule E) vein Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) Which of the following vessels changes diameter most readily to local conditions or SNS stimulation? A) elastic arteries B) arterioles C) fenestrated capillaries D) venules E) veins Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 16) Of the following, which is an elastic artery? A) the subclavian B) the external carotid C) the brachial D) the femoral E) the ulnar Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) You would expect to find fenestrated capillaries in A) skeletal muscles. B) cardiac muscle. C) the pituitary gland. D) bone. E) skin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 18) A sample of tissue displays many large flattened spaces lined by fenestrated endothelium. Blood moves slowly through these spaces. This tissue sample most likely came from the A) heart. B) lungs. C) liver. D) kidneys. E) skin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 19) These vessels may be continuous or fenestrated. A) arteries B) arterioles C) capillaries D) venules E) veins Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 20) What structure do RBCs move through single-file? A) artery B) arteriole C) capillary D) venule E) vein Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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21) Capillaries with a perforated lining are called A) perforated capillaries. B) discontinuous capillaries. C) fenestrated capillaries. D) sinuses. E) vasa vasorum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) Exchange between a blood vessel and the cells that surround it can occur only in A) arteries. B) arterioles. C) veins. D) venules. E) capillaries. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) Which kind of vessel is also called a resistance vessel? A) artery B) arteriole C) capillary D) venule E) vein Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) Blood flow through a capillary is controlled by the A) vasa vasorum. B) plexus. C) precapillary sphincter. D) thoroughfare channel. E) venule. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) The common iliac artery is an example of which type of artery? A) arteriolar B) elastic C) connective D) muscular E) vascular Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) Venoconstriction reduces the diameter of which vessel? A) artery B) arteriole C) capillary D) venule E) vein Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) The brachial and femoral arteries are examples of which type of artery? A) arteriolar B) elastic C) connective D) muscular E) vascular Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) What vessels contain elastic fibers in the walls that are stretched during systole? A) arteries B) arterioles C) capillaries D) venules E) veins Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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29) Which of the following is most likely to result from an aneurysm in a brain artery? A) hypotension B) quadriplegia C) stroke D) myocardial infarction E) pulmonary embolism Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 30) Complications related to arteriosclerosis account for roughly ________ percent of deaths in the United States. A) 30 B) 60 C) 20 D) 50 E) 25 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) Arteriosclerosis can lead to all of the following except A) hypertension. B) stroke. C) coronary artery disease. D) myocardial infarction. E) diabetes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 32) Which of the following are the smallest venous vessels? A) large veins B) venules C) medium veins D) arteriovenules E) venous valves Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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33) Blood moves forward through veins because of all of the following except A) the pressure in the veins is lower than in the arteries. B) pumping by the smooth muscle in the wall of the vein. C) the respiratory pump. D) valves in the veins preventing the backward flow of blood. E) muscular compression. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) Which part of the vascular system functions as a blood reservoir and contains over 60% of the body's blood? A) pulmonary arteries B) capillaries C) systemic arterioles D) veins E) arteries Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 35) What is the correct order for the sequence of blood vessels that blood would travel in the systemic circuit, starting at the aorta? 1. venules 2. arterioles 3. capillaries 4. elastic arteries 5. medium veins 6. large veins 7. muscular arteries A) 6, 5, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4 B) 4, 7, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6 C) 7, 4, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6 D) 5, 6, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4 E) 2, 7, 6, 3, 1, 5, 6 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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36) The main control of peripheral resistance occurs in the A) arterioles. B) venules. C) veins. D) arteries. E) capillaries. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 37) Multiple arteries joined in order to serve a single capillary network are called A) convergents. B) arteriole beds. C) portals. D) connexons. E) collaterals. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) The direct interconnection of two arteries is called an arterial A) collateral. B) anastomosis. C) unification. D) merger. E) portal. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) A(n) ________ is a direct connection between an arteriole and a venule. A) arteriovenule joint B) collateralization C) arteriovenous anastomosis D) arteriovenule junction E) arch Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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40) The ________ are small blood vessels that nourish tissue components in the wall of large arteries and veins. A) tunica capillaria B) perfusion capillaries C) vasa vasorum D) vascular capillaries E) cortical vessels Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 41) The increase in effective blood volume that results from venoconstriction is the A) venous reserve. B) capacitance of veins. C) vessel mobilization. D) venous return. E) vessel residual. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) In the condition known as ________, the wall of an artery becomes thicker and stiffer. A) arthritis B) arteriosclerosis C) stenosis D) atherosclerosis E) multiple sclerosis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) The condition known as ________ is characterized by the formation of fatty plaques within the wall of arteries. A) arthritis B) arteriosclerosis C) stenosis D) atherosclerosis E) multiple sclerosis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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44) Points where a muscular artery can be compressed against a bone to control severe bleeding are called A) decompression points. B) palpation points. C) diastolic points. D) regulation points. E) pressure points. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 45) A(n) ________ is a bulge, or weakened wall, of an artery. A) aneurysm B) stroke C) vascular edema D) arteriosclerosis E) atherosclerosis Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) ________ form elaborate capillary networks within tissues that allow for very slow blood flow. A) Varicosities B) Sinusoids C) Foramina D) Portal systems E) Perfusion centers Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) After the precapillary sphincter, blood enters a(n) A) venule. B) anastomosis. C) vein. D) arteriole. E) thoroughfare channel. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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48) The tunica intima consists of A) stratified squamous epithelium. B) simple squamous epithelium and loose connective tissue. C) smooth muscle and loose connective tissue. D) simple squamous epithelium and smooth muscle. E) loose connective tissue. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 49) What are the layers of blood vessels from outside to inside? A) tunica intima; tunica externa; tunica media B) tunica intima; tunica media; tunica externa C) tunica media; tunica externa; tunica interna D) tunica externa; tunica interna; tunica media E) tunica externa; tunica media; tunica interna Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) What is the difference between elastic arteries and muscular arteries? A) Elastic arteries have more smooth muscle than muscular arteries. B) Muscular arteries have larger lumens than elastic arteries. C) Elastic arteries have elastic fibers throughout the tunica media whereas muscular arteries have few elastic fibers in the tunica media. D) Elastic arteries are closest to the arterioles and muscular arteries are farther away. E) Elastic arteries have a larger tunica intima and tunica media compared to muscular arteries. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 51) Monocytes filled with lipid that attach to the endothelial lining in atherosclerosis are termed A) lipoproteins. B) foam cells. C) Kuppfer cells. D) fibrocytes. E) adipocytes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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52) Cardiovascular diseases typically affect A) young children. B) young women. C) old men. D) old men and old women. E) young men. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53) What is the primary reason cardiovascular disease affects older women and not younger women? A) Older women are less likely to smoke. B) Older women are less likely to see a doctor. C) Older women lack estrogen. D) Older women are more likely to have osteoporosis. E) Older women lack growth hormone. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 54) A genetic condition that leads to the inability to absorb and recycle cholesterol in the liver is A) focal calcification. B) familial hypercholesterolemia. C) atherosclerosis. D) arteriosclerosis. E) coronary artery disease. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) Which of the following is not a commonly palpated arterial pressure point? A) axillary B) radial C) brachial D) femoral E) popliteal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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56) Which vessel has only the tunica intima layer? A) artery B) vein C) arteriole D) venule E) capillary Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) In the bone marrow, new blood cells must enter the circulation through A) arterioles. B) continuous capillaries. C) fenestrated capillaries. D) sinusoidal capillaries. E) venules. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 58) Anti-angiogenic drugs are being used to decrease tumor growth. These drugs work by decreasing A) cell division. B) cell communication. C) new blood vessel formation. D) focal calcification. E) vascular flow. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 59) Distension of the superficial veins caused by weakened valves is termed A) hemorrhoids. B) venoconstriction. C) vaso vasorum. D) varicose veins. E) venous reserve. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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60) Resistance is a force that A) increases blood flow. B) decreases blood flow. C) never changes in a blood vessel. D) acts with pressure to move blood along a vessel. E) is always higher than blood pressure. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 61) Total peripheral resistance is related to all of the following except the A) length of a blood vessel. B) osmolarity of interstitial fluids. C) turbulence. D) blood viscosity. E) blood vessel diameter. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) As blood travels from arteries to veins, A) pressure builds. B) pressure drops. C) flow becomes turbulent. D) viscosity increases. E) diameter of the blood vessels gets progressively smaller. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) Blood flow to a tissue will increase if the A) level of oxygen at the tissue increases. B) level of carbon dioxide at the tissue decreases. C) veins constrict. D) arterioles dilate. E) arterioles constrict. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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64) Blood pressure is determined by A) measuring the size of the pulse. B) listening carefully to the pulse. C) estimating the pressure needed to close off an artery with an external pressure cuff. D) estimating the degree of turbulence in a partly closed vessel. E) measuring the force of contraction of the left ventricle. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 65) In what vessel is blood pressure the highest? A) artery B) arteriole C) capillary D) venule E) vein Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 66) Blood pressure increases with all of the following except increased A) cardiac output. B) peripheral resistance. C) blood volume. D) parasympathetic innervation. E) force of cardiac contraction. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) Which of the following factors will increase the net filtration pressure to move fluid out of capillaries? A) decreased plasma albumin B) increased blood hydrostatic pressure C) increased tissue hydrostatic pressure D) both decreased plasma albumin and increased blood hydrostatic pressure E) increased plasma albumin and decreased blood hydrostatic pressure Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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68) The main control of peripheral resistance occurs in the A) artery. B) arteriole. C) capillary. D) venule. E) vein. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 69) The vascular pressure that declines from roughly 35 mm Hg to about 18 mm Hg is the A) venous pressure. B) capillary hydrostatic pressure. C) diastolic pressure. D) peripheral pressure. E) pulse pressure. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) Clinically, the term blood pressure usually refers to A) arteriovenous pressure. B) capillary hydrostatic pressure. C) arterial pressure. D) peripheral pressure. E) pulse pressure. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) Averaged over a few heartbeats, venous return is ________ cardiac output. A) much higher than B) somewhat higher than C) equal to D) somewhat lower than E) much lower than Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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72) Blood pressure is lowest in the A) arteries. B) arterioles. C) capillaries. D) venules. E) veins. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 73) If blood pressure doubled, the blood flow through a vessel would be A) doubled. B) halved. C) four times greater. D) 1/4 as much. E) unchanged. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 74) In which of the following would the blood flow be highest? A) a vessel 0.5 cm in diameter and 2 meters long B) a vessel 1.0 cm in diameter and 10 meters long C) a vessel 0.5 cm in diameter and 4 meters long D) a vessel 1.0 cm in diameter and 2 meters long Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 75) Each of the following factors would increase peripheral resistance except A) increased sympathetic stimulation. B) elevated levels of epinephrine. C) vasodilation. D) irregularities in the vessel walls caused by plaques. E) elevated hematocrit. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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76) If a person has a blood pressure of 120/90, his mean arterial pressure would be ________ mm Hg. A) 210 B) 100 C) 93 D) 105 E) 90 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 77) The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the ________ pressure. A) critical closing B) mean arterial C) pulse D) blood E) circulatory Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) The blood colloid osmotic pressure mostly depends on the A) concentration of plasma sodium ions. B) concentration of plasma glucose. C) concentration of plasma waste products. D) concentration of plasma proteins. E) number of red blood cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) Which of the following statements is false concerning the movement of fluid between capillaries and interstitial space? A) Blood hydrostatic pressure forces fluid from the capillary to the interstitial space. B) Blood osmotic pressure moves fluid from the interstitial space to the capillary. C) The osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid is less than the blood osmotic pressure. D) The hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid is largely unimportant in determining fluid movement. E) The net filtration pressure is usually zero. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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80) Each of the following changes will result in increased blood flow to a tissue except A) increased hematocrit. B) increased vessel diameter. C) increased blood pressure. D) decreased peripheral resistance. E) relaxation of precapillary sphincters. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 81) In comparison to a vessel with a large diameter, a vessel with a small diameter has A) less resistance to blood flow. B) the same amount of pressure as resistance. C) a greater resistance to blood flow. D) a higher blood pressure. E) a greater blood flow. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 82) Which of the following equations shows the correct relation between blood flow (F), pressure (P), and resistance (R)? A) P = (F × R) × 4 B) F = R/P C) F = P + R D) F = P - R E) F = P/R Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 83) As blood circulates from arteries into capillaries, the total cross-sectional area of capillaries A) decreases and causes the blood velocity to decrease. B) is the same as the total cross-sectional area of arteries and blood velocity is equal between arteries and capillaries. C) increases and causes the blood velocity to decrease. D) increases and causes the blood velocity to increase. E) decreases and causes the blood velocity to increase. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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84) Which of the following is normally the greatest source acting against blood flow? A) vascular resistance B) venous pressure C) viscosity of blood D) vessel length E) turbulence Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 85) The force that moves fluid out of capillaries is ________ pressure whereas the opposing force that moves fluid into capillaries is ________ pressure. A) systolic; diastolic B) hydrostatic; colloid osmotic C) blood; interstitial D) colloid osmotic; hydrostatic E) plasma; extracellular Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 86) Some of the fluid that is forced out of capillaries is returned to the blood by the A) muscular arteries. B) liver. C) hepatic portal vein. D) venules. E) lymphatic system. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 87) Blood colloid osmotic pressure is produced by A) large non-diffusible proteins in the blood plasma. B) a greater salt concentration in blood cells. C) the force of blood pushing against the vessel wall. D) osmosis of water. E) hypertonic solutions separated by a cell membrane. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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88) Blood colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP) decreases in starving children because A) starvation increases blood pressure which, in turn, decreases BCOP. B) starvation increases the permeability of capillaries causing a decrease in BCOP. C) starvation prevents the liver from producing enough protein to maintain BCOP. D) malnourished children do not exercise, which results in a decrease in BCOP. E) This statement is false; BCOP actually increases in starving children. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 89) Calculate the net filtration pressure (NFP) with a blood hydrostatic pressure of 40 mm Hg and a blood colloid osmotic pressure of 25 mm Hg. Then determine if filtration or reabsorption occurs. NFP = ________ and results in a fluid ________. A) 15 mm Hg; filtration B) 65 mm Hg; reabsorption C) 65 mm Hg; filtration D) 15 mm Hg; reabsorption E) -15 mm Hg; filtration Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 90) Which of the following opposes the flow of blood back to the heart? A) vascular resistance B) peripheral veins have valves to prevent backflow of blood C) muscular pumps squeeze veins and move blood toward the heart D) blood pressure E) blood pressure gradient from arteries to veins Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 91) As blood travels from arteries to veins, A) viscosity of blood changes. B) pressure increases. C) diameter of the blood vessels gets progressively smaller. D) pressure decreases. E) flow becomes turbulent. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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92) Edema may occur when A) the plasma concentration of protein is reduced. B) capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated. C) capillary endothelium permeability goes up. D) the plasma concentration of protein is reduced and capillary endothelium permeability goes up. E) the plasma concentration of protein is reduced, capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated, and the capillary endothelium permeability goes up. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 93) The resistance to blood flow of the entire cardiovascular system is known as A) severe combined constriction. B) vasomotion. C) vasoconstriction. D) total peripheral resistance. E) systemic resistance. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) Systemic arterial pressure in an adult at the entrance to the aorta averages A) 18 mmHg. B) 35 mmHg. C) 80 mmHg. D) 120 mmHg. E) 93 mmHg. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) You can expect children to have lower blood pressures than adults on average because A) they have fewer blood vessels. B) their hearts beat less forcefully. C) their capillaries are leakier. D) their blood is less viscous. E) their blood vessel length is less. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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96) Total peripheral resistance is affected primarily by A) blood vessel diameter. B) blood vessel length. C) blood viscosity. D) venous pressure. E) turbulence. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 97) All of the following conditions change peripheral resistance by affecting blood viscosity except A) sickle-cell anemia. B) increase in erythropoietin. C) polycythemia. D) atherosclerosis. E) pernicious anemia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 98) Cross-sectional area is highest in A) arteries. B) arterioles. C) capillaries. D) venules. E) veins. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) Which of the following is true of arteries compared to other vessels? A) Blood pressure and velocity are lowest. B) Blood pressure and velocity are highest. C) Blood pressure and cross-sectional area are lowest. D) Blood pressure and cross-sectional area are highest. E) Velocity and cross-sectional area are highest. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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100) Which of the following is true of capillaries compared to other vessels? A) Blood pressure and velocity are highest. B) Blood pressure and cross-sectional area are lowest. C) Cross-sectional area is highest and velocity is lowest. D) Cross-sectional area is lowest and velocity is highest. E) Blood pressure is highest and velocity is lowest. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 101) A temporary loss of consciousness due to a decrease in blood flow to the brain is termed A) stroke. B) coronary ischemia. C) cerebral hypoxia. D) fainting. E) cerebral hypotension. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 102) During hemorrhaging, the drop in capillary hydrostatic pressure will ________ NFP, thus ________ reabsorption. A) increase; reducing B) increase; increasing C) decrease; reducing D) decrease; increasing E) stabilize; reducing Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 103) Each of the following will lead to a decrease in blood pressure except A) release of renin. B) decrease in blood volume. C) decreased peripheral resistance. D) increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide). E) decreased levels of aldosterone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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104) Each of the following will cause an increase in blood pressure except A) increased levels of aldosterone. B) increased levels of angiotensin II. C) increased blood volume. D) increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide). E) increased levels of ADH (antidiuretic hormone). Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) When a person rises quickly from a sitting position, all of the following reactions will occur except A) the carotid baroreceptors become less active. B) venous return is decreased. C) reflex vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels occurs. D) heart rate is reflexively elevated. E) cardiac output will decrease. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 106) Stimulation of the aortic baroreceptors reflexively results in A) stimulation of the cardioaccelerator center in the brain. B) increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart. C) increased activity by the parasympathetic nervous system. D) stimulation of the vasoconstrictive center. E) increased heart rate. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) Fear can result in A) increased stimulation of the cardioinhibitory center by higher brain centers. B) increased stimulation of the cardioacceleratory center by higher brain centers. C) decreased heart rate. D) decreased blood pressure. E) parasympathetic stimulation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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108) Elevated levels of the natriuretic peptide hormones ANP and BNP will produce increased A) salt and water loss through the kidneys. B) blood volume. C) sodium ion levels in blood. D) venous return and preload. E) blood pressure. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 109) When carotid and aortic baroreceptors reduce their output, A) heart rate increases. B) heart rate decreases. C) stroke volume increases. D) both heart rate and stroke volume increase. E) the heart rate will decrease to lower blood pressure. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 110) Increased levels of carbon dioxide in the blood will result in decreased A) heart rate. B) cardiac output. C) blood flow to the lungs. D) parasympathetic stimulation of the heart. E) sympathetic stimulation of the heart. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 111) Vickie has a tumor that secretes excess amounts of the hormone aldosterone. Because of the elevated level of hormone, she exhibits A) decreased blood volume. B) increased blood pressure. C) increased body stores of sodium ions. D) polycythemia. E) both an increase in blood pressure and an increase in stored sodium ions. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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112) Which of the following conditions is least likely to lead to renin release? A) renal artery thrombus B) vasospasm of the renal arteries C) circulatory shock D) increased sympathetic activity E) hypertension Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 113) The regulation of blood flow by local mechanisms within a capillary bed is called A) autoregulation. B) hormonal regulation. C) hemoregulation. D) vasoregulation. E) neuroregulation. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 114) Partial constriction due to constant sympathetic stimulation of blood vessels is known as A) vasoconstriction. B) vasodilation. C) arteriosclerosis. D) vasomotor tone. E) aortic reflex. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) Baroreceptors are located in the A) carotid sinuses. B) aortic sinuses. C) right atrial wall. D) carotid and aortic sinuses. E) carotid and aortic sinuses and the right atrial wall. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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116) Which is not an effect of angiotensin II to increase blood pressure? A) increasing production of aldosterone B) increasing secretion of ADH C) increasing atrial natriuretic peptide D) increasing thirst E) vasoconstriction increasing total peripheral resistance Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 117) Which of the following changes does not occur during exercise compared to rest? A) Cardiac output is higher. B) Heart blood flow is higher. C) Skin blood flow is lower. D) Abdominal viscera blood flow is lower. E) Kidney blood flow is lower. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 118) To defend blood volume against dehydration, the body A) reduces reabsorption of water at the kidneys. B) experiences an increase of interstitial fluids. C) experiences a decrease in the blood colloidal osmotic pressure. D) releases antidiuretic hormone (ADH). E) releases atrial natriuretic peptide. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 119) All of the following occur during exercise except A) vasodilation occurs at the active skeletal muscles. B) venous return increases. C) both cardiac output and stroke volume increase. D) tissue perfusion to the digestive system decreases. E) angiotensin II is released. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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120) In response to hemorrhage, there is A) peripheral vasodilation. B) increased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart. C) mobilization of the venous reserve. D) constriction of elastic arteries to maintain blood pressure. E) increased blood flow to the digestive system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 121) Homeostatic mechanisms in response to blood loss include all of the following except A) uptake of interstitial fluid due to reduced capillary pressure. B) inhibition of EPO secretion. C) activation of ADH secretion. D) activation of aldosterone secretion. E) increased thirst and water intake. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 122) Trained athletes tend to have ________ heart rates and ________ stroke volumes than nonathletes at rest. A) higher; higher B) lower; lower C) higher; lower D) lower; higher E) similar; higher Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 123) Which of these is not a short-term response to a decrease in blood pressure? A) release of EPO B) increase in heart rate C) increase in heart contractility D) peripheral vasoconstriction E) release of epinephrine and norepinephrine Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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124) Pulmonary arteries carry blood to the A) right atrium. B) left atrium. C) lungs. D) aorta. E) systemic circuit. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 125) The pulmonary veins carry ________ blood to the ________. A) deoxygenated; left atrium B) oxygenated; right lung C) deoxygenated; superior vena cava D) deoxygenated; right atrium E) oxygenated; left atrium Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 126) How many pulmonary veins are there? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) it varies Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 127) Branches off the aortic arch include the A) brachiocephalic trunk. B) left subclavian artery. C) left common carotid artery. D) left subclavian artery and left common carotid artery. E) brachiocephalic trunk, left subclavian artery, and left common carotid artery. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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128) Major branches of the subclavian artery include the ________ artery(ies). A) radial B) brachial C) internal thoracic D) digital E) phrenic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 129) After passing the first rib, the subclavian artery becomes the ________ artery. A) radial B) ulnar C) brachial D) axillary E) digital Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 130) After entering the arm, the axillary artery becomes the ________ artery. A) radial B) ulnar C) brachial D) subclavian E) digital Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 131) The brachial artery branches to form the radial and ________ arteries. A) axillary B) digital C) ulnar D) subclavian E) brachiocephalic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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132) The two vertebral arteries fuse to form a large artery called the A) cerebral arterial circle. B) common carotid artery. C) external carotid artery. D) internal carotid artery. E) basilar artery. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 133) The ________ carries nutrient-rich blood into the liver. A) hepatic artery B) gastric vein C) myenteric capillaries D) hepatic portal vein E) superior mesenteric vein Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 134) The internal carotids and the basilar artery are interconnected by an anastomosis called the A) common carotid artery. B) basal ring. C) cerebral arterial circle. D) external carotid artery. E) arterial bypass. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 135) Near the carotid sinus, A) the common carotid divides into an internal and an external branch. B) the internal carotids fuse with the vertebral arteries. C) the external carotid forms the internal carotid. D) veins and arteries anastomose. E) the aorta gives rise to the common carotids. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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136) The ________ divides the aorta into the thoracic aorta and the abdominal aorta. A) pericardium B) mediastinum C) diaphragm D) peritoneum E) pleura Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 137) Branches of the thoracic aorta include all of the following except the ________ arteries. A) basilar B) superior phrenic C) esophageal D) bronchial E) intercostal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 138) Near the level of vertebra L4, the aorta branches to form the ________ arteries. A) common carotid B) common iliac C) femoral D) tibial E) popliteal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 139) The external iliac artery branches to form the ________ arteries. A) radial and ulnar B) femoral and popliteal C) femoral and tibial D) tibial and popliteal E) femoral and deep femoral Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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140) At the knee, the femoral artery becomes the ________ artery. A) iliac B) deep femoral C) popliteal D) tibial E) peroneal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 141) Branches of the popliteal artery include the A) femoral artery. B) anterior tibial artery. C) iliac artery. D) dorsalis pedis. E) plantar arch. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 142) The vessel that receives blood from the head, neck, chest, shoulders, and arms is the A) internal jugular vein. B) external jugular vein. C) superior vena cava. D) inferior vena cava. E) coronary sinus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 143) Veins of the brain empty into A) coronary sinuses. B) dural sinuses. C) the cerebral arterial circle. D) external jugular veins. E) vertebral veins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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144) The superior sagittal sinus collects blood from the A) heart. B) lungs. C) brain. D) arms. E) legs. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 145) Which of the following is a deep vein of the forearm? A) azygos B) hemiazygos C) cephalic D) radial E) basilic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 146) The radial and ulnar veins fuse to form the ________ vein. A) azygos B) hemiazygos C) axillary D) brachial E) basilic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 147) At the level of the first rib, the axillary vein becomes the ________ vein. A) cephalic B) azygos C) subclavian D) innominate E) external jugular Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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148) The vein that is formed from the fusion of the subclavian with the internal and external jugulars is the ________ vein. A) azygos B) hemiazygos C) axillary D) iliac E) brachiocephalic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 149) The fusion of the brachiocephalic veins forms the A) inferior vena cava. B) superior vena cava. C) innominate vein. D) subclavian vein. E) azygos vein. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 150) Each of the following is a component of the cerebral arterial circle except the ________ artery. A) anterior communicating B) anterior cerebral C) posterior communicating D) posterior cerebral E) basilar Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 151) An important artery that supplies blood to the brain is the ________ artery. A) internal carotid B) external carotid C) mental D) azygos E) maxillary Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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152) Blood from the brain returns to the heart through the ________ vein. A) vertebral B) azygos C) innominate D) internal jugular E) external jugular Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 153) Which of the following contributes to the formation of the popliteal vein? A) internal iliac B) small saphenous and great saphenous C) anterior and posterior tibial and fibular D) peroneal and popliteal E) great saphenous and posterior tibial Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 154) Blood from capillaries on the superior surface of the foot drains into a(n) A) plantar vein. B) dorsal venous arch. C) small saphenous vein. D) peroneal vein. E) iliac vein. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 155) Blood from the dorsal venous arch is drained by the ________ vein(s). A) small saphenous B) great saphenous C) posterior tibial D) small saphenous and great saphenous E) posterior tibial and great saphenous Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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156) At the knee, the small saphenous, tibial, and fibular veins unite to form the ________ vein. A) femoral B) popliteal C) external iliac D) internal iliac E) inferior vena cava Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 157) When the popliteal vein reaches the femur, it becomes the ________ vein. A) femoral B) deep femoral C) internal iliac D) external iliac E) lumbar Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 158) The ________ vein is formed by the fusion of the greater saphenous vein, femoral vein, and deep femoral vein. A) internal iliac B) external iliac C) common iliac D) inferior vena cava E) azygos Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 159) Which of the following veins empty directly into the inferior vena cava? A) left gonadal B) hepatic portal C) azygos D) left adrenal E) renal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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160) The two common iliac veins form the A) femoral vein. B) greater saphenous vein. C) inferior vena cava. D) hepatic portal vein. E) innominate vein. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 161) The blood vessel that carries blood to the arm and shoulder is the ________ artery. A) axillary B) subclavian C) brachial D) acromial E) brachiocephalic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 162) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the head and neck is the ________ artery. A) brachiocephalic B) vertebral C) subclavian D) common carotid E) cervical Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 163) The bronchial arteries branch from the ________ to supply the lung airways. A) pulmonary arteries B) thoracic aorta C) pulmonary veins D) pleural arteries E) brachiocephalic trunk Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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164) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the liver, stomach, and spleen is the A) celiac artery. B) inferior mesenteric vein. C) hepatic portal vein. D) gastric vein. E) superior mesenteric artery. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 165) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the pancreas, the small intestine, and most of the large intestine is the A) celiac artery. B) inferior mesenteric vein. C) hepatic portal vein. D) gastric vein. E) superior mesenteric artery. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 166) The ________ is the kidney's sole blood supply. A) celiac trunk B) abdominal aorta C) hepatic artery D) renal artery E) superior mesenteric artery Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 167) The blood vessel that branches from the subclavian artery to supply the anterior wall of the chest is the A) internal thoracic. B) azygos artery. C) mediastinal artery. D) thoracic aorta. E) vertebral artery. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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168) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the cerebral arterial circle from the posterior is the ________ artery. A) basilar B) middle cerebral C) vertebral D) internal carotid E) posterior cerebral Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 169) The superior phrenic artery supplies blood to the A) lungs. B) heart. C) diaphragm. D) pharynx. E) pancreas. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 170) The ________ artery supplies blood to the face. A) facial B) vertebral C) common carotid D) external carotid E) internal carotid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 171) The lower part of the large intestine including the rectum receives blood from the A) celiac trunk. B) inferior mesenteric artery. C) internal iliac artery. D) abdominal aorta. E) external iliac artery. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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172) Ovaries and testes receive a blood supply from the ________ arteries. A) gonadal B) reproductive C) pelvic D) pubic E) internal iliac Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 173) The inferior portion of the spinal cord and the abdominal wall receive blood from the A) vertebral artery. B) abdominal aorta. C) sacral artery. D) coccygeal artery. E) lumbar artery. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 174) The larger of the two branches of the common iliac artery is the ________ artery. A) superficial iliac B) deep iliac C) external iliac D) internal iliac E) femoral Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 175) The branch of the common iliac artery that enters the pelvic cavity is the ________ artery. A) superficial iliac B) deep iliac C) external iliac D) internal iliac E) femoral Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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176) The vessels that receive blood from the ovaries or testes are the A) gonadal veins. B) reproductive veins. C) inferior vena cavae. D) pelvic veins. E) pubic veins. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 177) Blood is drained from the liver by the A) inferior vena cava. B) celiac trunk. C) hepatic vein. D) hepatic portal vein. E) both the hepatic vein and the hepatic portal vein. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 178) The ________ receives blood from the diaphragm. A) pleural vein B) phrenic vein C) inferior vena cava D) celiac trunk E) inferior mesenteric vein Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 179) Blood returns from the gallbladder by way of the ________ vein. A) hepatic B) hepatic portal C) biliary D) cystic E) azygos Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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180) Arteries that supply the plantar portion of the foot branch from the posterior ________ artery. A) popliteal B) femoral C) calcaneal D) tibial E) dorsalis pedis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 181) The vein in the arm commonly sampled for blood by venipuncture is the ________ vein. A) cephalic B) basilic C) brachial D) median cubital E) ulnar Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 182) The ________ vein ascends along the ulnar side of the forearm. A) cephalic B) basilic C) brachial D) median cubital E) ulnar Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 183) The ________ vein ascends along the radial side of the forearm. A) cephalic B) basilic C) brachial D) median cubital E) ulnar Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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184) Blood from the medial border of the stomach is drained by the A) celiac trunk. B) gastric vein. C) superior mesenteric vein. D) inferior mesenteric vein. E) inferior vena cava. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 185) Blood is drained from the lower portion of the large intestine by the A) celiac trunk. B) gastric vein. C) superior mesenteric vein. D) inferior mesenteric vein. E) inferior vena cava. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 186) Veins from the spleen, pancreas, and lateral border of the stomach unite to form the A) celiac trunk. B) hepatic portal vein. C) splenic vein. D) gastric vein. E) superior mesenteric vein. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 187) The ________ collects blood from the entire small intestine and two-thirds of the large intestine. A) celiac trunk B) hepatic portal vein C) splenic vein D) gastric vein E) superior mesenteric vein Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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188) Which of the following arteries is not a trunk? A) brachiocephalic B) carotid C) celiac D) pulmonary E) thyrocervical Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 189) The left and right coronary arteries originate at the A) aortic arch. B) carotid sinus. C) brachiocephalic trunk. D) aortic sinus. E) aortic valve. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 190) The brachiocephalic trunk delivers blood to A) the left arm. B) the right arm. C) the left arm and neck. D) the right arm and neck. E) the right arm, head and neck. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 191) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the muscles and other tissues of the neck, shoulder, and upper back is the A) brachiocephalic trunk. B) common carotid artery. C) jugular vein. D) thyrocervical trunk. E) axillary artery. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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192) The fingers are supplied with blood by the ________ arteries. A) deep palmar B) digital C) superficial palmar D) plantar E) dorsalis pedis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 193) An important pulse point in the neck on the lateral sides of the trachea is the A) internal carotid artery. B) external carotid artery. C) common carotid artery. D) internal jugular vein. E) external jugular vein. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 194) Which blood vessel enters the brain through the carotid canal? A) internal carotid artery B) external carotid artery C) common carotid artery D) internal jugular vein E) carotid sinus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 195) The internal carotid artery branches into the A) ophthalmic artery and anterior cerebral artery. B) ophthalmic artery and middle cerebral artery. C) ophthalmic artery, anterior cerebral and middle cerebral arteries. D) ophthalmic artery, anterior cerebral, middle cerebral, and posterior cerebral arteries. E) ophthalmic artery and basilar artery. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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196) Which artery is not part of the cerebral arterial circle? A) anterior communicating artery B) anterior cerebral artery C) posterior communicating artery D) posterior cerebral artery E) middle cerebral artery Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 197) The most common site of a stroke is the A) anterior communicating artery. B) anterior cerebral artery. C) posterior communicating artery. D) posterior cerebral artery. E) middle cerebral artery. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 198) Which of the these blood vessels is not a visceral branch of the thoracic aorta? A) intercostal arteries B) pericardial arteries C) bronchial arteries D) esophageal arteries E) mediastinal arteries Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 199) The azygos vein is the major branch of the A) axillary vein. B) superior vena cava. C) inferior vena cava. D) common iliac vein. E) jugular vein. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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200) The gluteal, internal pudendal, obturator, and lateral sacral veins fuse to form the A) femoral circumflex vein. B) deep femoral vein. C) internal iliac vein. D) external iliac vein. E) common iliac vein. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 201) The largest branches of the inferior vena cava are the A) lumbar veins. B) gonadal veins. C) hepatic veins. D) renal veins. E) adrenal veins. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 202) The median cubital vein is located at the A) anterior surface of the elbow. B) posterior surface of the elbow. C) anterior surface of the knee. D) posterior surface of the knee. E) posterior surface of the scapula. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 21-1 Arteries Use Figure 21-1 to answer the following questions: 203) Identify the artery labeled "16." A) axillary B) inferior mesenteric C) celiac D) superior mesenteric E) splenic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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204) Identify the artery labeled "10." A) brachiocephalic trunk B) common carotid C) subclavian D) brachial E) axillary Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 205) Identify the artery labeled "1." A) axillary B) brachiocephalic trunk C) common carotid D) ascending aorta E) brachial Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 206) Identify the arteries labeled "9." A) axillary B) brachiocephalic C) common carotid D) aorta E) brachial Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 207) Identify the artery labeled "6." A) common iliac B) internal iliac C) external iliac D) abdominal aorta E) femoral Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 21-2 Veins Use Figure 21-2 to answer the following questions: 208) Identify the vein labeled "9." A) axillary B) brachial C) cephalic D) basilic E) median cubital Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

209) Identify the vein labeled "12." A) cephalic B) median cubital C) radial D) basilic E) brachial Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 210) Identify the vein labeled "10." A) inferior vena cava B) superior vena cava C) aorta D) pulmonary E) thoracic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 211) Identify the vein labeled "8." A) superior vena cava B) brachiocephalic C) axillary D) external jugular E) subclavian Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 212) Identify the vein labeled "6." A) inferior vena cava B) common iliac C) internal iliac D) external iliac E) femoral Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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213) The developing fetus receives nutrient rich blood through the A) umbilical artery. B) placental artery. C) gonadal artery. D) umbilical vein. E) placental vein. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 214) Which of the following is not a cardiovascular modification present during fetal development? A) ductus arteriosus B) ductus venosus C) foramen ovale D) ligamentum arteriosum E) incomplete interatrial and interventricular septa Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 215) Elderly individuals are more prone than younger individuals to have all of the following, except A) hypertension. B) venous thrombosis. C) increased elasticity of vessel walls. D) varicose veins. E) arteriosclerosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Which type of blood vessel has (a) the largest lumen and (b) the thickest tunica media? (Figure 21-2) A) arteries; veins B) veins; arteries C) arteries; capillaries D) capillaries; arteries E) veins; capillaries Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Which of the following would increase vascular resistance? increased vessel length, increased vessel luminal diameter, turbulence. (Figure 21-7) A) increased vessel length and increased vessel luminal diameter B) increased vessel luminal diameter and turbulence C) increased vessel luminal diameter D) increased vessel length and turbulence E) increased vessel length, increased luminal diameter, and turbulence Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 3) For blood flow to be autoregulated, what types of stimuli signal inadequate local blood flow and blood pressure? (Figure 21-12) A) physical stress, chemical changes, and increased tissue activity B) decreased tissue activity and decreased inflammatory responses C) blood oxygen levels are high D) carbon dioxide levels are low and pH is high E) increased baroreceptor stretch and decreased tissue activity Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 4) What hormones are released as a short-term response to a decrease in blood pressure and blood volume? (Figure 21-15) A) natriuretic peptides B) erythropoietin C) epinephrine and norepinephrine D) aldosterone E) ADH Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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5) The superficial temporal, maxillary, occipital, facial, and lingual arteries are all branches of what carotid artery? (Figure 21-21) A) internal carotid artery B) common carotid artery C) external carotid artery D) carotid sinus E) transverse carotid artery Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) What veins are shown draining directly into the superior vena cava? (Figure 21-29) A) right and left common iliac, renal, and adrenal veins B) right and left subclavian, and right and left jugular veins C) right and left jugular veins D) phrenic and hepatic veins E) right and left brachiocephalic, mediastinal, and the azygos veins Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Essay Questions 1) During exercise, the blood flow to the active skeletal muscles is increased by autoregulation. How does this work? What other controls on blood flow operate? Answer: When a skeletal muscle becomes more active, it consumes oxygen and nutrients and releases carbon dioxide, waste products, and potassium ions. One effect of reduced oxygen is to cause the smooth muscle cells that block capillary blood flow, the precapillary sphincters, to relax. As these relax, the capillaries open and plasma and red cells can perfuse the active tissue. After recovery from exercise is complete, gases and metabolites return to normal and blood flow returns to its resting value. This local mechanism works along with central control of vasodilation by the sympathetic vasodilator fibers that appear to utilize nitric oxide (NO) as the transmitter substance. Learning Outcome: 21-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 2) If a wound overwhelms the clotting mechanism and leads to serious hemorrhage and drop in blood pressure, what compensations does the body have to maintain cardiac output? Answer: Acutely, the autonomic nervous system undergoes sympathetic activation. Epinephrine from the adrenal medulla supports the neural mechanisms. Heart rate and contractility are increased in trying to maintain cardiac output. Vasoconstriction increases peripheral resistance, raising blood pressure and redirecting flow to vital internal organs. Simultaneously, venoconstriction occurs, increasing venous return and forcing extra blood from the venous to the arterial side of the circulation. The endocrine system releases ADH, angiotensin II, and aldosterone, which act together to raise blood volume by reducing fluid loss at the kidney. Learning Outcome: 21-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 58 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Compare the hearts of a trained athlete and a nonathlete. Answer: The athlete's heart will be larger and will have a higher resting stroke volume and a lower resting heart rate. During maximum activity, stroke volume will be much greater for the athlete, and cardiac output of the athlete may approach 30 liters/minute compared to 20 liters/minute of the nonathlete. Maximum heart rates will be about the same despite the much larger cardiac output, due to the larger stroke volume. Learning Outcome: 21-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 4) Your friend tells you that her baby was dubbed a "blue baby" by hospital staff and that it was born with a "hole in its heart". Provide an explanation to your friend of this phenomenon. Answer: A fetus has reduced need for blood flow to the lungs, since the lungs are not yet functional in terms of gas exchange. A fetal modification called foramen ovale provides a direct connection between the right and left atria, thereby allowing blood to more directly enter the systemic circuit. If this bypass persists after birth, there is reduced systemic blood flow which results in cyanosis. Learning Outcome: 21-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 22 The Lymphatic System and Immunity Multiple Choice Questions 1) The primary function of the lymphatic system is A) the transport of hormones. B) circulation of nutrients and dissolved gases. C) defending the body against both external and internal threats. D) the production and distribution of plasma proteins. E) the production and maturation of leukocytes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) The lymphatic system does all of the following except A) helps maintain normal blood volume. B) transports gases to and away from lymph nodes. C) eliminates variations in the composition of interstitial fluid. D) transports lipids from the digestive tract. E) fights infection. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) The lymphatic system is composed of all of the following except A) lymphatic vessels. B) the venae cavae. C) the spleen. D) lymph nodes. E) lymph. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Compared to blood capillaries, lymph capillaries exhibit all of the following except that they A) have no basement membrane. B) have only a tunica interna. C) have walls of endothelial cells that overlap like shingles. D) are smaller in diameter. E) are frequently irregular in shape. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) Lymph nodes do all of the following except A) produce antibodies through B cells. B) monitor the contents of lymph. C) remove debris and pathogens from the lymph. D) accumulate cancer cells. E) remove excess nutrients from the lymph. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) All of the following are true of the thymus gland except that it A) activates B cells. B) reaches its greatest relative size during the second year of life. C) involutes after puberty. D) produces T cells. E) lies in the anterior mediastinum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) Most of the lymph returns to the venous circulation by way of the A) right lymphatic duct. B) thoracic duct. C) cisterna chyli. D) hepatic portal vein. E) dural sinus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) The medulla of a lymph node contains ________ lymphocytes and macrophages. A) cytotoxic T B) medullary C) NK D) B E) cordal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) ________ are large lymphatic nodules that are located in the walls of the pharynx. A) Tonsils B) Peyer's patches C) Lymph nodes D) Immune complexes E) Spleens Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) ________ are clusters of lymphatic nodules deep to the epithelial lining of the small intestine. A) Tonsils B) Adenoids C) Peyer's patches D) Immune complexes E) Lymph glands Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) The term lymphadenopathy refers to A) a congenital lack or malformation of lymph nodes. B) a chronic or excessive enlargement of lymph nodes. C) accumulations of lymph in the tissue space. D) the lack of lymphocytes in peripheral circulation. E) increased numbers of circulating lymphocytes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) Areas of the spleen that contain large aggregations of lymphocytes are known as A) Peyer's patches. B) adenoids. C) white pulp. D) red pulp. E) lymph nodes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) Which class of cells is particularly abundant in the red pulp of the spleen? A) T lymphocytes B) macrophages C) B lymphocytes D) neutrophils E) Natural Killer cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) Lymphatic organs differ from lymphatic tissues in what way? A) They contain T lymphocytes and lymphatic tissues do not. B) They are found in the digestive tract and lymphatic tissues are found in the thorax. C) They are surrounded by a fibrous capsule and lymphatic tissues are not. D) They cannot produce antibodies, whereas lymphatic tissues can. E) They occur throughout the body except in the head. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) T Lymphocytes are produced and stored in all of the following except A) the thymus. B) lymphatic nodules. C) lymph node organs. D) the spleen. E) the brain. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Lymphatic capillaries are known for all of the following except A) being the starting point of the lymphatic circulation. B) being the smallest lymphatic vessels. C) having larger diameters and looser walls than blood capillaries. D) having shingle-like endothelial cells. E) allowing nutrient and gas exchange. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) The merging of ________ forms the right lymphatic duct. A) the right jugular, right subclavian, and right bronchomediastinal trunks B) the right lumbar, right subclavian, and right bronchomediastinal trunks C) two great vessels D) the thoracic and mediastinal ducts E) superior and inferior lymphatic ducts Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) Dividing lymphocytes can be found in the ________ of the lymphatic nodule. A) sinus regions B) germinal center C) cortical layer D) capsular space E) stroma Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) Lymphatic vessels begin in peripheral tissues and ultimately drain into A) veins. B) peripheral capillary beds. C) arteries. D) the kidneys. E) arterioles. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) Which of the following statements about lymph flow in a node is false? A) Lymph enters in an afferent lymphatic. B) Lymph first enters the subcapsular space. C) Lymph flows past dendritic cells. D) The efferent lymphatic exits at the hilum. E) The afferent lymphatic enters at the hilum. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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21) Stem cells that can form all types of lymphocytes are concentrated in the A) circulation. B) thymus. C) red bone marrow. D) spleen. E) yellow marrow. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) T cells develop from stem cells in the A) bone marrow. B) liver. C) spleen. D) thymus. E) kidneys. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) Lymphatic tissue is found in the greatest quantity in A) the adult spleen. B) the adult thymus. C) bone marrow. D) the tonsils. E) Peyer's patches. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) If the thymus shrank and stopped making thymosins, we would expect to see an immediate decrease in the number of A) B lymphocytes. B) NK cells. C) T cells. D) neutrophils. E) red blood cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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25) The cell that dominates the deep cortical region of a lymph node is the ________ cell. A) B B) T C) plasma D) nodule E) NK Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) The thoracic duct originates from an expanded chamber called the A) thoracic sinus. B) cisterna chyli. C) thoracic trunk. D) hilum. E) thoracic ventricle. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) The ________ lymphatics leave the lymph node at the hilum. A) ascending B) lateral C) afferent D) descending E) efferent Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals are A) located primarily in the large intestine. B) necessary for the transport of dietary lipids. C) part of the fenestrated capillary group. D) more numerous than blood capillaries. E) located throughout the body. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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29) An infection and inflammation of the aggregated lymphatic nodules in the pharynx is called A) laryngitis. B) lymph edema. C) tonsillitis. D) indigestion. E) lymphosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) An accumulation of lymph in a region where lymphatic drainage has been blocked is called A) lymphopenia. B) lymphadenopathy. C) lymphoma. D) lymphedema. E) lymphosis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) The primary lymphoid tissues include A) the bone marrow. B) the thymus. C) the bone marrow and thymus. D) the lymph nodes and tonsils. E) the bone marrow, thymus, spleen and lymph nodes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) Which of the following is not a secondary lymphoid tissue or organ? A) spleen B) tonsils C) MALT D) thymus E) lymph nodes Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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33) Lymphatic capillaries are not found in A) the digestive system. B) the skin. C) cornea of the eye. D) skeletal muscles. E) the liver. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) Large lymphatic vessels have a wall structure most similar to which blood vessel? A) veins B) venules C) capillaries D) arterioles E) arteries Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) Lymph fluid enters the venous circulation via the A) right atrium. B) subclavian veins. C) brachiocephalic trunks. D) jugular veins. E) superior and inferior vena cava. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) The lymphoid organ that acts like a filter as lymph passes through is A) appendix. B) tonsils. C) adenoids. D) lymph nodes. E) thymus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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37) The blood-thymus barrier is made up of A) immature T cells. B) mature T cells. C) macrophages. D) plasma cells. E) epithelial reticular cells. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 22-1 The Structure of a Lymph Node Use Figure 22-1 to answer the following questions: 38) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) efferent lymphatic vessel B) venule C) arteriole D) afferent lymphatic vessel E) lymphatic nodule Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

39) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) deep cortex B) capsule C) subcapsular space D) trabeculae E) medullary cord Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) deep cortex B) capsule C) subcapsular space D) trabeculae E) outer cortex Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 41) Identify the structure labeled "6." A) medulla B) cortex C) capsule D) trabeculae E) cortical sinus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) Identify the dominant cell type in the area labeled "6." A) T cells B) B cells C) erythrocytes D) platelets E) dendritic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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43) A substance that provokes an immune response is called an A) immunoglobulin. B) antihistamine. C) antibody. D) antigen. E) allopath. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) In general, lymphocytes A) spend most of their time in lymphatic tissue. B) have relatively short life spans. C) have two nuclei. D) are produced and mature only in red bone marrow. E) are located primarily in the blood stream. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 45) The cells directly responsible for cellular immunity are the ________ cells. A) dendritic B) plasma C) helper T D) cytotoxic T E) suppressor T Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) The cells responsible for humoral immunity are the ________ cells. A) NK B) B C) helper T D) cytotoxic T E) suppressor T Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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47) Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are ________ cells. A) plasma B) B C) helper T D) cytotoxic T E) suppressor T Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) Lymphocytes A) are actively phagocytic. B) destroy red blood cells. C) respond to antigens. D) are primarily found in red bone marrow. E) decrease in number during infection. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 49) The cells responsible for the production of circulating immunoglobulins are ________ cells. A) NK B) plasma C) helper T D) thymus E) liver Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 50) Stem cells that will form B cells or NK cells are found only in the A) red bone marrow. B) liver. C) spleen. D) thymus. E) kidneys. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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51) T is to ________ as B is to ________. A) top-located; bottom-located B) thymus-dependent; bone marrow-derived C) thyroid-drawn; bowel-developed D) non-thymus-dependent; bottom-located E) trabeculae-descended; bursa-origin Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 52) Which of the following is not a lymphocyte? A) NK cells B) plasma cells C) memory T cells D) macrophages E) suppressor T cells Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53) Sally has a tumor. In an effort to fight the cancerous cells her body increases the production of A) neutrophils. B) NK cells. C) suppressor T cells. D) memory B cells. E) plasma cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 54) The body's innate defenses include all of the following except A) the skin. B) complement. C) interferon. D) inflammation. E) antibodies. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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55) Each of the following is a physical barrier to infection except A) body hair. B) epithelium. C) secretions. D) complement. E) basement membranes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) An inflammatory response is triggered when A) red blood cells release pyrogens. B) T cells release interferon. C) mast cells release histamine and heparin. D) neutrophils phagocytize bacteria. E) blood flow to an area increases. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) The release of endogenous pyrogen (or interleukin-1) by active macrophages would A) cause inflammation. B) produce a fever. C) activate complement. D) opsonize pathogens. E) activate antibodies. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) Microphages include A) monocytes. B) Kupffer cells. C) neutrophils. D) eosinophils. E) both neutrophils and eosinophils. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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59) Various types of macrophages are derived from A) lymphocytes. B) monocytes. C) neutrophils. D) eosinophils. E) basophils. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) Plasma contains ________ special proteins that form the complement system. A) about 3 B) exactly 10 C) roughly 18 D) exactly 25 E) more than 30 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 61) Histamine increases blood flow and vascular permeability. This would account for all of the following changes that occur during inflammation except A) redness of the inflamed tissue. B) chemotaxis of phagocytes. C) heat of the inflamed tissue. D) movement of defense proteins and cells into the interstitial space. E) swelling of the inflamed tissue. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 62) Leslie has a severe sore throat and the lymph nodes in her neck are swollen. This would indicate that A) the focus of the infection is the lymph nodes. B) lymph is not flowing consistently through these lymph nodes. C) the lymph nodes contain an increased number of lymphocytes. D) the lymph nodes are actively producing phagocytes. E) the lymph nodes have increased their secretion of thymosin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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63) A sample of John's blood shows a high level of pyrogens. This would indicate that John A) is feeling achy. B) is producing T lymphocytes. C) has a sore throat. D) is running a fever. E) has swollen lymph nodes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 64) The effects of activating the complement system include all of the following except A) destruction of target cell plasma membranes. B) stimulation of inflammation. C) inhibition of the immune response. D) opsonization. E) chemotaxis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 65) The classic pathway of complement activation begins when the protein C1 binds to A) the cell wall of bacteria. B) the plasma membrane of bacteria. C) two antibodies attached to an antigen. D) a cell surface antigen. E) a plasma protein. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) The cells that perform immunological surveillance are the ________ cells. A) NK B) plasma C) B D) helper T E) suppressor T Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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67) The first line of cellular defense against pathogens are the A) T cells. B) B cells. C) NK cells. D) phagocytes. E) plasma cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) The phagocytic antigen-presenting cells belong to the ________ group. A) tumor-suppressing B) complement C) interferon D) monocyte-macrophage E) lymphatic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 69) Fixed macrophages that are found in the central nervous system are called A) astrocytes. B) oligodendrocytes. C) microglia. D) Kupffer cells. E) ventricular macrophages. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) ________ are fixed macrophages found in the liver. A) Astrocytes B) Oligodendrocytes C) Microglia D) Kupffer cells E) Ventricular macrophages Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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71) Free phagocytes found in the air sacs of the lungs are called A) alveolar macrophages. B) histiocytes. C) Kupffer cells. D) pleurocytes. E) microglia. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) The movement of phagocytes through the capillary wall is called A) chemotaxis. B) diapedesis. C) adherens. D) transcytosis. E) diffusion. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 73) The attraction or repulsion of certain cells to chemicals in their environment is called A) polarity. B) diapedesis. C) cytotoxicity. D) infection. E) chemotaxis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) Cytokines that make a cell and its neighbors resistant to virus infection are called A) complement. B) interferons. C) interleukins. D) immunoglobulins. E) transferrins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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75) An important protein in the activation of the alternative pathway of complement activation is A) properdin. B) interferon. C) histamine. D) fibrin. E) C1. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) NK cells use ________ to lyse abnormal cells. A) pyrogen B) perforin C) interferon D) complement E) phagocytosis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) Place the following steps of NK cell killing in order. 1. Secretion of perforin 2. Realignment of Golgi apparatus 3. Lysis of abnormal cell 4. Recognition and adhesion A) 4, 2, 1, 3 B) 2, 1, 4, 3 C) 4, 1, 2, 3 D) 1, 2, 4, 3 E) 1, 4, 3, 2 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) Cancer cells can be detected by NK cells when they show A) interferons. B) complement proteins. C) tumor-specific antigens. D) opsonization. E) CD4 markers. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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79) Interferons A) prevent viruses from leaving a cell. B) prevent viruses from entering a cell. C) bind to viruses and destroy them. D) interfere with viral replication. E) reduce macrophage chemotaxis to the infection. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) The complement system works closely with and complements the action of A) interferons. B) antibodies. C) pyrogens. D) phagocytes. E) microphages. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 81) The end result of the classical and alternative pathways of complement activation is A) an increase in pyrogen release. B) release of histamine. C) activated C3B attached to the cell wall. D) C1 bound to two antibodies. E) activation of properdin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) Immunity that is genetically determined and present at birth is called ________ immunity. A) active B) natural passive C) passive D) auto E) innate Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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83) Cytotoxic T cells can attack target cells with which of the following chemical weapons? A) secrete strong acid B) secrete organic solvent C) secrete free radicals D) secrete a cytokine that triggers apoptosis E) secrete mutant proteins that get incorporated into the target's DNA Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 84) All of the following are characteristics of adaptive defenses except A) versatility. B) tolerance. C) memory. D) specificity. E) present at birth. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 85) Defense of the body against a particular pathogen is provided by A) innate immunity. B) adaptive immunity. C) immunological surveillance. D) skin defenses. E) fever. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) Immunity that results from exposure to an antigen in the environment is called ________ immunity. A) naturally acquired active B) naturally acquired passive C) artificially acquired active D) artificially acquired passive E) innate Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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87) Immunity that results from antibodies that pass through the placenta from mother to fetus is called ________ immunity. A) naturally acquired active B) naturally acquired passive C) artificially acquired active D) artificially acquired passive E) innate Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) In passive immunity, the A) immune system attacks normal body cells. B) body is deliberately exposed to an antigen. C) body receives antibodies produced by other humans. D) body receives antibodies produced by an animal. E) body receives antibodies produced by other humans or by an animal. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 89) In an experimental situation, a rabbit is exposed to a viral antigen to which it makes antibodies. These antibodies are then purified and injected into a human with the same viral disease. This is an example of A) innate immunity. B) active immunization. C) passive immunization. D) natural immunity. E) alloimmunity. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 90) Hormones of the immune system include all of the following except A) interleukins. B) interferons. C) natriuretic factor. D) thymosins. E) tumor necrosis factor. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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91) ________ cells enable the immune system to respond quickly and robustly if the same antigen is encountered a second time. A) Secondary B) Primary C) Memory D) Responder E) Transponder Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) ________ exists when the immune system does not respond to a particular antigen. A) Immunity B) Memory C) Adaptation D) Tolerance E) Versatility Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 93) Frank was bitten by a rattlesnake and received anti-venom containing neutralizing antibodies. Frank received ________ immunity and he ________ long-term immunity as a result. A) naturally acquired passive immunity; will have B) artificially acquired passive immunity; will not have C) artificially acquired passive immunity; will have D) naturally acquired active immunity; will have E) naturally acquired active immunity; will not have Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 94) T cells and B cells destroy one antigen without affecting other antigens or normal tissues, this is termed A) memory. B) versatility. C) tolerance. D) specificity. E) antigen processing. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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95) Interleukins do all of the following except A) increase T-cell sensitivity to antigens exposed on macrophage membranes. B) stimulate B-cell activity, plasma cell formation, and antibody production. C) stimulate inflammation. D) elevate body temperature. E) stimulate collagen synthesis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) The following are steps in the cell-mediated immune response. What is the correct sequence for these steps? 1. Several cycles of mitosis occur. 2. Antigen is engulfed and presented by a macrophage. 3. Cytotoxic T cells migrate to focus of infection. 4. T cells with specific receptors recognize the antigen. 5. T cells differentiate into cytotoxic T cells or T memory cells. 6. Cytotoxic T cells release perforin and/or lymphotoxin. A) 4, 1, 5, 3, 6, 2 B) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3, 6 C) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3, 6 D) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5, 6 E) 3, 6, 4, 5, 1, 2 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 97) Cells that help regulate the immune response are ________ cells. A) B B) plasma C) helper T D) cytotoxic T E) NK Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) Suppressor T cells act to A) suppress antigens. B) erase memory T cells. C) limit antigen proliferation. D) inhibit T and B cell activities. E) produce antibodies involved in autoimmunity. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 25 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

99) When an antigen is bound to a Class I MHC molecule, it can stimulate a ________ cell. A) B B) plasma C) helper T D) cytotoxic T E) NK Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) Class II MHC molecules are found on which of the following? A) all body cells with a nucleus B) red blood cells C) granulocytes and microphages D) lymphocytes and antigen-presenting cells E) liver cells and macrophages in the spleen Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) When an antigen is bound to a Class II MHC protein, it can activate a ________ cell. A) plasma B) helper T C) NK D) suppressor T E) cytotoxic T Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 102) Helper T cells do all of the following except A) trigger B-cell division, plasma cell maturation, and antibody production. B) provide a rapid response to a future exposure to the antigen. C) enhance production of memory and cytotoxic T cells. D) attract macrophages to the affected area. E) enhance nonspecific defenses. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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103) T cells and B cells can be activated only by A) pathogens. B) interleukins, interferons, and colony-stimulating factors. C) cells infected with viruses, bacteria, or cancer cells. D) exposure to a specific antigen at a specific site in a plasma membrane. E) disease-causing agents. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 104) In order for a lymphocyte to respond to an antigen, the antigen must A) be phagocytized by the lymphocyte. B) enter the cytoplasm of the lymphocyte. C) bind to the DNA of the lymphocyte. D) bind to specific receptors on the lymphocyte surface. E) depolarize the lymphocyte. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) CD8 markers are to ________ T cells as CD4 markers are to ________ T cells. A) suppressor; cytoxic B) cytoxic; helper C) helper; suppressor D) NK; cytoxic E) plasma; NK Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 106) Antigen-presenting cells located in the epithelia of the skin are called A) keratinocytes. B) squamous macrophages. C) germinative cells. D) dendritic cells. E) Merkel cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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107) Hormones that regulate the activity of B cells and T cells and enhance nonspecific defense are called A) calcitriol. B) glucocorticoids. C) mineralocorticoids. D) interleukins. E) immunoglobulins. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) Hormones that slow tumor growth are called A) transferrins. B) tumor necrosis factors. C) interferons. D) radiation agents. E) chemotherapins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) Martha had a heart transplant. In order to keep her body from rejecting the transplant she takes A) aspirin. B) antacids. C) immunosuppressive drugs. D) anti-rheumatic drugs. E) anti-histamines. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 110) An abnormal cell would be identified by the immune system because it showed A) Class I MHC proteins. B) Class II MHC proteins. C) Class I MHC proteins with an antigen bound. D) Class II MHC proteins with an antigen bound. E) a CD3 receptor complex in the membrane. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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111) Class II MHC proteins are present in the plasma membrane only when A) a helper T cell has engulfed an antigen. B) an antigen-presenting cell has engulfed and is processing an antigen. C) a virus-infected cell secretes interferons. D) a cancerous cell gets attacked by NK cells. E) the body cells are healthy. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 112) A T cell can only become activated after being physically or chemically stimulated by the abnormal target cell in a process called A) costimulation. B) opsonization. C) sensitization. D) neutralization. E) precipitation. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 113) During a primary humoral response to antigens all of the following occur except A) B cells may differentiate into plasma cells immediately. B) B cells may undergo several rounds of mitosis before producing plasma cells and memory cells. C) antibody levels do not peak until 1 to 2 weeks after the initial exposure. D) neutrophils invade the surrounding areas, releasing chemotactic substances. E) the first immunoglobulins to appear in circulation are of the IgM type. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 114) All of the following are true of the secondary response of humoral immunity except that it A) depends on memory B cells. B) results in much higher antibody titers than in the primary response. C) results in much quicker rise in antibody titers. D) produces more effective antibodies. E) weakens quickly because memory B cells only survive for a year or two. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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115) All of the following are true of the primary response of humoral immunity except that A) it depends on antigen triggering the appropriate B cell. B) it requires B cell differentiation into plasma cells. C) it depends on memory B cells. D) circulating antibodies undergo a gradual, sustained rise. E) it peaks 1 to 2 weeks after the initial exposure. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) If the disulfide bonds in IgG were broken, how many peptide chains would be set free? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 1 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 117) The various classes of immunoglobulins are differentiated on the basis of their A) asymmetry. B) antigen specificity. C) light-chain variable segments. D) heavy-chain constant segments. E) reactivity. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 118) Immunoglobulins that are most abundant and are responsible for resistance against many viruses, bacteria, and bacterial toxins are A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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119) Immunoglobulins that attach to and sensitize mast cells and basophils are A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) Immunoglobulins that are found on the surface of B cells and that may activate antibody production are A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 121) Immunoglobulins, formed of five subunits, that are the first antibodies to be produced in response to infection, are A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 122) B cells are primarily activated by the activities of A) antigens. B) antibodies. C) helper T cells. D) macrophages. E) plasma cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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123) In IgG, the antigen binding site is formed by the A) variable segment of the light chain. B) variable segment of the heavy chain. C) constant segment of the heavy chain. D) variable segments of both the light and heavy chains. E) ionized segment of the light chain and the isotropic segment of the heavy chain. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 124) Which of the following is not a property of an IgG heavy chain? A) has one constant segment B) has one variable segment C) binds one light chain D) binds antigen at both ends E) binds complement in the constant region Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 125) Each IgG has ________ binding sites for attachment to antigenic determinants. A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) up to 8 E) as many as a 1000 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 126) In a routine examination, some blood is taken and analyzed. The results show a high IgM titer for the mumps virus but a low IgG anti-mumps titer. This would indicate the person A) has just recovered from mumps. B) was recently infected with mumps. C) is allergic to mumps. D) is immune to mumps. E) is relying on passive immunity. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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127) A crime scene investigator found that a biological fluid sample contains a large amount of IgA-type antibody. This fluid is probably A) blood. B) lymph. C) serum. D) tears. E) interstitial. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 128) Another term for antibodies is A) cytokines. B) cytosolic factors. C) interleukins. D) interferons. E) immunoglobulins. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 129) The portions of an antigen to which antibodies bind are the A) active sites. B) reactive sites. C) antigenic determinant sites. D) antibody active sites. E) antigen activation segments. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 130) A ________ antigen is an antigen with at least two antigenic determinant sites. A) complete B) perfect C) mature D) paired E) dipolar Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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131) A measure of antibody level in the plasma is A) the primary response. B) the secondary response. C) antigen concentration. D) body temperature. E) the antibody titer. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) The process by which antibodies bind to antigenic sites on viruses or toxins, rendering them incapable of binding to other cells, is called A) opsonization. B) activation. C) agglutination. D) precipitation. E) neutralization. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 133) The process by which soluble antigens combine with antibodies to form insoluble immune complexes is called A) opsonization. B) activation. C) agglutination. D) precipitation. E) neutralization. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 134) The process by which antibodies bind to the antigen on the surface of cells, forming large immune complexes, is called A) opsonization. B) activation. C) agglutination. D) precipitation. E) neutralization. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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135) The process by which the surface of a microorganism is covered with antibodies and complement, rendering it more likely to be phagocytized, is called A) opsonization. B) activation. C) agglutination. D) precipitation. E) neutralization. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 136) When antigens bind to inactive B cells and are brought into the cell by endocytosis to be displayed on the Class II MHC proteins this results in ________ of the B cells. A) activation B) sensitization C) co-stimulation D) cloning E) division Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 137) Partial antigens that do not cause B cell activation alone are called A) complete antigens. B) immunoglobulins. C) mature antigens. D) haptens. E) short chains. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 138) A sensitized B cell typically is not activated until A) it binds a helper T cell that releases cytokines. B) it binds a cytotoxic T cell. C) memory B cells have been cloned. D) it has cloned plasma cells. E) antibodies have been produced. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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139) Pregnant women are encouraged to get flu shots so that the maternal ________ can pass through the placenta to the fetus. A) IgG B) IgE C) IgD D) IgM E) IgA Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 140) Anti-A and Anti-B blood typing antibodies are of which class? A) IgG B) IgE C) IgD D) IgM E) IgA Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 141) Which is not a way that antigen-antibody complexes may cause elimination of the antigen? A) opsonization B) enhancing phagocytosis C) activation of complement D) neutralization E) sensitization Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 142) Newborns gain their immunity initially from A) early immunizations during routine neo-natal check-ups. B) contact with viruses and bacteria. C) antibodies passed across the placenta from the mother. D) contact with siblings. E) breast milk. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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143) Autoantibodies are A) produced by activated T cells. B) produced during an allergic reaction. C) directed against the body's own antigens. D) the first step in immunological competence. E) important in tissue rejection reactions. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 144) Inappropriate or excessive immune responses to antigens are A) immunodeficiency diseases. B) autoimmune diseases. C) allergies. D) the result of stress. E) signs of a weak immune system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 145) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that causes the disease known as AIDS selectively infects ________ cells. A) B B) plasma C) cytotoxic T D) helper T E) suppressor T Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 146) Infection with the HIV virus occurs through A) eating contaminated food. B) airborne droplets from coughs and sneezes. C) intimate contact with an infected person's body fluids. D) casual contact with an infected individual. E) sharing clothes with an infected individual. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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147) Which of the following is not a characteristic of AIDS? A) has killed at least 1/2 million people in the United States B) is spread most often through sexual contact C) attacks the T helper (CD4) cells D) is declining worldwide E) almost always eventually fatal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 148) Milly has just received a kidney transplant and is taking cyclosporin A to help prevent graft rejection. This medication is one in a class of drugs known as ________ drugs. A) anticoagulant B) antibiotic C) analgesic D) retroviral E) immunosuppressive Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 149) Stress can affect the immune response in all of the following ways except by A) inhibiting glucocorticoid release. B) depressing the inflammatory response. C) reducing the number of phagocytes. D) inhibiting interleukin secretion. E) increasing the level of cortisol. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 150) The term immunological ________ refers to the ability to demonstrate an immune response upon exposure to an antigen. A) determination B) readiness C) competence D) potency E) drive Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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151) In a(n) ________, either the immune system fails to develop normally or the immune response is blocked. A) autoimmune disease B) immunodeficiency disease C) allergic response D) cross-reaction E) agglutination reaction Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 152) When the immune response mistakenly targets normal body cells and tissues, a(n) ________ develops. A) autoimmune disease B) immunodeficiency disease C) allergic response D) cross-reaction E) agglutination reaction Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 153) Antigens that trigger allergic reactions are called A) interferons. B) microbes. C) pyrogens. D) allergens. E) agglutinins. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 154) The production of autoantibodies generally causes A) allergic reactions. B) autoimmune diseases. C) immunodeficiency diseases. D) allergic reactions and immunodeficiency diseases. E) a normal immune response. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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155) Immediate hypersensitivity reactions like hay fever may be treated by A) aspirin. B) anti-rheumatic drugs. C) immunosuppressive drugs. D) antihistamines. E) interferons. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 156) All of the following are characteristics of anaphylaxis except A) the first exposure does not always lead to a reaction. B) IgE antibodies are produced. C) symptoms include capillary dilation, airway constriction, pain and itching. D) helper T cells are destroyed. E) sensitized mast cells and basophils are stimulated upon each exposure to an allergen. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 157) Changes in the immune system that accompany aging include all of the following except A) T cells becoming less responsive to antigens. B) fewer cytotoxic T cells responding to infections. C) decreased numbers of T helper cells. D) more efficient secondary responses. E) B cells are less responsive. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) What feature do lymphatic vessels share with veins that allows lymph to flow in only one direction? (Figure 22-3) A) incomplete basement membrane B) blunt end tubes C) thick muscular walls D) valves E) endothelial cell inner lining Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) What types of cells are found in the white pulp of the spleen and in the red pulp of the spleen? (Figure 22-8) A) lymphocytes; epithelial reticular cells B) lymphocytes; red blood cells C) red blood cells; macrophages D) red blood cells; lymphocytes E) epithelial cells; endocrine cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Which type of interferon attracts and stimulates NK cells as a way to enhance viral resistance to viral infection? (Figure 22-12) A) interferon alpha B) interferon beta C) interferon gamma D) interferon delta E) interferon omega Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) What type of immunity develops after receiving a vaccine? (Figure 22-17) A) innate immunity B) naturally acquired active immunity C) artificially acquired active immunity D) naturally acquired passive immunity E) artificially acquired passive immunity Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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5) During the primary response, which antibody peaks sooner? During the secondary response, which antibody level is higher? (Figure 22-25) A) IgM; IgG B) IgG; IgM C) IgD; IgE D) IgE; IgA E) IgA; IgG Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) After the appearance of bacteria in the body, which immune cell is present for the shortest amount of time? (Figure 22-26) A) neutrophils B) NK cells C) macrophages D) cytotoxic T cells E) plasma cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Essay Questions 1) List and briefly describe the components of the lymphatic system. Answer: The lymphatic system consists of (1) lymph, a fluid that resembles plasma but contains a much lower concentration of suspended proteins; (2) a network of lymphatic vessels, often called lymphatics, which begin in peripheral tissues and end at connections to veins; (3) an array of lymphatic tissues and lymphatic organs such as lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus scattered throughout the body; and (4) lymphocytes and smaller numbers of phagocytes and other cells such as dendritic cells. Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) Explain what MALT is and give a couple of examples? What role does it play in the body's defenses? Answer: MALT is an acronym for mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue. It consists of aggregated lymphatic nodules deep to the mucosa (gut lining) of the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive systems. Examples of MALT in the digestive system include Peyer's patches in the small intestine and the vermiform appendix that is attached where the small intestine joins the large intestine. These lymphocytes are positioned to detect and neutralize pathogens to enter the body across the digestive mucosa. Beside these specific defenses, there is also mucus and other protective secretions. Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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3) List and briefly describe the four general properties of adaptive immunity. Answer: (1) Specificity: The immune response is triggered by a specific antigen and defends against only that antigen. (2) Versatility: The immune system can differentiate among hundreds of millions of antigens that it might encounter during a normal lifetime. (3) Memory: The immune response following the second exposure to a particular antigen is stronger and lasts longer than before. (4) Tolerance: Some antigens, such as those on your own cells, do not elicit an immune response. Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 4) You are a researcher interested in studying the cytoskeleton. How can you use antibodies to locate actin- and tubulin-containing structures? Answer: Since those cytoskeletal components are proteins, it is possible to immunize an animal with foreign proteins isolated from tissues. For example, a rabbit could be immunized with the actin and tubulin purified from tissues of the chicken, a very distant relative of the rabbit. Those antibodies could be purified from the rabbit's blood and then linked to fluorescent tags. When the cells are exposed to the anti-actin and anti-tubulin antibodies, they will stick to those molecules in the cell. If different colored dyes were used to tag the antibodies, it would be possible to localize those cytoskeletal proteins in the same cell. Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 23 The Respiratory System Multiple Choice Questions 1) The nasal cavity, pharynx, and larynx constitute the ________ portion of the airway. A) conducting B) exchange C) respiratory D) sinus E) primary Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) The respiratory epithelium of the conducting airways consists of A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. B) moist cuboidal epithelium. C) simple squamous epithelium. D) ciliated squamous epithelium. E) stratified squamous epithelium. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) The larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles all make up the A) upper respiratory tract. B) lower respiratory tract. C) internal respiratory tract. D) alveoli of the respiratory tract. E) respiratory mucosa. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) The respiratory mucosa consists of A) epithelium and underlying layer of areolar tissue. B) dense irregular connective and adipose tissue. C) ciliated stratified squamous and columnar cells. D) fibrocartilage and mucous cells. E) dense regular connective and areolar tissue. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) Tuberculosis results from an infection by the bacterium A) Clostridium difficile. B) Staphylococcus aureus. C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis. D) Vancomycin-resistant streptococcus. E) Tuberculin plumonae. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) ________ is the most common lethal inherited disease affecting individuals of Northern European descent. A) MRSA B) Congestive heart failure C) Cystic fibrosis D) Myasthenia gravis E) Parkinson's disease Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 7) Air entering the body is filtered, warmed, and humidified by the A) upper respiratory tract. B) lower respiratory tract. C) lungs. D) alveoli. E) bronchioles. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Inhaling through the nostrils is preferred over the mouth because A) there is less resistance to air flow. B) it combines olfaction with respiration. C) it allows better conditioning of the inhaled air. D) bacteria won't be inhaled from the oral cavity. E) it dries out the mouth. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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9) Harry suffers from cystic fibrosis and has severe breathing difficulties. His problems result from A) genetic mutation in cilia production. B) laryngospasms. C) thick secretions that are difficult to transport. D) lack of neural control of respiration. E) reduced mucus secretions in the trachea. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) The entire array of protective mechanisms in the respiratory system is called the A) respiratory immunity. B) macrophage complex. C) respiratory defense system. D) acquired respiratory defense. E) mucus escalator. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) The beating of the cilia of the respiratory passages in the direction of the pharynx forms a(n) A) debris filter. B) mucus escalator. C) respiratory rhythmicity center. D) smooth slick surface allowing particles to slide. E) increased surface area for gas exchange. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) Which of these is not part of the upper respiratory system? A) larynx B) pharynx C) nasal cavity D) nose E) sinuses Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) The respiratory portion of the respiratory tract includes the A) bronchi. B) trachea. C) larynx. D) alveoli. E) nose. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) An important component of the lamina propria in the upper respiratory system is A) sweat glands. B) ceruminous glands. C) mucus glands. D) serous glands. E) smooth muscle cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) The nasopharynx transitions into the oropharynx at the level of the A) hard palate. B) soft palate. C) cribriform plate. D) internal nares. E) pharyngeal septum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) The ________ is shared by the respiratory and digestive systems. A) pharynx B) esophagus C) trachea D) windpipe E) right mainstem bronchus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) Which of the following organs is not part of the lower respiratory system? A) pharynx B) trachea C) larynx D) bronchi E) alveoli Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) The conchae A) divide the nasal cavity into a right and a left side. B) provide an opening into the pharynx. C) provide a increase in surface area for the sense of smell. D) create turbulence in the air to trap particulate matter in mucus. E) provide an opening to paranasal sinuses. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) Functions of the nasal cavity include all of the following except A) filtering the air. B) warming the air. C) humidifying the air. D) housing tonsils. E) housing olfactory receptors. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) The openings to the nasal cavity are the A) external nares. B) internal nares. C) nasal meatuses. D) nasal conchae. E) nasal sinuses. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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21) The portion of the nasal cavity contained within the flexible tissues of the external nose is the A) nasopharynx. B) vestibule. C) internal chamber. D) conchae. E) nasal septum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) The nasal cavity is separated from the oral cavity by the A) hard palate. B) soft palate. C) cribriform plate. D) internal nares. E) pharyngeal septum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) The common passageway shared by the respiratory and digestive systems is the A) larynx. B) glottis. C) vestibule. D) pharynx. E) trachea. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) The auditory tubes open into the A) nasopharynx. B) oropharynx. C) laryngopharynx. D) larynx. E) nasal cavity. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) The palatine tonsils lie in the walls of the A) nasopharynx. B) oropharynx. C) laryngopharynx. D) larynx. E) nasal cavity. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) The ________ is lined by stratified squamous epithelium. A) nasopharynx B) trachea C) oropharynx D) larynx E) nasal cavity Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) Physical damage to the lamina propria of the nasal mucosa is likely to result in A) epistaxis. B) nasal congestion. C) nosebleeds. D) a deviated septum. E) epistaxis or nosebleeds. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 28) Which of the following is false about the pharynx? A) It is shared by the integumentary and respiratory systems. B) The nasopharynx is superior. C) The oropharynx connects to oral cavity. D) The laryngopharynx ends at esophagus opening. E) Solids, liquids, and gases pass through. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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29) The superior region of the pharynx is called the A) nasal cavity. B) nasopharynx. C) oropharynx. D) laryngopharynx. E) superior nasal conchae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) The nasal cavity opens into the nasopharynx through a connection known as the A) oropharynx. B) nasal meatus. C) nasal vestibule. D) internal nares. E) auditory canal. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) Which bone does not form part of the lateral or superior walls of the nasal cavity? A) maxilla B) mandible C) nasal D) ethmoid E) sphenoid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) Air flows between nasal conchae through the A) dorsum nasi. B) apex. C) external nares. D) nasal vestibule. E) superior, middle, and inferior nasal meatuses. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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33) Accidently sending fluid up out of the nose happens when the ________ fails to close off the ________. A) epiglottis; larynx B) epiglottis; nasopharynx C) soft palate; nasopharynx D) soft palate; larynx E) soft palate; oropharynx Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 23-1 The Upper Airways Use Figure 23-1 to answer the following questions: 34) What is the function of the structure labeled "5"? A) help olfaction B) improve warming of air C) cause air to swirl within the respiratory passageway D) prevent food from entering the larynx E) prevent food from entering the nasopharynx Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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35) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) internal nares B) esophagus C) glottis D) oropharynx E) laryngopharynx Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 36) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) olfactory organ B) oropharynx C) nasopharynx D) internal nares E) nasal sinus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 37) What is the function of the structure labeled "8"? A) forces air into the lungs B) causes air to swirl within the respiratory passageway C) prevents food from entering the larynx D) acts like a supplementary air pump E) adjusts tension of vocal folds Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 38) Identify the structure labeled "5." A) pharyngeal tonsil B) palatine tonsil C) epiglottis D) soft palate E) hard palate Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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39) The larynx contains ________ cartilages. A) 14 B) 6 C) 9 D) 2 E) 5 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) The glottis is A) the soft tissue that hangs off the end of the soft palate. B) a flap of elastic cartilage. C) the opening to the larynx. D) the opening to the pharynx. E) part of the hard palate. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 41) The vocal folds are located within the A) nasopharynx. B) oropharynx. C) larynx. D) trachea. E) bronchi. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) The elastic cartilage that covers the opening to the larynx during swallowing is the A) thyroid cartilage. B) cricoid cartilage. C) corniculate cartilage. D) cuneiform cartilage. E) epiglottis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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43) The largest cartilage of the larynx is the ________ cartilage. A) thyroid B) cricoid C) cuneiform D) arytenoid E) epiglottic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) The ring-shaped cartilage just inferior to the thyroid cartilage is the ________ cartilage. A) epiglottis B) cuneiform C) corniculate D) cricoid E) arytenoid Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 45) The paired cartilages that articulate with the superior border of the cricoid cartilage are the ________ cartilages. A) cricothyroid B) innominate C) cuneiform D) corniculate E) arytenoid Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) A common site to place a tracheostomy tube is through the ligament that connects the cricoid cartilage to the ________ cartilage. A) thyroid B) cuneiform C) corniculate D) epiglottic E) vestibular Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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47) A pair of ligaments covered by laryngeal epithelium that function in sound production are the A) intrinsic ligaments. B) extrinsic ligaments. C) ventricular folds. D) vocal folds. E) intrinsic laryngeal muscles. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) Air passing through the glottis vibrates the vocal folds and produces A) speech. B) articulation. C) phonation. D) whistling. E) ululation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 49) The laryngeal cartilage which is not composed of hyaline cartilage is the A) arytenoid. B) corniculate. C) cricoid. D) epiglottis. E) thyroid. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) An acute infection of the throat that can lead to swelling and closure of the glottis and cause suffocation is known as A) laryngitis. B) laryngospasm. C) acute epiglottitis. D) strep throat. E) acute pharyngitis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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51) Contraction of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles can A) move the cricoid cartilage. B) close the glottis. C) constrict the trachea. D) move food from the larynx to the esophagus. E) assist in breathing during exercise. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 52) Tina is singing a song. At a certain point in the song, she forces a large volume of air out of the glottis and at the same time increases the tension on her vocal cords. The sound that she produces is A) low pitched and loud. B) high pitched and loud. C) low pitched and soft. D) high pitched and soft. E) medium pitched and soft. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 53) The adult human trachea is about ________ in diameter and contains ________ tracheal cartilages. A) 1.0 cm; 15-20 B) 1.0 cm; 10-15 C) 2.5 cm; 15-20 D) 2.5 cm; 40-50 E) 4.5 cm; 60-80 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) During a choking episode, most foreign objects are lodged in the ________ bronchus due to its larger diameter and steeper angle. A) right primary B) left primary C) right lobar D) left lobar E) medial Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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55) Which of the following statements about the trachea is false? A) It is lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. B) Tracheal cartilages prevent tracheal collapse. C) It contains many mucous glands. D) It alters its diameter in response to the autonomic nervous system. E) It is completely wrapped in smooth muscle. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) The airway that connects the larynx to the bronchial tree is the A) trachea. B) bronchiole. C) laryngopharynx. D) alveolar duct. E) bronchus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) The ________ branch from the trachea at the carina. A) terminal bronchioles B) lobar bronchi C) segmental bronchi D) primary bronchi E) alveolar ducts Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) The C shape of the tracheal cartilages is important because A) large masses of food can move through the esophagus. B) large masses of air can pass through the trachea and thus the bronchi. C) it facilitates turning of the head. D) the bronchi are also C-shaped. E) it permits the trachea to pinch shut prior to sneezing. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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59) Primary bronchi are to ________ as secondary bronchi are to ________. A) main bronchi; lobar bronchi B) lobar bronchi; segmental bronchi C) segmental bronchi; lobar bronchi D) trachea; pharynx E) lobar bronchi; alveolar ducts Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 60) Roughly ________ terminal bronchioles arise from each segmental bronchus. A) 1,500 B) 3,000 C) 6,500 D) 10,000 E) 100,000 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 61) Asthma is A) a collapsed lung resulting from insufficient production of surfactant. B) due to an excessive stimulation of smooth muscle in bronchioles. C) an obstructive tumor targeting primarily the terminal bronchioles. D) characterized by fluid buildup in the alveoli. E) caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term bronchiolar smooth muscle? A) accessory muscle of expiration B) accessory muscle of inspiration C) primary muscle of inspiration D) contraction increases airway resistance E) affects lung compliance Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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63) The flap-like structure that prevents food from entering the larynx is called the A) uvula. B) soft palate. C) epiglottis. D) thyroid cartilage. E) cricoid cartilage. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) An elastic ________ ligament and the ________ muscle connect the ends of tracheal cartilage. A) tracheal; trachealis B) anular; trachealis C) tracheal; anular D) cricoid; anular E) cricoid; trachealis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 65) The ligament bridging the larynx with the trachea is the ________ ligament. A) cricoid B) thyrohyoid C) vestibular D) cricothyroid E) cricotracheal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) The thyroid cartilage is also called the A) vestibular fold. B) vocal cord. C) laryngeal prominence. D) Adam's apple. E) laryngeal prominence and Adam's apple. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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67) Children have slender, short vocal cords so their voices tend to be A) louder. B) softer. C) higher pitched. D) lower pitched. E) deeper toned. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 68) JJ is suffering from laryngitis. He will most likely experience which of the following symptoms? A) coughing B) hoarseness C) sneezing D) suffocation E) impaired swallowing Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 69) Primary bronchi enter their respective lungs along with pulmonary vessels, nerves, and lymphatics at which region? A) base B) apex C) hilum D) cardiac notch E) superior lobe Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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70) The following is a list of some airways. What is the order in which air passes through them? 1. lobar bronchus 2. bronchioles 3. alveolar ducts 4. primary bronchus 5. respiratory bronchiole 6. alveoli 7. terminal bronchiole A) 4, 1, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6 B) 4, 1, 2, 5, 7, 3, 6 C) 1, 4, 2, 5, 7, 3, 6 D) 1, 4, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6 E) 2, 4, 1, 7, 5, 3, 6 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are the A) bronchioles. B) terminal bronchioles. C) spaces between the parietal and visceral pleura. D) blood air barrier of the alveoli. E) interlobular septa. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) The blood air barrier consists of A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. B) 1 layer of moist cuboidal epithelium. C) 2 layers of simple squamous epithelium. D) stratified squamous epithelium. E) surfactant cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 73) Respiratory function deteriorates as a result of pneumonia because inflammation A) causes fluids to leak into the alveoli. B) causes respiratory bronchioles to swell and dilate. C) causes the lungs to leak air into the thorax. D) reduces movement of the epiglottis. E) reduces the size of the pleural cavity. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 20 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

74) Surfactant is produced by what cell type in the alveolus? A) smooth muscle cells B) pneumocytes Type I C) pneumocytes Type II D) pneumocytes Type I and Type II E) alveolar macrophages Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) The condition resulting from inadequate production of surfactant and the resultant collapse of alveoli is A) respiratory distress syndrome. B) COPD. C) anoxia. D) pulmonary embolism. E) pneumothorax. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) The interlobular septa divide the lungs into A) lobes. B) pulmonary lobules. C) alveolar sacs. D) vital capacity and residual volume. E) visceral pleura and fibrous trabeculae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) The right lung is to ________ as the left lung is to ________. A) three lobes; two lobes B) two lobes; two lobes C) two lobes; three lobes D) three lobes; three lobes E) four lobes; three lobes Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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78) The most superior portion of the lung is called the A) base. B) apex. C) cardiac notch. D) hilus. E) epipleurium. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) A patient with a connective tissue disease experiences increased pulmonary vascular resistance. Over a period of time, you would expect to observe A) increased cardiac output from the right ventricle. B) increased cardiac output from the left ventricle. C) increased thickness of the right ventricular wall. D) distension of the pulmonary veins from the right lung. E) no appreciable changes in heart structure or function. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 80) The resulting pain and inflammation when pleural fluid is unable to prevent friction between the opposing pleural surfaces is known as A) pleurisy. B) pulmonary hypertension. C) asthma. D) emphysema. E) COPD. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 81) Blockage of pulmonary blood flow by a traveling clot or similar obstruction is A) emphysema. B) COPD. C) anoxia. D) pulmonary embolism. E) pneumothorax. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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82) Which respiratory organ has a cardiac notch? A) right lung B) left lung C) right primary bronchus D) left primary bronchus E) diaphragm Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) The ________ fissure separates the lobes of the left lung. A) lateral B) longitudinal C) medial D) left horizontal E) oblique Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 84) A unique feature of the left lung is the A) hilum. B) carina. C) primary bronchus. D) cardiac notch. E) apex. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 85) The serous membrane that covers the lungs is the A) visceral pleura. B) parietal pleura. C) visceral pericardium. D) parietal pericardium. E) visceral peritoneum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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86) Lung tissue receives oxygen and nutrients from the A) pleural arteries. B) pulmonary arteries. C) pulmonary veins. D) coronary arteries. E) bronchial arteries. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) The process by which dissolved gases are exchanged between the cells and interstitial fluids is A) pulmonary ventilation. B) external respiration. C) internal respiration. D) cellular respiration. E) breathing. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) External respiration involves the A) movement of air into and out of the lungs. B) diffusion of gases between the interstitial fluid and the external environment. C) exchange of dissolved gases between the cells and interstitial fluids. D) binding of oxygen by hemoglobin. E) utilization of oxygen by tissues to support metabolism. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 89) In which direction does carbon dioxide move during internal respiration? A) from the blood into the tissue cells B) from the blood into the lungs C) from the lungs into the atmosphere D) from the tissue cells into the blood E) from the lungs into the blood Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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90) Low partial pressure of oxygen in tissues is a condition called A) asthma. B) emphysema. C) hypoxia. D) ischemia. E) lung cancer. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) The physical movement of air into and out of lungs is termed A) external respiration. B) internal respiration. C) cellular respiration. D) pulmonary ventilation. E) gas diffusion. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) The most common unit of measurement for measuring pulmonary pressures is A) mm Hg. B) torr. C) cm H2O. D) psi. E) centigrade. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 93) When there is no air movement, the relationship between the intrapulmonary and atmospheric pressure is that A) they are equal. B) intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric. C) atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary. D) atmospheric pressure is more than intrapulmonary. E) intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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94) Boyle's law states that the pressure of a gas is A) inversely proportional to the volume of its container. B) always higher in the atmosphere than in the lungs. C) directly proportional to temperature. D) inversely proportional to temperature. E) directly proportional to the volume of its container. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is A) greater than intraalveolar pressure. B) less than the pressure in the atmosphere. C) less than intrapulmonic pressure. D) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere. E) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) During quiet breathing, A) only the internal intercostal muscles contract. B) inspiration involves muscular contractions and expiration is passive. C) inspiration is passive and expiration involves muscular contractions. D) both inspiration and expiration are passive. E) both inspiration and expiration involve muscular contractions. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) What is one atmosphere of pressure? A) 760 mm Hg B) 1000 mm Hg C) 105 mm Hg D) 45 mm Hg E) 650 mm Hg Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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98) If the volume of the lungs increases, what happens to the air pressure inside the lungs? A) It decreases. B) It increases and possibly damages the lungs. C) It increases twice the amount of the increase in volume. D) It remains constant. E) It increases. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 99) What occurs if intrapulmonic pressure is 763 mm Hg? A) hyperventilation B) exhalation C) pause in breathing D) apnea E) inhalation Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 100) During exercise, which of the following contract for active exhalation? A) rectus abdominis and internal intercostal muscles B) diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles C) rectus abdominis and diaphragm muscles D) diaphragm and external intercostal muscles E) pectoralis major and serratus anterior muscles Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) The term ________ describes the result from an injury that permits air to leak into the intrapleural space. A) pleurisy B) pneumonia C) pneumothorax D) pulmonary edema E) emphysema Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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102) Quiet breathing is to ________ as shallow breathing is to ________. A) eupnea; diaphragmatic breathing B) eupnea; costal breathing C) costal breathing; eupnea D) costal breathing; diaphragmatic E) diaphragmatic breathing; eupnea Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 103) ________ involves active inspiratory and expiratory movements and calls on accessory muscles to assist with inhalation, while exhalation involves contraction of the internal intercostal muscles and sometimes abdominal muscles, too. A) Eupnea B) Forced breathing C) Costal breathing D) Vital breathing E) Passive breathing Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 104) ________ is the amount of air that moves into the respiratory system during a single respiratory cycle. A) Residual volume B) Expiratory reserve volume C) Inspiratory reserve volume D) Tidal volume E) Inspiratory capacity Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) ________ is the amount of air that you can inhale above the resting tidal volume. A) Residual inhaled volume B) Expiratory reserve volume C) Inspiratory reserve volume D) Enhanced tidal volume E) Inspiratory capacity Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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106) Expiratory movements are produced by contraction of the ________ muscle. A) scalene B) diaphragm C) internal intercostal D) external intercostal E) serratus anterior Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, A) the volume of the thorax increases. B) the volume of the thorax decreases. C) the volume of the lungs decreases. D) the lungs shrink. E) expiration occurs. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term external intercostal? A) accessory muscle of expiration B) accessory muscle of inspiration C) primary muscle of inspiration D) primary muscle of expiration E) an accessory muscle for both expiration and inspiration Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) Increasing the alveolar ventilation rate will A) decrease the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli. B) decrease the rate of oxygen diffusion from the alveoli to the blood. C) increase the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli. D) decrease the rate of carbon dioxide diffusion from the blood to the alveoli. E) hardly affect either the partial pressure or diffusion of gases. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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110) Alveolar ventilation refers to the A) movement of air into and out of the lungs. B) movement of air into and out of the alveoli. C) movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood. D) movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli. E) utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) The function of pulmonary ventilation is to A) remove carbon dioxide from the blood. B) supply oxygen to the blood. C) maintain adequate alveolar ventilation. D) remove air from dead air space. E) prevent gas exchange in the bronchioles. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) If a patient inhales as deeply as possible and then exhales as much as possible, the volume of air expelled would be the patient's A) tidal volume. B) inspiratory reserve volume. C) expiratory reserve volume. D) reserve volume. E) vital capacity. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 113) ________ = respiratory rate × (tidal volume - anatomic dead space) A) Vital capacity B) Respiratory minute volume C) Pulmonary ventilation rate D) Alveolar ventilation rate E) External respiration rate Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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114) Boyle's law of gases states that A) the pressure and volume of a gas are equal. B) as the temperature goes up, the pressure goes up. C) the total gas pressure is equal to the sum of the partial pressures. D) the concentration of dissolved gas is proportional to its partial pressure. E) if the volume goes up, the pressure goes down. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) As an astronaut is lifted into Earth's orbit, what is the first change to take place in response to the drop in cabin pressure? A) increased hematocrit B) renal hypoxia C) increased alveolar ventilation rate D) decreased alveolar PO2 E) decreased hemoglobin saturation Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 116) While playing in an intramural football game, Joe is tackled so hard that he breaks a rib. He can actually feel a piece of the rib sticking through the skin and he is having a difficult time breathing. Joe is probably suffering from A) a collapsed trachea. B) an obstruction in the bronchi. C) a pneumothorax. D) decreased surfactant production. E) a bruised diaphragm. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 117) Which of the following can be calculated if the tidal volume and respiratory rate are known? A) respiratory minute volume B) inspiratory reserve volume C) expiratory reserve volume D) anatomical dead space E) forced vital capacity Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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118) When the inspiratory muscles relax, the rib cage returns to its original position as a result of A) exhalation. B) gravity. C) elastic rebound. D) accessory muscle contraction. E) partial pressure difference. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) The ________ of the lungs is an indication of their expandability, how easily the lungs expand and contract. A) compliance B) ventilation C) volume D) intrapulmonary pressure E) cellular respiration Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) Use of the accessory respiratory muscles is characteristic of forced breathing, or A) hyperpnea. B) eupnea. C) dyspnea. D) hypoxia. E) apnea. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 121) The normal respiratory rate of a resting adult ranges from ________ breaths each minute, or roughly one for every four heartbeats. A) 6-10 B) 8-14 C) 10-15 D) 12-18 E) 18-22 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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122) During inhalation, air continues to move into the lungs until A) the internal pressure is the same is atmospheric pressure. B) the internal pressure is less than atmospheric pressure. C) the internal pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure. D) the compliance of the lung decreases. E) the lungs recoil. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 123) A condition that increases lung compliance is A) lung cancer. B) respiratory distress syndrome. C) loss of surfactant. D) emphysema. E) pneumothorax. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 124) A pneumothorax typically causes A) COPD. B) emphysema. C) atelectasis. D) loss of surfactant. E) elevated intrapulmonary pressure. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 125) A typical respiratory minute volume is A) 1 liter. B) 2 liters. C) 500 mL. D) 6 liters. E) 10 liters. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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126) Air that remains in conducting passages and doesn't participate in gas exchange is termed A) vital capacity. B) minimal volume. C) residual volume. D) functional residual capacity. E) anatomic dead space. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 127) Lungs are held tightly to the wall of the thorax due to A) the diaphragm and intercostal muscle contractions. B) tight junctions between the lungs and the thorax. C) surface tension of the pleural fluid and negative pressure in the cavity. D) atmospheric pressure pushing on the lungs. E) pulmonary ligaments that anchor the lungs. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 128) Which pressure remains negative throughout the respiratory cycle? A) intrapulmonary B) intrapleural C) intra-alveolar D) atmospheric E) intrapulmonary and intra-alveolar Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 23-2 Mechanics of Ventilation Use Figure 23-2 to answer the following questions: 129) Which muscle(s) produce(s) the movement labeled "1"? A) rectus abdominis B) internal intercostals C) external intercostals D) diaphragm E) both rectus abdominis and external intercostals Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 130) What is the relationship between the pressures at label "3"? A) P outside = P inside B) P outside > P inside C) P outside < P inside D) P outside + P inside E) P outside - P inside Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 131) What pressure will be present in the space labeled "4"? A) alveolar pressure B) interpleural pressure C) subalveolar pressure D) intrapleural pressure E) atmospheric pressure Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 35 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

132) What is the relationship between the pressures at label "8"? A) P outside = P inside B) P outside > P inside C) P outside < P inside D) P outside + P inside E) P outside - P inside Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 133) What produces the movement labeled "2"?) A) rectus abdominis contracts B) rectus abdominis relaxes C) diaphragm contracts D) diaphragm relaxes E) diaphragm relaxes and rectus abdominis contracts Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 134) How does the pressure "P4" at label "4" compare to the pressure "P5" at label "5"? A) P4 is higher than P5 during inhalation and then lower during exhalation. B) P4 is always higher than P5. C) P4 is always lower than P5. D) P4 always equals P5. E) P4 is lower than P5 during inhalation and then higher during exhalation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 135) Henry's law states that A) gas volume and temperature are directly proportional. B) gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional. C) the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure. D) in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture. E) gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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136) Dalton's law states that A) gas volume and temperature are directly proportional. B) gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional. C) the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure. D) in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture. E) gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 137) The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood is approximately A) 40 mm Hg. B) 45 mm Hg. C) 50 mm Hg. D) 70 mm Hg. E) 100 mm Hg. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 138) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood is approximately A) 40 mm Hg. B) 45 mm Hg. C) 50 mm Hg. D) 70 mm Hg. E) 100 mm Hg. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 139) The partial pressure of oxygen in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately A) 40 mm Hg. B) 45 mm Hg. C) 50 mm Hg. D) 70 mm Hg. E) 100 mm Hg. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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140) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately A) 35 mm Hg. B) 45 mm Hg. C) 55 mm Hg. D) 70 mm Hg. E) 100 mm Hg. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 141) Each of the following factors affects the rate of external respiration except the A) PO2 of the alveoli. B) PCO2 of the blood. C) thickness of the respiratory membrane. D) PN2 of the alveoli. E) solubility of oxygen in plasma. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 142) The partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at sea level is A) greater than the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at the top of Mt. Everest. B) less than the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at the top of Mt. Everest. C) equal to the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at the top of Mt. Everest. D) equal to the sum of partial pressures from carbon dioxide and nitrogen. E) equal to the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in atmospheric air at the top of Mt. Everest. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 143) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide is greatest in A) venous blood. B) alveolar air. C) expired air. D) inspired air. E) arterial blood. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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144) A SCUBA diver has been deep underwater and suddenly rises to the surface too fast. Why does the diver get decompression sickness? A) Pressure decreases and carbon dioxide rushes into cells. B) Pressure changes too fast and the carbon dioxide in the blood forms bubbles. C) Pressure decreases too fast and nitrogen gas in the blood forms bubbles. D) The gas in the SCUBA tank had too much pressure and rapid ascent forces too much air into the blood. E) Pressure increases too fast and too much oxygen enters the blood and forms bubbles. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 145) Which is not a reason gas exchange is efficient at the blood air barrier? A) Partial pressure differences are substantial. B) Distance is short. C) Surface area is large. D) Gap junctions facilitate fast movement. E) Gases are lipid soluble. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 146) Total alveolar surface area is reduced in A) lung cancer. B) atelectasis. C) emphysema. D) pneumothorax. E) asthma. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 147) Which of the following decreases respiratory efficiency? A) decreased blood flow B) increased surface area C) increased partial pressure gradients D) increased gas solubility E) decreased diffusion distance Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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148) The chloride shift occurs in order to A) force oxygen out of the blood and into tissues. B) transport bicarbonate ions into the blood plasma. C) produce salt for the cytosol of blood cells. D) produce carbonic acid. E) pump hydrochloric acid out of gastric cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 149) Carbon dioxide and water combine to form A) hydrochloric acid. B) oxygen. C) carbonic acid. D) carbaminohemoglobin. E) nitric acid. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 150) When does oxyhemoglobin form during respiration? A) during external respiration B) immediately after carbon dioxide enters the blood C) when the chloride shift occurs D) during pulmonary ventilation E) during internal respiration Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 151) At a PO2 of 70 mm Hg and normal temperature and pH, hemoglobin is ________ percent saturated with oxygen. A) 10 B) 25 C) 50 D) 75 E) more than 90 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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152) Most of the oxygen transported by the blood is A) dissolved in plasma. B) bound to hemoglobin. C) in ionic form as solute in the plasma. D) bound to the same protein as carbon dioxide. E) carried by white blood cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 153) Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as A) solute dissolved in the plasma. B) carbaminohemoglobin. C) bicarbonate ions. D) solute dissolved in the cytoplasm of red blood cells. E) carbonic acid. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 154) Which of the following factors would increase the amount of oxygen discharged by hemoglobin to peripheral tissues? A) decreased temperature B) decreased pH C) increased tissue PO2 D) decreased amounts of BPG E) decreased temperature and decreased amounts of BPG Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 155) Each 100 ml of blood leaving the alveolar capillaries carries away roughly ________ ml of oxygen. A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 50 E) 75 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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156) Under quiet conditions, blood returning to the heart retains about ________ of its oxygen content. A) 25 percent B) 50 percent C) 75 percent D) 90 percent E) 100 percent Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 157) For maximum loading of hemoglobin with oxygen at the lungs, the A) PCO2 should be high. B) pH should be slightly acidic. C) PO2 should be about 70 mm Hg. D) BPG levels in the red blood cells should be high. E) PO2 should be as high as possible. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 158) Which of the following statements about the chloride shift is false? A) It involves a movement of chloride ion into RBCs. B) It depends on the chloride-bicarbonate countertransporter. C) It involves a movement of bicarbonate ions into the plasma. D) It is driven by a rise in PCO2. E) It causes RBCs to swell. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 159) The percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 38 degrees centigrade is A) greater than the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 43 degrees centigrade. B) less than the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 43 degrees centigrade. C) equal to the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 43 degrees centigrade. D) equal to the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 20 degrees centigrade. E) equal to the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when BPG levels are high. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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160) Low pH alters hemoglobin structure so that oxygen binds less strongly to hemoglobin at low PO2. This increases the effectiveness of A) external respiration. B) internal respiration. C) carbon dioxide transport. D) hemoglobin synthesis. E) acid-base balance. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 161) Hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is high is A) greater than hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low. B) less than hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low. C) equal to hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low. D) equal to hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when pH is low. E) equal to hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when pH is high. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 162) Which of these factors does not affect hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen? A) RBC metabolic activity B) temperature C) electrolyte balance D) the PO2 of blood E) blood pH Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 163) Factors affecting the release of oxygen from hemoglobin can be visualized by using a A) spirograph. B) pulmonary volume chart. C) respiratory cycle chart. D) oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve. E) blood gas analysis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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164) If PO2 increases A) saturation goes down and hemoglobin gives away oxygen. B) hemoglobin stores oxygen. C) hemoglobin gives away oxygen. D) saturation goes up. E) saturation goes up and hemoglobin stores oxygen. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 165) The effect of pH on hemoglobin saturation is known as the A) Bainbridge reflex. B) Bohr effect. C) pulmonary reflex. D) respiratory effect. E) Hering-Breuer reflex. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 166) The most important chemical regulator of respiration is A) oxygen. B) carbon dioxide. C) bicarbonate ion. D) sodium ion. E) hemoglobin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 167) A 10 percent increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood will A) decrease the rate of breathing. B) double the respiratory rate. C) decrease pulmonary ventilation. D) decrease the alveolar ventilation rate. E) decrease the vital capacity. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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168) The term hypercapnia refers to A) the cessation of breathing. B) elevated PCO2. C) elevated PO2. D) an increase in pH. E) labored breathing. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 169) The apneustic centers of the pons A) inhibit the pneumotaxic and inspiratory centers. B) provide stimulation to the inspiratory center. C) monitor blood gas levels. D) alter chemoreceptor sensitivity. E) generate the gasp reflex. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 170) All of the following provide chemoreceptor input to the respiratory centers of the medulla oblongata except the A) olfactory epithelium. B) medullary chemoreceptors. C) aortic body. D) carotid body. E) central chemoreceptors. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 171) The normal rate and depth of breathing is established by the ________ center(s). A) apneustic B) pneumotaxic C) DRG and VRG D) expiratory E) ventral respiratory Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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172) Prolonged inspirations can result from stimulating the ________ center. A) apneustic B) pneumotaxic C) expiratory D) baroreceptor E) chemoreceptor Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 173) The pneumotaxic center of the pons A) sets the at-rest respiratory pattern. B) prolongs inspiration. C) modifies the rate and depth of breathing. D) suppresses the expiratory center in the medulla. E) stimulates the dorsal respiratory group. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 174) Higher brain centers that alter the activity of the respiratory centers include all of the following except A) cortical association areas. B) the precentral motor gyrus. C) the limbic system. D) the hypothalamus. E) Broca's center. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 175) The Hering-Breuer reflex A) functions to increase ventilation with changes in blood pressure. B) alters pulmonary ventilation when the PO2 changes. C) alters pulmonary ventilation when the PCO2 changes. D) protects the lungs from damage due to overinflation. E) is an important aspect of normal, quiet breathing. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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176) Blocking afferent action potentials from the chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies would interfere with the brain's ability to regulate breathing in response to A) changes in PCO2. B) changes in PO2. C) changes in pH. D) changes in blood pressure. E) changes in PCO2, PO2, and pH. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 177) Damage to the phrenic nerves would A) increase respiratory rate. B) increase the tidal volume. C) force reliance on costal breathing. D) result in greater pressure differences between the lungs and the outside air. E) have little effect on ventilation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 178) Stimulation of the apneustic center would result in A) increased respiratory rate. B) more intense inhalation. C) a shorter respiratory cycle. D) less activity in the DRG center. E) decreased vital capacity. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 179) If the dorsal respiratory group of neurons in the medulla oblongata were destroyed bilaterally, A) a person would stop breathing. B) pulmonary ventilation would increase markedly. C) the respiratory minute volume would increase. D) tidal volumes would decrease. E) alveolar ventilation would increase. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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180) Severing the sensory fibers from the lungs would result in all of the following except A) less inhibition of the inspiratory center during forced breathing. B) a drop in tidal volume. C) potential damage to the lungs due to overinflation. D) a disappearance of the Hering-Breuer reflexes. E) less stimulation of the expiratory center during forced breathing. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 181) Which of the following is not a true statement? A) The DRG primarily controls inspiration. B) The VRG primarily controls expiration. C) The DRG functions in forced breathing only. D) The VRG functions in forced breathing only. E) The DRG controls external intercostals and the diaphragm. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 182) The ________ inhibit the apneustic centers and promote passive or active exhalation. A) DRG B) VRG C) pheumotaxic centers D) LRG E) inspiratory centers Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 183) Information from chemoreceptors travels to the brain via the ________ nerves. A) trigeminal B) hypoglossal C) vagus D) glossopharyngeal E) vagus and glossopharyngeal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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184) The leading cause of death for children under 1 year of age is A) motor vehicle accidents. B) falls. C) cardiac congenital malformations. D) sudden infant death syndrome. E) asthma. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 185) Which of the following age-based changes is false? A) The lungs lose elastic tissue. B) The lung's compliance changes. C) Vital capacity increases. D) Respiratory muscles weaken. E) Costal cartilages become more flexible. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 186) The obstructive lung disease in which connective tissues are lost, alveolar surfaces are damaged, and the respiratory surface is reduced is called A) asthma. B) bronchitis. C) emphysema. D) tuberculosis. E) pneumonia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 187) Which of the following are not present prior to birth? A) Pulmonary arterial resistance is high. B) Pulmonary vessels are collapsed. C) Rib cage is compressed. D) Alveoli are expanded. E) Lungs and airways contain only a small amount of fluid. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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188) Which of the following changes does not occur at birth when an infant takes his or her first breaths? A) Blood flow to the lungs decreases. B) The resistance in the pulmonary arteries decreases. C) Changes in blood flow cause the foramen ovale to close. D) Air enters the alveoli. E) Gas diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 189) One way to improve respiratory performance with age is to A) eat smaller meals. B) stop smoking. C) sleep longer. D) maintain normal glucose levels. E) produce less surfactant. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) What type of epithelium lines the conducting portion of the respiratory tract? (Figure 23-2) A) simple squamous epithelium B) simple columnar epithelium C) stratified ciliated columnar epithelium D) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium E) stratified squamous epithelium Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) What type of muscle wraps around a respiratory bronchiole and can change the diameter of the airway? (Figure 23-8) A) skeletal muscle B) smooth muscle C) cardiac muscle D) voluntary muscle E) respiratory muscle Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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3) How many lobes does each lung have, and which lung has a cardiac notch? (Figure 23-9) A) right lung has 2 lobes, the left lung has 3 lobes; the right lung has a cardiac notch B) right lung has 3 lobes, the left lung has 2 lobes; the right lung has a cardiac notch C) right lung has 2 lobes, the left lung has 3 lobes; the left lung has a cardiac notch D) right lung has 3 lobes, the left lung has 2 lobes; the left lung has a cardiac notch E) both lungs have 3 lobes, the left lung has a cardiac notch Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Name the primary muscles of inspiration. (Figure 23-14) A) internal intercostal muscles and external intercostal muscles B) diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles C) diaphragm and external intercostal muscles D) rectus abdominis and transversus thoracis E) serratus anterior and rectus abdominus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 5) The inspiratory capacity is a total of what two pulmonary volumes? (Figure 23-16) A) tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume B) vital capacity and tidal volume C) vital capacity and inspiratory reserve volume D) residual volume and tidal volume E) inspiratory reserve volume and functional residual capacity Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 6) According to these graphs, more oxygen is released when the pH is (higher or lower) than normal and when temperature is (higher or lower) than normal. (Figure 23-20) A) higher; higher B) lower; lower C) higher; lower D) lower; higher Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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7) Inhibition of medulla oblongata chemoreceptors and respiratory muscles has what effect on respiratory rate, elimination of CO2 at alveoli, and arterial PCO2? (Figure 23-26) A) increased respiratory rate, increased elimination of CO2 at alveoli, and increased arterial PCO2 B) increased respiratory rate, decreased elimination of CO2 at alveoli, and decreased arterial PCO2 C) increased respiratory rate, increased elimination of CO2 at alveoli, and decreased arterial PCO2 D) decreased respiratory rate, increased elimination of CO2 at alveoli, and increased arterial PCO2 E) decreased respiratory rate, decreased elimination of CO2 at alveoli, and increased arterial PCO2 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Essay Questions 1) What are the primary functions of the respiratory system? Answer: (1) Provide an extensive area for gas exchange between inhaled air and the circulation; (2) move air to and from the exchange surfaces of the lungs; (3) protect the respiratory surfaces from dehydration, temperature changes, and other environmental variations and defend the respiratory system and other tissues from invasion by pathogens; (4) produce sounds involved in speaking, singing, or nonverbal auditory communication; (5) direct incoming air to the olfactory epithelium in support of olfaction; (6) indirectly contribute to regulation of blood volume, blood pressure, and pH. Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Ralph is taking scuba diving classes and is warned not to hold his breath when ascending from depth but to continuously release air from his mouth. What is the basis of this instruction and what is the risk if it is ignored? Answer: When breathing underwater with scuba equipment, gas is supplied by the tank at higher than atmospheric pressure to overcome the extra pressure imposed by the overlying water. According to Boyle's Law, during ascent when the pressure falls, the volume of gas contained in the lungs will expand. If not permitted to escape through the mouth, nitrogen will come out of solution and form gas bubbles in the joint as well as in the blood stream. A massive air embolism in the pulmonary arteries could be suddenly fatal. Learning Outcome: 23-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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3) What is hypercapnia? How does it affect respiration? What are common causes? Answer: Hypercapnia refers to a condition of elevated partial pressure of carbon dioxide. This rise is detected by chemoreceptors in the aortic and carotid bodies and powerfully stimulates ventilation through effects on pontine nuclei. Hypercapnia results from increased production as during exercise or reduced elimination as in reduced alveolar ventilation. Learning Outcome: 23-10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 4) A newborn infant is found dead, abandoned by the road. Among the many questions that the police would like answered is whether the infant was stillborn. How could the medical examiner tell? Answer: If the infant had been born alive, his or her first breaths would inflate the alveoli from the dense condition during fetal development. Thus, the medical examiner would focus on the lungs. If they are spongy, filled with air, it was a live birth. If not, the infant was stillborn. A simple test is to place the lungs in water. If they float, they are air-filled. Learning Outcome: 23-11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 24 The Digestive System Multiple Choice Questions 1) Each of the following organs is a component of the digestive tract except the A) stomach. B) pharynx. C) esophagus. D) bladder. E) colon. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion? A) appendix B) pancreas C) spleen D) colon E) esophagus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Digestion refers to the A) progressive dehydration of indigestible residue. B) mechanical breakdown of food. C) chemical breakdown of food. D) mechanical and chemical breakdown of food. E) release of water, acids, enzymes and buffers by organs. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system? A) mechanical processing B) absorption C) secretion D) ingestion E) filtration Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term submucosal plexus? A) component of mucosa B) sensory neural network C) secretes a watery fluid D) coordinates activity of muscularis externa E) loose connective tissue layer containing blood vessels Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the digestive tract are called A) segmentation. B) pendular movements. C) peristalsis. D) churning movements. E) mastication. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) The lamina propria and mucous epithelium are components of the A) serosa. B) adventitia. C) muscularis mucosa. D) mucosa. E) submucosa. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term myenteric plexus? A) component of mucosa B) sensory neural network C) secretes a watery fluid D) coordinates activity of muscularis externa E) loose connective tissue layer containing blood vessels Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) Contraction of the ________ alters the shape of the intestinal lumen and moves epithelial pleats and folds. A) mucosa B) submucosa C) submucosal neural plexus D) muscularis mucosa E) adventitia Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) The ________ are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that suspend the visceral organs and carry nerves, lymphatics, and blood vessels. A) serosa B) adventitia C) mesenteries D) fibrosa E) lamina propria Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) Sensory nerve cells, parasympathetic ganglia, and sympathetic postganglionic fibers can be found in the A) mucosa. B) serosa. C) adventitia. D) submucosal neural plexus. E) lamina propria. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) Sandwiched between the layer of circular and longitudinal muscle in the muscularis externa is the A) mucosa. B) submucosa. C) muscularis mucosa. D) myenteric plexus. E) submucosal neural plexus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) Large blood vessels and lymphatics are found in the A) mucosa. B) submucosa. C) muscularis. D) adventitia. E) serosa. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) The layer of loose connective tissue that directly supports the digestive epithelium is the A) lamina propria. B) muscularis mucosae. C) submucosa. D) submucosal neural plexus. E) myenteric plexus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) A stratified squamous epithelial lining can be found in all of the following except in the A) anal canal. B) esophagus. C) stomach. D) oropharynx. E) oral cavity. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) A feature of the digestive tract wall that increases surface area available for absorption is the A) transitional cells. B) circular folds. C) elastic cells. D) rugae. E) muscularis mucosa. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) The ________ supports all but 25 cm of the small intestine and provides stability and limited movement. A) falciform ligament B) greater omentum C) mesentery proper D) lesser omentum E) diaphragm Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) Which of the following contains adipose tissue and provides padding for the anterior and lateral portions of the abdomen? A) falciform ligament B) greater omentum C) mesentery proper D) lesser omentum E) diaphragm Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) Which organ is responsible for dehydration and compaction of indigestible materials? A) small intestine B) esophagus C) large intestine D) stomach E) anus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) The double-layer sheets of serous membrane that support the viscera are called A) peritoneal sheets. B) mesenteries. C) ascites. D) the diaphragm. E) the dorsal and ventral frenulums. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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21) What provides access for blood vessels entering and leaving the liver? A) falciform ligament B) greater omentum C) mesentery proper D) lesser omentum E) diaphragm Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) All of the following contain mucous cells in the epithelium except the A) stomach. B) transverse colon. C) esophagus. D) small intestine. E) large intestine. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) The oral mucosa has ________ epithelium. A) simple squamous B) stratified squamous C) pseudostratified D) stratified columnar E) transitional Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) The greater omentum is A) the entrance to the stomach. B) attached to the stomach at the lesser curvature. C) important in the digestion of fats. D) a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera. E) a sheet of mesentery that attaches to the liver. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) A disease that attacks and disables the myenteric plexus would A) increase intestinal motility. B) decrease intestinal motility. C) increase gastric secretion. D) decrease gastric secretion. E) interfere with both intestinal motility and gastric secretion. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 26) Put the following layers of the digestive tract wall in order from the lumen to the deepest layer. 1. lamina propria 2. muscularis externa 3. submucosa 4. digestive (mucous) epithelium 5. serosa 6. muscularis mucosae A) 5, 2, 3, 6, 1, 4 B) 4, 1, 6, 3, 2, 5 C) 4, 6, 3, 1, 2, 5 D) 5, 4, 2, 6, 1, 3 E) 1, 4, 3, 6, 2, 5 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 27) Which accessory organ of the digestive system does not produce any enzymes or digestive secretions? A) pancreas B) gallbladder C) liver D) salivary glands E) teeth Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) The movement of nutrients from the digestive tract lumen across the epithelium is called A) chemical digestion. B) absorption. C) secretion. D) reabsorption. E) ingestion. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

29) The process of defecation eliminates A) a bolus. B) chyme. C) feces. D) ascites. E) bile. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) Becky is experiencing indigestion and pain. The doctor also notes ascites formation in her abdomen. What is ascites? A) buildup of bile in the bile duct B) gallstones blocking the cystic duct C) inflammation of the appendix D) buildup of peritoneal fluid in the peritoneal cavity E) buildup of pancreatic juice in the pancreas Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 31) The mesocolon is A) a section of the large intestines between the sigmoid colon and the rectum. B) a thick mesenteric sheet associated with the small intestines. C) a ligament that suspends the liver from the diaphragm. D) a serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity. E) a mesentery associated with a portion of the large intestine. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) Hormones are released from the mucosa layer by these cells? A) enteroendocrine cells B) Kupffer cells C) Paneth cells D) serous cells E) mucus cells Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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33) The functions of the oral cavity include all of the following except A) sensory analysis of material before swallowing. B) mechanical processing of food. C) lubrication. D) absorption of monosaccharides. E) digestion of carbohydrates. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) ________ pair(s) of salivary glands secrete into the oral cavity. A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four E) Six to Ten Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) The ________ gland empties into the oral cavity at the level of the second upper molar. A) submaxillary B) submandibular C) parotid D) sublingual E) vestibular Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) A structure that helps prevent food from entering the pharynx prematurely is the A) uvula. B) pharyngeal arch. C) palatoglossal arch. D) palatopharyngeal arch. E) epiglottis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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37) Functions of the tongue include all of the following except A) mechanical processing of food. B) manipulation of food. C) sensory analysis of food. D) aiding in speech. E) partitioning the oropharynx from the nasopharynx. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) The bulk of each tooth consists of a mineralized matrix similar to that of bone called A) enamel. B) cement. C) dentin. D) pulp. E) periodontium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) The part of a tooth that contains blood vessels and nerves is the A) enamel. B) cement. C) dentin. D) pulp cavity. E) periodontium. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) The root of a tooth is covered by A) enamel. B) cement. C) dentin. D) pulp. E) the root canal. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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41) The crown of a tooth is covered by A) enamel. B) cement. C) dentin. D) pulp. E) periodontium. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) ________ are also known as canines. A) Premolars B) Incisors C) Molars D) Secondary teeth E) Cuspids Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) A blockage of the ducts from the parotid glands would A) occur when too much protein is ingested. B) cause mumps. C) interfere with carbohydrate digestion in the mouth. D) prevent emulsification of lipids. E) inhibit the secretion of saliva from other glands. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 44) Increased secretion by all the salivary glands results from A) sympathetic stimulation. B) hormonal stimulation. C) parasympathetic stimulation. D) myenteric reflexes. E) hunger. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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45) In most cases, the mumps is a viral infection of the ________ glands. A) mandibular B) sublingual C) parotid D) submandibular E) lingual Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 46) The ________ salivary glands are covered by the mucous membrane in the floor of the mouth. A) mandibular B) sublingual C) lingual D) submandibular E) parotid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) Which salivary gland produces a serous secretion containing large amounts of salivary amylase? A) mandibular B) sublingual C) lingual D) submandibular E) parotid Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) The space between the cheeks or lips and the teeth is called the A) pharynx. B) larynx. C) fauces. D) vestibule. E) frenulum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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49) The ridge of oral mucosa that surrounds the base of a tooth is the A) vestibule. B) gingiva. C) alveolus. D) uvula. E) faux. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) The connection of the anterior portion of the tongue to the underlying epithelium is the A) uvula. B) faux. C) lingual frenulum. D) labial frenulum. E) glossal septum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) The uvula is located at the A) posterior of the tongue. B) margin of the vestibule. C) base of a tooth. D) posterior margin of the soft palate. E) margin of the oropharynx and the laryngopharynx. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) ________ are blade-shaped teeth that function in cutting or clipping. A) Canines B) Premolars C) Cuspids D) Incisors E) Molars Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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53) ________ are pointed teeth that are adapted for tearing and slashing. A) Incisors B) Bicuspids C) Premolars D) Cuspids E) Molars Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) ________ are teeth with flattened crowns and prominent ridges that are adapted for crushing and grinding. A) Molars B) Cuspids C) Eye teeth D) Canines E) Dentins Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) Within the oral cavity, both mechanical and chemical ________ begin. A) mastication B) deglutition C) digestion D) ingestion E) secretions Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) The dangling process that aids in keeping food out of the nasopharynx is known as the A) palatine tonsil. B) pharyngeal tonsil. C) soft palate. D) tongue. E) uvula. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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57) The oral cavity is also known as the ________ cavity. A) gingivae B) pharyngeal C) digestive D) buccal E) lingual Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) The first teeth to appear are the ________ teeth. A) provisional B) transitory C) transitional D) temporary E) deciduous Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) There are normally a total of ________ deciduous teeth. A) 18 B) 20 C) 25 D) 28 E) 32 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) There are normally a total of ________ permanent teeth. A) 20 B) 25 C) 28 D) 32 E) 34 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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61) The technical term for chewing is A) mastication. B) deglutition. C) peristalsis. D) segmentation. E) borborygmus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) Which structure is not found in the oral cavity? A) palatine tonsil B) palatoglossal arch C) conchae D) gingivae E) uvula Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) The oral mucosa in much of the oral cavity such as the roof of the mouth and the surface of the tongue is comprised of ________ epithelium. A) keratinized stratified squamous B) nonkeratinized stratified squamous C) keratinized simple squamous D) nonkeratinized simple squamous E) goblet cell Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) The location of the palatine tonsil in the oral cavity is A) under the tongue on both sides. B) inferior to the lingual frenulum. C) posterior to the raphe. D) between the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches. E) superior to the uvula. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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65) Hillary could not suckle milk properly due to the inability to protrude her tongue. The physician diagnosed her with A) mumps. B) gastritis. C) diverticulitis. D) glossopharyngitis. E) ankyloglossia. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 66) Intrinsic and extrinsic movements of the tongue are controlled by the ________ cranial nerves. A) vagus B) hypoglossal C) facial D) accessory E) trochlear Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) Which salivary gland produces a mucous rich secretion that acts as a buffer and lubricant? A) parotid B) sublingual C) submandibular D) lingual E) palatine Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) Each tooth is held in the alveolar socket by the A) cement. B) roots. C) periodontal ligament. D) alveolar tendon. E) apical foramen. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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69) Which of the following is not a pharyngeal muscle involved in swallowing? A) pharyngeal constrictor muscle B) palatopharyngeus C) stylopharyngeus D) omohyoid E) palatal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 70) The epithelium lining the oropharynx is A) simple squamous. B) simple cuboidal. C) simple columnar. D) stratified squamous. E) pseudostratified squamous. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) Upon swallowing, food moves from the mouth directly into the A) oral vestibule. B) buccal cavity. C) sublingual space. D) oropharynx. E) oral mucosae. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) The esophagus has several variations from the standard plan of the GI tract. These include A) epithelium of mucosa is stratified squamous. B) epithelium of mucosa is simple columnar. C) muscularis externa has some skeletal muscle. D) epithelium of mucosa is stratified squamous and simple columnar. E) epithelium of mucosa is simple columnar and muscularis externa may be striated muscle. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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73) During deglutition, which of the following phases is first? A) buccal B) pharyngeal C) gastric D) esophageal E) enteric Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 74) Muscles known as the pharyngeal constrictors function in A) mastication. B) moving the tongue. C) swallowing. D) esophageal peristalsis. E) opening the cardiac sphincter. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 75) Which of the following statements is not true of swallowing? A) The buccal phase is a voluntary phase. B) Breathing stops during the pharyngeal phase. C) Primary peristaltic waves are controlled by the facial nerves. D) Secondary peristaltic waves are needed if the bolus is dry. E) The lower esophageal sphincter relaxes to allow the bolus to enter the stomach. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 76) Functions of the stomach include all of the following except A) storage of ingested food. B) denaturation of proteins. C) initiation of protein digestion. D) absorption of triglycerides. E) mechanical breakdown of food. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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77) Parietal cells secrete A) pepsinogen. B) gastrin. C) mucus. D) hydrochloric acid. E) enteropeptidase. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) Chief cells secrete A) pepsinogen. B) gastrin. C) mucus. D) hydrochloric acid. E) intrinsic factor. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) G cells of the stomach secrete A) cholecystokinin. B) secretin. C) gastrin. D) enteropeptidase. E) pepsin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) To which region of the stomach does the esophagus connect? A) fundus B) cardia C) body D) antrum E) pyloric part Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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81) The part of the stomach that functions as a mixing chamber for food and secretions is the A) body. B) antrum. C) pyloric part. D) cardia. E) fundus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) The region of the stomach that empties into the duodenum is the A) antrum. B) fundus. C) body. D) cardia. E) pyloric part. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) The prominent ridges in the lining of the empty stomach are called A) cardia. B) papillae. C) rugae. D) plicae. E) villi. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 84) The stomach secretes the hormone ghrelin which functions to A) inhibit hunger. B) initiate secretion of gastric juice containing enzymes and acid. C) regulate the digestion of lipids. D) stimulate hunger. E) stimulate secretion of mucus from submucosal glands. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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85) Gastric pits are A) ridges in the body of the stomach. B) involved in absorption of liquids from the stomach. C) openings into gastric glands. D) acid scars in the esophagus. E) hollows where proteins are stored. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) The enzyme pepsin digests A) carbohydrates. B) proteins. C) lipids. D) nucleic acids. E) vitamins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) An enzyme secreted by the gastric mucosa of a newborn that coagulates milk proteins is A) pepsin. B) trypsin. C) gastrin. D) rennin. E) cholecystokinin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term gastrin? A) where pancreatic juice and bile enter duodenum B) carries absorbed sugars and amino acids C) stimulates pancreas to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid D) causes gallbladder to contract E) stimulates gastric secretion Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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89) During the cephalic phase of gastric secretion, A) the stomach responds to distention. B) secretin inhibits parietal and chief cells. C) CNS sensory or cognitive activation increases neural stimulation of the stomach. D) the intestinal reflex inhibits gastric emptying. E) the gastroileal reflex decreases production of gastric juice. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) The gastric phase of gastric secretion is triggered by the A) sight, thought, or smell of food. B) entry of food into the stomach. C) entry of chyme into the small intestine. D) entry of chyme into the large intestine. E) release of cholecystokinin and secretin by the small intestine. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) All of the following are true of the intestinal phase of gastric digestion except that it A) precedes the gastric phase. B) functions to control the rate of gastric emptying. C) involves both neural and endocrine reflexes. D) helps ensure that the functions of the small intestine proceed with relative efficiency. E) begins when chyme enters the small intestine. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) Distension of the gastric wall leads to secretion of histamines from the lamina propria. This is an example of ________ response. A) neural B) local C) muscular D) hormonal E) antagonistic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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93) Mary had her stomach mostly removed to try to overcome obesity. As a result, you would expect Mary to be at risk for A) protein malnutrition. B) abnormal erythropoiesis. C) diarrhea. D) dehydration. E) an ulcer. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 94) All of the following are true of the lining of the stomach except that it A) has a simple columnar epithelium. B) is covered by a thick, viscous mucus. C) is constantly being replaced. D) contains gastric pits. E) recycles bile. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 95) The stomach is different from other digestive organs in that it A) has folds in the mucosa. B) has three layers of muscle in the muscularis externa. C) secretes digestive juice. D) moves by peristalsis. E) secretes digestive hormones. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 96) Match the gastric phase on the left (1-3) with the correct description on the right (4-6): 1. intestinal phase 2. gastric phase 3. cephalic phase

4. prepares stomach for arrival of food 5. stomach empties and decreases secretions 6. stomach secretes juice and mixes food into chyme

A) 1 and 4; 2 and 5; 3 and 6 B) 1 and 6; 2 and 4; 3 and 5 C) 1 and 5; 2 and 4; 3 and 6 D) 1 and 6; 2 and 5; 3 and 4 E) 1 and 5; 2 and 6; 3 and 4 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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97) Put the following steps of stomach acid production in the correct order starting with the reaction that requires an enzyme. 1. Carbonic acid dissociates. 2. Chloride ion combines with H+ in the gastric lumen. 3. Water and CO2 combine to form carbonic acid. 4. H+ and bicarbonate ion are transported into the gastric lumen. 5. Cl- diffuses into the gastric lumen. A) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4 B) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4 C) 4, 5, 3, 1, 2 D) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3 E) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 98) A drug that blocks the action of carbonic anhydrase in parietal cells would result in A) a lower pH during gastric digestion. B) a higher pH during gastric digestion. C) decreased production of pepsinogen by chief cells. D) increased protein digestion in the stomach. E) decreased gastrin production. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 99) D cells release ________, which inhibits the release of gastrin. A) inhibin B) ghrelin C) leptin D) somatostatin E) pepsin Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) Which is not a reason the stomach is acidic? A) Kills microorganisms. B) Emulsification of lipids. C) Denatures proteins. D) Helps break down plant cell walls and connective tissue in meat. E) Activates pepsin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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101) Leptin is to satiety as ________ is to hunger. A) Gastrin B) Pepsin C) Ghrelin D) Cholecystokinin E) Secretin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 102) Which of the following is true regarding digestion and absorption in the stomach? A) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the stomach. B) Small proteins can be absorbed with the help of pepsin. C) Lipid digestion begins in the stomach. D) Protein digestion begins in the stomach. E) Digestion is complete after chyme moves out of the stomach. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 103) Which of the following is not involved in the regulation of gastric activity? A) submucosal neural plexus B) myenteric plexus C) vagus nerve D) CNS E) hypoglossal nerve Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) Stimulation of gastric stretch receptors causes all of the following except A) a decrease in myenteric plexus stimulation. B) an increase in histamine release. C) an increase in gastrin secretion. D) an increase in submucosal neural plexus stimulation. E) an increase in acid production. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 24-1 The Stomach (dissected) Use Figure 24-1 to answer the following questions: 105) What is the function of the structure labeled "6"? A) strains materials entering the stomach B) regulates gastric emptying C) mixes stomach juice into food D) controls contraction of stomach muscles E) prevents food from entering the esophagus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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106) Identify the structure labeled "10." A) longitudinal muscle layer B) circular muscle layer C) oblique muscle layer D) rugae E) submucosa Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) rugae B) circular muscle layer C) oblique muscle layer D) longitudinal muscle layer E) submucosa Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) Identify the stomach region labeled "12." A) cardia B) pyloric part C) body D) fundus E) rugae Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) Identify the stomach region labeled "5." A) fundus B) cardia C) lesser curvature D) greater curvature E) pyloric part Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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110) Which structure(s) help(s) the stomach to stretch as it fills with food? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 9 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) Identify the stomach region labeled "7." A) esophagus B) cardia C) lesser curvature D) greater curvature E) pyloric part Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) Identify the stomach region with abundant mucous glands. A) 1 B) 2 C) 7 D) 11 E) 12 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 113) The fusion of the common hepatic duct and the cystic duct forms the A) hepatic portal vein. B) porta hepatis. C) bile duct. D) common pancreatic duct. E) bile canaliculus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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114) In the center of a liver lobule there is a A) hepatic duct. B) portal area. C) sinusoid. D) central vein. E) portal vein. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) The exocrine portion of the pancreas is composed of A) islets of Langerhans. B) pancreatic crypts. C) pancreatic acini. D) pancreatic lobules. E) triads. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) Each of the following is a function of the liver except A) synthesis and secretion of bile. B) antibody production. C) synthesis of plasma proteins. D) inactivation of toxins. E) storage of glycogen and iron reserves. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 117) The basic functional units of the liver are the A) hepatocytes. B) stellate macrophages. C) lobules. D) portal areas. E) bile canaliculi. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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118) ________ are arranged within a lobule of the liver into a series of irregular plates converging toward a central vein. A) Stellate macrophages B) Hepatocytes C) Bile canaliculi D) Portal areas E) Hepatic ducts Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) The structure that marks the division between the right and left lobes of the liver is the A) lesser omentum. B) greater omentum. C) falciform ligament. D) ligamentum teres. E) hepatic ligament. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) Bile is stored in the A) liver. B) duodenum. C) pancreas. D) gallbladder. E) appendix. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 121) A proenzyme secreted by the pancreas is A) trypsinogen. B) amylase. C) carboxypeptidase. D) lipase. E) bile Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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122) Which of the following has an association with the fetal umbilical vein? A) falciform ligament B) greater omentum C) mesentery proper D) lesser omentum E) diaphragm Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 123) Which of the following is not a component of the portal triad found at the edges of a liver lobule? A) hepatic artery B) bile duct C) central vein D) hepatic portal vein Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 124) Blockage of the common hepatic duct would interfere with digestion of A) proteins. B) fats. C) disaccharides. D) complex carbohydrates. E) vitamins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 125) The essential functions of the liver include all of the following except A) metabolic regulation. B) hematological regulation. C) bile production. D) albumin production for blood osmotic pressure. E) hormonal regulation. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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126) Match the proenzyme on the left (1-3) with the correct enzyme activator on the right (4-6). 1. pepsinogen 2. trypsinogen 3. procarboxypeptidase

4. enteropeptidase 5. hydrochloric acid 6. trypsin

A) 1 and 6; 2 and 5; 3 and 4 B) 1 and 4; 2 and 5; 3 and 6 C) 1 and 4; 2 and 6; 3 and 5 D) 1 and 5; 2 and 6; 3 and 4 E) 1 and 5; 2 and 4; 3 and 6 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 127) A drug that blocks the action of the hormone cholecystokinin would affect all of the following except A) relaxation of the hepatopancreatic sphincter. B) the composition of pancreatic secretions. C) the delivery of bile. D) digestion of lipids and proteins. E) absorption of water in the large intestines. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 128) An obstruction of the bile duct often results in A) undigested fat in the feces. B) a decrease in production of pancreatic juice. C) inability to digest protein. D) cirrhosis of the liver. E) hepatitis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 129) If the pancreatic duct was obstructed, you would expect to see elevated blood levels of A) bilirubin. B) amylase. C) cholecystokinin. D) secretin. E) gastrin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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130) Tom has hepatitis, an inflammation of the liver. Which of the following symptoms would you expect to observe in Tom? A) jaundice B) elevated levels of blood glucose C) impaired digestion of protein D) blood in the feces E) overproduction of blood plasma albumin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 131) In response to the hormone secretin, the pancreas secretes a fluid A) rich in enzymes. B) rich in bicarbonate ion. C) rich in bile. D) rich in mucus. E) that contains only amylase. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 132) In response to the hormone cholecystokinin, the pancreas secretes a fluid A) rich in enzymes. B) rich in bicarbonate. C) rich in bile. D) rich in mucus. E) that contains only amylase. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 133) Tony is a chronic alcoholic with cirrhosis of the liver, a condition in which liver cells die and are replaced by connective tissue. Which of the following signs would you not expect to observe in Tony? A) increased clotting time B) jaundice C) portal hypertension and ascites D) decrease in plasma protein production E) impaired erythropoiesis Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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134) Bile salts aid in the digestion of fats by ________ large fat droplets. A) dehydrating B) anabolizing C) binding D) combining E) emulsifying Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 135) Your patient with liver failure has a firm, rounded abdomen due to accumulation of fluid. This is known clinically as A) hepatitis C. B) ascites. C) hepatitis B. D) cirrhosis. E) gastritis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 136) Pancreatic juice enters the small intestine at the A) hepatic duct. B) ileocecal valve. C) duodenal papilla. D) pyloric sphincter. E) cystic duct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 137) Identify the incorrect pairing. A) gallbladder; stores bile B) esophagus; transports material to stomach C) pancreas; secretes amylases D) liver; produces intrinsic factor E) stomach; has an alkaline lining Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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138) A blood clot blocking flow through the liver might cause A) gallstones. B) cirrhosis. C) portal hypertension. D) jaundice. E) hepatitis C. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 139) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term pancreatic juice? A) produced by endocrine tissue B) produced by pancreatic islets C) rich in bile D) rich in insulin and glucagon produced by pancreatic islets E) alkaline mixture of enzymes, water and ions produced by acinar cells Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 140) Which of the following enzymes is not produced by the pancreas? A) alpha-amylase B) rennin C) lipase D) nucleases E) peptidases Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 141) Which is not true of pancreatic enzymes? A) Their primary site of action is the pancreas. B) The majority are proteases. C) Most are secreted as proenzymes. D) They digest carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids. E) They are produced by exocrine tissue. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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142) Which of the following is not a lobe of the liver? A) left B) right C) quadrate D) caudate E) sigmoid Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 143) Inflammation of the gallbladder is termed A) cirrhosis. B) hepatitis. C) gastritis. D) cystitis. E) cholecystitis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 144) Circular folds and intestinal villi A) increase the surface area of the mucosa of the small intestine. B) carry products of digestion that will not pass through the walls of blood capillaries. C) produce new cells for the mucosa of the small intestine. D) secrete digestive enzymes. E) produce hormones. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 145) Submucosal glands that secrete mucus are characteristic of the A) duodenum. B) jejunum. C) ileum. D) pancreas. E) liver. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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146) The duodenal ampulla receives secretions from the A) duodenum and the jejunum. B) duodenum and the pylorus. C) bile duct and the pancreatic duct. D) duodenum and the pancreatic duct. E) duodenum and the bile duct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 147) The villi are most developed in the A) stomach. B) duodenum. C) jejunum. D) gallbladder. E) cecum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 148) Peyer's patches are characteristic of the A) stomach. B) duodenum. C) jejunum. D) ileum. E) colon. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 149) All of the following enhance the absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine except A) the circular folds. B) the villi. C) the microvilli. D) intestinal movements. E) rugae. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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150) The middle segment of the small intestine is the A) ileum. B) duodenum. C) jejunum. D) pylorus. E) cecum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 151) The portion of the small intestine that attaches to the cecum is the A) haustrum. B) appendix. C) ileum. D) duodenum. E) jejunum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 152) Circular folds are A) ridges in the wall of the stomach. B) pleats in the lining of the small intestine. C) fingerlike projections on the surface of the mucosa of the small intestine. D) sacculations in the colon. E) abnormal structures formed by excessive pressure in the small intestine. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 153) An intestinal hormone that stimulates mucin production by the submucosal duodenal glands is A) secretin. B) cholecystokinin. C) enterocrinin. D) GIP. E) gastrin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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154) The intestinal hormone that stimulates the pancreas to release a watery, bicarbonate-rich fluid is A) enterocrinin. B) secretin. C) cholecystokinin. D) GIP. E) gastrin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 155) An intestinal hormone that stimulates the release of insulin from the pancreatic islet cells is A) enterocrinin. B) enteropeptidase. C) secretin. D) cholecystokinin. E) gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP). Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 156) An intestinal hormone that stimulates gastric secretion is A) secretin. B) cholecystokinin. C) enteropeptidase. D) gastrin. E) gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP). Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 157) The gastroileal reflex A) empties the duodenum. B) promotes gastric secretion. C) decreases peristaltic activity. D) moves some chyme to the colon. E) is relayed through the CNS. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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158) A surgical procedure to promote rapid weight loss is removal of most of the A) pancreas. B) liver. C) duodenum. D) jejunum. E) ileum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 159) The part of the small intestine most likely to develop an ulcer from exposure to gastric juice is the A) pylorus. B) duodenum. C) ileum. D) cecum. E) jejunum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 160) In response to the arrival of acidic chyme in the duodenum, the A) blood levels of secretin rise. B) blood levels of cholecystokinin fall. C) blood levels of gastrin rise. D) blood levels of enterocrinin fall. E) liver releases enzymes for chemical digestion. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 161) Hydrochloric acid from the stomach is neutralized in the small intestine by A) water that was ingested with the food. B) bicarbonate from the pancreas. C) trypsin. D) bile from the liver. E) enzymes from the intestinal crypts. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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162) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term cholecystokinin (CCK)? A) where pancreatic juice and bile enter duodenum B) carries absorbed sugars and amino acids C) stimulates pancreas to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid D) causes gallbladder to contract E) stimulates gastric secretion Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 163) The majority of nutrient absorption occurs in the A) large intestines. B) cecum. C) small intestines. D) stomach. E) colon. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 164) Place the following structures in order as food passes into them. 1. cecum 2. duodenum 3. ileum 4. jejunum 5. stomach A) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5 B) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3 C) 2, 5, 4, 3, 1 D) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4 E) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 165) Brush border enzymes are found in the A) circular folds. B) villi. C) microvilli. D) plicae circularis. E) rugae. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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166) Which of the following is true regarding the production of intestinal juice? A) Most of the fluid is actively transported into the lumen. B) The pancreas is the source for most of the intestinal juice. C) Intestinal juice is produced following activation by motilin. D) Local reflexes and parasympathetic stimulation increase the production of intestinal juice. E) The cephalic phase of gastric secretion produces intestinal juice. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 167) Motility in the small intestines is controlled in part by all of the following except A) VIP. B) motilin. C) vagus nerve. D) myenteric reflexes. E) gastroenteric reflexes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 168) Which reflex is stimulated by stretch receptors in the stomach to increase motility and secretions along the small intestines? A) cephalic reflex B) gastroileal reflex C) enterogastric reflex D) gastrocolic reflex E) gastroenteric reflex Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 24-2 The Wall of the Small Intestine Use Figure 24-2 to answer the following questions: 169) What is the function of the structure labeled "7"? A) production of sodium bicarbonate B) production of lipase C) protection from bacteria D) production of hydrochloric acid E) production of pepsinogen Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 170) Which structure controls the contraction of the muscularis externa? A) 2 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10 E) 11 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 44 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

171) Contraction of the muscle layer labeled "9" causes the digestive tract to A) constrict. B) shorten. C) dilate. D) fold for increased surface area. E) secrete enzymes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 172) What type of epithelium covers the structure labeled "6"? A) simple squamous B) stratified squamous C) simple cuboidal D) simple columnar E) pseudostratified ciliated columnar Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 173) What is the layer labeled "4"? A) mucosa B) submucusa C) muscularis externa D) muscularis mucosae E) serosa Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 174) What is the name of the structure labeled "6"? A) circular folds B) villi C) microvilli D) lacteal E) rugae Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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175) What is the layer labeled "3"? A) mucosa B) submucosa C) muscularis externa D) muscularis mucosae E) serosa Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 176) Which of the following is not true of the structure labeled "5"? A) contributes to the mesentery of the small intestine B) has a simple squamous epithelium C) is part of the visceral peritoneum D) is called the serosa E) contains mucus glands Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 177) Powerful peristaltic contractions that occur a few times each day in the colon are called A) segmentation. B) pendular movements. C) haustral churning. D) defecation. E) mass movements. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 178) Functions of the large intestine include A) absorption of bile salts. B) secretion of vitamins. C) reabsorption of water and compaction of feces. D) production of gas to move waste toward the rectum. E) most of the chemical breakdown of food. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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179) At the hepatic flexure, the colon becomes the A) ascending colon. B) transverse colon. C) descending colon. D) sigmoid colon. E) rectum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 180) Approximately the last 15 cm of the digestive tract is the A) anus. B) anal canal. C) rectum. D) sigmoid colon. E) rectal column. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 181) Haustra are A) expansible pouches of the colon. B) strips of muscle in the colon. C) glands in the large intestine that secrete mucus. D) the source of colon hormones. E) compact feces stored in the rectum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 182) The teniae coli are A) tears of the colon. B) longitudinal bands of smooth muscle in the colon wall. C) ridges in the mucosa of the colon. D) polyps that obstruct the sigmoid colon. E) tumors normally confined in the sigmoid colon. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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183) At the splenic flexure, the colon becomes the A) ascending colon. B) transverse colon. C) descending colon. D) sigmoid colon. E) rectum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 184) The pouchlike structure that joins the ileum at the ileocecal valve is the A) appendix. B) sigmoid colon. C) rectum. D) haustra. E) cecum. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 185) A small, wormlike structure attached to the posteromedial surface of the cecum is the A) haustra. B) pancreas. C) gallbladder. D) appendix. E) ileum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 186) The defecation reflex involves A) sympathetic nerves. B) relaxation of both the internal and external anal sphincters. C) conscious control of both the internal and external anal sphincters. D) relaxation of the ileocecal valve to move feces into the rectum. E) parasympathetic nerve control from sacral nerves. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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187) Which is not part of the large intestine? A) cecum B) sigmoid colon C) ileum D) transverse colon E) rectum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 188) Which of these digestive structures is not necessary for life? A) stomach B) small intestines C) colon D) liver E) pancreas Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 189) Which of the following is not found in the large intestines? A) villi B) intestinal crypts C) intestinal glands D) mucous cells E) simple columnar epithelium Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 190) The enzyme amylase digests A) peptides. B) polysaccharides. C) disaccharides. D) triglycerides. E) nucleotides. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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191) An enzyme that digests proteins into peptides is A) lipase. B) amylase. C) nuclease. D) maltase. E) trypsin. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 192) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the A) mouth. B) esophagus. C) stomach D) duodenum. E) ileum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 193) If digestion of a carbohydrate results in equal amounts of glucose and galactose, this carbohydrate is probably A) sucrose. B) maltose. C) lactose. D) cellulose. E) glycogen. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 194) Which of the following is false concerning the process known as cotransport? A) Only neutral compounds such as sugars are transported. B) More than one molecule or ion is moved through the cell membrane at one time. C) ATP is not required by the transport protein. D) Molecules can be moved against a concentration gradient. E) Molecules are moved in the same direction. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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195) Products of fat digestion are transported initially by A) capillaries. B) veins. C) lymphatic vessels. D) the interstitial fluid. E) the arterioles. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 196) The absorption of some sugars in the small intestine involves A) osmosis. B) diffusion. C) cotransport. D) phagocytosis. E) pinocytosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 197) Absorption of glucose from the gut lumen depends on all of the following except A) the sodium-potassium pump in the basolateral membrane of the epithelial cell. B) cotransporter proteins in the apical membrane of the epithelial cell. C) higher sodium ion concentration in the lumen than in the epithelial cell. D) sodium-linked cotransport. E) emulsification forming small micelles. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 198) Which of the following is true regarding lactose intolerance? A) The stomach produces inadequate amounts of lactase. B) Lactose-intolerant infants cannot digest dairy fat and are at risk of starvation. C) The person cannot digest any type of monosaccharide. D) The intestinal crypts are not producing the enzyme lactase. E) The enzyme maltase begins to digest lactose. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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199) Sucrose is hydrolyzed by sucrase into glucose and A) glucose. B) lactose. C) fructose. D) maltose. E) galactose. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 200) Complexes of fatty acids, monoglycerides, and bile salts are called A) chylomicrons. B) countertransporters. C) vesicles. D) micelles. E) varicosities. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 201) Triglycerides, steroids, phospholipids and fat-soluble vitamins that are coated with proteins are called A) lacteals. B) chylomicrons. C) vesicles. D) micelles. E) bile salts. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 202) Chemical protein digestion begins in the A) mouth. B) esophagus. C) stomach. D) duodenum. E) cecum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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203) Which of the following is not a digestive enzyme? A) amylase B) lipase C) bile D) pepsin E) trypsin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Why do circular muscles contract behind the bolus while longitudinal muscles contract ahead of the bolus? (Figure 24-4) A) Circular muscles contract behind the bolus to close the sphincters while longitudinal muscles contract ahead of the bolus to open the sphincters. B) Circular muscles contract behind the bolus to open the sphincters while longitudinal muscles contract ahead of the bolus to close the sphincters. C) Circular muscles contract behind the bolus to push the bolus forward while longitudinal muscles contract ahead of the bolus to shorten that segment of the digestive tract. D) Circular muscles contract behind the bolus to shorten that segment of the digestive tract while longitudinal muscles contract ahead of the bolus to push the bolus forward. E) Circular muscles contract behind the bolus to mix the contents while longitudinal muscles contract ahead of the bolus to activate stretch receptors in the wall of the digestive tract. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) Which type of salivary glands produces glycoproteins called mucins? (Figure 24-9) A) parotid B) submandibular C) sublingual D) buccal E) lingual Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Name the region of the stomach that connects to the esophagus. (Figure 24-12) A) cardia B) body C) fundus D) pyloric part E) duodenum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) Chyme in the duodenum stimulates the secretion of what hormones in the digestive tract? (Figure 24-23) A) Gastrin and leptin B) VIP and GIP C) Gastrin and GIP D) Leptin and Ghrelin E) GIP, VIP, CCK, and secretin Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 5) What stimulates stretch receptors in the rectum? (Figure 24-26) A) release of mucus into the rectum B) gastrin release by the stomach C) a high water content in the feces D) feces causing distension in the rectum E) high concentrations of urobilins and stercobilins in the feces Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Essay Questions 1) Describe the three phases of gastric regulation. Be sure to include the appropriate local, neural and hormonal responses for each phase. Answer: The first phase is the cephalic phase. It begins with the thoughts, sight, or smell of food. This phase is directed by the CNS and increases vagus nerve stimulation of the submucosal neural plexus. This increases mucus, acid and gastrin production. The next phase, the gastric phase, begins when food enters the stomach and both stretch receptors and chemoreceptors are stimulated. A local response increases histamine release. The neural response increases activity of the myenteric and submucosal neural plexus to increase motility and secretions. The hormonal response is mediated by the release of gastrin to increase motility and secretions. The final phase, the intestinal phase, begins as chyme enters the duodenum. Distension of the duodenum stimulates stretch receptors to begin the enterogastric reflex which limits the amount of chyme that enters the duodenum. The hormonal response includes release of CCK, GIP and secretin to increase bile release and pancreatic juice release for intestinal digestion and to limit gastrin release. Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 2) What role do hormones play in hunger and satiety? Answer: Levels of ghrelin, a hormone produced by P/D1 cells, lining the fundic region of the stomach, rise before meals to initiate hunger and decline shortly after eating to curb appetite. Ghrelin is also antagonistic to leptin, a fat-tissue-derived hormone that induces satiety. Another hormone from the stomach and small intestine, obestatin, decreases appetite. The same gene encodes both ghrelin and obestatin. Learning Outcome: 24-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 3) Leon has gallstones. His doctor puts him on a diet low in fat. Why? Answer: The gallbladder functions to concentrate and store bile produced by the liver. In this capacity, the gallbladder reabsorbs water from the bile. Since bile salts are produced from cholesterol, these salts will be precipitated as cholesterol-like gallstones if too much water is reabsorbed. Whenever bile is released by the gallbladder in response to the presence of fats in the duodenum, the smooth muscle in the wall of the gallbladder must contract. This generates severe pain if the cystic duct or common bile duct is blocked by kidney stones. To minimize or prevent this pain Leon's doctor prescribes a low-fat diet. Thus there is less fat in the diet, less contraction of the gallbladder, and less pain. Learning Outcome: 24-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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4) Outline the usual pathway for digestion and absorption of triglycerides (fats). Answer: Fats are not soluble in water and so need special handling. The liver produces bile for fat digestion. Bile causes fat molecules to break up into tiny droplets called micelles. Pancreatic lipase attaches to these micelles and hydrolyses the triglycerides, freeing fatty acids, monoglycerides, and glycerol. The glycerol enters the columnar epithelial cells by facilitated diffusion and the fatty acids enter by simple diffusion because of their lipid nature. Within the epithelial cell glycerol or monoglycerides are reconnected to fatty acids. These fat molecules form tiny droplets within the Golgi and pass into the lamina propria. Here they enter lacteals, which are lymphatics, eventually being carried to the venous circulation at the thoracic duct. Learning Outcome: 24-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 5) Imagine eating a soda cracker, which is basically starch, fat, protein, and salt. How would each of these components be digested? Where within the digestive system would they be digested? Are any accessory organs involved? Answer: Digestion begins in the oral cavity. Food triggers saliva from the parotid salivary glands, rich in amylase, and from the submandibular salivary glands, rich in mucus. The tongue and teeth cooperate to mix all together and form a bolus. Digestion of fats and starch begins due to lingual lipase and salivary amylase. Swallowing reflexes send it to the stomach. Acid and pepsin mix with the bolus. Peptides form from the wheat proteins due to action of pepsin. It then travels into the small intestine, where pancreatic lipase and amylase complete fat and starch digestion. Pancreatic proteinases and peptidases reduce peptides to amino acids. These are absorbed by cotransport. Maltose from starch is split into glucose molecules, which are absorbed by cotransport. The salt in the cracker is absorbed during cotransport. Fatty acids diffuse into the epithelial cells because of their lipid character. Learning Outcome: 24-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 25 Metabolism, Nutrition, and Energetics Multiple Choice Questions 1) The sum of all of the biochemical processes going on within the human body at any given time is called A) glycolysis. B) oxidative phosphorylation. C) catabolism. D) anabolism. E) metabolism. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Reactions within ________ provide most of the energy needed by a typical cell. A) cytoplasm B) the plasma membrane C) the mitochondria D) the endoplasmic reticulum E) nucleus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) The first steps of catabolism generally take place in the A) mitochondria. B) plasma membrane. C) nucleus. D) endoplasmic reticulum. E) cytosol. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) The study of the flow of energy and its transformations is called A) energetics. B) glycolysis. C) cellular respiration. D) thermodynamics. E) metabolism. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) What is the role of NADH in metabolism? A) convert pyruvic acid into acetyl-coA B) produce bicarbonate ions for a pH buffer C) transport hydrogen atoms to coenzymes D) produce carbon dioxide E) phosphorylate ADP into ATP Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) When NAD+ is ________ it becomes NADH. When NADH is ________ it becomes NAD+. A) phosphorylated; deaminated B) reduced; oxidized C) made; recycled D) phosphorylated; dephosphorylated E) oxidized; reduced Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) All the available nutrient molecules distributed in the blood form a A) nutrient storehouse. B) nutrient reserve. C) nutrient pool. D) energy reserve. E) organic storehouse. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Intermediary molecules that accept electrons and transfer them to another molecule are called A) nutrients. B) organics. C) ketones. D) metabolites. E) coenzymes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) The chemical equation that correctly summarizes the overall reaction in oxidative phosphorylation is A) H2 + O2 → H2O + O. B) 2 H2 + O2 → 2 H2O. C) 3 H2 + 2O2 → 3 H2O + 2 O. D) H2 + O2 → H2O. E) P + 3 O → PO3. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) The function of the citric acid cycle is to A) remove hydrogen atoms from organic molecules and transfer them to coenzymes. B) transfer the acetyl group gained from glycolysis to molecules of pyruvate. C) hydrolyze glucose in the presence of oxygen to obtain two pyruvate molecules. D) produce carbon dioxide to balance the oxygen requirement for cellular respiration. E) produce water. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) In the ETS, ________ accepts electrons from one molecule and transfers them to another. A) a hydrogen ion B) a coenzyme C) the acetyl group D) ADP E) NAD Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) In order for glycolysis to proceed, which of the following need not be present? A) glucose B) acetyl-CoA C) ATP D) NAD E) ADP Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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13) The ________ of the mitochondrion contains large-diameter pores that are permeable to ions and small organic molecules such as pyruvic acid. A) inner membrane B) plasma membrane C) outer membrane D) matrix E) cristae Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) All of the following occur during glycolysis, except A) a molecule of glucose is converted into two molecules of pyruvic acid. B) four molecules of ATP are produced. C) two molecules of ATP are consumed. D) hydrogen atoms are removed from organic molecules. E) a molecule of carbon dioxide is produced. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) The citric acid cycle A) begins with the formation of a molecule of citric acid. B) directly produces most of the ATP from the catabolism of glucose. C) consumes two moles of carbon dioxide. D) contains enzymes called cytochromes. E) forms acetyl-CoA from glucose-6-phosphate. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) The carbon dioxide of respiration is formed during A) glycolysis. B) the citric acid cycle. C) electron transport. D) the formation of pyruvic acid. E) the formation of water. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) In glycolysis, each molecule of glucose that is catabolized gives a net yield of how many molecules of ATP? A) 2 B) 4 C) 30 D) 36 E) 38 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) The strategy of eating starchy foods for several days before an athletic event is known as A) carbohydrate craving. B) the Atkins diet. C) carbohydrate loading. D) glycolysis reaction. E) overeating. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 19) Although other nutrients can feed into the citric acid cycle, ________ yields energy the quickest. A) glycogen B) glucose C) protein D) fat E) an amino acid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 20) The major steps in oxidative phosphorylation include all of the following except A) removal of hydrogen atoms from a substrate molecule by coenzymes. B) ionization of hydrogen atoms. C) decreasing the energy level of electrons passing through the electron transport chain. D) the breaking of carbon-carbon covalent bonds. E) the acceptance of electrons by oxygen atoms. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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21) In oxidative phosphorylation, energy for the synthesis of ATP is directly obtained from the A) splitting of oxygen molecules. B) breaking of the covalent bonds in glucose. C) movement of hydrogen ions through channels in the inner mitochondrial membrane. D) combination of two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen to form water. E) oxidation of acetyl-CoA. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 22) How many net ATP molecules are produced by the complete metabolism (all pathways) of one glucose molecule? A) 2-4 ATP B) 6 ATP C) 30-32 ATP D) 100-120 ATP E) 150 ATP Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) The citric acid cycle occurs in the A) cytosol. B) golgi apparatus. C) mitochondrial intermembrane space. D) mitochondrial matrix. E) ribosome. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) Oxygen is an important molecule in which of the following? A) citric acid cycle and ETS B) glycolysis, citric acid cycle, and ETS C) citric acid cycle only D) glycolysis only E) ETS only Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) The citric acid cycle is an aerobic process because A) ADP is phosphorylated. B) FADH2 is produced. C) citric acid molecules have oxygen atoms. D) oxygen is needed to remove carbon atoms as carbon dioxide. E) NAH+ is converted into NADH. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) The main purpose of the citric acid cycle is to A) produce Acetyl CoA so that the citric acid cycle can continue. B) produce proteins for energy storage. C) phosphorylate glucose molecules. D) supply hydrogen atoms to the Electron Transport System. E) produce citric acid to make vitamin C in the mitochondria. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) The end products of aerobic respiration are A) carbon dioxide, water, and ATP. B) pyruvic acid and carbon dioxide. C) carbon dioxide and alcohol. D) oxygen and water. E) NADH and FADH2. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) Most of the ATP from metabolism is produced in the A) citric acid cycle. B) electron transport system. C) cytosol. D) mitochondrial matrix. E) glycolysis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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29) In the citric acid cycle, a 2 carbon molecule and a 4 carbon molecule combine to produce A) fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate. B) carbon dioxide. C) pyruvic acid. D) NADH. E) citric acid. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) The end products of glycolysis are A) ATP, water, and carbon dioxide. B) ATP, NADH, and pyruvic acid. C) ADP and ATP. D) pyruvic acid and citric acid. E) NADH and FADH2. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) The process of synthesizing glucose from noncarbohydrates is called A) glycolysis. B) gluconeogenesis. C) cellular respiration. D) glycemia. E) glycogenesis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) The process of glycogen formation is known as A) glycolysis. B) gluconeogenesis. C) cellular respiration. D) glycemia. E) glycogenesis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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33) Fatty acids and many amino acids cannot be used for ________ because their catabolic pathways produce acetyl-CoA. A) glycolysis B) gluconeogenesis C) cellular respiration D) glycemia E) glycogenesis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) Carbon and oxygen atoms are removed as carbon dioxide in a process called A) anabolism. B) decarboxylation. C) deamination. D) oxidative phosphorylation. E) substrate-level phosphorylation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) The two most important coenzymes for glycolysis and the citric acid cycle are A) ATP and ADP. B) FAD and FMN. C) NAD and ATP. D) NAD and FAD. E) ATP and GTP. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) During the citric acid cycle, both NAD and FAD ________ a hydrogen atom and become ________. A) lose; oxidized B) gain; oxidized C) lose; reduced D) gain; reduced E) gain; ATP Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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37) The formation of GTP from GDP in the citric acid cycle is an example of A) substrate-level phosphorylation. B) oxidative phosphorylation. C) decarboxylation. D) cellular respiration. E) aerobic metabolism. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) The electron transport system doesn't produce ATP directly instead it uses the hydrogen ion gradient to drive A) substrate-level phosphorylation. B) chemiosmosis. C) anaerobic metabolism. D) decarboxylation. E) deamination. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 39) Cyanide gas is lethal because it A) inhibits the kinase that phosphorylates ATP. B) inhibits the ATP synthase. C) blocks substrate-level phosphorylation. D) blocks the final electron acceptor in the ETS. E) binds NAD preventing it from being reduced. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Figure 25-1 The Citric Acid Cycle Use Figure 25-1 to answer the following questions: 40) What is the molecule labeled "1"? A) phosphoglyceric acid B) citric acid C) pyruvate D) NADH E) FADH2 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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41) What is the molecule labeled "2"? A) hydrogen atoms B) citric acid C) NADH D) carbon dioxide E) FADH2 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 42) What is the substance labeled "4"? A) hydrogen atoms B) citric acid C) 4 carbon molecule D) NADH E) FADH2 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 43) What is the molecule labeled "7"? A) hydrogen atoms B) citric acid C) 4 carbon molecule D) NADH E) FADH2 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 44) What is the molecule labeled "3"? A) ADP B) carbon dioxide C) NADH D) hydrogen atoms E) pyruvate Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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45) The lipoproteins that carry absorbed lipids from the intestinal tract to the bloodstream are A) HDLs. B) VLDLs. C) LDLs. D) chylomicrons. E) coenzymes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) During lipolysis, A) triglycerides are converted into molecules of acetyl-CoA. B) triglycerides are broken down into glycerol and fatty acids. C) lipids are converted into glucose molecules. D) lipids are formed from excess carbohydrates. E) lipids are metabolized to yield ATP. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) All of the following are true of beta-oxidation except that A) it occurs in the mitochondria. B) fatty acids break down into two-carbon fragments. C) lipids are converted into glycogen molecules. D) it requires coenzyme A, NAD, and FAD. E) it yields large amounts of ATP. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) Lipids A) deliver somewhat less energy than an equivalent mass of glucose. B) are difficult to store since they are not water soluble. C) yield quick bursts of energy. D) provide energy for cells with modest energy demands. E) are the primary nutrient metabolized in cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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49) Lipogenesis generally begins with A) glucose. B) amino acids. C) fatty acids. D) acetyl-CoA. E) succinyl-CoA. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) Linoleic acid and linolenic acid are examples of A) transport proteins. B) lipoproteins. C) essential fatty acids. D) essential amino acids. E) vitamins. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) In order to determine the LDL level in a patient's blood, it is necessary to measure A) total cholesterol level. B) HDL level. C) triglyceride level. D) triglyceride and monoglyceride levels. E) total cholesterol level, HDL level, and triglyceride level. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 52) ________ are the largest lipoproteins, ranging in diameter up to 0.5 µm. A) Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs) B) Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) C) Micelles D) High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) E) Chylomicrons Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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53) ________ carry excess cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver. A) Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs) B) Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) C) Micelles D) High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) E) Very-high-density lipoproteins (VHDLs) Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) Fatty acids that are necessary for proper health but cannot be synthesized by the body are called ________ fatty acids. A) oxidative B) metabolic C) essential D) vital E) non-metabolic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) Lipoproteins that are formed within the intestinal epithelium to transfer dietary fats into circulation are called A) chylomicrons. B) very-low-density lipoproteins. C) micelles. D) low-density lipoproteins. E) high-density lipoproteins. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) Lipoproteins that are primarily sent to skeletal muscles and adipose tissues are called A) chylomicrons. B) very-low-density lipoproteins. C) micelles. D) low-density lipoproteins. E) high-density lipoproteins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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57) Lipoproteins that carry mostly cholesterol to peripheral tissues are called A) chylomicrons. B) very-low-density lipoproteins. C) micelles. D) low-density lipoproteins. E) high-density lipoproteins. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) The complete catabolism of fatty acids is through the process called A) lipogenesis. B) glycolysis. C) beta-oxidation. D) glycogenolysis. E) adipogenesis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) Lipogenesis is common for organic molecules because the intermediate ________ is formed in most nutrient metabolic processes. A) pyruvate B) acetyl-CoA C) glycerol D) glucose E) lipoprotein Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 60) Lipoproteins are water-soluble because of a superficial coating of A) cholesterol. B) bile salts. C) phospholipids and proteins. D) triglycerides. E) glycerol. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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61) Removal of the amino group from amino acids in the first step of their catabolism requires a coenzyme derived from vitamin A) A. B) C. C) B12. D) B6. E) B9. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) In transamination, the amino group of an amino acid is A) converted to ammonia. B) converted to urea. C) transferred to a keto acid. D) absorbed by water. E) transferred to acetyl-CoA. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) The conversion of ammonia into a less toxic substance produces A) ketone bodies. B) urea. C) nitrate. D) acetyl-CoA. E) water. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) Urea is formed in the A) liver. B) stomach. C) kidneys. D) small intestine. E) large intestine. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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65) Metabolism of amino acids in the citric acid cycle yields A) more energy than lipid metabolism. B) more energy than carbohydrate metabolism. C) approximately the same energy as lipid metabolism. D) approximately the same energy as carbohydrate metabolism. E) more energy than lipid and carbohydrate metabolism combined. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) A high uric acid level (above 7.4 mg/dl) can lead to the painful condition known as A) gout. B) rheumatoid arthritis. C) anorexia nervosa. D) lupus. E) ketosis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 67) Catabolism of protein is not a practical source of quick energy because of all of the following except that A) proteins are more difficult to break apart than lipids or carbohydrates. B) the energy yield from protein is less than the yield from lipids. C) one of the by-products of protein catabolism is ammonia. D) most individuals have little protein to spare before harming vital organs. E) extensive catabolism of protein threatens homeostasis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 68) The removal of amino group from a protein to prepare it to enter the citric acid cycle is termed A) transamination. B) deamination. C) decarboxylation. D) amination. E) beta-oxidation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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69) Protein malnourishment may occur if the diet is deficient in A) essential amino acids. B) nonessential amino acids. C) urea. D) ammonia. E) keto acids. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 70) During the absorptive state, A) the liver forms glycogen. B) adipocytes release fatty acids to the circulation. C) skeletal muscle breaks down glycogen. D) insulin levels are low. E) skeletal muscle fibers release glucose. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) All of the following occur during the postabsorptive state except that A) glycogenolysis occurs in the liver. B) levels of blood glucose are elevated above normal. C) ketone bodies may be formed. D) fat mobilization occurs. E) gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) During starvation, A) carbohydrate utilization increases. B) gluconeogenesis ceases. C) there is a decline in circulating ketone bodies. D) muscle proteins are used as an energy source. E) carbohydrate reserves maintained by metabolizing inorganic compounds. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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73) When the body is relying on internal energy reserves to continue meeting its energy demands, it is in the ________ state. A) postabsorptive B) absorptive C) starvation D) deprivation E) preabsorptive Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) During the postabsorptive state, ________ stimulate(s) lipid catabolism. A) glucocorticoids B) androgens C) insulin D) glucagon E) gastrin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 75) All of the following complement the actions of glucocorticoids in the postabsorptive state except A) insulin. B) growth hormone. C) glucagon. D) epinephrine. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 76) Compounds that cells can use to make glucose include all of the following, except A) acetyl-CoA. B) glycerol. C) some amino acids. D) lactate. E) pyruvate. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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77) On a tour of African countries, Mark contracts a bad case of traveler's diarrhea. Because he can't eat very much, his body starts to use energy sources other than carbohydrates. This would result in all of the following, except A) increased levels of urea in the blood. B) ketosis and a decreased blood pH. C) increased gluconeogenesis in the liver. D) lipid metabolism. E) glycogenesis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 78) Following a meal, the absorptive state lasts approximately A) 30 minutes. B) 2 hours. C) 4 hours. D) 8 hours. E) 12 hours. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) Frank has diabetes mellitus and his blood pH has dropped. What is the most likely cause of his acidosis? A) a build up of urea B) excess ammonia production C) lipoprotein metabolism D) excess ketone formation E) increased glycolysis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 80) Nitrogen compounds of the body include all of the following except A) amino acids. B) oxaloacetate. C) creatine. D) porphyrin. E) purines. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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81) The major cation in extracellular fluid is A) sodium. B) potassium. C) calcium. D) magnesium. E) iron. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) The major cation in cytoplasm is A) sodium. B) potassium. C) calcium. D) magnesium. E) iron. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) The major anion in body fluids is A) chloride. B) bicarbonate. C) sulfate. D) iodide. E) phosphate. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 84) A cation that is essential for muscle contraction, nerve function, and blood clotting is A) sodium. B) potassium. C) calcium. D) magnesium. E) selenium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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85) An ion that is a necessary component of high-energy compounds and nucleic acids and a structural component of bone is the ________ ion. A) chloride B) sulfate C) phosphate D) bicarbonate E) iodide Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) A cation that often acts as a cofactor for enzymes is A) sodium. B) potassium. C) calcium. D) magnesium. E) zinc. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) An element that is a component of hemoglobin, myoglobin, and cytochromes is A) calcium. B) magnesium. C) iron. D) zinc. E) cobalt. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) The element that is necessary for the proper function of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase is A) iron. B) cobalt. C) zinc. D) selenium. E) iodine. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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89) The trace element needed as a cofactor for hemoglobin synthesis is A) zinc. B) copper. C) cobalt. D) iodine. E) silicon. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) The vitamin that plays a role in maintaining epithelia and is required for the synthesis of visual pigments is vitamin A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) E. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) The vitamin that is required for proper bone growth and for calcium absorption and retention is vitamin A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) E. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) The vitamin that prevents breakdown of vitamin A and fatty acids is vitamin A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) E. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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93) The vitamin that is essential for the production of several clotting factors is vitamin A) A. B) B. C) E. D) C. E) K. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) The vitamin whose deficiency causes beriberi is A) thiamine. B) riboflavin. C) niacin. D) folic acid (folate). E) cobalamin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) The vitamin that is part of the coenzyme FAD is A) thiamine. B) riboflavin. C) niacin. D) folic acid (folate). E) cobalamin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) The vitamin that is part of the coenzyme NAD is A) thiamine. B) riboflavin. C) niacin. D) folic acid (folate). E) cobalamin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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97) A vitamin obtained that is a coenzyme in amino acid and lipid metabolism is A) pyridoxine (B6). B) thiamine. C) riboflavin. D) folic acid (folate). E) niacin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) The vitamin that is a constituent of coenzyme A is A) folic acid (folate). B) pantothenic acid. C) pyridoxine (B6). D) riboflavin. E) niacin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) The vitamin that is a coenzyme in amino acid and nucleic acid metabolism is A) pantothenic acid. B) pyridoxine (B6). C) folic acid (folate). D) vitamin C. E) vitamin K. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) Inadequate exposure to sunlight could result in decreased amounts of vitamin ________ in the body. A) A B) B12 C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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101) Impaired fat absorption in the intestine would interfere with the absorption of A) vitamin A. B) vitamin B12. C) vitamin C. D) niacin. E) riboflavin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 102) Eating disorders are common among girls and young women. They result from a psychological problem that causes inadequate or excessive food consumption. Two major eating disorders are anorexia nervosa and A) marasmus. B) bulimia. C) beriberi. D) ketosis. E) pyrexia. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 103) The term ________ refers to an unhealthy state resulting from inadequate intake of one or more nutrients that becomes life-threatening as the deficiencies accumulate. A) malabsorption B) binging C) purging D) malnutrition E) maladaptation Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) Inorganic ions released through the dissociation of electrolytes are called A) nutrients. B) vitamins. C) trace minerals. D) free radicals. E) minerals. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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105) Which of these is not a nitrogen compound? A) amino acids B) glycerol C) purines and pyrimidines D) creatine E) porphyrins Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) Which of these is not recommended in the MyPlate Plan? A) grains B) vegetables C) fruits D) oils E) dairy Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) An important trace mineral that acts as an antioxidant is A) iron. B) cobalt. C) selenium. D) chromium. E) magnesium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) Taking excess vitamins can be dangerous. It is possible to overdose on vitamin A) A. B) B1. C) B6. D) B7. E) C. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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109) Scurvy is a result of deficiency in vitamin A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) E. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 110) Fat-soluble vitamin overdoses primarily affect which organ? A) heart B) brain C) skeletal muscles D) liver E) lungs Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 111) Factors that influence an individual's BMR (basal metabolic rate) include all of the following except A) physical exertion. B) age. C) body weight. D) genetics. E) gender. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) The nutrients that yield the most energy per gram when metabolized are A) carbohydrates. B) proteins. C) fats. D) nucleic acids. E) vitamins. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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113) A T4 assay is used to A) determine the number of calories in food. B) directly measure the basal metabolic rate. C) obtain an index of metabolic activity. D) monitor the energy efficiency of metabolism. E) determine the amount of oxygen consumed during metabolism. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 114) The condition when excessive fluid loss from sweating disrupts thermoregulatory mechanisms is known as A) thermoneogenesis. B) heat exhaustion. C) hydrosis. D) heat stroke. E) hypothermia. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) Obesity is defined as a body weight more than ________ percent above the ideal body weight for an individual. A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 E) 30 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) When the temperature of the preoptic area of the hypothalamus exceeds its thermostat setting, A) peripheral vasoconstriction occurs. B) skin blood flow increases. C) rate and depth of respiration decreases. D) sweat glands are inhibited. E) blood is shunted to deep veins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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117) All of the following occur when the temperature of the preoptic area of the hypothalamus drops below its thermostat setting except A) blood flow to the skin increases. B) shivering thermogenesis occurs. C) nonshivering thermogenesis occurs. D) epinephrine levels rise. E) blood returning from limbs is shunted to deep veins. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 118) Which of the following individuals would lose heat the fastest in a cold room? A) an adult man B) an adult woman C) an adolescent male D) a child E) a newborn infant Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 119) Which of the following statements regarding brown fat is false? A) Brown fat is found in infants. B) Brown fat functions in nonshivering thermogenesis. C) Brown fat contains a rich vascular supply. D) Brown fat is innervated by the sympathetic nervous system. E) Brown fat is concentrated around visceral organs in the adult. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 120) More than half the heat is lost from the body indoors through the process of A) radiation. B) conduction. C) convection. D) evaporation. E) concentration. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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121) The energy content of foods is commonly given in units of A) grams. B) kilograms. C) kilocalories. D) moles. E) ounces. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 122) The term ________ refers to the homeostatic process that allows us to maintain a constant body temperature. A) thermogenesis B) thermodynamics C) thermochemistry D) thermoregulation E) thermography Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 123) The direct transfer of heat energy from one object to another through physical contact is called A) radiation. B) conduction. C) convection. D) evaporation. E) transmission. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 124) Heat loss to the cooler air that moves across the surface of your body is called A) radiation. B) conduction. C) convection. D) evaporation. E) transmission. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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125) The loss of heat energy by vaporizing water is called A) radiation. B) conduction. C) convection. D) evaporation. E) transmission. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 126) In resting individuals, energy use is proportional to A) amount of lipids in the diet. B) carbon dioxide produced during cellular respiration. C) total caloric intake. D) weight. E) oxygen consumption. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 127) Which disease is not associated with obesity? A) heart disease B) gout C) cancer D) diabetes mellitus E) kidney disease Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 128) Physicians have found improved outcomes when forcefully cooling specific organs or the whole body prior to surgery in a process called A) shivering thermogenesis. B) nonshivering thermogenesis. C) induced hypothermia. D) cool exhaustion. E) freezing. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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129) Which of the following is not a way to conserve or generate heat? A) shivering thermogenesis B) nonshivering thermogenesis C) vasoconstriction in the skin D) increasing the depth of respirations E) release of thyroxine Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Glycolysis produces how many pyruvate molecules and how many ATP molecules? (Figure 25-2) A) 1 pyruvate molecule with a net gain of 1 ATP molecule B) 2 pyruvate molecules with a net gain of 2 ATP molecules C) 2 pyruvate molecules with a net gain of 4 ATP molecules D) 4 pyruvate molecules with a net gain of 4 ATP molecules E) 4 pyruvate molecules with a net gain of 2 ATP molecules Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) The energy produced from aerobic metabolism comes from what two sources? (Figure 25-5) A) glycolysis and the electron transport chain B) glycolysis and the citric acid cycle C) citric acid cycle and the electron transport chain D) glycolysis and fermentation E) fermentation and the citric acid cycle Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Where does beta-oxidation take place? (Figure 25-7) A) blood plasma B) in the plasma membrane of cells C) in the cytoplasm of cells D) in the mitochondria E) in the Golgi apparatus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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4) What two types of lipoproteins are manufactured by the liver? (Figure 25-8) A) HDLs and chylomicrons B) micelles and chylomicrons C) HDLs and LDLs D) HDLs and VLDLs E) LDLs and VLDLs Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 5) In a warm environment, does more blood return to the trunk through deep or superficial veins? Why? (Figure 25-14) A) superficial veins; allows heat to radiate B) deep veins; allows heat to radiate C) superficial veins; allows heat to evaporate D) deep veins; allows heat to evaporate E) deep veins; allows heat conduction Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Essay Questions 1) Define gluconeogenesis. What organs can it occur in? What precursors can be used? What is the outcome? Answer: Gluconeogenesis is the synthesis of glucose from a noncarbohydrate precursor. It occurs because cells cannot use acetyl-CoA to make glucose. Gluconeogenesis can take place in the liver and in skeletal muscles. Lactate, glycerol and some amino acids can be precursors for gluconeogenesis but fatty acids and other amino acids that produce acetyl-CoA cannot. The end result is an increase in the production of glucose that can be used or stored as glycogen. Learning Outcome: 25-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) The drug colestipol binds bile salts in the intestine, forming complexes that cannot be absorbed. How would this drug affect cholesterol levels in blood? Answer: Colestipol would lead to a decrease in the plasma levels of cholesterol. Since the bile salts are bound they are not available for reabsorption in the large intestine and recycling to cholesterol in the liver and so will be lost in the feces. This deprives the body of a major source of cholesterol and the loss will need to be made up by increased liver synthesis. Overall, a drop in circulating cholesterol will result. Learning Outcome: 25-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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3) What happens during protein catabolism? How is this related to nitrogen balance? Answer: Protein catabolism is the breakdown of proteins by cellular proteases and peptidases into constituent amino acids. These amino acids can be either reused for protein synthesis (anabolism) or broken down via deamination and used to make glucose or directly used in the citric acid cycle to make ATP. Deamination removes the nitrogen group from the amino acid, which is then excreted as urea. This results in a negative nitrogen balance. Learning Outcome: 25-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 4) Ketosis develops in the postabsorptive state. What is ketosis? Why does it develop? What metabolic effects does it have? Answer: Ketosis is a high concentration of ketone bodies in body fluids. Ketone bodies are metabolites with the ketone group that form during starvation states. When glucose levels are low, the liver turns to fats and amino acids to provide energy. This produces much acetyl-CoA, which leads to production of ketone bodies. Because most ketone bodies are acidic, they lower the pH of body fluids, bringing on acidosis. If severe, the ketosis and acidosis can injure the CNS, heart, and other organs. In extreme cases, death can result. Learning Outcome: 25-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 5) Briefly outline the role of the liver in glucose metabolism. Answer: During the absorptive state, under insulin control, the liver takes in glucose and converts it to glycogen, the storage form. In the postabsorptive state, the liver releases glucose into the circulation to maintain homeostasis. The glucose comes from the glycogenolysis or gluconeogenesis. An example of gluconeogenesis is when the liver converts lactate released from skeletal muscle into glucose. Epinephrine, growth hormone, glucagon, glucocorticoids, and other hormones trigger glucose release. Learning Outcome: 25-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 6) List and briefly describe the body's five metabolic components. Answer: The body has five metabolic components: the liver, adipose tissue, skeletal muscle, neural tissue, and other peripheral tissues. The liver is the focal point for metabolic regulation and control. Adipose tissue stores lipids, primarily in the form of triglycerides. Skeletal muscle contains substantial glycogen reserves, and the contractile proteins can be degraded and the amino acids used as an energy source. Neural tissue does not contain energy reserves; glucose must be supplied to it for energy. Other peripheral tissues are able to metabolize glucose, fatty acids, or other substrates under the direction of the endocrine system. Learning Outcome: 25-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 26 The Urinary System Multiple Choice Questions 1) The urinary system does all of the following except A) excreting excess albumin molecules. B) regulating blood volume. C) helping to stabilize blood pH. D) eliminating organic waste products. E) regulating plasma concentrations of electrolytes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Functions of the urinary system include all of the following except A) regulation of blood volume and blood pressure. B) regulation of plasma concentration of certain ions. C) helping to stabilize blood pH. D) conservation of valuable nutrients. E) storage of fat-soluble vitamins. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) The urinary function of elimination occurs through the A) liver. B) glomerulus. C) kidney. D) ureter. E) urethra. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Urine is carried to the urinary bladder by A) blood vessels. B) lymphatics. C) the ureters. D) the urethra. E) the calyces. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) Each of the following organs is part of the urinary system except the A) kidney. B) urinary bladder. C) rectum. D) ureter. E) urethra. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) Urine is temporarily stored in the A) urethra. B) urinary bladder. C) kidney. D) ureter. E) trigone. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) Urine is carried from the urinary bladder to the outside of the body by the A) urethra. B) glomerulus. C) convoluted tubule. D) ureter. E) collecting duct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Which of the following activities is not related to kidney function? A) control of hydrogen ion and pH in the blood B) control of wastes in the blood C) lipid digestion D) regulation of blood pressure E) maintenance of various blood ion concentrations Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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9) The excretory functions of the urinary system are performed by the A) urethra. B) ureters. C) glomerulus. D) urinary bladder. E) kidneys. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) When the bladder is full, urine is eliminated through the process known as A) beta-oxidation. B) defecation. C) emesis. D) micturition. E) segmentation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) A glomerulus is A) the expanded end of a nephron. B) a knot of capillaries within the renal corpuscle. C) the source of erythropoietin. D) attached to the collecting duct. E) the horseshoe-shaped segment of the nephron. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) All of the following are true of the kidneys except that they are A) located in a position that is retroperitoneal. B) surrounded by a fibrous capsule. C) located partly within the pelvic cavity. D) held in place by the renal fascia. E) covered by peritoneum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) The prominent indentation on the medial surface of the kidney is the A) calyx. B) pelvis. C) ureter. D) hilum. E) pyramid. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) The renal sinus is A) the innermost layer of kidney tissue. B) part of a renal pyramid. C) an internal cavity lined by the fibrous capsule. D) a large branch of the renal pelvis. E) a renal corpuscle. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) The outermost layer of the kidney is the A) renal cortex. B) renal medulla. C) major calyx. D) fibrous capsule. E) renal pelvis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) The cavity of the kidney that receives urine from the calyces is called the A) renal papilla. B) renal pelvis. C) renal medulla. D) renal cortex. E) renal sinus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) Blood leaves the glomerulus through a blood vessel called the A) afferent arteriole. B) efferent arteriole. C) vasa recta. D) interlobular arteriole. E) renal vein. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) The condition called ________ is especially dangerous because the ureters or renal blood vessels can become twisted or kinked during movement. A) polycystic kidney disease B) floating kidney C) pyelonephritis D) renal calculi E) renal failure Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 19) The ________ delivers urine to a minor calyx. A) nephron loop (loop of Henle) B) distal convoluted tubule C) papillary duct D) renal corpuscle E) ureter Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 20) Typical renal blood flow is about ________ ml/min under resting conditions. A) 500 B) 800 C) 1200 D) 1800 E) 2500 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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21) In the renal corpuscle, the visceral layer is a layer of specialized cells called A) glomerulocytes. B) juxtaglomerular cells. C) tubular cells. D) macula densa cells. E) podocytes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) What is the proper order for the structures of the renal corpuscle through which a substance travels during filtration? 1. filtration slit (slit pore) 2. capsular space 3. basement membrane 4. fenestrated endothelium A) 4, 3, 2, 1 B) 4, 1, 2, 3 C) 4, 3, 1, 2 D) 3, 1, 4, 2 E) 2, 4, 3, 1 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 23) Capillaries that surround the proximal convoluted tubules are A) proximal capillaries. B) corticoradiate capillaries. C) vasa recta capillaries. D) efferent arterioles. E) peritubular capillaries. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) ________ is/are an inflammatory disorder of the glomeruli that affects the filtration mechanism of the kidneys. A) Glomerulonephritis B) Floating kidney C) Polycystic kidney disease D) Pyelonephrosis E) Kidney stones Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) Glomerulonephritis may occur as a consequence of an infection with the bacterium A) Clostridium difficile. B) varicella. C) Streptococcus. D) MRSA. E) Salmonella. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 26) ________ is an inherited abnormality that affects the development and structure of kidney tubules. A) Glomerulonephritis B) Polycystic kidney disease C) Nephrolithiasis D) Renal failure E) Hematuria Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) Renal columns are A) internal cavities lined by the fibrous capsule. B) expanded ends of the ureters. C) the basic functional units of the kidney. D) bundles of tissue that extend between pyramids from the cortex. E) conical structures that are located in the renal medulla. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) The expanded beginning of the ureter connects to the A) renal sinus. B) renal pelvis. C) renal calyx. D) renal hilum. E) renal corpuscle. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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29) Major calyces are A) large branches of the renal pelvis. B) expanded ends of nephrons. C) basic functional layers of the kidney. D) conical structures that are located in the renal medulla. E) the expanded ends of renal pyramids. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) Glomerular (Bowman's) capsule and the glomerulus make up the A) renal pyramid. B) nephron loop (loop of Henle). C) renal corpuscle. D) renal papilla. E) collecting tubule system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) The region known as the macula densa is part of A) the proximal convoluted tubule. B) the distal convoluted tubule. C) the collecting duct. D) the nephron loop (loop of Henle). E) glomerular (Bowman's) capsule. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) The cells of the macula densa, the juxtaglomerular cells, and the extraglomerular mesangial cells form the A) renal corpuscle. B) filtration membrane. C) nephron loop (loop of Henle). D) juxtaglomerular complex. E) afferent arteriole. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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33) You have been diagnosed with lupus erythematosus, a very severe autoimmune disorder with a wide variety of associated organ-related problems. Your doctor is particularly worried about how this will affect your kidney function. He says that you are susceptible to ________ because of the lupus. A) polycystic kidney B) glomerulonephritis C) cystitis D) diabetes E) renal calculi Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 34) Filtrate first passes from the glomerular capsule to the A) nephron loop (loop of Henle). B) proximal convoluted tubule. C) distal convoluted tubule. D) collecting duct. E) minor calyx. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) The portion of the nephron that empties into the collecting duct is the A) nephron loop (loop of Henle). B) proximal convoluted tubule. C) distal convoluted tubule. D) papillary tubule. E) calyx. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term renal papilla? A) It releases renin. B) It creates high interstitial NaCl concentration. C) Final urine enters here. D) Initial filtrate enters here. E) It is the tip of the medullary pyramid. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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37) The efferent arteriole of a nephron divides to form a network of capillaries within the cortex called the ________ capillaries. A) peritubular B) glomerular C) vasa recta D) cortical E) efferent Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) The primary function of the proximal convoluted tubule is A) filtration. B) reabsorption of ions, organic molecules, vitamins, and water. C) secretion of acids and ammonia. D) secretion of drugs. E) adjusting the urine pH. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) The following is a list of the blood vessels that carry blood to the kidney. In what order does blood pass through these vessels starting at the renal artery? 1. afferent arteriole 2. arcuate artery 3. interlobar artery 4. segmental artery 5. glomerulus 6. cortical radiate artery 7. efferent arteriole 8. peritubular capillary A) 4, 6, 2, 3, 1, 5, 7, 8 B) 4, 3, 2, 6, 1, 5, 7, 8 C) 4, 3, 2, 6, 7, 5, 1, 8 D) 4, 6, 2, 3, 7, 5, 1, 8 E) 4, 3, 6, 2, 1, 5, 7, 8 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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40) The filtration barrier in the renal corpuscle consists of which three layers? A) filtration slits, foot processes, and slit pores B) fenestrations, matrix, and foot processes C) fenestrated endothelium of glomerulus, basement membrane of glomerulus, and podocyte filtration slits D) basement membrane of glomerulus, foot processes, and capsular outer layer E) podocyte filtration slits, matrix cells in the glomerulus, and extraglomerular mesangial cells Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 41) Eighty percent of nephrons in the human kidney are located in the ________ and have short nephron loops. A) cortex B) medulla C) pyramids D) capsule E) pelvis Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) Nephrons located close to the medulla with long nephron loops are called ________ nephrons. A) cortical B) juxtaglomerular C) vasa recta D) juxtamedullary E) Henle Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) The ________ is a capillary bed that parallels the nephron loop (loop of Henle). A) glomerulus B) peritubular capillary bed C) afferent arteriolar bed D) collecting duct E) vasa recta Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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44) The majority of glomeruli are located in the ________ of the kidney. A) vasa recta B) medulla C) cortex D) pelvis E) calyces Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 45) Which of the following components of the nephron is largely confined to the renal medulla? A) glomerular (Bowman's) capsule B) distal convoluted tubule C) collecting ducts D) proximal convoluted tubule E) glomerulus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 46) Each kidney has about ________ nephrons. A) 100,000 B) 500,000 C) 1 million D) 1.25 million E) 5 million Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) The majority of renal innervation is by the A) parasympathetic nervous system. B) vagus nerve. C) somatic nervous system. D) sympathetic nervous system. E) enteric nervous system. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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48) The proximal convoluted tubule cells are A) cuboidal cells with microvilli. B) cuboidal cells without microvilli. C) squamous cells. D) columnar cells with microvilli. E) columnar cell without microvilli. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 49) The region of the nephron containing intercalated cells primarily associated with pH balance is the A) glomerulus. B) proximal convoluted tubule. C) nephron loop. D) collecting duct. E) papillary duct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 50) Modified smooth muscle cells in the wall of the afferent arteriole that secrete renin are called A) macula densa cells. B) juxtaglomerular cells. C) extraglomerular mesangial cells. D) podocytes. E) principal cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) Which of the following substances should not be filtered? A) glucose B) water C) proteins D) amino acids E) fatty acids Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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52) The functional units of kidneys where blood is filtered and urine produced are called A) pyramids. B) nephrons. C) calyces. D) lobules. E) lobes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53) Glomerular blood flow is unique because it flows A) through a glomerular portal vein. B) directly from the renal artery into the glomerular capillaries. C) from arteriole to capillary bed to arteriole. D) from arteriole to capillary bed to vasa recta. E) through the peritubular capillaries then into the glomerular capillaries. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 54) An important structure for blood pressure regulation is the A) collecting duct. B) nephron loop. C) papillary duct. D) proximal convoluted tubule. E) juxtaglomerular complex. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 26-1 The Structure of the Kidney Use Figure 26-1 to answer the following questions: 55) Identify the structure labeled "4." A) renal pelvis B) minor calyx C) ureter D) major calyx E) renal column Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 56) Identify the structure labeled "8." A) renal pelvis B) minor calyx C) ureter D) major calyx E) renal column Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 15 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

57) Identify the region labeled "1." A) renal cortex B) renal medulla C) renal papilla D) renal sinus E) fibrous capsule Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 58) Identify the structure labeled "9." A) renal sinus B) fibrous capsule C) renal pyramid D) renal papilla E) renal column Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 59) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) renal sinus B) fibrous capsule C) renal pyramid D) renal papilla E) renal column Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 60) The filtration of plasma takes place in the A) nephron loop (loop of Henle). B) distal convoluted tubule. C) papillary duct. D) renal corpuscle. E) ureter. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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61) Reabsorbed water and solutes enter into the A) afferent arteriole. B) efferent arteriole. C) peritubular fluid. D) tubular fluid. E) glomerulus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) ________ is the most abundant organic waste. A) Glucose B) Albumin C) Carbon dioxide D) Sodium E) Urea Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) The process that transports solutes, including many drugs, into the tubular fluid is called A) filtration. B) reabsorption. C) absorption. D) excretion. E) secretion. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 26-2 The Nephron Use Figure 26-2 to answer the following questions: 64) What physiological process occurs at the structure labeled "1"? A) reabsorption B) excretion C) secretion D) filtration E) micturition Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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65) Where does most nutrient reabsorption occur? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 66) Which area(s) allow variable water reabsorption and is/are sensitive to the hormone ADH? A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 and 6 E) 3 and 6 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 67) Where would penicillin be secreted? A) 6 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3 E) 3 and 4 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 68) Where does secretion mostly occur? A) 5 B) 1 C) 3 D) 4 E) 2 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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69) Which area is sensitive to aldosterone? A) 2 B) 1 C) 4 D) 3 E) 5 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 70) Identify the structure labeled "5." A) proximal convoluted tubule B) distal convoluted tubule C) collecting duct D) nephron loop E) glomerulus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 71) Identify the structure labeled "6." A) proximal convoluted tubule B) distal convoluted tubule C) collecting duct D) nephron loop E) glomerulus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 72) The process of filtration is driven mainly by A) active transport. B) blood osmotic pressure. C) blood hydrostatic pressure. D) renal pumping. E) solvent drag. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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73) Approximately ________ liters of glomerular filtrate enter glomerular capsules each day. A) 480 B) 180 C) 125 D) 18 E) 1.8 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 74) Under normal conditions, glomerular filtration depends on three main pressures. From the list below, what are these three main pressures? 1. glomerular hydrostatic pressure 2. capsular hydrostatic pressure 3. capsular colloid osmotic pressure 4. blood colloid osmotic pressure 5. urinary bladder hydrostatic pressure A) 1, 2, and 3 are correct. B) 2, 3, and 4 are correct. C) 3, 4, and 5 are correct. D) 1, 2, and 4 are correct. E) 2, 4, and 5 are correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 75) Which of the following formulas will allow you to calculate correctly the net filtration pressure (NFP)? (Hint: CsHP is capsular hydrostatic pressure.) A) FP = GHP + CsHP - BCOP B) FP = GHP - (CsHP + BCOP) C) FP = CsHP + GHP - BCOP D) FP = BCOP - GHP + CsHP E) FP = BCOP + (GHP - CsHP) Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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76) Measurement of the functions of a nephron reveals a glomerular capillary pressure of 69 mm Hg, and a pressure in the capsular space of 15 mm Hg. Assuming that the blood colloid osmotic pressure is 30 mm Hg, and that essentially no plasma proteins are filtered by the glomerulus, what is the net filtration pressure in this case? A) 30 mm Hg B) 24 mm Hg C) 69 mm Hg D) 84 mm Hg E) 99 mm Hg Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 77) One mechanism the kidney uses to raise systemic blood pressure is to A) increase secretion of renin by the juxtaglomerular complex. B) decrease secretion of aldosterone. C) increase release of angiotensin II by the adrenal glands. D) increase filtration into glomerular (Bowman's) capsule. E) decrease urinary albumin concentration. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) Calculate filtration pressure (FP) in a nephron with a glomerular hydrostatic pressure of 55 mm Hg, a blood colloid osmotic pressure of 25 mm Hg, and a capsular hydrostatic pressure of 15 mm Hg. A) FP = 10 mm Hg B) FP = 95 mm Hg C) FP = 55 mm Hg D) FP = 45 mm Hg E) FP = 15 mm Hg Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 79) Blood colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP) in the glomerulus is generated by A) blood pressure. B) presence of albumin proteins in blood plasma. C) constriction of the efferent arteriole. D) protein in the filtrate. E) filtrate in the capsular space. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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80) The main force that causes filtration in a nephron is A) blood colloid osmotic pressure. B) glomerular hydrostatic pressure. C) osmotic pressure of the urine. D) capsular hydrostatic pressure. E) reabsorption in proximal convoluted tubule pulls filtrate from blood. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 81) Substances larger than ________ are normally not allowed to pass through the filtration membrane. A) sodium ions B) glucose C) albumin D) amino acids E) urea Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) Sympathetic stimulation of the kidney can do all of the following except A) produce powerful vasoconstriction of the afferent arterioles. B) increase the glomerular filtration rate. C) trigger renin release. D) produce renal ischemia. E) reduce blood flow to kidneys. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) The filtration pressure at the glomerulus is equal to A) glomerular hydrostatic pressure - (capsular hydrostatic pressure + interstitial fluid osmotic pressure). B) capsular hydrostatic pressure + capsular colloid osmotic pressure + glomerular hydrostatic pressure. C) glomerular hydrostatic pressure - (capsular hydrostatic pressure + blood colloid osmotic pressure). D) (capsular hydrostatic pressure + capsular colloid osmotic pressure) - glomerular hydrostatic pressure. E) glomerular hydrostatic pressure - (capsular hydrostatic pressure + capsular colloid osmotic pressure). Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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84) The amount of filtrate produced by the kidneys each minute is called the A) net filtration pressure. B) colloid pressure. C) plasma volume. D) kidney filtrate volume. E) glomerular filtration rate. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 85) A drug that inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) may lead to all of the following except A) less secretion of aldosterone. B) increased urinary loss of sodium. C) reduction of blood pressure. D) decreased sodium reabsorption. E) increased fluid retention. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 86) All of the following would result in an increase in renin release except A) decreased blood pressure at the glomerulus. B) blockage in the renal artery. C) increased blood volume. D) stimulation of juxtaglomerular cells. E) decreased osmotic concentration at the macula densa. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 87) Immediate local responses of the kidney to changes in blood flow to maintain GFR occur via A) autoregulation. B) countercurrent multiplication. C) hormonal regulation. D) autonomic regulation. E) cephalic reflexes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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88) Damage to the glomerular filtration membrane allowing proteins into the capsular space would result in all of the following except A) an increase in capsular colloid osmotic pressure. B) a decrease in blood colloid osmotic pressure. C) an increase in net filtration pressure. D) an increase in GFR and fluid loss. E) a decrease in capsular hydrostatic pressure. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 89) Tubular reabsorption involves all of the following except A) active transport. B) facilitated diffusion. C) cotransport. D) countertransport. E) stem cell movements. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) Reabsorption of filtered glucose from the lumen in the PCT is largely by means of A) diffusion. B) facilitated diffusion. C) active transport. D) cotransport. E) countertransport. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) Secretion of hydrogen ion by the PCT is by the process of A) diffusion. B) facilitated diffusion. C) active transport. D) cotransport. E) countertransport. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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92) Chloride ion is reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb by A) simple diffusion. B) facilitated diffusion. C) active transport. D) cotransport with Na and K ions. E) countertransport for bicarbonate ion. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 93) The renal threshold for glucose is approximately ________ mg/dl. A) 75 B) 90 C) 100 D) 140 E) 180 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) The concentration at which all of the carriers in renal tubules for a given substance are saturated is the A) tubular maximum. B) hydrostatic threshold. C) blood colloid maximum. D) osmotic pressure. E) renal threshold. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) The ________ is the plasma concentration at which a specific compound will begin appearing in the urine. A) tubular maximum B) hydrostatic threshold C) blood colloid maximum D) osmotic pressure E) renal threshold Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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96) The process of ________ involves a carrier protein that can transport a molecule across the cell membrane down its concentration gradient. A) simple diffusion B) facilitated diffusion C) osmosis D) bulk transport E) active transport Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) A transport mechanism that can move a substance against a concentration gradient by using cellular energy is A) simple diffusion. B) facilitated diffusion. C) osmosis. D) bulk transport. E) active transport. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) In the process of ________, two substances are moved across a cell membrane in the same direction without directly using cellular energy. One of the substances can be moved against a concentration gradient by this process. A) countertransport B) cotransport C) simple diffusion D) active transport E) co-osmosis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) Diuretics are used for all of the following reasons except A) to reduce body weight. B) to reduce water retention. C) to reduce blood pressure. D) to treat congestive heart failure. E) to reduce glucose levels. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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100) The majority of water is reabsorbed by osmosis in the A) proximal convoluted tubule. B) nephron loop. C) distal convoluted tubule. D) collecting duct. E) papillary duct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) The majority of cotransporters and countertransporters are linked to the reabsorption of what ion? A) hydrogen B) sodium C) potassium D) bicarbonate E) chloride Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 102) Prolonged aldosterone stimulation of the distal convoluted tubule may result in A) hypercalcemia. B) hypocalcemia. C) hypokalemia. D) hyperkalemia. E) alkalosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 103) Which of the following is not a normal constituent of urine? A) hydrogen ions B) urea C) large proteins D) amino acids E) creatinine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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104) The ________ test is often used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate. A) inulin B) glucose tolerance C) CBC or complete blood count D) specific gravity E) creatinine clearance Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) Basically, what occurs in the countercurrent multiplier process? A) Sodium is pumped into the blood while potassium is actively transported out of the blood back into the tissues. B) A higher sodium concentration is produced in the renal medulla that osmotically draws out water, reducing it within the tubules and the urine. C) Glucose and sodium are cotransported from urine back into blood. D) Creatinine is actively transported out of the blood into urine. E) Uric acid is excreted into the kidney tubules while urea is reabsorbed in the nephron loop. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 106) The ability to form concentrated urine depends on the functions of the A) proximal convoluted tubule. B) distal convoluted tubule. C) collecting duct. D) nephron loop (loop of Henle). E) nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule and the collecting duct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) The mechanism for producing a concentrated urine involves all of the following except A) the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by the posterior pituitary gland. B) aquaporins being inserted into the membranes of the collecting duct cells. C) a high concentration of NaCl in the interstitial fluid that surrounds the collecting ducts. D) an increase in facultative water reabsorption. E) obligatory water reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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108) A patient excretes a large volume of very dilute urine on a continuing basis. This is may be due to A) excessive ADH secretion. B) absence of ADH. C) hematuric oliguria. D) overproduction of aldosterone. E) dilation of the afferent arterioles. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 109) Antidiuretic hormone A) increases the permeability of the collecting ducts to water. B) is secreted in response to low potassium ion in the blood. C) causes the kidneys to produce a larger volume of very dilute urine. D) is secreted by the anterior pituitary. E) release is insensitive to the osmolarity of interstitial fluid. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 110) If a urine sample is distinctly yellow in color, which of the following will be true? A) Its pH is below normal. B) It will have the odor of ammonia. C) It will contain large amounts of urobilin. D) It will contain excess chloride ion. E) It will have a high pH. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 111) When the level of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) decreases, A) a concentrated urine is produced. B) less urine is produced. C) the osmolarity of the urine decreases. D) permeability to water in the collecting system increases. E) water reabsorption increases in the nephron loop. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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112) As the filtrate passes through the renal tubules, approximately what percentage is reabsorbed and returned to the circulation? A) 1 B) 38 C) 63 D) 74 E) 99 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 113) In response to increased levels of aldosterone, the kidneys produce A) a larger volume of urine. B) urine with a higher concentration of sodium ions. C) urine with a lower concentration of potassium ions. D) urine with a lower concentration of sodium ions. E) urine with less glucose. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 114) Which of the following is a not a true statement regarding the countercurrent multiplication system? A) The thin limb of the nephron loop is permeable to water. B) The thick limb of the nephron loop is permeable to solutes. C) Osmotic concentration in the nephron loop decreases as fluid flows toward the bottom of the loop. D) Tubule fluid arrives at the DCT at about 100 mOsm/L. E) The maximum solute concentration is about 1200 mOsm/L. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 115) Excess release of natriuretic peptides would cause A) a large volume of concentrated urine. B) a large volume of dilute urine. C) a small volume of concentrated urine. D) a small volume of dilute urine. E) a small volume of urine void of sodium. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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116) The final composition of urine is represented by which of the following statements? A) Urine = substances reabsorbed + substances secreted. B) Urine = substances filtered + substances reabsorbed + substances secreted. C) Urine = substances secreted - substances reabsorbed - substances filtered. D) Urine = substances filtered - substances reabsorbed + substances secreted. E) Urine = substances reabsorbed - substances secreted - substances filtered. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 117) The ureters and urinary bladder are lined by ________ epithelium. A) stratified squamous B) pseudostratified columnar C) simple cuboidal D) transitional E) simple columnar Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 118) The detrusor muscle A) moves urine along the ureters by peristalsis. B) compresses the urinary bladder and expels urine through the urethra. C) functions as the internal urinary sphincter. D) functions as the external urinary sphincter. E) surrounds the renal pelvis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) The inability of the kidneys to excrete adequately to maintain homeostasis is A) glomerulonephritis. B) polycystic kidney disease. C) calculi. D) renal failure. E) hematuria. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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120) The area of the urinary bladder bounded by the openings of the two ureters and the urethra is called the A) renal pelvis. B) JG apparatus. C) pyramid. D) trigone. E) vasa recta. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 121) Insoluble deposits that form within the urinary tract from calcium salts, magnesium salts, or uric acid are called kidney stones or renal A) calculi. B) plaque. C) caries. D) otoliths. E) lithotrophs. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 122) You complain to the doctor about constant pain and discomfort in the low back area. What test might logically be recommended? A) an MRI B) a pyelogram C) a liver biopsy D) an angiogram E) a liver enzyme assay Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 123) The pontine storage center controls micturition by A) stimulating bladder contractions. B) increasing contraction of the detrusor muscle. C) relaxing the internal urethral sphincter. D) increasing contraction of the external urethral sphincter and reducing detrusor muscle activity. E) stimulating the voiding reflex. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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124) Which of the following statements is false regarding micturition? A) When you relax the external urethral sphincter, the internal sphincter will relax. B) Urination will be completed despite voluntary opposition. C) Parasympathetic nervous control is involved with the micturition reflex. D) Stretch receptors in the bladder are stimulated by the warm temperature of the urine. E) Bladder contractions can force open the internal urethral sphincter. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 125) Changes that occur in the urinary system with aging include all of the following except A) a decline in the number of functional nephrons. B) a reduction in the GFR (glomerular filtration rate). C) increased sensitivity to ADH. D) problems with the micturition reflex. E) loss of sphincter muscle tone. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 126) Your doctor has diagnosed you with prostatitis, an inflammation and swelling involving the prostate gland. One of your primary symptoms is A) dribbling urination. B) renal failure. C) hematuria. D) glycosuria. E) large amounts of dilute urine. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 127) Each of the following organ systems excretes wastes to some degree except the ________ system. A) urinary B) integumentary C) digestive D) endocrine E) respiratory Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) In which region of the kidney is a glomerulus located? (Figure 26-5) A) fibrous capsule B) renal hilum C) medullary pyramid D) renal cortex E) renal medulla Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) What structure connects the proximal convoluted tubule to the distal convoluted tubule? (Figure 26-6) A) renal corpuscle B) collecting duct C) papillary duct D) glomerular capsule E) nephron loop Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) What four factors shown result in an increased blood volume? (Figure 26-11) A) increased sodium retention, increased fluid consumption, increased fluid retention, and constriction of systemic veins B) decreased cardiac output, decreased fluid retention, decreased sodium retention, and systemic vasodilation C) increased glomerular hydrostatic pressure, increased blood colloid osmotic pressure, decreased capsular hydrostatic pressure, decreased capsular colloid osmotic pressure D) decreased glomerular hydrostatic pressure, decreased blood colloid osmotic pressure, increased capsular hydrostatic pressure, increased capsular colloid osmotic pressure E) increased sodium excretion, increased potassium retention, decreased fluid consumption, increased fluid retention Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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4) Aldosterone-sensitive portions of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct allow for the exchange of which ions? (Figure 26-13) A) reabsorption of hydrogen ions in exchange for chloride ions B) reabsorption of chloride ions in exchange for hydrogen ions C) reabsorption of sodium ions in exchange for potassium ions D) reabsorption of potassium ions in exchange for sodium ions E) reabsorption of bicarbonate ions in exchange for hydrogen ions Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 5) ADH creates a (small or large) volume of (dilute or concentrated) urine. (Figure 26-15) A) small; dilute B) small; concentrated C) large; dilute D) large; concentrated Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 6) The (ureter or urethra) transports urine to the bladder. (Figure 26-18) A) ureter B) urethra Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Essay Questions 1) List each organ of the urinary system and concisely describe its function. Answer: Consisting of the kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra, the urinary system has three primary functions: (1) excretion, the removal of organic waste products from body fluids, (2) elimination, the discharge of these waste products into the environment, and (3) homeostatic regulation of the volume and solute concentration of blood plasma. The excretory and homeostatic regulation functions of the urinary system are performed by the two kidneys that produce urine, a fluid containing water, ions, and small soluble compounds. Urine leaving the kidneys flows along paired tubes called ureters to the urinary bladder, a muscular sac for temporary storage of urine. On being forced out of the urinary bladder, urine passes through the urethra to the exterior. The urinary bladder and the urethra are responsible for the elimination of urine, a process called urination or micturition. Learning Outcome: 26-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) In glomerulonephritis, the normal filtration barrier is damaged and becomes far more permeable to plasma proteins, such as albumin along with other solutes. How would that affect glomerular filtration? Answer: GFR would go up for two reasons. (1) The leakage of protein into the capsular filtrate will lower the effectiveness of BCOP and thus raise the net filtration pressure. (2) Filtration will increase also because of the increased leakiness of the glomerulus to water, ions, and other solutes. A distinct proteinuria will appear, and the loss of protein will lower BCOP, making matters worse and promoting edema formation in the peripheral tissues. Learning Outcome: 26-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 3) What is the creatinine clearance test? How can it be used to estimate GFR? How accurate is it? Answer: This test relies on measuring total creatinine excreted in the urine in 24 hours and measuring the plasma concentration of creatinine. Since essentially none of the filtered load is returned to bloodstream, the amount in the urine relates directly to the volume of blood that filtered in the glomeruli. GFR can be calculated by dividing creatinine excretion rate (mg/hr) by plasma concentration of creatinine (g/dL) to get the GFR in dL/hour, from which the per-minute rate is calculated by dividing by 60. The test is not entirely accurate because up to 15 percent of the excreted creatinine enters the urine by tubular secretion. Learning Outcome: 26-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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4) Sarah has been suffering from a stomach virus. As a result, she is dehydrated and her plasma ADH and aldosterone levels are elevated. Explain how each of these hormones independently affects the nephron including the specific location(s) of the nephron affected. Finally, state how the combined effects of these two hormones will alter urine concentration and volume. Answer: ADH will increase the number of aquaporins inserted into the apical plasma membrane of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts. The presence of aquaporins will allow water to be reabsorbed by the osmotic gradient in this portion of the nephron to match the rising intramedullary concentration. Thus, the tubule fluid becomes very concentrated as water is removed. Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct. When sodium is reabsorbed water will follow to keep the osmotic gradient equal. Together, ADH and aldosterone yield significant water reabsorption in the late distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts resulting in a small volume of highly concentrated urine. Learning Outcome: 26-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 27 Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance Multiple Choice Questions 1) The two organs that play an important role in maintaining acid-base balance are the A) liver and gallbladder. B) liver and kidneys. C) heart and lungs. D) lungs and kidneys. E) heart and liver. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Intracellular fluid (ICF) is found only within A) blood vessels. B) lymph. C) the cells of the body. D) the interstitial space. E) the cerebrospinal fluid. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Substances that can carry electrical current across cell membranes are called A) electrons. B) electrolytes. C) nonelectrolytes. D) osmoregulators. E) buffers. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Homeostatic mechanisms that monitor and adjust the composition of body fluids respond to changes in the ________ fluid. A) lymphatic B) intracellular C) plasma D) extracellular E) cerebrospinal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) In an adult female, the body consists of about ________ percent water. A) 60 B) 50 C) 40 D) 70 E) 80 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) All of the following are components of ECF except A) cerebrospinal fluid. B) peritoneal fluid. C) lymph. D) aqueous humor. E) RBCs. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) In a lean adult male, the body consists of about ________ percent water. A) 60 B) 90 C) 40 D) 10 E) 80 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) The principal cation in intracellular fluid is A) sodium. B) potassium. C) calcium. D) magnesium. E) chloride. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) The anions in highest concentration in the extracellular fluid are A) sodium, chloride, and bicarbonate. B) sodium, potassium, and bicarbonate. C) sodium, potassium, and chloride. D) proteins, bicarbonate, and chloride. E) sodium, potassium, and phosphate. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) Which hormone plays a central role in determining the rate of sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion? A) ADH B) aldosterone C) BNP D) ANP E) epinephrine Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) Which hormone most affects the osmolarity of blood? A) ADH B) angiotensin II C) PTH D) ANP E) epinephrine Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) Which hormone(s) is released by heart muscle in response to excessive chamber volume? A) ADH B) aldosterone C) PTH D) acetylcholine E) natriuretic peptides Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) In clinical estimates, ________ of total body water is in the ICF and ________ in the ECF. A) one-tenth; nine-tenths B) one-quarter; three-quarters C) one-half; one-half D) two-thirds; one-third E) one-third; two-thirds Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) The release of atrial naturetic peptides from the heart will cause the body to A) conserve sodium ions. B) decrease ECF. C) excrete potassium ions. D) conserve sodium ions and decrease ECF. E) excrete sodium ions and decrease ECF. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 15) Angiotensin II produces a coordinated elevation in the ECF volume by all of the following mechanisms except A) stimulating thirst. B) causing the release of ADH. C) triggering the production and secretion of aldosterone. D) stimulating the kidneys to conserve sodium. E) increasing PNS activity. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 16) Aldosterone A) is secreted in response to decreased levels of potassium in the blood. B) promotes sodium retention in the kidneys. C) helps decrease blood volume and lower blood pressure. D) regulates blood calcium levels. E) regulates water reabsorption in the kidneys. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) The principal ions in extracellular fluid are sodium, chloride, and A) potassium. B) magnesium. C) phosphate. D) bicarbonate. E) iodine. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) ________ promotes water reabsorption at the kidneys and stimulates thirst. A) ADH B) Aldosterone C) Calcitonin D) Renin E) Natriuretic peptide Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) The two major subdivisions of the ECF are the A) ICF and plasma. B) interstitial fluid and plasma. C) lymph and plasma. D) serous fluids and lymph. E) interstitial fluid and CSF. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) The principal ions in intracellular fluid are magnesium, phosphate and A) sodium. B) bicarbonate. C) chloride. D) calcium. E) potassium. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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21) Water molecules move across cells by A) osmosis. B) primary active transport. C) secondary active transport. D) activity of the sodium-potassium pump. E) phagocytosis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) Which hormone does not play a role in regulating fluid and electrolyte balance? A) ADH B) aldosterone C) cortisol D) atrial natriuretic peptide E) B-type natriuretic peptide Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 23) When water is lost, but electrolytes are retained, A) the osmolarity of the ECF falls. B) osmosis moves water from the ICF to the ECF. C) both the ECF and the ICF become more dilute. D) there is an increase in the volume of the ICF. E) aldosterone is secreted. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 24) When pure water is consumed, A) the ECF becomes hypertonic to the ICF. B) a fluid shift occurs and the volume of the ICF decreases. C) osmolarities of the two fluid compartments fall. D) the volume of the ECF decreases. E) the volume of the ICF decreases. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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25) Consuming a meal high in salt will A) drastically increase the osmolarity of the blood. B) result in a temporary increase in blood volume. C) decrease thirst. D) cause hypotension. E) activate the renin-angiotensin mechanism. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 26) Exchange between the two main subdivisions of ECF occurs primarily at the A) veins. B) muscles. C) tissues. D) capillaries. E) arteries. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) The typical value of water losses and gains each day is A) 500 mL. B) 1000 mL. C) 1500 mL. D) 2000 mL. E) 2500 mL. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) The most dangerous problems with electrolyte balance are caused by an imbalance between gains and losses of A) calcium ions. B) chlorine ions. C) potassium ions. D) sodium ions. E) electrons. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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29) Calcium reabsorption by the kidneys is promoted by the hormone A) calcitonin. B) parathyroid hormone. C) aldosterone. D) cortisol. E) ADH. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) To reduce brain swelling by pulling water out of brain cells, a substance can be injected intravenously to increase the osmotic pressure of interstitial fluid. Which of the following properties must this substance lack in order to be effective? A) permeable to capillary endothelium B) nontoxic to neurons C) permeable to brain plasma membranes D) impermeable to brain plasma membranes E) soluble in water Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 31) The amount of potassium excreted by the kidneys is regulated mainly by A) ADH. B) aldosterone. C) parathormone. D) atrial natriuretic peptides. E) glucocorticoids. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) Alice has been running a marathon and has only been drinking pure water. Which electrolyte imbalance is she likely to experience? A) hyponatremia B) hypernatremia C) hypercalcemia D) hypocalcemia E) hyperkalemia Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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33) A chemical that minimizes changes in the pH of a body fluid by releasing or binding hydrogen ion is called a(n) A) electrolyte. B) acid. C) alkali. D) compensation. E) buffer. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 34) Excess hydrogen ion is eliminated from the body largely by A) sweating. B) the kidneys. C) the liver. D) the feces. E) buffers. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) The primary role of the carbonic-acid-bicarbonate buffer system is to A) buffer stomach acid. B) buffer carbonic acid formed by carbon dioxide. C) limit pH changes caused by metabolic and fixed acids. D) buffer the urine. E) increase ventilation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) A(n) ________ acid is an acid that can leave solution and enter the atmosphere. A) respiratory B) volatile C) metabolic D) inorganic E) fixed Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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37) The normal pH range for ECF is A) 6.5 to 7.5. B) 6.8 to 7.2. C) 7 to 7.5. D) 7.35 to 7.45. E) 7.5 to 8.0. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) When the pH ________, a state of acidosis exists. A) rises above 7 B) falls below 7 C) falls below 6.5 D) falls below 7.35 E) rises above 7.5 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) A patient who has been both vomiting and having diarrhea is losing all of the following except ________ from his body. A) water B) sodium C) bicarbonate ion D) hydrogen ion E) protein Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 40) When the pH rises above 7.45, a state of ________ exists. A) apotheosis B) alkalosis C) ptosis D) hydrosis E) acidosis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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41) Amino acids in solution contain both a negative and positive charge and thus are termed a(n) A) anion. B) cation. C) acid. D) base. E) zwitterion. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) Which of the following is not a renal response to acidosis? A) secretion of H+ B) increase tubule buffer activity C) reabsorption of NaHCO3 D) release of HCl into peritubular capillary fluid E) removal of CO2 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 43) Hypoventilation leads to A) respiratory acidosis. B) respiratory alkalosis. C) metabolic acidosis. D) metabolic alkalosis. E) lactic acidosis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 44) In response to respiratory alkalosis, the A) respiratory rate increases. B) tidal volume increases. C) kidneys conserve bicarbonate. D) kidneys secrete more hydrogen ions. E) kidneys retain more hydrogen ions. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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45) A person with emphysema will exhibit signs of A) chronic respiratory acidosis. B) chronic respiratory alkalosis. C) acute respiratory acidosis. D) chronic metabolic acidosis. E) metabolic alkalosis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) A person with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus will develop A) respiratory acidosis. B) acute respiratory alkalosis. C) metabolic acidosis. D) metabolic alkalosis. E) chronic respiratory alkalosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) Which of the following descriptions best fits the acid-base disorder metabolic alkalosis? A) consequence of hyperventilation (for example, in fever or mental illness) B) consequence of prolonged vomiting C) consequence of reduced alveolar ventilation (for example, due to COPD) D) consequence of tissue hypoxia (for example, in ischemic conditions) E) consequence of strenuous exercise Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 48) A person who consumes large amounts of sodium bicarbonate (baking soda) to settle an upset stomach risks A) respiratory acidosis. B) respiratory alkalosis. C) metabolic acidosis. D) metabolic alkalosis. E) lactic acidosis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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49) Severe kidney damage, such as glomerulonephritis, often leads to A) acute respiratory acidosis. B) respiratory alkalosis. C) metabolic acidosis. D) metabolic alkalosis. E) chronic respiratory acidosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) Which of the following descriptions best fits the acid-base disorder respiratory acidosis? A) consequence of hyperventilation (for example, in fever or mental illness) B) consequence of prolonged vomiting C) consequence of reduced alveolar ventilation (for example, due to emphysema) D) consequence of tissue hypoxia (for example, in ischemic conditions) E) consequence of strenuous exercise Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 51) When the pH of the extracellular fluid drops, the kidneys A) excrete more hydrogen ions. B) excrete more bicarbonate ions. C) excrete fewer bicarbonate ions. D) secrete more hydrogen ions and more bicarbonate ions. E) secrete more hydrogen ions and fewer bicarbonate ions. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 52) Which of the following descriptions best fits the acid-base disorder respiratory alkalosis? A) consequence of hyperventilation (for example, in fever or mental illness) B) consequence of prolonged vomiting C) consequence of reduced alveolar ventilation (for example, due to COPD) D) consequence of tissue hypoxia (for example, in ischemic conditions) E) consequence of strenuous exercise Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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53) Hypercapnia refers to elevated levels of A) oxygen. B) hemoglobin. C) carbon monoxide. D) sodium. E) carbon dioxide. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) A drowning victim will likely experience a period of ________ until resuscitation begins. A) acute respiratory acidosis B) acute respiratory alkalosis C) chronic respiratory alkalosis D) metabolic acidosis E) metabolic alkalosis Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 55) Extreme losses of bicarbonate ions, such as in diarrhea, will cause A) acute respiratory acidosis. B) chronic respiratory acidosis. C) respiratory alkalosis. D) metabolic acidosis. E) metabolic alkalosis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 56) All of the following are examples of compensatory mechanisms that would occur as a result of metabolic acidosis except A) buffer systems accept H+. B) kidneys secrete H+. C) kidneys retain H+. D) kidneys generate bicarbonate. E) respiratory rate increases. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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57) Administration of a medication in the elderly can result in a much higher dosage than the clinician might intend because A) the metabolic rate in the elderly is so high. B) the kidneys of the elderly do not work well. C) the elderly have less water content in the body. D) other medications they take might enhance the concentration of another drug. E) they cannot regulate pH well. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 58) Which of the following statements is false regarding fluid and electrolyte balance? A) Fluctuations in diet will affect babies less because they have so much water content. B) Older people tend to become more dehydrated. C) Kidney functions tend to decrease as one ages. D) Aging correlates with problems in various organ systems, which can enhance acid-base imbalance problems. E) A fetus obtains water and electrolytes from the maternal bloodstream. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Mg2+ and K+ are found in higher concentrations in the (intracellular, extracellular) fluid, whereas Na+ and Cl- are found in higher concentrations in the (intracellular, extracellular) fluid. (Figure 27-2) A) intracellular; extracellular B) extracellular; intracellular Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) What is a serious condition that could occur if the potassium ion concentration is >7 mEq/L? (Figure 27-7) A) muscle weakness leading to paralysis B) increased urine volume C) respiratory depression D) acidosis E) cardiac arrhythmias Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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3) In which body fluid do the phosphate and protein buffer systems help regulate the pH? (Figure 27-10) A) intracellular fluid B) extracellular fluid C) blood plasma D) cerebrospinal fluid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) What is the kidney's response to alkalosis caused by the removal of H+? (Figure 27-14) A) secrete H+ and conserve HCO3B) conserve H+ and secrete HCO3C) remove CO2 D) convert carbonic acid to water E) secrete sodium ions and conserve potassium ions Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 5) How do the lungs respond to metabolic acidosis? (Figure 27-16) A) lungs increase respiratory rate B) lungs decrease respiratory rate C) lungs secrete H+ D) lungs conserve H+ E) lungs convert carbonic acid to water Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Essay Questions 1) The maintenance of normal volume and composition of extracellular and intracellular fluids is vital to life. List and briefly describe the kinds of homeostasis involved. Answer: Three types of homeostasis are involved: fluid balance, electrolyte balance, and acidbase balance. Fluid balance means that the total quantity of body water remains almost constant and that the distribution between the ICF and ECF are normal. Electrolyte balance implies the same thing for ions. Acid-base balance means that the pH of the ECF is maintained in the range of 7.35 to 7.45, and that gains or losses of hydrogen ion as a consequence of metabolism are followed by equivalent losses or gains so as to maintain constant buffer reserves. Learning Outcome: 27-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 2) Fred has chronic emphysema. Blood tests show that his pH is low but almost normal but his bicarbonate levels are elevated significantly. How can this be? What would urinalysis show? Answer: Emphysema limits alveolar ventilation, leading to increased carbon dioxide in Fred's body. Since Fred's condition is chronic (long term) his body has compensated for the excess carbonic acid (the result of hypercapnia due to poor ventilation) by increasing the amount of bicarbonate to match the elevated level of hydrogen ion. This compensation for respiratory acidosis was accomplished by the kidney's secretion of hydrogen ion both in the PCT and DCT and the retention of bicarbonate from the elevated carbonic acid. Urinalysis would indicate a very low pH and high levels of ammonia, produced by the distal tubule to absorb the secreted hydrogen ion. Learning Outcome: 27-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 3) Why does potassium concentration rise in patients with acidosis? What is this called? What effects does it have? Answer: When pH is low, hydrogen ion levels in the blood are high and also in the interstitial and peritubular fluid. Hydrogen ion competes with potassium ion for the sodium countercurrent exchanger in the tubules. As hydrogen ion secretion rises (which compensates for the acidosis), potassium is retained and hyperkalemia develops. If severe enough, muscle cramps and cardiac arrhythmias result. Learning Outcome: 27-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 28 The Reproductive System Multiple Choice Questions 1) The reproductive system includes all of the following except A) gonads and external genitalia. B) ducts that receive and transport the gametes. C) accessory glands and organs that secrete fluids. D) organs for copulation. E) glands and organs that produce and store urine. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) The reproductive organ that produces gametes is called a A) duct. B) gland. C) gonad. D) womb. E) girdle. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) The male gonad is called a(n) A) seminal vesicle. B) epididymis. C) rete. D) testis. E) prostate. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Sperm are moved along the ductus deferens (vas deferens) by A) hydrostatic force. B) ciliary action. C) peristaltic contractions. D) suction. E) hydraulic action. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) Arrange the four structures listed below into the order in which sperm pass from the testis to the external urethral orifice. 1. ductus deferens 2. urethra 3. ejaculatory duct 4. epididymis A) 1, 3, 4, 2 B) 4, 3, 1, 2 C) 4, 1, 2, 3 D) 4, 1, 3, 2 E) 1, 4, 3, 2 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) The organ that monitors and adjusts the composition of tubular fluid, recycles damaged sperm, and is the site of sperm maturation is the A) ductus deferens. B) rete testis. C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle). D) epididymis. E) prostate gland. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) The organ that carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra is the A) ductus deferens (vas deferens). B) epididymis. C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle). D) ejaculatory duct. E) corpus cavernosum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Inward projections of the tunica albuginea, known as septa testis, divide the testis into A) seminiferous tubules. B) straight tubules. C) lobules. D) rete testis. E) the epididymis and the testis proper. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) Straight tubules originate at the seminiferous tubules and form a network of passageways called the A) epididymis. B) ductus deferens. C) rete testis. D) efferent ducts. E) vas deferens. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) The spermatic cord is A) a bundle of tissue that contains the ductus deferens, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics that serve the testis. B) a narrow opening that links the scrotal chamber with the peritoneal cavity. C) the external marking of the boundary between the two chambers of the scrotum. D) a layer of smooth muscle in the skin of the scrotal sac. E) a dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds the testis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) Interstitial endocrine cells produce A) sperm. B) inhibin. C) nutrients. D) testosterone. E) androgen-binding protein. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) Sperm production occurs in the A) ductus deferens. B) seminiferous tubules. C) epididymis. D) seminal glands (seminal vesicles). E) rete testis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) The organ that produces a secretion that contains fructose, prostaglandins, and fibrinogen is the A) prostate gland. B) bulbo-urethral gland. C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle). D) corpus cavernosum. E) preputial gland. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) The organ that surrounds the urethra and produces an alkaline secretion is the A) seminal gland (seminal vesicle). B) bulbo-urethral gland. C) prostate gland. D) preputial gland. E) Bartholin's gland. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) The small paired structures at the base of the penis that secrete a thick, alkaline mucus are the A) seminal vesicles. B) prostate glands. C) preputial glands. D) Bartholin glands. E) bulbo-urethral glands. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Semen contains all of the following except A) sperm. B) seminal fluid. C) prostaglandins. D) spermatogonia. E) fibrinogen. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) The external marking of the boundary between the two testes is the A) spermatic cord. B) raphe. C) tunica albuginea. D) acrosome. E) dartos muscle. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) The organ that delivers semen into the female reproductive tract is the A) urethra. B) ejaculatory duct. C) penis. D) corpus cavernosum. E) corpus spongiosum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) The fold of skin that covers the glans penis is the A) ejaculatory duct. B) foreskin. C) corpus cavernosum. D) corpus spongiosum. E) penile urethra. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) The erectile tissue that surrounds the urethra is the A) membranous urethra. B) penile urethra. C) glans penis. D) corpus spongiosum. E) corpora cavernosa. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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21) The paired erectile bodies in the penis are the A) membranous urethra. B) penile urethra. C) corpus spongiosum. D) corpora cavernosa. E) foreskin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) Which of the following glands contributes the most volume to semen? A) prostate gland B) rete testis C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle) D) bulbo-urethral gland E) foreskin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) The delicate layer of serous membrane that covers the testis is called the A) median raphe. B) tunica vaginalis. C) tunica albuginea. D) dartos. E) lamina propria. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) The PSA test is used for diagnosis of A) testicular cancer. B) penile cancer. C) prostatitis. D) premature puberty. E) prostate cancer. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) A typical ejaculation releases approximately ________ sperm. A) 1 million B) 250 million C) 100,000 D) 20 million E) 800 million Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 26) If the prostate stopped secreting fluid, this would result in semen A) that lacked sperm. B) with a higher than normal pH. C) with less fructose. D) with no mucus. E) that was rich in prostaglandins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 27) A vasectomy would interfere with a man's ability to A) secrete testosterone. B) make sperm. C) ejaculate. D) produce semen. E) deliver sperm to the ejaculatory duct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 28) Contraction of the cremaster muscles A) tenses the scrotum. B) pulls the testes closer to the body cavity. C) propels sperm through the urethra. D) moves sperm through the ductus deferens. E) tenses the scrotum and pulls the testes closer to the body cavity. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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29) Contraction of the dartos muscle A) tightens the scrotum. B) produces an erection. C) propels sperm through the urethra. D) moves sperm through the ductus deferens. E) initiates seminal emission. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 30) Functions of the accessory glands of the male reproductive system include all of the following except A) production of sperm. B) meeting the nutrient needs of sperm for motility. C) propelling sperm and fluids along the reproductive tract. D) producing buffers. E) activating the sperm. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 31) A normal sperm count ranges from approximately ________ sperm per milliliter. A) 10 million B) 100-150 million C) 1-2 million D) 500 million E) 20-100 million Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) Why are inguinal hernias generally associated with males? A) Males have a gene on the Y chromosome that codes for inguinal hernia, whereas women do not have the Y chromosome. B) Women have a thicker set of skeletal muscles in the abdominal wall compared to men. C) Males work more strenuously than women, thereby damaging the abdominal wall. D) Males have a canal through the abdominal wall that the testes move through, and it often does not close up properly. E) The groin area is genetically weaker in men than in women because of the presence of the penis and testes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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33) The portion of the urethra that passes through the pelvic cavity floor is called the A) membranous urethra. B) bulbo-urethral. C) penile urethra. D) ureter. E) prostatic urethra. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) The portion of the urethra that penetrates the urogenital diaphragm is the A) membranous urethra. B) penile urethra. C) corpus spongiosum. D) spongy urethra. E) vascular urethra. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) The surgical removal of the foreskin is called A) circumcision. B) orchidectomy. C) tubectomy. D) vasectomy. E) pupectomy. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) The ________ carries fluid from the seminal gland (seminal vesicle) through the prostate. A) ejaculatory duct B) vas deferens C) ductus deferens D) epididymis E) rete Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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37) The ductus deferens passes through the ________ to enter the pelvic cavity. A) canaliculi B) mesiobuccal canal C) epididymis D) inguinal canal E) urinary bladder Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) The organ inferior to the urinary bladder and contains the urethra in the middle is the ________ gland. A) prostate B) bulbo-urethral C) Cowper's D) seminal vesicle E) seminiferous tubular Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) The cremaster muscle can raise and lower the testes to regulate A) temperature. B) expansion. C) erection. D) pH. E) size. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 40) The pampiniform plexus of the testicular vein is found within the A) epididymis. B) raphe. C) spermatic cord. D) cremaster muscle. E) rete testis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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41) For normal sperm development, the testes must be kept about A) the same temperature as the brain. B) 1.1°C cooler than core body temperature. C) 1.1°C warmer than core body temperature. D) 4.8°C cooler than core body temperature. E) 4.8°C warmer than core body temperature. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) Each lobule contains approximately ________ seminiferous tubules. A) 4 B) 100 C) 400 D) 800 E) 1500 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) The rete testis is connected to the epididymis by A) efferent ductules. B) the spermatic cord. C) the tunica albuginea. D) the tunica vaginalis. E) the straight tubules. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) Frank is experiencing difficulty urinating, painful urination, low back pain and a slight fever. The doctor prescribes antibiotics and Frank recovers. It is likely that Frank suffered from A) impotence. B) prostate cancer. C) prostatitis. D) a vasectomy. E) a circumcision. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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45) Which of the following does not contribute to seminal fluid? A) seminal glands B) prostate gland C) nurse cells and epididymis D) spermatic cords E) bulbo-urethral glands Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) Which of the following are not important enzymes found in seminal fluid? A) proteases, help dissolve mucus in the vagina B) seminalplasmin, an antibiotic enzyme C) fibrinolysin, dissolves the semen clot after 15-30 minutes D) coagulating enzymes, form a semen clot after ejaculation E) hydrolases, remove water and concentrate semen Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) The erectile tissue that extends down into the glans penis is the A) corpus spongiosum. B) corpora cavernosa. C) preputial glands. D) smegma. E) crus of penis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) Kevin has been experiencing difficulty urinating now that he is over the age of 60. The doctor examines his prostate gland and finds no evidence of inflammation. Furthermore, Kevin's PSA test is normal. It is most likely that Kevin is suffering from A) impotence. B) prostate cancer. C) benign prostatic hypertrophy. D) prostatitis. E) male climacteric. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Figure 28-1 The Male Reproductive System Use Figure 28-1 to answer the following questions: 49) Identify the structure labeled "11." A) bulbo-urethral gland B) prostate gland C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle) D) epididymis E) ductus deferens Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 50) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) corpora cavernosa B) prostatic urethra C) corpus spongiosum D) spongy urethra E) ejaculatory duct Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 13 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

51) Identify the structure labeled "13." A) bulbo-urethral gland B) prostate gland C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle) D) epididymis E) ductus deferens Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 52) Identify the structure labeled "4." A) testis B) prostate gland C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle) D) epididymis E) ductus deferens Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 53) Identify the structure that produces a fructose-rich fluid. A) 9 B) 10 C) 11 D) 12 E) 13 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 54) Identify the structure labeled "12." A) prostatic urethra B) ejaculatory duct C) ductus deferens D) vas deferens E) membranous urethra Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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55) Identify the structure labeled "6." A) ejaculatory duct B) seminiferous tubule C) ductus deferens D) epididymis E) testis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 56) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) membranous urethra B) ejaculatory duct C) corpora cavernosa D) corpus spongiosum E) prostatic urethra Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 57) Identify the structure labeled "9." A) scrotum B) cremaster muscle C) ductus deferens D) testis E) foreskin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 58) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) penile urethra B) ejaculatory duct C) corpora cavernosa D) corpus spongiosum E) membranous urethra Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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59) The nurse cells of the seminiferous tubules do all of the following except A) maintain the blood testis barrier. B) support spermiogenesis. C) secrete inhibin. D) secrete testosterone. E) secrete androgen-binding protein. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) Sperm develop from stem cells called A) spermatogonia. B) primary spermatocytes. C) secondary spermatocytes. D) spermatids. E) sperm. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 61) When spermatogonia divide, the daughter cells are called A) spermatogonia. B) spermatocytes. C) spermatids. D) sperm. E) Sertoli cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) The cells that are formed during spermatogenesis by meiosis I are called A) spermatogonia. B) primary spermatocytes. C) secondary spermatocytes. D) spermatids. E) sperm. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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63) The process of spermiogenesis produces A) spermatogonia. B) primary spermatocytes. C) secondary spermatocytes. D) spermatids. E) sperm. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) The role of FSH in males is to A) stimulate the interstitial endocrine cells to produce testosterone. B) stimulate the growth of male accessory glands. C) initiate sperm production in the testes. D) develop and maintain secondary sex characteristics. E) influence sexual behaviors and sex drive. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 65) The pituitary hormone that stimulates the interstitial endocrine cells to secrete testosterone is A) FSH. B) LH. C) ACTH. D) GnRH. E) GH. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) A primary spermatocyte matures into ________ spermatids having ________ chromosomes. A) millions of; 46 B) four; 23 C) one; 46 D) millions of; 23 E) four; 46 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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67) The special type of cell division required to produce gametes is called A) mitosis. B) meiosis. C) maturation. D) capacitation. E) fertilization. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) Sperm are functionally matured within the A) epididymis. B) straight tubules. C) rete testes. D) seminiferous tubules. E) seminal gland (seminal vesicle). Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 69) During meiosis I, maternal and paternal chromosomes come together during the process called ________ to form a ________. A) synapsis; chromatid B) prophase I; chromatid C) synapsis; spermatid D) metaphase II; tetrad E) synapsis; tetrad Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 70) In a mature human sperm, the A) acrosome is next to the flagellum. B) midpiece contains the chromosomes. C) tail contains the mitochondria. D) head contains 23 chromosomes. E) head is diploid. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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71) Secondary spermatocytes each contain A) 23 chromosomes. B) 23 pairs of chromosomes. C) twice the diploid number of chromosomes. D) 46 pairs of chromosomes. E) 46 chromosomes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) Testosterone is secreted by the A) hypothalamus. B) anterior pituitary. C) nurse cells. D) interstitial endocrine cells. E) adrenal cortex. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 73) Where in the male reproductive system would you expect to find the most mature sperm? A) in the seminiferous tubules B) in the head of the epididymis C) near the tail of the epididymis D) in the seminal gland E) in the prostate gland Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 74) A boy has a genetic mutation such that FSH is not produced, but LH is normal. After the boy grows to maturity, it is likely he will A) not develop secondary sex characteristics. B) be sterile. C) be impotent. D) have impaired function of the interstitial endocrine cells. E) produce large amounts of inhibin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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75) A male bodybuilder starts taking injections of testosterone (an anabolic steroid on a daily basis. After three weeks, you expect to observe all of the following, except A) increased sex drive. B) decreased levels of GnRH. C) decreased levels of LH and FSH. D) increased muscle mass. E) decreased nurse cell stimulation. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 76) Spermatids mature into sperm by the process of A) spermiogenesis. B) meiosis II. C) spermatogenesis. D) cytokinesis. E) meiosis I. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) The ________ is the part of the sperm that contains the DNA. A) head B) neck C) acrosome D) zona pellucida E) corona radiata Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) The middle piece of the sperm contains the ________ in a spiral arrangement. A) nucleosome B) chromosomes C) mitochondria D) flagella E) acrosome Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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79) The ________ of a sperm contains the enzymes essential for fertilization. A) acrosome B) flagellum C) nucleosome D) neck E) nucleus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) The most important androgen is A) dihydrotestosterone. B) androstenedione. C) dehydroepiandrosterone. D) progesterone. E) testosterone. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 81) The hormone that stimulates spermatogenesis in males is A) PTH. B) FSH. C) LH. D) GH. E) MSH. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) The interstitial endocrine cells in the testes produce A) dihydrotestosterone. B) androstenedione. C) growth hormone. D) progesterone. E) testosterone. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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83) The level of testosterone is kept high locally in the seminiferous tubules by activation of A) LH. B) FSH. C) androgen-binding protein. D) dihydrotestosterone. E) GnRH. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 84) Which of the following is not found within the seminiferous tubule? A) spermatogonia B) spermatocytes C) nurse cells D) interstitial endocrine cells E) spermatids Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 85) The complete process of spermatogenesis takes approximately how many days? A) 14 B) 28 C) 45 D) 64 E) 120 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) At the end of meiosis II, one spermatogonium has formed A) 2 fully functional sperm. B) 4 fully functional sperm. C) 2 spermatids. D) 4 spermatids. E) 1 sperm and 3 polar bodies. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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87) Which of the following is not true of meiosis I? A) reductional division occurs B) 4 haploid gametes are formed C) number of chromosomes is reduced from 46 to 23 in daughter cells D) diploid daughter cells form E) daughter cells contain sister chromatids Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 88) The role of inhibin in male reproduction is to A) decrease the production of testosterone. B) keep testosterone levels high inside the seminiferous tubule. C) stimulate the testes to descend. D) stimulate spermiogenesis. E) provide negative feedback regulation of FSH and GnRH secretion. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 89) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term endometrium? A) thick layer of smooth muscle cells B) supports the uterus anteriorly C) supports the uterus laterally D) consists of a functional zone and a basilar zone of epithelium E) After ovulation, the ovum is captured by it. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) The broad ligament is a(n) A) extensive mesentery that encloses the ovaries, uterine tubes, and uterus. B) thickened fold of mesentery that supports and stabilizes the position of the ovary. C) pocket formed between the posterior wall of the uterus and the anterior surface of the rectum. D) structure that anchors the ovary to the recto-uterine pouch. E) structure that extends from the lateral surface of the ovary to the pelvic wall. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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91) The organ that transports the ovum to the uterus is the A) uterosacral ligament. B) vagina. C) uterine (Fallopian) tube. D) infundibulum. E) myometrium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) The organ that provides mechanical protection and nutritional support for the developing embryo is the A) vagina. B) uterine tube. C) ovary. D) uterus. E) cervix. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 93) The round ligaments extend from the A) base of the uterus and vagina to the lateral walls of the pelvis. B) lateral surface of the uterus to the anterior surface of the sacrum. C) lateral margins of the uterus, through the inguinal canal to the external genitalia. D) body of the uterus to the fundus. E) cervix of the uterus to the vagina. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) The inferior one-third portion of the uterus that projects into the vagina is the A) isthmus. B) vaginal fornix. C) fundus. D) body. E) cervix. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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95) The thick muscular layer of the uterus is the A) endometrium. B) perimetrium. C) myometrium. D) uterometrium. E) sarcometrium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) Which of the following statements concerning the vagina is false? A) It serves as a passageway for the elimination of menstrual fluids. B) It receives the penis during sexual intercourse. C) It holds sperm prior to their passage to the uterus. D) It forms the lower portion of the birth canal. E) It loses a portion of its lining during menses. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) The vagina is A) lined by simple columnar epithelium rich in goblet cells. B) similar to the inner lining of the uterus. C) another term for the cervix. D) a muscular tube extending between the uterus and the external genitalia. E) a muscular tube extending between the uterus and the anus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) The vulva includes all of the following except the A) mons pubis. B) vagina. C) labia minora. D) clitoris. E) labia majora. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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99) The space bounded by the labia minora is the A) vaginal fornix. B) vestibule. C) hymen. D) clitoris. E) isthmus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) Fatty folds of skin that encircle and partially conceal the labia minora and vestibule are the A) fornices. B) ampullae. C) labia majora. D) mons pubis. E) vestibular arches. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) The pigmented skin that surrounds the nipple is the A) zona reticularis. B) fornix. C) zona pellucida. D) peripapilla. E) areola. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 102) The ________ is the region of the vagina that surrounds the cervix. A) rugae B) vaginal fornix C) dartos D) fundus E) external os Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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103) Which region of the uterine tube captures the ovum? A) ampulla B) anterior segment C) infundibulum D) posterior segment E) isthmus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) The ________ is the rounded portion of the uterine body superior to the attachment of the uterine tubes. A) body B) cervix C) myometrium D) fundus E) internal os Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) The portion of the uterine tube that ends in fingerlike fimbriae is the A) ampulla. B) distal segment. C) infundibulum. D) proximal segment. E) isthmus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) The fold of peritoneum that extends out from the ovary to the wall of the pelvis is called the A) suspensory ligament. B) tunica albuginea. C) ovarian ligament. D) ovarian hilum. E) uterovesical ligament. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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107) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term myometrium? A) thick layer of smooth muscle cells B) supports the uterus anteriorly C) supports the uterus laterally D) consists of a functional zone and a basilar zone E) After ovulation, the ovum is captured by it. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) The segment of the uterine tube where fertilization commonly occurs is the A) ampulla. B) fimbriae. C) infundibulum. D) posterior. E) boundary between the ampulla and isthmus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) Which of the following statements is false regarding the female reproductive tract? A) Acidity in the vagina kills most sperm. B) The uterus contains large amounts of fructose nutrients. C) The size of breasts is primarily determined by adipose tissue. D) Cervical cancer may be caused by a virus. E) The inner wall layer of the vagina consists of stratified squamous epithelium, like the skin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 110) The broad ligament attaches to all of the following organs except the A) ovaries. B) uterine tubes. C) uterus. D) oviducts. E) urinary bladder. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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111) All of the following are functions of ovaries, except A) secretion of hormones. B) production of oocytes. C) formation of immature gametes. D) secretion of inhibin. E) receives the ovum after ovulation. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) Another term for vulva is A) gonads. B) vagina. C) female external genitalia. D) accessory glands. E) labia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 113) Ovarian cancer is the deadliest of the reproductive cancers because it A) is the most aggressive. B) is usually not diagnosed early. C) does not respond to any chemotherapy medications. D) affects the elderly population. E) is the most resistant to radiation therapy. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 114) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term uterine tube? A) has ciliated epithelium B) has stratified squamous epithelium C) covers the glans penis or glans clitoris D) holds the uterus to the ovary E) passes through erectile tissue in females Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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115) The hood that covers the clitoris is called the A) glans. B) prepuce. C) labia minora. D) cervix. E) vestibule. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) The ________ ligament extends from the uterus, near the attachment of the uterine tube, to the medial surface of the ovary. A) suspensory B) ovarian C) round D) gubernaculum E) mesovarium Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 117) The ________ ligament extends from the lateral surface of the ovary to the pelvic wall. A) suspensory B) ovarian C) round D) gubernaculum E) mesovarium Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 118) The ________ are fingerlike projections that capture the freshly ovulated ovum. A) gubernaculum B) fimbriae C) infundibulum D) uterine horn E) uterine tunnel Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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119) The expanded, initial segment of the uterine tube closest to the ovary is called the A) vaginal fornix. B) infundibulum. C) tunnel. D) ampulla. E) os. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) The ________ of the uterine tube is between the uterus and the ampulla. A) isthmus B) ampulla C) fimbra D) os E) commissure Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 121) Sperm enter the cervical canal through the external A) isthmus. B) ampulla. C) fimbra. D) os. E) commissure. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 122) The ________ ligaments extend from the base of the uterus and vagina to the lateral walls of the pelvis. A) cardinal B) uterosacral C) round D) broad E) mesovarium Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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123) The main portion of the uterus is called the corpus or A) fundus. B) cervix. C) horn. D) body. E) isthmus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 124) The portion of the uterus that projects into the vagina is called the A) fundus. B) cervix. C) horn. D) body. E) isthmus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 125) The painful condition that develops because epithelial tissue from the uterus is present in the peritoneal cavity is A) endometriosis. B) ovarian cysts. C) peritonitis. D) lymphedema. E) orchitis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 126) The ________ is the inner lining of the uterus. A) endometrium B) epimetrium C) perimetrium D) myometrium E) exometrium Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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127) Which disease exhibits similar symptoms as breast cancer? A) cervical cancer B) ovarian cancer C) uterine cancer D) fibrocystic disease E) vaginitis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 128) The leading cause of death in women between the ages of 35-45 is A) cervical cancer. B) ovarian cancer. C) uterine cancer. D) fibrocystic disease. E) breast cancer. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 129) An inflammation of the vaginal canal caused by fungi, bacteria, or parasites is called A) endometriosis. B) a UTI. C) peritonitis. D) vaginitis. E) orchitis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 130) The ________ is an elastic epithelial layer between the vagina and vestibule, which, if present, is often torn during first intercourse. A) zona pellucida B) prepuce C) isthmus D) vaginal fornix E) hymen Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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131) The glands that produce mucus used as a lubricant during sexual intercourse are ________ glands. A) greater vestibular B) seminal C) vulvular D) bulbourethral E) mons Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) Which condition is characterized by a malignant, metastasizing tumor of the mammary gland? A) menopause B) fibrocystic disease C) breast cancer D) ductal blockage E) endometriosis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 133) The corpus spongiosum of the penis in males is analogous to the ________ in females. A) clitoris B) vagina C) uterus D) bulb of vestibule E) hymen Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 134) The pad of adipose tissue covering the pubic symphysis is the A) hymen. B) clitoris. C) labia majora. D) prepuce. E) mons pubis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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135) The ducts of the mammary glands open to the body surface through a A) sinus. B) nipple. C) labia. D) secretory lobule. E) fornix. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 136) Which layer of the uterus undergoes dramatic changes in thickness and structure during the uterine cycle responding to hormones. A) functional layer of the endometrium B) basal layer of the endometrium C) myometrium D) perimetrium E) epimetrium Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 137) Which of the following correctly lists the order of arteries from the external uterus to internal uterus? A) radial, arcuate, straight, uterine, spiral B) uterine, radial, straight, spiral, arcuate C) uterine, arcuate, radial, straight, spiral D) spiral, straight, radial, arcuate, uterine E) arcuate, uterine, spiral, radial, straight Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 138) The Pap smear looks for abnormal cytology of the A) vagina. B) uterus. C) uterine tube. D) cervix. E) ovary. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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139) What is the thickest portion of the uterine wall? A) functional layer of the endometrium B) basal layer of the endometrium C) myometrium D) perimetrium E) epimetrium Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 140) What is the function of uterine tube peg cells? A) secretion of estrogen B) secretion of progesterone C) propel the oocyte to the uterus D) secrete nutrient-rich fluid E) secrete mucus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 141) The pocket formed between the uterus and the posterior wall of the bladder is the A) vestibule. B) vesico-uterine pouch. C) recto-uterine pouch. D) broad ligament. E) uterine hilum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 142) Dense connective tissue that covers the ovary is called the A) ovarian hilum. B) fibrous capsule. C) tunica vaginalis. D) broad ligament. E) tunica albuginea. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 28-2 The Female Reproductive System Use Figure 28-2 to answer the following questions: 143) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) vagina B) uterine tube C) clitoris D) ureter E) ovary Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 144) Identify the structure labeled "6." A) uterus B) vagina C) cervix D) clitoris E) greater vestibular gland Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 37 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

145) Which structure produces oocytes? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 E) 9 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 146) Which structure is lined by a ciliated epithelium? A) 1 B) 2 C) 9 D) 11 E) 12 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 147) Identify the structure labeled "12." A) uterus B) vagina C) clitoris D) labium minus E) ovary Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 148) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) vagina B) clitoris C) greater vestibular gland D) labium minus E) labium majus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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149) Identify the structure labeled "8." A) vagina B) clitoris C) greater vestibular gland D) labium minus E) labium majus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 150) Identify the structure labeled "10." A) vaginal fornix B) cervical canal C) ampulla D) areola E) cervix Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 151) Identify the structure labeled "5." A) cervix B) uterine tube C) ureter D) vagina E) urethra Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 152) In which structure does gestation occur? A) 1 B) 4 C) 9 D) 11 E) 13 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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153) Which of the following statements concerning oogenesis is false? A) Oogenesis begins before birth. B) Ova develop from stem cells called oogonia. C) An ovum completes its last meiosis after it is fertilized. D) About half the oogonia complete mitosis between birth and puberty. E) By the time of their birth, girls have already lost about the majority of their oocytes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 154) The surge in luteinizing hormone that occurs during the middle of the ovarian cycle triggers A) follicle maturation. B) menstruation. C) ovulation. D) menopause. E) atresia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 155) A rise in the blood levels of follicle-stimulating hormone at the beginning of the ovarian cycle is responsible for A) follicle maturation. B) menstruation. C) ovulation. D) menopause. E) atresia. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 156) The average length of the menstrual cycle is ________ days. A) 16 B) 19 C) 21 D) 28 E) 35 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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157) During the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle, the A) corpus luteum is forming. B) functional zone of the endometrium is restored. C) fertilized ovum implants. D) old functional layer is sloughed off. E) endometrium finalizes the preparation for implantation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 158) During the menstrual phase, A) progesterone levels are high. B) a new uterine lining is formed. C) secretory glands and blood vessels develop in the endometrium. D) the old functional layer is sloughed off. E) the corpus luteum is most active. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 159) The uterine phase that develops because of a fall in progesterone levels is the A) menstrual phase. B) proliferative phase. C) secretory phase. D) follicular phase. E) luteal phase. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 160) The principal hormone secreted by the corpus luteum is A) LH. B) FSH. C) progesterone. D) luteosterone. E) estrogen. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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161) The granulosa cells of developing follicles secrete A) estrogens. B) progesterone. C) FSH. D) LH. E) GnRH. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 162) The primary follicle develops from the A) ovarian hilum. B) tunica albuginea. C) primordial follicle. D) ovarian stroma. E) granulosa cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 163) Which of the following is not a similarity between the testis and ovary? A) Both produce progesterone. B) Meiosis takes place in both. C) Both respond to follicle-stimulating hormone. D) Both respond to luteinizing hormone. E) Both produce gametes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 164) Which of the following statements about oogenesis is false? A) The polar body is the egg cell which is then fertilized by the sperm cell. B) Far fewer eggs are produced by the female than sperm produced by the male. C) Meiosis I begins in the female fetus. D) Meiosis II is not completed until after the egg cell makes contact with the sperm cell. E) The lack of viable oogonia in the ovaries leads to menopause in the female. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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165) A sample of a woman's blood is analyzed for reproductive hormone levels. The results indicate a high level of progesterone, relatively high levels of inhibin, and low levels of FSH and LH. The female is most likely experiencing ________ of the uterine cycle. A) the proliferative phase B) the menstrual phase C) the secretory phase D) menarche E) menopause Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 166) After ovulation, the ovary secretes A) luteinizing hormone. B) estrogen. C) progesterone. D) both estrogen and progesterone. E) luteinizing hormone, estrogen, and progesterone. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 167) The hormone that stimulates ovulation is A) luteinizing hormone. B) FSH. C) growth hormone. D) progesterone. E) testosterone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 168) The ________ is the glycoprotein-rich region between the developing oocyte and the granulosa cells. A) acrosome B) rugae C) antrum D) zona pellucida E) corona radiata Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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169) The fluid-filled cavity that appears in a secondary follicle is called the A) corpus luteum. B) cortex. C) stroma. D) antrum. E) corpus albicans. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 170) The ________ consists of the follicle cells that cling to the oocyte after ovulation. A) stroma B) corpus albicans C) antrum D) zona pellucida E) corona radiata Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 171) Menstruation is the process of sloughing off the old functional layer of the A) perimetrium. B) endometrium. C) epimetrium. D) myometrium. E) exometrium. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 172) The ________ is the endometrial layer that undergoes dramatic changes during the menstrual cycle. A) functional layer B) corpus albicans C) basal layer D) corpus luteum E) stroma Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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173) Painful menstruation is called A) dysmenorrhea. B) polymenorrhea. C) amenorrhea. D) menorrhea. E) nocimenorrhea. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 174) The first menses is called the A) menarche. B) menopause. C) climacteric. D) emission. E) ovulation. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 175) In a 28 day cycle, ovulation typically occurs around day A) 3. B) 7. C) 14. D) 21. E) 28. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 176) Rachel is experiencing difficulty conceiving. All of the following may be reasons why, except A) her pituitary gland is not producing adequate levels of FSH. B) her ovarian and menstrual cycles are not properly coordinated. C) her ovaries are not producing enough progesterone. D) she has a 28 day cycle. E) her ovaries are not producing enough estrogen. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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177) The menstrual and proliferative phases of the uterine cycle occur during the ________ phase of the ovarian cycle. A) follicular B) ovulation C) luteal D) secretory E) involution Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 178) The secretory phase of the uterine cycle occurs during the ________ phase of the ovarian cycle. A) follicular B) ovulation C) luteal D) proliferative E) involution Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 179) Oogenesis produces A) 4 secondary oocytes. B) 4 ova. C) 1 secondary oocyte and 3 ova. D) 1 secondary oocyte and 2 or 3 polar bodies. E) 4 ova and 2 or 3 polar bodies. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 180) Progesterone levels are highest during which phases of the ovarian and uterine cycles, respectively? A) follicular; menstrual B) luteal; secretory C) luteal; menstrual D) follicular; proliferative E) luteal; proliferative Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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181) All of the following are true of emission and ejaculation, except they A) occur under sympathetic stimulation. B) begin with peristaltic contractions of the ampulla. C) are responsible for propelling semen toward the external urethral opening. D) involve contractions of the seminal glands. E) stimulate the release of urine from bladder to clean the urethra. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 182) Erectile dysfunction is defined as an inability to achieve or maintain A) an erection. B) an emission. C) ejaculation. D) a normal sperm count. E) blood flow. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 183) Which of the following is directly responsible for an orgasm? A) menarche B) erection C) emission D) spermiogenesis E) ejaculation Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 184) The subsidence of an erection after ejaculation is known as A) detumescence. B) tumescence. C) menses. D) emission. E) ejaculation. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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185) Contractions of the skeletal muscles of the pelvic floor result in A) erection. B) emission. C) ejaculation. D) detumescence. E) impotence. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 186) During female sexual arousal, parasympathetic activation leads to engorgement of the A) mons pubis. B) clitoris and vestibular bulbs. C) vagina. D) cervix. E) vaginal fornix. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 187) Infertility may result when an STD leads to A) menarche. B) premenstrual dysphoric disorder. C) polycystic ovary syndrome. D) pelvic inflammatory disease. E) menorrhagia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 188) Which of the following statements regarding erection is false? A) It involves parasympathetic stimulation. B) Vascular channels in the erectile tissue become engorged with blood. C) Dilation of penile arteries occurs. D) It involves nitric oxide production by neurons. E) It is commonly the result of plaque in the blood vessels of the penis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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189) The term ________ means the failure of one or both testes to descend into the scrotum by the time of birth. A) premature puberty B) vasculitis C) cryptorchidism D) priapism E) orchitis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 190) Which of the following does not occur after menopause? A) Menstrual cycles cease. B) Ovulation ceases. C) Estrogen levels rise. D) GnRH secretion increases. E) FSH secretion increases. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 191) The cessation of menstruation after no more developing follicles remain is called A) dysmenorrhea. B) detumescence. C) menopause. D) menses. E) amenorrhea. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 192) After menopause, the production of two pituitary hormones increases. One of these is A) LH. B) prolactin. C) estrogen. D) progesterone. E) andostenedione. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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193) A man can get testosterone injections to increase sexual drive, muscle mass, and overall mood. These symptoms can occur as a result of A) prostate cancer. B) male climateric. C) premature ejaculation. D) testicular cancer. E) menopause. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Which erectile tissue is split into two cylindrical masses that surround a central artery? Which erectile tissue surrounds the urethra? (Figure 28-7) A) corpus spongiosum; corpora cavernosa B) corpora cavernosa; corpus spongiosum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) What is the name of the cell at each stage of sperm development, from mitosis to spermiogenesis? (Figure 28-9) A) secondary spermatocyte, spermatid, sperm, spermatogonium, primary spermatocyte B) spermatids, spermatogonium, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, sperm C) primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatogonium, spermatids, sperm D) spermatogonium, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatids, sperm E) spermatogonium, spermatids, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, sperm Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) In which of the four parts of a sperm are the centrioles found? (Figure 28-11) A) acrosome B) head C) neck D) middle E) tail Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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4) At what stage of development is the oocyte during ovulation? (Figure 28-22) A) primordial B) oogonium C) primary oocyte D) secondary oocyte E) ovum Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 5) Which layer of the endometrium is affected most during the uterine cycle? (Figure 28-23) A) functional layer B) basal layer C) myometrial layer D) perimetrial layer E) secretory layer Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) What is the precursor for all steroid hormones in both males and females? (Figure 28-25) A) androgens B) prostaglandins C) androstenedione D) estradiol E) cholesterol Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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Essay Questions 1) How are male and female reproductive systems functionally different? Answer: In males, the gonads (testes) secrete androgens and produce hundreds of millions of gametes (sperm) each day. The sperm are mixed with secretions, forming semen, and are expelled from the body during ejaculation into the female. In females, the gonads (ovaries) secrete estrogen and progesterone and release a single ovum (gamete) every month. The vagina receives the penis during sexual intercourse and the ejaculate is deposited near the external os of the uterus. If the ovum is fertilized and implants in the endometrium, the female's body nourishes the development of the embryo and fetus until birth. Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 2) Explain how estrogen and progesterone control each phase of the uterine cycle. Answer: At the beginning of the 28 day cycle, both estrogen and progesterone levels are very low. The low levels of these hormones causes the menstrual phase because not enough progesterone is available to maintain the functional layer of the endometrium so it is sloughed off. As the ovarian follicle grows the granulosa cells produce increasing amounts of estrogen. The rising estrogen concentration causes the proliferative phase of the uterine cycle to begin and continue through ovulation. When the oocyte is ovulated the corpus luteum forms from the follicle and begins producing progesterone. The rising progesterone stimulates the secretory phase of the uterine cycle. This phase continues until the oocyte is fertilized or if it is not fertilized then the levels of progesterone fall and the menstrual phase begins again. Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 3) Imagine that a seven-year-old girl develops a hormone-secreting ovarian tumor derived from granulosa cells. What signs of the disease would you expect? Answer: Granulosa cells produce estrogen, so a tumor involving these cells would lead to highly elevated levels of estrogen. Estrogen would set in motion the development of secondary sex characteristics, such as breast enlargement, deposition of fat in characteristic places, development of axillary and pubic hair and apocrine sweat glands, along with accelerated skeletal growth. Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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4) The release of FSH and LH from gonadotropes in the adenohypophysis is separately controlled by the same hypothalamic releasing hormone, GnRH. How is it possible to organize their secretion during the menstrual cycle? Answer: In females, the GnRH pulse frequency and amplitude (amount secreted per pulse change throughout the course of the ovarian cycle. Consider changes in pulse frequency, as their effects are both dramatic and reasonably well understood. Changes in GnRH pulse frequency are controlled primarily by circulating levels of estrogens and progestins. Estrogens increase the GnRH pulse frequency, and progestins decrease it. The endocrine cells of the adenohypophysis respond as if each group of endocrine cells is monitoring different frequencies. As a result, each group of cells is sensitive to some GnRH pulse frequencies and insensitive to others. For example, consider the gonadotropes, the cells responsible for FSH and LH production. At one pulse frequency, the gonadotropes respond preferentially and secrete FSH, whereas at another frequency, LH is the primary hormone released. FSH and LH production also occurs in pulses that follow the rhythm of GnRH pulses. If GnRH is absent or is supplied at a constant rate (without pulses), FSH and LH secretion will stop in a matter of hours. Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini) Chapter 29 Development and Inheritance Multiple Choice Questions 1) The gradual modification of anatomical structures and physiologic characteristics from fertilization to maturity is termed A) gametogenesis. B) ontogeny. C) development. D) transformation. E) disablement. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) The formation of different types of cells required in development, or ________, occurs through selective changes in genetic activity. A) differentiation B) cupellation C) deployment D) gametogenesis E) phylogeny Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 3) The transfer of genetically determined characteristics from generation to generation is termed A) development. B) differentiation. C) inheritance. D) phylogeny. E) maturity. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Sperm cannot fertilize an oocyte until they A) undergo capacitation. B) undergo meiosis. C) lose their flagellum. D) are in the vagina for 3 days. E) are activated by sustentacular cells of the vagina. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 1 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Which of the following is not part of oocyte activation? A) softening of the zona pellucida B) influx of sodium ion C) membrane depolarization D) release of calcium ion from smooth ER E) discharge of exocytotic vesicles adjacent to the oocyte membrane Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) Polyspermy results in A) twins. B) fetuses with different fathers. C) haploid individuals. D) chimeric adults. E) a nonfunctional zygote. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 7) During amphimixis, A) sperm become haploid. B) the ovum finishes meiosis II. C) the male and female pronuclei fuse. D) meiosis occurs. E) gametes are formed. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) The site where fertilization normally occurs is in the A) cervix. B) fimbrae. C) uterine wall near the fundus. D) outer one-third of the uterine tube. E) union of the vagina and uterus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) The layer of follicle cells that surround the unfertilized egg is called the A) zona pellucida. B) corona radiata. C) Graafian follicle. D) functional zone. E) tunica follicularis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) Block to polyspermy is prevented by the ________ reaction. A) metabolic B) gamete C) gollumina D) cortical E) polarity Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) The cell that directly results from the fusion of a secondary oocyte and a single sperm is called a(n) A) ootid. B) gastrula. C) blastula. D) morula. E) zygote. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) Sperm release ________ to break down the bonds between adjacent follicle cells surrounding the oocyte. A) relaxin B) hyaluronidase C) calcium D) zonal inhibiting proteins E) glucose Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) Fertilization stimulates the oocyte to enter meiosis II and the fertilized oocyte is called a(n) A) oogonium. B) primary oocyte. C) secondary oocyte. D) ovum. E) polar body. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) The developmental period that is the period of all embryological and early fetal development is A) the first trimester. B) the second trimester. C) the third trimester. D) infancy. E) adolescence. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) The period of gestation that is characterized by rapid fetal growth and fat deposition is the ________ trimester. A) first B) second C) third Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) The period of gestation when organs and organ systems complete most of their development and the fetus looks distinctly human is the ________ trimester. A) first B) second C) third Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) The term ________ refers to the time spent in prenatal development. A) transformation B) micturition C) parturition D) gestation E) cleavage Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) The human gestation period consists of A) fertilization and one trimester. B) two trimesters of 1 month each. C) three trimesters of 1 month each. D) two trimesters of 2 months each. E) three trimesters of 3 months each. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) Which of the following statements concerning development is false? A) The term induction refers to the chemical interplay between developing cells. B) The developing oocyte receives molecules that affect development from the surrounding granulosa cells. C) Each blastomere in the blastocyst receives exactly the same cytoplasmic composition. D) Differences in a cell's cytoplasmic makeup affect the cell's genetic activity. E) Cells release molecules that affect the developmental process of neighboring cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 20) After fertilization, the first cell division is completed A) within a few seconds. B) within the hour. C) about 6 hours later. D) in 12 hours. E) about 30 hours later. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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21) During early development, the Y chromosome produces a substance called "testis determining factor" (TDF) that causes the indifferent gonad to become a testis. This would be an example of A) capacitation. B) activation. C) differentiation. D) induction. E) predilection. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 22) The process of cell division that divides the cytoplasm of the zygote among blastomeres is called A) cleavage. B) implantation. C) placentation. D) embryogenesis. E) blastulation. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) The penetration of the endometrium by the blastocyst is referred to as A) cleavage. B) implantation. C) placentation. D) embryogenesis. E) fertilization. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) ________ are nearly identical cells that are produced by early cleavages. A) Blastomeres B) Morulas C) Gastrulas D) Amnions E) Blastulas Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) The solid ball of cells that has been likened to a mulberry is called a A) chorion. B) blastula. C) gastrula. D) morula. E) blastocyst. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) A blastocyst is a(n) A) extraembryonic membrane. B) solid ball of cells. C) hollow ball of cells. D) portion of the placenta. E) origin of the urinary bladder. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) The inner cell mass of the blastocyst will A) form the placenta. B) form the morula. C) form the embryo. D) form blood vessels of the placenta. E) provide nutrients for early growth. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) During implantation, the A) trophoblast erodes a path through the endometrium. B) inner cell mass begins to form the placenta. C) maternal blood vessels in the endometrium are walled off from the blastocyst. D) entire trophoblast becomes syncytial. E) inner cell mass is temporarily deprived of nutrients. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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29) Under the influence of the trophoblast, maternal blood vessels in the endometrium A) disappear. B) attach to the inner cell mass. C) break down and form sinuses or lacunae. D) form a capillary network in the trophoblast. E) increase in size and penetrate the blastocyst. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) A space opens within the inner cell mass that will form the A) blastocoele. B) lacunae. C) amniotic cavity. D) chorion. E) allantois. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) Shortly after gastrulation, the body and organs of the embryo begin to form. This process is called A) cleavage. B) implantation. C) placentation. D) embryogenesis. E) germination. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 32) Which of the following is false concerning the allantois? A) It derives partly from endoderm. B) It projects into the umbilical cord. C) It stores nitrogenous wastes. D) Part will develop as the urinary bladder. E) It acts as the fetal bone marrow. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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33) Ectoderm is to ________ as mesoderm is to ________. A) neural tissue; muscle tissue B) cardiovascular system; neural tissue C) mesoderm; endoderm D) neural tissue; epithelial tissue E) muscle tissue; neural tissue Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 34) The mesoderm and the trophoblast combine to form the A) amnion. B) amniotic sac. C) chorion. D) allantois. E) inner cell mass. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) During gastrulation, A) the blastomeres fuse. B) the placenta penetrates the endometrium. C) three germ layers are formed. D) cells from the hypoblast move to the epiblast. E) the neural tube closes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) The region known as the primitive streak is the site of A) migration of mesodermal cells to form the endoderm. B) endoderm formation. C) ectoderm formation. D) migration of ectodermal cells to form the mesoderm. E) amnion formation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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37) The ectoderm forms A) muscle. B) blood. C) neural tissues. D) the lining of the digestive tract. E) the urinary system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) The mesoderm forms A) muscle. B) epidermis. C) the brain. D) the lining of the digestive tract. E) respiratory epithelium. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) The endoderm forms A) muscle. B) blood. C) neural tissue. D) skin. E) the urinary bladder. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) The extraembryonic membrane that forms blood is the A) yolk sac. B) amnion. C) allantois. D) chorion. E) decidua. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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41) Oxygenated blood from the placenta returns to the fetus in the A) allantois. B) umbilical vein. C) umbilical arteries. D) decidua capsularis. E) umbilical capillaries. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) Where in the embryo does mesoderm first appear? A) between the cell layers of the inner cell mass B) within the blastocoele C) in the chorionic villi D) above the epiblast E) around the trophoblast Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) The part of the endometrium that covers the implanted embryo and lacks chorionic villi is the A) parietal decidua. B) albicans decidua. C) functional decidua. D) capsular decidua. E) basal decidua. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) Which embryonic germ layer forms the linings of the respiratory and digestive tracts? A) mesoderm B) ectoderm C) trophoderm D) endoderm E) epiderm Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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45) Which embryonic germ layer forms connective tissues such as bone and cartilage? A) epiderm B) trophoderm C) ectoderm D) mesooderm E) endoderm Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 46) Which embryonic germ layer forms the brain and spinal cord? A) ectoderm B) endoderm C) trophoderm D) epiderm E) mesooderm Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 47) The extraembryonic membrane that forms a fluid-filled sac is the A) yolk sac. B) amnion. C) allantois. D) chorion. E) decidua. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) The umbilical cord contains the yolk sac, the placental blood vessels and the A) chorionic villi. B) allantois. C) amnion. D) chorion. E) decidua. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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49) The extraembryonic membrane that forms the fetal portion of the placenta is the A) yolk sac. B) amnion. C) allantois. D) chorion. E) decidua. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) Which of the following is not one of the extraembryonic membranes? A) yolk sac B) amnion C) allantois D) chorion E) umbilical cord Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 51) In ________, implantation occurs somewhere other than in the uterus. A) ectopic pregnancy B) hydramnios C) placenta previa D) abortion E) spontaneous abortion Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) The outer layer of the blastocyst that can penetrate the endometrium is the A) archegonium. B) chorion. C) gastrula. D) blastula. E) trophoblast. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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53) The hollow cavity within the blastocyst is the A) blastula. B) gastrula. C) blastocoele. D) trophoblast. E) ootid. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) The ________ is the portion of the endometrium not in contact with the chorion. A) trophoblast B) allantois C) capsular decidua D) functional decidua E) parietal decidua Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) The ________ is formed by the allantois, blood vessels, and yolk sac. A) umbilical cord B) chorion C) chorioallantoic membrane D) trophoblast E) amnion Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) The almost identical cells produced by cleavage divisions are called A) centromeres. B) blastomeres. C) telomeres. D) myosomes. E) somal cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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57) The process by which a viable embryo is formed is called A) embryogenesis. B) organogenesis. C) gametogenesis. D) morphogenesis. E) blastogenesis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) Placental functions are concentrated in a disc-shaped area in the endometrium called the A) trophoblast. B) allantois. C) capsular decidua. D) basal decidua. E) parietal decidua. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) Blood flows from the fetus to the placenta through paired A) umbilical vein. B) iliac veins. C) umbilical arteries. D) uterine veins. E) uterine arteries. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) The processes that occur in the pre-embryonic period are A) cleavage and implantation. B) cleavage and placentation. C) implantation and placentation. D) implantation and embryogenesis. E) placentation and embryogenesis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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61) The processes that occur in the embryonic period are A) cleavage and implantation. B) cleavage and placentation. C) implantation and placentation. D) implantation and embryogenesis. E) placentation and embryogenesis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) Which of the following statements about the first trimester is false? A) The events that occur during the first trimester are very complex. B) Only about 40 percent of conceptions survive the first trimester. C) During this trimester, cleavage, implantation, placentation and embryogenesis occur. D) The fetus gains the most weight during the first trimester. E) It consists of 10 developmental weeks. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 63) The inner cellular layer of trophoblast that remains intact inside the blastocyst is termed the A) morula. B) cytotrophoblast. C) synctiotrophoblast. D) lacunae. E) amnion. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) The uterine epithelium is broken down by the enzyme, A) hyaluronidase. B) acrosin. C) urase. D) proteoglycan. E) relaxin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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65) The uterine epithelium is broken down by which structure of the blastocyst? A) allantois B) cytotrophoblast C) syncytiotrophoblast D) blastocoele E) amnion Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) The separation between the inner cell mass and the trophoblast forms a fluid-filled chamber called the A) chorion. B) yolk sac. C) allantois. D) amniotic cavity. E) placenta. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) The embryo becomes a fetus at A) the end of the first week. B) the end of the second week. C) the end of the eighth week. D) the end of the second trimester. E) the end of the third trimester. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) The primary nutrient source for early embryonic development that later becomes an important site for blood formation is the A) amniotic fluid. B) placenta. C) basal decidua. D) umbilical vein. E) yolk sac. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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69) The epidermis and accessory structures of skin form from which germ layer? A) endoderm B) mesoderm C) epiderm D) ectoderm E) trophoderm Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 29-1 Early Human Development Use Figure 29-1 to answer the following questions: 70) Identify the structures labeled "6." A) polar bodies B) cytotrophoblast C) blastomeres D) syncytiotrophoblast E) trophoblast Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 18 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

71) Identify the stage labeled "12." A) zygote B) early morula C) blastocyst D) trophoblast E) late morula Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 72) Identify the stage labeled "8." A) zygote B) early morula C) blastomere D) trophoblast E) advanced morula Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 73) What is the developmental fate of "9"? A) forms the embryo B) forms the trophoblast C) forms the chorion D) forms the placenta E) forms the parietal decidua Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 74) Identify the process occurring at the structure labeled "13." A) fertilization B) ovulation C) implantation D) migration E) gastrulation Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 29-2 Fetus at 10 Weeks Use Figure 29-2 to answer the following questions: 75) Identify the structure labeled "8." A) amnion B) chorion C) basal decidua D) placenta E) capsular decidua Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 76) Identify the structure labeled "4." A) amnion B) chorion C) basal decidua D) placenta E) endometrium Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 20 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

77) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) amnion B) chorion C) basal decidua D) placenta E) endometrium Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 78) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) umbilical cord B) placenta C) basal decidua D) capsular decidua E) yolk sac Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 79) Identify the structure labeled "6." A) umbilical cord B) placenta C) basal decidua D) amnion E) parietal decidua Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 80) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) basal decidua B) chorion C) amnion D) placenta E) endometrium Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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81) During the second trimester, the mesoderm on the outer surface of the amnion contacts the mesoderm on the inner surface of the chorion and fuse to form the ________ membrane. A) cervical B) syncytial C) amniochorionic D) embryonic E) umbilical Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) By the end of gestation, maternal blood volume normally increases by almost ________ percent. A) 20 B) 25 C) 50 D) 80 E) 100 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) Which of the following does not occur during pregnancy? A) A woman's respiratory rate and tidal volume increase. B) Maternal blood volume increases. C) Maternal nutrient requirements increase. D) A woman's glomerular filtration rate increases. E) A woman's bladder capacity increases. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 84) The placenta is a source of all of the following hormones, except A) hCG. B) relaxin. C) placental lactogen. D) progesterone. E) luteinizing hormone. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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85) The hormone that increases the flexibility of the pubic symphysis during pregnancy is A) luteinizing hormone. B) progesterone. C) human chorionic gonadotropin. D) human placental lactogen. E) relaxin. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) If fertilization occurs, the ________ is maintained because the embryo secretes ________. A) corpus albicans; human chorionic gonadotrophin B) corpus luteum; luteinizing hormone C) corpus cavernosum; human chorionic gonadotrophin D) corpus luteum; human chorionic gonadotrophin E) corpus albicans; placental prolactin Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 87) The hormone called the hormone of pregnancy, inhibiting uterine contractions, is A) hCG. B) relaxin. C) placental lactogen. D) progesterone. E) luteinizing hormone. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) Mammary gland development requires a combination of all of the following hormones, except A) oxytocin. B) placental prolactin. C) prolactin. D) human placental lactogen. E) estrogen. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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89) The prostaglandins produced in the endometrium A) initiate the release of oxytocin for parturition. B) stimulate smooth muscle contractions. C) initiate secretory activity in the mammary glands. D) promote breast development. E) stimulate the milk let-down reflex. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 90) Stretching of the cervix causes an increase in the blood levels of A) estrogen. B) progesterone. C) oxytocin. D) relaxin. E) chorionic gonadotropin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 91) During gestation, contraction of the myometrium is inhibited by ________, produced by the corpus luteum. A) progesterone B) estrogen C) oxytocin D) prostaglandins E) inhibin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) The first stage of labor is the ________ stage. A) dilation B) expulsion C) placental D) decidual E) neonate Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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93) The stage of labor during which the fetus emerges from the vagina is called the ________ stage. A) emergence B) dilation C) placental D) expulsion E) fetal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) An infant born ________ prematurely has a good chance of survival. A) 1.5 months B) 3 months C) 4 months D) 5 months E) 6 months Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) Uterine contractions that are irregular and brief that occur toward the end of gestation are called A) parturition. B) expulsion. C) true labor. D) Braxton-Hicks. E) dilation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) In a(n) ________, an incision is made in the perineal musculature. A) episiotomy B) lumbar puncture C) crowning D) epidural E) peritoneal cut Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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97) Fraternal twins result from A) one egg that is fertilized by two different sperm. B) two different zygotes. C) one zygote that splits into two zygotes. D) two eggs fertilized by one sperm cell. E) a blastula that splits into two blastulas. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) Twins that occur when blastomeres separate are called A) monozygotic. B) blastulatory. C) zygoblastic. D) dizygotic. E) fraternal. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) The goal of labor is childbirth, also termed A) gestation. B) development. C) parturition. D) abortion. E) senescence. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) Which of the following places the stages of labor in the correct order? A) placental, expulsion, dilation B) placental, dilation, expulsion C) expulsion, dilation, placental D) dilation, placental, expulsion E) dilation, expulsion, placental Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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101) Immediately after birth, a newborn's health is assessed by an Apgar score. Which of the following is not part of the Apgar assessment? A) heart rate B) breathing C) muscle tone D) hearing E) skin color Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 102) Which of the following does not occur at puberty? A) FSH levels rise. B) GnRH levels decline. C) Levels of sex hormones rise. D) Gametogenesis begins. E) Secondary sexual characteristics begin to develop. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 103) As a person ages, A) the skin becomes more elastic. B) lung tissue becomes more elastic. C) peristalsis and muscle tone decrease. D) all hormone levels decrease. E) peristalsis and muscle tone decrease and some hormone levels decrease. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) The infancy stage of life is considered to be over at A) 3 months B) age 2. C) 6 months. D) 1 month. E) 18 months. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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105) ________ is the medical specialty that focuses on postnatal development from infancy to adolescence. A) Geriatrics B) Orthopedics C) Pediatrics D) Psychiatrics E) Obstetrics Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) The neonatal period extends A) for the first 24 hours of life. B) for the first month of life. C) until the first birthday. D) for the first six months. E) until breast feeding stops. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) The developmental period heralded by the onset of puberty is known as A) post-infancy. B) adolescence. C) early childhood. D) teenage years. E) pre-teen. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) The period from 1 month after birth to 1 year is known as A) childhood. B) post-fetal. C) neogen. D) infancy. E) neonatal. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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109) A mother has a lot of milk stored in the breast and mammary glands but cannot seem to expel the milk for her newborn. Her doctor thinks that the cause may be A) low levels of oxytocin. B) high levels of HCG. C) low levels of estrogen. D) low levels of progesterone. E) unresponsive smooth muscle around the mammary glands. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 110) The clear liquid secreted by the mammary glands before milk production begins is called A) milk. B) colostrum. C) serum. D) plasma. E) peritoneal. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) Adolescence begins at the period of sexual maturity called A) menopause. B) puberty. C) senescence. D) postnatal. E) gestation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) All of the following changes occur during puberty, except A) the hypothalamus decreases its production of GnRH. B) FSH levels increase. C) LH levels increase. D) growth rate increases. E) gamete formation begins. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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113) A patient comes in the clinic expressing concern over changes in her body. She says she has been experiencing axillary and genital hair growth, breast growth, acne and she is going through a growth spurt. You reassure her these are all a normal part of maturation and inform her that she has begun A) menarche. B) menopause. C) peri-menopause. D) prenatal development. E) puberty. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 114) Non-sex chromosomes are called A) homologous. B) homozygous. C) heterozygous. D) autosomal. E) chromatids. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) The alternate forms of any one gene are called A) homologous. B) homozygous. C) heterozygous. D) autosomes. E) alleles. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) If an individual carries a pair of alleles that are the same, the individual is ________ for the trait. A) homologous B) homozygous C) heterozygous D) autosomous E) polygenic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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117) If a color-blind (X-linked recessive trait) man marries a woman who is heterozygous for the trait, what proportion of their male offspring can be expected to be color blind? A) 1/2 B) 1/4 C) 1/8 D) 3/4 E) 100 (all) Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 118) If an individual carries two different alleles for the same trait, the individual is ________ for the trait. A) homologous B) homozygous C) heterozygous D) autosomous E) polygenic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) If a sperm carrying the "Y" chromosome fertilizes the ovum, the resulting offspring will be A) haploid. B) Rh positive blood type. C) male. D) fraternal twins. E) female. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) The presence of a recessive gene can be detected (seen) only if the individual is A) homozygous recessive. B) heterozygous dominant. C) heterozygous recessive. D) homozygous dominant. E) epistatic recessive. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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121) A woman who is heterozygous for blood type A mates with a man who is homozygous for blood type O. What blood type(s) would their children have? A) 75% heterozygous type A B) 100% type A C) 75% homozygous type O D) 100% type O E) 50% type A, 50% type O Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 122) The gene for normal skin pigment (A) can also code for the recessive trait of albinism (a). An albino man and a homozygous normal pigmented woman marry and have four children. What is the phenotype of the children? A) 75% normal skin pigment and 25% albino B) 100% normal skin pigment C) 50% normal skin pigment and 50% albino D) 25% normal skin pigment and 75% albino E) 100% albino Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 123) In simple autosomal inheritance, phenotypic characters are determined, or controlled, by A) a single pair of alleles. B) multiple alleles. C) the action of a single gene. D) regulator genes on a different chromosome. E) the genes on the Y chromosome. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 124) In polygenic inheritance, phenotypic characters are A) determined by a double pair of alleles. B) determined by interactions among several genes. C) determined by multiple copies of a single gene. D) always controlled by genes on the same chromosome. E) determined by the genes on the Y chromosome. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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125) How many chromosomes do human gametes contain? A) 12 B) 23 C) 46 D) 92 E) 6 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 126) How many chromosomes do human somatic cells contain? A) 12 B) 23 C) 46 D) 92 E) 6 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 127) The 23rd set of chromosomes determines A) characteristics of the brain. B) sex. C) body characteristics. D) blood type. E) sex drive. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 128) In ________, a sample of amniotic fluid is removed and the fetal cells it contains are analyzed. A) chorionic villus sampling B) amniocentesis C) paracentesis D) amniosis E) thoracentesis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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129) The full set of genetic information in an individual's chromosomes is called A) pleiotype. B) allotype. C) phenotype. D) isotype. E) genome. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 130) The traits of an individual controlled by his or her genotype are his or her A) pleiotype. B) allotype. C) phenotype. D) isotype. E) genotype. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 131) A ________ allele will always be expressed regardless of what the other allele happens to be. A) homologous B) homocentric C) recessive D) maternal E) dominant Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) A ________ allele is expressed only when homozygous. A) homologous B) homocentric C) recessive D) maternal E) dominant Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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133) The entire set of chromosomes of an individual can be visualized on a A) locus. B) map. C) karyotype. D) Punnett square. E) genotype. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 134) Height is not expressed by a simple dominant and recessive allele. This type of inheritance is termed A) polygenic inheritance. B) incomplete dominance. C) codominance. D) strict dominance. E) simple inheritance. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 135) The ABO blood type is an example of which type of inheritance? A) polygenic inheritance B) incomplete dominance C) codominance D) strict dominance E) sex-linked Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 136) An individual's karyotype shows trisomy 21. This is an example of a A) translocation. B) chromosomal abnormality. C) mutation. D) recombination error. E) teratogen. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

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137) A gene's position on a chromosome is called a A) karyotype. B) map. C) recombinant. D) genome. E) locus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) What is the name and function of the outer cell layer of a blastocyst? (Figure 29-2) A) inner cell mass; become the yolk sac B) morula; become the amniotic fluid C) trophoblast; provide nutrients D) blastomere; implant into the uterine wall E) blastocoele; form the embryo Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) What is the name of the third germ layer that forms during gastrulation? (Figure 29-4) A) ectoderm B) endoderm C) mesoderm D) primitive streak E) embryonic disc Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) What hormones stimulate and increase the excitability of the myometrium? (Figure 29-10) A) oxytocin and prostaglandins B) prolactin and prostaglandins C) estrogen and progesterone D) oxytocin and progesterone E) estrogen and prostaglandins Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

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4) Explain why this is a karyotype of a male and not a female. (Figure 29-14) A) The 23rd pair of chromosomes are an XX. B) The 23rd pair of chromosomes are an XY. C) There are 24 pairs of chromosomes. D) There are 22 pairs of chromosomes. E) The 23rd chromosome is a Y chromosome. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 5) What types of inheritance are involved in the following phenotypes-nearsightedness, normal vision, and red-green color blindness? (Figure 29-15) A) simple inheritance; polygenic inheritance; sex-linked inheritance B) polygenic inheritance; sex-linked inheritance; sex-linked inheritance C) sex-linked inheritance; polygenic inheritance; polygenic inheritance D) polygenic inheritance; simple inheritance; polygenic inheritance E) simple inheritance; simple inheritance; sex-linked inheritance Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Essay Questions 1) What activity during oocyte activation prevents penetration by additional sperm? Answer: The first sperm to penetrate the oocyte triggers a sequence of changes that block entry by other sperm, or polyspermia. Polyspermy is prevented by depolarization of the egg membrane by opening of sodium channels and by the cortical reaction triggered by the release of calcium ion from smooth ER within the oocyte. The calcium ion stimulates the vesicles to undergo exocytosis. Their contents cause the zona pellucida to harden, creating a barrier against further sperm penetration. Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) Outline the events that take place between exposure of the oocyte to spermatozoa and formation of the first blastomere pair. Answer: Powerful acrosomal hydrolases released from the sperm head create openings between adherent granulosa cells (the corona radiata) and penetrate the zona pellucida. A solitary sperm penetrates to the oocyte membrane to which it fuses, sending its nucleus into the oocyte. This is the moment of fertilization. This triggers maturation of the haploid maternal pronucleus, followed by development of the male pronucleus. These then fuse in the act of amphimixis, the true combining of maternal and paternal haploid chromosome sets to form a unique diploid set of 46 chromosomes. Spindle fibers organize the chromosomes on the metaphase plate after the nuclear envelopes break down. After mitosis is complete, cytokinesis takes place, dividing the original zygote into two daughter cells or pair of blastomeres. This takes more than 30 hours to complete. Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 37 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) List and briefly characterize the three trimesters of gestation. Answer: For convenience, we think of the gestation period as consisting of three integrated trimesters, each lasting 3 months in duration: (1) The first trimester is the period of embryological and early fetal development. During this period, the rudiments of all the major organ systems appear. (2) The second trimester is dominated by the development of organs and organ systems, a process that nears completion by the end of the sixth month. During this period, body shape and proportions change; by the end of this trimester, the fetus looks distinctively human. (3) The third trimester is characterized by rapid fetal growth and deposition of adipose tissue. Early in the third trimester, most of the fetus's major organ systems become fully functional. Learning Outcome: 29-3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 4) A new mother tells you that when she nurses her baby, she feels as if she is having menstrual cramps. How would you explain this phenomenon? Answer: During nursing, the mechanical stimulus of suckling triggers a neural reflex that leads to the release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary. Oxytocin enters the bloodstream and stimulates contractile cells that surround the secretory cells in the mammary glands to contract and move milk into the lactiferous sinuses—the milk let-down reflex. Oxytocin also stimulates smooth muscle cells of the myometrium, so the rise in oxytocin sometimes leads to uterine contractions as well, producing a feeling similar to menstrual cramping. The uterine contractions help stem uterine bleeding. Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

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Test Bank to Accompany

Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology Eleventh Edition by Martini Pearson Education

© 2018 4/6/17

Contents Chapter 1 

An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology ................................................................. 1 

Chapter 2 

The Chemical Level of Organization .............................................................................. 22 

Chapter 3 

The Cellular Level of Organization ................................................................................. 63 

Chapter 4 

The Tissue Level of Organization .................................................................................. 107 

Chapter 5 

The Integumentary System ............................................................................................ 137 

Chapter 6 

Bones and Bone Structure ............................................................................................... 164 

Chapter 7 

The Axial Skeleton ........................................................................................................... 201 

Chapter 8 

The Appendicular Skeleton ............................................................................................ 234 

Chapter 9 

Joints .................................................................................................................................. 264 

Chapter 10 

Muscle Tissue ................................................................................................................... 294 

Chapter 11 

The Muscular System ...................................................................................................... 327 

Chapter 12 

Nervous Tissue ................................................................................................................ 364 

Chapter 13 

The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal Reflexes ................................................ 401 

Chapter 14 

The Brain and Cranial Nerves ....................................................................................... 429 

Chapter 15 

Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System ................................................. 473 

Chapter 16 

The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher‐Order Functions ............................... 503 

Chapter 17 

The Special Senses ........................................................................................................... 534 

Chapter 18 

The Endocrine System .................................................................................................... 575 

Chapter 19 

Blood ................................................................................................................................. 618 

Chapter 20 

The Heart .......................................................................................................................... 653 

Chapter 21 

Blood Vessels and Circulation ....................................................................................... 695 

Chapter 22 

The Lymphatic System and Immunity ......................................................................... 745 

Chapter 23 

The Respiratory System .................................................................................................. 784 

Chapter 24 

The Digestive System ...................................................................................................... 831 

Chapter 25 

Metabolism, Nutrition, and Energetics......................................................................... 880 

Chapter 26 

The Urinary System ......................................................................................................... 913 

Chapter 27 

Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid‐Base Balance .................................................................... 948 

Chapter 28 

The Reproductive System ............................................................................................... 963 

Chapter 29 

Development and Inheritance ..................................................................................... 1009 

Chapter 1

An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Anatomy is to ________ as physiology is to ________. A) function; form B) form; structure C) structure; function D) structure; form E) growth; form Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

2) The analysis of the internal structure of individual cells is called A) cytology. B) histology. C) embryology. D) physiology. E) anatomy. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) The study of the general form and superficial markings of an organism is called ________ anatomy. A) gross B) surface C) systemic D) regional E) surgical Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) Anatomical features that change during illness are studied in ________ anatomy. A) gross B) surface C) microscopic D) pathological E) regional Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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2   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

5) The study of the first two months of development is termed A) histology. B) embryology. C) cytology. D) pathology. E) organology. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) The study of the function of specific organ systems is called A) systemic physiology. B) organ physiology. C) cell physiology. D) pathological physiology. E) histology. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) Cardiovascular function is an example of A) histophysiology. B) organ physiology. C) systemic physiology. D) pathological physiology. E) physiological chemistry. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) The study of the liver is to gross anatomy as the study of a liver cell is to A) physiology. B) regional anatomy. C) cytology. D) systemic anatomy. E) radiographic anatomy. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

9) Identify the branch of biological science that studies the external and internal structure of the body and the physical relationship among body parts. A) genetics B) physiology C) embryology D) anatomy E) cytology Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1  An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology   3

10) Identify the branch of biological science that deals with the study of how living organisms perform their vital functions. A) genetics B) physiology C) embryology D) anatomy E) cytology Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

11) The study of the changes in form that occur between conception and physical maturity is called ________ anatomy. A) developmental B) clinical C) systemic D) embryological E) physiological Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

12) The study of the anatomical organization of specific areas of the body is called ________ anatomy. A) gross B) surface C) systemic D) regional E) clinical Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

13) The study of the relationships of the bodyʹs structures by examining cross sections of tissues or organs is called ________ anatomy. A) gross B) surface C) systemic D) regional E) sectional Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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4   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

14) Which of the following is arranged in correct order from the most complex to the simplest? A) cellular, tissue, molecular, system, organ, organism B) molecular, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism C) tissue, cellular, molecular, organ, system, organism D) organ, organism, molecular, cellular, tissue, system E) organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, molecular Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

15) Which organ system provides support, protection of soft tissue, mineral storage, and blood formation? A) integumentary B) muscular C) skeletal D) nervous E) endocrine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

16) Which organ system transports nutrients, metabolic wastes, gases, and defense cells? A) cardiovascular B) digestive C) muscular D) respiratory E) urinary Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

17) Which organ system includes the spleen and the tonsils? A) digestive B) endocrine C) nervous D) cardiovascular E) lymphatic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

18) The kidneys and ureters are organs of the ________ system. A) endocrine B) digestive C) respiratory D) urinary E) lymphatic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1  An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology   5

19) The pituitary gland and thyroid gland are organs of the ________ system. A) endocrine B) cardiovascular C) respiratory D) lymphatic E) digestive Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

20) Which organ system removes carbon dioxide from the bloodstream? A) cardiovascular B) lymphatic C) respiratory D) digestive E) endocrine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

21) Lungs are to the respiratory system as the liver is to the ________ system. A) lymphatic B) urinary C) digestive D) cardiovascular E) nervous Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

22) Skin, hair, and nails are associated with the ________ system. A) skeletal B) muscular C) integumentary D) endocrine E) immune Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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6   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

23) A chemical imbalance in the body can cause the heart to stop pumping blood, which in turn will cause other tissues and organs to cease functioning. This observation supports the view that A) all organisms are composed of cells. B) all levels of organization within an organism are interdependent. C) chemical molecules make up cells. D) blood has magical properties. E) congenital defects can be life-threatening. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

24) In general, the nervous system does each of the following except A) help to maintain homeostasis. B) respond rapidly to change. C) direct long-term responses to change. D) direct very specific responses. E) interpret sensory information. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

25) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system? A) releases chemical messengers called hormones B) produces a more rapid response than the nervous system C) produces effects that last for days or longer D) produces an effect that involves several organs or tissues at the same time E) important homeostatic system Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

26) Systemic physiology is A) the study of the effects of diseases on system functions. B) the study of the function of specific organs. C) the study of the functional chemistry of cells. D) the study of all aspects of the functioning of specific organs systems. E) the study of functions of the whole human body. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 1  An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology   7

27) Anatomy uses a special language, called ________ terminology, which involves the use of word roots, prefixes, suffixes, and combining forms to construct terms related to the body in health and disease. A) clinical B) pathological C) medical D) anatomical E) surgical Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

28) ________ serves as a worldwide official standard of anatomical vocabulary. A) Grayʹs Anatomy B) Terminologia Anatomica C) Hippocratic Corpus D) Anatomia Inteligencia E) De Materia Medica Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

29) Many medical terms are rooted in A) Latin. B) German. C) Greek. D) Phoenician. E) Greek or Latin. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

30) The quadrants of the abdominopelvic region include all of the following except A) right upper quadrant (RUQ). B) right lower quadrant (RLQ). C) left upper quadrant (LUQ). D) left lower quadrant (LLQ). E) pelvic quadrant. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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8   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

31) Which of the following is not considered an abdominopelvic region? A) right hypochondriac B) right inguinal region C) left lumbar D) left hypochondriac E) upper Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

32) A person who is standing facing forward with hands at the sides and palms facing forward is in the ________ position. A) supine B) prone C) anatomical D) frontal E) sagittal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

33) An anatomical term that means the same as ventral is A) posterior. B) inferior. C) abdominal. D) anterior. E) superior. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

34) The heart is ________ to the lungs. A) lateral B) medial C) posterior D) proximal E) distal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

35) The wrist is ________ to the elbow. A) proximal B) distal C) lateral D) medial E) horizontal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1  An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology   9

36) The chin is ________ to the nose. A) anterior B) superior C) posterior D) inferior E) medial Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

37) Which of the following regions corresponds to the buttocks? A) pelvic B) cephalic C) gluteal D) lumbar E) thoracic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

38) Which of the following terms refers to the foot? A) cervical B) brachial C) antebrachial D) femoral E) pedal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

39) Which plane divides the body into right and left parts? A) proximal B) frontal C) orthogonal D) transverse E) sagittal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

40) A midsagittal section of the body would pass through the A) kidney. B) lung. C) heart. D) spleen. E) leg. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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10   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

41) The plane that separates the abdominal and the pelvic cavities is A) the mediastinum. B) sagittal on the brachium. C) transverse at the hips. D) midsagittal on the trunk. E) superior to the thorax. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

42) Terms of anatomical direction are used to describe A) one body part in relation to another. B) surgical procedures. C) a supine position. D) the nervous system. E) living matter. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

43) While standing erect, the direction of caudal is A) toward the head. B) toward the heel. C) lateral to the trunk. D) medial to the sides. E) posterior to the head. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

44) While standing in the anatomical position, A) front refers to anterior. B) front refers to ventral. C) back refers to posterior. D) back refers to dorsal. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

45) The liver is primarily located in the ________ quadrant. A) right upper B) left upper C) right lower D) left lower E) hepatic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 1  An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology   11

46) The urinary bladder is found in the ________ quadrant and the ________ quadrant. A) right upper; right lower B) left upper; left lower C) left upper; right upper D) right lower; left lower Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

47) A person lying face down is in the ________ position. A) anatomical B) prone C) supine D) ventral E) prostrate Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

48) A person lying on the bed and gazing at the ceiling is in the ________ position. A) prone B) supine C) anatomical D) dorsal E) caudal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

49) The common term for the buccal region is the A) back. B) waist. C) breast. D) cheeks. E) buttocks. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

50) The common term for the carpal region is the A) wrist. B) fingers. C) ankle. D) shin. E) chest. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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12   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

51) The common name for the pollex is the A) ear lobe. B) belly. C) big toe. D) hand. E) thumb. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

52) The common name for the patella is the A) forehead. B) knee. C) heel. D) palm of the hand. E) chin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

53) A cut parallel to the midsagittal plane would produce a(n) ________ section. A) frontal B) transverse C) oblique D) parasagittal E) coronal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

54) The abdominopelvic region that is immediately superior to the umbilical region is the A) hypogastric region. B) left hypochondriac region. C) right inguinal region. D) epigastric region. E) left lumbar region. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

55) The abdominopelvic region that is immediately superior to the hypogastric region is the A) umbilical region. B) left hypochondriac region. C) right inguinal region. D) epigastric region. E) left lumbar region. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 1  An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology   13

56) The diaphragm muscle separates the ________ from the ________. A) pleural cavity; mediastinum B) thoracic cavity; abdominopelvic cavity C) pericardial cavity; pleural cavity D) abdominal cavity; pelvic cavity E) pericardial sac; pericardial cavity Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

57) The thoracic cavity contains the A) coelom. B) pericardial cavity. C) pelvic cavity. D) pleural cavities. E) pericardial and pleural cavities. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

58) The serous membrane covering the stomach and most of the intestines is called the A) pericardium. B) peritoneum. C) pleura. D) mediastinum. E) abdomen. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

59) Which of the following organs is described as retroperitoneal? A) stomach B) kidney C) urinary bladder D) large intestine E) spleen Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

60) The right pleural cavity contains A) the heart. B) the trachea. C) the left lung. D) the right lung. E) both lungs. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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14   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

61) Visceral pericardium is located A) on the heart itself. B) lining the pleural cavity. C) lining the pericardial cavity. D) on the lung itself. E) lining the peritoneal cavity. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

62) The mediastinum A) contains the pleural cavities. B) separates the pleural cavities. C) contains the pericardial cavity. D) contains the pleural cavities and pericardial cavity. E) separates the pleural cavities and includes the pericardial cavity. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

63) Identify the structure located within the mediastinum. A) pericardial cavity B) small intestine C) lung D) spleen E) stomach Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

64) Which of the following imaging techniques is used to monitor blood flow through specific organs, such as the brain, heart, lungs, and kidneys? A) PET scan B) ultrasound C) digital subtraction angiography D) MRI E) CT scan Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

65) The ________ is the membrane that covers the internal organs. A) parietal serosa B) visceral serosa C) mucous membrane D) cutaneous membrane E) serous membrane Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1  An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology   15

66) The ________ is the membrane that covers the inner surface of cavity walls. A) parietal serosa B) visceral serosa C) mucous membrane D) cutaneous membrane E) serous membrane Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

67) Which of the following imaging techniques causes particles within atoms to line up in uniform direction allowing the imaging of soft tissue? A) PET scan B) ultrasound C) digital subtraction angiography D) MRI E) CT scan Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

68) The imaging technique that assesses metabolic and physiological activity of a structure is called a A) PET scan. B) ultrasound. C) digital subtraction angiography. D) MRI. E) CT scan. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

69) The imaging technique that builds an image by using sound waves reflected by internal structures is called a A) PET scan. B) ultrasound. C) digital subtraction angiography. D) MRI. E) CT scan. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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16   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

70) The central principle of physiology is A) nutrition. B) reflexes. C) homeostasis. D) stimulation. E) temperature regulation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

71) The maintenance of a relatively constant internal environment in an organism is termed A) positive feedback. B) homeostasis. C) negative feedback. D) effector control. E) integration. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

72) The tendency for physiological systems to stabilize internal conditions is called A) self-regulation. B) homeostasis. C) equilibriosis. D) hemopoiesis. E) amplification. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

73) Homeostatic regulation usually involves a(n) ________ that detects a particular stimulus, and a(n) ________ that responds to the stimulus by communicating with a(n) ________ whose activity has an effect on the same stimulus. A) control center; effector; receptor B) receiver; communicator; effector C) receptor; control center; effector D) effector; receiver; communicator E) control center; receiver; effector Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 1  An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology   17

74) ________ results from the activities of the nervous or endocrine system. A) Self-regulation B) Automatic regulation C) Intrinsic regulation D) Extrinsic regulation E) Autoregulation Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

75) The process that occurs when a cell, tissue, organ, or organ system adjusts in response to some environmental change is A) negative feedback. B) positive feedback. C) homeostatic equilibrium. D) dynamic equilibrium. E) autoregulation. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

76) When body temperature rises, a center in the brain initiates physiological changes to decrease the body temperature. This is an example of A) negative feedback. B) positive feedback. C) nonhomeostatic regulation. D) diagnostic regulation. E) fever. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

77) A cell or an organ that responds to commands of the control center in negative feedback is termed a(n) A) receptor. B) thermoregulator. C) hypothalamus. D) effector. E) stimulus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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18   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

78) This type of feedback exaggerates the effects of variations from normal. A) negative B) positive C) neutral D) depressing E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

79) If a response decreases a disturbance, the control system is classified as a ________ feedback system. A) deficit B) negative C) neutral D) polarized E) positive Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

80) If a response increases a disturbance, the control system is classified as a ________ feedback system. A) deficit B) negative C) neutral D) polarized E) positive Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

81) An example of a receptor in a negative feedback loop controlling body temperature would be A) temperature sensors on the skin that detect a stimulus. B) sweat glands that increase secretion. C) regulatory centers that send commands to an effector. D) effectors that cause blood vessels to dilate. E) sweat glands that act like effectors. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 1  An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology   19

82) The integrating center for the negative feedback loop that regulates body temperature is the A) hypothalamus. B) skin. C) temperature sensor. D) positive feedback center. E) thermostat. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

83) Disease is an indicator of A) negative feedback. B) signs and symptoms. C) homeostatic failure. D) positive feedback. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

84) In ________ a stimulus produces a response that opposes or negates the original stimulus. A) negative feedback B) positive feedback C) homeostatic equilibrium D) dynamic equilibrium E) homeostasis Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

85) In ________ a stimulus produces a response that amplifies or enhances the original stimulus. A) negative feedback B) positive feedback C) homeostatic equilibrium D) dynamic equilibrium E) homeostasis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Are the following anatomical landmarks visible from the anterior or posterior view: dorsal, gluteal, calcaneal? (Figure 1-3) A) anterior B) posterior Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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20   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

2) In which abdominopelvic quadrant and region is the stomach predominantly found? (Figure 1-4) A) right upper quadrant and epigastric region B) left lower quadrant and umbilical region C) left upper quadrant and epigastric region D) right lower quadrant and umbilical region E) left lower quadrant and hypochondriac region Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) Using directional references for a person in anatomical position, how would you describe the relationship of the hand compared to the elbow? To the groin? (Figure 1 -5) A) proximal; medial B) proximal; posterior C) proximal; lateral D) distal; medial E) distal; lateral Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) Which plane separates the body into superior and inferior portions? Which plane separates the body into anterior and posterior portions? (Figure 1-6) A) transverse/horizontal; sagittal B) sagittal; transverse/horizontal C) frontal/coronal; sagittal D) transverse/horizontal; frontal/coronal E) frontal/coronal; transverse/horizontal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

5) If a personʹs body temperature gets too high, the body will respond by decreasing its temperature to restore homeostasis. What are some of the bodyʹs homeostatic responses to decrease body temperature? (Figure 1-9) A) blood vessels constrict, sweating increases B) blood vessels are not affected but sweating decreases C) blood vessels dilate, sweating increases D) shivering increases E) sweating decreases, shivering increases Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 1  An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology   21

Essay Questions 1) What is homeostatic regulation, and what is its physiological importance? Answer: Homeostatic regulation refers to adjustments in physiological systems that are responsible for the preservation of a constant internal environment. This enables cells to maintain metabolism and the chemical environment that stabilizes the living state. Learning Outcome: 1-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

2) During exercise, blood flow to skeletal muscles increases. The initial response that increases blood flow is automatic and independent of the nervous and endocrine systems. Which type of homeostatic regulation is this? Why? Answer: The initial increase in blood flow to active muscles is an example of autoregulation. For example, when oxygen levels decline in a tissue, the cells release chemicals that dilate local blood vessels. This dilation increases the rate of blood flow and provides more oxygen to the region even before responses from the nervous or endocrine system take place. Autoregulation does not require the nervous or endocrine system. Learning Outcome: 1-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

3) Name the organs found in the thoracic cavity. Answer: lungs, heart, trachea, esophagus, thymus, major blood vessels connected to the heart Learning Outcome: 1-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) Name the two upper abdominal quadrants and list the organs that lie in each. Answer: right upper quadrant (RUQ): right lobe of liver, gallbladder, right kidney, portions of stomach, large and small intestines; left upper quadrant (LUQ): left lobe of liver, stomach, pancreas, left kidney, spleen, portions of large intestine Learning Outcome: 1-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

5) Explain what dynamic equilibrium is and how it affects homeostasis. Answer: Dynamic equilibrium is defined by a system that is capable of adapting and adjusting to changing conditions in order to maintain a normal range of values.  In thermal regulation at equilibrium heat loss is equal to heat production.  As circumstances changing and our bodies experience more muscle contraction we increase heat production.  In order to maintain equilibrium the body must shed excess heat produced by the muscles so that heat loss and heat production are again equal or in equilibrium. Learning Outcome: 1-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 2

The Chemical Level of Organization

Multiple Choice Questions 1) The smallest stable units of matter are A) atoms. B) molecules. C) protons. D) neutrons. E) electrons. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) The ʺatomic numberʺ of an atom is determined by the number of ________ it has. A) electrons B) protons C) neutrons D) protons + neutrons E) protons + electrons Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) The ʺatomic weightʺ of an atom reflects the average number of A) protons. B) neutrons. C) electrons. D) protons + neutrons. E) protons + neutrons + electrons. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) One mole of any element has the same A) mass. B) weight. C) number of atoms. D) number of electrons. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 2  The Chemical Level of Organization   23

5) The nucleus of an atom consists of A) electrons. B) protons. C) neutrons. D) protons + neutrons. E) protons + electrons. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) Isotopes of an element differ in the number of A) protons in the nucleus. B) electrons in the nucleus. C) neutrons in the nucleus. D) electron clouds. E) electrons in energy shells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) The innermost electron shell in an atom holds up to ________ electrons. A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 E) 8 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

8) Radioisotopes have unstable A) ions. B) nuclei. C) isotopes. D) electron clouds. E) protons. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

9) By weight, which element is the most plentiful in the human body? A) sulfur B) sodium C) oxygen D) potassium E) carbon Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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24   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

10) Which of these lists contains only trace elements? A) sulfur, chlorine, oxygen B) selenium, hydrogen, calcium C) boron, oxygen, carbon D) silicon, fluorine, tin E) cobalt, calcium, sodium Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

11) Helium (HE) has an atomic number of 2. It is chemically stable because it A) is neutral in electrical charge. B) readily ionizes to react with other atoms. C) has a full outer electron shell. D) will form a covalent bond with another He atom. E) lacks electrons, thus the He atom is stable. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

12) Which element commonly has only a proton as its nucleus? A) helium B) neon C) argon D) hydrogen E) carbon Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

13) By weight, which element is the second most abundant in the human body? A) oxygen B) carbon C) hydrogen D) nitrogen E) calcium Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

14) In any given molecule, the sum of the atomic weights of its component atoms is called A) molecular mass. B) molecular weight. C) atomic mass. D) atomic weight. E) chemical mass. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 2  The Chemical Level of Organization   25

15) Given the following approximate values, calculate the molecular weight for NaCl. Atomic number for Na: 11, Atomic weight for Na: 23 g/mol, Atomic number for Cl: 17,Atomic weight for Cl: 35 g/mol, Boiling point for Cl: -34 °C A) 11 g/mol B) 28 g/mol C) 34 g/mol D) 40 g/mol E) 58 g/mol Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

16) If an isotope of oxygen has 8 protons, 10 neutrons, and 8 electrons, its mass number is A) 26. B) 16. C) 18. D) 8. E) 12. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

17) If an element is composed of atoms with an atomic number of 6 and a mass number of 14, then a non-isotopic atom of this element contains A) 6 protons. B) 8 electrons. C) 8 neutrons. D) 6 protons and 8 electrons. E) 6 protons and 8 neurons. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

18) A(n) ________ is a pure substance composed of atoms of only one kind. A) element B) macromolecule C) ion D) isotope E) compound Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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26   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

19) The center of an atom is called the A) core. B) hub. C) middle point. D) nucleus. E) focus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

20) Electrons whirl around the center of the atom at high speed, forming a(n) A) spiral. B) figure 8. C) cylinder. D) electron cloud. E) helix. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

21) Electrons in an atom occupy an orderly series of electron shells or A) energy levels. B) electron clouds. C) energy circles. D) electron lanes. E) energy fields. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

22) The actual mass of an atom is known as its A) chemical weight. B) atomic weight. C) atomic mass. D) chemical mass. E) chemical force. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

23) Atoms of the same element whose nuclei contain the same number of protons, but different numbers of neutrons, are called A) isotonics. B) heterotopes. C) isotopes. D) homotopes. E) heterotonics. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 2  The Chemical Level of Organization   27

24) The ________ of a radioactive substance is the time required for 50 percent of a given amount of radioisotope to decay. A) decay-point B) mid-life C) deterioration point D) half-life E) entropy Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

25) The molecule NO is known as A) nitric oxide. B) noxious oxide. C) noxious oxygen. D) nitric oxygen. E) nitrous oxide. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

26) The molecule CO2  is known as A) carbonized oxygen. B) carbonated oxygen. C) carbon monoxide. D) carbon oxide. E) carbon dioxide. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

27) The molecule H 2  is known as A) hydrohydrogen. B) hydrogen. C) hydroxide. D) helium. E) semi-water. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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28   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

28) When electrons are transferred from one atom to another, and the two atoms unite as a result of the opposite charges, a(n) ________ is formed. A) ion B) molecule C) hydrogen bond D) ionic bond E) covalent bond Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

29) Magnesium atoms have two electrons in the outermost shell. As a result, you would expect magnesium to form ions with a charge of A) +1. B) +2. C) -1. D) -2. E) either +2 or -2. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

30) Which of the following statements about hydrogen bonds is false? A) Hydrogen bonds are strong attractive forces between hydrogen atoms and negatively charged atoms. B) Hydrogen bonds can occur within a single molecule. C) Hydrogen bonds can form between neighboring molecules. D) Hydrogen bonds are important for holding large molecules together. E) Hydrogen bonds are responsible for many of the properties of water. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

31) The molecule O2  is known as A) oxide. B) oxygen. C) organic. D) oxate. E) a salt. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 2  The Chemical Level of Organization   29

32) H2 O is an example of a(n) A) ionic formula. B) glucose molecule. C) compound. D) ion. E) covalent formula. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

33) Which of the following is not a cation? A) Na+ B) ClC) K+ D) Ca2+ E) Mg 2+ Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

34) A dust particle floating on a water surface illustrates A) surface tension. B) chemical tension. C) static electricity. D) heat capacity. E) hydrophilic attraction. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

35) In an aqueous solution, cations are attracted toward A) sodium. B) salt. C) buffers. D) anions. E) hydrogen ions. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

36) In an aqueous solution, sodium ions would move toward A) a negative terminal. B) a positive terminal. C) a pH terminal. D) an organic terminal. E) the bottom. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

30   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

37) The chemical behavior of an atom is determined by the A) number of protons. B) number of neutrons. C) outermost electron shell. D) size of the atom. E) mass of the nucleus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

38) Ions with a + charge are called A) cations. B) anions. C) radicals. D) positrons. E) isotopes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

39) When atoms complete their outer electron shell by sharing electrons, they form A) ionic bonds. B) covalent bonds. C) hydrogen bonds. D) anions. E) cations. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

40) Ionic bonds are formed when A) atoms share electrons. B) an electron or electrons are completely transferred from one atom to another. C) a pair of electrons is shared unequally by two atoms. D) hydrogen forms bonds with negatively charged atoms. E) two or more atoms lose electrons at the same time. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

41) If a pair of electrons is unequally shared between two atoms, a(n) ________ bond occurs. A) single covalent B) double covalent C) triple covalent D) polar covalent E) hydrogen Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 2  The Chemical Level of Organization   31

42) Elements that have atoms with full outer shells of electrons A) will form many compounds. B) will normally form anions. C) will normally form cations. D) frequently form hydrogen bonds. E) are inert gases. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

43) Ions in an ionic molecule are held together due to A) the sharing of electrons. B) the attraction of opposite electrical charges. C) each electron orbiting all of the ions in the molecule. D) the presence of water molecules. E) the attraction of similar charges of the ionsʹ protons. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

44) Sodium (NA) has an atomic number of 11. How many electrons are in the outer electron shell of a neutral sodium atom? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 8 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

45) Oxygen (atomic number 8) requires how many additional electrons to fill its outer electron shell? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 E) 8 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

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32   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

46) The formula for methane gas is CH 4 . What does the formula 4CH 4 represent? A) a molecule with 4 carbon atoms B) a molecule with 4 carbon atoms and 16 hydrogen atoms C) 4 molecules, each containing a carbon and a hydrogen atom D) 4 molecules, each containing a carbon atom and 4 hydrogen atoms E) an inorganic compound with ionic bonds Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

47) In an ionic bond, the electron donor is the ________, whereas the electron acceptor is the ________. A) acid; base B) salt; ion C) anion; cation D) base; acid E) cation; anion Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

48) In a molecule of nitrogen, three pairs of electrons are shared by two nitrogen atoms. The type of bond that is formed is an example of a ________ bond. A) single trivalent B) double divalent C) triple covalent D) polar covalent E) hydrogen Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

49) In chemical notation, the symbol Ca 2+  means A) two calcium atoms. B) a calcium ion that has lost two electrons. C) a calcium ion that has gained two protons. D) a calcium ion that has gained two electrons. E) a calcium ion that has lost two protons. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 2  The Chemical Level of Organization   33

50) Magnesium atoms have two electrons in the outermost shell and chlorine atoms have seven. The compound magnesium chloride would contain A) 1 magnesium and 1 chlorine. B) 1 magnesium and 2 chlorine. C) 2 magnesium and 1 chlorine. D) 2 magnesium and 7 chlorine. E) impossible to tell without more information Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

51) Ions with a negative charge are called A) cations. B) anions. C) radicals. D) positrons. E) isotopes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

52) The three familiar states of matter are solids, liquids, and A) globules. B) fibroids. C) gases. D) crystals. E) vapors. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

53) A molecule that has unpaired electrons is a(n) A) isotope. B) free radical. C) ion. D) triple bonded molecule. E) compound. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

54) Cumulative damage from reactive ________ is thought to be a major factor in aging. A) nitrogen B) double bonds C) isotopes D) free radicals E) helium Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

34   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

55) Oxygen, which forms naturally as two atoms, are bonded together with what type of bond? A) nonpolar covalent bond B) single covalent bond C) polar covalent bond D) ionic bond E) hydrogen bond Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

56) The electrostatic attraction between the slight positive charge of a hydrogen of one molecule and the slight negative charge of an oxygen, nitrogen, or fluorine of another molecule is called a(n) A) nonpolar covalent bond. B) single covalent bond. C) polar covalent bond. D) ionic bond. E) hydrogen bond. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

57) AB → A + B is to decomposition as A + B → AB is to A) exchange. B) synthesis. C) combustion. D) replacement. E) metabolism. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

58) The reaction A + B + energy → AB is an example of a(n) ________ reaction. A) exergonic B) endergonic C) equilibrium D) decomposition E) exchange Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 2  The Chemical Level of Organization   35

59) In hydrolysis reactions, compounds react with A) hydrogen, causing decomposition. B) glucose, causing decomposition. C) water, causing decomposition. D) carbon, causing decomposition. E) water, causing synthesis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

60) In dehydration synthesis reactions, compounds A) lose water molecules. B) gain water molecules. C) convert water molecules to hydrogen and oxygen. D) convert hydrogen and oxygen to water. E) gain electrons. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

61) Kinetic energy is stored as ________ energy when a spring is stretched or compressed. A) potential B) possible C) plausible D) probable E) positive Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

62) Stored energy that has the ability to do work is called A) kinetic energy. B) heat energy. C) light energy. D) potential energy. E) dark energy. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

63) The energy of motion is A) kinetic energy. B) heat energy. C) light energy. D) potential energy. E) dark energy. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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36   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

64) Collectively, reactions that break down molecules are known as A) anabolism. B) metabolism. C) synthesis reactions. D) exchange reactions. E) catabolism. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

65) Collectively, reactions that build new molecules are known as A) anabolic. B) metabolic. C) synthetic reactions. D) exchange reactions. E) catabolic. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

66) The reaction HCl → H+ + Cl- is what type of reaction? A) decomposition B) exchange C) hydrolysis D) synthesis E) reversible Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

67) The reaction H2CO3 ↔ H+ + HCO3 is what type of reaction? A) decomposition B) exchange C) hydrolysis D) synthesis E) reversible Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

68) The reaction HCl + NaOH → H2O + NaCl is what type of reaction? A) decomposition B) exchange C) hydrolysis D) synthesis E) reversible Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 2  The Chemical Level of Organization   37

69) Chemical reactions that yield energy, such as heat, are said to be A) endergonic. B) activated. C) exergonic. D) neutral. E) thermonuclear. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

70) Which of the following descriptors is false regarding enzymes? A) They are proteins. B) They function as biological catalysts. C) They lower the activation energy required for a reaction. D) They affect only the rate of a chemical reaction. E) They are consumed during the reaction. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

71) Chemical reactions that absorb energy are called A) exergonic. B) endergonic. C) equilibrial. D) decomposition. E) exchange. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

72) Chemical reactions that occur in the body are accelerated by A) vitamins. B) cofactors. C) hormones. D) electrons. E) enzymes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

73) In living cells, complex metabolic reactions proceed in a series of steps called A) maneuvers. B) degrees. C) pathways. D) increments. E) cascades. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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38   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

74) Activation energy is A) the energy of motion. B) stored energy. C) the same as heat energy. D) the energy in chemical bonds. E) the energy needed to start a reaction. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

75) Each of the following is an inorganic compound except A) water. B) acids. C) bases. D) salts. E) carbohydrates. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

76) Which of the following is both an anion and a compound? A) Na+ B) ClC) K+ D) HCO3 E) NaCl Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

77) Compounds that contain carbon as the primary structural atom are called ________ molecules. A) carbonic B) organic C) inorganic D) catabolic E) anabolic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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78) Compounds that do not usually contain carbon and hydrogen atoms as the primary structural ingredients are called ________ molecules. A) non-carbonic B) organic C) hydro-carbonic D) metabolic E) inorganic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

79) Nonpolar organic molecules are good examples of A) electrolytes. B) molecules that will dissociate when placed into water. C) hydrophobic compounds. D) hydrophilic compounds. E) solutes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

80) During ionization, water molecules disrupt the ionic bonds of a salt to produce a mixture of ions. These ions can carry a current and so are called A) cations. B) anions. C) acids. D) electrolytes. E) counterions. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

81) Oppositely charged ions in solution are prevented from combining by A) heat capacity of water. B) hydration spheres. C) waterʹs nonpolar nature. D) free radicals. E) hydrogen bonding. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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40   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

82) Hydrophilic molecules readily associate with A) lipid molecules. B) hydrophobic molecules. C) water molecules. D) acids. E) salts. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

83) Which of the following statements about water is false? A) It is composed of polar molecules. B) It is responsible for much of the mass of the human body. C) It has a relatively low heat capacity. D) It can dissolve many substances. E) It contains hydrogen bonds. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

84) Which property of water helps keeps body temperature stabilized? A) kinetic energy B) lubrication C) surface tension D) reactivity E) thermal inertia Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

85) Soluble inorganic compounds whose solutions will conduct an electric current are called A) electrolytes. B) ions. C) isotopes. D) free radicals. E) metabolites. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

86) A(n) ________ is a homogeneous mixture containing a solvent and a solute. A) emulsion B) blend C) compound D) infusion E) solution Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 2  The Chemical Level of Organization   41

87) Molecules that do not readily interact with water are called A) inert. B) stable. C) hydrophobic. D) unstable. E) hydrophilic. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

88) Muddy lake water is an example of a(n) A) colloid. B) suspension. C) solute. D) solvent. E) solution. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

89) Water has the ability to dissolve polar covalent molecules like sucrose by A) forming hydration spheres around the molecule. B) pulling atoms out of the molecule and into solution. C) creating crystals of positively and negatively charged atoms. D) taking electrons from the polar covalent molecule. E) ionization. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

90) Which of the following has the highest concentration of hydroxide ions? A) pH 1 B) pH 14 C) pH 7 D) pH 10 E) pH 2 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

91) Which pH is closest to normal body pH? A) pH 7 B) pH 8 C) pH 4 D) pH 3 E) pH 2 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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42   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

92) An excess of hydrogen ions in the body fluids can have fatal results because this can A) break chemical bonds. B) change the shape of proteins, rendering them nonfunctional. C) disrupt tissue functions. D) change body fluid pH. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

93) A solution containing equal numbers of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions is A) acidic. B) basic. C) neutral. D) alkaline. E) in equilibrium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

94) The chemical notation that indicates concentration is represented as A) (). B) . C) [ ]. D) {}. E) ||. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

95) If a substance has a pH that is greater than 7, it is A) neutral. B) acidic. C) alkaline. D) a buffer. E) a salt. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

96) An important buffer in body fluids is A) NaCl. B) NaOH. C) HCl. D) NaHCO 3 . E) H2 O. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 2  The Chemical Level of Organization   43

97) Which of the following substances would be most acidic? A) lemon juice, pH = 2 B) urine, pH = 6 C) tomato juice, pH = 4 D) white wine, pH = 3 E) stomach secretions, pH = 1 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

98) Of the following choices, the pH of the least acidic solution is A) 6.0. B) 4.5. C) 2.3. D) 1.0. E) 12.0. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

99) Which has the greater concentration of hydrogen ions, a substance with a pH of 5 or a substance with a pH of 4? A) A pH of 4 is greater. B) A pH of 5 is greater. C) They are both equal; 4 and 5 are relative values. D) pH 9, if you mixed the solutions. E) There is not enough information to determine the answer. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

100) The ________ of a solution is the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration expressed in moles per liter. A) charge B) pH C) solubility D) acidity E) basicity Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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44   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

101) What is the [H + ] in pure water? A) 1X10-7  mol/L B) 1X10-14 mol/L C) 7 mol/L D) 1X107  mol/L E) 1X1014 mol/L Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

102) What is the pH of a solution with a [H + ]=1X10-7  mol/L? A) 2 B) 7.4 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8.2 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

103) If the pH of the stomach is 2 what is the [H + ]? A) 1X10-2 mol/L B) .2 mol/L C) 200 mol/L D) 2 mol/L E) .10 mol/L Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

104) A(n) ________ removes hydrogen ions and a(n) ________ releases hydrogen ions. A) acid; base B) base; acid C) compound; element D) element; compound E) molecule; acid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 2  The Chemical Level of Organization   45

105) In the body, inorganic compounds A) can serve as buffers. B) can make up proteins. C) are made from organic compounds. D) are structural components of cells. E) are metabolized for cellular energy. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

106) When placed in water, an inorganic compound dissociates 99 percent, forming hydrogen ions and anions. This compound would be a A) strong base. B) weak base. C) strong acid. D) weak acid. E) salt. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

107) When a small amount of HCl or NaOH is added to a solution of Na 2 HPO4 , the pH of the solution barely changes. Based on these observations, all of the following are true concerning the compound Na 2 HPO4 , except A) Na2 HPO4 is able to accept extra hydrogen ions from the HCl. B) Na2 HPO4 is able to donate hydrogen ions to the OH -  from NaOH. C) Na2 HPO4 adsorbs excess H+  and OH -  directly onto the surface of its crystalline structure. D) Na2 HPO4 is a salt formed from reacting a strong base with a weak acid. E) Na2 HPO4 acts as a buffer. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

108) Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are classified as A) organic molecules. B) inorganic molecules. C) acids. D) salts. E) bases. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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46   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

109) A functional group is best described as reoccurring clusters of A) elements that occur in a salt and that can neither be hydrolyzed nor dehydrated. B) atoms that form the main reactive area for a particular compound. C) atoms that function in the body even if temperatures and pH reach extreme values. D) elements that form at high pH and who can successfully resist the action of buffers. E) amino acids in a globular protein such as hemoglobin, immunoglobulins, and albumins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

110) To bond two monomers together, a molecule of water must be ________ to/from monomers. This process is called ________. A) added; hydrolysis B) removed; dehydration synthesis C) removed; crenation D) added; denaturation E) added; ionization Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

111) Which of the following functional groups is the hydroxyl group? A) -NH2 B) -PO4 C) -COOH D) -SH E) -OH Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

112) Which of the following functional groups is the carboxyl group? A) -NH2 B) -PO4 C) -COOH D) -SH E) -OH Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 2  The Chemical Level of Organization   47

113) Which of the following functional groups is the phosphate group? A) -NH2 B) -PO4 C) -COOH D) -SH E) -OH Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

114) Fructose is A) a hexose. B) an isomer of glucose. C) found in male reproductive fluids. D) a carbohydrate. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

115) Molecules that have the same molecular formula but different structural formulas are called A) isotopes. B) isomers. C) isozymes. D) isotypes. E) isomoles. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

116) The most important metabolic fuel molecule in the body is A) sucrose. B) caffeine. C) protein. D) vitamins. E) glucose. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

117) A polysaccharide that is formed in liver and muscle cells to store glucose is A) lactose. B) cellulose. C) glycogen. D) sucrose. E) fructose. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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48   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

118) The group of organic compounds containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a near 1:2:1 ratio is defined as a A) carbohydrate. B) lipid. C) protein. D) nucleic acid. E) saturated fat. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

119) Carbohydrate molecules A) are the building blocks of cellular membranes. B) form the regulatory molecules known as enzymes. C) are the bodyʹs most readily available source of energy. D) are composed of C, H, O, and N atoms. E) contain the genetic information found in cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

120) When two monosaccharides undergo a dehydration synthesis, A) two new monosaccharides are formed. B) a disaccharide is formed. C) a polysaccharide is formed. D) a starch is formed. E) hydrolysis occurs. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

121) ________ is a type of indigestible polysaccharide. A) Glycogen B) Starch C) Cellulose D) Sucrose E) Galactose Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

122) Lipids A) form essential structural components of cells. B) provide a significant energy reserve. C) help to maintain body temperature. D) cushion organs against shocks. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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123) A fatty acid that contains two or more double covalent bonds is said to be A) saturated. B) monounsaturated. C) polyunsaturated. D) hydrogenated. E) carboxylated. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

124) Which of the following is/are needed to form a triglyceride molecule? A) 3 glycerol molecules B) 1 glycerol molecule C) 3 fatty acid molecules D) 3 glycerol molecules and 3 fatty acid molecules E) 3 fatty acid molecules and 1 glycerol molecule Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

125) A shortage of steroids in the body would result in a shortage of A) sex hormones. B) proteins. C) plasma membranes. D) glycogen. E) sex hormones and plasma membranes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

126) Lipids that are produced by nearly every tissue in the body and act as local regulators are the A) prostaglandins. B) steroids. C) monoglycerides. D) phospholipids. E) glycolipids. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

127) Cholesterol, phospholipids, and glycolipids are examples of A) dietary fats. B) prostaglandins. C) structural lipids. D) lipid drugs. E) steroids. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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50   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

128) A fatty acid with no double bonds between carbon atoms is A) unsaturated. B) polyunsaturated. C) dehydrated. D) saturated. E) denatured. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

129) Many lipids are composed of fatty acids and A) glycerol. B) amino acids. C) sugars. D) monosaccharides. E) polypeptides. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

130) All fatty acids contain a functional group at one end called the ________ acid group. A) linoleic B) ribonucleic C) hydroxyl D) glycosidic E) carboxylic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

131) Molecules with two fatty acid chains and a phosphate group that form biological membranes are called A) diglycerides. B) disaccharides. C) dipeptides. D) prostaglandins. E) phospholipids. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

132) In water, phospholipids tend to form tiny droplets with hydrophobic tails buried inside called A) micelles. B) chylomicrons. C) glycocalyces. D) eicosanoids. E) hydroceles. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 2  The Chemical Level of Organization   51

133) Which of the following is not a function of triglycerides? A) They are a reserve and important source of energy. B) They help insulate against heat loss in cold climates. C) They help protect organs by creating a cushion around the organ. D) They act as a reserve for lipid soluble vitamins. E) They act as a structural component of plasma membranes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

134) Which of the following is not a function of steroids? A) They are a significant energy reserve for the body. B) They are structural components of the plasm membrane. C) They are involved in regulation of sexual function. D) They regulate tissue metabolism and mineral balance. E) They are required for normal processing of dietary fats. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

135) Which of the following are functions of proteins? A) support B) defense C) metabolic regulation D) buffering E) All of these are functions of proteins. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

136) The monomers of protein are A) glucose. B) fatty acids. C) amino acids. D) nucleotides. E) nitrogen base. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

137) Substrate molecules bind to enzymes at the ________ sites. A) amino B) active C) carboxyl D) reactant E) neutral Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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52   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

138) The term ________ refers to certain amino acids, which can have both a positive charge and a negative charge. A) anion B) cation C) twinion D) zwitterion E) double ion Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

139) You would expect a peptide bond to link A) two simple sugars. B) two amino acids. C) two nucleotides. D) a sugar and a peptide. E) a peptide and a fatty acid. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

140) Each amino acid differs from another in the A) number of central carbon atoms. B) size of the amino group. C) number of carboxyl groups. D) nature of the side chain. E) number of peptide bonds in the molecule. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

141) A side chain on an amino acid is sometimes called A) fibrous or globular. B) a polypeptide chain. C) an R group. D) an isozyme. E) nucleic acid. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

142) The alpha-helix and beta sheet are examples of ________ protein structure. A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary E) pentanary Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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143) Interaction between individual polypeptide chains to form a protein complex is ________ structure. A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary E) pentagonal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

144) Glycoproteins and proteoglycans are combinations of amino acids and A) carbohydrates. B) fatty acids. C) lipids. D) nucleic acids. E) inorganic compounds. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

145) Which of the following is the symbol for an amino group? A) -COOH B) -PO3 C) -NH2 D) -AMO E) -OH Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

146) The maximum rate of an enzyme reaction A) occurs during dehydration. B) occurs during hydrolysis. C) occurs during synthesis. D) is reversible. E) occurs at the saturation limit. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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54   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

147) How would the lack of a cofactor for an enzyme affect that enzymeʹs function? A) The enzymeʹs function would not be altered. B) The enzyme would function more slowly. C) The enzyme would function more quickly. D) The enzyme would not be able to function. E) The enzyme would cease to function after reaching a maximum rate. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

148) Identify the correct statement regarding the process of denaturation. A) It is affected by low temperatures. B) It is unaffected by changes in pH. C) It is the loss of protein structure. D) It is an increase in enzyme activity. E) It results in decreased substrate availability. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

149) ________ structure results primarily from hydrophobic and hydrophilic interactions between the R-groups of the polypeptide chain and water. A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary E) Pentanary Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

150) In tertiary structure the ________ bond is formed between two cysteine amino acids. A) hydrophilic B) hydrophobic C) hydrogen D) ionic E) disulfide Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

151) Mucins are a type of ________ that absorb water to form mucus. A) glycolipid B) glycoprotein C) proteoglycan D) glyceride E) glycerol Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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152) Molecules that store and process genetic information are the A) proteins. B) nucleic acids. C) carbohydrates. D) lipids. E) steroids. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-13 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

153) An amino acid is to a protein as a ________ is to a nucleic acid. A) purine B) nucleotide C) protein D) proton E) neutron Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-13 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

154) A nucleotide consists of a A) five-carbon sugar and phosphate group. B) five-carbon sugar and a nitrogenous base. C) phosphate group and a nitrogenous base. D) five-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group. E) five-carbon sugar and an amino acid. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-13 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

155) According to the rules of complementary base pairing in nucleic acids, cytosine would pair with the base A) thymine. B) adenine. C) uracil. D) cytosine. E) guanine. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-13 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

156) Adenine and guanine are A) purines represented by T and C. B) pyrimidines represented by A and G. C) purines represented by A and G. D) pyrimidines represented by T and C. E) nucleotides represented by A and G. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-13 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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157) The structure of RNA differs from DNA in that A) the backbone of RNA contains ribose. B) RNA contains pyrimidines but not purines. C) RNA contains purines but not pyrimidines. D) DNA contains pyrimidines but not purines. E) DNA contains purines but not pyrimidines. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-13 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

158) The molecule DNA contains a five-carbon sugar called A) glucose. B) fructose. C) maltose. D) ribose. E) deoxyribose. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-13 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

159) The three structural components of a nucleotide are a pentose, a phosphate group, and a ________ base. A) nucleic B) hydrophilic C) hydrochloric D) nitrogenous E) sulfuric Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-13 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

160) The purines found in DNA are ________ and guanine. A) cytosine B) adenine C) thymine D) uracil E) niacin Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-13 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

161) The pyrimidine bases found in DNA are ________ and cytosine. A) cytosine B) adenine C) thymine D) uracil E) niacin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-13 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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162) The most abundant high-energy compound in cells is A) DNA. B) adenosine diphosphate. C) adenosine monophosphate. D) adenosine triphosphate. E) RNA. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-14 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

163) A high-energy bond in ATP is present between A) adenine and ribose. B) adenine and a phosphate group. C) the first and second phosphate group. D) the second and third phosphate group. E) phosphate groups 1 and 2 and between phosphate groups 2 and 3. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-14 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

164) The phosphorylation of adenosine forms A) ADP. B) ATP. C) AMP. D) 2ATP. E) ribose. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-14 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

165) Identify the product formed from the phosphorylation of ADP. A) adenosine diphosphate B) adenine C) adenosine triphosphate D) deoxyribonucleic acid E) ribose Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-14 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

166) AMP + P → A) ADP. B) 2ADP. C) DNA. D) ATP. E) adenine. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-14 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

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167) A(n) ________ bond is a covalent bond that stores an unusually large amount of energy. A) forceful B) charged C) excitable D) power E) high-energy Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-14 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

168) In the process of ________ a phosphate group is transferred to a molecule. A) ionization B) buffering C) amination D) dissociation E) phosphorylation Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2-14 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

169) The hydrolysis of ATP yields ADP, phosphate ion, and A) AMP. B) H2O. C) energy. D) adenosine. E) nuclease. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-14 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) How many electrons can the second energy level hold when it is completely filled? (Figure 2-3) A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 10 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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2) Hydrogen bonds do not form between two hydrogen atoms. Where do hydrogen bonds form? (Figure 2-8) A) between the slight positive charge on the hydrogen atom and the slight negative charge on the oxygen atom B) between the slight negative charge on the hydrogen atom and the slight positive charge on the oxygen atom C) between the slight positive charge on the sodium atom and the slight negative charge on the chlorine atom D) between the slight negative charge on the sodium atom and the slight negative charge on the chlorine atom E) between two ions Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) Which number represents the greatest amount of energy that must be overcome during the reaction? Which number represents the lowest amount of reaction energy? (Figure 2 -9) A) 1; 2 B) 1; 4 C) 4; 2 D) 2; 4 E) 4; 3 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

4) How many atoms are shown in each glucose structure? (Figure 2-12) A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 10 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

5) What type of bond does an unsaturated fatty acid contain that a saturated fatty acid does not? (Figure 2-15) A) at least 4 single covalent bonds B) at least one double covalent bond C) an ionic bond D) a hydrogen bond E) at least one triple covalent bond Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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6) What makes fatty acid 3 an unsaturated fatty acid? (Figure 2-17) A) the presence of only single covalent bonds B) the presence of a double covalent bond C) the presence of an ionic bond D) the presence of a hydrogen bond E) the presence of a triple covalent bond Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) What structural differences make adenine and guanine different from cytosine, thymine, and uracil? (Figure 2-24) A) Adenine and guanine have a phosphate group, while cytosine, thymine, and uracil do not. B) Adenine and guanine do not have a phosphate group, while cytosine, thymine, and uracil do. C) Adenine and guanine are double-ringed nitrogenous bases, while cytosine, thymine, and uracil are single-ringed. D) Adenine and guanine are single-ringed nitrogenous bases, while cytosine, thymine, and uracil are double-ringed. E) Adenine and guanine have ribose as the sugar, while cytosine, thymine, and uracil have deoxyribose. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2-13 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) How many phosphorylations does AMP undergo to become ATP? (Figure 2-26) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2-14 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 2  The Chemical Level of Organization   61

Essay Questions 1) The element sulfur has an atomic number of 16 and mass number of 32. How many neutrons are in the nucleus of a sulfur atom? If sulfur forms covalent bonds with hydrogen, how many hydrogen atoms can bond to one sulfur atom? Answer: The number of neutrons in an atom is equal to the mass number minus the atomic number. Thus, sulfur has 32 - 16 = 16 neutrons. The atomic number indicates the number of protons, so a neutral sulfur atom contains 16 protons plus 16 electrons to balance the protons electrically. The electrons would be distributed as follows: 2 in the first electron shell, 8 in the second, and the remaining 6 in the third. To achieve a full 8 electrons in the third (outermost) electron shell, the sulfur atom can accept 2 electrons in an ionic bond or can share 2 electrons in a covalent bond. Because hydrogen atoms can share one electron in a covalent bond, the sulfur atom can form two covalent bonds with hydrogen, one with each of two hydrogen atoms. In chemical notation, this is H 2 S. Learning Outcome: 2-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

2) What role do buffer systems play in the human body? Answer: Buffer systems help maintain pH within normal limits by removing or replacing hydrogen ions as needed. Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

3) Blood has a very narrow normal pH range but urine has a very broad normal pH range. What does that indicate about the physiology of pH? Answer: Homeostasis requires that the pH of body fluids be maintained almost constant to avoid disruptions of healthy function. To accomplish this, the urinary system eliminates or retains hydrogen ion as needed. These actions cause the pH of urine to vary widely, depending on whether there is too much or not enough hydrogen ion in the body. Learning Outcome: 2-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

4) Explain the role of water molecules in polysaccharide formation. Answer: Water molecules are removed in the dehydration synthesis of polysaccharides. Learning Outcome: 2-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

5) How does the DNA molecule control the appearance and function of a cell? Answer: The DNA molecule controls the synthesis of enzymes and structural proteins. By controlling the synthesis of structural proteins, the DNA is able to influence the physical appearance of a cell. By controlling the production of enzymes, the DNA is able to control all aspects of cellular metabolism and thus control the activity and biological functions of the cell. Learning Outcome: 2-12 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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6) Explain three physiological benefits that are a result of the heat capacity of water. Answer: First, because water requires a large amount of heat to break the hydrogens bonds and vaporize the resulting benefit is that water is a liquid over a broad range of temperatures allowing physiological reactions to function. Second, because water absorbs a lot of heat before it vaporizes, as perspiration evaporates from the skin it takes with it a lot of heat thereby providing us with a mechanism for cooling.  Third, because water requires a large amount of heat to change temperature, large bodies of water will change temperature slowly.  This means that the water in the body will be slow to change overall and will provide a thermally stabilizing effect around which we can maintain our core body temperature. Learning Outcome: 2-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 3

The Cellular Level of Organization

Multiple Choice Questions 1) What is an advantage of the electron microscope over the compound light microscope? A) It can function in complete darkness. B) It is older, more reliable technology. C) It is less expensive. D) It allows much greater magnification of a specimen. E) It is portable. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

2) The smallest living unit within the human body is A) a protein. B) a cell. C) a tissue. D) an organ. E) an organ system. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) The cell theory includes all of these concepts except A) each cell maintains homeostasis at the cellular level. B) cells are the smallest units that carry out the essential functions of life. C) cells are the building blocks of all organisms. D) all cells come from the division of preexisting cells. E) every cell is capable of living on its own if isolated from the body. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

4) The only kind of cell in the body that is not produced by the division of preexisting cells is A) a gamete (sperm or egg cell). B) a neuron (nerve cell). C) an osteocyte (bone cell). D) none, because every cell is produced by the division of another cell. E) a liver cell. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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5) What would be an example of a cell maintaining homeostasis at the cellular level? A) a cell of the intestine secretes digestive enzymes B) a muscle cell contracts C) a sperm fertilizes an egg D) a cell takes up potassium to maintain the proper cytoplasmic potassium concentration E) a cell divides to become two cells Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

6) Cytology is the study of A) biological macromolecules. B) causes and treatment of cancer. C) the origins of life on Earth. D) genes and their function. E) the structure and function of cells. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) ________ cells are all of the cells of the body except the reproductive cells (sperm and oocytes). A) Core B) Somatic C) Corpus D) Main E) Primary Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) Most cells have only one A) nucleus. B) ribosome. C) peroxisome. D) lysosome. E) mitochondrion. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

9) The extracellular fluid in most tissues is called ________ fluid. A) interstitial B) cytosolic C) cytoplasmic D) outside E) peripheral Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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10) What is a structure that separates the contents of a human cell from its surrounding medium? A) cell wall B) tissue C) plasma membrane D) skin E) nucleus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

11) If a hole is torn in a cellʹs plasma membrane, the cell will die because A) it will not be able to maintain differences between the cytoplasm and extracellular fluid. B) germs are attracted toward cytoplasm leaking from a cell. C) it will not be able to undergo cell division. D) its chromosomes will not be held in place. E) cells can only make more plasma membrane during cell division. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

12) What is the first part of the cell that is affected when the pH of extracellular fluid changes? A) the nucleus B) the nucleolus C) the cytosol D) the plasma membrane E) the cytoskeleton Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

13) How is the plasma membrane involved in structural support of body tissues? A) It has specialized connections to other cells or extracellular materials. B) It primarily consists of fibrous proteins. C) It is inflated by cytoplasm at high pressure. D) Tissues are largely composed of empty plasma membranes left by dead cells. E) It is hydrophobic, so it repels extracellular fluid and attracts the membranes of other cells. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

14) Functions of the plasma membrane include all of the following except A) separation of the cytoplasm from the extracellular fluid. B) regulation of exchange of materials with the extracellular environment. C) sensitivity to chemical changes in the extracellular fluid. D) thermal insulation. E) structural support. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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15) Which of the following is not a function of membrane proteins? A) bind to ligands B) regulate the passage of ions C) act as carrier molecules for various solutes D) act as anchors or stabilizers for the cell membrane E) store cellular nutrients Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

16) Most of the surface area of a plasma membrane consists of A) a protein bilayer. B) a phospholipid bilayer. C) carbohydrate molecules. D) DNA. E) cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

17) The tails of a phospholipid molecule in a plasma membrane are A) hydrophilic. B) composed of amino acids. C) hydrophobic. D) facing the cytosol. E) interlocked to provide membrane strength. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

18) The plasma membrane does not include A) integral proteins. B) glycolipids. C) phospholipids. D) cholesterol. E) silk mesh. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

19) Identify the role of cholesterol in the plasma membrane. A) enables ions to pass B) forms enzymes C) reduces membrane fluidity and permeability D) anchors the phospholipids E) provides energy Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 3  The Cellular Level of Organization   67

Figure 3-1  The Plasma membrane Use Figure 3-1 to answer the following questions. 20) What part of the plasma membrane is hydrophobic? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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21) Which structure is water most likely to pass through? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 8 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

22) Which structure has a ʺgateʺ to control transport? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 7 E) 8 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

23) Microfilaments are labeled A) 1. B) 2. C) 3. D) 5. E) 6. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

24) Membrane proteins perform all of the following functions except A) anchoring the cell to other structures. B) binding to extracellular ligands. C) transporting solutes across the membrane. D) catalyzing chemical reactions. E) metabolizing glucose to gain energy. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

25) Identify the mismatched pair. A) receptor proteinsbind to extracellular ligands B) channel proteinsprovide passageway for ions C) recognition glycoproteins and glycolipidsidentify the cell as ʺselfʺ D) carrier proteinsallow a cell to move E) enzymesspeed up chemical reactions Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 3  The Cellular Level of Organization   69

26) Proteins of the plasma membrane carry out all of the following functions except A) binding to DNA to turn on genes. B) sending and receiving signals to and from other cells. C) transporting substances across the membrane. D) anchoring the cell to external structures. E) catalyzing chemical reactions at the inner or outer surface of the membrane. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

27) Receptor molecules on the surface of cells bind specific molecules called, in general, A) recognizers. B) binders. C) ligands. D) bonders. E) reactants. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

28) Water and small hydrophilic solutes A) may pass through the phospholipid bilayer of the plasma membrane. B) cannot pass through a plasma membrane. C) can dissolve holes in the plasma membrane. D) may pass through channels in the plasma membrane. E) do not mix with each other. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

29) The watery component of the cytoplasm is called A) cytosol. B) protoplasm. C) extracellular fluid. D) interstitial fluid. E) matrix. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

30) Which of the following descriptors regarding cytoplasm is false? A) contains less protein than extracellular fluid B) the material that fills a cell C) syrupy or gel-like consistency D) includes cytoskeleton E) includes cytosol Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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31) Many proteins in the cytosol are ________ that accelerate metabolic reactions. A) carbohydrates B) enzymes C) lipids D) messengers E) ions Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

32) Compared to the extracellular fluid, cytosol contains A) a higher concentration of potassium ions. B) a lower concentration of dissolved proteins. C) almost no glycogen. D) a higher concentration of amino acids. E) almost no lipids. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

33) The cytoplasm contains the fluid cytosol, insoluble inclusions, and the A) microvilli. B) nucleolus. C) enzymes. D) organelles. E) cilia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

34) Masses of insoluble material that are sometimes found in cytosol are known as A) colloids. B) emulsifiers. C) solutes. D) crystals. E) inclusions. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

35) The endoplasmic reticulum is an example of a(n) ________ organelle. A) filamentous B) extracellular C) interstitial D) membranous E) bound Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 3  The Cellular Level of Organization   71

36) ________ are compartments within the cell whose contents are isolated from the cytosol. A) Cytoskeleton B) Microvilli C) Nonmembranous organelles D) Membranous organelles E) Ribosomes Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

37) Each of the following is an example of a nonmembranous organelle  except A) lysosomes. B) cilia. C) centrioles. D) ribosomes. E) cytoskeleton. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

38) Match the organelle (1-4) with the correct description (5-8). 1) mitochondrion 2) centriole 3) endoplasmic reticulum 4) cytosol

5) synthesizing molecules 6) liquid in cell 7) provides cell with energy 8) aids the formation of the spindle apparatus

A) 1 and 7, 2 and 6, 3 and 8, 4 and 5 B) 1 and 8, 2 and 5, 3 and 6, 4 and 7 C) 1 and 7, 2 and 8, 3 and 5, 4 and 6 D) 1 and 5, 2 and 6, 3 and 7, 4 and 8 E) 1 and 6, 2 and 8, 3 and 5, 4 and 7 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

39) Tubulin is to microtubules as actin is to A) ribosomes. B) microfilaments. C) intermediate filaments. D) flagella. E) microvilli. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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72   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

40) Microfilaments do not A) anchor the cytoskeleton to membrane proteins. B) help determine the consistency of cytoplasm. C) produce cell movement, with myosin. D) consist of the protein called actin. E) distribute chromosomes to opposite ends of a dividing cell. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

41) Microfilaments A) are usually composed of myosin. B) are hollow, filamentous structures. C) anchor the cytoskeleton to integral proteins of the cell membrane. D) interact with filaments composed of tubulin to produce muscle contractions. E) are found in the cytoplasm radiating away from the centrosome. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

42) Which of the following cytoskeleton components moves the chromosomes during cell division? A) microfilaments B) intermediate filaments C) thick filaments D) microtubules E) basal bodies Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

43) Which of following properties of microtubules is correct? A) made of myosin B) made of actin C) found only in the terminal web D) another term for microfilaments E) interact with dynein and kinesin Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

44) Which of following properties of the cytoskeleton is incorrect? A) supports organelles B) controls cell shape C) provides cell strength D) connects cells to each other E) moves organelles Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3  The Cellular Level of Organization   73

Figure 3-2  The Anatomy of a Representative Cell Use Figure 3-2 to answer the following questions: 45) The structure labeled ʺ1ʺ permits the cell to A) attach to neighboring cells. B) produce more cells. C) increase its surface area for increased absorption. D) swim in extracellular fluid. E) trap bacteria. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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46) Which structure organizes the mitotic spindle during cell division? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

47) Synthesis of carbohydrates and lipids occurs in the structure labeled A) 4. B) 5. C) 6. D) 7. E) 8. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

48) Which organelle renews the cell membrane and modifies and packages proteins for secretion? A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

49) Which structure produces ATP for the cell? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

50) Microvilli are found on cells of the inner surface of the small intestine, where they A) slow the movement of food through the digestive tract. B) increase the absorption of nutrients from digested food. C) sense the presence of food in the digestive tract. D) push food along the digestive tract. E) protect the intestinal lining from irritants or toxins in the food. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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51) If an animal cell lacked centrioles, it would not be able to A) move. B) synthesize proteins. C) produce DNA. D) metabolize sugars. E) divide. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

52) The ________ is the microtubule organizing center of the cell. A) flagellum B) ribosome C) nucleus D) centrosome E) plasma membrane Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

53) Centrioles form the basal bodies that anchor microtubules within cilia and A) flagella. B) microfilaments. C) microvilli. D) ribosomes. E) chromosomes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

54) Cilia and flagella contain nine pairs of ________ surrounding a central pair. A) microvilli B) microfilaments C) microsomes D) microtubules E) intermediate filaments Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

55) Motile cilia move fluids across a cellʹs surface, while a flagellum A) cools a cell. B) is not motile. C) fastens one cell to another. D) propels a cell through fluid. E) detects environmental stimuli. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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76   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

56) ________ may be scattered in the cytoplasm or bound to endoplasmic reticulum. A) Mitochondria B) Ribosomes C) Vesicles D) Proteosomes E) Nuclei Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

57) Ribosomes are composed of protein and A) glycogen. B) rRNA. C) ATP. D) DNA. E) steroids. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

58) The ʺrʺ in rRNA stands for A) regeneration. B) recurrence. C) rebuilding. D) ribosomal. E) radiation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

59) ________ are responsible for identifying and digesting damaged or denatured proteins. A) Peroxisomes B) Proteasomes C) Lysosomes D) Endosomes E) Nucleosomes Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

60) Proteosomes ________ proteins that have been damaged or denatured. A) tag for destruction by a different organelle B) break down C) expel from the cell D) repair E) duplicate Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 3  The Cellular Level of Organization   77

61) Synthesis of lipids and glycogen takes place at the A) ribosomes. B) rough ER. C) smooth ER. D) Golgi apparatus. E) mitochondria. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

62) Which of the following consists of a network of intracellular membranes with attached ribosomes? A) rough endoplasmic reticulum B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) mitochondria D) nucleoli E) Golgi apparatus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

63) Which form of endoplasmic reticulum modifies and packages newly synthesized proteins? A) all forms of endoplasmic reticulum B) simple endoplasmic reticulum C) raised endoplasmic reticulum D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum E) rough endoplasmic reticulum Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

64) The endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for all of the following except A) drug and toxin neutralization. B) lipid synthesis. C) modification of new proteins. D) passing molecules to the Golgi apparatus. E) housing the chromosomes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

65) Each of the following is a function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum  except A) storage and release of calcium ions. B) synthesis of protein. C) synthesis of steroid hormones. D) synthesis of triglycerides. E) detoxification of drugs. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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66) Examination of a sample of glandular cells reveals an extensive network of smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Which of the following is the likeliest product of these cells? A) digestive enzymes B) steroid hormones C) protein hormones D) transport proteins E) antibodies Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

67) Which of the following statements about the Golgi apparatus is false? A) It receives transport vesicles from the RER. B) It sends transport vesicles to the RER. C) It produces lysosomes. D) It supplies new membrane components. E) It produces secretory vesicles. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

68) The following is a list of the steps involved in the process of secretion by the Golgi apparatus. What is the proper order for these steps? 1. Cisternae move from the forming face toward the maturing face. 2. Exocytosis 3. Products from RER are packaged into transport vesicles. 4. Secretory vesicles are formed at the maturing face. 5. Vesicles arrive at the forming face. 6. Enzymes modify arriving proteins and glycoproteins. A) 5, 6, 1, 4, 2, 3 B) 2, 3, 5, 6, 1, 4 C) 4, 3, 1, 6, 5, 2 D) 3, 5, 6, 1, 4, 2 E) 1, 3, 6, 4, 2, 5 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

69) The ________ typically consists of five or six flattened membranous discs called cisternae. A) centrioles B) rough endoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi apparatus D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum E) mitochondria Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 3  The Cellular Level of Organization   79

70) When activated, lysosomes function in A) formation of new cell membranes. B) synthesis of proteins. C) digestion of materials. D) synthesis of lipids. E) cell division. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

71) Macrophages are cells that engulf and consume germs or debris. What organelle must be especially plentiful in these cells? A) centrioles B) lysosomes C) mitochondria D) ribosomes E) nuclei Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

72) Peroxisomes A) both generate and break down hydrogen peroxide. B) pull the chromosomes toward the poles of a dividing cell. C) manufacture proteins. D) manufacture most of a cellʹs ATP. E) contain the genetic information of a cell. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

73) Organelles that break down fatty acids and hydrogen peroxide are A) lysosomes. B) peroxisomes. C) endocytic vesicles. D) nuclei. E) toxisomes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

74) What is the source of new material for the plasma membrane? A) microtubules B) mitochondria C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) ribosomes E) Golgi apparatus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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75) In addition to secreting products from the cell, vesicles produced by the Golgi apparatus can A) house chromosomes. B) produce ATP. C) synthesize proteins. D) add new material to the plasma membrane. E) transport materials to the endoplasmic reticulum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

76) Which of the following statements concerning mitochondria is false? A) The cristae increase the inner surface area of the organelle. B) The matrix contains metabolic enzymes involved in ATP synthesis. C) Respiratory enzymes are attached to the surface of the cristae. D) The mitochondria produce oxygen in the process of energy transformation. E) The mitochondria produce most of a cellʹs ATP. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

77) Some cells contain large numbers of mitochondria while others have relatively few or none. This suggests that A) cells with large numbers of mitochondria are short-lived. B) cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a high energy demand. C) cells with small numbers of mitochondria have a large ATP supply. D) cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a low energy demand. E) some cells are older than others. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

78) Most of the ATP required to power cellular operations is produced in the A) cytoplasm. B) endoplasmic reticulum. C) nucleus. D) mitochondria. E) cilia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

79) Most of a cellʹs DNA is located in its A) ribosomes. B) lysosomes. C) Golgi apparatus. D) nucleus. E) nucleolus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3  The Cellular Level of Organization   81

80) The control center for cellular operations is the A) nucleus. B) mitochondria. C) Golgi apparatus. D) endoplasmic reticulum. E) ribosome. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

81) A mature red blood cell lacks a nucleus; therefore, it A) can repair itself readily. B) is malformed. C) can only divide once more. D) will be a long-lived cell. E) cannot make new proteins and will be worn out within a few months. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

82) The nucleus is surrounded by the A) plasma membrane. B) membranous sac. C) phospholipid bilayer. D) nuclear envelope. E) chromosome shield. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

83) Which organelle is more prominent in cells that make large amounts of protein? A) nucleus B) nucleolus C) chromosome D) proteasome E) mitochondria Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

84) The components of ribosomes are formed within A) the endoplasmic reticulum. B) Golgi complexes. C) lysosomes. D) mitochondria. E) nucleoli. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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85) Histones are found in A) nucleosomes. B) proteasomes. C) lysosomes. D) vesicles. E) endosomes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

86) Chromosomes consist of ________ and ________. A) RNA; carbohydrates B) DNA; lipids C) DNA; proteins D) water; RNA E) RNA; proteins Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

87) In cells that are not dividing, chromosomes uncoil to form a tangle of fine fibers known as A) histones. B) histiocytes. C) chromatin. D) chromaffin. E) genes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

88) How do chromosomes become visible under a light microscope as a cell prepares to divide? A) The cell becomes flat and thin, and its internal structures become easier to see. B) Thin strands of chromatin coil tightly and then coil again. C) DNA is thicker after it has replicated. D) Chromosomes become more intensely colored before cell division. E) Chromosomes are created before cell division, and then broken down afterward. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

89) Each triplet of bases in a gene corresponds to A) one amino acid in a protein. B) one DNA nucleotide. C) one protein. D) one mRNA. E) one chromosome. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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90) The functional units of DNA that contain the instructions for making one or more proteins are A) chromosomes. B) genes. C) ribosomes. D) codons. E) RNA. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

91) A gene is a set of specific instructions that A) produces amino acids for proteins. B) copies DNA strands for mitosis. C) controls the process of mitosis. D) indicates the sequence of amino acids in a protein molecule. E) directs carbohydrate synthesis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

92) Which of the following is false about DNA fingerprinting? A) determined by analyzing proteins B) unique to each individual with the exception of identical twins C) used extensively during crime scene investigations D) may be obtained from blood, semen, hair, and other tissues E) based on short tandem repeats (STRs) in the DNA Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

93) The ʺmʺ in mRNA stands for A) messenger. B) modifier. C) metabolic. D) molecular. E) matching. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

94) The enzyme ________ is required for the synthesis of mRNA. A) RNA polymerase B) deoxyribase C) phosphatase D) RNA synthetase E) ribase Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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84   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

95) The process of forming mRNA is called A) replication. B) transcription. C) translation. D) ribolation. E) auscultation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

96) The start of each gene begins with a(n) ________ segment. A) neocodon B) intron C) histone D) promoter E) boosting Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

97) Thymine is replaced by which nitrogen base in RNA? A) ribose B) uracil C) guanine D) thymine is not replaced in RNA E) cytosine Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

98) The mRNA sequence that is complementary to the sequence ATC on DNA is A) ATC. B) TAG. C) UAG. D) AUG. E) AUC. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

99) Before the mRNA transcribed from a gene can be used to translate into a protein, it must be A) edited to remove introns. B) edited to remove exons. C) transported into the cytoplasm. D) edited to remove introns and transported into the cytoplasm. E) coated with phospholipids for transport out of the nucleus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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100) Transfer of mRNA from the nucleus to the cytosol occurs through A) carrier proteins. B) gap junctions. C) nucleosides. D) gap lines. E) nuclear pores. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

101) mRNA is needed to synthesize ________ in the cytoplasm. A) carbohydrates B) lipids C) proteins D) phospholipids E) salts Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

102) A molecule of ________ contains all the codons needed to produce a particular polypeptide. A) rRNA B) mRNA C) dRNA D) tRNA E) cRNA Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

103) The process of protein formation directed by mRNA is called A) replication. B) transcription. C) translation. D) mitosis. E) auscultation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

104) The anticodon for the triplet UCA is A) AGU. B) AGC. C) TCA. D) TGT. E) AGT. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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86   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

105) During protein synthesis, amino acids are assembled in the proper sequence because each tRNA has a(n) ________ that binds to the next codon in the mRNA. A) enzyme B) nucleotide C) anticodon D) promotor E) transporter Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

106) Amino acids are transferred to the ribosome to be incorporated into a growing polypeptide chain by A) aRNA. B) mRNA. C) rRNA. D) tRNA. E) pRNA. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

107) The ʺtʺ in tRNA stands for A) translate. B) transport. C) transfer. D) transcribe. E) transmit. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

108) What is the correct order of occurrence for the steps of protein synthesis? 1. mRNA is produced in nucleus. 2. Ribosome moves along mRNA. 3. DNA uncoils for transcription. 4. Polypeptide is produced. 5. tRNA brings amino acids to ribosome. 6. mRNA moves to ribosome. A) 3, 1, 6, 2, 5, 4 B) 2, 4, 6, 1, 3, 5 C) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3, 6 D) 3, 5, 1, 6, 2, 4 E) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2, 6 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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109) The duplication of DNA is called ________, the copying of DNA to mRNA is called ________, and the reading of the mRNA by the cell to make a protein is called ________. A) replication; transcription; translation B) interphase; replication; active transport C) replication; translation; transcription D) mitosis; duplication; protein synthesis E) reproduction; duplication; initiation Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

110) Permanent alterations in a cellʹs DNA that affect the nucleotide sequence of one or more genes are called A) interferons. B) mutations. C) reconstructions. D) polymorphs. E) changelings. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

111) The ________ of a cell membrane indicates how easy it is for substances to cross. A) thickness B) pliability C) density D) permeability E) charge Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

112) Cell membranes are said to be ________ because they allow some substances to pass but not others. A) impermeable B) doubly amphipathic C) hydrophilic D) selectively permeable E) hydrophobic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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88   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

113) A cell can increase how fast a substance diffuses across its plasma membrane by inserting channels, which modify the A) distance across the membrane. B) concentration gradient of the substance. C) size and mobility of the substance. D) membraneʹs permeability to the substance. E) charge of the substance. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

114) The movement of oxygen from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is an example of A) osmosis. B) active transport. C) diffusion. D) facilitated transport. E) filtration. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

115) Breathing faster and deeper eliminates more carbon dioxide from the body than normal breathing. Under these circumstances, in the lungs A) more carbon dioxide will diffuse out of the blood. B) more carbon dioxide will diffuse into the blood. C) less carbon dioxide will diffuse out of the blood. D) less carbon dioxide will diffuse into the blood. E) the amount of carbon dioxide diffusion will remain unchanged. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

116) Diffusion of a substance across the cell membrane may be influenced by all of the following except A) the availability of ATP. B) the presence of membrane channels for the substance. C) its charge of the substance. D) its concentration gradient. E) its lipid solubility. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 3  The Cellular Level of Organization   89

117) There is a direct correlation between the potency of a general anesthetic such as ether and its ability to A) dissolve in water. B) dissolve in lipids. C) bind to proteins. D) interact with carbohydrates. E) bind to DNA. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

118) Water molecules and small ions enter a cell through A) channels formed by integral membrane proteins. B) peripheral proteins. C) lipid channels. D) peripheral carbohydrates. E) defects in the lipid layer of the membrane. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

119) Which of the following best describes osmosis? A) active transport of water across the cell membrane B) diffusion of water from a greater to a lesser water concentration C) movement of water into a solute D) diffusion of water from a greater to a lesser water concentration across a selectively permeable membrane E) random movement of water due to kinetic energy Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

120) Imagine a beaker divided down the center by a rigid membrane that is freely permeable to water but impermeable to glucose. Side 1 contains a 10 percent glucose solution and side 2 contains the same volume of pure water. At equilibrium, what will be the situation? A) Water will continue to move from side 1 to side 2. B) Water will continue to move from side 2 to side 1. C) The volume of liquid will be greater in side 1. D) The volume of liquid will be greater in side 2. E) The volume of liquid remain equal on both sides. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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90   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

121) A blood cell undergoes crenation when it is placed in a(n) ________ solution. A) isotonic B) hypertonic C) hypotonic D) merotonic E) homotonic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

122) Hemolysis may occur when a blood cell is placed into a(n) ________ solution. A) isotonic B) hypertonic C) hypotonic D) merotonic E) homotonic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

123) If the amount of chloride ion in blood plasma increases, which of the following would initially occur? A) The blood osmotic pressure will increase. B) The blood osmotic pressure will decrease. C) The blood osmotic pressure will stay the same. D) The blood hydrostatic pressure will increase. E) The blood hydrostatic pressure will decrease. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

124) If the concentration of sodium chloride in the interstitial fluid surrounding cells decreases and the concentration of other solutes remains constant, A) the cells will shrink. B) the cells will swell. C) the fluid outside of the cells will become isotonic. D) the fluid outside of the cells will become hypertonic. E) the cells will not change. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 3  The Cellular Level of Organization   91

125) A solution that contains a lower osmotic pressure than the cytoplasm of a cell is called A) merotonic. B) hypertonic. C) isotonic. D) hypotonic. E) homotonic. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

126) A patient suffers blood loss and is given IV fluids that contain an impermeable carbohydrate called dextran, which serves to ________ leading to an increase in blood volume. A) provide nutrition B) increase the osmolarity of the blood C) increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood D) decrease the osmolarity of the blood E) reduce blood clotting Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

127) In ________, one substance is transported into the cell and another is transported out. A) cotransport B) ditransport C) countertransport D) protransport E) throughtransport Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

128) Assume that the import of a particular amino acid across the plasma membrane is observed (1) to occur only down its concentration gradient and (2) to slow when a different but similar amino acid is added to the extracellular fluid. The movement of the amino acid through the membrane is most likely by A) osmosis. B) diffusion. C) facilitated diffusion. D) active transport. E) pinocytosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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92   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

129) The process by which molecules such as glucose are moved into cells along their concentration gradient with the help of membrane-bound carrier proteins is called A) osmosis. B) facilitated diffusion. C) active transport. D) endocytosis. E) exocytosis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

130) Facilitated diffusion differs from ordinary diffusion in that A) facilitated diffusion consumes ATP. B) facilitated diffusion moves molecules from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration. C) the rate of facilitated diffusion is limited by the number of available carrier proteins. D) facilitated diffusion never eliminates the concentration gradient. E) facilitated diffusion does not rely on carrier proteins. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

131) Membrane-bound proteins that use metabolic energy to move ions across the plasma membrane are called ________ pumps. A) channel B) receptor C) active D) motor E) ion Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

132) A process that requires cellular energy to move a substance against its concentration gradient is called A) active transport. B) passive transport. C) facilitated transport. D) osmosis. E) diffusion. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 3  The Cellular Level of Organization   93

133) Secondary active transport A) is not carried out by membrane proteins. B) is not directly linked to the hydrolysis of ATP. C) does not link the pumping of one substance to the concentration gradient of another. D) does not require the cell to invest energy, either directly or indirectly. E) cannot move a substance against its concentration gradient. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

134) An extracellular cation whose concentration gradient drives the secondary active transport of many different solutes is A) sodium. B) calcium. C) potassium. D) chloride. E) glucose. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

135) In order to maintain cellular homeostasis, one abundant type of exchange pump ejects ________ ions from the cell and imports ________ ions. A) potassium; calcium B) sodium; calcium C) potassium; sodium D) sodium; potassium E) calcium; sodium Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

136) All of the following membrane transport mechanisms are passive processes except A) diffusion. B) facilitated diffusion. C) vesicular transport. D) osmosis. E) movement of water. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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94   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

137) The intake of materials from the extracellular fluid using vesicles is called A) osmosis. B) exocytosis. C) facilitated transport. D) endocytosis. E) an ion exchange pump. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

138) Endocytosis is a A) method for transporting substances into the cell. B) method for metabolizing within the cytosol. C) form of anabolism. D) viral infection. E) method for packaging secretions. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

139) Receptor-mediated endocytosis A) is a type of secretion. B) imports target molecules after they bind to membrane proteins. C) does not require energy from the cell. D) can only move a substance down its concentration gradient. E) imports extracellular fluid, including all of its dissolved molecules. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

140) A defense cell engulfing a bacterium illustrates A) pinocytosis. B) receptor-mediated exocytosis. C) exocytosis. D) phagocytosis. E) receptor-mediated endocytosis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

141) The electric potential difference across the cell membrane is known as A) the membrane potential. B) the membrane difference. C) the cellular potential. D) the cellular difference. E) the plasmalemma potential. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 3  The Cellular Level of Organization   95

142) The membrane potential in an undisturbed cell is called its A) quiet potential. B) inactive state. C) passive state. D) resting membrane potential. E) interphase. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

143) In a series of measurements of resting membrane potentials, the following values were recorded. Which one is likeliest to be an error? A) -10 mV B) -20 mV C) -40 mV D) -70 mV E) +100 mV Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

144) The potential difference across the cell membrane is due to the unequal distribution of ________ across the membrane. A) carbohydrate molecules B) water molecules C) cations and anions D) acids and bases E) phospholipids and proteins Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

145) Which of these substances could be driven across a membrane by the resting membrane potential? A) H2 O B) O2 C) glucose D) Na+ E) CO 2 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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96   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

146) The genetically programmed death of cells is called A) differentiation. B) replication. C) apoptosis. D) metastasis. E) mitosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

147) If a cell lacked the enzyme DNA polymerase, it could not A) maintain the integrity of the nuclear envelope. B) form complementary strands of DNA during replication. C) link segments of DNA together. D) form spindle fibers. E) form a new nuclear membrane during telophase. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

148) In DNA replication, A) 23 copies are made of each chromosome. B) one new copy is made of each chromosome, and the original chromosome remains intact. C) two new copies are made of each chromosome, and the original chromosome is destroyed. D) two copies are made of each chromosome, and each copy contains one of the DNA strands from the original chromosome. E) the chromosome is copied to RNA, which is then copied to DNA for a new chromosome. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

149) When is DNA replicated? A) interphase B) anaphase C) metaphase D) telophase E) interkinesis Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 3  The Cellular Level of Organization   97

150) The stage in a cellʹs life cycle in which the cell performs its normal functions and prepares for division is called A) prophase. B) metaphase. C) interphase. D) telophase. E) anaphase. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

151) The process of duplicating chromosomes prior to cell division is called A) replication. B) repetition. C) recurrence. D) remodeling. E) reassembling. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

152) A cell duplicates its chromosomes during the ________ phase. A) Go B) G1 C) G2 D) Gm E) S Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

153) Before a cell divides, its DNA must be replicated to A) provide a backup copy of DNA in case the original DNA is damaged during mitosis. B) replace the DNA lost during transcription. C) supply each new cell with a full set of the genetic material. D) replace genetic instructions used by the original cell. E) use as an energy source during cytokinesis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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98   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology,  11e

154) The proper distribution of a somatic cellʹs genetic material to two daughter cells is accomplished by the process of A) cytosis. B) mitosis. C) cytokinesis. D) phoresis. E) meiosis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

155) During mitosis, chromatids separate into daughter chromosomes at the start of A) prophase. B) metaphase. C) interphase. D) telophase. E) anaphase. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

156) During this phase of cell division, the chromosomes uncoil, the nuclear membrane forms, and cytokinesis occurs. A) anaphase B) prophase C) interphase D) telophase E) metaphase Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

157) During mitosis, two daughter cells form, each of which has A) a different number of chromosomes than the original cell. B) twice as many chromosomes as the original cell. C) the same number of chromosomes as the original cell. D) a lesser number of chromosomes than the original cell. E) half as many chromosomes as the original cell. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 3  The Cellular Level of Organization   99

158) The correct order of phases in the cell cycle is A) prophase, interphase, anaphase, metaphase, and telophase. B) telophase, anaphase, metaphase, interphase, and prophase. C) interphase, prophase, anaphase, metaphase, and telophase. D) interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. E) metaphase, anaphase, interphase, prophase, and telophase. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

159) If an animal cell has 18 chromosomes and undergoes mitosis, how many chromosomes would each daughter cell have? A) 9 B) 36 C) 23 D) 18 E) It varies, but the total number in the two daughter cells will always add up to 18. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

160) Which phase of the cell cycle has the biggest extremes in duration? A) S phase B) G0  phase C) G1  phase D) G2  phase E) V phase Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

161) Generally, cells with a very brief interphase and lacking a G 0 phase A) are stem cells. B) do not exhibit cytokinesis. C) have brief life spans. D) are reproductive cells. E) lack the enzyme DNA polymerase. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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100   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

162) Special cells called ________ cells maintain tissues by unending cycles of cell division. A) cytogenic B) mother C) stem D) root E) omnipotent Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

163) The physical process by which a single animal cell separates into two cells is called A) cytosis. B) mitosis. C) cytokinesis. D) phoresis. E) meiosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

164) During growth, a tissue increases in size by A) increasing the size of its cells. B) increasing the osmolarity of its tissue fluid to draw in water. C) increasing its rate of cell division. D) dilating blood vessels to increase its blood supply. E) recruiting cells from surrounding tissues. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

165) A chemical from outside a cell that promotes cell division is called a A) nutrient. B) promoter. C) mutagen. D) telomere. E) growth factor. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

166) Cyclin, a protein that becomes more abundant as the cell cycle proceeds, A) delays cytokinesis. B) activates repressor genes. C) triggers DNA replication. D) damages telomeres. E) takes part in triggering mitosis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 3  The Cellular Level of Organization   101

167) When telomeres get too short after repeated cell divisions, A) the cell dies. B) the cell becomes cancerous. C) the cell stops dividing. D) the chromosomes uncoil. E) the cell divides more frequently. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

168) An alternate term for tumor is A) neoplasm. B) cytoplasm. C) benign malignancy. D) primary metastasis. E) nucleoplasm. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

169) Cancer cells A) are indistinguishable from normal body cells. B) have a slow mitotic rate. C) may exhibit metastasis. D) do not form neoplasms. E) generally form benign tumors. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

170) A(n) ________ is a mutated regulatory gene that causes cancer. A) neogene B) plasmogene C) toxogene D) oncogene E) monogene Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

171) ________, which is usually inactive in adult cells, is active in 90% of cancer cells. A) Phagocytosis B) Apoptosis C) The p53 gene D) Telomerase E) DNA polymerase Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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102   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

172) The process by which cells become specialized is called A) determination. B) cytokinesis. C) mutation. D) differentiation. E) distinction. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

173) Different cell types in the body A) produce exactly the same proteins. B) have different genes. C) are identical except for their superficial appearance. D) have the same genes, but different sets of genes are inactivated. E) have the ability to take on the characteristics of each other or any cell in the body. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

174) Embryonic stem cells might be used to replace neurons lost in Parkinsonʹs Disease because A) they are readily available. B) they divide quickly. C) they are young and vigorous. D) they have not yet differentiated. E) they are taken from the brain of the embryo. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) What are the three different components that make up the cytoskeleton in all body cells? (Figure 3-3) A) thick filaments, thin filaments, intermediate filaments B) microfilaments, microvilli, villi C) microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules D) thick filaments, thin filaments, microvilli E) microtubules, macrotubules, tubules Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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2) What are the two reactants shown here that are necessary for energy production? What are the three products shown here as a result of this reaction? (Figure 3-9) A) oxygen and ATP; carbon dioxide, pyruvate, and water B) oxygen and carbon dioxide; pyruvate, carbon dioxide, and water C) water and pyruvate; oxygen, carbon dioxide, and ATP D) oxygen and pyruvate; carbon dioxide, ATP, and water E) carbon dioxide and pyruvate; oxygen, ATP, and water Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) How is DNA organized in the nucleus when the cell is prepared for division? How is DNA organized in the nucleus when the cell is not dividing? (Figure 3-11) A) tightly coiled as chromosomes; loosely coiled as chromatin B) tightly coiled as chromatin; loosely coiled as chromosomes C) loosely coiled as chromosomes; tightly coiled as chromatin D) loosely coiled as chromatin; tightly coiled as chromosomes E) loosely coiled as chromosomes; loosely coiled as chromatin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) How do small water-soluble molecules and ions diffuse across the plasma membrane? How do lipid-soluble molecules diffuse across the plasma membrane? (Figure 3-15) A) diffuse by osmosis; diffuse by carrier-mediated transport B) diffuse by endocytosis; diffuse by pinocytosis C) diffuse by carrier-mediated transport; diffuse by passive transport D) diffuse directly through the plasma membrane; diffuse through membrane channels E) diffuse through membrane channels; diffuse directly through the plasma membrane Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

5) Describe the concentration of the intracellular fluid relative to the extracellular fluid in parts b and c. (Figure 3-17) A) hypotonic to the extracellular fluid; hypertonic to the extracellular fluid B) hypertonic to the extracellular fluid; hypotonic to the extracellular fluid C) isotonic to the extracellular fluid; hypertonic to the extracellular fluid D) isotonic to the extracellular fluid; hypotonic to the extracellular fluid E) hypertonic to the extracellular fluid; isotonic to the extracellular fluid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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6) In the facilitated diffusion of glucose, what determines the direction in which glucose molecules will be transported? (Figure 3-18) A) the amount of ATP available inside the cell versus outside the cell B) the amount of sodium available to bind inside the cell versus outside the cell C) the concentration gradient D) the voltage of the membrane E) the tonicity of the cell Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

7) What provides the energy for the sodium-potassium exchange pump? (Figure 3-19) A) breaking the high energy bond of ADP B) the concentration gradient of sodium C) the concentration gradient of potassium D) breaking the high energy bond of ATP E) the voltage of the cell Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

Essay Questions 1) Describe the ways that proteins of the plasma membrane allow a cell to control its internal environment or interact with its external environment. Answer: Carrier proteins and channels help control the cellʹs internal environment by allowing specific materials to enter the cell. Anchoring proteins connect the cellʹs cytoskeleton to extracellular proteins or to other cells. Recognition proteins allow immune cells to identify the cell. Receptor proteins allow the cell to respond to external signals such as hormones. Finally, enzymes can carry out chemical reactions inside or outside the cell, depending on which face of the membrane they are attached to. Learning Outcome: 3-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

2) Which organelles are involved in membrane flow? Trace the route of a single integral membrane protein from formation to incorporation into the plasma membrane. Answer: All membranous organelles are involved in membrane flow. Those most directly associated are the ER, Golgi apparatus, secretory vesicles, and plasma membrane. A membrane protein would be synthesized in the RER, then flow through the cisternae to a transport vesicle. There the protein will be moved to the forming face of the Golgi apparatus, where it will slowly travel upward toward the maturing face, usually becoming modified along the way. Once reaching the maturing face of the Golgi apparatus, the protein would be embedded in the membrane of a secretory vesicle and transported to the plasma membrane. There the vesicle will fuse with the membrane, inserting the protein in the cell membrane. Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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3) What organelles would be enhanced in a cell that produces digestive enzymes and secretes them into the intestine? Why? Answer: Digestive enzymes are proteins, and they are produced at a high rate while a meal is being digested. Organelles that would be enhanced include the nucleus, which would have larger or more numerous nucleoli for making ribosomes; a larger number of ribosomes for making proteins; increased rough ER, where proteins to be secreted are made; more numerous or larger Golgi apparatus, where proteins are packaged for secretion; and more secretory vesicles to carry the enzymes to the surface of the cell. Learning Outcome: 3-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

4) Differentiate between transcription and translation. Answer: In transcription, RNA polymerase uses the nucleotide sequence on DNA to construct a complementary strand of mRNA. In translation, ribosomes use information carried by the mRNA strand and tRNA to synthesize the corresponding polypeptide. Learning Outcome: 3-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

5) When a person receives intravenous fluids to help build up blood volume, why is it important for the fluid to be isotonic? Answer: Intravenous fluids must be isotonic to prevent the cells from losing or gaining water. If the solution was hypertonic, the cells of the body would lose water, shrink, and possibly be harmed. On the other hand, the introduction of hypotonic fluid would cause the cells to swell and tissues to rupture. Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

6) Define osmosis and tell in what direction it occurs. Answer: Osmosis is the transfer of water across a semipermeable membrane due to a difference in concentration of impermeant solutes. Water moves from lower to higher solute concentration (or from higher to lower water concentration, or from lower to higher osmolarity, or from lower to higher tonicity). Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

7) During kidney dialysis, a personʹs blood is passed through a bath that contains several ions and molecules. The blood is separated from the dialysis fluid by a membrane that allows water, small ions, and small molecules to pass, but does not allow large proteins or blood cells to pass. What should the composition of dialysis fluid be for it to remove urea (a small molecule without changing the blood volume (removing water from the blood)? Answer: For the dialysis fluid to remove urea without removing water, it should not contain urea. Because urea is a small molecule, it will diffuse through the dialysis membrane from an area of high concentration (the blood to an area of low concentration (the dialysis fluid). To prevent an associated osmotic water movement, the dialysis fluid should have an osmotic concentration similar to that of blood plasma, but with higher concentrations of solutes such as bicarbonate ions or glucose. As urea diffuses into the dialysis fluid, glucose and bicarbonate diffuse into the blood; as a result, the solute concentrations remain in balance and no osmotic water movement occurs. Learning Outcome: 3-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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8) A) What are the similarities between facilitated diffusion and active transport? B) What are the differences? Answer: A) Both processes use carrier proteins and exhibit saturation. B) Facilitated diffusion is driven by a concentration gradient, does not consume ATP, and so is ʺpassive,ʺ whereas active transport is active, consumes ATP, and moves a substance up its concentration gradient. Learning Outcome: 3-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

9) Tell how a carcinogen can cause cancer, and describe the progression of cancer. Answer: Some carcinogens directly cause rapid cell division and others are mutagens that may mutate a gene that regulates cell growth, differentiation, or division. Cancer begins with increased cell division to produce a cluster of cells called a tumor or neoplasm. These cells change their appearance, lose their response to certain inhibitory signals, and may acquire other mutations. Malignancy occurs as cells from the tumor invade surrounding tissues. Metastasis occurs when these cells enter the circulatory system and start tumors in distant regions of the body. Angiogenesis is the growth of blood vessels into the region of the tumor. Tumors can disrupt normal function by failing to carry out their regular functions, physically interfering with normal tissue, outcompeting normal tissues for nutrients, or overproducing their normal products, such as hormones. Learning Outcome: 3-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 4

The Tissue Level of Organization

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which statement about tissues is correct? A) Tissues are always in the form of sheets of cells. B) All the organs of an organ system are composed of a single tissue type. C) A tissue is composed of a single type of cell. D) An organ combines several different tissues. E) Tissues are microscopic, and invisible to the naked eye. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

2) Where is the tissue level of organization? A) between cells and organs B) between organelles and cells C) between organs and organ systems D) between atoms and molecules E) between molecules and organelles Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

3) The study of tissues is called A) cytology. B) toxicology. C) microbiology. D) histology. E) mycology. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) Which one of the following is not one of the four main tissue categories? A) muscle tissue B) neural tissue C) osseous tissue D) connective tissue E) epithelial tissue Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) Which of the four basic tissue types form coverings or linings of organs? A) muscle tissue B) epithelial tissue C) protective tissue D) neural tissue E) connective tissue Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) Neural tissue A) carries information from one part of the body to another. B) can contract. C) fills spaces in the body. D) stores energy. E) forms glands. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) Any substance that enters or leaves your body must cross A) muscle tissue. B) connective tissue. C) secretory tissue. D) neural tissue. E) epithelial tissue. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) The tissue that always has an apical and a basal surface is ________ tissue. A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle D) basal E) apical Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

9) Characteristics of epithelia include all of the following except A) attachment. B) avascularity. C) regeneration. D) polarity. E) extracellular matrix. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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10) Epithelial cells that line the small intestine transport nutrients into the body. Directional transport is associated with the epithelial tissue property of A) avascularity. B) regeneration. C) cellularity. D) polarity. E) attachment. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

11) Epithelial cells that are adapted for absorption usually have ________ at their free surface. A) mitochondria B) cilia C) microvilli D) junctional complexes E) Golgi complexes Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

12) Close examination of a healthy organ reveals a lining of several layers of cells. The layers do not contain any blood vessels and one surface of the cells lines the cavity of the organ. This tissue is a type of A) epithelium. B) muscle tissue. C) connective tissue. D) neural tissue. E) fat tissue. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

13) An epithelial cell can be divided into two functional regions. They are the ________ and the basal surface. A) apical B) pinnacle C) topical D) crest E) apogeal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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14) The junction type that lets neighboring cells exchange small molecules is the A) desmosome. B) hemidesmosome. C) gap junction. D) tight junction. E) zonula adherens. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

15) A type of intercellular junction that stops materials from crossing an epithelium between cells is called a(n) A) tight junction. B) gap junction. C) intermediate junction. D) desmosome. E) hemidesmosome. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

16) Dead skin cells are shed in thin sheets because they are held together by ʺspotsʺ of proteoglycan reinforced by intermediate filaments. Such strong intercellular connections are called A) gap junctions. B) intermediate junctions. C) tight junctions. D) desmosomes. E) junctional complexes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

17) ________ are proteins that connect adjacent cells at a gap junction. A) Bindins B) Adhesions C) Connexins D) Attachons E) Tieons Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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18) In stratified epithelia adapted to resist mechanical forces, which of the following types of cell-to-cell junctions are especially abundant? A) tight junctions B) basolateral junctions C) gap junctions D) hemidesmosomes E) desmosomes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

19) Epithelium is connected to underlying connective tissue by A) keratin. B) interfacial canals. C) a basement membrane. D) a reticular lamina. E) proteoglycan. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

20) Germinative cells A) start in the superficial layers of epithelial tissue. B) cannot divide in the deep layers of epithelial tissue. C) make up most of the epithelial type of tissue. D) divide continually to produce new epithelial cells. E) cannot function in the repair of epithelial tissue. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

21) Cells that are flat and thin are classified as A) columnar. B) squamous. C) blasts. D) transitional. E) cuboidal. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

22) The two major types of cell layering in epithelia are A) simple and proper. B) stratified and pseudostratified. C) squamous and simple. D) simple and stratified. E) cuboidal and columnar. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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23) The epithelium that lines the body cavities is known as A) perithelium. B) myothelium. C) intrathelium. D) endothelium. E) mesothelium. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

24) The epithelia that line body cavities and blood vessels are classified as A) simple squamous. B) stratified squamous. C) simple cuboidal. D) stratified cuboidal. E) transitional. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

25) An example of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium would be A) exposed skin. B) air sacs of the lungs. C) the lining of the anus. D) the outer covering of the intestines. E) the lining of the oral cavity. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

26) The function of simple cuboidal epithelium is A) support and structure. B) protection and transport. C) phagocytosis and immunity. D) absorption and secretion. E) storage and retrieval. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

27) Which tissue lines the small intestine and the stomach? A) simple squamous epithelium B) simple cuboidal epithelium C) simple columnar epithelium D) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium E) stratified squamous epithelium Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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28) Transitional epithelium is found A) lining the urinary bladder. B) lining the ducts that drain sweat glands. C) lining kidney tubules. D) lining the stomach. E) at the surface of the skin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

29) You would find pseudostratified columnar epithelium lining the A) trachea. B) urinary bladder. C) secretory portions of the pancreas. D) surface of the skin. E) stomach. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

30) The Pap test for cervical cancer utilizes A) histology. B) physiology. C) anatomy. D) embryology. E) exfoliative cytology. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

31) Gland cells produce A) mesenchyme. B) antibodies. C) secretions. D) phagocytes. E) fibers. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

32) Glands that secrete hormones into the interstitial fluid are ________ glands. A) endocrine B) interstitial C) exocrine D) merocrine E) holocrine Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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33) The pancreas produces ________ secretions that include digestive enzymes and hormones, respectively. A) serous and sebaceous B) mucous and acid C) merocrine and holocrine D) exocrine and endocrine E) secretory and absorptive Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

34) Unicellular exocrine glands secrete A) milk. B) sweat. C) mucus. D) sebum. E) insulin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

35) A gland formed by cells arranged in a one blind pocket with a single unbranched duct would be called A) simple tubular. B) simple branched tubular. C) compound tubular. D) compound alveolar. E) tubuloalveolar. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

36) Which of the following glands have a compound rather than a simple structure? A) salivary glands B) sebaceous glands C) mucous glands D) sweat glands E) gastric glands Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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37) Glands that secrete their product by the bursting of cells are ________ glands. A) apocrine B) sudoriferous C) holocrine D) endocrine E) merocrine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

38) The process of lactation (milk production) depends on both merocrine and ________ secretion by mammary gland epithelial cells. A) epicrine B) eccrine C) holocrine D) apocrine E) endocrine Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

39) Glands whose secretions contain mucins are classified as A) serous glands. B) compound glands. C) mucous glands. D) mixed glands. E) endocrine glands. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

40) Epithelial tissue is always attached to which other major tissue type? A) neural tissue B) membrane tissue C) fascial tissue D) muscle tissue E) connective tissue Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

41) The combination of fibers and ground substance in supporting connective tissues is known as A) collagen. B) cartilage. C) chondroitin. D) matrix. E) scaffold. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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42) The three categories of connective tissues are A) connective tissue proper, fluid connective tissue, and supporting connective tissue. B) epithelial connective tissue, muscle connective tissue, and neural connective tissue. C) glandular connective tissue, exocrine connective tissue, and endocrine connective tissue. D) connective tissue proper, cartilage connective tissue, and bone connective tissue. E) areolar connective tissue, adipose connective tissue, and dense connective tissue. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

43) Which tissue is correctly paired with its category of connective tissue? A) boneconnective tissue proper B) fatsupporting connective tissue C) lymphfluid connective tissue D) cartilagefluid connective tissue E) tendonsupporting connective tissue Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

44) Which of the following tissues are classified as ʺconnective tissue properʺ? 1. areolar connective tissue 2. adipose tissue 3. fibrocartilage 4. dense irregular connective tissue A) 3 and 4 B) 1, 2, and 3 C) 1 and 2 D) 1, 2, and 4 E) 1 and 3 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

45) Blood is which type of tissue? A) mesenchyme B) nerve C) epithelial D) muscle E) connective Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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46) Which of the following connective tissue cells produces collagen? A) adipocytes B) fibroblasts C) macrophages D) mast cells E) lymphocytes Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

47) Cells that store fat are called A) fibrocytes. B) macrocytes. C) adipocytes. D) podocytes. E) melanocytes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

48) Cells that respond to injury by dividing to assist in connective tissue repair are A) mast cells. B) fibroblasts. C) plasmocytes. D) mesenchymal cells. E) lymphocytes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

49) Cells that engulf bacteria or cell debris within loose connective tissue are A) fibroblasts. B) macrophages. C) adipocytes. D) mast cells. E) melanocytes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

50) In areolar connective tissue, ________ cells release histamine to stimulate inflammation. A) plasma B) mast C) mesenchymal D) gland E) goblet Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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51) Antibodies are produced by A) macrophages. B) microphages. C) plasma cells. D) mast cells. E) fibroblasts. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

52) Two types of microphages include A) mesenchymal cells and melanocytes. B) mast cells and basophils. C) fixed macrophages and free macrophages. D) neutrophils and eosinophils. E) microphages and adipocytes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

53) The three types of protein fibers in connective tissue are A) tendons, ligaments, and elastic ligaments. B) loose, dense, and irregular. C) cartilage, bone, and collagen. D) collagen, reticular, and elastic. E) polar, cellular, and permeable. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

54) The viscous component of connective tissue matrix is called A) basal layer. B) ground substance. C) collagen. D) lymph. E) plasma. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

55) Loose connective tissue functions in all of the following ways except A) providing strong connections between muscles and bones. B) supporting epithelia. C) anchoring blood vessels and nerves. D) cushioning and stabilizing. E) filling spaces between organs. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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56) Whartonʹs jelly is a form of A) Marfanʹs syndrome. B) mucous connective tissue. C) ground substance. D) collagen fiber. E) embryonic epithelium. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

57) The color distinction between white fat and brown fat exists because brown fat A) includes active melanocytes. B) is more superficial. C) traps pollutants. D) is highly vascular. E) is more mature. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

58) If an obese person loses weight, a factor that increases the risk of regaining the weight is A) weight loss causes the metabolic rate to slow. B) during weight loss, calories are only temporarily displaced from fat to other tissues. C) brown fat can become white fat if dietary intake increases again. D) the adipose cells do not die but merely shrink, so they can easily store lipid again. E) the body feels unfamiliar after weight loss. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

59) The internal framework or stroma of organs such as the spleen, liver, and lymph nodes is made up of ________ tissue. A) loose connective B) regular dense connective C) irregular dense connective D) reticular tissue E) adipose Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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60) A tissue that provides strength and support for areas subjected to stresses from many directions is A) any connective tissue proper. B) elastic or hyaline cartilage. C) dense irregular connective tissue. D) reticular connective tissue. E) dense regular connective tissue. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

61) The dominant type of extracellular protein fiber in dense connective tissue is A) collagen. B) elastin. C) actin. D) myosin. E) connectin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

62) Each of the following is an example of dense connective tissue except A) tendons. B) ligaments. C) aponeuroses. D) areolar tissue. E) elastic tissue. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

63) Which kind of connective tissue has collagen fibers aligned parallel to each other? A) adipose tissue B) areolar tissue C) superficial fascia D) dense regular connective tissue E) dense irregular connective tissue Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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64) Microscopic examination of a tissue reveals a loose framework of fibers embedded in a large volume of fluid ground substance, with a wide variety of cell types. This tissue would most likely have come from the A) inner wall of a blood vessel. B) lungs. C) spleen. D) superficial fascia between skin and muscle. E) bony socket of the eye. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

65) The framework of connective tissue between the skin and underlying muscles is called the A) dermis. B) superficial fascia. C) deep fascia. D) cutaneous layer. E) subserous fascia. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

66) Which of the following refers to the dense connective tissue that surrounds a muscle and blends with the tendon? A) superficial fascia B) hypodermis C) deep fascia D) subserous fascia E) subcutaneous layer Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

67) The watery fluid component of blood is called A) hemosol. B) liquid elements. C) formed elements. D) hemoplasm. E) plasma. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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68) The three kinds of formed elements in blood are erythrocytes, leukocytes, and A) lymphocytes. B) platelets. C) phagocytes. D) plasma cells. E) mast cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

69) What type of cell makes up almost half the volume of blood? A) erythrocyte B) leukocyte C) platelet D) monocyte E) phagocyte Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

70) Lymphocytes can develop into cells that secrete defense proteins against disease. These cells are termed ________, while these proteins are called antibodies. A) T cells B) B cells C) plasma cells D) immunocytes E) phagocytes Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

71) Defense cells in blood are called white blood cells or A) leukocytes. B) lymphocytes. C) erythrocytes. D) thrombocytes. E) immunocytes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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72) The three major subdivisions of extracellular fluid found in the body are plasma, interstitial fluid, and A) synovial fluid. B) urine. C) sweat. D) lymph. E) serous fluid. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

73) Which blood vessels have porous walls that allow water and small solutes to seep through? A) veins B) arterioles C) venules D) arteries E) capillaries Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

74) Interstitial fluid that enters a lymphatic vessel is called A) plasma. B) lymph. C) blood. D) humoral fluid. E) plasmin fluid. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

75) How can cartilage maintain its function even though it is avascular? A) Cartilage is only the thickness of a few cell layers. B) Nutrients and waste products diffuse through the cartilageʹs matrix. C) Cartilage has extensive blood vessels. D) Cartilage does not contain living cells. E) The perichondrium prevents any exchange of nutrients and waste products. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

76) Chondroitin sulfate is abundant in the matrix of A) epithelial tissue. B) cartilage. C) areolar tissue. D) elastic connective tissue. E) adipose tissue. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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77) A tissue with a firm gel matrix and cells inside lacunae is A) areolar connective tissue. B) cartilage. C) bone. D) epithelium. E) dense regular connective tissue. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

78) Antiangiogenesis factor is a chemical produced by ________ that blocks the growth of blood vessels. A) leukocytes B) lymphocytes C) chondrocytes D) erythrocytes E) mesenchymal cells Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

79) Cartilage is separated from surrounding tissues by a fibrous A) perichondrium. B) ground substance. C) periosteum. D) chondroplasm. E) matrix. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

80) The most common type of cartilage is ________ cartilage. A) ligamentous B) hyaline C) elastic D) fibrous E) osseous Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

81) Which type of connective tissue is found in the trachea and between the ribs and sternum? A) areolar connective tissue B) hyaline cartilage C) elastic cartilage D) fibrous cartilage E) dense regular connective tissue Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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82) The auricle, or outer ear, contains A) muscle. B) hyaline cartilage. C) bone. D) fibrous cartilage. E) elastic cartilage. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

83) A herniated disc is an injury of the pads of cartilage between the vertebrae in which the cartilage bulges from normal position. What type of cartilage is affected? A) mesenchymal B) fibrous C) elastic D) hyaline E) articular Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

84) Growth of cartilage by accumulation of new matrix around chondrocytes that are embedded in existing matrix is called ________ growth. A) appositional B) intrasitional C) transitional D) transformational E) interstitial Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

85) In ________ growth, cartilage grows wider or thicker in diameter. A) appositional B) intrasitional C) transitional D) transformational E) interstitial Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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86) Osseous tissue is also called A) cartilage. B) fat. C) cellulite. D) bone. E) ligament. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

87) Chondrocytes are to cartilage as osteocytes are to A) blood. B) epithelium. C) fat. D) bone. E) neural tissue. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

88) Unlike cartilage, bone A) is a connective tissue. B) has a matrix that contains collagen. C) undergoes remodeling throughout life. D) has an outer covering. E) has cells within lacunae. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

89) Tendons and ligaments attach to the ________ of bone. A) osteocytes B) lacunae C) periosteum D) calcium phosphate E) central canals Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

90) Epithelia and connective tissues combine to form ________ that cover and protect other structures and tissues in the body. A) fasciae B) aponeuroses C) organ capsules D) cutaneous layers E) tissue membranes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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91) The loose connective tissue component of a mucous membrane is called the A) lamina densa. B) basal lamina. C) areolar lamina. D) lamina propria. E) mucina lamina. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

92) Tissue membranes combine A) muscle and connective tissue. B) neural and epithelial tissue. C) epithelial and connective tissue. D) neural and muscle tissue. E) epithelial and muscle tissue. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

93) Which of the following membranes line cavities that communicate with the exterior of the body? A) mucous B) serous C) cutaneous D) synovial E) pleural Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

94) Which of the following membranes covers the surface of visceral organs? A) synovial B) plasma C) serous D) cutaneous E) mucous Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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95) The reduction of friction between the parietal and visceral surfaces of an internal cavity is the function of A) cutaneous membranes. B) mucous membranes. C) serous membranes. D) synovial membranes. E) the lamina propria. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

96) The serous membrane lining the abdominal cavity is the A) pleura. B) peritoneum. C) pericardium. D) periosteum. E) perichondrium. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

97)  The term transudate describes fluid associated with A) mucus membranes. B) mammary glands. C) cutaneous membranes. D) serous membranes. E) endocrine glands. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

98) Which type of tissue membrane is characteristically dry? A) synovial B) cutaneous C) serous D) mucous E) pleural Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

99) The fluid that lubricates movable joints is produced by A) mucous membrane. B) cutaneous membrane. C) synovial membrane. D) serous membrane. E) plasma membrane. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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100) Tissue that is specialized for contraction is ________ tissue. A) loose connective B) dense connective C) epithelial D) nerve E) muscle Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

101) What is the cause of the striated appearance of skeletal and cardiac muscle? A) the nuclei of the muscle cells B) the connections of neurons to muscle cells C) the arrangement of intercalated discs D) the repeating arrangement of the contractile proteins, actin and myosin E) the stacking of muscle cells Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

102) Voluntary movements are carried out by the contraction of A) nonstriated muscle. B) all types of muscle. C) smooth muscle. D) skeletal muscle. E) cardiac muscle. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

103) Myosatellite cells are found in association with ________ muscle. A) skeletal B) smooth C) cardiac D) involuntary E) both smooth and cardiac Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

104) Intercalated discs and pacemaker cells are characteristic of ________ tissue. A) smooth muscle B) cardiac muscle C) skeletal muscle D) all types of muscle E) nerve Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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105) The muscle tissue that shows no striations is ________ muscle. A) skeletal B) cardiac C) smooth D) voluntary E) multinucleated Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

106) Which kind of muscle is best able to regenerate after an injury? A) both types of striated muscle B) skeletal muscle C) no type of muscle can regenerate D) cardiac muscle E) smooth muscle Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

107) The muscle found in the walls of most hollow organs of the body is A) smooth muscle. B) involuntary striated muscle. C) skeletal muscle. D) cardiac muscle. E) voluntary striated muscle. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

108) Tissue that is specialized for the conduction of electrical impulses is ________ tissue. A) connective B) neural C) areolar D) osseous E) epithelial Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

109) Most of the nervous tissue of the body is in the A) nerves and muscles. B) hands. C) brain and spinal cord. D) skin. E) eyes, ears, nose and tongue. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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110) The function of ________ is to propagate electrical signals from one place to another. A) muscle cells B) neurons C) transmitter cells D) teleocytes E) neuroglia Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

111) ________ support, protect, and nourish nerve cells. A) Nurse cells B) Neuroglia C) Neurons D) Nurturons E) Nutrient cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

112) All of the following are true of neurons except that A) they cannot divide. B) they conduct a nervous impulse. C) they are composed of a cell body and axon. D) they are a very specialized form of connective tissue. E) they receive information from other neurons through their dendrites. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

113) The bodyʹs longest cells are A) muscle cells. B) connective tissue. C) epithelia. D) neurons. E) neuroglia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

114) The bodyʹs first tissue response to any injury is A) fever. B) inflammation. C) bleeding. D) shivering. E) regeneration. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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115) Inflammation is A) a repair process that restores normal function to injured tissue. B) a fever. C) an infection of a wound. D) a process that clears damaged cells and dangerous microorganisms from an injury. E) the process of blood clotting. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

116) During an inflammatory response to injury, which of the following is the least likely in the region of the injury? A) increase in basophils B) increase in histamine C) increase in blood flow D) cold, pale skin E) swelling Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

117) The permanent replacement of normal tissue by fibrous tissue is called A) inflammation. B) apoptosis. C) fibrosis. D) cystosis. E) necrosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

118) Tissue changes with age include all of the following except A) less efficient tissue maintenance. B) proliferation of epidermal cells. C) thinner epithelia. D) more fragile connective tissues. E) decreased ability to repair tissue damage. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-12 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

119) As a person ages, exercise contributes to A) inflammation of the muscles. B) faster aging due to exhaustion. C) an increased incidence of cancer. D) cumulative damage of tissues throughout the body. E) maintaining bone strength. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-12 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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120) The majority of cancers are caused by A) a sedentary lifestyle. B) negative thoughts. C) genetic factors. D) contact with a person who has cancer. E) chemical exposure or other environmental factors. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-12 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Which is the only type of cell junction shown here that allows the diffusion of ions and molecules between cells? (Figure 4-3) A) tight junction B) gap junction C) hemidesmosome D) spot desmosome E) adhesion belt Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

2) In ʺsimple columnar epithelium,ʺ which word describes cell shape and which word describes the number of cell layers? (Figure 4-6) A) columnar; simple B) simple; columnar C) simple; epithelium D) epithelium; columnar E) columnar; epithelium Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) Which method of secretion destroys the cell? (Figure 4-8) A) merocrine B) apocrine C) holocrine D) endocrine E) exocytosis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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4) Which type of loose connective tissue provides padding, cushions shock, reduces heat loss, and stores energy? Where are some places in the body this type of tissue is commonly found? (Figure 4-11) A) reticular tissue; spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow B) areolar tissue; deep to the dermis, between muscles and around joints C) adipose tissue; deep to the skin at sides, buttocks, and breasts D) areolar tissue; liver and kidney E) reticular tissue; around eyes and kidneys Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

5) Which formed element of the blood contains a nucleus? (Figure 4-14) A) red blood cells B) platelets C) white blood cells Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) What is the only type of cell found in cartilage matrix? (Figure 4-16) A) fibroblasts B) osteoblasts C) osteoclasts D) chondroblasts E) chondrocytes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) What is the name of the epithelium that lines the peritoneal cavity? (Figure 4 -18) A) endothelium B) mesothelium C) synovial D) cutaneous E) lamina propria Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) Which muscle tissue consists of multinucleate cells? (Figure 4-19) A) skeletal muscle B) cardiac muscle C) smooth muscle Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Essay Questions 1) Explain why sunburned skin peels rather than being shed as a powder. Answer: The abundant desmosomes between cells in the superficial layers of the skin hold the cells together as a sheet instead of loosely organized cells. Learning Outcome: 4-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

2) Indicate an advantage for having simple rather than stratified epithelium lining the gas-exchange surfaces of the lungs. Answer: The epithelia are thin, keeping diffusion distance between blood and airspaces to a minimum. This speeds gas exchange across the layers. Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

3) A biology student accidentally loses the labels of two prepared slides she is studying. One is a slide of an intestine, the other of an esophagus. You volunteer to help her sort them out. How would you decide which slide is which? Answer: Because animal intestine is modified for absorption, you would look for a slide that shows a single layer of epithelium lining the cavity. The cells would be cuboidal or columnar and would probably have microvilli on the surface to increase surface area. Because the esophagus receives undigested food, it would have a stratified epithelium consisting of squamous cells to protect it. Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

4) Analysis of a glandular secretion indicates that it contains some DNA, RNA, and membrane components such as phospholipids. What kind of secretion is this and why? Answer: The presence of DNA, RNA, and membrane components suggest that the cell was destroyed during the process of secretion. This is consistent with a holocrine type of secretion. Learning Outcome: 4-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

5) Harriet had liposuction several years ago, but has since gained back all the weight lost through the procedure. She does not understand her weight gain because adipocytes are incapable of dividing. Provide a plausible explanation. Answer: While it is true that adipocytes do not divide and the number of fat cells in peripheral tissues is limited, mesenchymal cells can divide and give rise to cells that differentiate into fat cells. Thus, areolar connective tissue can become adipose tissue in times of nutritional excess. Along with this, the fat cells that remain after surgery can enlarge by storing more triglyceride if the patient continues to overeat. Learning Outcome: 4-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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6) Which is likely to heal faster, a bone injury or a cartilage injury? Why? Answer: Bone injuries heal relatively quickly because of the good nutrient supply by way of nearby blood vessels and the canaliculi, whereas cartilage is supplied nutrients via diffusion from the outside, a far slower process. In addition, in bone the cellular layer of the surface periosteum takes part in remodeling and repair, whereas chondrocytes do not usually divide in an adult. Learning Outcome: 4-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

7) The four types of tissue membrane consist of an epithelium supported by connective tissue. What do the qualities of each of these two tissues contribute to the function of the membrane? Use one type of tissue membrane as an example. Answer: The connective tissue provides structural support and strength, and its blood supply sustains the membrane. The epithelial tissue gives a smooth surface that protects against friction by being slippery (or keratinized, for cutaneous membrane), it is secretory (mucus, serous fluid, synovial fluid, sweat and skin oil), and it may control the passage of materials (for example, cutaneous membrane reducing water loss from the body). Learning Outcome: 4-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

8) Why is cardiac muscle tissue that has been damaged by injury or disease incapable of regeneration? Answer: Cardiac muscle canʹt regenerate because it contains no stem cells (satellite cells). Since mature cardiac muscle cells canʹt divide, there is no basis for tissue regeneration. Learning Outcome: 4-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

9) Compare the three types of muscle tissue. List three similarities and three differences among them. Answer: Similarities: All have contractile proteins; skeletal and cardiac have striations; cardiac and smooth are involuntary; cardiac and smooth are uninucleate. Differences: Skeletal is voluntary; cardiac has intercalated discs; smooth is nonstriated; skeletal is multinucleate. Learning Outcome: 4-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

10) What is the difference between neurons and neuroglia? Answer: Neurons are specialized to respond to chemical and electrical signals and communicate by propagating an electric impulse along their axon. Neuroglia are a diverse group of cell types within neural tissue that support, nourish, and protect neurons. Learning Outcome: 4-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

11) During the inflammatory process, blood vessels dilate. What does this accomplish? Answer: It allows for increased blood flow for delivery of nutrients, oxygen, and defense cells and proteins and for the removal of waste products and debris from the site of injury. Learning Outcome: 4-11 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 5

The Integumentary System

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Accumulations of fluid within the epidermis or between the epidermis and the dermis is/are called A) keloids. B) scabs. C) blisters. D) scars. E) pus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

2) Rapid water loss from burned skin is an extreme form of ________ perspiration. A) imprudent B) non-sense C) impractical D) vacuous E) insensible Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

3) Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system  except A) protection of underlying tissue. B) excretion of salts and wastes. C) maintenance of body temperature. D) synthesis of vitamin C. E) detection of sensations. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

4) The two components of the integumentary system are the A) epidermis and dermis. B) cutaneous membrane and hypodermis. C) cutaneous membrane and accessory structures. D) integument and hypodermis. E) epidermis and superficial fascia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) The type of cells that form the strata in the epidermis are A) adipocytes. B) keratinocytes. C) fibroblasts. D) melanocytes. E) dendritic cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) The tough superficial layer of the epidermis is known as the stratum A) corneum. B) lucidum. C) basale. D) granulosum. E) spinosum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) The largest quantities of keratin are found in the epidermal layer called the stratum A) corneum. B) lucidum. C) basale. D) granulosum. E) spinosum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

8) Water loss due to evaporation of fluid that has penetrated through the skin is called ________ perspiration. A) sensible B) insensible C) latent D) active E) inactive Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) The layer of the epidermis that contains several layers of living cells connected by abundant desmosomes is the stratum A) corneum. B) lucidum. C) basale. D) granulosum. E) spinosum. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

10) The layer of the skin that provides a barrier against bacteria as well as chemical and mechanical injuries is the A) dermis. B) subcutaneous layer. C) epidermis. D) stratum basale. E) sebaceous layer. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

11) Characteristics of the epidermis include A) multilayered. B) flexible. C) contains desmosomes. D) serves as UV radiation protection. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

12) All of the following are true of epidermal ridges except that they A) extend into the hypodermis. B) increase surface area and friction on fingertips. C) cause ridge patterns on the surface of the skin. D) produce patterns that are determined partially genetically. E) interconnect with the dermal papillae. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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13) ________ are cells in the epidermis that are part of the immune system. A) Dendritic cells B) Basal cells C) Merkel cells D) Squamous cells E) Melanocytes Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

14) Water loss from insensible perspiration A) is unaffected by damage to the epidermis. B) is too small to be measured reliably. C) is approximately 0.5 liters a day. D) always exceeds sensible perspiration. E) depends on apocrine sweat glands. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

15) The epidermis of the skin is composed of what type of tissue? A) keratinized stratified squamous epithelium B) simple squamous epithelium C) transitional epithelium D) areolar connective tissue E) nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

16) The layer of stem cells that constantly divide to renew the epidermis is the A) stratum corneum. B) stratum basale. C) papillary layer. D) basal lamina. E) stratum granulosum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

17) The protein that reduces water loss at the skin surface is A) eleidin. B) collagen. C) mucin. D) keratin. E) melanin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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18) Thin skin contains ________ epidermal layer(s) and thick skin contains ________ layers. A) 1; 2 B) 2; 3 C) 3; 4 D) 4; 5 E) 5; 6 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

19) While walking barefoot on the beach, Joe stepped on a thorn that penetrated through the sole of his foot to the dermis. How many layers of epidermis did the thorn penetrate? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

20) Which of following is not an accessory structure of the integumentary system? A) sweat glands B) hair follicles C) exocrine glands D) nails E) dermis Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

21) All of the following contain blood vessels except the A) epidermis. B) papillary layer. C) reticular layer. D) subcutaneous layer. E) hypodermis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

22) The sensory cells associated with the deep layers of the epidermis are A) Pacinian corpuscles. B) Merkel cells. C) melanocytes. D) Meissnerʹs corpuscles. E) keratinocytes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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23) The layer of epidermis where most cells have stopped dividing and started making large amounts of keratin is the A) stratum spinosum. B) stratum corneum. C) stratum granulosum. D) stratum lucidum. E) stratum basale. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

24) The layer of epidermis where keratohyalin crosslinks keratin fibers is the A) stratum spinosum. B) stratum corneum. C) stratum granulosum. D) stratum lucidum. E) stratum basale. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

25) The amount of time it takes for a cell to progress from stratum basale to stratum corneum is A) 7-10 days. B) 14 days. C) 5 days. D) 1 day. E) 1 minute. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 5-1  The Components of the Integumentary System Use Figure 5-1 to answer the following questions: 26) From what structure does sensible perspiration occur? A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9 E) 10 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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27) Which layer is the primary barrier against environmental hazards? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

28) Which layer contains most of the accessory structures? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

29) Adipose tissue is a major component of the region labeled A) 1. B) 2. C) 3. D) 4. E) 5. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

30) Which tissue is located in the region labeled ʺ2ʺ? A) stratified squamous epithelium B) areolar connective tissue C) adipose tissue D) cartilage and blood E) reticular connective tissues Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

31) The layer of the skin that contains bundles of collagen and elastic fibers responsible for the strength of the skin is the ________ layer. A) papillary B) reticular C) epidermal D) subcutaneous E) hypodermal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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32) The drug tretinoin (Retin-A) A) reduces the appearance of fine wrinkles. B) minimizes scarring after surgery. C) stimulates hair growth. D) improves night vision. E) is used to treat dandruff. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

33) Skin inflammation that primarily involves the papillary layer is termed A) papillitis. B) dermatitis. C) epidermatitis. D) superficialis. E) melanocytis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

34) A surgical incision parallel to the lines of cleavage A) closes and heals with relatively little scarring. B) has a tendency to reopen. C) heals slower than incisions made perpendicular to the lines of cleavage. D) does not affect the healing process. E) requires no sutures. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

35) While assessing a patient, you discover that after pinching the skin on the back of the hand, it remains peaked. This is a sign of A) hydration intoxication. B) water intoxication. C) dehydration. D) advanced skin cancer. E) malfunctioning elastin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

36) Stretch marks occur when A) the skin is stretched in normal movements. B) surgical incisions are made perpendicular to the skinʹs lines of cleavage. C) the skin is so extensively stretched that its elastic limits are exceeded. D) athletes overextend a muscle. E) individual epidermal layers separate. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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37) The cutaneous plexus is A) a network of nerves in the cutaneous membrane. B) a superficial network of dermal arteries. C) a deep network of dermal arteries along the boundary of the reticular layer. D) a neural plexus responsible for deep pressure. E) a network of arteries in the epidermis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

38) The subpapillary plexus is A) a network of nerves in the cutaneous membrane. B) a superficial network of dermal arteries. C) a deep network of dermal arteries along the boundary of the reticular layer. D) a neural plexus responsible for deep pressure. E) a network of arteries in the epidermis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

39) What are the dermal sensory structures that sense deep pressure? A) Meissnerʹs corpuscles B) lamellar corpuscle C) tactile corpuscles D) tactile dics E) Merkel cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

40) All of the following are true of the subcutaneous layer except it A) contains many blood vessels. B) permits independent movement of deeper structures. C) contains large amounts of adipose tissue. D) is attached to the dermis by a basement membrane. E) is well supplied with nerves that pass into the skin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

41) The layer of loose connective tissue deep to the dermis is the A) epidermis. B) subcutaneous layer. C) hyperdermis. D) deep fascia. E) reticular layer. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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42) The primary pigments contained in the epidermis are A) carotene, hemoglobin, and xanthophyll. B) carotene, eumelanin, and pheomelanin. C) melanin, chromatin, and chlorophyll. D) xanthophyll, hemoglobin, and melanin. E) melanin, carotene, and chromatin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

43) An albino individual lacks the ability to produce A) melanin. B) keratin. C) carotene. D) perspiration. E) eleidin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

44) Cyanosis signifies that a patient has A) had too much sun. B) been kept out of the sun. C) an allergic reaction. D) oxygen-starved skin. E) been exposed to cyanide. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

45) Jaundice is indicated by a(n) ________ skin coloration. A) reddish B) yellowish C) orange D) bluish E) brown Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

46) Exposure to ultraviolet light (sunlight) causes the skin to darken by increasing the production of A) hemoglobin. B) carotene. C) collagen. D) keratin. E) melanin. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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47) The ________ in keratinocytes protects the epidermis and dermis from the harmful effects of sunlight. A) sebum B) hemoglobin C) melanin D) carotene E) keratin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

48) The pigment found in vegetables that can make the skin appear orange or yellow is called A) cadmium. B) carotene. C) hemoglobin. D) keratin. E) melanin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

49) Melanin is produced by melanocytes within the stratum A) corneum. B) lucidum. C) granulosum. D) spinosum. E) basale. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

50) Which one of the following is the red-yellow form of melanin? A) eumelanin B) phycomelanin C) anthomelanin D) pheomelanin E) promelanin Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

51) Which of the following is the brown-black form of melanin? A) eumelanin B) phycomelanin C) anthomelanin D) pheomelanin E) promelanin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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52) Which of the following is not true of melanin? A) There is more than 1 type of melanin. B) Melanin is released by exocytosis. C) It is manufactured from tyrosine. D) It is packaged in vesicles called melanosomes. E) It absorbs UV radiation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

53) Which of the following causes yellowing of the skin? A) vitiligo B) pituitary tumor affecting melanocyte stimulating hormone C) Addisonʹs disease D) cyanosis E) faulty bile excretion in the liver Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

54) Which pigment is responsible for blushing? A) eumelanin B) pheomelanin C) carotene D) hemoglobin E) melanocyte stimulating hormone Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

55) Which of the following is not an effect of ultraviolet radiation? A) increased activity by melanocytes B) production of cholecalciferol within epidermal cells C) reduced amounts of elastic fibers in the dermis D) chromosomal damage in germinative cells or melanocytes E) loss in skin pigmentation as seen in vitiligo Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

56) Which of the following is formed in the skin when it is exposed to sunlight? A) vitamin A B) vitamin B C) vitamin C D) vitamin D E) vitamin E Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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57) Which of the following statements about rickets is not true? A) It is usually genetic. B) It leads to weak bones. C) It leads to skeletal deformity. D) It is prevented by vitamin D. E) It is prevented by sunlight. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

58) A deficiency disease that illustrates the effect of integumentary system function on the structure of the skeletal system is A) osteoporosis. B) seborrheic dermatitis. C) decubitus ulcers. D) rickets. E) beriberi. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

59) The most dangerous type of skin cancer is called A) keratosis. B) psoriasis. C) squamous cell carcinoma. D) melanoma. E) basal cell carcinoma. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

60) Vitamin D3 is important for proper ________ development. A) skin B) bone C) muscle D) vision E) neural Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

61) Skin cancer that starts in the mitotically most active epidermal layer is called A) keratosis. B) psoriasis. C) squamous cell carcinoma. D) melanoma. E) basal cell carcinoma. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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62) Children in northern regions experience months of inadequate sunlight exposure on the skin. To prevent possible abnormal bone development, what essential organic nutrient is necessary in the diet? A) vitamin C B) calcium C) cholecalciferol D) protein E) retinol-A Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

63) The layer of hard keratin that acts as the surface of the hair is termed the A) medulla. B) cuticle. C) hair bulb. D) root. E) shaft. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

64) Variations in hair color reflect differences in the pigment produced by A) keratinocytes. B) melanocytes. C) dermal papillae. D) soft keratin. E) carotene cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

65) Which of the following is correct about Lanugo hairs? A) also known as ʺpeach fuzzʺ B) persists throughout the entire life C) deeply pigmented and somewhat coarse D) exists primarily in fetuses E) never found on the feet Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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66) If the papilla of a hair follicle is destroyed, A) the hair produced by the follicle will change from terminal to vellus. B) the color of the hair will become lighter. C) the texture of the hair will become coarser. D) the hair matrix will lose its blood supply. E) hair production will not be affected. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

67) When the arrector pili muscles contract, A) ʺgoose bumpsʺ are formed. B) hairs are shed. C) sweat is released from sweat glands. D) shivering occurs. E) the skin changes color. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

68) Which of the following statements concerning hair is false? A) The medulla is the soft core of the hair. B) The cortex of the hair is composed of hard keratin. C) Terminal hairs are heavy and more darkly pigmented than other types of hair. D) Club hair is hair that has ceased growing. E) Scalp hairs grow constantly throughout life. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

69) Fine hairs (like ʺvelvetʺ) that lack pigment and cover much of the body surface are called ________ hairs. A) veneer B) gossamer C) lanugo D) vellus E) terminal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

70) Coarse pigmented hairs are called ________ hairs. A) veneer B) gossamer C) lanugo D) vellus E) terminal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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71) The network of sensory nerves that surrounds the base of each hair follicle is the A) root hair plexus. B) hair papilla. C) hair matrix. D) cutaneous plexus. E) subpapillary plexus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

72) Arrange the layers of the hair follicle from outermost to innermost layers. 1. cuticle 2. glassy membrane 3. medulla 4. connective tissue sheath 5. external root sheath 6. internal root sheath 7. cortex A) 1,5,7,6,2,3,4 B) 4,2,5,6,1,7,3 C) 4,2,6,5,1,7,3 D) 4,6,2,5,7,1,3 E) 4,2,5,6,3,7,1 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

73) A common cause of dandruff is A) inflammation around sebaceous glands. B) lack of sebaceous glands. C) too many sebaceous glands. D) inactive apocrine glands. E) inactive eccrine glands. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

74) Glands that discharge an oily secretion into hair follicles are ________ glands. A) ceruminous B) apocrine sweat C) merocrine sweat D) sebaceous E) mammary Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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75) The ________ glands in the axilla become active at the time of puberty. A) ceruminous B) apocrine sweat C) merocrine sweat D) sebaceous E) axillary Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

76) Sensible perspiration is produced by ________ glands. A) ceruminous B) apocrine sweat C) merocrine sweat D) sebaceous E) mammary Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

77) Earwax is produced by ________ glands. A) sebaceous B) apocrine sweat C) merocrine sweat D) ceruminous E) eccrine sweat Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

78) The highest concentration of merocrine sweat glands is found A) in the axillae. B) on the chest. C) on the palms of the hands. D) on the upper back. E) surrounding the genitals. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

79) ________ sweat glands are widely distributed across the body surface, ________ glands are located wherever hair follicles exist, and ________ sweat glands are found only in a few areas. A) Sebaceous; merocrine; apocrine B) Apocrine; merocrine; sebaceous C) Merocrine; sebaceous; apocrine D) Merocrine; apocrine; sebaceous E) Apocrine; sebaceous; merocrine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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80) Which of the following happens if body temperature rises above normal? A) Circulation in the skin decreases. B) Sweat gland activity decreases. C) Evaporative cooling stops. D) Blood flow to the skin increases. E) The activity of melanocytes increases. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

81) Merocrine sweat glands A) are compound alveolar glands. B) produce organic secretions that are metabolized by bacteria to produce body odor. C) secrete a watery fluid directly onto the surface of the skin. D) increase in number and activity with aging. E) primarily function in lubricating the hairs. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

82) All of the following are true of perspiration produced by merocrine sweat glands  except that it A) is more than 99 percent water. B) contains electrolytes and waste products. C) helps cool the body when it evaporates. D) helps to prevent bacteria from colonizing the skin. E) produces the body odor characteristic of ʺsweating.ʺ Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

83) Which of the following is not a function of the sebum? A) It inhibits growth of bacteria. B) It lubricates the hair shaft. C) It conditions the surrounding skin. D) It helps the skin shed excess heat. E) It protects the hair shaft. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

84) Which of the following is not a function of the exocrine sweat gland? A) It cools the surface of the skin. B) It conditions the surrounding skin with its lipid secretion. C) It excretes electrolytes. D) It interferes with adhesion of microorganisms. E) It uses dermicidin as antibiotic protection. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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85) The nail body covers the A) nail root. B) nail bed. C) lunula. D) free edge. E) hyponychium. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

86) Nail production occurs at the nail A) body. B) bed. C) root. D) cuticle. E) hyponychium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

87) The cuticle around a nail is the A) eponychium. B) hyponychium. C) free edge. D) perinychium. E) lunula. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

88) The stratum corneum just under the free edge of a nail is the A) hyponychium. B) lunula. C) eponychium. D) nail root. E) cuticle. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

89) A child who skins his knee in a fall has a(n) A) abrasion. B) laceration. C) puncture. D) incision. E) contusion. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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90) In a penetrating wound, ________ divide to produce mobile cells that repair the dermis. A) granulation cells B) dendritic cells C) macrophages D) fibroblasts E) muscle cells Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

91) The type of burn that may require a skin graft is a ________ burn. A) first-degree B) second-degree C) third-degree D) partial-thickness E) epidermal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

92) If a fair-skinned person is outside on a hot sunny day, why does his or her skin turn red? A) The blood flow to the skin increases. B) The number of red melanocytes in the skin increases. C) Melanocytes increase production of red pigments. D) Carotene production greatly increases. E) Decreased heat causes the skin to turn red. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

93) Skin can regenerate effectively even after considerable damage has occurred because A) the epidermis of the skin has a rich supply of small blood vessels. B) stem cells persist in the skin even after injury. C) fibroblasts in the dermis can give rise to new germinal cells in the epidermis. D) contraction in the area of the injury brings cells of adjacent strata together. E) cells of the stratum basale cannot migrate to other positions in the skin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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94) The following are stages in the regeneration of skin following an injury. What is the correct order for these events? 1. inflammation 2. cellular migration 3. epidermis covers granulation tissue 4. epidermis covers scar tissue A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 4, 3, 2, 1 C) 4, 3, 1, 2 D) 3, 4, 1, 2 E) 2, 4, 1, 3 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

95) Scar tissue is the result of A) large numbers of inflexible fibers and relatively few blood vessels in the injured area. B) increased numbers of keratinocytes in the epidermal layers in the area of the injury. C) a thickened stratum basale in the area of the injury. D) increased numbers of fibroblasts in the reticular layer of the injured area. E) a lack of sebaceous glands in the injured area. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

96) During repair of the integument, fibroblasts follow areas of new capillary growth and produce ________ tissue. A) scar B) epithelial C) granulation D) pus E) keloid Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

97) Charlie is badly burned in an accident. When he reaches the emergency room, the examining physician finds that he can remove entire hair follicles from Charlieʹs arm when he gently pulls on a hair with his forceps. Charlie is suffering from a(n) ________ burn. A) first-degree B) second-degree C) third-degree D) partial-thickness E) epidermal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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98) A thickened area of scar tissue that is covered by a shiny, smooth epidermal surface is called a A) keloid. B) contusion. C) hematoma. D) psoriasis. E) sclerotome. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

99) A fibrin clot that is formed over a skin wound is called a A) scar. B) keloid. C) graft. D) scab. E) plug. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

100) The combination of blood clot, fibroblasts, and extensive capillary network that is formed in injured skin is called ________ tissue. A) germinative B) spinous C) fibrocytic D) granulation E) abscess Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

101) A bacterial infection that is often fatal in burn patients is called A) sepsis. B) necrosis. C) toxis. D) pernicious. E) noxious. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

102) The effects of aging on the skin include A) a decline in the activity of sebaceous glands. B) increased production of vitamin D. C) thickening of the epidermis. D) an increased blood supply to the dermis. E) a decreased number of sweat glands. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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103) Wrinkles in individuals are the result of A) increased production of epidermal layers. B) loss of elastic fibers in the reticular layer of the dermis. C) increased keratinization of the epidermis. D) the loss of glands and hair follicles from the skin. E) decreased thickness of the dermis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

104) Why would an elderly person be more prone to skin infections than a younger person? A) Skin repairs take longer in the elderly. B) The epidermis is thinner in the elderly. C) There are fewer dendritic cells in the skin of the elderly. D) Basal cell activity is reduced in the elderly. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) What types of glands are found in the skin? (Figure 5-1) A) salivary glands and submucosal glands B) endocrine glands and salivary glands C) mucus glands and submucosal glands D) sebaceous glands and sweat glands E) cerumen glands and endocrine glands Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) Which plexus supplies blood to the capillary loops that follow the epidermis-dermis boundary? (Figure 5-6) A) submucosal plexus B) mucosal plexus C) subcapillary plexus D) cutaneous plexus E) epidermal plexus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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3) In which layer of the skin are melanocytes found? (Figure 5-8) A) stratum basale B) stratum spinosum C) stratum granulosum D) stratum lucidum E) stratum corneum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) What are the bodyʹs two sources of cholecalciferol (vitamin D 3 )? (Figure 5-10) A) air and water B) air and food C) sunlight and water D) sunlight and food E) air and sunlight Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

5) Where do sebaceous glands and sebaceous follicles discharge their secretions? (Figure 5-13) A) epidermis; hair follicle B) hair follicle; epidermis C) hair root; dermis D) dermis; hair root E) both into the dermis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

Essay Questions 1) Many lipid-soluble medications can be delivered by diffusion across the skin. This process is called transdermal administration and is commonly done by applying patches that contain the medication to the surface of the skin. These patches can be attached anywhere on the skin except the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet. Why? Answer: Thick skin slows the rate of diffusion of the medication and thus decreases its effectiveness. In addition, excessive sweat formed on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet would make the patch fall off more readily. Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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2) In a condition known as sunstroke, the victim appears flushed, the skin is warm and dry, and the body temperature rises dramatically. Explain these observations based on what you know concerning the role of the skin in thermoregulation. Answer: When the body temperature increases, more blood flow is directed to the vessels of the skin. The red cells in the blood give the skin a redder -than-usual color and account for the victimʹs flushed appearance. The skin is dry because the sweat glands are not producing sweat (avoiding further dehydration). Without evaporation cooling, not enough heat is dissipated from the skin, the skin is warm, and the body temperature rises. This situation represents positive feedback operating in a disease state. Learning Outcome: 5-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

3) Why is regional infection or inflammation of the skin usually very painful? Answer: Inflammation of the skin is painful because sensory receptors are abundant in the skin. Changes associated with swelling stimulate the sensory receptors, resulting in a painful sensation. Learning Outcome: 5-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

4) Why is a subcutaneous injection with a hypodermic needle a useful method of administering drugs? Answer: The subcutaneous layer has a limited capillary supply and contains no vital organs; thus, the potential for tissue damage is reduced. Learning Outcome: 5-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

5) A new mother notices that her 6-month-old infant has a yellow-orange complexion. Fearful that the child may have jaundice, she takes him to her pediatrician. After examining the child and learning about the infantʹs diet, the pediatrician declares him perfectly healthy and advises the mother to watch the childʹs diet. What is likely the cause for the change in skin color? Answer: The infant probably has a fondness for vegetables that are high in carotene, such as sweet potatoes, squash, and carrots. It is not uncommon for parents to feed babies what they will eat best. If the child consumes large amounts of carotene, the yellow -orange pigment will be stored in the skin, producing a yellow-orange skin color. This harmless condition is known as carotenosis. Learning Outcome: 5-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

6) Explain how to use the mnemonic ABCD when checking for signs of skin cancer. Answer: When checking for signs of skin cancer one can take a careful look at the appearance of existing moles. The mnemonic ABCD assists with this process because each letter corresponds with a physical characteristic of moles. A stands for asymmetry (healthy moles appear symmetrical); B stands for border (healthy moles have a regular, well defined border); C stands for color (healthy moles have a single color); D stands for diameter (healthy moles have a diameter of less than 5 mm). Learning Outcome: 5-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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7) Explain how skin helps to thermally regulate body temperature. Answer: When body temperature rises, the blood vessels beneath your epidermis are dilated and filled with blood, your skin reddens, and the surface of your skin is warm and wet due the excess heat in the blood. As the moisture evaporates, the excess heat evaporates with it, and your skin cools. If your body temperature then falls below normal, sensible perspiration stops, blood flow to the skin is reduced, and the skin surfaces cools and dries, releasing little heat into the environment. Learning Outcome: 5-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

8) Why is scab formation important in wound healing? Answer: Scabs temporarily restore epidermal integrity, restricting further entry of microorganisms. They also prevent the loss of fluids, maintaining internal fluid balance, and protect the delicate granulation tissue during tissue recovery. Learning Outcome: 5-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

9) Vanessaʹs 80-year-old grandmother sets her thermostat at 26°C (80°F) and wears a sweater on balmy spring days. When asked why, the grandmother says she feels cold. What is a possible cause for her feeling cold? Answer: Most elderly people have poor blood flow to the skin. Thus, their skin becomes cold. This triggers thermal receptors in the skin to signal cold skin. The brain interprets this as a cold body temperature. Learning Outcome: 5-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 6

Bones and Bone Structure

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of following is a function of the skeletal system? A) body support B) calcium homeostasis C) protection of internal organs D) blood cell production E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) Which of the following are not components of the skeletal system? A) tendons B) bones C) ligaments D) cartilage E) other tissues that connect bones Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

3) The shaft of long bones is called the A) epiphysis. B) metaphysis. C) diaphysis. D) paraphysis. E) endophysis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) A ________ is a smooth, grooved bone process shaped like a pulley. A) tubercle B) trochanter C) trochlea D) tuberosity E) trabeculae Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) A small rough bump on bone where a tendon attaches is called a A) tubercle. B) trochanter. C) trochlea. D) tuberosity. E) trabecula. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) A chamber within a bone normally filled with air is a A) foramen. B) sinus. C) fossa. D) canal. E) meatus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) The expanded articular end of an epiphysis that is separated from the shaft by a narrower neck is called a A) head. B) crown. C) capitulum. D) corona. E) bulb. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) A ________ is a rounded passageway for passage of blood vessels and/or nerves. A) sinus B) fossa C) meatus D) foramen E) cavernosa Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

9) The adult skeleton contains ________ major bones. A) 88 B) 115 C) 174 D) 206 E) 251 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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10) Which of the following bones is classified as ʺirregularʺ in shape? A) patella B) frontal C) vertebra D) metatarsal E) ulna Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

11) The proximal and distal ends of a long bone are called the A) epiphyses. B) diaphyses. C) epiphyseal plates. D) metaphyses. E) periphyses. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

12) The carpal bones are examples of ________ bones. A) long B) short C) flat D) irregular E) sesamoid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

13) A rib is an example of a ________ bone. A) long B) short C) flat D) sutural E) sesamoid Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

14) The patella is an example of a(n) ________ bone. A) irregular B) sesamoid C) sutural D) sagittal E) flat Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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15) Small bones that fill gaps between bones of the skull are called ________ bones. A) irregular B) sesamoid C) sutural D) sagittal E) tendon Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

16) ________ bones develop inside tendons, commonly near the knees, hands, and feet. A) Irregular B) Sesamoid C) Short D) Long E) Flat Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

17) The humerus is an example of a(n) ________ bone. A) long B) short C) flat D) irregular E) sesamoid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

18) A ________ is a large rough proximal projection on a bone. A) ramus B) trochanter C) tuberosity D) tubercle E) condyle Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

19) A rounded passage or hole through a bone is called a A) ramus. B) foramen. C) linea. D) tubercle. E) facet. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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20) The smooth, rounded articular process of a bone is termed a A) crest. B) ridge. C) head. D) condyle. E) trochlea. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

21) A shallow depression on a bone is termed a A) fossa. B) sulcus. C) facet. D) fissure. E) line. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

22) The region of a long bone between the end and the shaft is known as the A) diaphysis. B) epiphysis. C) osseophysis. D) metaphysis. E) medullary cavity. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

23) Bones that are relatively long and slender, consisting of a shaft with two ends are A) long bones. B) flat bones. C) sesamoid bones. D) short bones. E) irregular bones. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

24) Bones that have thin parallel surfaces are A) long bones. B) flat bones. C) sesamoid bones. D) short bones. E) irregular bones. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) Bones that are boxy with approximately equal dimensions are A) long bones. B) flat bones. C) sesamoid bones. D) short bones. E) irregular bones. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

26) Bones that have complex shapes are A) long bones. B) flat bones. C) sesamoid bones. D) short bones. E) irregular bones. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

27) Bones that are small, round and tend to develop in tendons are A) long bones. B) flat bones. C) sesamoid bones. D) short bones. E) irregular bones. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

28) Canaliculi are A) also known as Volkmannʹs channels. B) the same as Haversian canals. C) narrow passageways in the matrix connecting lacunae to blood supply. D) layers of bony matrix laid down in rings. E) have both a fibrous outer layer and a cellular inner layer. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

29) Which of the following is not true of osteocytes? A) Osteocytes maintain protein and mineral content of matrix. B) Osteocytes take part in repair of damaged bone. C) Osteocytes form cytoplasmic extensions within canaliculi. D) Osteocytes are located within lacunae. E) Osteocytes have 50 or more nuclei. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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30) Which of the following is true of osteoclasts? A) Osteoclasts maintain protein and mineral content of matrix. B) Osteoclasts are responsible for laying down osteoid. C) Osteoclasts form cytoplasmic extensions within canaliculi. D) Osteoclasts are located within lacunae. E) Osteoclasts secretes protein digesting enzymes and acids that dissolve matrix. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

31) Which of following is/are produced from the monocyte stem cells? A) osteoblasts B) osteoclasts C) osteocytes D) osteoprogenitor cells E) osteogenic cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

32) Which of the following labels best matches osteocyte? A) stem cell B) dissolves matrix C) mature bone cell D) secretes organic matrix E) immature bone cell Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

33) Bone is composed of ________ percent cells. A) 25 B) 10 C) 2 D) 15 E) 50 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

34) Cells that secrete the organic components of the bone matrix are called A) osteocytes. B) osteoprogenitor cells. C) osteoblasts. D) osteoclasts. E) osteoid cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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35) ________ are stem cells that develop into osteoblasts. A) Osteoclasts B) Osteocytes C) Osteomedullary cells D) Osteogenic cells E) Osteoid cells Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

36) Through the action of osteoclasts, A) new bone is formed. B) an organic framework is formed. C) bony matrix is dissolved. D) osteoid is calcified. E) fractured bones regenerate. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

37) The space occupied by an osteocyte is called A) Volkmannʹs canal. B) a lacuna. C) a trabecula. D) a Haversian canal. E) a canaliculus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

38) Which of the following chemicals is not present in bone? A) calcium phosphate B) collagen fibers C) calcium carbonate D) chondroitin sulfate E) hydroxyapatite Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

39) ________ account(s) for almost two-thirds of the weight of bone. A) Water B) Calcium carbonate C) Collagen fibers D) Fluoride E) Calcium phosphate Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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40) ________ cells are located in the inner cellular layer of the periosteum. A) Osteocyte B) Osteoclast C) Osteoid D) Osteogenic E) Osteolytic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

41) The ________ interactions allow bone to be strong, somewhat flexible, and highly resistant to shattering. A) collagen-fiber B) protein-crystal C) mineral-crystal D) protein-protein E) hydroxyapatite-crystal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

42) The most abundant cell type in bone is A) osteoclasts. B) osteoblasts. C) osteolytes. D) osteoprogenitor cells. E) osteocytes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

43) The lacunae of osseous tissue contain A) blood cells. B) osteocytes. C) chondroblasts. D) bone marrow. E) capillaries. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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44) How would removing hydroxyapatite from bone matrix affect the physical properties of a bone? A) The bone would be less flexible. B) The bone would be stronger. C) The bone would be more brittle. D) The bone would be more flexible. E) The bone would be more compressible. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

45) The narrow passageways that contain cytoplasmic extensions of osteocytes are called A) central canals. B) lacunae. C) canaliculi. D) medullary cavities. E) foramina. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

46) In bone, the calcium phosphate forms crystals of A) osteoid matrix. B) calcium carbonate. C) hydroxyapatite. D) calcitriol. E) proteolytic enzymes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

47) Stem cells that can differentiate into osteoblasts are called ________ cells. A) osteopropagator B) osteoforming C) osteocreator D) osteotrophic E) osteogenic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

48) Cells that free calcium from bone to maintain blood calcium levels are called A) osteolytics. B) osteoclasts. C) osteoblasts. D) osteogenics. E) osteocytes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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49) ________ prevents damaging bone-to-bone contact within movable joints. A) A synovial membrane B) Elastic cartilage C) A serous membrane D) Articular cartilage E) Serous fluid Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

50) Cells that are found in small depressions on the endosteal surfaces are the A) osteolytic cells. B) osteoclasts. C) osteoblasts. D) osteocytes. E) osteogenic cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

51) Cells that secrete protein fibers in bone are called A) osteolytic cells. B) osteoclasts. C) osteoblasts. D) osteocytes. E) osteogenic cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

52) The organic component of the matrix in developing or repairing bone is called A) osteon. B) osteoid. C) hydroxyapatite. D) mesenchymal tissue. E) calcium phosphate. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

53) Layers of bony matrix at the outer and inner surfaces of bone and covered by the periosteum and the endosteum are A) concentric lamellae. B) osteons. C) Haversian systems. D) interstitial lamellae. E) circumferential lamellae. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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54) The layer of bone that is interwoven with tendons is the A) circumferential lamellae. B) periosteum. C) endosteum. D) concentric lamellae. E) perichondrium. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

55) Connective tissue fibers incorporated into bone tissue from ligaments are called A) elastic fibers. B) reticular fibers. C) perforating fibers. D) superficial fibers. E) calcified fibers. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

56) The central canal of an osteon contains A) bone marrow. B) osteocytes. C) concentric lamellae. D) blood vessels. E) lacunae. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

57) The interconnecting tiny arches of bone tissue found in spongy bone are called A) osteons. B) trabeculae. C) concentric lamellae. D) interstitial lamellae. E) lacunae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

58) The type of bone that is adapted to withstand stresses that arrive from many directions is ________ bone. A) spongy B) osteon C) compact D) lamellar E) irregular Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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59) The structural units of mature compact bone are called A) trabeculae. B) osteocytes. C) osteons. D) canaliculi. E) lamellae. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

60) Adipose tissue is stored within the A) medullary cavity. B) metaphysis. C) spongy bone. D) epiphysis. E) diaphysis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

61) Which of the following is a characteristic of bone? A) The bone matrix is very dense and contains deposits of calcium salts. B) The matrix of the bone contains osteoclasts and chondroblasts. C) Narrow channels pass through the matrix to allow for muscle attachment. D) The matrix of bone is mostly collagen with very little calcium. E) For strength, compact bone is organized into a meshwork of matrix called trabeculae. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

62) In relationship to the diaphysis of a long bone, the osteons are A) radial. B) anterior. C) parallel. D) proximal. E) diagonal. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

63) The femur can withstand ________ times the bodyʹs weight without breaking. A) 3 B) 5 to 10 C) 8 D) 10 to 15 E) 30 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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64) ________ marrow is found between the trabeculae of spongy bone. A) Blue B) Yellow C) White D) Gray E) Red Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

65) The lining of the medullary cavity is called the A) endosteum. B) periosteum. C) epiosteum. D) mediosteum. E) paraosteum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

66) ________ bone reduces the weight of the skeleton and reduces the load on muscles. A) Short B) Irregular C) Spongy D) Compact E) Long Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

67) The layers of bone tissue immediately deep to the periosteum are A) circumferential lamellae. B) osteoid plates. C) trabeculae. D) concentric lamellae. E) epiphseal ridges. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

68) Which statement is true regarding calcium in bone matrix? A) Calcium is found in crystals called hydroxyapatite. B) Calcium is secreted by osteoblasts into the matrix. C) Once deposited, calcium cannot be removed from bone. D) Calcium provides flexibility to the bone matrix. E) Calcium is the organic part of the matrix. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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69) The trabeculae of spongy bone A) are organized parallel to the long axis of the bone. B) are organized along stress lines. C) are composed mostly of cartilage. D) will collapse under stress. E) are concentrated in the cortex of the diaphysis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

Figure 6-1 The Structure of Compact Bone Use Figure 6-1 to answer the following questions: 70) Which structure is called an osteon? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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71) Which structure is characteristic of spongy bone? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

72) The structure labeled ʺ3ʺ is the result of which process? A) bone cells adding matrix between existing osteons B) surface growth of bone C) remodeling of compact bone D) remodeling of spongy bone E) osteoporosis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

73) Identify the structures labeled ʺ4.ʺ A) concentric lamellae B) circumferential lamellae C) interstitial lamellae D) trabeculae E) periosteum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

74) What lines the structure labeled ʺ7ʺ? A) the endosteum B) blood vessels C) the central canal D) spongy bone E) trabeculae Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

75) Blood is distributed from the surface of a bone to deeper central canals through channels known as A) perforating canals. B) canaliculi. C) interstitial canals. D) concentric ducts. E) concentric canals. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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76) ________ fibers are stronger than steel when stretched. A) Calcium B) Mineral C) Elastic D) Carbon E) Collagen Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

77) The superficial membrane of a bone is called the A) endosteum. B) ectosteum. C) cortical membrane. D) periosteum. E) osteoid collar. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

78) The process by which osteoblasts add layers to circumferential lamellae is A) appositional growth. B) interstitial growth. C) intramembranous growth. D) endochondral ossification. E) epiphyseal ossification. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

79) During endochondral ossification these vessels invade the cartilage of the diaphysis. A) metaphyseal vessels B) nutrient arteries and veins C) periosteal vessels D) endosteal vessels E) diaphyseal artery and vein Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

80) During the process of ________, an existing tissue is replaced by bone. A) phosphorylation B) resorption C) ossification D) osteopropagation E) remodeling Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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81) A calcified skeletal muscle is an example of A) bone spurs. B) osteoporosis. C) heterotopic bone formation. D) osteodysplasia. E) osteomalacia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

82) What type of tissue is replaced in the embryo during endochondral ossification? A) connective tissue membranes B) fibrocartilage C) mesenchymal tissue D) hyaline cartilage E) Whartonʹs jelly Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

83) The articular cartilage of a typical long bone is composed of what type of cartilage? A) elastic cartilage B) synovial cartilage C) hyaline cartilage D) fibrocartilage E) osseous cartilage Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

84) The deposition of calcium salts in bone tissues is referred to as A) hardening. B) ossification. C) calcification. D) osteogenesis. E) remodeling. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

85) Which of the following is formed by intramembranous ossification? A) roof of the skull B) carpal bones C) femur D) clavicle E) the roof of the skull and the clavicle Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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86) Endochondral ossification begins with the formation of a(n) A) fibrous connective-tissue model. B) cartilage model. C) membranous model. D) calcified model. E) osteoid model. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

87) The following are important steps in the process of endochondral ossification. What is the correct order for these events? 1. Enlarged chondrocytes die. 2. Osteoblasts replace calcified cartilage with spongy bone. 3. Chondrocytes enlarge and the surrounding matrix begins to calcify. 4. Blood vessels grow around the edges of the cartilage. 5. Perichondrial cells become osteoblasts and produce a superficial layer of bone. A) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2 B) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2 C) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2 D) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 E) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

88) Secondary ossification centers occur A) in the diaphysis. B) at the periosteum. C) in the epiphyses. D) in the metaphyses. E) in dermal bones. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

89) Intramembranous ossification begins with differentiation of ________ cells. A) osteoclast B) osteolytic C) mesenchymal D) osteoblast E) osteocyte Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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90) Which of the following statements about Marfanʹs syndrome is  false? A) It results in short, stubby fingers. B) It results from a mutation. C) It affects connective tissue structures. D) It affects epiphyseal cartilages. E) It may also cause cardiovascular problems. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

91) Bone growth in length occurs by mitosis of A) concentric lamellae. B) cartilage cells in the epiphyseal side of the metaphysis. C) growth of trabeculae. D) osteoblasts in the endosteum. E) cartilage cells in the diaphyseal side of the metaphysis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

92) Intramembranous ossification A) produces flat bones, as in the bones of the roof of the skull. B) explains how a juvenileʹs bone can grow in length. C) occurs in the diaphysis of a long bone. D) occurs inside a bag of cartilage. E) occurs in all bones before birth. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

93) Primary ossification centers develop in long bones in the A) proximal epiphysis. B) periosteum. C) metaphysis. D) distal epiphysis. E) diaphysis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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94) Suppose that epiphyseal lines appear in a 10 -year-oldʹs long bones. Which of the following statements is, therefore, true? A) The epiphyseal plates have ossified and further growth in length is not possible. B) Administration of growth hormone will stimulate future bone growth in length. C) Osteoclasts will dissolve the metaphysis so length growth can continue until adulthood. D) More growth will occur during the teenage years as sex hormones stimulate rebuilding of growth plates. E) Intramembranous ossification will enable further growth in length. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

95) During appositional growth, A) bones grow longer. B) bones grow wider. C) cartilage replaces bone. D) the epiphysis fuses with the diaphysis. E) compact bone replaces spongy bone. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

96) When the epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone, A) puberty begins. B) interstitial bone growth begins. C) appositional bone growth begins. D) long bones have reached their adult length. E) the bone becomes more brittle. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

97) When cartilage is produced at the epiphyseal side of the metaphysis at the same rate as bone is deposited on the opposite side, bones A) grow longer. B) grow wider. C) become shorter. D) become more porous and weaker. E) become thicker. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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98) Accelerated closure of the epiphyseal plates could be caused by A) high levels of vitamin D. B) too much calcium in the diet. C) elevated levels of estrogen. D) too little thyroxine. E) an excess of growth hormone. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

99) When production of sex hormones increases at puberty, epiphyseal plates A) widen. B) become narrower. C) increase slowly. D) accelerate rapidly, but mostly in thickness. E) are hardly affected. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

100) The following are major steps in the process of intramembranous ossification: 1. Clusters of osteoblasts form osteoid that becomes mineralized. 2. Osteoblasts differentiate within mesenchymal connective tissue. 3. Spicules of bone radiate out from the ossification centers. 4. Mesenchymal cells aggregate. What is the correct order for these events? A) 4, 1, 2, 3 B) 2, 1, 3, 4 C) 4, 2, 1, 3 D) 2, 3, 1, 4 E) 3, 4, 2, 1 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 6-2 Endochondral Ossification Use Figure 6-2 to answer the following question(s): 101) Where does growth in length occur? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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102) What type of tissue occurs at #1? A) elastic tissue B) fibrocartilage C) bone D) hyaline cartilage E) marrow tissue Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

103) What process is shown at #6? A) primary ossification B) secondary ossification C) length growth D) width growth E) fracture repair Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

104) Identify the structure at #4. A) intramembranous bone B) spongy bone C) hyaline cartilage D) periosteum E) mesenchyme Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

105) Identify the structure labeled ʺ2.ʺ A) epiphysis B) diaphysis C) metaphysis D) marrow cavity E) trabeculae Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

106) In normal adult bones, A) there is no turnover of minerals. B) a portion of the protein and mineral content is replaced each year. C) osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity, once bone has been formed. D) osteoclasts continue to be active long after osteoblast activity ceases. E) exercise will have no effect on bone remodeling. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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107) The ongoing process of tearing down and rebuilding bone matrix is called A) restoration. B) osteolysis. C) resorption. D) ossification. E) remodeling. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

108) How do sex hormones affect bone growth? A) Testosterone stimulates osteoclast activity. B) They cause ossification to be faster than cartilage replacement. C) They stimulate the cleavage of hydroxyapetite. D) They cause osteoporosis. E) Estrogen causes slower epiphyseal closure. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

109) Which hormone increases calcium and phosphate ion absorption by the intestines? A) parathyroid hormone B) calcitriol C) thyroxine D) calcitonin E) estrogen Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

110) A lack of exercise could A) cause bones to become thicker. B) cause bones to store more calcium. C) result in porous and weak bones. D) cause bones to become longer. E) cause bones to lose their medullary cavity. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

111) When stress is applied to a bone, A) the minerals in the bone produce a weak electrical field that attracts osteoblasts. B) osteoclast activity increases and osteoblast activity decreases. C) the bone becomes thin and brittle and ultimately fractures. D) the bone compensates by becoming thinner in the region of stress. E) blood supply through the nutrient artery diminishes and thus remodeling proceeds at a much slower rate. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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112) Excessive growth hormone prior to puberty could result in A) osteoporosis. B) osteopenia. C) rickets. D) gigantism. E) dwarfism. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

113) Factors that are necessary for proper bone formation include all of the following, except A) vitamin A. B) vitamin E. C) vitamin C. D) the hormone thyroxine. E) vitamin D. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

114) Where in the body does the production of precursors for the synthesis of calcitriol occur? A) bone B) kidneys C) small intestine D) liver E) skin Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

115) ________ hormones stimulate osteoblasts to produce bone matrix. A) Sex B) Growth C) Thyroid D) Parathyroid E) Pancreatic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

116) RANKL or receptor activators of nuclear factor kB A) are receptors that bind directly to PTH. B) are found on the surface of osteoclasts. C) are molecules that cause osteoblasts to lay down bone. D) is a signal molecule that stimulates osteoclasts development. E) causes calcium to be excreted by the kidneys. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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117) Calcitonin does all of the following except A) increase bone deposition. B) inhibit osteoclasts. C) cause kidneys to excrete calcium. D) cause less calcitriol to be secreted. E) increase its level in pregnant women. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

118) If blood calcium levels drop below 8.5 mg/dL which hormone is likely to be activated? A) parathyroid hormone B) estrogen C) calcitonin D) calcitriol E) both calcitriol and parathyroid hormone Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

119) If blood calcium levels rise above 11mg/dL which hormone is likely to be activated? A) parathyroid hormone B) estrogen C) calcitonin D) calcitriol E) both calcitriol and parathyroid hormone Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

120) Of the total inorganic components in bone, calcium accounts for what percent? A) 17% B) 9.7% C) 39% D) 72% E) 0.72% Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

121) Of the total organic components in bone most of it is A) collagen. B) keratin. C) keratohyalin. D) elastin. E) actin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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122) The most abundant mineral in the human body is A) sodium. B) potassium. C) phosphorus. D) calcium. E) hydrogen. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

123) Elevated levels of calcium ion in the blood stimulate the secretion of the hormone A) calcitonin. B) thyroid hormone. C) parathyroid hormone. D) growth hormone. E) testosterone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

124) The hormone calcitonin functions to A) stimulate osteoclast activity. B) decrease the rate of calcium excretion. C) decrease the rate of calcium absorption. D) decrease the level of calcium ion in the blood. E) stimulate osteoblasts and inhibit osteoclasts. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

125) Parathyroid hormone functions in all of the following ways  except A) stimulating osteoclast activity. B) increasing the rate of calcium absorption. C) decreasing the rate of calcium excretion. D) raising the level of calcium ion in the blood. E) inhibiting calcitonin secretion. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

126) A child with rickets often has A) oversized facial bones. B) long fingers. C) frequent bruises. D) bowed legs. E) inadequate muscle development. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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127) Bone plays a central role in the regulation of blood levels of A) potassium. B) iron. C) sulfate. D) calcium. E) sodium. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

128) Hundreds of years ago, explorers often died of scurvy. How can this bone -related disease be prevented? A) Supplement the diet with more calcium from meat. B) Increase levels of testosterone to stimulate bone repair. C) Supplement the diet with fresh fruit rich in vitamin C. D) Drink more water to promote bone remodeling and repair. E) Amputate fractured limbs to prevent the spread of scurvy. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

129) How is vitamin D (vitamin D 3 ) related to calcium homeostasis in bone? A) Vitamin D provides a framework for calcium in the matrix. B) Vitamin D is regulated by osteoclast activity. C) Vitamin D is produced by osteoblasts during endochondral ossification. D) Vitamin D is involved in calcium absorption by the digestive tract. E) Vitamin D replaces calcium in the skeleton. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

130) The disease osteomalacia causes calcium loss from the skeleton, which would result in bones that are A) more resistant to compression. B) stronger and heavier. C) stronger and contain more spongy bone. D) weaker and more flexible. E) weaker and more brittle. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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131) Damage to a bone because of extreme load, sudden impact, or stresses applied from an unusual direction is called a A) dislocation. B) contortion. C) rupture. D) fragmentation. E) fracture. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

132) A(n) ________, or closed, fracture does not break the skin. A) plain B) internal C) simple D) contained E) common Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

133) An open or ________ fracture projects through the skin. A) external B) exposed C) complex D) compound E) complicated Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

134) A ________ fracture shatters the bone. A) comminuted B) greenstick C) compression D) transverse E) spiral Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

135) A fracture of the bone across its long axis is called a ________ fracture. A) comminuted B) greenstick C) compression D) transverse E) spiral Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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136) In a ________ fracture one side of the shaft is split and the other side is bent. A) comminuted B) greenstick C) compression D) transverse E) spiral Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

137) A ________ fracture is produced by twisting stresses applied to the bone. A) comminuted B) greenstick C) compression D) transverse E) spiral Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

138) A transverse fracture of the wrist that may be comminuted is called a ________ fracture. A) Pottʹs B) Longʹs C) tarsal D) common E) Colles Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

139) A fracture that affects the malleolus on both lower leg bones is called a ________ fracture. A) carpal B) Pottʹs C) Colles D) complex E) double-split Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

140) The fracture of vertebrae subjected to extreme vertical stress is called a ________ fracture. A) comminuted B) greenstick C) compression D) transverse E) spiral Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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141) After a fracture of the diaphysis has healed, the thickened region that results is called the A) epiphyseal plate. B) external callus. C) dense tuberosity. D) condyle. E) fracture facet. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

142) A fracture at the ankle involving both lower leg bones is often called a ________ fracture. A) compression B) Pottʹs C) displaced D) greenstick E) Colles Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

143) While on a school skiing trip in Colorado, Heidi falls and breaks her tibia and fibula in a Pottʹs fracture. What would you expect as a prominent part of her clinical assessment several hours after the fall? A) hypertension B) tachycardia C) erythema D) hematoma E) cyanosis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

144) What is the correct sequence of steps in bone repair? 1. Cartilage in the external callus is replaced by bone. 2. A hematoma occurs. 3. An internal callus forms at the site of injury. 4. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts remodel the bone at the site of repair. A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 2, 1, 3, 4 C) 3, 1, 4, 2 D) 4, 2, 3, 1 E) 2, 3, 1, 4 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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145) Osteoclast-activating factor does all of the following except that it A) is released in large amounts early in life. B) increases the number of osteoclasts. C) increases the activity of osteoclasts. D) produces a severe osteoporosis. E) is released by some cancer tumors. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

146) A condition in which bone becomes riddled with holes making them brittle and compromises normal function is called A) osteopenia. B) osteoporosis. C) osteomyelitis. D) osteitis. E) osteomalacia. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

147) The condition known as osteopenia A) affects mostly women. B) causes a gradual reduction in bone mass. C) is caused by too much vitamin D in the diet. D) is rarely seen as people age. E) only affects the femur. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

148) If osteoclasts are more active than osteoblasts, bones will become A) denser. B) thicker. C) osteopenic. D) stronger. E) calcified. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

149) Why does osteoporosis affect more women than men? A) Women typically do not get enough calcium in their diet. B) Men do not remodel the skeleton as fast as women. C) Pregnancy causes deossification of bones in women and will lead to osteoporosis. D) Men exercise more than women and therefore have less osteoporosis. E) Women have a decrease in sex hormones after menopause. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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150) Aging has what effect on the skeletal system? A) progressive loss of processes and tuberosities B) fusion of joints, especially in the vertebral column C) loss of calcium and collagen fibers from matrix D) increase in the number of cranial foramina E) increase in adipose tissue in epiphyses Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

151) If a tumor secretes high levels of osteoclast-activating factor, which of the following would you expect to occur as a result of this condition? A) increases in blood levels of calcium B) bone fragility C) decreased bone density D) increased osteoclast activity E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

152) Mary is 50 years old and has entered menopause. During a checkup, a bone scan reveals the beginnings of osteoporosis. Her physician suggests hormone therapy. What hormone might she prescribe for Mary? A) thyroid hormone B) growth hormone C) estrogen D) parathyroid hormone E) calcitonin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

153) Mary is 50 years old and has entered menopause. During a checkup, a bone scan reveals the beginnings of osteoporosis. Her physician suggests nutritional therapy. What might she recommend for Mary? A) vitamin C B) vitamin D C) calcium supplements D) dairy products E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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154) The natural age-related loss of bone mass is called A) osteogenesis imperfecta. B) osteoporosis. C) osteomalacia. D) osteodysplasia. E) osteopenia. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Where is spongy bone found in long bones? Where is spongy bone found in flat bones? (Figure 6-3) A) diaphysis; between the compact bone layers B) epiphyses; between the compact bone layers C) metaphyses; between the compact bone layers D) between the compact bone layers; medullary cavity E) epiphyses; metaphyses Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) Which three types of bone cells are developmentally related and what is their progression from the earliest to the latest stage? (Figure 6-5) A) osteoclasts to osteoblasts to osteocytes B) osteocytes to osteoblasts to osteoclasts C) osteogenic to osteoclasts to osteoblasts D) osteogenic to osteocytes to osteoblasts E) osteogenic to osteoblasts to osteocytes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

3) What are the three ways in which lamellae are organized in compact bone? (Figure 6 -7) A) horizontally around an osteon, vertically between osteons, and transversely around the entire bone B) concentrically around an osteon, vertically between osteons, and transversely around the entire bone C) vertically around an osteon, interstitially between osteons, and horizontally around the entire bone D) concentrically around an osteon, vertically between osteons, and parallel around the entire bone E) concentrically around an osteon, interstitially between osteons, and circumferentially around the entire bone Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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4) Select the correct words for the following sentence: The (endosteum/periosteum) covers the superficial layer of compact bone and is made up of (the fibrous and cellular layers/osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteocytes). (Figure 6-10) A) periosteum; fibrous and cellular layers B) endosteum; fibrous and cellular layers C) periosteum; osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteocytes D) endosteum; osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteocytes E) endosteum and periosteum; osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteocytes Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

5) What gland responds when the blood calcium level is too low? (Figure 6 -16a) A) thyroid gland B) adrenal gland C) parathyroid gland D) pituitary gland E) hypothalamus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

Essay Questions 1) During the growth of a long bone, how is the epiphysis forced farther from the shaft? Answer: The chondrocytes of the epiphyseal cartilage enlarge and divide, increasing the thickness of the cartilage. On the shaft, the chondrocytes become ossified, ʺchasingʺ the expanding epiphyseal cartilage away from the shaft. Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

2) What is the difference between ossification and calcification? Answer: Ossification means specifically the conversion of connective tissue into bone tissue. Calcification means the depositing of calcium salts in any tissue, including bone. Learning Outcome: 6-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

3) Todd is 13 and lives in an urban apartment. He spends most of his time watching TV and eating ʺjunkʺ food. One afternoon, during recess, he falls on the playground and breaks his leg. Although he appears to be healthy, his leg takes longer to heal than expected. What might be the cause of the longer healing time? Answer: Assuming that there is no other disease process involved, Toddʹs problem is probably related to his poor diet. Good nutrition is important for promoting the healing process. Insufficient quantities of protein, vitamin C, vitamin A, and vitamin D would cause the normal healing process to occur at a much slower rate. Toddʹs inactivity may also contribute to his slower rate of healing. Learning Outcome: 6-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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4) An elderly patient has a broken femur that is healing very slowly. A young resident suggests using a device that will create an electrical field in the area of the fracture to help speed the healing process. Why might this possibly help? Answer: Osteoblasts are attracted to electrical fields produced by bone crystals when they are stressed. This is one of the reasons that trabeculae of bones are organized along stress lines. If the same type of electrical field could be duplicated at the site of the fracture, osteoblasts may be stimulated to migrate to the area and increase the rate of bone production and thus healing of the fracture. Learning Outcome: 6-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

5) Would you expect to see changes in blood levels of the hormones calcitonin and PTH as a result of vitamin D3  deficiency? Explain. Answer: A person deficient in vitamin D3 would not be able to absorb calcium effectively from the digestive tract, leading to a shortage of calcium in the blood. To maintain homeostasis, the decrease in blood calcium would trigger the release of PTH. The PTH, in turn, would stimulate osteoclasts to release enough calcium from the bone to maintain proper calcium levels in the blood. Levels of calcitonin would decrease, because release of this hormone is triggered by high blood calcium levels. Learning Outcome: 6-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

6) What is osteopenia? Name and define two forms of osteopenia. Answer: Osteopenia is a general term for reduced bone mass. Osteoporosis and osteomalacia are forms. Osteoporosis is a condition of reduced bone density, bone weakness, and pain resulting from the loss of mineral from bone with advancing age. Osteomalacia is bone weakness caused by insufficient calcium deposits. It is known as rickets in the young. Learning Outcome: 6-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 7

The Axial Skeleton

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is not true regarding the axial skeleton? A) has 80 bones B) includes the skull C) includes the pelvic and pectoral girdles D) includes auditory ossicles E) includes the thoracic cage Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton? A) provides an attachment for muscles that move the appendicular skeleton B) provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, neck, and trunk C) provides an attachment for muscles involved in breathing D) provides protection for the brain and spinal cord E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton? A) skull B) false ribs C) sternum D) hyoid bone E) pelvic girdle Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) The skull and vertebral column are part of the ________ skeleton. A) axial B) apical C) appendicular D) articulated E) sagittal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) Identify the mismatched pair. A) skull bones: 8 cranial and 14 facial bones B) bones associated with the skull: 6 auditory ossicles and 1 hyoid bone C) vertebral column: 24 vertebrae and 1 sacrum and 1 coccyx D) thoracic cage: sternum and 24 ribs and 2 clavicles E) There is no mismatched pair. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

6) In some individuals the supra-orbital foramen is incomplete and called the A) supra-orbital fissure. B) supra-orbital suture. C) supra-orbital fontanelle. D) supra-orbital notch. E) supra-orbital meatus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) The olfactory foramina are found in which of the following bones? A) ethmoid B) sphenoid C) temporal D) nasal E) zygomatic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) A thickening of the frontal bone that helps protect the eye is the A) optic canal. B) supra-orbital margin. C) superior orbital fissure. D) frontal suture. E) frontal sinuses. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

9) Which portion of the temporal bone houses the structures of the internal ear? A) squamous B) petrous C) styloid D) zygomatic E) mastoid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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10) Which paired bones form the lateral, posterior portions of the cranium? A) frontal B) maxilla C) sphenoid D) parietal E) zygomatic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

11) Delicate projections that form from the ethmoidal labyrinth are A) olfactory foramina. B) pterygoid processes. C) sphenoidal sinuses. D) superior and middle nasal conchae. E) auditory ossicles. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

12) Which of the following is not a cranial bone? A) frontal B) parietal C) palatine D) temporal E) occipital Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

13) Air-filled chambers found in several bones of the skull are called A) conchae. B) sinuses. C) fontanelles. D) sutures. E) fossae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

14) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) mandible: movable facial bone in skull B) maxilla: alveolar processes C) sphenoid: external acoustic meatus D) frontal: glabella E) occipital: foramen magnum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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15) Which of the following articulate in the mandibular fossa? A) condylar process B) mastoid process C) acromion process D) coronoid process E) zygomatic process Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

16) The internal acoustic meatus is located in which bone? A) occipital B) ethmoid C) sphenoid D) temporal E) parietal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

17) The occipital ________ are where the occipital bone articulates with the first cervical vertebra. A) processes B) condyles C) foramina D) fossae E) tubercles Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

18) The auditory ossicles are housed in which cranial bone? A) sphenoid B) ethmoid C) zygomatic D) temporal E) lacrimal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

19) The parietal bones and occipital bone articulate at the ________ suture. A) lambdoid B) central C) sagittal D) coronal E) posterior Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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20) The ________ is the bony chamber that protects and supports the brain. A) skull B) centrum C) cranium D) cephalum E) cortex Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

21) Infection of the large process on the temporal bone would be called A) tinnitus. B) encephalitis. C) meningitis. D) petrositis. E) mastoiditis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

22) The inferior portion of the nasal septum is formed by the A) nasal bone. B) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone. C) inferior nasal conchae. D) vomer. E) palatine bone. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

23) The optic nerve passes through which structure? A) superior orbital fissure B) inferior orbital fissure C) optic canal D) internal optic meatus E) external acoustic meatus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

24) The four primary sutures are lambdoid, coronal, sagittal, and A) lateral. B) cuboidal. C) parietal. D) squamous. E) frontal. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) The ________ bone is unusual because it doesnʹt contact another bone. A) vomer B) lacrimal C) hyoid D) atlas E) ethmoid Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

26) The hard palate of the roof of the mouth is mostly formed by the A) palatine processes of the maxillae. B) lesser wings of the sphenoid bone. C) nasal bones. D) zygomatic process. E) palatine bones. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

27) The foramen magnum is found in the ________ bone. A) frontal B) parietal C) ethmoid D) occipital E) temporal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

28) The suture that forms the articulation of the parietal bones with the frontal bone is the ________ suture. A) lambdoid B) rostral C) coronal D) squamous E) sagittal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

29) The calvaria (or skullcap) is formed by the ________ bones. A) frontal, temporal, and parietal B) frontal, parietal, and occipital C) temporal, parietal, and occipital D) frontal, temporal, and occipital E) frontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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30) The zygomatic arch is formed by the articulation of processes from which two bones? A) zygomatic and maxilla B) frontal and temporal C) sphenoid and temporal D) zygomatic and sphenoid E) temporal and zygomatic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

31) The prominent bulge just posterior and inferior to the external auditory meatus is the A) mastoid process. B) styloid process. C) occipital condyle. D) condyloid process. E) temporal process. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

32) Which of these is not one of the facial bones? A) frontal B) maxilla C) vomer D) mandible E) zygomatic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

33) Each of the following regions/markings is associated with the occipital bone except the A) superior and inferior nuchal lines. B) foramen magnum. C) hypoglossal canals. D) glabella. E) external occipital crest. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

34) A point of attachment for muscles that rotate or extend the head is the A) styloid process. B) mastoid process. C) palatine process. D) coronoid process. E) zygomatic process. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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35) Ligaments that support the hyoid bone are attached to the A) styloid process. B) mastoid process. C) palatine process. D) coronoid process. E) zygomatic process. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

36) Each of the following is associated with the temporal bone except the A) mastoid cells. B) petrous portion. C) sella turcica. D) internal acoustic meatus. E) mandibular fossa. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

37) The hypophyseal fossa of the sella turcica contains the ________ gland. A) lacrimal B) pituitary C) olfactory D) nasal E) sellar Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

38) Each of the following structures is associated with the sphenoid bone except the A) foramen ovale. B) optic canals. C) pterygoid processes. D) sella turcica. E) cribriform plate. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

39) A skull bone that could be described as looking like a bat with wings extended is the A) maxilla. B) crista galli. C) sphenoid. D) ethmoid. E) temporal. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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40) The nasal conchae A) attach muscles that move the eye. B) contain the nerves for olfaction. C) create turbulence in the nasal passageways. D) protect the pituitary gland. E) attach muscles that move the mouth. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

41) The bony portion of the nasal septum is formed by the A) nasal bones. B) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone. C) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and vomer bone. D) vomer and sphenoid bone. E) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and sphenoid bone. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

42) Of the following bones, which is unpaired? A) vomer B) maxillae C) palatine D) nasal E) lacrimal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

43) The styloid process, zygomatic process, and auditory ossicles are associated with the A) parietal bone. B) occipital bone. C) sphenoid bone. D) temporal bone. E) lacrimal bone. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

44) The skull contains ________ bones. A) 32 B) 22 C) 42 D) 12 E) 27 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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45) While playing softball, Gina is struck in the frontal bone by a wild pitch. Which of the following complaints would you expect her to have? A) a sore jaw B) a black eye C) a headache D) a sore chest E) a sore back Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

46) The alveolar processes of the mandible A) support the upper teeth. B) support the lower teeth. C) anchor the tongue. D) are part of the temporomandibular joint. E) articulate with the hyoid bone. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

47) The smallest facial bones are the A) ethmoid bones. B) lacrimal bones. C) lacerum bones. D) nasal bones. E) zygomatic bones. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

48) Ridges that anchor muscles that stabilize the head are the A) anterior and posterior nuchal lines. B) anterior and superior nuchal lines. C) inferior and superior nuchal lines. D) medial and lateral nuchal lines. E) cranial and caudal nuchal lines. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

49) The hyoid bone A) attaches to tongue muscles. B) is linked to the styloid process by a ligament. C) is superior to the larynx. D) does not directly articulate with other bones. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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50) Damage to the temporal bone would most likely affect the sense(s) of A) balance. B) hearing and balance. C) smell and taste. D) vision. E) touch and pressure. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

51) Premature closure of the sagittal suture would result in A) a long and narrow head. B) a very broad head. C) an unusually small head. D) a distorted head with one side being longer than the other. E) death. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

52) During development a cleft palate forms when which bones fail to meet along the midline of the hard palate? A) temporal B) maxillae C) zygomatic D) sphenoid E) ethmoid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

53) Kristen went to the dentist complaining of jaw tenderness and popping noises when she opens and closes her mouth. He notices abnormal wearing on the articulating surfaces of her teeth. Which of the following conditions does she most likely suffer from? A) deviated nasal septum B) cleft palate C) temporomandibular joint syndrome D) dislocated jaw E) sinusitis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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54) Jack gets into a fight and is punched in the nose. Which of the following bones might be fractured? A) ethmoid bone B) zygomatic bone C) temporal bone D) mandible E) parietal bone Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

55) As the result of an accident, Bill suffers a dislocated jaw. This injury would involve the A) stylohyoid ligaments. B) hyoid bone. C) condylar process of the mandible. D) alveolar process of the mandible. E) greater horn of the hyoid bone. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

56) Your friend Greg is hit in the jaw and when looking at him, his face looks misaligned. You immediately take him to the emergency room and are not surprised to learn that he has a broken A) temporal bone. B) zygomatic bone. C) mandible. D) external auditory meatus. E) clavicle. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Figure 7-1 Floor of the Cranial Cavity Use Figure 7-1 to answer the following questions: 57) Which bone structure has foramina for the olfactory nerves? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 8 E) 5 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

58) Identify the sphenoid bone. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

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59) Which structure encloses the pituitary gland? A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

60) What is the name of the structure labeled ʺ7ʺ? A) optic canal B) foramen spinosum C) foramen rotundum D) foramen lacerum E) foramen ovale Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

61) What is the name of the structure labeled ʺ8ʺ? A) sella turcica B) foramen ovale C) foramen rotundum D) carotid canal E) foramen spinosum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

62) The facial nerve (VII) passes through the internal acoustic meatus and then through the A) mastoid foramen. B) stylomastoid foramen. C) jugular foramen. D) carotid foramen. E) foramen lacerum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

63) The large foramen that serves as a passageway for the medulla of the brain and the accessory nerve (XI) is the A) foramen lacerum. B) foramen rotundum. C) carotid canal. D) jugular foramen. E) foramen magnum. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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64) Nerves carrying sensory information from the lips and the chin pass through the A) ramus of the mandible. B) condylar process. C) mental foramina. D) mandibular foramen. E) maxillary foramina. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

65) The ________ passes through the ________. A) vagus nerve; foramen magnum B) optic nerve; foramen ovale C) vestibulocochlear nerve; external acoustic meatus D) internal jugular vein; jugular foramen E) internal carotid artery; jugular foramen Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

66) The nasal complex includes the bones that enclose the nasal cavity and the ________ sinuses. A) hyponasal B) paranasal C) endonasal D) epinasal E) intranasal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

67) Sinus inflammation is called A) sinusitis. B) asthma. C) congestion. D) postnasal drip. E) encephalitis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

68) Each of the following bones is a component of the orbital complex except the ________ bone. A) lacrimal B) nasal C) sphenoid D) ethmoid E) frontal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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69) The greater wings of which bone form a large portion of the posterior wall orbit? A) lacrimal B) ethmoid C) sphenoid D) nasal E) zygomatic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

70) How many bones make up the orbital complex? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

71) The nasal complex consists of all of the following bones except the A) zygomatic. B) ethmoid. C) sphenoid. D) frontal. E) maxillary. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

72) Which statement(s) about the functions of the paranasal sinuses is/are not true? A) They provide an extensive area of mucous epithelium. B) They make skull bones lighter. C) The mucus they secrete enters the oral cavities. D) They support cilia that move the mucus. E) They are located in the sphenoid, ethmoid, frontal, palatine and maxillae. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

73) The floor of the orbital complex is formed mainly by the A) maxilla. B) ethmoid. C) zygomatic. D) sphenoid. E) frontal. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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74) The largest sinus is within which bone? A) nasal B) sphenoid C) ethmoid D) frontal E) maxilla Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

75) The role(s) of the sinuses include(s) A) making the skull lighter. B) production of mucus that moistens and cleans the air. C) increasing surface area for gas exchange. D) extra source of air and increasing surface area for gas exchange. E) making the skull lighter and production of mucus that moistens and cleans the air. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

76) A bent nasal septum that slows or prevents sinus drainage is known clinically as a ________ septum. A) deviated B) crooked C) obstructive D) deviant E) restrictive Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

77) Sutures can be found at all of the joints of an adult skull except between A) the mandible and the cranium. B) the zygomatic bone and the maxillary bone. C) the occipital bone and the parietal bone. D) the vomer and the zygomatic bone. E) the sphenoid bone and the ethmoid bone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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78) The condition in which distortions of the skull occur due to the premature closure of fontanelles is called A) anencephaly. B) microcephaly. C) craniostenosis. D) membranitis. E) epicranial block. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

79) In the condition known as ________, premature closure of all of the cranial sutures results in restricted brain growth and an undersized head. A) anencephaly B) microcephaly C) craniostenosis D) membranitis E) epicranial block Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

80) Each of the following statements concerning the development of the skull is true  except that A) all the bones of the skull develop from one single ossification center. B) at birth the cranial bones are connected by areas of fibrous connective tissue. C) the growth of the cranium is usually coordinated with the growth of the brain. D) the skulls of infants and adults differ in shape and structure of the skeletal elements. E) the most significant growth of the skull occurs before the age of 5. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

81) Which two fontanelles form along the sagittal suture? A) anterior and sphenoidal B) anterior and posterior C) posterior and sphenoidal D) anterior and mastoid E) posterior and mastoid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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82) Identify the correct statement regarding fontanelles. A) They form fibrous connections between facial bones. B) They persist throughout childhood. C) They enable easier delivery through the birth canal. D) The occipital fontanelles are also known as the soft spot. E) The sphenoidal fontanelles are the largest. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

83) The fibrous connective tissue membranes between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are A) fontanelles. B) sutures. C) Wormian bones. D) foramina. E) fibrocartilaginous discs. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

84) The most significant skull growth occurs before the age of A) 3. B) 2. C) 5. D) 1. E) 4. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

85) While youʹre visiting your friend who recently gave birth, she comments on her infantʹs soft spot. You think to yourself that the correct term for the ʺsoft spotʺ located at the intersection of the frontal, sagittal, and coronal sutures is A) sphenoidal fontanelle. B) anterior fontanelle. C) occipital fontanelle. D) mastoid fontanelle. E) cushion spot. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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86) The most common distortion of the spinal curvature is A) kyphosis. B) lordosis. C) scoliosis. D) spinosis. E) spina bifida. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

87) The four curves of the adult spinal column are not all present at birth. Which of the following are the secondary curves, which do not appear until several months later? A) cervical and lumbar B) thoracic and lumbar C) sacral and lumbar D) thoracic and sacral E) cervical and sacral Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

88) What is the purpose of the secondary curves? A) accommodate the thoracic organs B) shift the weight of the body to permit an upright posture C) accommodate the abdominal organs D) form a humpback E) accommodate the pelvic organs Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

89) The four spinal curves include all but one of the following. Identify the exception. A) thoracic B) cervical C) lumbar D) axial E) sacral Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

90) The primary spinal curves A) are also called compensation curves. B) accommodate the thoracic and abdominopelvic viscera. C) develop several months after birth. D) are the lumbar and cervical curves. E) help shift the weight to permit an upright posture. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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91) Successive vertebrae articulate at facets on the inferior articular processes of the superior vertebra and facets on the ________ of the adjacent inferior vertebrae. A) dens B) pedicles C) lamellae D) transverse processes E) superior articular processes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

92) The five vertebral regions are the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and A) medial. B) proximal. C) distal. D) coccygeal. E) os coxal. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

93) The first cervical vertebra is called the A) primum. B) atlas. C) axis. D) cervix. E) apex. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

94) The second cervical vertebra is called the A) primum. B) atlas. C) axis. D) cervix. E) apex. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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95) The term ________ is used to describe an injury caused by displacement of the cervical vertebrae during a sudden change in body position. A) remodel B) rearrangement C) fracture D) whiplash E) adjustment Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

96) The ________ allow for a wide range of head movements. A) hyoid bones B) temporomandibular joints C) cervical vertebrae D) intervertebral discs E) occipital condyles Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

97) The vertebral column contains ________ thoracic vertebrae. A) 4 B) 5 C) 7 D) 12 E) 31 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

98) The vertebral arch is formed by the pedicles and the A) transverse spinous processes. B) dorsal spinous processes. C) laminae. D) costal facets. E) intervertebral disc. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

99) The part of the vertebrae that transfers weight along the axis of the vertebral column is the A) vertebral arch. B) vertebral body. C) articular processes. D) intervertebral space. E) transverse process. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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100) Most mammals, including humans and giraffes, have ________ cervical vertebrae. A) 11 B) 6 C) 7 D) 19 E) 10 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

101) Vertebrae of which regions are fused in the adult? A) lumbar region B) sacral region C) coccygeal region D) thoracic E) sacral and coccygeal regions Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

102) The widest intervertebral discs are found in the ________ region. A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral E) coccygeal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

103) As you move in an inferior direction along the vertebral column, A) the vertebral foramen become relatively larger. B) the vertebral bodies become relatively larger. C) the dorsal spines grow progressively longer. D) the transverse processes move anteriorly. E) the vertebrae get progressively smaller and thinner. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

104) The dens process is found on the A) atlas. B) axis. C) sacrum. D) coccyx. E) ribs. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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105) The sacrum consists of how many fused bones? A) 7 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3 E) 6 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

106) Which of the following is not true regarding the vertebral canal? A) It encloses the spinal cord. B) It is formed by vertebral foramina of successive vertebrae. C) The anterior border is the vertebral body. D) It is found only in cervical and thoracic vertebrae. E) The posterior border is the vertebral arch. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

107) The ability to nod ʺyesʺ is due to the articulation of which two bones? A) atlas and axis B) axis and C3 C) atlas and C3 D) axis and occipital E) atlas and occipital Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

108) Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of A) transverse processes. B) transverse foramina. C) facets for the articulation of ribs. D) notched spinous processes. E) costal cartilages. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

109) The distinguishing feature of a cervical vertebra is the A) costal facet. B) vertebral arch. C) transverse foramina. D) spinous process. E) pedicle. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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110) Which of the following types of vertebrae and their numbers is not correct? A) cervical: 7 B) thoracic: 12 C) lumbar: 5 D) sacral: 2 fused E) coccygeal: 3 to 5 fused Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

111) All of the following are true of the sacrum except that it A) provides protection for reproductive, digestive, and excretory organs. B) provides a point of attachment for leg muscles. C) articulates with the pelvic bones. D) articulates with the second and third lumbar vertebrae. E) articulates with the coccyx. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

112) Gesturing ʺnoʺ with the head depends on the structure(s) of which cervical vertebrae? A) atlas B) axis C) vertebra prominens D) both the atlas and the axis E) both the atlas and the vertebra prominens Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

113) The ribs articulate with the ________ of the vertebrae. A) spinous processes B) transverse processes C) laminae D) pedicles E) auric arches Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

114) The thickened area that is the site of articulation of the sacrum to the ilium at the sacroiliac joint is the A) sacral hiatus. B) sacral canal. C) auricular surface. D) ala. E) lateral sacral crest. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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115) The spinous processes of the sacral vertebrae fuse to form the A) median sacral crest. B) lateral sacral crest. C) sacral hiatus. D) sacral canal. E) sacral tuberosity. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

116) Which of the following statements about the coccyx is true? A) It is the most caudal vertebral region. B) It anchors a muscle that constricts the anal opening. C) It consists of three to five coccygeal vertebrae. D) Fusion is delayed until the mid-twenties. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

Figure 7-2 Typical Vertebra (inferior view) Use Figure 7-2 to answer the following questions: 117) Identify the structure labeled ʺ7.ʺ A) transverse process B) lamina C) pedicle D) vertebral body E) spinous process Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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118) Which structure contacts the intervertebral disc? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

119) Identify the structure labeled ʺ3.ʺ A) lateral process B) spinous process C) lamina D) transverse process E) pedicle Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

120) Identify the structure labeled ʺ1.ʺ A) pedicle B) transverse process C) lamina D) spinous process E) transverse articular facet Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

121) Where is the spinal cord located? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

122) Identify the structure labeled ʺ2.ʺ A) transverse process B) superior articular process C) pedicle D) inferior articular process E) lamina Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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123) The clavicles articulate with which portion of the sternum? A) manubrium B) body C) xiphoid process D) sternal angle E) jugular notch Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

124) Ribs 8 to 12 are called ________ because they do not attach directly to the sternum. A) free B) false C) floating D) fibrous E) filamentous Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

125) The superior part of the sternum is called the A) apex. B) xiphoid. C) coccyx. D) manubrium. E) head. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

126) Give the clinical term for the condition in which the vertebral laminae fail to unite during development. A) spina imperfecta B) laminaecta C) laminal cleft D) ossificans imperfecta E) spina bifida Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

127) The ribs articulate with the A) cervical vertebrae. B) thoracic vertebrae. C) lumbar vertebrae. D) sacrum. E) hyoid bone. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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128) Humans normally have ________ pairs of ribs. A) 2 B) 6 C) 10 D) 12 E) 24 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

129) The part of the sternum that articulates with the clavicles is the A) manubrium. B) body. C) xiphoid process. D) angle. E) tuberculum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

130) Which bone(s) include(s) a manubrium? A) scapula B) clavicle C) sternum D) cervical vertebrae #1 and #2 E) all of the vertebrae Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

131) A tubercle of a rib articulates with the A) manubrium. B) costal facets of thoracic vertebrae. C) hyoid. D) xiphoid process. E) cervical and thoracic vertebrae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

132) The true ribs are A) ribs 1-7. B) called vertebrosternal ribs. C) ribs 8-12. D) called vertebrochondral ribs. E) ribs 1-7 and are called vertebrosternal ribs. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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133) The ribs that have no attachment to the sternum are A) true ribs. B) ribs 8-12 and are called false ribs. C) floating ribs. D) ribs 11 and 12. E) ribs 11 and 12 and are called floating ribs. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

134) Which connective tissue is found between the ribs and the sternum? A) dense regular connective tissue B) hyaline cartilage C) elastic cartilage D) fibrocartilage E) dense irregular connective tissue Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

135) While performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an unconscious person, you are careful to position your hands correctly to avoid damage to the A) ribs. B) scapula. C) xiphoid process. D) sacrum. E) ribs and xiphoid process. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Looking at all the views of the skull, name the major sutures. (Figure 7 -3) A) sagittal, lambdoid, and squamous B) frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal C) frontal, sagittal, and coronal D) sagittal, lambdoid, squamous, and coronal E) mastoid, styloid, and zygomatic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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2) Name the fontanelles found on the infant skull. Why arenʹt they labeled on the adult skull? (Figure 7-16) A) frontal, parietal, occipital, and sphenoid; they became foramen B) sphenoidal (paired), mastoid (paired), anterior, and posterior; they fused and are not on the adult skull C) superior, inferior, anterior, and posterior; they fused and are not on the adult skull D) sphenoidal (paired), mastoid (paired), anterior, and posterior; they became foramen E) coronal, sagittal, lambdoid, and squamous; they fused and are not on the adult skull Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

3) Which two regions of the spine form primary curves? (Figure 7-17) A) cervical and sacral B) lumbar and sacral C) cervical and thoracic D) thoracic and lumbar E) thoracic and sacral Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) Which two pairs of ribs are the floating ribs? What distinguishes them from the other false ribs? (Figure 7-23) A) ribs 11 and 12; they do not attach to the sternum B) ribs 9 and 10; they do not attach to the sternum C) ribs 1 and 12; they attach to the sternum by costal cartilage D) ribs 1 and 2; they attach to the sternum directly E) ribs 1 and 12; they do not attach to the sternum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

Essay Questions 1) Frank gets into a brawl at a sports event and receives a broken nose. After the nose heals, he starts to have sinus headaches and discomfort in the area of his maxillae. What is probably the cause of Frankʹs discomfort? Answer: Frank probably has a deviated septum as the result of his broken nose. In a deviated septum the cartilaginous portion of the septum is bent where it joins the bone. This condition often blocks the drainage of one or more sinuses with resulting sinus headaches, infections, and sinusitis. Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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2) Caroline goes to the doctor complaining of ear pain and fever. The doctor notices that the ear infection is not limited to the middle and inner ear but has traveled posteriorly. Explain where the infection has likely traveled, how it was able to move beyond the inner ear, and what additional symptoms she may exhibit with the infection. Answer: Carolineʹs inner ear infection has likely spread to the mastoid process causing mastoiditis. The infection traveled through the mastoid air cells which are connected to the middle ear cavity. She may also experience swelling and redness behind the ear at the mastoid process. Learning Outcome: 7-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

3) Consider a disease whereby cilia within the epithelial lining of the paranasal sinuses are destroyed. What would be some of the consequences? Answer: The ciliated epithelium moves mucus back toward the throat, where it is eventually swallowed or expelled coughing. Mucus traps foreign particulates, such as dust or microorganisms, which in the absence of cilia would build up within the paranasal sinuses. Possible consequences may include congestion, pain, sinusitis, and spread of infections into the respiratory tract. Learning Outcome: 7-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

4) What role do the fontanelles play in infant development? Answer: These fibrous connective tissue structures fill in between the bones of the cranium in a newborn infant. As the brain grows, the skull bones can move apart and allow for brain growth without interfering with nervous system development and function. If they are prematurely ossified, brain development is restricted, leading to skull deformity and mental retardation. This condition is called craniostenosis. Learning Outcome: 7-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

5) Joe is 40 years old and 30 pounds overweight. Like many middle -aged men, Joe carries most of this extra weight in his abdomen and jokes with his friends about his ʺbeer gut.ʺ During an annual physical, Joeʹs physician advises him that his spine is developing an abnormal curvature. Why is the curvature of Joeʹs spine changing, and what is this condition called? Answer: The curvature of the spine is changing as a result of the heavy abdomen pulling on the anterior cavity. This extra weight causes abnormal spinal curvature to compensate for balance. The condition is called lordosis because its effects are prevalent in the lumbar region. Learning Outcome: 7-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

6) Why are ruptured intervertebral discs more common in lumbar vertebrae and dislocations and fractures more common in cervical vertebrae? Answer: The lumbar vertebrae have massive bodies and carry a lot of weight; these factors contribute to the rupturing of an intervertebral disc. The cervical vertebrae are more delicate and have small bodies; these factors increase the possibility of dislocations and fractures in the cervical vertebrae. Learning Outcome: 7-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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7) Billy is injured during a high school football game. His chest is badly bruised and he is experiencing difficulty in breathing. What might the problem be? Answer: Billy has probably broken one or more of his ribs. Movement of the ribs changes the size of the thoracic cavity, which is an important part of breathing. When the ribs are broken, breathing can become difficult (labored) because of pain when the ribs are moved. Learning Outcome: 7-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 8

The Appendicular Skeleton

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton? A) scapula B) tibia C) sacrum D) coxal bones E) clavicles Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) The medial end of the clavicle is also known as the ________ end. A) acromial B) sternal C) coracoidal D) manubrial E) scapular Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) Which of the following is the term for the articulation of the clavicles with the sternum? A) acromioclavicular joint B) sternoclavicular joint C) acromiosternal joint D) sternoacromial joint E) costalclavicular joint Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) Which of the following is the term for the articulation of the clavicles with the scapulae? A) acromioclavicular joint B) sternoclavicular joint C) acromiosternal joint D) sternoacromial joint E) costalclavicular joint Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 8  The Appendicular Skeleton   235

5) The acromion is continuous with a prominent ridge of bone on the posterior surface of the scapula known as the A) conoid tubercle. B) glenoid cavity. C) coracoid process. D) spine. E) inferior angle. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) The anterior surface of the scapula is smooth and concave. The name of the concave depression is the A) supraspinous fossa. B) infraspinous fossa. C) subscapular fossa. D) subspinous fossa. E) glenoid fossa. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) The scapula is roughly triangular in shape. Which of the following are correct terms for the borders? A) superior, medial, and lateral borders B) dorsal and costal borders C) anterior, posterior, and superior borders D) scapular, sternal, and clavicular borders E) pectoral borders Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the A) clavicle articulates with the humerus. B) clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum. C) coxal bones articulate with the femur. D) vertebral column articulates with the sacrum. E) clavicle articulates with the xiphoid process. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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9) The clavicle articulates with the A) coracoid process and the humerus. B) glenoid cavity and scapular spine. C) coracoid process and acromion. D) manubrium and xiphoid process. E) manubrium and acromion. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

10) Which of the following constitutes the pectoral girdle? A) clavicles only B) clavicles and scapulae C) clavicles, scapulae, and humerus D) clavicles, scapulae, humerus, radius, and ulna E) clavicles, scapulae, humerus, radius, ulna, and carpal bones Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

11) Which of the following is located closest to the jugular notch? A) medial end of scapula B) medial end of clavicle C) lateral end of scapula D) lateral end of clavicle E) xiphoid process Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

12) Which of the following is most commonly fractured in a fall? A) radius B) scapula C) clavicle D) sternum E) glenoid cavity Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

13) The appendicular skeleton includes the bones of the upper and lower extremities and their supporting elements called A) joints. B) girdles. C) sutures. D) ball and socket. E) rotator cuffs. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8  The Appendicular Skeleton   237

14) Two prominent features of the clavicle are the conoid tubercle at the lateral end and the ________ tuberosity at the medial end. A) costal B) sternal C) acromial D) deltoid E) scapular Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

15) The scapula articulates with the humerus at the ________ joint. A) acromiogleno B) acromiohumoral C) glenohumoral D) glenoscapular E) humeroscapular Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

16) The ________ are S-shaped bones that articulate lateral to the jugular notch. A) scapulae B) manubria C) coracoid processes D) clavicles E) acromial processes Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 8-1 The Scapula Use Figure 8-1 to answer the following questions: 17) Identify the structure labeled ʺ1.ʺ A) spine of scapula B) scapular process C) acromion D) coracoid process E) scapular notch Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

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Chapter 8  The Appendicular Skeleton   239

18) Identify the structure labeled ʺ2.ʺ A) glenoid cavity B) acetabulum C) scapular cavity D) subscapular fossa E) rotator cup Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

19) Which structure is the acromion? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

20) Identify the structure labeled ʺ7.ʺ A) acromion B) scapular process C) spine of scapula D) coracoid process E) scapular notch Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

21) What bone articulates on the structure labeled ʺ2ʺ? A) femur B) clavicle C) humerus D) manubrium E) radius Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

22) Which of the following features is located near the proximal end of the humerus? A) medial epicondyle B) lateral epicondyle C) greater tubercle D) olecranon fossa E) capitulum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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23) The depression on the posterior surface at the distal end of the humerus is the A) olecranon fossa. B) coronoid fossa. C) radial fossa. D) intertubercular groove. E) radial groove. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

24) The ulnar nerve is exposed when it crosses the posterior surface of what process? A) greater tubercle B) lesser tubercle C) deltoid tuberosity D) medial epicondyle E) trochlea Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

25) The deltoid muscle attaches to what process? A) radial groove B) deltoid fossa C) intertubercular groove D) deltoid tuberosity E) greater tubercle Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

26) The short projections at the distal ends of both the radius and ulna are the A) styloid processes. B) radial head and ulnar head. C) radial head and olecranon. D) medial and lateral epicondyles. E) medial and lateral malleolus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

27) Which of the following processes is not found on the ulna? A) styloid process of ulna B) olecranon C) radial notch D) coronoid process E) trochlea Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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28) The attachment site for the biceps brachii muscle to the radius is at the A) deltoid tuberosity. B) greater tubercle. C) radial tuberosity. D) brachial tuberosity. E) styloid process of the radius. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

29) Which of the following is not one of the four proximal carpal bones? A) scaphoid B) lunate C) pisiform D) hamate E) triquetrum Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

30) The radius and ulna are bound to each other by a(n) ________ ligament. A) radioulnar B) interosseous C) antebrachial D) lateromedial E) intrabrachial Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

31) The trochlea is located on the A) tibia. B) humerus. C) radius. D) scapula. E) ulna. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

32) The bones of the forearm, or ________, consist of the radius and ulna. A) olecranon region B) brachium C) antecubital region D) antebrachium E) cubital region Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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33) Identify the mismatched pair. A) lunate; comma-shaped B) triquetrum; boat-shaped C) pisiform; pea-shaped D) trapezoid; wedge-shaped E) hamate; hook-shaped Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

34) In the anatomical position, the ulna is located ________ to the radius. A) distal B) proximal C) medial D) superior E) lateral Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

35) The condyle of the humerus consists of the A) medial and lateral epicondyles. B) trochlea and olecranon fossa. C) capitulum and trochlea. D) head and neck. E) capitulum and coronoid process. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

36) Which of the following surface features is found on the radius? A) olecranon B) coronoid process C) trochlear notch D) radial notch E) ulnar notch Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

37) There are ________ carpal bones located in the wrist, which form ________ rows of bones. A) 2; 8 B) 10; 3 C) 4; 2 D) 8; 2 E) 6; 2 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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38) The bones that form the fingers are the A) carpals. B) tarsals. C) metacarpals. D) metatarsals. E) phalanges. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

39) The rough surface feature present along the lateral border of the shaft of the humerus is the A) radial groove. B) medial epicondyle. C) lateral epicondyle. D) deltoid tuberosity. E) coronoid process. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

40) The bones that give the hand a wide range of motion are the A) carpals. B) tarsals. C) metacarpals. D) metatarsals. E) phalanges. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

41) The head of the radius articulates with the A) trochlea. B) capitulum. C) carpals. D) olecranon process. E) styloid process. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

42) The hand has ________ bones in the wrist and ________ bones in the palm. A) 5; 5 B) 10; 5 C) 8; 4 D) 8; 5 E) 4; 5 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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43) Which of the following is not an upper limb bone? A) ulna B) radius C) humerus D) metatarsals E) carpals Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

44) The ________ of the radius helps stabilize the wrist joint. A) olecranon process B) coronoid process C) styloid process D) radial tuberosity E) capitulum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

45) The bones that form the palm are the A) carpals. B) tarsals. C) metacarpals. D) metatarsals. E) phalanges. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

46) Tina falls and fractures her pisiform bone. What part of her body was injured? A) foot B) forearm C) wrist D) hand E) ankle Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 8-2 The Humerus Use Figure 8-2 to answer the following questions: 47) Which structure is the lateral epicondyle? A) 7 B) 8 C) 9 D) 3 E) 4 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

48) Identify the structure labeled ʺ9.ʺ A) olecranon process B) medial epicondyle C) lateral epicondyle D) greater tubercle E) trochlea Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

49) When the arm is straight, which structure accepts the olecranon? A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 8 E) 9 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

50) Identify the place where the humerus often fractures. A) 1 B) 2 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

51) Upon which structure does the radius articulate? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

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52) Which of the following is not a part of the pelvis? A) sacrum B) coccyx C) coxal bone D) lumbar vertebrae E) pubic symphysis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

53) What bone articulates with the coxal bone at the acetabulum? A) sacrum B) femur C) humerus D) tibia E) fibula Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

54) When seated, the weight of the body is borne by the A) ischial tuberosities. B) posterior inferior iliac spines. C) iliac crests. D) obturator foramina. E) inferior rami of the pubis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

55) The pubic and ischial rami encircle the A) pubic symphysis. B) lesser sciatic notch. C) greater sciatic notch. D) obturator foramen. E) acetabulum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

56) The two pubic bones join medially at the A) pubic tuberosity. B) superior ramus. C) inferior ramus. D) pubic tubercle. E) pubic symphysis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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57) The smooth articular surface of the acetabulum is called the A) ovale surface. B) obturator surface. C) lunate surface. D) sciatic surface. E) hamate surface. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

58) The sacroiliac joint is stabilized by ligaments attaching to a roughened area superior to the auricular surface of the ilium called the A) iliac fossa. B) anterior superior iliac spine. C) greater sciatic notch. D) iliac tuberosity. E) arcuate line. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

59) The bony edge of the true pelvis consisting of the ilium and pubis is called the A) pelvic spine. B) pelvic brim. C) pubic symphysis. D) sacral curvature. E) pelvic crest. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

60) The opening surrounded by the pelvic brim is called the A) pelvic inlet. B) false pelvis. C) pelvic crest. D) pelvic outlet. E) lesser pelvis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

61) The largest component of the coxal bone is the A) pubis. B) ischium. C) ilium. D) femur. E) tibia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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62) A male has a ________ pelvic outlet when compared to the womanʹs pelvic outlet. A) larger B) longer C) narrower D) wider E) deeper Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

63) The superior border of the ilium that acts as a point of attachment for both ligaments and muscles is the A) anterior iliac spine. B) acetabulum. C) posterior superior iliac spine. D) iliac crest. E) iliac notch. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

64) The sacrum articulates with the A) ilium. B) ischium. C) pubis. D) ilium and ischium. E) ischium and pubis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

65) The ilium, ischium, and pubis fuse into a single bone called the A) patella. B) pelvic girdle. C) pectoral girdle. D) coccyx. E) coxal bone. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

66) Which surface feature(s) along the ilium mark(s) attachment sites for large hip muscles? A) lunate surface B) greater sciatic notch C) gluteal lines D) lesser sciatic notch E) pubic symphysis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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67) The greater sciatic notch is a feature on the A) ilium. B) ischium. C) pubis. D) femur. E) patella. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

68) The pelvic organs are mostly found within the A) ischial spine. B) iliac fossa. C) ischial fossa. D) obturator foramen. E) pubic symphysis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

69) One type of hip fracture is a fracture of the A) patellar surface of the femur. B) pubic ramus. C) coxal bones. D) distal epiphysis of the femur. E) neck of the femur. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

70) The ridge of bone that separates the medial and lateral condyles of the tibia is called the A) anterior margin. B) medial malleolus. C) intercondylar eminence. D) interosseous membrane. E) intertrochanteric crest. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

71) The ________ is a large sesamoid-shaped bone sometimes called the kneecap. A) talus B) cuboid C) patella D) fibula E) navicular Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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72) Which lower leg bone does not carry any body weight? A) talus B) tibia C) navicular D) fibula E) calcaneus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

73) The foot arch that is maintained by ligaments running from the calcaneus to the metatarsals is the A) longitudinal arch. B) transverse arch. C) superior arch. D) posterior arch. E) distal arch. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

74) The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the A) humerus. B) femur. C) tibia. D) fibula. E) coxal bone. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

75) Which of the following is the heel bone? A) talus B) navicular C) calcaneus D) cuboid E) patella Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

76) The distal end of the tibia articulates with the A) talus. B) fibula. C) patella. D) calcaneus. E) navicular. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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77) Which of the following is not a tarsal bone? A) medial cuneiform B) capitate C) cuboid D) navicular E) talus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

78) The part of the tibia that is easily felt through the skin and is known as the shin is the A) medial malleolus. B) anterior crest. C) tibial tuberosity. D) linea aspera. E) anterior margin. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

79) The medial malleolus is located on the A) fibula. B) femur. C) tibia. D) patella. E) ischium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

80) The ligament that surrounds the ________ attaches to the tibial tuberosity. A) tibia B) calcaneus C) talus D) patella E) head of the fibula Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

81) A ligament attaches the acetabulum to the femur at the ________, a small pit in the center of the femoral head. A) greater trochanter B) lesser trochanter C) fovea capitis D) gluteal tuberosity E) lateral lip Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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82) Identify the incorrect descriptor of congenital talipes equinovarus (club foot). A) due to inappropriately developed arches B) may involve one or both feet C) may affect the tibia, ankle, and foot D) feet are turned laterally and everted E) may be treated with casts or supports in infancy Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

83) The patella slides in a groove on the femur called the A) medial condyle. B) interpatellar groove. C) patellar surface. D) femoral head. E) patellar canal. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

84) The linea aspera is located on the A) humerus. B) tibia. C) ischium. D) femur. E) fibula. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

85) The lateral malleolus is found on the A) femur. B) tibia. C) fibula. D) patella. E) calcaneus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

86) The medial border of the fibula is bound to the lateral border of the tibia by the A) lateral malleolus. B) medial malleolus. C) intercondylar eminence. D) interosseous membrane. E) tibial ligament. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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87) The tarsus contains ________ bones. A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

88) The weight of the body is supported by the A) distal metacarpals. B) proximal metatarsals. C) hallux. D) calcaneus. E) distal ends of the metatarsals and the calcaneus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

89) Tom stumbles and injures his hallux. What part of his anatomy is injured? A) his hand B) his foot C) his ankle D) his knee E) his hip Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

90) The talus articulates with the A) calcaneus. B) navicular bone. C) tibia. D) calcaneus and navicular bones. E) tibia, calcaneus, and navicular bones. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

91) Compared to the hand, the foot A) has more phalanges. B) has fewer metatarsals than the hand has metacarpals. C) has more tarsal bones than the hand has carpal bones. D) contains arches that help distribute body weight. E) has the same number of tarsal bones as the hand has carpal bones. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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92) When standing normally, most of your weight is transmitted to the ground by the A) tibia, talus, and calcaneus. B) talus and proximal ends of metatarsals. C) calcaneus and talus. D) talus and cuneiforms. E) calcaneus and proximal ends of metatarsals. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

93) The condition known as ʺflat feetʺ is due to a lower-than-normal longitudinal arch in the foot. A problem with which of the following would most likely contribute to this condition? A) a loose calcaneal tendon B) weak tarsometatarsal joints C) weakness in the ligaments that attach the calcaneus to the distal ends of the metatarsals D) weakness in the ligaments that attach the talus to the tibia E) poor alignment of the phalanges with the metatarsals Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Figure 8-3 The Femur Use Figure 8-3 to answer the following questions: 94) Which structure articulates with the acetabulum? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 E) 9 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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95) Identify the diaphysis of the femur. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 7 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

96) Identify the structure labeled ʺ2.ʺ A) greater trochanter B) linea aspera C) head D) lateral epicondyle E) lesser trochanter Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

97) Identify the structure labeled ʺ12.ʺ A) greater trochanter B) linea aspera C) head D) lateral epicondyle E) lateral condyle Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

98) Identify the area of the femur most likely to fracture. A) 9 B) 8 C) 1 D) 7 E) 3 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

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Figure 8-4 Bones of the Ankle and Foot Use Figure 8-4 to answer the following questions: 99) Identify the bones labeled ʺ9.ʺ A) metatarsals B) carpals C) metacarpals D) tarsals E) phalanges Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

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100) Identify the bones named for their wedge shape. A) 3 B) 8 C) 7 D) 1 E) 2 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

101) On which bone does the tibia press? A) 1 B) 7 C) 9 D) 2 E) 3 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

102) Identify the bone labeled ʺ4.ʺ A) 5 th distal phalanx B) 5 th proximal phalanx C) 5 th middle phalanx D) 1 st distal phalanx E) 1 st middle phalanx Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

103) Identify the bone labeled ʺ1.ʺ A) talus B) calcaneus C) cuneiform V D) cuboid E) metatarsal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Analyzing

104) Compared to the male pelvis, the female pelvis A) is larger. B) is heavier. C) has a greater pubic angle. D) has a thicker ischial tuberosity. E) has deep acetabula. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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105) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the male pelvis? A) heavy, rough textured bone B) heart-shaped pelvic inlet C) angle of pubic arch greater than 100 degrees D) relatively deep iliac fossa E) ilia extend far above sacrum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

106) The clearest distinction between a male and female skeleton is seen in the characteristics of the A) skull. B) pelvis. C) sacrum. D) teeth. E) thoracic cage. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

107) Which of the following describes the female pelvis? A) broad and smooth B) prominent bone markings C) acetabulum directed laterally D) bones are heavy E) pelvic outlet is narrow Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

108) Study of human skeletons can reveal all of the following information  except the personʹs A) sex. B) age and nutritional status. C) size and handedness. D) health. E) intelligence. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

109) Which of the following is not an age-related change in the skeleton? A) closure of the fontanels B) bone remodeling C) reduction in mineral content D) appearance of major vertebral curves E) fusion of the coxal bones Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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110) On a field trip you discover a skeleton with the following characteristics: the acetabulum is directed laterally, the ischial spine points medially, and the angle inferior to the pubic symphysis is less than 90 degrees. The long bones of the arms and legs are relatively light and show epiphyseal plates. This skeleton is probably from A) a young male. B) a young female. C) an elderly male. D) an elderly female. E) an infant male. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) What structures comprise the appendicular skeleton? (Figure 8-1) A) skull, pectoral girdles, and upper limbs B) skull, thoracic cage, and vertebral column C) vertebral column, pelvic girdles, and lower limbs D) pectoral girdles, upper limbs, pelvic girdles, and lower limbs E) thoracic cage, pectoral girdles, and pelvic girdles Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) With which carpal bones does metacarpal IV articulate? (Figure 8-6) A) hamate and capitate B) trapezium and trapezoid C) trapezoid and capitate D) lunate and triquetrum E) scaphoid and lunate Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) What is the correct term for the opening formed by the pubis and the ischium? (Figure 8 -8) A) foramen magnum B) pubic symphysis C) obturator foramen D) ischial foramen E) foramen rotundum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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4) Which of the leg bones does not articulate with the femur? (Figure 8-12) A) tibia B) fibula C) ulna D) radius E) ilium Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

Essay Questions 1) Why is it necessary for the bones of the pelvic girdle to be more massive than the bones of the pectoral girdle? Answer: The pelvic girdle must withstand the load of bearing and moving the entire body whereas the pectoral girdle only supports the upper limbs. Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

2) What is the distinction between the false pelvis and the true pelvis? Answer: The true pelvis encloses the pelvic cavity and its superior limit is a line that extends from either side of the base of the sacrum, along the arcuate line and pectineal line to the pubic symphysis. The false pelvis consists of the expanded, bladelike portions of each ilium superior to the pelvic brim. Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

3) Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female. Answer: These include: an enlarged pelvic outlet, a broader pubic angle, less curvature on the sacrum and coccyx, wider and more circular pelvic inlet, a relatively broad pelvis that does not extend as far superiorly, and ilia that project farther laterally, but do not extend as far superior to the sacrum. Learning Outcome: 8-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

4) A runner visits a podiatrist complaining of pain at the bottom of the foot. The podiatrist quickly notes that the patient has flatfeet and decides to take an x -ray of his foot. Explain what it means to have flatfeet. What are some possible consequences of flatfeet and why did the podiatrist take an x-ray? What treatments might the doctor recommend? Answer: The normal arches in the foot are lower than normal because they have lost elasticity or didnʹt form correctly. When you stand normally the arches provide an elastic connection as the weight is transferred from the calcaneus to the metatarsals. The arches act as shock absorbers but when the arches are flat the load is distributed into the metatarsals causing pain. The patient may have a stress fracture of one of the metatarsals as a result of the stress of running with poor arches. The doctor would recommend wearing shoes with extra arch support. Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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5) To settle a bet, you need to measure the length of your lower limb (head of femur to distal end of tibia). What landmarks would you use to make the measurement? Answer: You could feel the lesser sciatic notch, which is at the same level as the head of the femur. You could feel the medial malleolus of the tibia at the ankle. Learning Outcome: 8-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 9

Joints

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Joints can be classified structurally as A) bony. B) fibrous. C) cartilaginous. D) synovial. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) The synarthrosis that binds the teeth to the bony sockets is a A) suture. B) gomphosis. C) synchondrosis. D) synotosis. E) syndesmosis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) An immovable joint is a(n) A) synarthrosis. B) diarthrosis. C) amphiarthrosis. D) syndesmosis. E) symphysis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) A synovial joint is an example of a(n) A) synarthrosis. B) amphiarthrosis. C) diarthrosis. D) symphysis. E) syndesmosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) A ligamentous connection such as an antebrachial interosseous membrane is called a A) syndesmosis. B) symphysis. C) synchondrosis. D) synostosis. E) gomphosis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) A slightly movable joint is a(n) A) synarthrosis. B) diarthrosis. C) amphiarthrosis. D) gomphosis. E) synostosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) A suture is an example of a(n) A) synarthrosis. B) syndesmosis. C) symphysis. D) diarthrosis. E) amphiarthrosis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) An epiphyseal line is an example of a A) gomphosis. B) synchondrosis. C) synostosis. D) symphysis. E) syndesmosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

9) Dense fibrous connective tissue is to a suture as a periodontal ligament is to a(n) A) amphiarthrosis. B) syndesmosis. C) synostosis. D) synchondrosis. E) gomphosis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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10) An example of a synchondrosis is the articulation of the A) ribs with the sternum. B) radius and the ulna. C) femur with the acetabulum. D) atlas and the axis. E) navicular bone with the cuniform bones. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

11) A freely movable joint is a(n) A) synarthrosis. B) diarthrosis. C) amphiarthrosis. D) syndesmosis. E) symphysis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

12) The intervertebral disc joint is called a A) synarthrosis. B) glide joint. C) condylar joint. D) synchondrosis. E) symphysis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

13) Which of the following is one of the four major types of synarthrotic joints? A) suture B) gomphosis C) synchondrosis D) synostosis E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

14) Syndesmosis is to ligament as symphysis is to A) fibrous cartilage. B) dense regular connective tissue. C) periodontal ligament. D) rigid cartilaginous bridge. E) completely fused. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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15) Structurally, the pubic symphysis is classified as a ________ articulation. A) cartilaginous B) bony C) synovial D) fibrous E) diarthrotic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

16) Identify the incorrect pair. A) synarthrosis; immovable joint B) amphiarthrosis; slightly movable joint C) chondrosis; freely moving joint D) gomphosis; articulation between tooth and bone E) They are all correct; there is no incorrect pair. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

17) Which of the following occurs when the articular cartilage is damaged? A) The matrix begins to break down. B) The exposed surface appears rough. C) Friction in the joint increases. D) Normal synovial joint function is unable to continue. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

18) Which of the following is not a function of synovial fluid? A) shock absorption B) increases osmotic pressure within joint C) lubrication D) provides nutrients E) protects articular cartilages Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

19) Bursae are found in all of the following areas except A) tendon sheaths. B) beneath the skin covering a bone. C) within connective tissue exposed to friction or pressure. D) around blood vessels. E) around many synovial joints. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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20) Which of the following is not a property of articular cartilage? A) covered by perichondrium B) lubricated by synovial fluid C) enclosed by an articular capsule D) similar to hyaline cartilage E) smooth, low-friction surface Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

21) The surface of articular cartilage is A) slick. B) flat. C) smooth. D) rough. E) both slick and smooth. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

22) Which of the following is not considered an accessory synovial structure? A) fat pads B) menisci C) tendons D) bursae E) synovial membrane Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

23) Mike falls off his skateboard and sprains his ankle. Which of the following most likely occurs with this type of accident? A) A bursa is damaged and leaks synovial fluid. B) A ligament is stretched and collagen fibers in the ligament are damaged. C) Articulating bones are forced out of position and ligaments are torn. D) Dislocation of the ankle occurs. E) The tibia is broken and must be set in a cast. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

24) Which of the following is not a property of synovial joints? A) freely movable B) lined by a secretory epithelium C) covered by a serous membrane D) contain synovial fluid E) covered by a capsule Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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Figure 9-1 A Simplified Sectional View of the Knee Joint Use Figure 9-1 to answer the following questions: 25) Which structure acts as a cushion and consists of fibrous cartilage? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

26) Identify the structure at label ʺ1.ʺ A) meniscus B) bursa C) articular cartilage D) synovial membrane E) joint cavity Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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27) Identify the structure labeled ʺ2.ʺ A) serous membrane B) synovial membrane C) joint capsule D) periosteum E) intracapsular ligament Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

28) What type of tissue occurs at the structure labeled ʺ3ʺ? A) fibrocartilage B) synovial membrane C) articular cartilage D) bone tissue E) dense connective tissue Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

29) Identify the structure labeled ʺ5.ʺ A) serous membrane B) synovial membrane C) joint capsule D) periosteum E) intracapsular ligament Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

30) Usually found outside the capsule, ________ protect the articular cartilages and act as packing material for the joint. A) ligaments B) tendons C) bursae D) menisci E) fat pads Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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31) Small pockets of synovial fluid that reduce friction and act as a shock absorber where ligaments and tendons rub against other tissues are called A) fat pads. B) menisci. C) bursae. D) lacunae. E) fasciae. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

32) ________ subdivide synovial cavities, channel the flow of synovial fluid, and allow for variations in the shapes of the articular surfaces. A) Fat pads B) Menisci C) Bursae D) Lacunae E) Fasciae Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

33) A ________ occurs when articulating surfaces are forced out of position. A) fracture B) bunion C) bursitis D) dislocation E) sprain Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

34) The three functions of synovial fluid are nutrient distribution, shock absorption, and A) stabilization. B) lubrication. C) padding. D) strengthening. E) enzyme secretion. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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35) A ________ is a tender nodule formed around bursae over the base of the great toe. A) spur B) blister C) callus D) bunion E) pimple Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

36) A collagenous type of connective tissue that reinforces the synovial joint and is found outside the joint capsule is called the A) extracapsular tendon. B) intracapsular ligament. C) extracapsular ligament. D) intracapsular tendon. E) meniscus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

37) Which one of the following is not a stabilizing factor of synovial joints? A) skeletal muscles around the joint B) the presence of a meniscus C) collagen fibers of the joint capsule D) fat pads around the joint E) the synovial membrane Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

38) The joint between the forearm bones and the wrist is a ________ joint. A) saddle B) glide C) hinge D) condylar E) pivot Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

39) Ankle extension is also called A) dorsiflexion. B) inversion. C) eversion. D) plantar flexion. E) protraction. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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40) Pronation is defined as A) a rolling of the distal epiphysis of the radius over the ulna. B) a twisting of the ulna medially. C) twisting the forearm so that the palms face anteriorly. D) the shortening of the angle between the radius and the humerus. E) movement of the mandible anteriorly, as seen when biting the upper lip. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

41) A movement away from the midline of the body is called A) inversion. B) abduction. C) adduction. D) flexion. E) extension. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

42) To pinch with a thumb and finger involves a movement called A) rotation. B) opposition. C) circumduction. D) eversion. E) retraction. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

43) A common injury to the ankle occurs by excessive turning of the sole inward, called A) eversion. B) protraction. C) dorsiflexion. D) plantar flexion. E) inversion. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

44) The ankle joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint. A) condylar B) saddle C) hinge D) ball-and-socket E) gliding Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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45) Which of the following movements is a good example of flexion? A) opening the mouth B) turning the hand palm upward C) extreme bending of the head backwards D) bending the elbow E) spreading the fingers Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

46) A twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole of the foot outward is known as A) inversion. B) plantar flexion. C) eversion. D) dorsiflexion. E) pronation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

47) The joints that connect the four fingers with the metacarpal bones are A) condylar joints. B) saddle joints. C) pivot joints. D) hinge joints. E) condyloid joints. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

48) The joint between the trapezium and metacarpal bone of the thumb is an example of a ________ joint. A) saddle B) gliding C) condylar D) hinge E) pivot Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

49) Monaxial joints are known as ________ joints. A) saddle B) gliding C) ball-and-socket D) condylar E) hinge Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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50) Which type of joint is found between the carpal bones? A) saddle B) gliding C) hinge D) ball-and-socket E) pivot Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

51) Which of the following types of joints is monaxial, but capable of only rotation? A) saddle B) gliding C) hinge D) ball-and-socket E) pivot Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

52) Curling into the ʺfetal positionʺ ________ the intervertebral joints. A) hyperextends B) flexes C) abducts D) extends E) rotates Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

53) The movements known as dorsiflexion and plantar flexion involve moving the A) hand. B) arm. C) foot. D) leg. E) hip. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

54) The elbow joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint. A) saddle B) gliding C) condylar D) hinge E) pivot Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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55) In a triaxial articulation, A) movement can occur in all three axes. B) movement can occur in only two axes. C) movement can occur in only one axis. D) only circumduction is possible. E) no movement is possible. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

56) An extension past the anatomical position is known as A) double-jointed. B) extension. C) flexion. D) rotation. E) hyperextension. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

57) Which of the following joints is an example of a ball-and-socket joint? A) elbow B) knee C) ankle D) wrist E) shoulder Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

58) The joints between vertebrae are examples of ________ joints. A) saddle B) pivot C) condylar D) hinge E) gliding Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

59) Which foot movement enables the ballerina to stand on her toes? A) dorsiflexion B) plantar flexion C) inversion D) rotation E) eversion Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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60) Which of the following movements is a good example of supination? A) opening the mouth B) turning the hand palm upward C) extreme bending of the head backwards D) moving the hand toward the shoulder E) spreading the fingers Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

61) Lifting a stone with the tip of foot is A) circumduction. B) eversion. C) inversion. D) plantar flexion. E) dorsiflexion. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

62) Which of the following movements is a good example of hyperextension? A) opening the mouth B) turning the hand palm upward C) extreme bending of the head backwards D) moving the hand toward the shoulder E) spreading the fingers Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

63) Which of the following movements is a good example of abduction? A) opening the mouth B) turning the hand palm upward C) extreme bending of the head backwards D) moving the hand toward the shoulder E) spreading the fingers Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

64) Which of the following movements is a good example of depression? A) opening the mouth B) turning the hand palm upward C) extreme bending of the head backwards D) moving the hand toward the shoulder E) spreading the fingers Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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65) Nodding your head ʺyesʺ is an example of A) lateral and medial rotation. B) circumduction. C) flexion and extension. D) pronation and supination. E) protraction and retraction. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

66) Which of the following movements would you associate with chewing food? A) elevation B) abduction C) flexion D) pronation E) circumduction Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

Figure 9-2 Bones of the Wrist and Hand Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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Use Figure 9-2 to answer the following questions: 67) Identify the type of joint at label ʺ1.ʺ A) hinge B) condylar C) gliding D) saddle E) pivot Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

68) Identify the type of joint at label ʺ2.ʺ A) hinge B) condylar C) gliding D) saddle E) pivot Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

69) Identify the type of joint at label ʺ3.ʺ A) hinge B) gliding C) condylar D) saddle E) pivot Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

70) Identify the type of joint at label ʺ4.ʺ A) hinge B) gliding C) condylar D) saddle E) pivot Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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71) Identify the type of joint at label ʺ5.ʺ A) hinge B) condylar C) gliding D) saddle E) pivot Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

72) The movement of rotating a limb toward the anterior surface of the body is called ________ rotation. A) frontal B) external C) lateral D) outward E) medial Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

73) The movement of rotating a limb outward is called ________ rotation. A) lateral B) internal C) medial D) superficial E) abductive Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

74) The atlantoaxial joint is an example of a ________ joint. A) ball and socket B) pivot C) gliding D) condyloid E) saddle Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

75) The movement of the forearm while twisting a doorknob is A) protraction and retraction. B) abduction and adduction. C) flexion and extension. D) lateral rotation and medial rotation. E) supination and pronation. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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76) Identify the incorrect pair. A) gliding joint; sacroiliac joint B) pivot joint; hip joint C) hinge joint; ankle joint D) condylar joint; radiocarpal joint E) saddle joint; first carpometacarpal joint Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

77) You ________ your mandible when you grasp your upper lip with your lower teeth. A) rotate B) extend C) pivot D) protract E) pronate Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

78) The movement of a body part upward is called A) extension. B) protraction. C) supination. D) elevation. E) abduction. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

79) Which of the following types of movement are not permitted at a synovial joint? A) eversion B) flexion C) retraction D) gliding E) They are all permitted. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

80) The movement of a body part downward is called A) retraction. B) pronation. C) depression. D) protraction. E) eversion. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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81) ________ is a type of angular movement that increases the angle between articulating bones. A) Adduction B) Abduction C) Flexion D) Extension E) Rotation Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

82) ________ is a type of angular movement that decreases the angle between articulating bones. A) Adduction B) Abduction C) Flexion D) Extension E) Rotation Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

83) Which of the following is not a type of synovial joint? A) gliding B) hinge C) pivot D) symphysis E) condylar Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

84) All of the following movements occur at the intervertebral joints  except A) flexion. B) rotation. C) dorsiflexion. D) lateral flexion. E) extension. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

85) The gelatinous core of an intervertebral disc is called the A) annulus fibrosus. B) nucleus pulposus. C) synovial fluid. D) gelatinous pulposus. E) gelatinous fibrosus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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86) The fibrocartilage outer layer of the intervertebral disc is called the A) annulus fibrosus. B) nucleus pulposus. C) synovial fluid. D) gelatinous pulposus. E) gelatinous fibrosus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

87) The flava ligament is A) a paired ligament that connect the laminae of adjacent vertebrae. B) a fibrous band that connects the posterior surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies. C) a band of fibrous tissue connecting the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae. D) a longitudinal fibrous band that is attached to the tips of spinous processes from C7 to the sacrum. E) a wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

88) The supraspinous ligament is A) a paired ligament that connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae. B) a fibrous band that connects the posterior surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies. C) a band of fibrous tissue connecting the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae. D) a longitudinal fibrous band that is attached to the tips of spinous processes from C7 to the sacrum. E) a wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

89) The interspinous ligament is A) a paired ligament that connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae. B) a fibrous band that connects the posterior surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies. C) a band of fibrous tissue connecting the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae. D) a longitudinal fibrous band that is attached to the tips of spinous processes from C7 to the sacrum. E) a wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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90) The anterior longitudinal ligament is A) a paired ligament that connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae. B) a fibrous band that connects the posterior surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies. C) a band of fibrous tissue connecting the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae. D) a longitudinal fibrous band that is attached to the tips of spinous processes from C7 to the sacrum. E) a wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

91) The posterior longitudinal ligament is A) a paired ligament that connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae. B) a fibrous band that connects the posterior surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies. C) a band of fibrous tissue connecting the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae. D) a longitudinal fibrous band that is attached to the tips of spinous processes from C7 to the sacrum. E) a wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

92) The elbow joint is extremely stable because A) the ulna and humerus interlock. B) the articular capsule is thin. C) the capsule lacks ligaments. D) several muscles support the joint capsule. E) the joint lacks bursae. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

93) Contraction of the muscle that is attached to the radial tuberosity results in A) flexion of the forearm. B) extension of the forearm. C) abduction of the forearm. D) adduction of the forearm. E) rotation of the shoulder. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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94) The largest and strongest articulation at the elbow is the A) humero-ulnar joint. B) ulnar joint. C) ulnaradial joint. D) radial joint. E) humeroradial joint. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

95) The ligament that provides support to the front of the knee joint is the ________ ligament. A) anterior cruciate B) posterior cruciate C) patellar D) popliteal E) tibial collateral Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

96) The ligaments that limit the anterior-posterior movement of the tibia and maintain the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles are the ________ ligaments. A) cruciate B) fibular collateral C) patellar D) popliteal E) tibial collateral Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

97) In the knee joint, the medial and lateral menisci A) are cartilages that bind the knee to the tibia. B) act as cushions between the articulating surfaces. C) take the place of bursae. D) are found between the patella and femur. E) are prominent fat pads to protect the articulating bones. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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98) The structures that assist the bursae in reducing friction between the patella and other tissues are the A) fat pads. B) medial menisci. C) lateral menisci. D) popliteal ligaments. E) cruciate ligaments. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

99) The normal movement of the knee joint during walking involves A) abduction. B) adduction. C) flexion. D) extension. E) both flexion and extension. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

100) The back of the knee joint is reinforced by ________ ligaments. A) tibial collateral B) anterior cruciate C) posterior cruciate D) patellar E) popliteal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

101) The medial surface of the knee joint is reinforced by the ________ ligament. A) cruciate B) fibular collateral C) patellar D) popliteal E) tibial collateral Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

102) Complete dislocation of the knee is rare because A) the knee is protected by the patella. B) the femur articulates with the tibia at the knee. C) the knee contains seven major ligaments. D) the knee contains fat pads to absorb shocks. E) the knee is extremely resilient. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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103) The most common athletic knee injury produces damage to the A) patella. B) lateral meniscus. C) ligaments. D) tendons. E) medial meniscus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

104) The ligament that encloses the ________ attaches to the tibial tuberosity. A) head of the femur B) greater trochanter C) medial malleolus D) lesser trochanter E) patella Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

105) The knee joint is stabilized by ________ major ligaments. A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9 E) 11 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

106) In nursemaids elbow the radial head is dislocated from the A) ulnar collateral ligament. B) radial collateral ligament. C) articular capsule. D) anular ligament. E) antebrachial interosseous membrane. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

107) Which ligament connects the clavicle and the acromion? A) coracohumeral B) coracoacromial C) coracoclavicular D) glenohumeral E) acromioclavicular Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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108) The joint that permits the greatest range of mobility of any joint in the body is the ________ joint. A) hip B) shoulder C) elbow D) knee E) wrist Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

109) Which of the following is false? A) The rotator cuff functions to limit the range of movements of the shoulder joint. B) The shapes of the articulating surfaces within the joint help prevent movement in a particular direction and strengthen and stabilize the joint. C) The tighter two bones are held together within a joint, the stronger the joint. D) The more movement a joint allows, the stronger the joint. E) The tension produced by muscle tendons surrounding a joint help stabilize the joint. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

110) The ʺrotator cuffʺ of the shoulder functions to A) reinforce the joint capsule. B) limit the range of movements. C) allow biaxial movement. D) allow monaxial movement. E) reinforce the joint capsule and limit the range of movements. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

111) Which of the following ligaments assists in stabilization of the shoulder joint? A) coracoacromial B) subscapularis C) coracoclavicular D) coracoacromial and subscapular ligaments E) coracoacromial and coracoclavicular ligaments Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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112) Which of the following athletes are at greatest risk of developing a rotator cuff injury? A) tennis players B) soccer players C) runners D) baseball pitchers E) high jumpers Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

113) Which of the following ligaments is not associated with the hip joint? A) iliofemoral ligament B) pubofemoral ligament C) ischiofemoral ligament D) ligamentum teres E) anterior cruciate ligament Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

114) Which of the following explains the occurrence of a hip fracture rather than a hip dislocation? A) There is a severe lack of capsular fibers in hip joints compared to other synovial joints. B) Only three ligaments are present in hip joints to provide stability. C) Stress gets transferred from head of femur to the diaphysis via the thin neck. D) Muscles surrounding the hip joint are altogether small and thus provide little stability. E) All of the above. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

115) Factors that increase the stability of the hip joint include A) strong muscular padding. B) tough capsule. C) almost complete bony socket. D) supporting ligaments. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

116) The coxal bones articulate with the sacrum at the ________ joint. A) vertebrocoxal B) coxosacral C) iliocoxal D) vertebroilial E) sacroiliac Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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117) The glenoid fossa is rimmed by the fibrocartilaginous A) fovea capitis. B) glenoid labrum. C) menisci glenoidum. D) annulus fibrosus. E) nucleus pulposus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

118) The shoulder joint, or ________ joint, permits the greatest range of motion of any joint. A) coracocondylar B) humeroacromial C) clavicoscapular D) glenohumeral E) deltobrachial Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

119) Which of the following is not a member of the rotator cuff? A) teres major B) subscapularis C) teres minor D) infraspinatus E) supraspinatus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

120) Arthritis always involves damage to the ________ cartilages, but the specific cause can vary. A) articular B) intervertebral C) costal D) elastic E) fibrous Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

121) A general term for pain and stiffness that affects the skeletal or muscular system is A) rheumatism. B) atherosclerosis. C) bursitis. D) bunions. E) arthritis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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122) The clinical term for joint inflammation is A) rheumatism. B) atherosclerosis. C) bursitis. D) bunions. E) arthritis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

123) In ________ crystals of uric acid form within the synovial fluid of joints. A) rheumatism B) degenerative joint disease C) rheumatoid arthritis D) osteoporosis E) gouty arthritis Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

124) In ________ an autoimmune response attacks joints and causes an inflammation condition. A) rheumatism B) degenerative joint disease C) rheumatoid arthritis D) osteoporosis E) gouty arthritis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

125) The most common type of joint inflammation is called A) rheumatism. B) degenerative joint disease. C) rheumatoid arthritis. D) osteoporosis. E) gouty arthritis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) What structure covers the bony surfaces of a synovial joint to prevent the surfaces from touching? (Figure 9-1) A) fibrous joint capsule B) synovial membrane C) articular cartilage D) elastic cartilage E) meniscus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) List the various types of angular movements. (Figure 9-3) A) inversion and eversion B) dorsiflexion and plantar flexion C) circumduction D) pronation and supination E) flexion/extension/hyperextension, abduction/adduction, and circumduction Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) Within an intervertebral disc, which structure provides the tough outer layer of fibrocartilage and which structure provides the soft inner core for resiliency and shock absorption? (Figure 9-6) A) anulus fibrosus; nucleus pulposus B) nucleus pulposus; anulus fibrosus C) anulus pulposus; nucleus fibrosus D) nucleus fibrosus; anulus pulposus E) anular ligament; spinous ligament Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) What two bones does the acromioclavicular ligament connect? (Figure 9-9) A) acromion and clavicle B) scapula and clavicle C) sternum and clavicle D) humerus and clavicle E) rib 1 and clavicle Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Essay Questions 1) Explain how the structure of synovial fluid allows it to function as a lubricant in a joint. Answer: Synovial fluid is a viscous fluid like egg white or molasses and made up of proteoglycans and hyaluranon. It is absorbed by the sponge-like articular cartilage of joints and creates a slick film on the surfaces that reduces friction. Learning Outcome: 9-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

2) When the triceps brachii muscle contracts, what movements does it produce? Answer: The triceps brachii attaches to the olecranon process. Contraction of the triceps brachii muscle causes the ulna to rotate around the distal humerus, causing extension of the forearm. Learning Outcome: 9-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

3) Why is the inferior region of the shoulder joint most vulnerable to dislocation? Answer: The anterior, superior, and posterior surfaces of the shoulder joint are reinforced by ligaments, muscles, and tendons, but the inferior capsule is poorly reinforced. As a result, a dislocation caused by an impact or a violent muscle contraction is most likely to occur at this site. Such a dislocation can tear the inferior capsular wall and the glenoid labrum. Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

4) A high school student comes to the emergency room complaining of persistent pain and stiffness in her shoulder joint. In talking with her, you discover that she has been spending many hours trying to improve her pitching skills for her schoolʹs softball team. What is likely causing the pain? Answer: Her pain is probably caused by injury to the rotator cuff, which can result from repetitive motion, trauma, or excessive force. The rotator cuff consists of the tendons of four muscles that stabilize the shoulder joint. If torn, surgical repair may be indicated. Learning Outcome: 9-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

5) How are osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis different? Answer: Osteoarthritis is a ʺwear-and-tearʺ disease seen usually in the elderly. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease in which the bodyʹs immune system attacks synovial joints, triggered by an infection or some other cause. Learning Outcome: 9-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 10 Muscle Tissue Multiple Choice Questions 1) Muscle tissue, one of the four basic tissue groups, consists chiefly of cells that are highly specialized for A) conduction. B) contraction. C) peristalsis. D) cushioning. E) secretion. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) Which of the following is a recognized function of skeletal muscle? A) produce movement B) maintain posture C) maintain body temperature D) guard body entrances and exits E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) At each end of the muscle, the collagen fibers of the epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium, come together to form a A) tendon. B) satellite cell. C) ligament. D) tenosynovium. E) sheath. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) The dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds an entire skeletal muscle is the A) tendon. B) epimysium. C) endomysium. D) perimysium. E) fascicle. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) Nerves and blood vessels that service a muscle fiber are located in the connective tissues of its A) endomysium. B) perimysium. C) sarcolemma. D) sarcomere. E) myofibrils. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) A fascicle is a A) group of muscle fibers that are encased in the perimysium. B) layer of connective tissue that separates muscle from skin. C) group of muscle fibers that are all part of the same motor unit. D) group of muscle fibers and motor neurons. E) collection of myofibrils in a muscle fiber. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) The delicate connective tissue that surrounds the skeletal muscle fibers and ties adjacent muscle fibers together is the A) endomysium. B) perimysium. C) epimysium. D) superficial fascia. E) periosteum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) The bundle of collagen fibers at the end of a skeletal muscle that attaches the muscle to bone is called a(n) A) fascicle. B) tendon. C) ligament. D) epimysium. E) myofibril. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) Put the following structures in order from superficial to deep. 1. muscle fiber 2. perimysium 3. myofibril 4. fascicle 5. endomysium 6. epimysium A) 1, 5, 4, 3, 2, 6 B) 6, 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 C) 6, 2, 4, 5, 1, 3 D) 1, 3, 5, 6, 4, 2 E) 2, 3, 1, 4, 6, 5 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

10) A(n) ________ can be described as a broad tendinous sheet. A) fasciae B) retinaculum C) aponeurosis D) interstitium E) tympanum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

11) Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for A) muscle fatigue. B) the conduction of neural stimulation to the muscle fiber. C) muscle contraction. D) muscle relaxation. E) the striped appearance of skeletal muscle. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

12) In a sarcomere, the central portion of thick filaments are linked laterally by proteins of the A) Z line. B) M line. C) H band. D) A band. E) I band. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) The advantage of having many nuclei in a skeletal muscle fiber is the ability to A) contract much more forcefully. B) produce more ATP with little oxygen. C) store extra DNA for metabolism. D) produce large amounts of muscle proteins. E) produce nutrients for muscle contraction. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

14) Skeletal muscle fibers are formed from embryonic cells called A) sarcomeres. B) myofibrils. C) myoblasts. D) fascicles. E) myomeres. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

15) The repeating unit of a skeletal muscle fiber is the A) sarcolemma. B) sarcomere. C) sarcoplasmic reticulum. D) myofibril. E) myofilament. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

16) The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber is called the A) sarcolemma. B) sarcomere. C) sarcosome. D) sarcoplasmic reticulum. E) sarcoplasm. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

17) Which of the following best describes the term sarcomere? A) protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle B) repeating unit of striated myofibrils C) storage site for calcium ions D) thin filaments are anchored here E) largely made of myosin molecules Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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18) Muscle fibers differ from ʺtypical cellsʺ in that muscle fibers A) lack a plasma membrane. B) have many nuclei. C) are very small. D) lack mitochondria. E) have large gaps in the cell membrane. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

19) Which of the following best describes the term sarcoplasmic reticulum? A) protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle B) repeating unit of striated myofibrils C) storage and release site for calcium ions D) thin filaments are anchored here E) largely made of myosin molecules Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

20) Which of the following best describes the term Z line? A) protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle B) repeating unit of striated myofibrils C) storage site for calcium ions D) thin filaments are anchored here E) largely made of myosin molecules Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

21) The region of the sarcomere containing the thick filaments is the A) Z line. B) M line. C) H band. D) A band. E) I band. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

22) The skeletal muscle complex known as the triad consists of A) actin, myosin, and titin filaments. B) a transverse tubule and two terminal cisternae. C) filaments, myofibrils, and sarcomeres. D) A bands, H bands, and I bands. E) actin, myosin, and sarcomeres. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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23) The area in the center of the A band that contains no thin filaments is the A) Z line. B) M line. C) H band. D) I band. E) zone of overlap. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

24) At rest, the tropomyosin molecule is held in place by A) actin molecules. B) myosin molecules. C) troponin molecules. D) ATP molecules. E) calcium ions. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

25) Each thin filament consists of A) two actin protein strands coiled helically around each other. B) chains of myosin molecules. C) six molecules coiled into a helical structure. D) a rod-shaped structure with ʺheadsʺ projecting from each end. E) a double strand of myosin molecules. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

26) The region of the sarcomere that always contains thin filaments is the A) Z line. B) M line. C) H band. D) A band. E) I band. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

27) At rest, active sites on the actin are blocked by A) myosin molecules. B) troponin molecules. C) tropomyosin molecules. D) calcium ions. E) ATP molecules. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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28) The series of membranous channels that surround each myofibril is the A) sarcoplasmic reticulum. B) sarcoplasm. C) sarcomere. D) sarcolemma. E) endomysium. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

29) All of the following proteins are part of the thin filaments except A) actin. B) tropomyosin. C) troponin. D) titin. E) None of the answers is correct; there are no exceptions. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

30) When a skeletal muscle fiber contracts, the A) H bands and I bands get larger. B) zones of overlap get larger. C) Z lines move further apart. D) width of the A band increases. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

31) Since each myofibril is attached at either end of the muscle fiber, when sarcomeres shorten, the muscle fiber A) lengthens. B) shortens. C) strengthens. D) weakens. E) pulls from the middle. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 10-1 Skeletal Muscle Fiber Use Figure 10-1 to answer the following questions: 32) Identify the structure labeled ʺ1.ʺ A) mitochondria B) glycogen C) ATP D) myofibril E) synaptic vesicle Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

33) Which of the following are found in the structure labeled ʺ3ʺ? A) actin B) myosin C) titin D) tropomyosin E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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34) What physiological process occurs in the structure labeled ʺ7ʺ? A) release of neurotransmitter B) conduction of the action potential into the cell interior C) activity of acetylcholinesterase D) release of protein and calcium ions into the muscle fiber E) opening of sodium channels and subsequent influx of sodium Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

35) What is released from the structure labeled ʺ9ʺ? A) sarcoplasm B) acetylcholine C) protein D) calcium ions E) acetylcholinesterase Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

36) Where would calcium ions be predominately found? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 E) 9 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

37) Which structure has pumps to remove calcium ions from the sarcoplasm to produce relaxation? A) 6 B) 7 C) 1 D) 3 E) 2 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

38) Where are the myosin molecules located? A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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39) Which structure contains the motor end plate? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 8 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

40) Identify the structure where ATP is produced. A) 6 B) 7 C) 1 D) 3 E) 2 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

41) Identify the structure(s) where ATP is consumed? A) 3 B) 6 C) 3 and 6 D) 7 E) 3 and 7 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

42) Active sites on the actin become available for binding after A) actin binds to troponin. B) troponin binds to tropomyosin. C) calcium binds to troponin. D) calcium binds to tropomyosin. E) myosin binds to troponin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

43) The action potential is conducted into a skeletal muscle fiber by A) motor end plates. B) neuromuscular junctions. C) transverse tubules. D) triads. E) sarcoplasmic reticulum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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44) The most important factor in decreasing the intracellular concentration of calcium ion after contraction is A) active transport of calcium across the sarcolemma. B) active transport of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. C) active transport of calcium into the synaptic cleft. D) diffusion of calcium out of the cell. E) diffusion of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

45) When calcium ion binds to troponin, A) tropomyosin rolls away from the active site. B) active sites on the myosin are exposed. C) actin heads will bind to myosin. D) muscle relaxation occurs. E) myosin shortens. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

46) Physical evidence that supports the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction includes A) constant distance between Z lines during contraction. B) decreased width of the H band during contraction. C) increased width of the I band during contraction. D) decreased width of the A band during contraction. E) the I band + H band distance is constant during contraction. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

47) The protein that is found in the Z line of a sarcomere is called A) actinin. B) titin. C) nebulin. D) myosin. E) actin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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48) The protein that regulates muscle contraction by controlling the availability of active sites on actin is called A) actin. B) titin. C) myosin. D) tropomyosin. E) nebulin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

49) Thin filaments are mostly made of the protein A) actin. B) titin. C) myosin. D) tropomyosin. E) nebulin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

50) Thick filaments are made of the protein A) actin. B) titin. C) myosin. D) tropomyosin. E) nebulin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

51) Stem cells located between the endomysium and sarcolemma that function in the repair of damaged muscle tissue are called A) myocytes. B) satellite cells. C) endocytes. D) sarcocytes. E) creatinocytes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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52) The complex of a transverse tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae is known as a A) trimer. B) triad. C) triptych. D) trisome. E) trilogy. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

53) The structural theory that explains how a muscle fiber contracts is called the ________ theory. A) sliding filament B) excitation-contraction coupling C) neuromuscular D) muscle contraction E) action-myosin interaction Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

54) The region of sarcomere where thin and thick filaments are located is called the A) I band. B) A band. C) Z line. D) M line. E) zone of overlap. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

55) In the sarcomere which elastic protein attaches the thick filament to the Z line? A) titin B) actin C) G actin D) nebulin E) myosin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

56) In the sarcomere the protein that forms two twisted strands around a central rod -like protein is called A) titin. B) actin. C) G actin. D) nebulin. E) myosin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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57) In the myofibril the protein that possesses the active site for myosin heads to bind is called A) titin. B) actin. C) G actin. D) nebulin. E) myosin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

58) In the myofibril the thin filament is organized around a rod -like core protein called A) titin. B) actin. C) G actin. D) nebulin. E) myosin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

59) In response to action potentials arriving along the transverse tubules, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases A) acetylcholine. B) sodium ions. C) potassium ions. D) calcium ions. E) hydrogen ions. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

60) Each skeletal muscle fiber is controlled by a motor neuron at a single A) synaptic knob. B) sarcomere. C) neuromuscular junction. D) synaptic cleft. E) transverse tubule. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

61) The narrow space between the synaptic terminal and the muscle fiber is the A) synaptic knob. B) motor end plate. C) motor unit. D) synaptic cleft. E) M line. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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62) Which of the following become connected by myosin cross-bridges during muscle contraction? A) thin filaments and thick filaments B) thick filaments and titin filaments C) z disks and actin filaments D) thick filaments and t-tubules E) thin filaments and t-tubules Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

63) After death, muscle fibers run out of ATP and calcium begins to leak from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. This results in a condition known as A) tetany. B) treppe. C) depolarization. D) rigor mortis. E) oxygen debt. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

64) In rigor mortis A) the myosin heads are attached to actin. B) ATP is depleted. C) calcium ions keep binding to troponin. D) sustained contractions occur. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

65) In a sarcomere, cross-bridge attachment occurs specifically in the A) zone of overlap. B) A band. C) I band. D) M line. E) H band. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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66) Triggering of the muscle action potential occurs after A) acetylcholine binds to chemically-gated channels in the motor end plate. B) acetylcholinesterase is released from synaptic vesicles into the synaptic cleft. C) calcium ion binds to channels on the motor end plate. D) the action potential jumps across the neuromuscular junction. E) Any of these can produce an action potential in the muscle cell. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

67) The following is a list of the events that occur during a muscle contraction. What is the correct sequence of these events? 1. Myosin cross-bridges bind to the actin. 2. The free myosin head splits ATP. 3. Calcium ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. 4. The myosin head pivots toward the center of the sarcomere. 5. Calcium ion binds to troponin. 6. The myosin head binds an ATP molecule and detaches from the actin. A) 1, 3, 5, 4, 6, 2 B) 5, 1, 4, 6, 2, 3 C) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4, 6 D) 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2 E) 1, 4, 6, 2, 3, 5 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

68) How would the loss of acetylcholinesterase from the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle? A) It would make the muscles less excitable. B) It would produce muscle weakness. C) It would cause muscles to stay contracted. D) It would cause muscles to stay relaxed. E) It would have little effect on skeletal muscles. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

69) When acetylcholine binds to receptors at the motor end plate, the sarcolemma becomes A) more permeable to sodium ions. B) less permeable to sodium ions. C) more permeable to calcium ions. D) less permeable to potassium ions. E) less permeable to potassium and sodium ions. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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70) The cytoplasm of the neuromuscular terminal contains vesicles filled with molecules of the neurotransmitter A) epinephrine. B) norepinephrine. C) acetylcholine. D) antidiuretic hormone. E) adrenaline. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

71) At what point during excitation contraction coupling does exocytosis play a role? A) during calcium ion reuptake into the sarcoplasmic reticulum B) when sodium channels open up on the motor end plate C) during acetylcholine release from the synaptic terminal D) when the action potential surges through the T-tubules E) when ATP splits into ADP and P on the free myosin head Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

72) Which of the following statements about excitation-contraction coupling is incorrect? A) Calcium ions travel through the transverse tubule. B) Calcium ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. C) Tropomyosin moves to expose myosin binding sites on actin. D) Troponin binds calcium ion and signals tropomyosin to move. E) Relaxation requires uptake of calcium ion by the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

73) Synaptic vesicles contain neurotransmitters that are released by ________ when the action potential arrives. A) endocytosis B) apoptosis C) exocytosis D) hydrolysis E) sodium Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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74) A patient takes a medication that blocks ACh receptors of skeletal muscle fibers. What is this drugʹs effect on skeletal muscle contraction? A) increases tone in the muscle B) causes a strong contraction similar to a ʺcharlie horseʺ cramp C) increases the muscleʹs excitability D) produces a strong, continuous state of contraction E) reduces the muscleʹs ability for contraction Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

75) Communication between axons and muscle fibers occurs at specialized synapses called A) nervous units. B) synaptic terminals. C) motor end plates. D) motor units. E) neuromuscular junctions. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

76) Active sites become exposed when calcium ions bind to A) tropomyosin. B) actin. C) myosin. D) troponin. E) calcium channels. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

77) Cross bridge detachment is caused by ________ binding to the myosin head. A) ATP B) calcium C) magnesium D) acetylcholine E) acetylcholinesterase Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

78) The sequence of processes that links the action potential to contraction is called A) neuromuscular junction. B) action potential propagation. C) excitation-contraction coupling. D) cross bridge formation. E) sliding filament theory. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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79) The role of acetylcholinesterase is to A) bind to ligand gated sodium channels. B) activate acetylcholine. C) release acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft. D) transport acetylcholine across the synaptic cleft. E) break down acetylcholine into acetate and choline components. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

80) Which of the following is not true of acetylcholine? A) It binds to receptor membrane channels. B) It diffuses across the synaptic cleft. C) It is stored in the neuron in vesicles. D) It enters the muscle fiber to release calcium form the sarcoplasmic reticulum. E) It is digested by acetylcholinesterase. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

81) Put the following events of excitation-contraction coupling in the order in which they occur. 1. Excitation 2. Sarcomere shortening 3. Generation of muscle tension 4. Neural control 5. Contraction cycle begins 6. Release of calcium ions A) 4,1,5,2,6,3 B) 4,1,6,5,2,3 C) 1,2,5,6,3,4 D) 6,1,4,2,5,3 E) 1,4,6,2,5,3 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

82) Put the following events of the neuromuscular junction in the order in which they occur. 1. Action potential is propagated in the sarcolemma. 2. Acetylcholine binds to ligand gated sodium channels. 3. Action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction. 4. Vesicles full of acetylcholine are stored at the axon terminal. 5. Acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft. A) 4,3,5,2,1 B) 4,3,5,1,2 C) 4,5,3,2,1 D) 4,3,1,5,2 E) 4,1,3,2,5 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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83) Put the following events of the contraction cycle in the order in which they occur. 1. Cross-bridge detachment 2. Cross-bridge formation 3. Active site exposure 4. Myosin reactivation 5. Calcium ions bind troponin 6. Myosin head pivoting A) 5,3,6,2,1,4 B) 5,3,2,6,4,1 C) 5,3,2,6,1,4 D) 5,3,6,2,4,1 E) 3,5,2,6,1,4 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

84) The rapid rise and fall in force produced by a muscle fiber after a single action potential is a(n) A) tetanus. B) unfused tetanus. C) twitch. D) motor end plate potential. E) muscle action potential. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

85) When a muscle is stimulated repeatedly at a high rate, the amount of tension gradually increases to a steady maximum tension. This state of maximum tension is called A) incomplete tetanus. B) complete tetanus. C) a twitch. D) wave summation. E) recruitment. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

86) A muscle producing almost peak tension during rapid cycles of contraction and relaxation is said to be in A) incomplete tetanus. B) complete tetanus. C) treppe. D) wave summation. E) recruitment. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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87) If a second stimulus arrives before the relaxation phase has ended, a second, more powerful contraction occurs. This addition of one twitch to another is called A) incomplete tetanus. B) complete tetanus. C) treppe. D) wave summation. E) recruitment. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 10-2 Muscle Contractions Use Figure 10-2 to answer the following questions: 88) What is the contraction in graph (a) called? A) complete tetanus B) incomplete tetanus C) twitch D) wave summation E) treppe Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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89) What is thought to happen in a muscle during the response shown in graph (a)? A) It is strengthening with exercise. B) There is a gradual increase in calcium ion concentration in the sarcoplasm. C) It is fatigued and must make repeated efforts to twitch normally. D) It is aged and has lost contractile proteins. E) It is producing more ATP as tension increases. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

90) To produce a contraction similar to the one in graph (b), the muscle A) must be stimulated to the point of fatigue. B) must be stimulated again before it has relaxed from the previous stimulation. C) is excited by a stimulus of increasing intensity. D) must go through a rapid series of isolated twitches. E) generates more and more thin and thick filaments. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

91) Why is there partial relaxation in graph (c)? A) Calcium ion release is slow. B) The muscle is starting to fatigue. C) Stimulation intensity is fluctuating. D) ATP reserves are cycling. E) Nerve stimulation frequency is below maximum. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

92) What is the contraction in graph (d) called? A) complete tetanus B) incomplete tetanus C) twitch D) wave summation E) treppe Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

93) A single contraction-relaxation cycle in a muscle fiber produces a(n) A) cramp. B) twitch. C) tetanic contraction. D) action potential. E) motor unit. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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94) A muscle produces its highest tension when in complete A) recovery. B) treppe. C) wave summation. D) aerobic metabolism. E) tetanus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

95) During the time when the action potential moves through the sarcolemma a muscle twitch is in A) contraction phase. B) relaxation phase. C) stimulus phase. D) latent period. E) isotonic period. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

96) The point in a muscle twitch when the troponin is bound to calcium is called the A) contraction phase. B) relaxation phase. C) stimulus phase. D) latent period. E) isotonic period. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

97) Detachment of myosin cross-bridges occurs during the A) contraction phase. B) relaxation phase. C) stimulus phase. D) latent period. E) isotonic period. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

98) A single motor neuron together with all the muscle fibers it innervates is called a(n) A) end foot. B) end plate. C) motor unit. D) dermatome. E) myotome. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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99) The increase in muscle tension that is produced by increasing the number of active motor units is called A) incomplete tetanus. B) complete tetanus. C) treppe. D) wave summation. E) recruitment. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

100) The type of contraction in which the muscle fibers do not shorten is called A) tetany. B) treppe. C) concentric. D) isotonic. E) isometric. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

101) A weight-lifter strains to lift a heavy weight and there is no movement of the personʹs arms holding on to the weight. This type of contraction is called a(n) ________ contraction. A) isometric B) tetanus C) isotonic D) treppe E) concentric Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

102) You try to pick up an object and discover that it is much heavier than you expected. Which process must occur in the muscle to increase tension so you can pick up the object? A) wave summation B) isotonic contraction C) complete tetanus D) recruitment E) treppe Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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103) In which of the following would the motor units have the fewest muscle fibers? A) muscles of the neck B) postural muscles of the back C) muscles that control the eyes D) thigh muscles E) calf muscles Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

104) In an isotonic contraction, A) muscle tension exceeds the load and the muscle lifts the load. B) tension rises and falls but the muscle length is constant. C) the peak tension is less than the load. D) many twitches always fuse into one. E) postural muscles stabilize the vertebrae. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

105) Identify the incorrect statement about a single motor unit. A) The more neurons involved, the more powerful the contraction. B) The smaller the number of muscle fibers, the more precise the movement. C) Fine motor skills depend on the development of small motor units. D) Some motor units include as many as 2000 muscle fibers. E) Muscle fibers of one motor unit intermingle with the fibers of another motor unit. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

106) The type of contraction where the tension exceeds the load is called A) isometric contraction. B) isotonic eccentric contraction. C) isotonic concentric contraction. D) isometric concentric contraction. E) isometric eccentric contraction. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

107) The type of contraction where the tension is less than the load is called A) isometric contraction. B) isotonic eccentric contraction. C) isotonic concentric contraction. D) isometric concentric contraction. E) isometric eccentric contraction. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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108) Which of the following allows muscles to return to their original shape during relaxation? A) gravity B) opposing muscle contractions C) elastic forces D) myosin binding E) gravity, opposing muscle contractions, and elastic forces Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

109) A resting muscle generates most of its ATP by A) hydrolysis of creatine phosphate. B) anaerobic respiration. C) aerobic metabolism of fatty acids. D) glycogenolysis. E) the tricarboxylic acid cycle. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

110) Creatine phosphate A) is produced by the process of anaerobic respiration. B) can replace ATP in binding to myosin molecules during contraction. C) acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue. D) is only formed during strenuous exercise. E) cannot transfer its phosphate group to ADP. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

111) During anaerobic glycolysis, A) ATP is produced. B) pyruvic acid is produced. C) oxygen is not consumed. D) carbohydrate is metabolized. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

112) Aerobic metabolism normally provides ________ percent of the ATP demands of a resting muscle cell. A) 25 B) 50 C) 70 D) 95 E) 100 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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113) During the recovery period following exercise, all of the following are true except A) lactic acid is removed from muscle cells. B) the muscle actively produces ATP. C) muscle fibers are unable to contract. D) oxygen is consumed at above the resting rate. E) heat is generated. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

114) Which of the following hormones directly stimulates growth of muscle tissue, leading to increased muscle mass? A) epinephrine B) thyroid hormone C) testosterone D) parathyroid hormone E) calcitonin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

115) How would an elevated level of thyroid hormone in the body affect skeletal muscles? A) It would stimulate atrophy. B) It would stimulate hypertrophy. C) It would stimulate energy use and heat production. D) It would decrease heat production by muscle tissue. E) It would cause an increase in muscle mass. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

116) Heat energy gained from muscle contraction is released by the ________ system. A) integumentary B) respiratory C) cardiovascular D) urinary E) endocrine Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

117) The type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the ________ fiber. A) fast B) slow C) intermediate D) anaerobic E) high-density Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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118) Fast fibers A) have low resistance to fatigue. B) rely on aerobic metabolism. C) have many mitochondria. D) have twitches with a very brief contraction phase. E) have low resistance to fatigue and quick twitches. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

119) Muscles that move the eyeball have ________ fibers. A) fast B) slow C) intermediate D) circular E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

120) Which of the following statements is/are false regarding human muscles? A) Most have both slow and fast fibers. B) Slow fibers are abundant in the muscles of the hand. C) Eye muscles are composed entirely of fast fibers. D) Slow fibers are abundant in the back muscles. E) All of the answers are correct; none of them are true regarding human muscles. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

121) Large-diameter, densely packed myofibrils, large glycogen reserves, and few mitochondria are characteristics of A) slow fibers. B) intermediate fibers. C) fast fibers. D) red muscles. E) fatty muscles. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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122) Which of the following types of muscle fibers are best adapted for prolonged contraction such as standing all day? A) uninucleated fibers B) striated fibers C) fast fibers D) slow fibers E) intermediate fibers Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

123) Which of the following is not an effect of aging on the muscular system? A) hypertrophy B) smaller muscle fibers C) decreased recovery from muscle injuries D) exercise tolerance decreases E) muscles become less elastic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

124) The ability of smooth muscle to function over a wide range of lengths is called A) elasticity. B) contractility. C) extensibility. D) plasticity. E) variability. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

125) Which of the following is not characteristic of smooth muscle? A) The striations are due to the orderly arrangement of actin and myosin. B) Neurons that innervate smooth muscles are under involuntary control. C) Smooth muscle cells are uninucleate. D) Smooth muscles do not contain sarcomeres. E) The thin filaments of smooth muscle fibers are attached to dense bodies. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

126) Which of the following is not a function of smooth muscle tissue? A) altering the diameter of the respiratory passageways B) elevating hairs on the arm C) forcing blood from the heart into the major arteries D) moving food materials along the digestive tract E) forcing urine out of the urinary tract Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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127) Which of the following is true about the difference between cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells? A) Cardiac muscle cells does not have striations like skeletal muscle cells. B) Cardiac muscle cells does not have t-tubules. C) Cardiac muscle cells does not have sarcomeres. D) Cardiac muscle cells have intercalated discs where skeletal muscle cells do not. E) Cardiac muscle cells have more nuclei in them than skeletal muscle cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) The terminal cisternae that form a triad along with a T tubule are part of what organelle? (Figure 10-3) A) endoplasmic reticulum B) sarcoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi apparatus D) myofibril E) sarcolemma Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) Match the level of organization with the structure that surrounds it: Level of organization: skeletal muscle, muscle fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril Surrounding structure: endomysium, epimysium, perimysium, sarcoplasmic reticulum. (Figure 10-6) A) skeletal muscleepimysium; muscle fascicleperimysium; muscle fiberendomysium; myofibril sarcoplasmic reticulum B) skeletal musclesarcoplasmic reticulum; muscle fascicleepimysium; muscle fiber perimysium; myofibrilendomysium C) skeletal muscleendomysium; muscle fascicleepimysium; muscle fiberperimysium; myofibril sarcoplasmic reticulum D) skeletal muscleendomysium; muscle fascicleperimysium; muscle fibersarcoplasmic reticulum; myofibrilepimysium E) skeletal muscleepimysium; muscle fascicleendomysium; muscle fiberperimysium; myofibril sarcoplasmic reticulum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) What happens to sarcomere length if the zone of overlap is decreased? (Figure 10-14) A) sarcomere length decreases B) sarcomere length stays the same C) sarcomere length increases Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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4) Which skeletal muscle fiber typeslow or fastcontains more mitochondria? (Figure 10-21) A) slow B) fast Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

Essay Questions 1) Describe the basic sequence of events that occurs as an action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction and is transmitted to the muscle cell. Answer: The action potential triggers the exocytosis of neurotransmitters stored in vesicles in the axon terminal. This acetylcholine binds to receptors in the motor end plate, increasing the muscle membrane permeability to sodium. Acetylcholinesterase destroys the acetylcholine, ensuring that each nerve action potential produces only a single twitch. The influx of these positive sodium ions triggers an action potential. The action potential spreads in both directions away from the motor end plate across the entire surface of the muscle fiber and into the interior via transverse tubules, triggering a pulse of calcium ion release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which generates a brief small twitch. With additional stimuli, calcium ion builds up and higher tensions are produced. Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

2) A hypothetical genetic disease causes the body to produce antibodies that compete with acetylcholine for receptors on the motor end plate. Patients with this disease exhibit varying degrees of muscle weakness in the affected muscles. If you could administer a drug that inhibits acetylcholinesterase or a drug that blocks acetylcholine, which one would you use to alleviate these symptoms? Answer: This is a case of competition between acetylcholine and the antibody. To make the patientʹs acetylcholine more effective, a drug that inhibits acetylcholinesterase would slow the breakdown of acetylcholine, relieving some of the weakness. An acetylcholine blocker would be worse than doing nothing. Learning Outcome: 10-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

3) Describe a motor unit. How many fibers does a motor unit contain? Answer: A motor unit consists of all of the skeletal muscle fibers controlled by a single motor neuron. They may have as few as 10 fibers (eye muscles) or as many as 10,000 (back muscles). Learning Outcome: 10-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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4) Thirty minutes after Mary has completed a 25 -km race, she begins to notice severe muscle soreness and stiffness in her legs. Her urine is dark colored. She wonders whether she may have damaged her muscles during the race. She visits the ER, and the doctor orders several blood tests. What kind of blood tests can help determine whether muscle damage has occurred? Answer: If muscle damage occurred, the doctor would find enzymes such as creatine kinase and proteins such as myoglobin or troponin in the bloodstream released by injured skeletal muscle cells. The level of these substances correlates with the severity of the injury. Learning Outcome: 10-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

5) Megan wants to enter a weight-lifting competition and consults you as to what type of muscle fibers she needs to develop and how she should go about it. What would you suggest to her? Answer: Weight lifting requires anaerobic endurance. Megan would want to develop her fast fibers for short-term maximum strength. She would achieve this by engaging in activities that involve frequent, brief, but intensive workouts, such as with heavy weights to the point of muscle fatigue. The fatigue triggers the production of new myofilament proteins, leading to muscle bulk and strength. Learning Outcome: 10-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

6) Many visceral smooth muscle cells lack motor neuron innervation. How are their contractions coordinated and controlled? Answer: Gap junctions interconnect visceral smooth muscle fibers. An action potential that begins in one will spread to its surrounding neighbors. The action potential can be triggered by stretching, hormones, chemical changes, or stimulation at a myoneural junction on a distant smooth muscle cell. Learning Outcome: 10-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 11 The Muscular System Multiple Choice Questions 1) Muscles that guard entrances and exits of internal passageways are ________ muscles. A) parallel B) convergent C) pennate D) bipennate E) circular Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) In a ________ muscle, the fascicles are concentrically arranged around an opening. A) convergent B) parallel C) straight D) pennate E) circular Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) The type of muscle whose functional characteristics most closely resemble those of its muscle fibers is the ________ muscle. A) pennate B) circular C) parallel D) convergent E) divergent Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) In a ________ muscle, the muscle fibers and fascicles lie in a slanted or oblique position to the tendon. A) parallel B) circular C) pennate D) convergent E) divergent Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) ________ muscle fibers pull in different directions, permitting different actions depending on stimulation. A) Convergent B) Parallel C) Straight D) Pennate E) Circular Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) Most of the skeletal muscles in the body are ________ muscles. A) convergent B) parallel C) straight D) pennate E) circular Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) In a convergent muscle, fascicles converge on a common attachment site that may be a slender band of collagen fibers known as a(n) A) retinaculum. B) raphe. C) aponeurosis. D) orbicularis. E) ligament. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) Which of the following is not a type of fascicle arrangement? A) parallel B) palmate C) unipennate D) circular E) convergent Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) A lever consists of A) a tendon and a muscle. B) a rigid structure. C) a fulcrum. D) a bone, a muscle, and a nerve. E) a rigid structure and a fulcrum. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

10) The most common lever systems in the body are those that have the applied force between the fulcrum and the load. These are called ________ levers. A) first-class B) second-class C) third-class D) fourth-class E) fifth-class Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

11) Contracting the gastrocnemius muscles to elevate the body on the toes involves a ________ lever. A) first-class B) second-class C) third-class D) fourth-class E) fifth-class Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

12) The fulcrum of a lever system is the A) joint. B) muscle. C) bone. D) resistance. E) load. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) When the fulcrum is located between the load and the force, it is called a ________ lever. A) first-class B) second-class C) third-class D) fourth-class E) compound Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

14) A(n) ________ is a muscle whose contraction is chiefly responsible for producing a particular movement. A) prime mover B) motor-unit C) antagonist D) opposition E) synergist Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

15) Which of these phrases most aptly describes ʺmuscle insertionʺ? A) broad tendon sheet B) connective tissue that surrounds a single muscle fiber C) tendon attachment that doesnʹt move D) tendon attachment that moves E) connective tissue that surrounds an entire muscle Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

16) Muscles that insert on the olecranon process of the ulna can act to A) flex the forearm. B) extend the forearm. C) abduct the forearm. D) adduct the forearm. E) extend the carpals. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

17) A muscle that assists the muscle that is primarily responsible for a given action is a(n) A) agonist. B) antagonist. C) synergist. D) originator. E) levator. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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18) The insertion end of the biceps brachii muscle of the anterior upper arm is A) at the proximal end of the muscle. B) at the distal end of the muscle. C) on the dorsal side of the muscle. D) on the lateral side of the muscle. E) the thumb. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

19) The end of a muscle that is attached to the point that moves when the muscle contracts is called the A) origin. B) aponeurosis. C) insertion. D) tendon. E) lever. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

20) The end of a muscle that remains stationary when the muscle contracts is called the A) origin. B) aponeurosis. C) insertion. D) tendon. E) lever. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

21) A type of muscle whose action opposes that of another muscle is called a(n) A) synergist. B) fixator. C) agonist. D) prime mover. E) antagonist. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

22) A muscle that assists another by preventing movement at another joint is called a(n) A) synergist. B) fixator. C) agonist. D) prime mover. E) antagonist. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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23) The names of the muscles can indicate all of the following except A) the angle of the muscle relative to the long axis of the body. B) the action of the muscle. C) the location of the muscle. D) structural characteristics of the muscle. E) the collagen content of the muscle. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

24) A muscle whose name ends in the suffix -glossus would be found within or attached to the A) chin. B) cheek. C) jaw. D) tongue. E) lips. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

25) Muscles including the term capitis would be found within or attached to the A) head. B) neck. C) thorax. D) abdomen. E) groin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

26) Muscles with fibers that run parallel to the long axis of the body are called A) lateralis. B) transversus. C) rectus. D) obliquus. E) medialis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

27) Each of the following terms is a descriptive term for a muscleʹs action except A) levator. B) pronator. C) extensor. D) sartorius. E) adductor. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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28) Muscles visible at the body surface are often called A) internus. B) extrinsic. C) profundus. D) intrinsic. E) superficialis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

29) Muscles located close to the midline of the body may be called A) rectus. B) distalis. C) proximal. D) medialis. E) lateralis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

30) Muscles with fibers that run at an angle to the long axis of the body are called A) lateralis. B) transversus. C) rectus. D) oblique. E) medialis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

31) Muscles with fibers that run perpendicular to the long axis of the body are called A) lateralis. B) transversus. C) rectus. D) oblique. E) medialis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

32) Which muscle is named for either shape or size? A) pectoralis major B) latissimus dorsi C) deltoid D) vastus lateralis E) All of the above are named for shape or size. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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33) Which of the following is not a pennate muscle? A) rectus femoris B) extensor digitorum longus C) deltoid D) pectoralis E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

34) Muscles visible at the body surface often called A) externus. B) profundus. C) rectus. D) transversus. E) oblique. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

35) Muscles that position or stabilize an organ are called A) externus. B) superficialis. C) intrinsic. D) extrinsic. E) oblique. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

36) Which of the following is not primarily a muscle of facial expression? A) buccinator B) depressor labii C) risorius D) masseter E) mentalis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

37) The mentalis muscle inserts on the A) orbicularis oris. B) skin of the chin. C) angle of the mouth. D) hyoid bone. E) skin around the eyelids. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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38) The ʺkissing muscleʺ that purses the lips is the A) zygomaticus. B) orbicularis oris. C) buccinator. D) levator labii. E) procerus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

39) All of the following are innervated by the facial nerve (N VII) except for the ________ muscle. A) risorius B) orbicularis oculi C) levator palpebrae superioris D) mentalis E) temporoparietalis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

40) The origin of the frontalis muscle is the A) mandible. B) frontal bone. C) occipital bone. D) epicranial aponeurosis. E) forehead. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

41) The temporalis muscle passes through the A) alveolar processes of the maxillae and mandible. B) tendinous band around the optic foramen. C) epicranial aponeurosis. D) zygomatic arch. E) fascia surrounding the submandibular salivary gland. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

42) The temporoparietalis muscle acts to A) move the external ear. B) purse the lips. C) depress the lip. D) draw the corner of the mouth back and up. E) close the eye. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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43) The iliac crest is the origin of the A) quadratus lumborum. B) iliocostalis cervicis. C) longissimus cervicis. D) semispinalis capitis. E) splenius. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

44) Which of the following describes the action of the digastric muscle? A) elevates the larynx B) elevates the larynx and depresses the mandible C) depresses the larynx D) depresses and retracts the tongue E) elevates the mandible Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

45) Which of the following is not an extrinsic eye muscle? A) inferior rectus B) rectus abdominis C) lateral rectus D) medial rectus E) superior oblique Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

46) The muscle that elevates the tongue is the A) genioglossus. B) hyoglossus. C) palatoglossus. D) styloglossus. E) digastric. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

47) Which of the following muscles has its origin on the hyoid and inserts on the tongue? A) hyoglossus B) lateral pterygoideus C) sternohyoid D) thyrohyoid E) geniohyoid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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48) Which of the following is a spinal flexor? A) quadratus lumborum B) longus capitis C) longus colli D) All of the answers are correct. E) both the longus capitis and the longus colli Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

49) The sternocleidomastoid inserts on the A) occipital bone. B) clavicle. C) mastoid process of the temporal bone. D) sternum. E) mandible. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

50) The anterior muscle of facial expression that inserts widely on the periosteum of the mandible is the A) temporalis. B) masseter. C) lateral pterygoideus. D) medial pterygoideus. E) platysma. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

51) The scalenes have their origin on the A) transverse and costal processes of cervical vertebrae. B) inferior border of the previous rib. C) superior border of the next rib. D) cartilages of the ribs. E) thoracodorsal fascia and iliac crest. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

52) Which of the following muscles has its insertion on the sternum? A) internal oblique B) external intercostal C) rectus abdominis D) internal intercostal E) scalene Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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53) Which of the following muscles compresses the abdomen? A) diaphragm and intercostals B) external oblique and latissimus dorsi C) rectus abdominis and pectoralis major D) transverse abdominis E) external oblique, rectus abdominis, and transverse abdominis Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

54) Which of the following is the origin of the bulbospongiosus in the female? A) ischial spine B) inferior ischial ramus C) linea alba and pubis D) coccyx E) collagen sheath at the base of the clitoris Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

55) The levator ani inserts on the A) iliac crest. B) coccyx. C) ischial spine. D) central tendon of the perineum. E) sacrum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

56) The ________ muscle allows you to look down. A) inferior rectus B) medial rectus C) lateral rectus D) superior rectus E) inferior oblique Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

57) A muscle that inserts on the body of the mandible is probably involved in A) kissing. B) blowing. C) chewing. D) frowning. E) spitting. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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58) The muscle that originates from the superior surface of the pubis around the symphysis is the A) internal oblique. B) external oblique. C) rectus abdominis. D) transversus abdominis. E) scalene. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

59) The eye muscles include which of the following muscles? A) medial rectus B) inferior rectus C) superior oblique D) inferior oblique E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

60) Which eye muscle sends its tendon of origin through a pulley or trochlea before inserting on the globe? A) superior rectus B) superior oblique C) lateral rectus D) inferior rectus E) inferior oblique Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

61) The ________ allows you to look up. A) inferior rectus B) medial rectus C) lateral rectus D) superior rectus E) inferior oblique Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

62) The ________ muscle is the strongest jaw muscle. A) lateral pterygoid B) digastric C) pterygoid D) medial pterygoid E) masseter Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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63) The ________ extends the neck. A) spinalis thoracis B) splenius capitis C) trapezius D) splenius E) splenius cervicis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

64) Which of these is true about the muscle named levator palpebrae superioris? A) lifts the scapula B) elevates the eyebrow C) raises the upper eyelid D) originates at the back of the orbit E) originates at the back of the orbit and raises the upper eyelid Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

65) In assessing a stroke patient, you ask her to stick out (protract) her tongue. You note that it deviates to one side. You suspect that damage to the neural control of the ________ muscle has occurred. A) hyoglossus B) genioglossus C) palatoglossus D) styloglossus E) None of the answers are correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

66) Ryan hears a loud noise and quickly turns his eyes sideways in the direction of the sound. To accomplish this action he must use his ________ muscles. A) superior rectus B) lateral rectus C) inferior rectus D) medial rectus E) lateral and medial rectus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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67) During abdominal surgery, the surgeon makes a cut lateral to the linea alba. The muscle that would be cut is the A) digastric. B) external abdominal oblique. C) rectus abdominis. D) scalenus. E) splenius. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

68) Medial rotation of the eyeball is performed by the ________ muscle. A) inferior rectus B) lateral rectus C) medial rectus D) superior rectus E) inferior oblique Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

69) Each of the following muscles is involved in the process of chewing or manipulating food in the mouth except the A) masseter. B) temporalis. C) pterygoid. D) omohyoid. E) genioglossus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

70) Which of the following muscles functions to expel urine or semen in males? A) bulbospongiosus B) superficial transverse perineus C) coccygeus D) levator ani E) anconeus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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71) Pamʹs daughter is born cross-eyed. As she grows, the problem does not become any better. Her physician suggests cutting an eye muscle to bring the eyes into a more normal position. Which muscle will he cut? A) inferior rectus B) lateral rectus C) medial rectus D) superior rectus E) superior oblique Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

72) Tom, a trumpet player, asks you which muscles he should develop in order to be a better trumpeter. What would you tell him? A) the masseter and buccinator B) the buccinator and orbicularis oris C) the orbicularis oris and risorius D) the risorius and zygomaticus E) the levator labii and mentalis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

73) Damage to the pectoralis major would interfere with a personʹs ability to A) extend the forearm. B) abduct the humerus. C) flexion of the humerus. D) elevate the scapula. E) rotate the elbow. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

74) The spinous processes of the upper thoracic vertebrae are the origin of the A) levator scapulae. B) rhomboid major. C) trapezius. D) supraspinatus. E) rhomboid major and the trapezius. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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75) Which of the following is the insertion of the pectoralis major? A) the vertebral border near the spine B) the greater tubercle of the humerus C) the mastoid region of the skull D) the occipital bone of the skull E) the clavicle and scapula Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

76) Which of the following describes the action of the serratus anterior? A) adducts the arm B) adducts and flexes the humerus C) protracts the shoulder, abducts and medially rotates the scapula D) medial rotation of the humerus E) lateral rotation of the humerus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 11-1 Major Anterior Skeletal Muscles Use Figure 11-1 to answer the following questions:

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77) Identify the muscle labeled ʺ1.ʺ A) trapezius B) deltoid C) sternocleidomastoid D) temporalis E) pectoralis major Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

78) Identify the muscle labeled ʺ15.ʺ A) sternocleidomastoid B) platysma C) sartorius D) stylohyoid E) risorius Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

79) Identify the muscle labeled ʺ19.ʺ A) external oblique B) internal oblique C) rectus abdominis D) iliacus E) linea alba Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

80) The muscle that raises the corners of the mouth as when smiling is the ________ muscle. A) orbicularis oculi B) zygomaticus major C) orbicularis oris D) masseter E) buccinator Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

81) The action of the masseter muscle is to ________ the mandible. A) depress B) elevate C) abduct D) flex E) open Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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82) The muscle that retracts and elevates the upper lip is the ________ muscle. A) orbicularis oculi B) zygomaticus minor C) orbicularis oris D) masseter E) buccinator Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

83) The thick, flat sheet of tendon deep to the scalp is called the A) retinaculum. B) calcaneal tendon. C) linea alba. D) plantar aponeurosis. E) epicranial aponeurosis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

84) The muscle that elevates the larynx is the ________ muscle. A) masseter B) buccinator C) platysma D) sternocleidomastoid E) stylohyoid Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

85) The inferior rectus is innervated by which nerve? A) abducens B) trigeminal C) facial D) trochlear E) oculomotor Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

86) The stylohyoid is innervated by which nerve? A) abducens B) trigeminal C) facial D) trochlear E) oculomotor Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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87) Which of the following does not depress the hyoid bone? A) omohyoid B) stylohyoid C) sternohyoid D) sternothyroid E) thyrohyoid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 11-1 Major Anterior Skeletal Muscles Use Figure 11-1 to answer the following questions:

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88) Identify the muscle labeled ʺ20.ʺ A) biceps brachii B) brachioradialis C) triceps brachii D) pronator teres E) deltoid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

89) Identify the muscle labeled ʺ7.ʺ A) supinator B) brachioradialis C) brachialis D) pronator teres E) palmaris longus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

90) Identify the muscle labeled ʺ11.ʺ A) rectus anterior B) vastus lateralis C) soleus D) serratus anterior E) tibialis anterior Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

91) Identify the muscle labeled ʺ25.ʺ A) rectus femoris B) biceps femoris C) adductor longus D) risorius E) sartorius Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

92) Identify the muscle labeled ʺ27.ʺ A) rectus femoris B) gastrocnemius C) soleus D) gracilis E) biceps femoris Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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93) The infraspinatus has its insertion on the A) greater tubercle of the humerus. B) tuberosity of the radius. C) lesser tubercle and intertubercular groove of the humerus. D) clavicle and scapula. E) vertebral border near the spine. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

94) The muscle that inserts on the acromion and scapular spine is the A) serratus anterior. B) trapezius. C) sternocleidomastoid. D) pectoralis minor. E) levator scapulae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

95) The muscle that adducts the thumb is the A) adductor pollicis. B) abductor pollicis. C) extensor digitorum. D) flexor digitorum profundus. E) flexor pollicis longus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

96) All of the following originate on the scapula except the A) pectoralis major. B) teres major. C) teres minor. D) subscapularis. E) supraspinatus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

97) The powerful abductor muscle of the upper arm is the A) supraspinatus. B) subscapularis. C) deltoid. D) coracobrachialis. E) teres major. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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98) The muscle that extends the forearm when doing push-ups is the A) deltoid. B) pectorals. C) brachialis. D) triceps. E) biceps. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

99) The muscle(s) that adduct(s) the humerus is/are the A) coracobrachialis. B) deltoid. C) trapezius. D) latissimus dorsi. E) coracobrachialis and latissimus dorsi. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

100) Which of the following does not originate on the humerus? A) anconeus B) brachialis C) brachioradialis D) biceps brachii E) anconeus and brachioradialis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

101) Which of the following is the insertion of the triceps brachii? A) olecranon process of the ulna B) infraglenoid tuberosity of the scapula C) lateral condyle of the humerus D) medial epicondyle of the humerus E) base of the second metacarpal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

102) Which of the following originates on the medial epicondyle of the humerus? A) flexor carpi radialis B) flexor carpi ulnaris C) palmaris longus D) pronator teres E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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103) The band of collagen fibers that laterally braces the knee is the A) linea alba. B) tensor fasciae latae. C) linea aspera. D) iliotibial tract. E) piriformis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

104) The adductor brevis has its origin on the A) ilium. B) pubis. C) sacrum. D) iliac crest. E) linea aspera. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

105) Which of these muscles is a member of the quadriceps group? A) vastus lateralis B) vastus medialis C) vastus intermedius D) rectus femoris E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

106) The muscle that inserts on the iliotibial tract and gluteal tuberosity of the femur is the A) tensor fasciae latae. B) piriformis. C) gluteus minimus. D) gluteus medius. E) gluteus maximus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

107) Muscles that laterally rotate the thigh include all of the following except the A) gluteus maximus. B) obturator internus. C) obturator externus. D) piriformis. E) tensor fasciae latae. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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108) Which of the following are members of the hamstring group? A) biceps femoris and rectus femoris B) semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius C) biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus D) adductor longus and adductor magnus E) gluteus maximus and rectus femoris Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

109) The only knee flexor that originates superior to the acetabulum is the A) biceps femoris. B) gracilis. C) sartorius. D) iliopsoas. E) semimembranosus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

110) The insertion of the flexor hallucis longus is A) above the femoral condyles. B) the superior surface of the distal phalanx of the great toe. C) the inferior surface of the distal phalanx of the great toe. D) the lateral condyle of the tibia and anterior surface of the fibula. E) the posterior surface of the medial condyle of the tibia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

111) The inferior ramus of the pubis is the origin and the medial tibia is the insertion of the ________ muscle. A) biceps femoris B) gracilis C) sartorius D) vastus intermedius E) piriformis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

112) A muscle that dorsiflexes the foot is the A) tibialis anterior. B) tibialis posterior. C) peroneus brevis. D) soleus. E) gastrocnemius. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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113) Muscles of the rotator cuff include all of the following except the A) supraspinatus. B) infraspinatus. C) subscapularis. D) teres minor. E) rhomboid. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

114) Which of these muscles produces lateral rotation at the hip? A) gluteus maximus B) piriformis C) obturator externus D) obturator internus E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

115) The quadriceps group includes all of the following except the A) biceps femoris. B) vastus intermedius. C) vastus lateralis. D) vastus medialis. E) rectus femoris. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

116) Tom is having difficulty with plantar flexion and eversion of his foot. Which muscle is most likely involved in this problem? A) tibialis anterior B) soleus C) gastrocnemius D) flexor digitorum longus E) fibularis longus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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117) Individuals who are engaged in repetitive hand movements such as typing or playing the piano may suffer wrist pain, especially during palmar flexion. All of the following are true concerning this condition except that it A) is called carpal tunnel syndrome. B) results from inflammation of the synovial tendon sheaths. C) never causes muscle weakness. D) results from inflammation of the carpal retinacula. E) irritates the median nerve. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

118) If you bruised your gluteus maximus, you would expect to experience discomfort when A) flexing your hip. B) extending your hip. C) abducting your hip. D) laterally rotating your hip. E) extending and laterally rotating the hip. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

119) Jill suffers a severe cut that severs the tendon that attaches the insertion of the flexor carpi ulnaris. As a result of this injury, what action is difficult for her to perform? A) flex her forearm B) flex her elbow C) flex her ulna D) flex and adduct her hand E) flex her shoulder Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 11-2 Major Posterior Skeletal Muscles Use Figure 11-2 to answer the following questions: Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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120) Identify the muscle labeled ʺ1.ʺ A) deltoid B) trapezius C) sternocleidomastoid D) triceps brachii E) brachioradialis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

121) Identify the muscle labeled ʺ2.ʺ A) deltoid B) teres major C) sternocleidomastoid D) trapezius E) rhomboid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

122) Identify the muscle labeled ʺ3.ʺ A) rhomboid major B) supraspinatus C) infraspinatus D) deltoid E) teres minor Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

123) Identify the muscle labeled ʺ6.ʺ A) trapezius B) tensor fasciae latae C) latissimus dorsi D) adductor magnus E) rhomboid major Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

124) Identify the muscle labeled ʺ17.ʺ A) anconeus B) extensor carpi ulnaris C) extensor digitorum D) pronator teres E) brachioradialis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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125) Identify the structure labeled ʺ9.ʺ A) quadriceps tendon B) femoral aponeurosis C) linea alba D) iliotibial tract E) calcanean tendon Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

126) Identify the muscle labeled ʺ11.ʺ A) gracilis B) semitendinosus C) gluteus medius D) biceps femoris E) adductor magnus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

127) Identify the muscle labeled ʺ12.ʺ A) soleus B) gastrocnemius C) sartorius D) tibialis posterior E) peroneus longus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

128) The whole deltoid muscle ________ the humerus. A) abducts B) flexes C) pronates D) rotates E) inverts Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

129) The muscle group on the posterior thigh is called the ________ group. A) hamstring B) quadricep C) femoris D) adductor E) extensor Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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130) The four prominent muscles on the anterior thigh comprise the ________ muscle group. A) quadriceps femoris B) hamstring C) gluteal D) rhomboid E) adductor Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

131) The long strap-like muscle on the anterior thigh is the ________ muscle. A) gracilis B) rectus femoris C) iliotibial tract D) adductor longus E) sartorius Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

132) What is the action of the subclavius? A) elevates the scapula B) depresses the shoulder C) protracts the shoulder D) depresses and protracts the shoulder E) adducts the scapula Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

133) Which of the following controls abduction at the shoulder? A) supraspinatus B) subscapularis C) teres major D) infraspinatus E) teres minor Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

134) Which of the following controls adduction at the shoulder? A) supraspinatus B) subscapularis C) teres major D) infraspinatus E) teres minor Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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135) Which of the following muscles is innervated by the ulnar nerves? A) flexor carpi radialis B) flexor carpi ulnaris C) palmaris longus D) extensor carpi radialis longus E) extensor carpi ulnaris Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

136) The median nerve innervates all of the following except the A) flexor carpi radialis. B) palmaris longus. C) pronator teres. D) extensor carpi ulnaris. E) pronator quadratus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

137) Which of the following does not control flexion of the hip? A) adductor longus B) pectineus C) psoas major D) gluteus maximus E) adductor brevis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

138) Which of the following is not innervated by the lateral plantar nerve? A) adductor hallucis B) abductor hallucis C) plantar interosseus D) dorsal interosseus E) abductor digiti minimi Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

139) Which of the following is innervated by the sciatic nerve? A) soleus B) tibialis anterior C) plantaris D) fibularis longus E) gasctrocnemius Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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140) The adductor longus is innervated by which nerve? A) obturator B) femoral C) sciatic D) fibular E) tibial Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

141) The Sartorius is innervated by which nerve? A) obturator B) femoral C) sciatic D) fibular E) tibial Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Given its name, what does the levator anguli oris do? (Figure 11-5) A) raise the eyebrows B) raise the eyelids C) raise the mouth D) tense the mouth E) close the eyelids Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

2) Six muscles control eye movement. How many of these muscles can you see from the lateral surface and how many can you see from the medial surface, respectively? (Figure 11 -6) A) 2; 4 B) 4; 2 C) 4; 4 D) 5; 5 E) 1; 6 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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3) Which muscles insert on the hyoid bone? (Figure 11-10) A) sternothyroid and digastric B) sternocleidomastoid, digastric, and geniohyoid C) omohyoid, thyrohyoid, and sternothyroid D) sternocleidomastoid, digastric, sternothyroid, geniohyoid, mylohyoid, and omohyoid E) digastric, geniohyoid, omohyoid, sternohyoid, stylohyoid, thyrohyoid, and mylohyoid Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) Give the origins of the heads of the triceps brachii. (Figure 11-17) A) lateral surface of the humerus, infraglenoid tubercle of scapula, posterior surface of the humerus B) lateral surface of the humerus, medial surface of the humerus, posterior surface of the humerus C) lateral surface of the humerus, anterior surface of the humerus, posterior surface of the humerus D) all on olecranon of ulna E) coracoid process of scapula, supraglenoid tubercle of scapula, anterior surface of humerus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

5) Which two intrinsic thumb muscles are an agonist-antagonist pair? (Figure 11-19) A) lumbricals and opponens digiti minimi B) adductor pollicis and abductor pollicis brevis C) flexor retinaculum and extensor retinaculum D) flexor pollicis brevis and palmar interosseous E) palmar interosseous and dorsal interosseous Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

6) Which quadriceps femoris muscle is not visible from the superficial anterior thigh? (Figure 11-21) A) vastus lateralis B) vastus medialis C) vastus intermedius D) rectus femoris E) biceps femoris Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Essay Questions 1) How do first-, second-, and third-class levers differ? Answer: Levers differ in the position of their fulcrum in relation to the applied force and the load. A first-class lever has the fulcrum positioned between the applied force and the load. Second-class levers have the fulcrum at one end, adjacent to the load, with the applied force at the other end. Third-class levers have the fulcrum at one end, the load at the other, and the applied force in the middle. Learning Outcome: 11-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

2) Which three functional roles in a movement are used to characterize muscle groups? Give a brief description of each action. Answer: Agonist, antagonist, or synergist. Agonists are chiefly responsible for a movement. Antagonists oppose the agonists, keeping the movements smooth. Synergists provide additional force or stabilize the origin. Learning Outcome: 11-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

3) Jeff is interested in toning his abdomen. What muscles would you tell Jeff to exercise to accomplish his goal? What movements would best exercise these muscles? Answer: Jeff should do exercises that flex and twist the trunk. The muscles he should target are the rectus abdominis muscles, and the external and internal oblique muscles. Sit -ups and twisting movements will stimulate these muscles. If he places a weight on his chest as he does sit-ups, it will produce faster results because the rectus abdominis muscle would be working against a greater load. Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

4) Shelly gives her son an ice-cream cone. The boy grasps the cone with his right hand, opens his mouth, and begins to lick the ice cream. Which muscles does he use to perform these actions? Answer: As the child grasps the ice-cream cone, he uses flexor muscles, principally the flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor digitorum profundus, and flexor pollicis longus muscles. Opening his mouth requires the contraction of the platysma and digastric muscles and the relaxation of the masseter, temporalis, and pterygoid muscles. The licking action would involve the genioglossus muscle (to depress and protract the tongue and the palatoglossus muscle (to elevate the tongue). Learning Outcome: 11-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

5) While playing softball, Sid pulls his hamstring muscle. As a result of the injury, he has difficulty extending and medially rotating his thigh. Which muscle(s) of the hamstring group did he probably injure? Answer: Sid probably injured the semimembranosus and/or the semitendinosus, since both of these muscles have these actions. Learning Outcome: 11-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 12 Nervous Tissue Multiple Choice Questions 1) The ________ nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord. A) autonomic B) peripheral C) central D) efferent E) afferent Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) The ________ nervous system controls the skeletal muscles. A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) afferent D) somatic E) autonomic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) The part of the peripheral nervous system that carries sensory information to the CNS is designated A) motor. B) afferent. C) efferent. D) autonomic. E) somatic. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) The efferent division of the peripheral nervous system innervates ________ cells. A) skeletal muscle B) smooth muscle C) heart muscle D) glandular E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) The nervous tissue outside of the central nervous system composes the ________ nervous system. A) somatic B) peripheral C) autonomic D) afferent E) parasympathetic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) The ________ division of the peripheral nervous system brings sensory information to the central nervous system. A) somatic B) peripheral C) autonomic D) afferent E) parasympathetic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) The ________ division of the nervous system carries motor commands to muscles and glands. A) spinal B) peripheral C) autonomic D) afferent E) efferent Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) The ________ nervous system provides involuntary regulation of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandular activity. A) somatic B) peripheral C) autonomic D) afferent E) motor Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) ________ carry motor information to peripheral effectors. A) Unipolar neurons B) Efferent neurons C) Multipolar neurons D) Afferent neurons E) Interneurons Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

10) ________ nerves are nerves that connect to the spinal cord. A) Spinal B) Cranial C) Afferent D) Multipolar E) Autonomic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

11) ________ nerves are nerves that connect to the brain. A) Spinal B) Unmyelinated C) Myelinated D) Cranial E) Interneural Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

12) The axoplasm of the axon contains which of the following? A) neurotubules B) mitochondria C) vesicles D) neurofibrils E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

13) Which of the following is not a recognized structural classification for neurons? A) anaxonic B) bipolar C) multipolar D) pseudopolar E) unipolar Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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14) The most abundant class of neuron in the central nervous system is A) anaxonic. B) bipolar. C) multipolar. D) pseudopolar. E) unipolar. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

15) The cytoplasm that surrounds the nucleus of a neuron is called the A) protoplasm. B) nucleoplasm. C) sarcoplasm. D) neuroplasm. E) perikaryon. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

16) Clusters of RER and free ribosomes in neurons are called A) neurofilaments. B) neurofibrils. C) perikaryon. D) Nissl bodies. E) microglia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

17) The axon is connected to the soma at the A) telodendria. B) synaptic terminal. C) collaterals. D) axon hillock. E) synapse. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

18) Branches that may occur along an axon are called A) telodendria. B) synaptic terminals. C) collaterals. D) hillocks. E) synapses. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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19) Axons terminate in a series of fine extensions known as A) telodendria. B) terminals. C) collaterals. D) dendrites. E) synapses. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

20) The site of intercellular communication between a neuron and another cell is the A) telodendria. B) axolemma. C) collateral. D) hillock. E) synapse. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

21) The rabies virus travels to the CNS via A) anterograde axoplasmic transport. B) retrograde axoplasmic transport. C) blood vessels. D) subcutaneous connective tissue. E) cerebrospinal fluid. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

22) Neurons that are rare, small, and lack features that distinguish dendrites from axons are called A) anaxonic. B) unipolar. C) bipolar. D) tripolar. E) multipolar. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

23) Neurons in which dendritic and axonal processes are continuous and the soma lies off to one side are called A) anaxonic. B) unipolar. C) bipolar. D) tripolar. E) multipolar. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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24) Neurons that have one axon and one dendrite, with the soma in between, are called A) anaxonic. B) unipolar. C) bipolar. D) tripolar. E) multipolar. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

25) Neurons that have several dendrites and a single axon are called A) anaxonic. B) unipolar. C) bipolar. D) tripolar. E) multipolar. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

26) Sensory neurons of the PNS are A) unipolar. B) bipolar. C) anaxonic. D) multipolar. E) tripolar. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

27) Which of the following activities or sensations is/are not monitored by interoceptors? A) sight B) pain C) activities of the digestive system D) cardiovascular activities E) urinary activities Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

28) ________ are the most numerous type of neuron in the CNS. A) Sensory neurons B) Motor neurons C) Unipolar neurons D) Bipolar neurons E) Interneurons Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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29) How does blocking retrograde axoplasmic transport in an axon affect the activity of a neuron? A) The neuron becomes unable to produce neurotransmitters. B) The neuron becomes unable to produce action potentials. C) The soma becomes unable to export products to the synaptic terminals. D) The soma becomes unable to respond to changes in the distal end of the axon. E) The neuron becomes unable to depolarize when stimulated. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

Figure  12-1 The Neuron Use Figure 12-1 to answer the following questions: 30) The structures labeled ʺ1ʺ are dendrites. Their membranes contain numerous chemically -gated ion channels. A) The first statement is true but the second statement is false. B) The first statement is false but the second statement is true. C) Both statements are true. D) Both statements are false. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

31) The structure labeled ʺ2ʺ is a(n) A) neurofilament. B) dendrite. C) initial segment. D) perikaryon. E) axon. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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32) Which type of membrane channels are found at label ʺ3ʺ? A) voltage-gated Na+  channels B) voltage-gated K+  channels C) chemically-gated Na+  and K+  channels D) voltage-gated Ca2+  channels E) both voltage-gated Na+  channels and voltage-gated K+  channels Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

33) Identify the structure labeled ʺ4.ʺ A) synaptic terminals B) telodendria C) dendritic spines D) collateral branches E) axons Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

34) Identify the structure labeled ʺ5.ʺ A) axons B) telodendria C) dendritic spines D) synaptic terminals E) collateral branch Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

35) What is contained inside the structure labeled ʺ5ʺ? A) neuroglia B) sodium ions C) acetylcholinesterase D) calcium ions E) neurotransmitter molecules Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

36) Which part(s) of the neuron can propagate an action potential? A) 1 B) 1 and 2 C) 2 and 3 D) 3 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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37) On which structure do most neuron to neuron communications occur? A) 2 B) 1 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

38) ________ monitor the position of skeletal muscles and joints. A) Proprioceptors B) Internoceptors C) Photoreceptors D) Exteroceptors E) Pressoreceptors Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

39) ________ carry sensory information to the CNS. A) Motor neurons B) Efferent neurons C) Multipolar neurons D) Afferent neurons E) Interneurons Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

40) ________ provide information about the external environment. A) Spinal nerves B) Anaxonic neurons C) Internoceptors D) Exteroceptors E) Proprioceptors Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

41) ________ monitor the digestive, respiratory, cardiovascular, urinary, and reproductive systems. A) Spinal nerves B) Unipolar neurons C) Internoceptors D) Exteroceptors E) Proprioceptors Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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42) The plasma membrane of an axon is called the A) axon terminal. B) neurilemma. C) myelin sheath. D) sarcolemma. E) axolemma. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

43) The basic functional unit of the nervous system is the A) neuron. B) axon. C) nerve. D) glial cell. E) receptor. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

44) The most common neuron of the nervous system is the A) interneuron. B) externoceptor. C) bipolar neuron. D) unipolar neuron. E) microglial cell. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

45) Most neurons lack ________ and so are permanently blocked from undergoing cell division. A) ribosomes B) endoplasmic reticula C) a nucleus D) centrioles E) cytoplasm Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

46) Deteriorating changes in the distal segment of an axon as a result of a break between it and the soma is called ________ degeneration. A) neural B) central C) peripheral D) Wallerian E) conduction Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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47) Which of the following is not a function of the neuroglia? A) support B) memory C) secretion of cerebrospinal fluid D) maintenance of blood-brain barrier E) phagocytosis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

48) Which of the following is a type of glial cell found in the peripheral nervous system? A) astrocytes B) satellite cells C) oligodendrocytes D) microglia E) ependymal cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

49) The largest and most numerous of the glial cells in the central nervous system are the A) astrocytes. B) satellite cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) ependymal cells. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

50) Functions of astrocytes include all of the following except A) maintaining the blood-brain barrier. B) conducting action potentials. C) guiding neuron development. D) responding to neural tissue damage. E) forming a three-dimensional framework for the CNS. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

51) ________ account for roughly half of the volume of the nervous system. A) Axons B) Dendrites C) Neuroglia D) Synapses E) Efferent fibers Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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52) The neuroglial cells that participate in maintaining the blood -brain barrier are the A) astrocytes. B) ependymal cells. C) microglia. D) oligodendrocytes. E) Schwann cells. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

53) The myelin sheath that covers many CNS axons is formed by A) astrocytes. B) satellite cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) ependymal cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

54) ________ line the brain ventricles and spinal canal. A) Astrocytes B) Satellite cells C) Oligodendrocytes D) Microglia E) Ependymal cells Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

55) Small, wandering cells that engulf cell debris and pathogens in the CNS are called A) astrocytes. B) satellite cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) ependymal cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

56) The neurilemma of axons in the peripheral nervous system is formed by A) astrocytes. B) satellite cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) Schwann cells. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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57) Glial cells that surround the neurons in ganglia are A) astrocytes. B) satellite cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) ependymal cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

58) Damage to ependymal cells would most likely affect the A) formation of myelin sheaths. B) formation of cerebrospinal fluid. C) formation of ganglia. D) repair of axons. E) transport of neurotransmitters within axons. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

59) When pressure is applied to neural tissue, all of the following effects are possible  except A) a decrease in blood flow. B) a decrease in available oxygen. C) a change in neuron excitability. D) glial cells degenerate. E) neurons are triggered to divide. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

60) In the peripheral nervous system, Schwann cells participate in the repair of damaged nerves by A) producing new axons. B) regenerating cell bodies for the neurons. C) forming a cellular cord that directs axonal regrowth. D) clearing away cellular debris. E) producing more satellite cells that fuse to form new axons. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

61) The tiny gaps between adjacent Schwann cells are called A) neurillema. B) nodes of Ranvier. C) axolemma. D) terminals. E) vesicles. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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62) Regions of the CNS with an abundance of myelinated axons constitute the ________ matter. A) gray B) white C) neural D) brain E) ganglion Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

63) Regions of the CNS where neuron cell bodies dominate constitute the ________ matter. A) white B) gray C) neural D) brain E) ganglion Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

64) Which of the following is not a function of astrocytes? A) They create a three dimensional framework for the CNS. B) They maintain the blood-brain barrier. C) They guide neuron development. D) They rebuild injured neurons. E) They adjust the composition of the interstitial tissue. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

65) All of the following cause demyelination except A) heavy-metal ion poisoning. B) diphtheria. C) multiple sclerosis. D) dopamine deficiency. E) All of these cause demyelination. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

66) Which of the following can cause demyelination? A) arsenic poisoning B) diphtheria C) multiple sclerosis D) mercury exposure E) Demyelination can be caused by arsenic, diphtheria, multiple sclerosis and mercury. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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378   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

67) Which of the following is not true regarding the establishment of a neuronʹs resting membrane potential? A) Chemical and electrical forces both favor sodium ions entering the cell. B) Electrical forces do not push sodium ions into the cell. C) The chemical gradient for potassium ions tends to drive them out of the cell. D) Ion pumps in the plasma membrane eject sodium ions as fast as they cross the membrane. E) Resting membrane permeability to Na +  is very low. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

68) At the normal resting membrane potential of a typical neuron, its sodium -potassium exchange pump transports A) 1 intracellular sodium ion for 2 extracellular potassium ions. B) 2 intracellular sodium ions for 1 extracellular potassium ion. C) 3 intracellular sodium ions for 1 extracellular potassium ion. D) 3 intracellular sodium ions for 2 extracellular potassium ions. E) 3 extracellular sodium ions for 2 intracellular potassium ions. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

69) Ion channels that are always open are called ________ channels. A) active B) gated C) leak D) regulated E) local Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

70) Opening of sodium channels in the axon membrane causes A) depolarization. B) repolarization. C) hyperpolarization. D) increased negative charge inside the membrane. E) inhibition. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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71) Voltage-gated channels are present A) at the motor end plate. B) on the surface of dendrites. C) in the membrane that covers axons. D) on the soma of neurons. E) along the perikaryon of neurons. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

72) The sodium-potassium ion exchange pump A) must reestablish ion concentrations after each action potential. B) transports sodium ions into the cell during depolarization. C) transports potassium ions out of the cell during repolarization. D) moves sodium and potassium opposite to the direction of their electrochemical gradients. E) depends on a hydrogen gradient for energy. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

73) ________ open or close in response to binding specific molecules. A) Leak channels B) Activated channels C) Chemically gated channels D) Voltage-gated channels E) Voltage-gated and chemically gated channels Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

74) ________ channels open or close in response to physical distortion of the membrane surface. A) Voltage-gated B) Chemically gated C) Active D) Mechanically gated E) Leak Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

75) Any stimulus that opens a ________ ion channel will produce a graded potential. A) voltage-gated B) chemically gated C) sodium D) mechanically gated E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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76) If the permeability of a resting axon to sodium ion increases, A) the membrane potential will repolarize. B) the membrane potential will hyperpolarize. C) inward movement of sodium ion will increase. D) outward movement of sodium ion will decrease. E) inward movement of sodium will increase and the membrane will depolarize. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

77) Which of the following is not involved in creating the resting membrane potential of a neuron? A) diffusion of potassium ions out of the cell B) diffusion of sodium ions into the cell C) membrane permeability for sodium ions greater than potassium ions D) membrane permeability for potassium ions greater than sodium ions E) The interior of the plasma membrane has an excess of negative charges. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

78) If the sodium-potassium pumps in the plasma membrane fail to function, all of the following occur except A) the intracellular concentration of potassium ions will increase. B) the neuron will slowly depolarize. C) the membrane will slowly lose its capacity to generate action potentials. D) the inside of the membrane will have a resting membrane potential that is more positive than normal. E) the intracellular concentration of sodium ions will increase. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

79) Graded potentials A) produce an effect that increases with distance from the point of stimulation. B) produce an effect that spreads actively across the membrane surface. C) may be either a depolarization or a hyperpolarization. D) are often all-or-none. E) cause repolarization. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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80) When potassium channels open and the ions diffuse through the membrane, A) the inside of the membrane will become more positive. B) the inside of the membrane will become more negative. C) there will be almost no effect on transmembrane potential. D) the membrane will become depolarized. E) the membrane will depolarize to threshold. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

81) Ions can move across the plasma membrane in which of the following ways? A) through voltage-gated channels as in the action potential B) through passive or leak channels C) by ATP-dependent ion pumps like the sodium-potassium exchange pump D) through chemically gated channels as in neuromuscular transmission E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

82) Raising the potassium ion concentration in the extracellular fluid surrounding a nerve cell will have what effect? A) depolarize it B) hyperpolarize it C) increase the magnitude of the potassium equilibrium potential D) decrease the magnitude of the potassium equilibrium potential E) both hyperpolarize it and decrease the magnitude of the potassium equilibrium potential Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

83) Voltage-gated sodium channels have both an activation gate and a(n) ________ gate. A) inactivation B) ion C) swinging D) repolarization E) threshold Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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84) If acetylcholine (ACh) causes inhibition of a postsynaptic neuron, to what type of membrane channel did the ACh bind? A) mechanically-regulated channel B) voltage-regulated sodium channel C) voltage-regulated calcium channel D) chemically-regulated potassium channel E) chemically-regulated sodium channel Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

85) A movement of charges in response to a potential difference is called A) current. B) depolarization. C) hyperpolarization. D) action potential. E) electricity. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

86) The sum of the electrical and chemical forces acting on an ion is known as its A) permeability gradient. B) thermodynamic difference. C) electrochemical gradient. D) action potential. E) summation difference. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

87) A shift of the resting transmembrane potential toward 0 mV is called A) potential difference. B) depolarization. C) hyperpolarization. D) polarization. E) repolarization. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

88) The equilibrium potential of potassium is A) -90mV. B) -65mV. C) -70mV. D) +30mV. E) +66mV. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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89) The equilibrium potential of sodium is A) -90mV. B) -65mV. C) -70mV. D) +30mV. E) +66mV. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

90) The following are the main steps in the generation of an action potential. 1. Sodium channels are inactivated. 2. Voltage-gated potassium channels open and potassium moves out of the cell, initiating repolarization. 3. Sodium channels regain their normal properties. 4. A graded depolarization brings an area of an excitable membrane to threshold. 5. A temporary hyperpolarization occurs. 6. Sodium channel activation occurs. 7. Sodium ions enter the cell and depolarization occurs. What is the proper sequence of these events? A) 4, 6, 7, 3, 2, 5, 1 B) 4, 6, 7, 1, 2, 3, 5 C) 6, 7, 4, 1, 2, 3, 5 D) 2, 4, 6, 7, 1, 3, 5 E) 4, 2, 5, 6, 7, 3, 1 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

91) The all-or-none principle states that A) all stimuli will produce identical action potentials. B) all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials. C) the greater the magnitude of the stimuli, the greater the magnitude of the action potential. D) only sensory stimuli can activate action potentials. E) only motor stimuli can activate action potentials. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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92) Which of the following statements about the action potential is false? A) The rapid depolarization phase is caused by the entry of potassium ions. B) During the repolarization phase, sodium channels close and potassium channels open. C) During the depolarization phase, membrane potential becomes positive. D) During the hyperpolarization phase, the ion pumps re-establish the sodium and potassium concentrations across the cell membrane. E) Repolarization occurs as potassium ions leave the axon. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

93) How would the absolute refractory period be affected if voltage-regulated sodium channels failed to inactivate? A) It would last indefinitely. B) It would be much briefer. C) It would be basically unaffected. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

94) During repolarization of a neuron A) sodium ions move out of the cell. B) potassium ions move out of the cell. C) potassium ions move into the cell. D) both sodium and potassium ions move into the cell. E) sodium ions move into the cell. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

95) How would a chemical that prevents the opening of voltage -regulated Na+ channels affect the function of a neuron? A) The neuron will only be able to hyperpolarize. B) The neuron will depolarize more rapidly. C) Action potentials will lack a repolarization phase. D) The neuron will automatically and repeatedly produce graded potentials. E) The neuron will only be capable of producing graded potentials. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

96) A threshold stimulus is the A) depolarization necessary to cause an action potential. B) peak of an action potential. C) hyperpolarization of an axon. D) resting membrane potential. E) electrical current that crosses the synaptic cleft. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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97) Which of the following is true about threshold for an action potential? A) It is more positive than the resting membrane potential. B) Voltage-gated potassium channels begin to close. C) Voltage-gated potassium channels begin to open. D) The membrane begins to hyperpolarize. E) Threshold for a typical neuron is approximately -30 mV. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

98) Puffer fish poison blocks voltage-gated sodium channels like a cork. What effect would this neurotoxin have on the function of neurons? A) Neurons would depolarize more rapidly. B) Action potentials would lack a repolarization phase. C) The absolute refractory period would be shorter than normal. D) The axon would be unable to generate action potentials. E) None, because the chemically gated sodium channels would still function. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Figure 12-2 The Nerve Action Potential Use Figure 12-2 to answer the following questions: 99) What is occurring at the area labeled #4? A) An inhibitory stimulus has occurred. B) Chemically gated potassium channels have opened. C) Excessive potassium has diffused out causing hyperpolarization. D) Sodium ions have been pumped out of the neuron. E) Excessive depolarization of the axon has occurred. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

100) What is occurring in the area between #2 and #3? A) An excitatory graded potential is occurring. B) Potassium ions are entering the axon and causing depolarization. C) Chemically gated sodium channels are open and sodium is diffusing into the axon. D) Sodium ions are entering the axon and causing depolarization. E) Repolarization of the axon due to sodium ions leaving the axon is occurring. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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101) Which area of the graph shows when chemically gated sodium channels are open? A) 3 B) 1 C) 2 D) 5 E) 4 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

102) Which area of the graph shows when voltage -gated sodium channels are open? A) 2 B) 4 C) 1 D) 5 E) 3 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

103) Which area of the graph shows when potassium channels open? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

104) In which area of the graph do you see a sudden rush of sodium ions into the neuron? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

105) Which area of the graph shows when membrane potential approaches the potassium equilibrium potential? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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388   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

106) Which point of the graph shows when potassium ion outflow exceeds sodium ion inflow? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

107) When is the neuron in the relative refractory period? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

108) Rapid impulse conduction from ʺnodeʺ to ʺnodeʺ is called A) spatial propagation. B) saltatory propagation. C) divergent propagation. D) synaptic transmission. E) continuous propagation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

109) Which of the following does not influence the time necessary for a nerve impulse to be transmitted? A) length of the axon B) presence or absence of a myelin sheath C) diameter of the axon D) presence or absence of nodes E) whether or not the impulse begins in the CNS Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

110) Which of the following types of nerve fiber possesses the fastest speed of impulse propagation? A) type A B) type B C) type C D) type D E) type E Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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111) Type ________ fibers have the largest diameter axons. A) S B) F C) A D) B E) C Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

112) Sensory information from skeletal muscles travels over ________ fibers. A) type A B) type B C) type C D) type D E) type E Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

113) In which of the following would the rate of impulse conduction be the greatest? A) a myelinated fiber of 10-μm diameter B) a nonmyelinated fiber of 20-μm diameter C) a myelinated fiber of 1-μm diameter D) a nonmyelinated fiber of 10-μm diameter E) It would be the same in all because of the all-or-none principle. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

114) The minimum stimulus required to trigger an action potential is known as the A) threshold. B) all-or-none response. C) potential. D) incentive. E) summation. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

115) The ________ principle states that the size and speed of the action potential are independent of the stimulus strength. A) threshold B) all-or-none C) summation D) polarization E) potential Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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116) The period during which an excitable membrane cannot respond to further stimulation is the ________ period. A) relative refractory B) absolute refractory C) resting D) lag E) stationary Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

117) The period during which an excitable membrane can respond again, but only if the stimulus is greater than the threshold stimulus, is the ________ period. A) relative refractory B) absolute refractory C) resting D) lag E) stationary Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

118) The presence of ________ dramatically increases the speed at which an action potential moves along an axon. A) a capsule B) plasma protein C) neurilemma D) glial cells E) myelin Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

119) Below are the events that occur during continuous propagation of action potential.  Select the correct order in which the events occur. 1. Adjacent membrane segment depolarizes. 2. Local current spreads to adjacent voltage gated channel. 3. Threshold is met. 4. Local current develops due to sodium moving in the cytosol. A) 2,4,3,1 B) 2,4,1,3 C) 4,2,3,1 D) 4,2,1,3 E) 1,4,2,3 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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120) A neuron that receives neurotransmitter from another neuron is called A) the presynaptic neuron. B) the motor neuron. C) an oligodendrocyte. D) a satellite cell. E) the postsynaptic neuron. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

121) Which type of synapse is most common in the nervous system? A) chemical B) electrical C) mechanical D) processing E) radiative Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

122) The ion that triggers the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft is A) sodium. B) potassium. C) calcium. D) chloride. E) magnesium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

123) Cholinergic synapses release the neurotransmitter A) norepinephrine. B) adrenalin. C) serotonin. D) acetylcholine. E) GABA. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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392   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

124) The following are the steps involved in transmission at a cholinergic synapse. What is the correct sequence for these events? 1. Chemically-gated sodium channels on the postsynaptic membrane are activated. 2. Calcium ions enter the synaptic terminal. 3. Acetylcholinesterase hydrolyzes acetylcholine. 4. An action potential depolarizes the synaptic terminal at the presynaptic membrane. 5. The pre-synaptic terminal reabsorbs choline. 6. Acetylcholine is released from storage vesicles by exocytosis. 7. Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. 8. Calcium ions are removed from the cytoplasm of the pre- synaptic terminal. A) 4, 2, 6, 7, 8, 5, 3, 1 B) 4, 2, 6, 7, 1, 8, 3, 5 C) 2, 4, 6, 7, 1, 8, 3, 5 D) 2, 5, 4, 6, 7, 1, 8, 3 E) 6, 4, 2, 7, 1, 8, 3, 5 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

125) If the chemically gated sodium channels in the postsynaptic membrane were completely blocked, A) synaptic transmission would fail. B) release of neurotransmitter would stop. C) smaller action potentials would result. D) the presynaptic membrane would be unable to reach threshold. E) the presynaptic neuron would release a different neurotransmitter. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

126) The effect that a neurotransmitter has on the postsynaptic membrane depends on the A) frequency of neurotransmitter release. B) nature of the neurotransmitter. C) characteristics of the receptors. D) quantity of neurotransmitters released. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

127) When cholinergic receptors are stimulated, A) sodium ions enter the postsynaptic neuron. B) sodium ions leave the postsynaptic neuron. C) chloride ions enter the postsynaptic neuron. D) chloride ions leave the postsynaptic neuron. E) norepinephrine deactivates acetylcholine. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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128) What triggers the release of acetylcholine from a synaptic terminal? A) release of calcium ions from the synaptic vesicles B) graded potentials in the synaptic terminal C) synaptic vesicles fuse to dendrites D) diffusion of sodium ions out of the synaptic terminal E) diffusion of calcium ions into the synaptic terminal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

129) At a(n) ________ synapse, a neurotransmitter is released to stimulate the postsynaptic membrane. A) electrical B) cell C) chemical D) osmotic E) gap Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

130) In a(n) ________ synapse, current flows directly between cells. A) electrical B) cell C) chemical D) osmotic E) gap Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

131) At a synapse the 0.2-0.5 milliseconds it takes for calcium influx and neurotransmitter release is called A) latency period. B) synaptic delay. C) recovery period. D) repolarization. E) synaptic diffusion. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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394   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

132) Synaptic delay is caused by A) neurotransmitter diffusion. B) binding of acetylcholine to post-synaptic receptors. C) calcium influx and neurotransmitter release. D) production and transport of neurotransmitter within the neuron. E) the lack of permeability of the post-synaptic membrane. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

133) Adrenergic synapses release the neurotransmitter A) acetylcholine. B) norepinephrine. C) dopamine. D) serotonin. E) GABA. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

134) Which of the following is the most important excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain that is important in learning and memory? A) glutamate B) gamma aminobutyric acid C) serotonin D) noradrenaline E) glycine Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

135) After acetylcholinesterase acts, the synaptic terminal A) reabsorbs the acetylcholine. B) reabsorbs the acetate. C) reabsorbs the choline. D) reabsorbs axoplasm. E) pinches off and a new terminal grows. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

136) A deficiency in which neurotransmitter would cause Parkinsonʹs-like symptoms? A) dopamine B) norepinephrine C) serotonin D) GABA E) endorphins Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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137) Which neurotransmitter has a direct effect on opening chloride channels? A) dopamine B) norepinephrine C) serotonin D) GABA E) endorphins Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

138) Which neurotransmitter has widespread effects on a personʹs attention and emotional state? A) dopamine B) norepinephrine C) serotonin D) GABA E) endorphins Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

139) Which of the following neurotransmitters is a dissolved gas? A) serotonin B) glutamate C) aspartate D) nitric oxide E) histamine Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

140) Which of the following neurotransmitters are known to bind to G-protein coupled receptors? A) epinephrine B) serotonin C) dopamine D) GABA E) All of these bind to G-protein coupled receptors. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

141) The molecule responsible for making cyclic AMP is called A) adenylate cyclase. B) adenosine. C) anandamide. D) adenosine synthase. E) G-protein. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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142) Which of the following is the primary second messenger in G-protein coupled post-synaptic cells? A) NO B) CO C) cAMP D) GABA E) ATP Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

143) A postsynaptic neuron will have an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) when A) chemically regulated potassium channels are open and potassium is diffusing out of the cell. B) more calcium ions than usual diffuse into the neuron. C) chemically regulated sodium channels are open and sodium is diffusing into the cell. D) the neuron is hyperpolarized. E) more potassium ions than usual diffuse out of the neuron. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

144) The site in the neuron where EPSPs and IPSPs are integrated is the A) chemical synapse. B) electrical synapse. C) axon hillock. D) dendritic membrane. E) synaptic terminal. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

145) EPSPs (excitatory postsynaptic potentials) occur when A) more potassium ions than usual leak out of a cell. B) more calcium ions than usual leak out of a cell. C) chloride ions enter a cell. D) extra sodium ions enter a cell. E) hyperpolarizations occur. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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146) IPSPs (inhibitory postsynaptic potentials) A) are local depolarizations. B) are local hyperpolarizations. C) increase membrane permeability to sodium ions. D) block the efflux of potassium ions. E) block the efflux of calcium ions. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

147) When a second EPSP (excitatory postsynaptic potential) arrives at a single synapse before the effects of the first have disappeared, what occurs? A) spatial summation B) temporal summation C) inhibition of the impulse D) hyperpolarization E) decrease in speed of impulse transmission Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

148) Summation that results from the cumulative effect of multiple synapses at multiple places on the neuron is designated A) spatial summation. B) temporal summation. C) inhibition of the impulse. D) hyperpolarization. E) impulse transmission. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

149) A neuron whose membrane potential shifts closer to threshold is said to be A) hyperpolarized. B) depolarized. C) facilitated. D) repolarized. E) at equilibrium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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398   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

150) In ________, activity at an axoaxonic synapse increases the amount of neurotransmitter released when an action potential arrives at the axon terminus. A) presynaptic inhibition B) presynaptic facilitation C) spatial summation D) temporal summation E) spatial facilitation Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

151) In one form of presynaptic inhibition the release of ________ inhibits the opening of voltage gated calcium channels in the axon terminus. A) glutamate B) GABA C) serotonin D) dopamine E) aspartate Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

152) The release of GABA and subsequent inhibition of voltage gated calcium channels is associated with A) presynaptic inhibition. B) presynaptic facilitation. C) spatial summation. D) temporal summation. E) spatial facilitation. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) The axon hillock is a region between what two general regions of a neuron? (Figure 12 -2) A) dendrites and cell body B) nucleolus and nucleus C) axon and axon terminals D) cell body and axon E) dendrites and telodendria Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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2) Which neuroglia myelinate CNS axons and which neuroglia myelinate PNS axons? (Figure 12-4) A) oligodendrocytes; Schwann cells B) Schwann cells; oligodendrocytes C) astrocytes; satellite cells D) satellite cells; astrocytes E) astrocytes; Schwann cells Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) Which part of an acetylcholine (ACh) molecule undergoes reuptake by the axon terminal to be reused in another acetylcholine molecule? (Figure 12-16) A) acetate B) choline C) coenzyme A D) calcium E) acetyl-CoA Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

Essay Questions 1) Rabies is caused by a virus that attacks the central nervous system. The virus is normally introduced by an animal bite that breaks the surface of the skin. Since the virus is not motile, how does it travel to the central nervous system? Answer: When the skin is broken by an animal bite some cutaneous receptors are physically damaged. It is through these damaged axons that the virus gains entrance to the neuron. Retrograde axoplasmic transport carries the virus to the central nervous system, where it can reproduce and spread. Learning Outcome: 12-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

2) The myelination of central and peripheral axons occurs rapidly through the first few years of life. How can this developmental process explain the improved motor abilities of infants and toddlers? Answer: Without full myelination, information about limb movement and body position moves slowly to the CNS, and motor commands move slowly and erratically to the muscles. By the time the brain is aware of movement or position and can issue a motor command, the limb has already moved. When the motor command reaches the skeletal muscle, the response is no longer appropriate. As the neurons become fully myelinated, information processing speeds up, so we observe improved balance, coordination, and movement. Learning Outcome: 12-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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3) A drug that blocks ATP production is introduced into an isolated axon preparation. The axon is then repeatedly stimulated, and recordings are made of the response. What effects would you expect to observe? Answer: Initially, the recording would show normal action potentials in response to the repetitive stimulation. After 50,000 to 100,000 action potentials have passed, the recording would start to indicate less responsiveness from the axon; ultimately, the axon would fail to respond. Because very few ions actually move across the membrane during an action potential, axons can carry thousands of action potentials before the concentrations of sodium and potassium ions must be reestablished by the sodium-potassium pump. Without ATP production, the supply of ATP would be consumed, the pump would shut down, and so the cell could not restore the sodium and potassium ion gradients. The resulting slow depolarization would inactivate voltage-gated sodium channels, leading to a persistent absolute refractory state. The loss of the electrochemical gradients denies the axons their means of generating an action potential and transmission would stop. Learning Outcome: 12-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 13 The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal Reflexes Multiple Choice Questions 1) The spinal cord is part of the ________ nervous system. A) peripheral B) somatic C) central D) autonomic E) afferent Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) The adult spinal cord typically ends between vertebrae A) T12-L1. B) S4-S5. C) L5-S1. D) L1-L2. E) S5-Co1. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) Arrange the spinal meninges from innermost layer to outermost layer. A) dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater B) dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater C) arachnoid mater, pia mater, dura mater D) pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater E) pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) Enlarged area of the spinal cord from which nerves to the shoulder and upper limbs arise. A) cervical enlargement B) lumbar enlargement C) thoracic region D) conus medullaris E) sacral region Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) These structures extending from the pia mater through to the dura mater support the spinal cord by preventing lateral movement. A) coccygeal ligament B) rami communicantes C) cauda equina D) denticulate ligaments E) spinal ligaments Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

6) The conus medullaris anchors the spinal cord to the coccygeal ligament via a strand of fibrous tissue called the A) denticulate ligament. B) filum terminale. C) spinal ligament. D) meningeal ligament. E) dura mater. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) Spinal nerves are A) purely sensory. B) purely motor. C) both sensory and motor. D) interneuronal. E) involuntary. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) The spinal cord consists of four regions and ________ pairs of spinal nerves. A) five B) twelve C) twenty-five D) thirty-one E) The number varies widely among individuals. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) The posterior root ganglia mainly contain A) axons of motor neurons. B) axons of sensory neurons. C) cell bodies of motor neurons. D) cell bodies of sensory neurons. E) synapses. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

10) The posterior root of a spinal nerve contains A) axons of motor neurons. B) axons of sensory neurons. C) cell bodies of motor neurons. D) cell bodies of sensory neurons. E) interneurons. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

11) The anterior root of a spinal nerve contains A) axons of motor neurons. B) axons of sensory neurons. C) cell bodies of motor neurons. D) cell bodies of sensory neurons. E) interneurons. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

12) The tough, fibrous, outermost covering of the spinal cord is the A) arachnoid mater. B) pia mater. C) dura mater. D) coccygeal ligament. E) periosteum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

13) If the posterior root of a spinal nerve is severed, A) output to skeletal muscles would be blocked. B) output to visceral organs would be blocked. C) efferent fibers would be blocked. D) the brain would not be able to communicate with that level of the spinal cord. E) sensory input would be blocked. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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14) The subdural space lies between A) the arachnoid mater and the pia mater. B) the pia mater and the dura mater. C) the dura mater and the arachnoid mater. D) the pia mater and the subarachnoid space. E) the endosteum and the periosteum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

15) The layer of the meninges in direct contact with the spinal cord is the A) dura mater. B) subarachnoid space. C) arachnoid mater. D) pia mater. E) choroid plexus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

16) A posterior and anterior root of each spinal segment unite to form a A) cervical enlargement. B) lumbar enlargement. C) spinal nerve. D) denticulate ligament. E) spinal ganglion. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

17) Which of the following is not true of meningitis? A) Inflammation of the meninges occurs. B) Bacteria can be the cause. C) Viruses can be the cause. D) CSF flow can be disrupted. E) It only affects spinal meninges. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

18) Which of the following is not true regarding an epidural block? A) It is commonly used as a method of pain control during labor and delivery. B) This procedure does not provide sustained anesthesia. C) It can provide sensory and motor anesthesia, depending on the anesthetic selected. D) Intubation is not necessary because respiratory muscles are not paralyzed. E) It affects only the spinal nerves in the immediate area of the injection. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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19) Cerebrospinal fluid flows within the A) filum terminale. B) subarachnoid space. C) dura mater. D) pia mater. E) arachnoid mater. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

20) The spinal cord continues to elongate until about age A) 20 years. B) 10 years. C) 4 years. D) 6 months. E) 2 months. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

21) The specialized membranes that surround the spinal cord are termed the A) cranial meninges. B) cranial mater. C) spinal meninges. D) spinal mater. E) epidural membranes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

22) Blood vessels that supply the spinal cord run along the surface of the A) pia mater. B) dura mater. C) epidural space. D) subdural space. E) arachnoid mater. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

23) Samples of CSF for diagnostic purposes are normally obtained by placing the tip of a needle in the A) dura mater. B) arachnoid mater. C) epidural space. D) subarachnoid space. E) cerebral ventricles. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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24) In an adult, the conus medullaris is found at about A) T6 . B) T10. C) L1 . D) L5 . E) C8 . Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

25) The dura mater tapers inferiorly to form the A) coccygeal ligament. B) conus medullaris. C) cauda equina. D) subarachnoid space. E) denticulate ligament. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

26) The condition in which a person loses all feeling and movement of the arms and legs due to spinal cord injury is termed A) paraplegia. B) hemiplegia. C) spinal shock. D) quadriplegia. E) spinal transection. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

27) The loss of feeling and movement of the legs is termed A) paraplegia. B) hemiplegia. C) spinal shock. D) quadriplegia. E) spinal transection. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 13  The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal Reflexes    407

28) During the procedure known as a(n) ________, a needle is inserted into the subarachnoid space in the inferior lumbar region. A) myelography B) encephalomyelogram C) laminectomy D) lumbar puncture E) thoracic tap Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

29) Bill contracts a viral disease that destroys cells in the posterior gray horns in his spinal cord. As a result, which of the following would you expect? A) loss of sensation in his torso B) inability to breathe C) problems with moving his arms D) uncontrollable sweating of his feet E) problems moving his legs Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

30) Masses of gray matter within the central nervous system are A) ganglia. B) columns. C) nuclei. D) commissures. E) horns. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

31) Bundles of axons in the central nervous system are known as A) tracts. B) ganglia. C) nuclei. D) horns. E) commissures. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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32) Axons cross from one side of the spinal cord to the other through the A) lateral white column. B) posterior gray horn. C) central canal. D) posterior median sulcus. E) anterior white commissure. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

33) The white matter of the spinal cord is mainly A) unmyelinated axons. B) neuroglia. C) Schwann cells. D) myelinated axons. E) nodes of Ranvier. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

34) The gray horns of the spinal cord contain mainly A) nerve tracts. B) columns. C) meninges. D) neuron cell bodies. E) funiculi. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

35) The large anterior gray horns of the spinal cord contain mainly A) somatic sensory nuclei. B) somatic motor nuclei. C) visceral motor nuclei. D) visceral sensory nuclei. E) sympathetic nuclei. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

36) Nerve tracts or fasciculi make up the A) central canal. B) posterior gray horns. C) gray commissures. D) white columns. E) anterior gray horns. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 13  The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal Reflexes    409

37) In the spinal cord, white matter is separated into ascending and descending tracts organized as A) nuclei. B) ganglia. C) columns. D) nerves. E) horns. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

38) The outward projections from the central gray matter of the spinal cord, seen easily in microscopic spinal cord cross sections, are called A) wings. B) horns. C) pyramids. D) fibers. E) tracts. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

39) Axons crossing from one side of the spinal cord to the other within the gray matter are found in the A) anterior gray horns. B) lateral gray horns. C) posterior gray horns. D) gray commissures. E) white commissures. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 13-1 The Spinal Cord Use Figure 13-1 to answer the following questions: 40) Ascending and descending tracts can be found in which area(s) of the spinal cord? A) 9 B) 8 C) 11, 12, 13, 14 D) 1, 2, 3 E) 4, 5, 6 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

41) Identify the structure labeled ʺ1.ʺ A) anterior white column B) lateral white column C) lateral white horn D) median commissure E) posterior white column Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 13  The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal Reflexes    411

42) Identify the structure labeled ʺ4.ʺ A) posterior gray column B) posterior gray ganglion C) posterior white column D) posterior gray horn E) anterior gray horn Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

43) Identify the structure labeled ʺ9.ʺ A) anterior white commissure B) anterior median fissure C) anterior white column D) anterior gray commissure E) anterior white horn Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

44) What is the function of the structure labeled ʺ11ʺ? A) somatic motor control B) somatic sensory receiving C) visceral sensory receiving D) visceral motor control E) ascending pathway Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

45) Where do somatic motor neurons reside? A) 9 B) 11 C) 12 D) 13 E) 14 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

46) Sensory information from visceral organs is carried by the A) parasympathetic nerve. B) sympathetic nerve. C) anterior ramus. D) posterior ramus. E) rami communicantes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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47) Nerve plexuses are formed by interconnecting branches of the A) posterior rami. B) anterior rami. C) posterior root. D) anterior root. E) white rami communicans. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

48) Regional loss of sensory or motor function from nerve trauma or compression is termed A) shingles. B) dermatome. C) peripheral neuropathy. D) hemisection. E) areflexia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

49) Large bundles of axons from several spinal nerves in the brachial plexus are termed A) cords. B) rami. C) dermatomes. D) trunks. E) roots. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

50) The largest peripheral nerve is the ________ nerve. A) median B) femoral C) phrenic D) obturator E) sciatic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

51) Loss of feeling in the thumb and first two fingers is most likely due to a damaged ________ nerve. A) radial B) musculocutaneous C) ulnar D) median E) axillary Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 13  The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal Reflexes    413

52) The outermost connective tissue covering of nerves is the A) endoneurium. B) endomysium. C) perineurium. D) epineurium. E) epimysium. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

53) The preganglionic fibers that connect a spinal nerve with an autonomic ganglion in the thoracic and lumbar region of the spinal cord and carries visceral motor fibers that are myelinated form the A) white rami communicantes. B) gray rami communicantes. C) posterior ramus. D) anterior ramus. E) dermatomes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

54) The postganglionic fibers that innervate glands in the body wall or smooth muscles in limbs are A) white rami communicantes. B) gray rami communicantes. C) posterior ramus. D) anterior ramus. E) dermatomes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

55) Preganglionic and postganglionic fibers of the autonomic nervous system that innervate internal organs are collectively called A) posterior rami. B) anterior rami. C) white rami. D) gray rami. E) sympathetic nerves. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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56) Which of the following associations is incorrect? A) 8 cervical spinal nerves B) 11 thoracic spinal nerves C) 5 lumbar spinal nerves D) 5 sacral spinal nerves E) 1 coccygeal spinal nerve Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

57) Muscles of the neck and shoulder are innervated by spinal nerves from the ________ region. A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral E) coccygeal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

58) The anterior rami of spinal nerves C5 to T1 contribute fibers to the ________ plexus. A) cervical B) brachial C) lumbar D) sacral E) thoracic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

59) In which plexus does the ulnar nerve arise? A) cranial B) cervical C) brachial D) lumbar E) sacral Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

60) In the condition ________, a virus infects posterior root ganglia, causing a painful rash whose distribution corresponds to that of the affected sensory nerves as seen in their dermatomes. A) myasthenia gravis B) neuronal damage C) shingles D) chickenpox E) Hodgkinʹs disease Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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61) The layer of connective tissue that surrounds a fascicle within a peripheral nerve is the A) perineurium. B) epineurium. C) endoneurium. D) epimysium. E) endosteum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

62) Spinal nerves from the sacral region of the cord innervate the ________ muscles. A) shoulder B) intercostal C) abdominal D) leg E) facial Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

63) The ________ innervates the ventrolateral body surface, structures in the body wall, and the limbs. A) white rami communicantes B) gray rami communicantes C) posterior rami D) anterior rami E) dermatomes Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

64) A viral disease that destroys the cells of the anterior gray horn will A) lead to skeletal muscle weakness or paralysis. B) interfere with position sense. C) mainly interfere with crude touch and temperature sense. D) block autonomic regulation. E) affect visceral motor function. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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65) The complex, interwoven network formed by contributions from the anterior rami of neighboring spinal nerves is termed a(n) A) dermatome. B) autonomic nerve. C) lateral nerve. D) tract. E) plexus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

66) Each of the following nerves originates in the lumbar plexus except the ________ nerve. A) saphenous B) sciatic C) femoral D) obturator E) genitofemoral Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

67) The ________ nerve, which arises in the cervical plexus, innervates the diaphragm. A) ansa cervicalis B) lesser occipital C) thoracic D) phrenic E) supraclaviculars Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

68) The layer of connective tissue that surrounds individual axons within a peripheral nerve is termed the A) endoneurium. B) perineurium. C) epineurium. D) metaneurium. E) subneurium. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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69) If a person has a crush injury to the C 3 -C5 spinal segments, you would expect that he A) might be unable to breathe on his own. B) could walk without difficulty. C) would have full range of motion in all extremities. D) would be in a coma. E) would have difficulty chewing and moving the tongue. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

70) Mary is in an automobile accident and suffers a spinal cord injury. She has lost feeling in her lower body. Her doctor tells her that swelling is compressing a portion of her spinal cord. Which part of her cord is likely to be compressed? A) the anterior gray horns B) the anterior gray commissures C) ascending tracts D) descending tracts E) the anterior white commissures Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

71) The brachial plexus gives rise to all of the following nerves except the A) radial. B) median. C) ulnar. D) musculocutaneous. E) phrenic. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 13-2 Spinal Nerves Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions: 72) Identify the structure labeled ʺ2.ʺ A) anterior root B) posterior ramus C) spinal nerve D) anterior ramus E) white ramus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 13  The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal Reflexes    419

73) Identify the structure labeled ʺ3.ʺ A) spinal nerve B) gray ramus communicans C) white ramus communicans D) posterior ramus communicans E) anterior ramus communicans Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

74) Ken has a herniated disc which is pinching the structure labeled ʺ10ʺ. He is most likely experiencing impairment in which sensory pathway? A) somatic sensory B) visceral sensory C) somatic and visceral sensory D) somatic and visceral motor E) visceral motor Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

75) Damage to which structure would lead to paralysis of limbs? A) 11 B) 2 C) 1 D) 7 E) 9 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

76) Identify the structure labeled ʺ4.ʺ A) spinal nerve B) gray ramus C) white ramus D) posterior ramus E) anterior ramus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

77) Identify the structure labeled ʺ6.ʺ A) autonomic nerve B) sympathetic ganglion C) posterior root ganglion D) rami communicantes E) anterior root Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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78) Identify the structure labeled ʺ8.ʺ A) peripheral nerve B) posterior ramus C) spinal nerve D) anterior root E) posterior root Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

79) What is the function of the structure labeled ʺ12ʺ? A) somatic motor control B) visceral motor control C) somatic sensory input D) visceral sensory input E) sensory receptor for pain Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

80) Which branch carries motor neurons to structures on the back of the body trunk? A) 1 B) 2 C) 5 D) 7 E) 11 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

81) In which structure are sensory cell bodies located? A) 4 B) 6 C) 5 D) 10 E) 12 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

82) Suppose that you feel something brushing against your abdomen. The sensory information would be carried to the spinal cord over a(n) ________ ramus. A) posterior B) sympathetic C) lateral D) anterior E) ascending Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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83) The specific strip of skin that is innervated by a specific spinal nerve is called a A) root. B) ramus. C) trunk. D) ganglion. E) dermatome. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

84) A complex, interwoven network of nerves is called a A) dermatome. B) ramus. C) plexus. D) ganglion. E) tract. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

85) Recognized neuronal circuit patterns include all of the following except A) convergent. B) divergent. C) multipolar. D) reverberating. E) parallel processing. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

86) You are sitting at a Mexican restaurant waiting for your food. The waiter brings a very hot plate, telling you to be careful about touching it. You touch it anyway, producing a pain sensation in your fingers, a withdrawal of your hand, and an auditory comment of what you are thinking. This scenario represents a ________ neuronal circuit. A) parallel processing B) reverberating C) serial processing D) convergent E) divergent Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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87) In ________, one neuron synapses on several postsynaptic neurons. A) divergence B) reverberation C) serial processing D) parallel processing E) convergence Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

88) A motor neuron typically receives input from neurons that originate in various areas of the brain. This type of circuit is a A) divergent circuit. B) convergent circuit. C) serial processing circuit. D) parallel processing circuit. E) reverberating circuit. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

89) Which of the following is not a way that reflexes are classified? A) innate/acquired B) somatic/visceral C) sympathetic/parasympathetic D) monosynaptic/polysynaptic E) spinal/cranial Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

90) All of the following are true of neural reflexes except that they A) are automatic motor responses. B) are the simplest form of behavior. C) help preserve homeostasis. D) cannot be modified by the brain. E) involve at least two neurons. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

91) Reflexes based on synapses formed during development are ________ reflexes. A) visceral B) innate C) acquired D) somatic E) intersegmental Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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92) The neural ʺwiringʺ of a single reflex is called a(n) A) reflex arc. B) ramus. C) ganglion. D) tract. E) circuit. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

93) ________ reflexes activate skeletal muscles. A) Involuntary B) Cranial C) Spinal D) Autonomic E) Somatic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

94) The most complicated spinal reflexes are called A) collateral reflex arcs. B) ipsilateral reflex arcs. C) intersegmental reflex arcs. D) dermatomes. E) spinal plexuses. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

95) All of the following are true of muscle spindles except they A) are found within skeletal muscle. B) consist of specialized fibers called intrafusal fibers. C) are found in tendons. D) are the receptor for the stretch reflex. E) are innervated by gamma motor neurons. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

96) The reflex that prevents a muscle from exerting too much tension is the ________ reflex. A) stretch B) tendon C) flexor D) crossed extensor E) reciprocal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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97) Spinal interneurons inhibit antagonist motor neurons in a process called A) a crossed extensor reflex. B) a stretch reflex. C) a tendon reflex. D) reciprocal inhibition. E) reverberating circuits. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

98) Which of the following is not true of polysynaptic reflexes? A) They involve pools of interneurons. B) They are intersegmental in distribution. C) They involve reciprocal inhibition. D) They involve one muscle group. E) They have reverberating circuits. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

99) Place the following events of a reflex arc in the correct order: 1) motor neuron activation, 2) sensory neuron activation, 3) sensory receptor activation, 4) Information processing, 5) effector response. A) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 B) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5 C) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 D) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5 E) 1, 5, 3, 2, 4 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

100) The ________ reflex complements the flexor reflex by activating contralateral muscles. A) stretch B) tendon C) flexor D) crossed extensor E) reciprocal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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101) The flexor reflex A) prevents a muscle from overstretching. B) prevents a muscle from generating damaging tension. C) moves a limb away from a painful stimulus. D) usually depends on cranial neurons. E) is an example of a monosynaptic reflex. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

102) Reflexes that activate muscles on the same side of the body as the stimulus are called A) contralateral. B) ipsilateral. C) monosynaptic. D) involuntary. E) polysynaptic. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

103) Reflexes that activate muscles on the opposite side of the body as the stimulus are called A) contralateral. B) ipsilateral. C) monosynaptic. D) involuntary. E) polysynaptic. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

104) In a(n) ________ reflex, a sensory neuron synapses directly on a motor neuron. A) monosynaptic B) ipsilateral C) commensual D) contralateral E) polysynaptic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

105) A(n) ________ reflex has at least one interneuron placed between the sensory and motor neurons. A) monosynaptic B) ipsilateral C) contralateral D) involuntary E) polysynaptic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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106) Which of the following is not a reason a reflex response may fail during a clinical exam? A) The person may consciously suppress the response. B) The nerves may be damaged. C) The person may be elderly and no longer have any reflexes. D) The CNS may be damaged. E) There may be nerve conduction problems. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

107) Which of the following is not true about a positive Babinski reflex? A) normal in newborns B) abnormal in adults C) a sign of injury to descending spinal tracts D) clinicians test this when a peripheral nerve injury is suspected E) flaring of the toes when the sole is stroked Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) What is the area between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater? (Figure 13 -3) A) dura mater B) subdural space C) subarachnoid space D) denticulate space E) epidural space Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) In which horn are somatic motor nuclei located? (Figure 13-5) A) anterior horn B) posterior horn C) lateral horn D) dorsal horn E) central horn Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 13  The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal Reflexes    427

3) The axillary, radial, and ulnar nerves branch from which plexus? (Figure 13 -9) A) cervical B) brachial C) lumbar D) sacral E) thoracic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) What are the four ways reflexes can be classified? (Figure 13-15) A) monosynaptic, polysynaptic, monosegmental, polysegmental B) flexor, extensor, crossed extensor, withdrawal C) somatic, muscle, visceral, autonomic D) development, response, complexity, processing site E) dorsal, ventral, lateral, central Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

Essay Questions 1) The varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles. The virus attacks the dorsal roots of spinal nerves and sensory ganglia of cranial nerves. What are the characteristic symptoms of shingles and where are they localized on the body? Answer: The symptoms include red skin that is warm to the touch. The skin is extremely sensitive and very painful. Additionally, the skin forms painful blisters that are slow to heal. The rash follows the dermatome of the affected sensory nerve so it is typically a small area and usually affects only on one side of the body. Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

2) While playing football, Ramón is tackled hard, and as he tries to get up, he finds that he has difficulty flexing and adducting his left thigh and extending his left leg. Which nerve innervating the lower limb may be damaged, and how would the damage affect sensory perception in Ramónʹs left leg? Answer: Ramón has a damaged left femoral nerve. This nerve also supplies sensory innervation to the skin on the anteromedial surface of the thigh and medial surfaces of the leg and foot, so he will also experience numbness in those regions. Learning Outcome: 13-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

3) What is a reflex arc? What components must be present to qualify? Answer: A reflex arc is the wiring pattern of neurons that underlie a particular reflex. A reflex arc consists of three elements at the minimum: (1) a sensory receptor and neuron to carry afferent information to the CNS; (2) an excitatory synapse on a motor neuron; (3) the motor neuron to generate an action potential and conduct the impulse to an effector such as a skeletal muscle motor unit. Learning Outcome: 13-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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4) Sometimes, when it is difficult to initiate a knee-jerk reflex by tapping the patellar tendon, a patient will be asked to voluntarily make a fist. Then the reflex will be easily evoked. What does this illustrate about the relation between voluntary and involuntary reflex movement? Answer: Descending motor tracts that excite the motor neurons that activate forearm and hand muscles also send excitatory impulses to motor neurons lower down the spinal cord. These EPSPs spatially summate with the excitatory inputs from the muscle spindles to quadriceps motor neurons, bringing the quadriceps neurons to threshold, and thus generate a brisk ʺknee-jerkʺ response. Learning Outcome: 13-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 14 The Brain and Cranial Nerves Multiple Choice Questions 1) The adult human brain contains almost ________ of the bodyʹs neural tissue. A) 15 percent B) 25 percent C) 68 percent D) 97 percent E) 35 percent Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) Male brains are typically ________ compared to female brains. A) larger B) smaller C) the same size D) very smooth E) more convoluted Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) During embryonic development, which of the following secondary brain vesicles will form the cerebrum? A) telencephalon B) diencephalon C) mesencephalon D) metencephalon E) myelencephalon Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) Which of these is not one of the main divisions of the adult brain? A) cerebrum B) diencephalon C) prosencephalon D) brainstem E) cerebellum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) Which of the following lies between the cerebrum and the brain stem? A) medulla oblongata B) pons C) mesencephalon D) diencephalon E) cerebellum Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) The floor of the diencephalon is formed by the A) hypothalamus. B) thalamus. C) brain stem. D) mesencephalon. E) pons. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) The tracts that connect the cerebellum to the brain stem are located in the A) medulla oblongata. B) pons. C) mesencephalon. D) diencephalon. E) thalamus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) Autonomic centers that control blood pressure, heart rate, and digestion are located in the A) medulla oblongata. B) pons. C) midbrain. D) diencephalon. E) cerebellum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

9) The cerebellum and pons develop from the A) telencephalon. B) diencephalon. C) mesencephalon. D) metencephalon. E) myelencephalon. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 14  The Brain and Cranial Nerves    431

10) Sensory information is processed and relayed to the cerebrum by the A) medulla oblongata. B) pons. C) midbrain. D) thalamus. E) cerebellum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

11) As you ascend from the medulla oblongata to the cerebrum, the functions of each successive level become A) more complex. B) simpler. C) better understood. D) more crucial to visceral functions. E) critical to reflexes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

12) The ________ provides the principal link between the nervous and endocrine systems. A) cerebellum B) medulla oblongata C) cerebrum D) pons E) hypothalamus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

13) The ventricle associated with the pons and upper medulla is the A) first. B) second. C) third. D) fourth. E) lateral. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

14) Which of the following is true about the cerebral cortex? A) It is a deep layer of gray matter. B) It is a superficial layer of gray matter. C) It is a deep layer of white matter. D) It is a superficial layer of white matter. E) It is a deep layer of both white and gray matter. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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15) When you perform a physical activity that you have not done in a while, such as riding a bike, which area of your brain coordinates your movements with learned experiences? A) thalamus B) pons C) midbrain D) cerebellum E) medulla oblongata Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

16) During development, three primary brain vesicles form. The three vesicles are the A) prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and rhombencephalon. B) telencephalon, diencephalon, and mesencephalon. C) mesencephalon, metencephalon, and myelencephalon. D) cerebrum, diencephalon, and midbrain. E) rhombencephalon, diencephalon, and telencephalon. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

17) The lateral ventricles are found A) in the cerebellar hemispheres. B) between the pons and the midbrain. C) in the cerebral hemispheres. D) in the diencephalon. E) in the spinal cord. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

18) The medulla oblongata, pons, and midbrain comprise the A) basal ganglia. B) brain stem. C) mesencephalon. D) ventricles. E) diencephalon. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

19) The rounded elevations of the cerebrum that increase its surface area are called A) sulci. B) fissures. C) cortical folds. D) gyri. E) dural sinuses. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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20) The wall between the lateral ventricles is called the A) cerebral aqueduct. B) fornix. C) falx cerebri. D) corpus callosum. E) septum pellucidum. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

21) The passageway between the lateral ventricles and the third ventricle is the A) posterior foramen. B) interventricular foramen. C) cerebral aqueduct. D) lateral foramen. E) central canal. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

22) Specialized ________ form the secretory component of the choroid plexus. A) epididymal cells B) ependymal cells C) arachnoid cells D) astrocyte E) blood cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

23) The dural venous sinuses are located in the A) paranasal cavity. B) arachnoid folds. C) pia mater. D) dural folds. E) tentorium cerebelli. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

24) What structure is covered by many blood vessels and adheres tightly to the surface of the brain? A) pia mater B) arachnoid mater C) dura mater D) cranial plexus E) choroid plexus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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25) The brain requires a substantial blood supply. The vessels that deliver blood to the brain are the A) external carotid arteries. B) facial arteries. C) jugular veins. D) internal carotid and vertebral arteries. E) dural sinuses. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

26) Which of the following is not a property of the blood-brain barrier? A) The capillary endothelial cells are interconnected by tight junctions. B) It is very permeable to many water and lipid -soluble compounds. C) Astrocytes surround the CNS capillaries. D) It is absent in portions of the hypothalamus. E) It is intact except in areas known as circumventricular organs. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

27) The dural fold that projects into the longitudinal fissure between cerebral hemispheres is called the A) dural sinus. B) falx cerebri. C) tentorium cerebelli. D) falx cerebelli. E) choroid plexus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

28) Cerebrospinal fluid A) is secreted by ependymal cells. B) is formed by a passive process. C) is normally produced twice as fast as it is removed. D) has almost the same composition as blood plasma. E) contains blood cells and blood plasma. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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29) Which statement is true regarding the meninges and cerebrospinal fluid of the spinal cord and brain? A) Spinal fluid is secreted both in the brain and in the spinal cord areas. B) There is an epidural space associated with the spinal meninges, but not with the cranial meninges. C) The meninges around the brain are not the same as those around the spinal cord. D) There is a subarachnoid space within the spinal meninges but not the cranial meninges. E) The choroid plexuses are located only within the brain, not within the spinal cord. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

30) The choroid plexus is composed of A) lymphatic vessels. B) blood vessels. C) nerve fibers. D) ganglia. E) subarachnoid granulations. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

31) Cerebrospinal fluid enters the blood circulation at the A) jugular veins. B) central canal. C) arachnoid granulations. D) tentorium cerebelli. E) frontal sinus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

32) What contains a spider web-like network of cells and fibers through which cerebrospinal fluid flows? A) subdural space B) dural sinus C) falx cerebri D) subarachnoid space E) pia mater Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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33) Which of the following is not a function of cerebrospinal fluid? A) provides cushioning for delicate neural tissues B) provides buoyant support for the brain C) acts as a transport medium for nutrients D) produces ATP for impulse transmission E) acts as a transport medium for waste products Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

34) Which statement is true regarding cerebrospinal fluid? A) CSF is identical in composition to blood plasma. B) CSF is made during fetal development and does not change through the lifetime of the person. C) There is about a liter of CSF within the brain and spinal cord. D) If CSF is not properly resorbed, the result would be hydrocephalus. E) CSF moves back into the blood supply by the process of osmosis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

35) Hydrocephalus, or ʺwater on the brain,ʺ may result from A) deficient production of cerebrospinal fluid. B) excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid. C) blockage of circulation of CSF. D) excessive water intake. E) blockage of CSF circulation or excessive CSF production. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

36) To return CSF to circulation, arachnoid granulations extend into the A) subarachnoid space. B) superior sagittal sinus. C) carotid canal. D) inferior sagittal sinus. E) jugular foramen. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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37) In each ventricle is a blood vessel network called the ________ that produces cerebrospinal fluid. A) choroid plexus B) jugular vein C) carotid artery D) vertebral artery E) dural sinus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

38) Chambers within the brain that contain cerebrospinal fluid are called A) plexuses. B) ganglia. C) sinuses. D) aqueducts. E) ventricles. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

39) Two large venous sinuses, the sagittal sinuses, lie within a dural fold called the A) cerebral aqueduct. B) basal ganglia. C) falx cerebri. D) tentorium cerebelli. E) septum pellucidum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

40) The dural sinuses form between which two layers of the cranial dura mater? A) pia and arachnoid layers B) periosteal and endosteal layers C) meningeal and cranial layers D) periosteal and meningeal layers E) superior and inferior sagittal layers Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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41) Tony hit his head in a car accident. The physicians diagnosed him with a subdural hemorrhage. Which of the following correctly states where the bleeding has occurred in his brain? A) Blood is between the dura mater and the skull. B) Blood is between the pia mater and arachnoid mater. C) Blood is between the pia mater and the brain. D) Blood is between the superior sagittal sinus and inferior sagittal sinus. E) Blood is between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

42) How rapidly is the CSF volume replaced? A) every 20 minutes B) every 2 hours C) every 8 hours D) every 2 days E) every week Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

43) Which dural fold separates the cerebral hemispheres from the cerebellum? A) tentorium cerebelli B) falx cerebelli C) falx cerebri D) longitudinal fissure E) superior sagittal sinus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

44) A patient comes into the emergency room with weakness on one side and difficulty walking and talking. You determine that the brain has been deprived of oxygen due to lack of regional blood flow. You suspect that patient has most likely experienced A) a subdural hemorrhage. B) meningitis. C) hydrocephalus. D) cranial trauma. E) a cerebrovascular accident. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Figure 14-1 The Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following questions: 45) Identify the structure labeled ʺ1.ʺ A) choroid plexus B) cerebral aqueduct C) third ventricle D) subarachnoid space E) corpus callosum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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46) Ependymal cells are most likely found at which structure? A) 10 B) 2 C) 9 D) 3 E) 7 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

47) CSF is absorbed into the venous circulation via arachnoid granulations. Identify an arachnoid granulation. A) 8 B) 1 C) 10 D) 2 E) 4 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

48) Identify the structure labeled ʺ3.ʺ A) lateral ventricles B) corpora quadrigemina C) cerebral aqueduct D) pons E) central canal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

49) Identify the structure labeled ʺ4.ʺ A) cerebral aqueduct B) lateral ventricle C) sagittal sinus D) 4 th ventricle E) choroid plexus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 14  The Brain and Cranial Nerves    441

50) Identify the structure labeled ʺ6.ʺ A) choroid plexus B) fourth ventricle C) lateral ventricle D) cerebral aqueduct E) subarachnoid space Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

51) Identify the structure labeled ʺ7.ʺ A) dura mater B) lateral ventricle C) fourth ventricle D) subarachnoid space E) filum terminale Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

52) Identify the structure labeled ʺ9.ʺ A) dura mater B) superior sagittal sinus C) lateral ventricle D) subarachnoid space E) arachnoid granulation Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

53) Identify the structure labeled ʺ10.ʺ A) arbor vitae B) central canal C) corpus callosum D) pons E) diencephalon Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

54) The control of heart rate and blood pressure is based in the A) cerebrum. B) cerebellum. C) diencephalon. D) medulla oblongata. E) thalamus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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55) The medulla oblongata regulates A) somatic motor contractions. B) food intake. C) auditory reflexes. D) vision and hearing. E) blood pressure and respiration. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

56) This structure of the medulla oblongata relays information from the red nuclei, midbrain, and the cerebral cortex to the cerebellum. A) inferior olivary complex B) reticular formation C) nucleus gracilis D) nucleus cuneatus E) solitary nucleus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

57) Damage to the medulla oblongata can result in death because A) electrical activity originates within the medulla. B) the vital centers for the control of blood pressure, heart rate, and breathing are located there. C) the blood might not be able to circulate properly around the brain. D) body temperature is controlled by the medulla. E) digestive processes are controlled by the medulla. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

58) Cardiovascular centers located in the ________ adjust the heart rate, the strength of cardiac contractions, and the flow of blood through the peripheral tissues. A) pons B) medulla oblongata C) prefrontal cortex D) thalamus E) midbrain Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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59) The term used to describe the crossing over of a tract to the side of the nervous system opposite to where the axons originated is A) decussation. B) contralateral. C) ascending crossovers. D) pyramidal tracts. E) consensual tracts. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

60) Jane, a 79-year-old woman, has been diagnosed with a tumor in the brain. She has lost some sensory and motor functions associated with the face, like control of facial muscles for emotion and various sensory functions like taste. In addition, she has some hearing loss and balance problems. The location of the tumor is likely to be the A) cerebellum. B) cerebrum. C) medulla. D) thalamus. E) pons. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

61) If the pons was damaged, which of the following functions would be affected? A) breathing B) control of blood pressure C) coordination D) sleep patterns E) judgment Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

62) The nuclei of which cranial nerves are associated with the midbrain? A) I and II B) II and III C) III and IV D) IV and V E) V and VI Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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63) Descending fibers from the pons to the cerebellum pass through these structures of the midbrain? A) substantia nigra B) reticular formation C) superior colliculus D) corpora quadrigemina E) cerebral peduncles Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

64) The medulla oblongata relays auditory stimuli to the A) substantia nigra. B) red nuclei. C) cerebral peduncles. D) superior colliculi. E) inferior colliculi. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

65) The structure of the brain that carries ascending sensory information to the thalamus is the A) midbrain. B) cerebral aqueduct. C) 4 th ventricle. D) basal ganglion. E) cerebellum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

66) Nerve fiber bundles on the ventrolateral surface of the mesencephalon are the A) tectum. B) corpora quadrigemina. C) cerebral peduncles. D) superior colliculi. E) inferior colliculi. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 14  The Brain and Cranial Nerves    445

67) The corpora quadrigemina is composed of the A) four cerebral lobes. B) superior and inferior colliculi. C) first four cranial nerves. D) cranial nerve IV. E) two superior cerebellar peduncles and the two inferior cerebellar peduncles. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

68) The reflex movement of the head toward a loud noise is directed by the mesencephalon. Which nuclei accomplish this? A) substantia nigra B) red nuclei C) tectum D) superior colliculi E) inferior colliculi Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

69) Damage to the corpora quadrigemina would interfere with A) control of autonomic function. B) regulation of body temperature. C) visual and auditory reflex movements of the head and neck. D) conscious control of skeletal muscles. E) control of breathing. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

70) Examination of a tissue sample from the central nervous system reveals many darkly pigmented cells. This tissue probably came from the A) nucleus gracilis. B) nucleus cuneatus. C) motor cortex. D) substantia nigra. E) cerebellar nucleus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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446   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

71) The ________ are the four masses on the posterior of the midbrain. A) cerebral peduncles B) reticular formation C) substantia nigra D) choroid plexuses E) corpora quadrigemina Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

72) The mesencephalon contains the headquarters of the ________, a specialized component of the reticular formation that controls alertness and attention. A) falx cerebri B) Wernickeʹs area C) general association area D) reticular activating system E) basal ganglia Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

73) Which of the following tracts is correctly matched? A) superior cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the spinal cord B) middle cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the pons C) inferior cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the cerebrum D) superior cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the medulla oblongata E) inferior cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the midbrain Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

74) Overseeing the postural muscles of the body and making rapid adjustments to maintain balance and equilibrium are functions of the A) cerebrum. B) thalamus. C) cerebellum. D) pons. E) medulla oblongata. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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75) The cerebellar hemispheres are separated by a band of cortex called the A) flocculonodular lobe. B) arbor vitae. C) folia. D) vermis. E) pyramid. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

76) The white matter of the cerebellum forms the A) flocculonodular lobe. B) arbor vitae. C) folia. D) vermis. E) pyramid. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

77) The presence of many large, highly-branched Purkinje cells in a sample of brain tissue indicates that it came from the A) pons. B) medulla. C) cerebral cortex. D) cerebellar cortex. E) arbor vitae. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

78) The cerebellum can be permanently damaged by stroke or temporarily affected by drugs or alcohol. The resulting disturbance in motor control is known as A) ataxia. B) aphasia. C) dysphagia. D) Parkinsonʹs. E) epilepsy. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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448   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

79) The folds of the surface of the cerebellum A) are called folia and are less prominent than the cerebral folds. B) form a network of blood vessels over the brain. C) consist of axons and dendrites of neurons. D) are bathed in spinal fluid. E) are called sulci. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

80) Which of the following is not one of the thalamic nuclei? A) ventral nuclei B) medial nuclei C) superior nuclei D) anterior nuclei E) dorsal nuclei Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

81) Which hypothalamic nucleus is responsible for regulating circadian rhythms? A) suprachiasmatic nucleus B) preoptic area C) autonomic nucleus D) paraventricular nucleus E) tuber cinereum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

82) The hypothalamus produces which two hormones? A) ADH and epinephrine B) epinephrine and norepinephrine C) ADH and oxytocin D) growth hormone and melatonin E) oxytocin and melatonin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

83) Which of the following is true regarding the pineal gland? A) It is part of the epithalamus and secretes melatonin. B) It is part of the hypothalamus and secretes oxytocin. C) It is part of the thalamus. D) It is part of the limbic system. E) It controls heart rate and blood pressure. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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84) The pineal gland is part of the A) hypothalamus. B) diencephalon. C) midbrain. D) medulla oblongata. E) brainstem. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

85) Which of the following is not function of the hypothalamus? A) produces ADH B) secrete melatonin C) regulates body temperature D) secretes oxytocin E) controls autonomic centers Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

86) Which of the following is/are true of the epithalamus? A) contains the mammillary body B) forms the roof of the diencephalon C) processes sensory information and relays it to the cerebrum D) forms the cerebrum E) creates the lateral ventricles Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

87) The anterior nuclei of the thalamus A) are part of the limbic system. B) secrete pituitary hormones. C) secrete melatonin. D) receive axon collaterals from the optic nerve. E) secrete pituitary hormones and melatonin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

88) The medial nuclei of the thalamus A) are part of the limbic system. B) connect emotional centers in the hypothalamus with the frontal lobe. C) produce the hormone oxytocin. D) process visual information. E) process olfactory information. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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450   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

89) The dorsal/posterior nuclei of the thalamus includes the A) basal nuclei. B) lateral and medial geniculate nuclei. C) mammillary body. D) interthalamic adhesion. E) red nucleus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

90) The optic tracts carry visual information from the retina to the A) pulvinar nuclei. B) lateral geniculate nuclei. C) medial geniculate nuclei. D) supraoptic nuclei. E) paraventricular nuclei. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

91) Which of the following is a function of the thalamus? A) secrete cerebrospinal fluid B) secrete melatonin C) process sensory information and relay it to the cerebrum D) store memories E) regulate food intake Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

92) The thalamus is often called the ʺair traffic controllerʺ of the brain because it A) controls the autonomic functions of the body, such as the fight-or-flight response. B) determines what can enter the brain from the blood. C) controls reflexes. D) determines the routing of incoming sensory information to the correct cerebral cortex area. E) passes motor information on to the cerebellum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

93) The mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus A) regulate lactation. B) secrete oxytocin. C) control feeding reflexes. D) control heart rate and blood pressure. E) secrete antidiuretic hormone. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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94) The ________ filters and relays sensory information to cerebral cortex. A) cerebrum B) thalamus C) pons D) medulla oblongata E) cerebellum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

95) Damage to the preoptic area of the hypothalamus leads to which problem? A) an intense thirst B) an uncontrolled sex drive C) reduced ability to regulate body temperature D) an insatiable appetite E) production of a large volume of urine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

96) Joe begins to experience mood swings and disturbed thirst and hunger. Imaging studies indicate that a brain tumor is the likely cause of these disorders. In what part of the brain is the tumor most likely located? A) prefrontal cortex B) postcentral gyrus C) basal nuclei D) hypothalamus E) reticular formation Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

97) Stimulation of the ________ within the hypothalamus produces the sensation of hunger. A) satiety center B) feeding center C) thirst center D) limbic system E) hormone center Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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98) The ________, a narrow stalk, connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland. A) hippocampus B) infundibulum C) supraoptic nucleus D) basal ganglia E) amygdala Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

99) The system that functions in tying together emotions, motivation and memory is the A) reticular activating system. B) circadian system. C) limbic system. D) hypothalamic system. E) apneustic system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

100) Which of the following is not a property of the limbic system? A) primarily a functional grouping B) functions in maintaining homeostasis in cold weather C) located between the border of the cerebrum and diencephalon D) links conscious functions of the cerebral cortex with unconscious functions of the brain stem E) functions in emotions, learning, and memory Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

101) The ________ is important in storage and recall of new long -term memories. A) amygdaloid body B) cingulate gyrus C) mammillary bodies D) hippocampus E) fornix Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

102) A tract of white matter that connects the hippocampus with the hypothalamus is the A) amygdaloid body. B) cingulate gyrus. C) mammillary bodies. D) hippocampus. E) fornix. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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103) Terry suffers from dissociation of memories from their emotional content as the result of an automobile accident. What system of the brain is probably damaged? A) the prefrontal lobe B) the general interpretive area C) the limbic system D) the preoptic area E) the reticular activating system Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

104) Which of the following is not correctly matched? A) commissural fibers: interconnect the cerebral hemispheres B) arcuate fibers: short association fibers C) projection fibers: pass through the diencephalon D) association fibers: interconnect areas within a single cerebral hemisphere E) internal capsule: bands of association fibers Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

105) Which of the following is not true regarding the lentiform nucleus? A) It is part of the basal nuclei. B) It contains white matter. C) It controls subconscious control of skeletal muscle. D) It contains the putamen and the globus pallidus. E) It is located deep to the floor of the lateral ventricle on each cerebral hemisphere. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

106) The olfactory cortex is located in the A) frontal lobe. B) parietal lobe. C) temporal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) cerebellum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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107) A person touches you lightly with a feather. What two areas of the brain allow you to feel and interpret this touch? A) primary motor cortex and the primary sensory cortex B) primary sensory cortex and the somatic sensory association area C) primary sensory cortex and the visceral sensory association area D) primary motor cortex and the somatic motor association area E) gustatory cortex and the gustatory association area Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

108) In order to take notes the primary motor cortex must receive input from the ________ first. A) postcentral gyrus B) primary sensory cortex C) somatic sensory association area D) premotor cortex E) olfactory association area Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

109) The complex integration of sensory information with visual and auditory memories occurs in this area near the auditory cortex? A) somatosensory area B) precentral gyrus C) premotor cortex D) Wernickeʹs area E) Brocaʹs area Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

110) Following a head injury, Kevin can think of the word he wants to say but cannot make his mouth form the correct sounds to produce the word. He is most likely suffering from damage to A) Wernickeʹs area. B) Brocaʹs area. C) Brodmannʹs area. D) the general interpretive area. E) the basal nuclei. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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111) Which of the following is not true regarding hemispheric lateralization? A) Sensory analysis occurs in the right hemisphere. B) Emotional recognition of facial expressions occurs in the right hemisphere. C) Speech and language control is in the left hemisphere. D) Analytic tasks like math and decision making occurs in the right hemisphere. E) Reading and writing control is in the left hemisphere. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

112) Which EEG wave if seen in an awake adult may indicate a pathological condition? A) alpha B) beta C) theta D) delta E) No waves should be seen in awake adults. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

113) Damage to the substantia nigra causes a decrease in the neurotransmitter dopamine. This causes a gradual, generalized increase in muscle tone, which is the main symptom of A) Parkinsonʹs disease. B) rabies. C) Alzheimerʹs disease. D) myasthenia gravis. E) tetanus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

114) The two cerebral hemispheres are separated by the A) longitudinal fissure. B) central sulcus. C) transverse fissure. D) parieto-occipital sulcus. E) postcentral sulcus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

115) Divisions of the cerebral hemispheres that are named after the overlying skull bones are A) fissures. B) sinuses. C) lobes. D) sulci. E) gyri. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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116) The cerebral lobe posterior to the central sulcus is the A) parietal lobe. B) temporal lobe. C) frontal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) insula. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

117) The region(s) of the cerebral cortex superior to the lateral sulcus is/are the A) parietal lobe. B) temporal lobe. C) frontal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) parietal and frontal lobes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

118) The region of the cerebral cortex that is medial and deep to the temporal lobe is the A) parietal lobe. B) temporal lobe. C) frontal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) insula. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

119) The primary motor cortex is the surface of the A) insula. B) precentral gyrus. C) postcentral gyrus. D) arcuate gyrus. E) corpus callosum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

120) The corpus callosum is composed of A) arcuate fibers. B) longitudinal fasciculi. C) association fibers. D) commissural fibers. E) projection fibers. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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121) The surface of the postcentral gyrus contains the ________ cortex. A) primary sensory B) primary motor C) visual D) olfactory E) auditory Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

122) Commissural fibers A) carry pain information to the correct brain structure. B) are divided by the longitudinal fissure. C) link the cerebral cortex to the diencephalon. D) interconnect and allow communication between cerebral hemispheres. E) connect the frontal lobe to other lobes of the same hemisphere. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

123) The visual cortex is located in the A) frontal lobe. B) parietal lobe. C) temporal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) insula. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

124) The auditory cortex is located in the A) frontal lobe. B) parietal lobe. C) temporal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) insula. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

125) Cortical regions that interpret sensory information or coordinate motor responses are called ________ areas. A) commissural B) sensory C) association D) somesthetic E) processing Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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126) The region of the brain responsible for predicting the consequence of events or actions is the A) prefrontal cerebral cortex. B) occipital association cortex. C) reticular formation. D) temporal lobe. E) premotor cortex. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

127) Parkinsonʹs disease is the result of A) excess production of GABA by neurons in the basal nuclei. B) decreased levels of acetylcholine from neurons in the substantia nigra. C) inadequate production of dopamine by substantia nigra neurons. D) hyperactivity of the limbic system. E) weak response of the red nuclei of the mesencephalon. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

128) After suffering a stroke, Mary finds that she cannot move her right arm. This would suggest that the stroke damage is in the area of the ________ lobe. A) right frontal B) left frontal C) right temporal D) left temporal E) occipital Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

129) After suffering a blow to the back of the head, Phil loses his vision. The blow probably caused damage to the A) frontal lobe. B) postcentral gyrus. C) temporal lobe. D) limbic system. E) occipital lobe. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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130) Difficulties in estimating temporal relationships between events may stem from damage to A) the prefrontal cortex. B) the general interpretive area. C) Brocaʹs area. D) Wernickeʹs area. E) the postcentral gyrus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

131) Within each hemisphere, deep to the floor of the lateral ventricle, you will find the A) anterior commissures. B) basal nuclei. C) motor association areas. D) visual cortex. E) auditory cortex. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

132) Which cerebral area is involved with judgment and predictive abilities? A) Brocaʹs area B) Brodmann area C) prefrontal cortex D) Wernickeʹs area E) general interpretive area Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

133) The highest levels of information processing occur in the A) cerebrum. B) diencephalon. C) cerebellum. D) medulla oblongata. E) corpus callosum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

134) A person with a damaged visual association area may be A) unable to see rows of letters. B) declared legally blind. C) unable to recognize letters but able to identify whole words and their meanings. D) able to see letters but unable to associate them into words. E) unable to understand spoken words. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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135) Jane suffers from chronic seizures and in order to control the problem undergoes surgery in which the fibers of the corpus callosum are cut. As a result of this surgery she would likely be unable to A) speak. B) move her left arm. C) verbally identify an object placed in her left hand. D) recognize written words. E) touch her nose with her eyes closed. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

136) ________ centers receive information from many association areas and direct extremely complex motor activities such as speech. A) Frontal B) Integrative C) Communication D) Terminal E) Vocal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

137) What symptoms would you expect to see in a patient with damage to the basal nuclei? A) inability to process thoughts in a rational way B) visual problems C) facial tics D) problems in rhythmic movements related to skeletal muscles E) anger problems Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

138) Bob is struck on the left side of the head and is knocked unconscious. When he recovers consciousness, he can hear individual words but cannot understand the meaning of phrases or sentences. This implies damage to his A) somatosensory association area. B) general interpretive area. C) speech center. D) prefrontal lobe. E) temporal lobe. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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139) Damage to the premotor cortex of the frontal lobe would interfere with the ability to A) understand written words. B) understand spoken words. C) understand visual images. D) play the piano. E) sense the texture of velvet. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

140) ________ is a temporary cerebral disorder accompanied by abnormal movements, unusual sensations, and/or inappropriate behavior. A) Dyslexia B) Apraxia C) Aphasia D) Parkinsonʹs disease E) A seizure Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

141) A(n) ________ is a printed record of the brainʹs electrical activity over a period of time. A) electrocardiogram B) electroencephalogram C) x-ray D) MRI E) CT scan Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

142) ________ is a disorder affecting the ability to speak or read. A) Aphasia B) Ataxia C) Apraxia D) Bellʹs palsy E) Dysphagia Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

143) The basal nuclei A) initiate voluntary muscle activity. B) provide the general pattern and rhythm for movements such as walking. C) coordinate sensory information. D) control the secretions of the pituitary gland. E) control respiration and blood pressure. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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144) In most cases, the general interpretive center and the speech center are located in A) the left cerebral hemisphere. B) the right cerebral hemisphere. C) neither of the cerebral hemispheres. D) both of the cerebral hemispheres. E) the cerebellum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

145) The dominant cerebral hemisphere of the brain A) is for emotional status. B) is for interpretation of art and music. C) performs analytical tasks. D) controls vital functions such as blood pressure and heart rate. E) controls emotions. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

146) Cortical regions that interpret sensory information or coordinate motor responses are called ________ areas. A) association B) motor C) cranial D) sensory E) intercalated Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

147) The white structure that connects the cerebral hemispheres is the A) geniculate nucleus. B) basal ganglia. C) amygdala. D) arbor vitae. E) corpus callosum. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

148) The only sensation that is received directly by the cerebrum is A) olfaction. B) gustation. C) hearing. D) vision. E) dizziness. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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149) Which of the following nerves is purely sensory? A) vagus B) trochlear C) abducens D) optic E) hypoglossal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

150) A patient suffers an inability to shrug their shoulders. The nerve most likely to be damaged is the A) vagus. B) accessory. C) facial. D) trigeminal. E) vestibulocochlear. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

151) Which cranial nerve sends balance sensations to the brain? A) facial B) trigeminal C) olfactory D) vagus E) vestibulocochlear Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

152) Which cranial nerve is tested by having the patient stick out their tongue? A) hypoglossal B) vagus C) facial D) glossopharyngeal E) abducens Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

153) ________ is a condition resulting from an inflammation of a facial nerve. A) Cerebral palsy B) Bellʹs palsy C) Addisonʹs disease D) Gout E) Tic douloureux Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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154) There are ________ pairs of cranial nerves. A) 2 B) 6 C) 12 D) 22 E) 31 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

155) Droopy eyelids and double vision can result from injury to the ________ nerve. A) optic B) oculomotor C) trochlear D) olfactory E) facial Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

156) The cranial nerves that innervate the extrinsic eye muscles are A) I, II, and III. B) III, IV, and VI. C) II, III, and IV. D) II and VI. E) III and V. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

157) The cranial nerve that has three major branches is the A) abducens. B) facial. C) vagus. D) trigeminal. E) glossopharyngeal. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

158) Sensory innervation of the lower teeth and gums is by the ________ nerve. A) ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal B) maxillary branch of the trigeminal C) mandibular branch of the trigeminal D) glossopharyngeal E) hypoglossal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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159) Difficulty in swallowing may be a sign of damage to which cranial nerve(s)? A) vagus B) facial C) glossopharyngeal D) hypoglossal E) glossopharyngeal and vagus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

160) A reflex that is used to assess the sensory function of the trigeminal nerve is the ________ reflex. A) corneal B) tympanic C) auditory D) vestibulocochlear E) spinal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

161) Which sensation(s) does the vestibulocochlear nerve carry? A) hearing B) balance C) atmospheric pressure D) hearing and balance E) hearing, balance, and taste Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

162) Jean needs to have a tooth in her mandible filled. Her dentist injects a local anesthetic to block pain afferents in one of her cranial nerves. What cranial nerve does the dentist numb? A) trochlear B) trigeminal C) facial D) glossopharyngeal E) hypoglossal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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163) You suspect your friend has damage to cranial nerve I when he is unable to A) smell his food. B) smile. C) blink his eyes. D) nod his head. E) hear your voice. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

164) Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate and synapse on neurons in the A) medulla. B) thalamus. C) cerebral cortex. D) olfactory bulb. E) olfactory tract. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

165) At the optic chiasm, A) axons from the medial halves of each retina cross. B) axons from the lateral halves of each retina cross. C) axons from the retinae synapse on those from the other half. D) the olfactory nerve crosses to the opposite side of the brain. E) the optic nerve enters the cerebellum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

166) A patient develops a tumor of a cranial nerve that leads to difficulty in speaking from a loss of tongue movement. Which cranial nerve is affected? A) glossopharyngeal B) hypoglossal C) vagus D) spinal accessory E) trigeminal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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167) Which of the following symptoms would you associate with damage to the spinal accessory nerve? A) loss of the sense of taste B) tooth pain C) weakness of the sternocleidomastoid muscle D) lack of facial expression E) dry mouth from lack of saliva Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

168) The patient has the following symptoms: change in vocal tone, problems swallowing, inability to control urination, erratic heart rate, and gastric problems. You would identify the problem as being related to the A) vagus nerve. B) accessory nerve. C) abducens nerve. D) trigeminal nerve. E) hypoglossal nerve. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Figure 14-2 Cranial Nerves Use Figure 14-2 to answer the following questions: 169) Identify the structure labeled ʺ1.ʺ A) mammillary body B) infundibulum C) oculomotor nerve D) olfactory bulb E) optic nerve Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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170) Identify the nerve labeled ʺ3.ʺ A) facial B) abducens C) trochlear D) trigeminal E) vagus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

171) What is the function of the nerve labeled ʺ4ʺ? A) vision B) olfaction C) taste D) hearing and balance E) eye movement Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

172) What is the function of the nerve labeled ʺ5ʺ? A) movement of the tongue B) facial expression C) vision D) taste E) visceral sensation and motor control Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

173) What is the function of the structure labeled ʺ7ʺ? A) vision B) olfaction C) taste D) auditory E) eye movement Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

174) Identify the nerve labeled ʺ11.ʺ A) oculomotor B) trigeminal C) trochlear D) abducens E) optic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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175) Identify the nerve labeled ʺ12.ʺ A) trochlear B) trigeminal C) facial D) abducens E) vagus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

176) Identify the spinal accessory nerve (XI). A) 10 B) 11 C) 9 D) 6 E) 3 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

177) Identify the nerve that goes beyond the head and neck to innervate the thorax and abdomen. A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 10 E) 2 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) What structures make up the brainstem? (Figure 14-1) A) cerebrum, cerebellum, diencephalon B) diencephalon, midbrain, cerebellum C) midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata D) hypothalamus, thalamus, epithalamus E) pons, medulla oblongata, cerebellum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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2) List the maters surrounding the brain from the deepest layer to the most superficial layer. (Figure 14-3) A) dura, arachnoid, pia B) pia, arachnoid, dura C) arachnoid, dura, pia D) arachnoid, pia, dura E) pia, dura, arachnoid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) What makes up the gray matter in the cerebellum? (Figure 14-9) A) superior, middle, and inferior cerebellar peduncles B) transverse pontine fibers and arbor vitae C) arbor vitae and superior, middle, and inferior cerebellar peduncles D) transverse pontine fibers and cerebellar nuclei E) cerebellar cortex and cerebellar nuclei Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

4) The central sulcus divides which two lobes? (Figure 14-13) A) left parietal lobe and right parietal lobe B) occipital lobe and parietal lobe C) frontal lobe and parietal lobe D) frontal lobe and temporal lobe E) parietal lobe and temporal lobe Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

5) Which portion of the lentiform nucleus is more medial and which portion is more lateral? (Figure 14-15) A) putamen is more medial; globus pallidus is more lateral B) globus pallidus is more medial; putamen is more lateral C) claustrum is medial; septum pellucidum is lateral D) septum pellucidum is medial; claustrum is lateral E) insula is medial; caudate nucleus is lateral Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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6) Which structure receives visual information before it reaches the visual cortex? (Figure 14-20) A) lateral geniculate body of the thalamus B) medial geniculate body of the thalamus C) ventral nucleus of the thalamus D) paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus E) supra-optic nucleus of the hypothalamus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

7) What are the three divisions of the trigeminal nerve? (Figure 14 -22) A) lingual, mental, salivary B) optic, auditory, buccal C) temporal, zygomatic, buccal D) ophthalmic, maxillary, mandibular E) otic, ophthalmic, vestibular Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

Essay Questions 1) Why is injury to the medulla oblongata frequently fatal? Answer: This region of the brain contains the centers for regulating the cardiovascular system and initiating respiration, both vital to life. In addition, most sensory and motor tracts pass through the medulla oblongata between higher and lower centers of the nervous system. Learning Outcome: 14-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

2) A patient develops a clot that blocks the blood supply to the right cerebral hemisphere. What signs and symptoms would you expect as a result of this blockage? Answer: Because the right primary motor cortex controls the muscles of the left side of the body, you would expect left-sided paralysis whose extent and severity will depend on the extent of brain injury. Similarly, the patient will experience somatic sensory loss on the left side of the body. Higher-order functions such as memory, planning, spatial orientation, and emotional control could be damaged but many language skills would be spared. Learning Outcome: 14-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

3) Bellʹs palsy is caused by inflammation of the facial nerve (VII). What signs and symptoms would you expect in this condition? Is it permanent? Answer: Patients suffering from Bellʹs palsy usually experience paralysis of the facial muscles on the affected side along with a loss of sensation from the anterior two -thirds of the tongue. Pain is rare and the condition usually resolves without specific treatment. Learning Outcome: 14-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 15 Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions 1) The term general senses refers to sensitivity to all of the following, except A) temperature. B) taste. C) touch. D) vibration. E) pain. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) The sensory receptors, neurons and pathways make up the ________ division of the nervous system. A) voluntary B) efferent C) afferent D) involuntary E) somatic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) The general senses A) involve receptors that are relatively simple in structure. B) are located in specialized structures called sense organs. C) are localized to specific areas of the body. D) cannot generate action potentials. E) include taste and smell. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) The ________ nervous system carries impulses to skeletal muscles. A) somatic B) sympathetic C) parasympathetic D) afferent E) autonomic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) The heart muscle is a ________ effector. A) somatic B) sympathetic C) visceral D) afferent E) higher-order Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) The conversion of the stimulus into an action potential to be interpreted by the brain is called A) transformation. B) transduction. C) translation. D) transcription. E) transpotential. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) Gustatory receptors are sensitive to dissolved chemicals but insensitive to light. This is due to A) receptor specificity. B) accessory cells. C) the fact that they are interoceptors. D) receptor potentials. E) receptor speciation. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

8) Using the two-point discrimination test you can fairly accurately determine whether you have been touched with one point or two because of the density of the A) effectors. B) perception. C) labeled line. D) receptor fields. E) action potential. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

9) General sense receptors are typically the A) dendrites of motor neurons. B) dendrites of sensory neurons. C) axons of motor neurons. D) axons of sensory neurons. E) cell bodies of sensory neurons. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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10) Your brain is not constantly bombarded with signals telling it that you are wearing socks. This is because the touch receptors around your ankle are A) tonic receptors. B) tonic receptors and slow-adapting. C) phasic receptors and slow-adapting. D) phasic receptors and fast-adapting. E) nociceptors. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

11) Which is an example of a slow-adapting receptor? A) phasic B) touch C) smell D) temperature E) pain Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

12) In order for a sensation to become a perception, A) it must be received by the somatosensory cortex. B) the individual must vocalize about it. C) it must arrive over fast-conducting nerve fibers. D) the other senses must be silent. E) it must be received by the pulvinar nucleus of the thalamus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

13) All of the following can contribute to receptor specificity except A) the structure of the receptor cell. B) characteristics of the receptor cell membrane. C) accessory cells that function with the receptor. D) accessory structures and tissues that shield the receptors from other stimuli. E) the metabolism of the receptor cell. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

14) Central adaptation refers to A) the decline in activity of peripheral receptors when stimulated. B) a characteristic of phasic receptors. C) inhibition of nuclei located along a sensory pathway. D) increases in conscious perception of a sensory stimulus. E) a change in motor receptivity of a neuron. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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15) A receptor potential may cause all of the following responses except A) increase neurotransmitter release. B) decrease neurotransmitter release. C) cause hyperpolarization. D) cause depolarization. E) turning off the original stimulus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

16) Peripheral adaptation ________ the number of action potentials that reach the CNS. A) decreases B) increases C) stabilizes D) neutralizes E) amplifies Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

17) Which of the following statements is true about general senses? A) They are distributed all over the body. B) They are all mechanoreceptors. C) All receptors involved in general sensation consist of free nerve endings. D) They are located in sense organs. E) The reception of the stimulus occurs slowly with these receptors. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

18) Sensory encoding of the perceived location of a stimulus depends on A) the frequency of action potentials. B) which labeled line is active. C) the specific location of the cortical neuron that is stimulated. D) the specific sensitivity of the peripheral receptor. E) the number of receptors stimulated. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

19) Action potentials from receptors involved in general sensations are interpreted in the A) premotor cortex. B) primary sensory cortex. C) general interpretive area. D) mesencephalon. E) reticular activating system. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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20) Sensory information from all parts of the body is routed to A) the prefrontal cortex. B) the cerebellum. C) the primary motor cortex. D) the somatosensory cortex. E) Brocaʹs area. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

21) The conversion of a sensory input to a change in membrane potential in the receptor is known as A) transduction. B) reception. C) effection. D) potential. E) stimulation. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

22) The link between peripheral receptor and cortical neuron is called a(n) A) efferent pathway. B) spinocortical line. C) sympathetic chain. D) adaptation pathway. E) labeled line. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

23) A ________ potential is a depolarization of a sensory dendrite that can lead to an afferent nerve impulse if strong enough. A) resting B) refractory C) postsynaptic D) generator E) presynaptic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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24) Sensory neurons that adapt quickly are called ________ receptors. A) phasic B) tonic C) intracellular D) chemical-channel E) opioid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

25) A reduction in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus is referred to as A) transduction. B) adaptation. C) negation. D) exhaustion. E) transformation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

26) Sensory neurons that are always active are called ________ receptors. A) tonic B) static C) phasic D) isometric E) isotonic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

27) You cannot tell when your small intestines shift position as food enters because you do not have any ________ there. A) chemoreceptors B) nociceptors C) proprioceptors D) thermoreceptors E) photoreceptors Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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28) Receptors in your stomach that determine when food enters because the pH changes would be classified as A) mechanoreceptors. B) nociceptors. C) proprioceptors. D) baroreceptors. E) chemoreceptors. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

29) Free nerve endings detect which stimulus/stimuli? A) chemical B) temperature, pain, stretch and touch C) pain only D) stretch E) deep pressure Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

30) Two types of receptors that are least likely to adapt are the A) proprioceptors and nociceptors. B) free nerve endings and the root hair plexus. C) tactile discs and the free nerve endings. D) lamellar corpuscles and baroreceptors. E) chemoreceptors and baroreceptors. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

31) Chemoreceptors of the general senses do not send information to the primary sensory cortex but instead send information to the ________ to control autonomic function. A) cerebellum B) cerebrum C) brain stem D) spinal cord E) corpus callosum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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32) A receptor that contains many mechanically-gated ion channels would function best as a A) tactile receptor. B) chemoreceptor. C) photoceptor. D) thermoreceptor. E) light receptor. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

33) A mechanoreceptor in the papillary layer of the dermis that responds to fine touch is a A) tactile (Merkel) disc. B) root hair plexus. C) free nerve ending. D) Bulbous corpuscle. E) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

34) Which of the following is/are sometimes called ʺprickling painʺ? A) mechanical damage B) proprioception C) extremes of temperature D) fast pain E) fast and slow pain Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

35) All of the following are true of fast pain sensations except that they A) are carried by type A fibers. B) reach the CNS quickly. C) are interpreted by the pre-frontal cortex. D) receive conscious attention. E) often trigger somatic reflexes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

36) Endorphins can reduce perception of sensations initiated by A) nociceptors. B) mechanoreceptors. C) thermoreceptors. D) chemoreceptors. E) proprioceptors. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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37) Receptors that monitor the position of joints belong to the category called A) nociceptors. B) chemoreceptors. C) baroreceptors. D) proprioceptors. E) thermoreceptors. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

38) Mechanoreceptors that respond to changes in blood pressure are called A) nociceptors. B) baroreceptors. C) chemoreceptors. D) proprioceptors. E) thermoreceptors. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

39) Tactile receptors located in the reticular dermis that are tonic and show little if any adaptation are called A) Bulbous corpuscles. B) lamellar corpuscles. C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscles. D) tactile discs. E) root hair plexuses. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

40) A tactile receptor composed of highly coiled dendrites that are surrounded by modified Schwann cells and a fibrous capsule is a A) lamellar corpuscle. B) Bulbous corpuscle. C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. D) tactile (Merkel) disc. E) root hair plexus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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41) A very large, fast-adapting tactile receptor that is composed of a single dendrite enclosed by concentric layers of collagen is a A) Bulbous corpuscle. B) lamellar (Pacinian) corpuscle. C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. D) tactile (Merkel) disc. E) root hair plexus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

42) Sensations of burning or aching pain A) are carried by type A fibers. B) reach the CNS quickly. C) cause a generalized activation of the reticular formation and the thalamus. D) are well localized. E) are fast adapting. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

43) Bladder fullness is to ________ as blood pH is to ________. A) nociceptors; thermoreceptors B) baroreceptors; chemoreceptors C) baroreceptors; nociceptors D) chemoreceptors; nociceptors E) baroreceptors; thermoreceptors Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

44) A highly sensitive tactile receptor composed of dendritic processes of a single myelinated fiber that makes contact with specialized cells of the stratum basale is a A) lamellar corpuscle. B) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. C) Bulbous corpuscle. D) tactile (Merkel) disc. E) root hair plexus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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45) A sensory receptor characterized peripherally as a free nerve ending which centrally uses glutamate and/or substance P as neurotransmitters would most likely be a A) chemoreceptor. B) mechanoreceptor. C) thermoreceptor. D) nociceptor. E) free receptor. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

46) We are constantly bombarded by a variety of stimuli inside and outside of our bodies. Why are we not overwhelmed by sensory information? A) We do not have receptors for most stimuli. B) Stimuli are blocked from the receptors by our immune systems. C) Most stimuli are external to our bodies and we have very few exteroceptors on the outside of the body. D) A particular receptor type can have different sensitivities to different stimuli. E) A very tiny percentage of incoming sensory information is received by the cerebral cortex. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

47) Pain is to ________ as cold is to ________. A) nociceptors; thermoreceptors B) baroreceptors; chemoreceptors C) baroreceptors; nociceptors D) chemoreceptors; nociceptors E) baroreceptors; thermoreceptors Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

48) If a friend is talking about someone she knows who lost his special senses, you would correct her when you hear her mention ________ because it is not a special sense. A) smell B) sight C) balance D) cold E) hearing Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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49) ________ are receptors in the aorta that monitor the blood pressure. A) Chemoreceptors B) Nociceptors C) Baroreceptors D) Proprioceptors E) Hair cells Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

50) Which of the following is a property of thermoreceptors? A) involves specialized receptors B) monitor heat stimuli, not cold C) found in skin only D) project to reticular formation E) cold receptors are less numerous than warm receptors Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

51) For the last few weeks, you have had an odd sensation on your upper thigh. When you touch the naked skin, it feels very strange, like you are touching your skin through layers of cloth. The surrounding area feels normal. Your doctor thinks that this may be related to spinal nerve damage related to a herniated disc. The doctor calls this change in sensation A) paresthesia. B) anesthesia. C) hypesthesia. D) synesthesia. E) kinesthesia. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

52) Chemoreceptors are located in all of the following except A) carotid bodies. B) aortic bodies. C) the skin. D) the organs of taste. E) the organs of smell. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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53) Why is it that one cannot identify the location of internal organs, although joints and bone location can be identified? A) The internal organs have no proprioceptors like joints, bones, and muscles. B) Internal organs have no pain receptors. C) Although internal organs have some receptors, the information is not interpreted by the brain. D) Internal organs have no receptors of any kind. E) Sensory information from internal organs is processed by a different part of the brain than the joints, bones, and muscles. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

54) Sensory neurons synapse in the CNS with an interneuron known as a A) first-order neuron. B) second-order neuron. C) third-order neuron. D) motor neuron. E) efferent neuron. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

55) All of the following pathways require third-order neurons synapsing in the thalamus except A) the lateral spinothalamic tract. B) the anterior spinothalamic tract. C) the anterior and posterior spinocerebellar tracts. D) the gracile fasciculus. E) the cuneate fasciculus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

56) Which of the following is true of all the sensory pathways? A) They all have third-order neurons. B) They all synapse in the thalamus. C) They all synapse in the cerebellum. D) They all enter through dorsal roots. E) Axons in each pathway decussate. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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57) Activity of neurons in the spinothalamic pathway may still send signals even if the first order sensory receptor does not receive a signal such as in amputation. This situation might cause A) referred pain. B) phantom limb pain. C) pain adaptation. D) paresthesia. E) anesthesia. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

58) Which ascending tract carries the sensations for fine touch and vibration? A) corticobulbar B) corticospinal C) posterior (dorsal) column D) spinothalamic E) spinocerebellar Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

59) The spinal tract that relays information concerning pain and temperature to the CNS is the A) gracile fasciculus. B) cuneate fasciculus. C) posterior spinocerebellar. D) lateral spinothalamic. E) anterior spinothalamic. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

60) Your uncle was just diagnosed with a heart attack. One of his major symptoms is left arm pain. You are not surprised because you are familiar with the phenomenon of ________ pain. A) referred B) phantom C) psychosomatic D) somatic E) neurogenic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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61) Stimulation of a neuron that terminates in the superior region of the left postcentral gyrus would produce A) a sensation in the right leg. B) a sensation in the lips. C) a muscle twitch in the right leg. D) a muscle twitch in the lips. E) both sensations and muscle twitches in the right leg. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

62) The spinal tract that relays information concerning crude touch and pressure to the CNS is the A) gracile fasciculus. B) cuneate fasciculus. C) posterior spinocerebellar. D) lateral spinothalamic. E) anterior spinothalamic. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

63) Each of the following is an ascending tract in the spinal cord  except the A) gracile fasciculus. B) cuneate fasciculus. C) posterior spinocerebellar. D) reticulospinal tract. E) anterior spinothalamic. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

64) The afferent neuron that carries the sensation and enters the CNS is a ________ neuron. A) receptor B) first-order C) second-order D) third-order E) fourth-order Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

65) What loss would result from cutting through the medial lemniscus on the right side? A) loss of pain sensation on the left side of the body B) loss of pain sensation on the right side of the body C) loss of fine touch sensation on the left side of the body D) loss of fine touch sensation on the right side of the body E) complete hemiplegia (paralysis) on the left side of the body Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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66) Thalamic neurons that project to the primary sensory cortex are ________ neurons. A) receptor B) first-order C) second-order D) third-order E) fourth-order Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

67) Which neuron delivers sensations to the CNS? A) first-order B) second-order C) third-order D) fourth-order E) sensory receptor Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

68) We can localize sensations that originate in different areas of the body because A) sensory neurons carry only one modality. B) sensory neurons from specific body regions project to specific cortical regions. C) incoming sensory information is first processed by the thalamus. D) different types of sensory receptors produce action potentials of different sizes and shapes. E) of the many types of tactile receptors. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 15-1 Spinothalamic Tracts Use Figure 15-1 to answer the following questions: 69) Identify the axon labeled ʺ3.ʺ A) axon of a lower motor neuron B) axon of a upper motor neuron C) axon of a first-order neuron D) axon of a second-order neuron E) axon of a ganglionic neuron Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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70) Where in the spinal cord is the structure labeled ʺ2ʺ located? A) anterior gray horns B) dorsal root ganglion C) anterior white column D) anterior median fissure E) posterior white column Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

71) Identify the neuron labeled ʺ1.ʺ A) lower motor neuron B) upper motor neuron C) first-order neuron D) second-order neuron E) ganglionic neuron Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

72) Identify the structure labeled ʺ5.ʺ A) thalamus B) cerebral cortex C) primary motor cortex D) primary sensory cortex E) autonomic ganglion Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

73) The third-order neuron in this pathway synapses in what structure labeled ʺ7ʺ? A) cerebellum B) thalamus C) primary sensory cortex D) pons E) medulla oblongata Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

74) Which structure conducts action potentials directly from a sensory receptor? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 7 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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75) Identify the type of information that travels along the structure labeled ʺ2.ʺ A) motor commands to skeletal muscles B) proprioception to the cerebral cortex C) fine touch to the cerebral cortex D) crude touch and pressure sensations E) visceral motor commands to smooth muscle Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

76) The sense of proprioception passes along the ________ pathway. A) rubriocerebellar B) corticospinal C) spinocerebellar D) decussation pathways E) ganglion Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

77) In the spinothalamic pathway, the sensory neuron that synapses with a neuron in the cerebral cortex is called the ________ neuron. A) first-order B) second-order C) third-order D) fourth-order E) receptive Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

78) Ascending tracts in the spinal cord relay ________ information. A) sensory B) motor C) sensory and motor D) only somatic E) autonomic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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79) Which of the following is a progressive, degenerative disorder that affects upper and lower motor neurons causing skeletal muscle atrophy? A) cerebral palsy B) stroke C) paralysis D) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis E) multiple sclerosis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

80) In motor pathways, the only portion of the pathway that is outside of the CNS is the A) lower motor neuron. B) upper motor neuron. C) axon of the lower motor neuron. D) axon of the upper motor neuron. E) interneuron. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

81) Which motor pathway does not end in the spinal cord? A) corticobulbar tract B) corticospinal tract C) vestibulospinal tract D) tectospinal tract E) rubrospinal tract Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

82) The corticospinal pathway begins in which area of the brain? A) somatosensory cortex B) primary motor cortex C) midbrain D) vestibular nuclei E) red nuclei Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

83) The motor homunculus shows larger structures in areas of the body that A) have more surface area. B) have more sensory receptors. C) have bigger skeletal muscles. D) are highly sensitive. E) have more motor units. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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84) The rubrospinal tracts originate in the A) primary motor cortex. B) vestibular nuclei. C) thalamus. D) red nuclei. E) reticular formation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

85) Which areas of the brain monitor and adjust activities of the motor pathways? A) basal nuclei B) cerebellum C) basal nuclei and cerebellum D) midbrain E) pons Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

86) The neurons of the primary motor cortex are ________ cells. A) neuroglial B) dendritic C) pyramidal D) cortical E) astrocyte Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

87) The descending spinal tract that crosses to the opposite side of the body within the medulla oblongata is the ________ tract. A) lateral corticospinal B) anterior corticospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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88) The spinal tract that normally plays a role in the subconscious regulation of the muscles of the arms is the ________ tract. A) lateral corticospinal B) anterior corticospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

89) Descending (motor) pathways always involve at least ________ motor neuron(s). A) one B) two C) three D) four E) spinal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

90) The spinal tract that unconsciously maintains balance and muscle tone is the ________ tract. A) lateral corticospinal B) anterior corticospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

91) The medial pathway that controls involuntary movements of head, neck, and arm position in response to sudden visual and auditory stimuli is the ________ tract. A) lateral corticospinal B) tectospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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92) The pyramidal system provides A) voluntary control over skeletal muscles. B) voluntary control over smooth muscles. C) involuntary control over skeletal muscles. D) involuntary control over smooth muscles. E) involuntary control over cardiac muscle. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

93) Upper motor neurons of the corticospinal tract synapse with neurons in A) autonomic ganglia. B) the anterior gray horns of the spinal cord. C) the spinothalamic tract. D) the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord. E) the dorsal root ganglia. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

94) The corticospinal system is often referred to as the A) red nucleus. B) reticular formation. C) spinothalamic tracts. D) pyramidal system. E) medullary centers. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

95) The area of the motor cortex that is devoted to a particular region of the body is proportional to the A) size of the body area. B) distance of the body area from the brain. C) number of motor units in that region. D) number of sensory receptors in the area of the body. E) size of the nerves that serve the area of the body. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

96) Axons of the corticobulbar tract terminate in the A) sensory neurons. B) somatic motor neurons in the spinal cord. C) autonomic motor neurons in the spinal cord. D) motor nuclei of cranial nerves. E) nuclei in the thalamus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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97) The ________ tract provides subconscious regulation of upper limb muscle tone and movement and is part of the ________ pathway. A) tectospinal; lateral B) rubrospinal; lateral C) reticulospinal; medial D) vestibulospinal; lateral E) corticobulbar; medial Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

98) Based on the motor homunculus, which of the following body regions has the fewest number of motor units involved? A) tongue B) face C) hands D) back trunk Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

99) The pyramids on the ventral surface of the medulla oblongata are formed by fibers of the ________ tracts. A) corticospinal B) corticobulbar C) reticulospinal D) vestibulospinal E) tectospinal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

100) The basal nuclei A) initiate conscious motor activity. B) activate spinal reflexes. C) provide the background patterns of movement involved in voluntary motor activities. D) exert direct control over lower motor neurons. E) act as gatekeepers, filtering out unnecessary sensorimotor activity. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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101) The upper motor neurons of the medial pathway are located within any of the following except the A) vestibular nuclei. B) reticular formation. C) superior colliculi. D) inferior colliculi. E) mammillary bodies. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

102) A brain injury to a patient results in facial paralysis. Which descending tract is most likely affected? A) corticospinal tract B) tectospinal tract C) rubrospinal tract D) corticobulbar tract E) reticulospinal tract Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

103) Some neurons within the basal nuclei are known to A) stimulate neurons with GABA. B) inhibit neurons with GABA. C) stimulate neurons with acetylcholine. D) stimulate neurons with GABA and stimulate neurons with acetylcholine. E) inhibit neurons with GABA and stimulate neurons with acetylcholine. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

104) Damage to the pyramidal cells of the cerebral cortex would directly affect A) perception of pain. B) sight. C) voluntary motor activity. D) hearing. E) balance. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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105) The cerebellum adjusts motor activity in response to all of the following except A) touch sensations. B) visual information. C) equilibrium-related sensations. D) input from the motor cortex. E) input from proprioceptors. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

106) Motor neurons whose cell bodies are within the spinal cord are called ________ neurons. A) upper motor B) lower motor C) preganglionic D) postganglionic E) somesthetic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

107) Upper motor neurons are located in the A) precentral gyrus. B) postcentral gyrus. C) brain stem. D) spinal cord. E) cerebral hemispheres and the brain stem. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

108) Damage to the tectospinal tracts would interfere with the ability to A) position the arms. B) monitor body position. C) make reflex responses of the head and neck in response to sudden movements or loud noises. D) control motor units located in the leg. E) coordinate eating and swallowing movements. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

109) Descending tracts in the spinal cord relay ________ information. A) sensory B) motor C) sensory and motor D) only somatic E) autonomic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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110) In the corticospinal pathway, the neuron that exits the spinal cord and enters the spinal nerve is called the ________ neuron. A) upper sensory B) lower sensory C) upper motor D) lower motor E) pyramidal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 15-2 The Corticospinal Pathway Use Figure 15-2 to answer the following questions: 111) Identify the origin of the axon labeled ʺ2.ʺ A) lower motor neuron B) upper motor neuron C) decussation neuron D) second-order neuron E) ganglionic neuron Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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112) The axon labeled ʺ2ʺ synapses with which structure? A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

113) Identify the structure labeled ʺ5.ʺ A) ventral root B) upper motor neuron C) first-order neuron D) second-order neuron E) dorsal root Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

114) What occurs in this neural pathway at label ʺ3ʺ? A) synapse B) communication between sensory and motor neurons C) amplification of motor signals D) decussation E) autonomic reflexes Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

115) Identify the structure labeled ʺ1.ʺ A) primary sensory cortex B) primary motor cortex C) thalamus D) autonomic motor center E) basal nuclei Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

116) Identify the type of information that travels along the structure labeled ʺ4.ʺ A) motor commands to skeletal muscles B) proprioception to the cerebral cortex C) fine touch to the cerebral cortex D) pain and crude touch sensations E) visceral motor commands to smooth muscle Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Which motor pathway directs a faster response: voluntary or involuntary? (Figure 15 -1) A) voluntary B) involuntary Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

2) Describe the receptive field. (Figure 15-2) A) The area receptive to stimuli monitored by a single receptor cell. B) The overlap where many receptors detect stimuli. C) The distance the generator potential travels after receptor stimulation. D) The distance covered by action potentials after receptor stimulation. E) The areas of the brain that process the receptor stimuli. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

3) Which tactile receptors are located in the dermis? (Figure 15-4) A) free nerve endings and tactile corpuscles B) free nerve endings and the root hair plexus C) tactile discs and tactile corpuscles D) root hair plexus, bulbous corpuscle, and lamellar corpuscles E) tactile discs and proprioceptors Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) Which pathway or tract detects sensations of pain and temperature? (Figure 15 -7) A) posterior spinocerebellar B) anterior spinocerebellar C) posterior column pathway D) anterior spinothalamic E) lateral spinothalamic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

5) Identify the descending (motor) tracts in the spinal cord. (Figure 15 -10) A) anterior spinothalamic, posterior spinothalamic, lateral spinothalamic B) anterior spinocerebellar, posterior spinocerebellar, lateral spinocerebellar C) lateral corticospinal, anterior corticospinal, rubrospinal, medial and lateral reticulospinal, tectospinal, vestibulospinal D) gracile fasciculus and cuneate fasciculus E) medial lemniscus, anterior spinothalamic, posterior spinothalamic, anterior spinocerebellar, posterior spinocerebellar Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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Essay Questions 1) What are the four types of sensory receptors for the general senses? What is the nature of the stimuli that excite each type? Answer: (1) Nociceptors: a variety of stimuli associated with tissue damage; (2) thermoreceptors: respond to changes in temperature; (3) mechanoreceptors: stimulated by physical distortion, contact, or pressure; and (4) chemoreceptors: monitor the presence of specific chemical substances. Learning Outcome: 15-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

2) Jake steps on a piece of ice with his right foot. Outline the pathway this sensation will travel to reach his brain being specific about the structures along the way. Answer: When Jake steps on a piece of ice it will activate a thermoreceptor which are free nerve endings in the dermis. This sensation will travel up the axon of a first -order neuron entering the CNS through the dorsal root. The first-order neuron will synapse with a second-order (interneuron) in the posterior gray horn. The second -order axons will enter the lateral spinothalamic tract on the opposite side of the spinal cord and ascend to the thalamus. At the thalamus the second-order neuron will synapse with a third-order neuron which will end at the primary sensory cortex on the left side of the brain. Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

3) What are differences and similarities between ʺcrudeʺ touch and ʺfineʺ touch sensations? Answer: Crude touch refers to sensations from stimulation of tactile receptors of low sensitivity with large receptive fields. In contrast, fine touch refers to tactile receptors of high sensitivity with small receptive fields. Crude touch ascends in the anterior spinothalamic pathway whereas fine touch ascends in the posterior column pathway. The spinothalamic pathway crosses the neural axis in the spinal cord but the posterior column pathway crosses in the medulla oblongata. Both ultimately project to the somatosensory cortex on the contralateral side of the stimulus in the same region of cortex. Learning Outcome: 15-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

4) How can an understanding of the neurotransmitters important in the function of the basal nuclei contribute to an understanding the underlying cause for Parkinsonʹs disease? Answer: Two distinct populations of neurons exist: one that stimulates neurons by releasing acetylcholine, and another that inhibits neurons through the release of gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA). Under normal conditions, the excitatory interneurons are kept inactive, and the tracts leaving the basal nuclei have an inhibitory effect on upper motor neurons. In Parkinsonʹs disease, the excitatory neurons become more active, leading to problems with the voluntary control of movement. Treatment directed at increasing the supply of GABA is being investigated actively. Learning Outcome: 15-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 16 The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher-Order Functions Multiple Choice Questions 1) The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system is said to function during ʺrest and digest.ʺ A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) thoracolumbar D) visceral E) somatomotor Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) The sympathetic division of the ANS is also known as which of the following? A) somatic division B) craniosacral division C) resting division D) thoracolumbar division E) lumbosacral division Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) Preganglionic fibers leave the CNS and then synapse on A) postganglionic fibers. B) visceral reflex responses. C) motor neurons. D) ganglionic neurons. E) afferent neurons. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) Preganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system are located in A) the brain. B) the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord. C) the posterior gray horns of the spinal cord. D) both the brainstem and the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord. E) the cerebrum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) Ganglionic neurons innervate all of the following except A) smooth muscle. B) cardiac muscle. C) adipose tissue. D) glands. E) skeletal muscle. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) The parasympathetic nervous system is especially active during which physiological state? A) exertion B) trauma C) digestion D) stress E) exercise Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) A visceral motor neuron whose cell body is within the CNS is called a(n)________ neuron. A) upper motor B) lower motor C) preganglionic D) postganglionic E) somatomotor Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) In which system are the ganglia in or near the target organ? A) sympathetic division of the ANS B) parasympathetic division of the ANS C) somatic nervous system D) afferent nervous system E) central nervous system Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

9) The parasympathetic division is also called the ________ division. A) thoracolumbar B) craniosacral C) thoracocranial D) craniolumbar E) craniococcygeal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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10) Which of the following is not controlled by the ANS? A) skeletal muscle system B) cardiovascular system C) respiratory system D) digestive system E) urinary system Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

11) Visceral motor neuron nuclei are located in which part of the brain? A) midbrain B) primary motor cortex C) hypothalamus D) thalamus E) cerebellum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

12) Sympathetic postganglion fibers that innervate the small intestines originate from the A) inferior mesenteric ganglion. B) cardiac plexus. C) celiac ganglion. D) sacral splanchnic nerves. E) superior mesenteric ganglion. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

13) Sympathetic nerves contain postganglionic fibers that innervate organs in which cavity? A) thoracic B) pelvic C) abdominal D) cranial E) abdominopelvic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

14) Which is not a sympathetic ganglion? A) celiac B) otic C) inferior mesenteric D) superior mesenteric E) sacral chain Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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15) A pedestrian narrowly avoids being hit by an oncoming car. He notices that it takes a little while for his heart rate and respiratory rate to return to normal. This is likely because A) the parasympathetic nervous system has become activated. B) sympathetic activation of the adrenal medulla has released epinephrine and norepinephrine into the bloodstream. C) the splanchnic nerves have become activated. D) somatic motor neurons have increased the heart and respiratory rate. E) the corticospinal pathway has become activated. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

16) Sympathetic preganglionic fibers are ________ and have ________ axons. A) short; myelinated B) short; unmyelinated C) long; myelinated D) long; unmyelinated E) intermediate; small Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

17) In the sympathetic nervous system, where are the preganglionic neurons located? A) cervical and sacral segments of the spinal cord B) sacral segments of the spinal cord C) brain stem D) thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord E) cerebellum Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

18) Preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system are located in the A) lateral gray horns of the cervical cord. B) anterior gray horns of the cervical and thoracic spinal cord. C) lateral gray horns of segments T1 to L2 of the spinal cord. D) anterior gray horns of segments T 1 to L2 of the spinal cord. E) lateral gray horns of T 1  to S2 of the spinal cord. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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19) Clusters of ganglionic sympathetic neurons lying along either side of the spinal cord are called sympathetic ________ ganglia. A) intramural B) collateral C) chain D) paravertebral E) adrenal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

20) Clusters of ganglionic sympathetic neurons that innervate organs in the abdominopelvic region are called ________ ganglia. A) intramural B) collateral C) chain D) paravertebral E) adrenal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

21) Injury to the neurons of a collateral ganglion would affect the function of the A) heart. B) pupils. C) sweat glands. D) digestive tract. E) arrector pili muscles. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

22) Damage to the ventral roots of the first five thoracic spinal nerves on the right side of the body would interfere with the ability to A) dilate the right pupil. B) constrict the right pupil. C) dilate the left pupil. D) constrict the left pupil. E) smile and frown. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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23) Postganglionic axons usually are A) myelinated. B) unmyelinated. C) larger than preganglionic fibers. D) located in the brain. E) located in the spinal cord. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

24) Stimulation of the neurons in the celiac ganglion would lead to A) relaxation of the urinary sphincter. B) increased heart rate. C) conversion of liver glycogen reserves into glucose. D) activation of ventral sweat glands. E) increased gastric motility. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

25) Collateral ganglia contain neurons that innervate tissues and organs in which cavity? A) thoracic B) pelvic C) abdominal D) craniosacral E) abdominopelvic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

26) Sympathetic nerves A) provoke feelings of sympathy. B) allow us to relax, rest, and recover. C) contains short preganglionic fibers and longer postganglionic fibers. D) control swallowing. E) stimulate gastric secretion. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

27) Preganglionic fibers that innervate the collateral ganglia form the A) adrenal medulla. B) celiac ganglia. C) sympathetic chain ganglia. D) inferior mesenteric ganglia. E) splanchnic nerves. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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28) Which of the following is not innervated by the celiac ganglia? A) liver B) spleen C) stomach D) pancreas E) bladder Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

29) The adrenal medullae secrete A) medullin. B) epinephrine. C) norepinephrine. D) renin. E) both epinephrine and norepinephrine. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

30) Specialized ganglionic sympathetic neurons that release hormones into the bloodstream are found within the A) intramural ganglia. B) collateral ganglia. C) chain ganglia. D) brain stem. E) adrenal medullae. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

31) Postganglionic fibers that innervate targets in the body wall or thoracic cavity originate on neurons within A) intramural ganglia. B) collateral ganglia. C) sympathetic chain ganglia. D) suprarenal ganglia. E) white rami communicantes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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32) Each of the following effects is associated with the action of postganglionic sympathetic fibers except A) increased sweat secretion. B) reduced circulation to the skin. C) decreased heart rate. D) dilation of the pupils. E) increased blood flow to skeletal muscles. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

33) Splanchnic nerves A) originate from first-order neurons located in the upper five thoracic segments of the spinal cord. B) innervate the viscera or internal organs. C) control sympathetic function of structures in the thorax. D) connect chain ganglia. E) are formed of parasympathetic fibers. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

34) Autonomic disorders would not cause A) excessive perspiration. B) appetite. C) sexual arousal. D) problems in maintenance of blood pressure. E) problems related to skeletal muscle function. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

35) The celiac, superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric ganglia are collectively called ________ ganglia. A) chain B) collateral C) intramural D) paravertebral E) terminal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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36) The ________ nervous system stimulates the arrector pili muscles and gives you ʺgoosebumps.ʺ A) parasympathetic B) afferent C) dorsal D) sympathetic E) somatic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

37) As the result of an accident, the white rami communicantes of spinal nerves T 1  and T 2  on the left side of Bradʹs body are severed. What organ(s) would you expect to be affected by this injury? A) left pupil B) right pupil C) heart D) both pupils E) left pupil and heart Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Figure 16-1 ANS Pathway Use Figure 16-1 to answer the following questions: 38) Identify the structure labeled ʺ1.ʺ A) somatic motor neuron B) preganglionic neuron C) sensory neuron D) ganglionic neuron E) astrocyte Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

39) Identify the round structure labeled ʺ3.ʺ A) dorsal root ganglion B) spinal nerve C) chain ganglion D) intramural ganglion E) rami communicantes Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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40) Identify the structure labeled ʺ4.ʺ A) preganglionic neuron B) postganglionic fibers of sympathetic nerve C) preganglionic fibers of sympathetic nerve D) collateral ganglion E) white ramus communicans Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

41) Identify the structure labeled ʺ2.ʺ A) ventral root B) dorsal ramus C) spinal nerve D) ventral ramus E) white ramus communicans Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

42) Identify the structure labeled ʺ6.ʺ A) somatic motor neuron B) preganglionic neuron C) sensory neuron D) ganglionic neuron E) astrocyte Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

43) Tom suffers from hypertension (high blood pressure). Which of the following might help deal with his problem? A) a drug that blocks alpha-1 receptors in smooth muscle B) a drug that blocks alpha-2 receptors in adipose tissue C) a drug that increases cAMP levels in cardiac muscle tissue D) a drug that blocks beta receptors in cardiac muscle tissue E) a drug that blocks alpha-1 receptors in smooth muscle and blocks beta receptors in cardiac muscle tissue Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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44) Drugs that have effects similar to those of sympathetic activation are called sympathomimetic drugs. Which of the following would you not expect to observe in a person who has taken a sympathomimetic drug? A) sweating B) increased heart rate C) dilation of respiratory passages D) decreased blood pressure E) increased blood sugar level Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

45) Drugs known as beta-blockers may be useful for treating A) constipation. B) diarrhea. C) excessive salivation. D) excessive heart rate. E) prostate disorders. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

46) Sympathetic axon terminals form a branching network of swollen segments called A) ganglia. B) receptors. C) varicosities. D) nuclei. E) bulbs. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

47) The majority of norepinephrine released by varicosities only briefly affects the target tissue because it is quickly reused or broken down by A) monoamine oxidase. B) acetylcholinesterase. C) nitroxide. D) decarboxylase. E) catalase. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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48) Which of the following is a sympathetic neurotransmitter used for vasodilation? A) acetylcholine B) norepinephrine C) dopamine D) serotonin E) nitric oxide Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

49) Stimulation of the beta receptors on heart muscle cells results in A) the decrease in ATP production. B) increased heart rate and force of contraction. C) decreased force of contraction. D) slower heart rate. E) inhibition of the heart muscle. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

50) Regarding the sympathetic nervous system, the neurotransmitter ACh is A) always excitatory when used in the synapses of the sympathetic nervous system. B) broken down by COMT. C) going to reduce the activity of the other neurotransmitter norepinephrine. D) broken down by monoamine oxidase. E) a chemical similar to the structure of adrenaline. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

51) Which of the following statements is true? The stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors can lead to 1. an increase in metabolic activity. 2. contraction of airway smooth muscle. 3. the breakdown of triglycerides within adipocytes. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 1 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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52) An inhaler used to treat airway constriction in asthma or allergy might contain a drug that A) activates β1  adrenergic receptors. B) activates β2  adrenergic receptors. C) activates muscarinic cholinergic receptors. D) blocks β 2  adrenergic receptors. E) activates β2  adrenergic receptors or activates muscarinic cholinergic receptors. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

53) Most sympathetic effector junctions release norepinephrine but a significant number release acetylcholine instead. Which of these is an example of an organ of the cholinergic type? A) the heart B) a blood vessel in the skin C) a sweat gland D) the liver E) the salivary glands Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

54) A certain drug decreases heart rate by blocking a receptor on cardiac pacemaker cells. This drug probably binds to ________ receptors. A) nicotinic cholinergic B) muscarinic cholinergic C) alpha-1 adrenergic D) alpha-2 adrenergic E) beta-1 adrenergic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

55) Drugs that stimulate alpha receptors, causing constriction of peripheral vessels, are A) sympathetic blocking agents. B) sympathomimetic. C) parasympathetic blocking agents. D) parasympathomimetic. E) autonomic blocking agents. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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56) Sympathomimetic drugs might be used to A) decrease heart rate. B) decrease blood pressure. C) dilate airways. D) increase gastric motility. E) reduce blood sugar levels. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

57) If the receptor on the postsynaptic membrane binds to norepinephrine, the synapse is called A) cholinergic. B) anergic. C) adrenergic. D) synergic. E) noradrenergic. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

58) Disorders involving the vagus nerve might cause A) food to remain in your stomach longer. B) a drop in blood pressure. C) constriction of the pupils. D) more saliva production. E) increased sweating. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

59) The statement ʺIt initiates contraction of urinary bladder smooth muscleʺ is A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system. B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system. C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems. D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems. E) true only for the somatic nervous system. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

60) Preganglionic fibers of parasympathetic neurons are present in all of the following cranial nerves except A) III. B) VII. C) IX. D) X. E) XII. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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61) Almost 75 percent of all parasympathetic outflow travels along the ________ nerve(s). A) splanchnic B) facial C) vagus D) glossopharyngeal E) trigeminal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

62) Which of the following is not a parasympathetic ganglion? A) ciliary B) pterygopalatine C) submandibular D) otic E) celiac Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

63) Parasympathetic functions include all of the following, except A) decrease in the rate of cardiac contraction. B) constriction of the pupils. C) dilation of the airways. D) stimulation of urination. E) stimulation of defecation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

64) Which of the following statements concerning the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is false? A) Preganglionic neurons are located in the brain stem and sacral region of the spinal cord. B) Ganglionic neurons are located in ganglia within or near to effectors. C) Preganglionic fibers are relatively short and postganglionic fibers are relatively long. D) The actions of the parasympathetic division are more localized than those of the sympathetic division. E) The ganglionic neurons always release acetylcholine. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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65) Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers leave the CNS in all of the following locations except A) the midbrain. B) the pons. C) the medulla oblongata. D) spinal segments T 1 -L2 . E) spinal segments S 2 -S4 . Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

66) Preganglionic fibers from the sacral segments of the spinal cord form the ________ nerve(s). A) pelvic B) splanchnic C) celiac D) sympathetic E) mesenteric Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

67) Parasympathetic stimulation A) increases heart rate. B) increases gastric motility. C) causes sweat glands to secrete. D) causes blood vessels in the skin to dilate. E) causes the pupils to dilate. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

68) Intramural ganglia in the digestive, urinary, and reproductive organs are innervated by the ________ nerves. A) spinal B) splanchnic C) chain D) pelvic E) collateral Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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69) Damage to the glossopharyngeal nerve would likely cause A) increase in heart rate. B) problems in sexual arousal. C) a reduction in saliva. D) visual problems. E) urine retention. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

70) Parasympathetic ganglia that are near the eyes and salivary glands are called ________ ganglia. A) somatic B) collateral C) contralateral D) intramural E) terminal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

71) The statement ʺIts postganglionic axons always use acetylcholine as the neurotransmitterʺ is A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system. B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system. C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems. D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems. E) true only for the somatic nervous system. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

72) Nicotinic receptors A) respond to epinephrine. B) respond to norepinephrine. C) open chemically-gated sodium ion channels. D) can be either excitatory or inhibitory in function. E) are found at synaptic junctions of the sympathetic nervous system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

73) Muscarinic receptors A) are normally activated by acetylcholine. B) are found mostly in autonomic ganglia. C) always produce an excitatory response. D) control sodium channels in the affected membrane. E) are blocked by norepinephrine. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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74) The statement ʺPreganglionic axon terminals release acetylcholineʺ is A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system. B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system. C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems. D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems. E) true only for the somatic nervous system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

75) Parasympathetic effects are localized and short-lived because A) muscarinic receptors are deactivated by norepinephrine. B) acetylcholine is inactivated at the synapse by acetylcholinesterase. C) norepinephrine hyperpolarizes the postganglionic membrane. D) norepinephrine is inactivated at the synapse by monoamine oxidase. E) epinephrine blocks the muscarinic receptors. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

76) Nicotine poisoning differs from muscarine poisoning in that A) it causes vomiting. B) it causes salivation. C) it causes sweating. D) it causes skeletal muscle convulsions. E) it causes diarrhea. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

77) Drugs that block nicotinic receptors would be A) sympathomimetic. B) parasympathomimetic. C) parasympathetic blocking agents. D) sympathetic blocking agents. E) autonomic blocking agents. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

78) Parasympathetic blocking agents can be useful in treating A) heart failure. B) high blood pressure. C) urinary incontinence. D) hyperactivity. E) excessive sweating. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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79) A doctor places drops in the eyes to dilate the pupils for an examination. The type of drug that is used is a(n) ________ drug. 1. sympathomimetic 2. parasympathomimetic 3. adrenergic activating 4. cholinergic activating A) 1, 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 1, 3 E) 2, 4 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

80) Mary accidentally ate poisonous mushrooms that contain muscarine. You would expect to observe all of the following symptoms except A) diarrhea. B) salivation. C) very fast heart rate. D) sweating. E) low blood pressure. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

81) The ganglia located lateral to the vertebral column are part of the sympathetic A) chain. B) tract. C) decussation. D) tubes. E) canal. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

82) Which of the following is not a true statement regarding the sympathetic division? A) PNS ganglia are near the vertebral column. B) Preganglionic fibers are relatively short. C) Preganglionic neurons are located between T1 and L 2 of the spinal cord. D) The effects are not widespread but very specific and localized. E) Postganglionic fibers are relatively long. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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83) All parasympathetic neurons are A) adrenergic. B) cholinergic. C) nitroxidergic. D) gamma-aminobutyric. E) dopaminergic. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

84) Which of the following is correctly matched? A) sympathetic: short preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers B) sympathetic: short preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers C) sympathetic: long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers D) parasympathetic: short preganglion and long postganglionic fibers E) parasympathetic: contains only preganglionic fibers Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

85) Dual innervation refers to an organ receiving A) two nerves from the spinal cord. B) both autonomic and somatomotor nerves. C) both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation. D) nerves from both the brain and the spinal cord. E) both sensory and motor nerves. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

86) The statement ʺIt controls the diameter of the pupilʺ is A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system. B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system. C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems. D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems. E) true only for the somatic nervous system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

87) Sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers that innervate the heart pass through the A) celiac plexus. B) hypogastric plexus. C) cardiac plexus. D) sphenopalatine ganglia. E) otic ganglia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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88) Control of the diameter of the respiratory passages depends upon A) sympathetic stimulation only. B) parasympathetic stimulation only. C) somatomotor stimulation only. D) both parasympathetic and sympathetic levels of stimulation. E) sensory receptors sensitive to changes in lung ventilation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

89) Nerve networks that include both sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers that reach the same structure are called A) somatic plexuses. B) somatic ganglia. C) autonomic plexuses. D) autonomic ganglia. E) central plexuses. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

90) Descending branches of the vagus and splanchnic nerves travel through the ________ plexus. A) cardiac B) pulmonary C) hypogastric D) esophageal E) celiac Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

91) Autonomic tone is an important aspect of ANS function because it A) allows ANS neurons to be silent under normal conditions. B) allows ANS neurons to increase activity on demand but not decrease their activity. C) allows ANS neurons to decrease their activity on demand but not increase their activity. D) allows ANS neurons to increase or decrease their activity, providing a range of control options. E) provides for a narrow range of control options that keeps target tissues constantly active. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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92) A decrease in the autonomic tone of the smooth muscle in a blood vessel would result in A) no change in vessel diameter. B) a decrease in vessel diameter. C) oscillation in vessel diameter. D) a decrease in blood flow through the vessel. E) an increase in blood flow through the vessel. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

93) In general, autonomic tone of peripheral blood vessels increases when A) sympathetic stimulation is increased. B) sympathetic stimulation is decreased. C) parasympathetic stimulation is increased. D) parasympathetic stimulation is decreased. E) somatomotor stimulation is increased. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

94) Most vital organs receive ________ innervation. That is, they receive input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. A) single B) dual C) biaxial D) ambitonic E) autonomic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

95) Which of the following is not true regarding visceral reflex arcs? A) They are monosynaptic. B) They have the same basic components as somatic reflexes. C) Short visceral reflexes bypass the CNS. D) They can be short or long reflexes. E) The processing steps involve interneurons in the CNS. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

96) Which of the following visceral reflexes is not coordinated by the medulla oblongata? A) swallowing reflex B) vasomotor reflex C) coughing reflex D) cardioacceleratory reflex E) pupillary reflex Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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97) Which of the following would be an example of higher -level control of autonomic function? A) gagging on food that does not appeal to you B) a violent coughing attack in response to an irritant C) increased heart rate when you see a person you fear D) dilation of the pupils when you enter a dark room E) increased salivation when you smell food that appeals to you Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

98) ________ reflexes perform the simplest functions of the autonomic nervous system. A) Somatic B) Cranial C) Spinal D) Visceral E) Consensual Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

99) Visceral reflex arcs can bypass CNS neurons in ________ reflexes. A) short B) intermediate C) long D) hyper E) spinal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

100) The integrative centers for autonomic activity are located in the A) cerebrum. B) thalamus. C) cerebellum. D) pituitary gland. E) hypothalamus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

101) Which of the following is essential for memory consolidation? A) occipital lobe B) basal nuclei C) hippocampus D) insula E) prefrontal lobe Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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102) Mechanisms involved in memory formation and storage involve all of the following  except A) increased release of neurotransmitters. B) anterograde amnesia. C) the formation of additional synaptic connections. D) the formation of memory engrams. E) facilitation at synapses. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

103) Long-term memories that are with you for a lifetime are called ________ memories. A) tertiary B) reflexive C) consolidated D) multilobar E) secondary Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

104) Most long-term memories are stored in the A) cerebellum. B) hypothalamus. C) cerebral cortex. D) pons. E) thalamus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

105) For minor surgical procedures, Valium is typically given to patients to cause anterograde amnesia. This means the patient will temporarily A) forget all fact memories such as the color of a stop sign. B) forget skill memories like how to ride a bike. C) forget long-term memories like their name. D) forget memories from before surgery. E) forget memories from during and immediately after surgery. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

106) Blocking ________ receptors in the ________ prevents long -term memory formation. A) serotonin; hypothalamus B) NMDA; hippocampus C) NMDA; midbrain D) serotonin; midbrain E) norepinephrine; hippocampus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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107) Which of the following is an inherited disease characterized by destruction of ACh -secreting and GABA-secreting neurons in the basal nuclei causing difficulty controlling movements? A) schizophrenia B) Parkinsonʹs disease C) Huntingtonʹs disease D) Alzheimerʹs disease E) senile dementia Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

108) Conversion of a short-term memory to a long-term memory is called A) memory conversion. B) anterograde amnesia. C) memory programming. D) memory consolidation. E) memory engraving. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

109) The conscious state is maintained by the A) prefrontal lobes. B) general interpretive area. C) limbic system. D) reticular activating system. E) nucleus gracilis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

110) Based on stimulation studies, the ʺheadquartersʺ of the reticular activating system appears to be based in the A) medulla. B) pons. C) midbrain. D) diencephalon. E) cerebrum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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111) A state of unconsciousness in which an individual cannot be aroused even by strong stimuli is A) somnolence. B) sleep. C) stupor. D) coma. E) a chronic vegetative state. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

112) The brain waves produced by normal adults while resting with their eyes closed are ________ waves. A) alpha B) beta C) theta D) delta E) gamma Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

113) The regulation of awake-asleep cycles appears to involve an interplay between brain stem nuclei that use different neurotransmitters. The one that favors alertness is ________ and the other promoting deep sleep is ________. A) acetylcholine; serotonin B) serotonin; norepinephrine C) norepinephrine; serotonin D) dopamine; GABA E) glutamate; serotonin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

114) During ________ sleep, dreaming occurs. A) REM B) deep C) beta D) stage 1 E) stage 2 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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115) Hallucinogenic drugs, such as LSD, function by A) stimulating receptors for norepinephrine. B) blocking acetylcholine receptors. C) increasing the production of GABA. D) stimulating serotonin receptors. E) mimicking the action of dopamine. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

116) The inherited brain disorder Huntingtonʹs disease is caused by the destruction of basal nuclei that use different neurotransmitters. One neurotransmitter is ________ and the other is ________. A) acetylcholine; serotonin B) serotonin; norepinephrine C) norepinephrine; serotonin D) acetylcholine; GABA E) glutamate; serotonin Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

117) What mental illness is often improved by drugs that block serotonin re-uptake? A) agitation B) hallucinations C) depression D) Parkinsonʹs E) Huntingtonʹs Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

118) An age-related decline in mental function characterized by difficulties with spatial orientation, memory, language, and personality is called A) delirium agitans. B) senile dementia. C) persistent vegetative state. D) somnolence of the aged. E) progressive cerebral dysfunction. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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119) Changes in the central nervous system that accompany aging include all of the following except A) reduction in brain size and weight. B) decrease in the number of neurons. C) decreased blood flow to the brain. D) changes in synaptic organization in the brain. E) increased memory storage. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

120) Alzheimerʹs disease is characterized by all of the following except that it A) is the most common cause of senile dementia. B) is characterized by a progressive loss of memory. C) has a clear genetic basis. D) is associated with the formation of plaques and neurofibrillary tangles. E) may be associated with damage to the nucleus basalis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) The somatic nervous system affects skeletal muscles. Name effectors of the autonomic nervous system. (Figure 16-1) A) bone and spinal cord B) smooth muscle, glands, cardiac muscle, adipocytes C) bone and joints D) spinal cord and brainstem E) cerebrum and cerebellum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) Which type of ganglionic neuron innervates visceral organs in the abdominopelvic cavity? (Figure 16-3) A) adrenal medullary neurons B) sympathetic chain ganglionic neurons C) collateral ganglionic neurons D) sacral ganglionic neurons E) cervical ganglionic neurons Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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3) What neurotransmitter is released from most varicosities in the sympathetic division? (Figure 16-4) A) dopamine B) serotonin C) epinephrine D) norepinephrine E) GABA Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

4) The short reflex bypasses what part of the nervous system? (Figure 16-7) A) peripheral nervous system B) enteric nervous system C) spinal cord D) brainstem E) central nervous system Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

5) Special sensory inputs arrive by which cranial nerves? (Figure 16 -11) A) I and II B) II and IV C) II and VIII D) V and VII E) VII and VIII Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

Essay Questions 1) List the different types of adrenergic receptors, the responses they produce, and by what mechanisms. Answer: There are two types of alpha receptors and two types of beta receptors. The alpha -1 receptor produces excitation or stimulation of metabolism. It works by activation of an enzyme and/or by release of calcium ion from internal stores. The alpha-2 receptor is inhibitory on its target cell by reducing the level of cAMP. Beta-1 receptors are stimulating and/or lead to increased energy consumption. They activate cellular enzymes. Beta-2 receptors inhibit activity or produce relaxation in smooth muscle cells. They operate through enzyme activation. Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 16  The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher -Order Functions   533

2) Mr. Martin is suffering from a condition known as ventricular tachycardia, in which his heart beats too quickly. Would an alpha-blocker or a beta-blocker help alleviate his problem? Why? Answer: You would want to use a beta-blocker, because the stimulation of beta-1 receptors increases heart rate. By blocking these receptors, parasympathetic influence will predominate and the heart will slow down. Learning Outcome: 16-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

3) What effect would cutting the vagus nerve branch that innervates the stomach have on gastric function? Answer: The vagus nerve carries parasympathetic preganglionic fibers to many organs within the ventral cavity, including the digestive organs. It stimulates gastric motility and secretion of acid and enzymes. Removing the vagus innervation will eliminate parasympathetic stimulation, leaving only sympathetic innervation, which is inhibitory. This procedure will thus greatly reduce gastric activity. Hormonal stimulation will remain but higher centers will no longer influence secretion of gastric juice. Learning Outcome: 16-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

4) Explain what dual innervation means with regard to the autonomic nervous system. Using the cardiovascular, respiratory and digestive systems as examples, explain how dual innervation regulates the function of each system. Answer: Dual innervation means that both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems control some areas of the body. In general, they have opposing actions. In the cardiovascular system, sympathetic stimulation increases heart rate and contractility while parasympathetic stimulation decreases heart rate. In the respiratory system, sympathetic stimulation dilates the airways while parasympathetic stimulation constricts the airways. In the digestive system, sympathetic stimulation slows down motility and release of secretions while parasympathetic stimulation increases motility and release of secretions. Learning Outcome: 16-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 17 The Special Senses Multiple Choice Questions 1) Olfactory glands A) house the sense of smell. B) regenerate to form new olfactory epithelium. C) react to aromatic molecules. D) coat the olfactory epithelium with a pigmented mucus. E) group as olfactory bulbs. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) Olfactory information is first received by which part of the brain? A) pons B) cerebellum C) thalamus D) cerebrum E) medulla oblongata Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) Before an olfactory receptor can detect an odorant, it has to A) contact a basal cell. B) bind to receptors on olfactory dendrites. C) open ion channels. D) respond to applied pressure. E) be transported to the olfactory bulbs. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) Which of the following is true of olfactory discrimination? A) There are 6 primary smells known. B) The number of olfactory receptors decline as we age. C) All odorants require the same concentration to activate an olfactory receptor. D) There are different types of olfactory receptor cells to detect each type of odorant. E) The olfactory receptor population does not divide. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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5) All of the following are true of olfactory pathways except which one? A) They project first to the occipital lobes and then to the thalamus. B) Neurons from the olfactory epithelium synapse in the olfactory bulb. C) Information flows to the olfactory cortex, hypothalamus, and limbic system. D) They reach the forebrain without first synapsing in the thalamus. E) The limbic system-olfactory pathway connection means that there are close ties between experiences and memories with smell. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

6) Some neural tissues retain stem cells and thus the capacity to divide and replace lost neurons. Which of these special senses can replace its damaged neural receptors? A) olfaction B) hearing C) equilibrium D) proprioception E) vision Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

7) A normal, relaxed inhalation carries about ________ of the inhaled air to the olfactory organs. A) 50 percent B) 8 percent C) 2 percent D) 35 percent E) 10 percent Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate. They synapse on neurons in the A) medulla oblongata. B) medial geniculate. C) cerebral cortex. D) olfactory bulb. E) olfactory tract. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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9) Olfactory organs are located in the nasal cavity inferior to the perforated bony structure known as the A) cribriform plate. B) sphenoid bone. C) sella turcica. D) vomer. E) zygomatic process. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

10) The olfactory organ consists of the ________ and the lamina propria. A) gustatory cells B) basilar membrane C) olfactory epithelium D) hippocampus E) ethmoid bone Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

11) The olfactory receptors are highly modified A) epithelial cells. B) interneurons. C) sensory neurons. D) motor neurons. E) neuroglial cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

12) Which of the following types of sensory information reaches the cerebral cortex directly? A) visual B) hearing C) equilibrium D) olfactory E) gustatory Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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13) When odorant molecules contact the dendritic processes of olfactory receptors the initial response is A) an action potential. B) activation of a kinase. C) a generator potential. D) a hyperpolarization potential. E) a conversion of 11-trans retinal to 11-cis retinal. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

14) During a sinus infection it is difficult to smell because A) basal cell division decreases. B) olfactory glands stop producing mucus. C) olfactory supporting cells block odorant molecules from reaching the receptors. D) the hypothalamus stops responding to olfactory stimulation. E) excess mucus blocks odorant molecules from reaching the receptors. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

15) Damage to the insula is most likely to affect which of the following senses? A) olfaction B) gustation C) vision D) hearing E) equilibrium Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

16) Our taste buds are most receptive to which of the following types of compounds? A) sweet B) salty C) sweet and salty D) bitter E) umami Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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17) As we age A) taste bud sensitivity increases. B) taste bud sensitivity doubles. C) the number of taste buds increases. D) the number of taste buds decreases. E) the number of taste buds decreases but the number of olfactory receptors increases to compensate. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

18) Which of the following correctly states how a gustatory receptor will be stimulated by an acidic or sour compound? A) G proteins will be activated. B) Hydrogen ions will diffuse into the receptor cell causing depolarization. C) Sodium ions will diffuse into the receptor cell causing depolarization. D) Second messengers will be activated. E) Adenylate cyclase will be activated. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

19) The function of gustatory receptors parallels that of A) photoreceptors in the eye. B) mechanoreceptors in the ear. C) olfactory receptors. D) lamellar corpuscles. E) proprioceptors. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

20) Which of the following lingual papillae has the largest number of taste buds? A) pharynx B) foliate papillae C) filiform papillae D) fungiform papillae E) vallate papillae Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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21) Destruction to your left glossopharyngeal nerve would result in A) inability to sense sweetness at the tip of your tongue. B) inability to identify sour and bitter foods at the posterior one-third of the tongue. C) inability to smell. D) inability to see. E) inability to hear. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

22) Stimulation of receptors within the trigeminal nerve might produce a perception of A) intensely sweet. B) intensely sour. C) quite salty. D) peppery hot. E) bitter. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

23) An adult has approximately ________ taste buds. A) 100 B) 10,000 C) 4,000,000 D) 500 E) 50,000 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

24) A patient who experienced head trauma has lost the ability to taste spicy food. You should expect damage to cranial nerve A) VII. B) III. C) IX. D) V. E) XII. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

25) Which of the following is not one of the six primary taste sensations? A) sweet B) peppery C) sour D) salty E) umami Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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26) The taste sensation that is triggered by the amino acid glutamate is known as A) sweet. B) umami. C) salty. D) peppery. E) sour. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

27) The sense of taste is also known as A) proprioception. B) maculation. C) gustation. D) olfaction. E) sublation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

28) The membrane structures that respond to chemical stimuli to produce sweet, bitter, and umami sensations are called A) gustatory hairs. B) chemically-gated ion channels. C) voltage-regulated ion channels. D) G proteins. E) papillae. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

29) Taste buds are clusters of individual A) vallate papillae. B) gustatory hairs. C) epithelial cells. D) olfactory receptors. E) gustatory receptors. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 17  The Special Senses   541

30) Each gustatory cell extends ________ (called taste hairs) into the surrounding fluids through a narrow taste pore. A) microvilli B) villi C) papillae D) palpebra E) G proteins Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

31) Taste buds on the tongue are often associated with epithelial projections called A) macula. B) lingual papillae. C) ganglion cells. D) pharyngeal papillae. E) ampulla. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

32) A typical gustatory cell survives for only about ________ day(s) before it is replaced. A) 10 B) 1 C) 60 D) 30 E) 365 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

33) Tears pass through which of the following structures before emptying into the nasal cavity? A) anterior chamber B) posterior chamber C) nasolacrimal duct D) scleral venous sinus E) corneoscleral junction Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

34) Which structure of the eye is the most sensitive but contains no blood vessels? A) iris B) choroid C) retina D) sclera E) cornea Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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35) Which of the following is incorrectly matched? A) anterior chamber: between the cornea and the iris B) posterior chamber: between the iris and the lens C) ciliary body: site of extrinsic eye muscle attachment D) retina: consists of a pigmented layer and a neural layer E) sclera: covers most of the ocular surface Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

36) Which of the following is a function of the pigmented layer of the retina? A) provide eye color B) house the photoreceptors C) secrete vitreous humor D) absorb light passing through the neural layer E) refract light onto the photoreceptors Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

37) The purpose of the intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cell (ipRGC) photoreceptors are A) to give clear sharp vision. B) to allow us to see in dim light. C) to replace rods as we age. D) influence the circadian rhythm. E) to provide color vision. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

38) The primary cause of blindness in the United States is A) cataracts. B) diabetic retinopathy. C) glaucoma. D) retinal detachment. E) retinopathy of prematurity. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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39) Jonathan received a strong blow to the eye. The eyeball remained intact but he suddenly could not see. This has likely caused A) development of cataracts. B) a detached retina. C) development of glaucoma. D) astigmatism. E) myopia. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

40) Which of the following is false concerning lacrimal glands? A) They produce a strongly hypertonic fluid. B) They produce most of the volume of tears. C) They produce lysozyme. D) They produce watery, slightly alkaline secretions. E) They are located in recesses in the frontal bones. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

41) All of the following are true of the fibrous layer of the eye except that it A) consists of the sclera and cornea. B) provides mechanical support and some protection for the eye. C) produces aqueous humor. D) contributes substantial focusing power. E) is where extrinsic eye muscles insert. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

42) What structure changes the shape of the lens for far and near vision? A) aqueous humor B) ciliary body C) iris D) extrinsic eye muscles E) macula Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

43) The eyelids are connected at the A) palpebral fissure. B) medial and lateral angles. C) lacrimal caruncle. D) chalazion. E) conjunctiva. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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44) The space between the iris and the lens is the A) anterior chamber. B) posterior chamber. C) pupil. D) scleral venous sinus. E) vitreous body. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

45) All of the following are true of the neural layer of the eye except that it A) contains ganglion cells. B) contains the photoreceptor cells. C) contains bipolar cells. D) is the innermost layer of the eyeball. E) consists of dense fibrous connective tissue. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

46) The human lens focuses light on the photoreceptor cells by A) moving up and down. B) moving in and out. C) changing shape. D) opening and closing. E) dilating and constricting. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

47) A structure that is located at the medial angle and contains glands that contribute to a gritty deposit is the A) palpebra. B) lacrimal caruncle. C) chalazion. D) tarsal gland. E) conjunctiva. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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48) Which of the following produces a lipid-rich secretion that prevents the upper and lower eyelids from sticking together at their edges? A) palpebra B) lacrimal caruncle C) chalazion D) tarsal gland E) conjunctiva Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

49) The vitreous body A) fills the anterior chamber. B) helps to stabilize the eye and holds the retina up against the eyewall. C) is replaced at the rate of 20 percent per year until middle age. D) circulates through the pupil. E) holds the retina against the lens for proper refraction. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

50) The space between the cornea and the iris is the A) anterior chamber. B) posterior chamber. C) scleral venous sinus. D) aqueous humor. E) pupil. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

51) The shape of the lens is controlled by the A) pupillary sphincter muscles. B) pupillary radial muscles. C) ciliary muscles. D) iris. E) cornea. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

52) The ________ covers most of the exposed surface of the eye. A) conjunctiva B) cornea C) iris D) anterior chamber E) caruncle Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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53) The transparent portion of the fibrous layer is the A) conjunctiva. B) cornea. C) iris. D) pupil. E) angle. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

54) The part of the eye that determines eye color is the A) conjunctiva. B) cornea. C) iris. D) pupil. E) scleral venous sinus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

55) The opening in the iris through which light passes is the A) conjunctiva. B) cornea. C) pupil. D) anterior chamber. E) posterior chamber. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

56) An area of the retina that contains only cones and is the site of sharpest vision is the A) outer segment. B) inner segment. C) fovea. D) optic disc. E) tapetum lucidum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

57) A ray of light entering the eye will encounter the following structures in which order? A) conjunctiva → cornea → aqueous humor → lens → vitreous body → retina B) vitreous body → retina → choroids → aqueous humor → lens → conjunctiva → cornea C) cornea → aqueous humor → vitreous body → lens → conjunctiva → choroids → retina D) conjunctiva → cornea → lens → aqueous humor → vitreous body → retina E) cornea → aqueous humor → conjunctiva → lens → vitreous body → retina → choroid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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58) The cornea is part of the A) iris. B) fibrous layer. C) neural layer. D) uvea. E) choroid. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

59) The gelatinous material that gives the eyeball its basic shape is the A) vitreous humor. B) aqueous humor. C) ora serrata. D) perilymph. E) posterior cavity. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

60) Pupillary muscle groups are controlled by the ANS. Parasympathetic activation causes pupillary ________, and sympathetic activation causes ________. A) dilation; constriction B) dilation; dilation C) constriction; dilation D) constriction; constriction E) vasoconstriction; vasoconstriction Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

61) Trace the circulation of aqueous humor from the site of production to the site of where it is reabsorbed. 1. posterior chamber 2. anterior chamber 3. ciliary body 4. scleral venous sinus 5. pupil A) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2 B) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4 C) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2 D) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 E) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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62) What structure regulates the amount of light that passes to the photoreceptors of the eye? A) vitreous body B) cornea C) ciliary muscle D) iris E) lens Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

63) The optic disc is a blind spot because A) there are no photoreceptors in that area. B) the retina lacks nerves in the optic disc. C) humans are unable to focus light on that area of the retina. D) the vitreous body is too thick in this area for the passage of light. E) the fovea prevents light from striking the optic disc. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

64) Modified sebaceous glands located along the margin of the eyelid that secrete a lipid -rich product are called ________ glands. A) carpal B) mucous C) optic D) ocular E) tarsal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

65) A(n) ________ is an infection in one of the glands on the eyelids. A) sty B) furuncle C) abscess D) lesion E) carbuncle Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

66) The abnormality that develops when a lens loses its transparency is known as A) glaucoma. B) myopia. C) macular degeneration. D) a cataract. E) Fuchʹs dystrophy. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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67) ________ cells connect photoreceptors to ganglion cells. A) Bipolar B) Ganglion C) Amacrine D) Cone E) Rod Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

68) Amacrine and ________ cells facilitate or inhibit communication between photoreceptors and ganglion cells. A) bipolar B) ganglion C) nuclear D) hair E) horizontal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

69) ________, or pinkeye, results from damage to or irritation of the conjunctival surface. A) Fuchʹs dystrophy B) Conjunctivitis C) Glaucoma D) Myopia E) Uveitis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 17-1 The Sectional Anatomy of the Eye Use Figure 17-1 to answer the following questions: 70) Identify the space labeled ʺ1.ʺ A) posterior cavity B) posterior chamber C) pupil D) anterior chamber E) vitreous chamber Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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71) Identify the structure labeled ʺ7.ʺ A) choroid B) optic disc C) sclera D) retina E) cornea Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

72) Which structure is commonly called the blind spot? A) 4 B) 10 C) 14 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

73) Identify the structure labeled ʺ12.ʺ A) pupil B) optic disc C) sclera D) fovea E) retina Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

74) Identify the structure labeled ʺ14.ʺ A) pupil B) optic disc C) sclera D) fovea E) suspensory ligaments Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

75) An abnormal blind spot appearing in vision is called a(n) A) astigmatism. B) cataract. C) scotoma. D) chalazion. E) sty. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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76) Light refraction takes place at the A) cornea and lens. B) lens only. C) optic disc. D) cornea and optic disc. E) cornea only. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

77) Which of the following is not true regarding image formation? A) The greatest amount of refraction occurs at the cornea. B) The focal distance must equal the distance between the center of the lens and the retina to form a sharp image. C) A round lens has a short focal distance. D) Images arrive at the retina upside down and reversed. E) To view a distant object the lens will become rounder. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

78) The visible spectrum for humans extends between a wavelength of A) 700 and 1000 nm. B) 100 and 200 nm. C) 200 and 400 nm. D) 2000 and 2500 nm. E) 400 and 700 nm. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

79) In the human eye, most refraction occurs when light passes through the A) iris. B) cornea. C) lens. D) aqueous humor. E) vitreous humor. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

80) The ciliary muscle contracts to A) control the amount of light reaching the retina. B) adjust the shape of the lens for distant vision. C) adjust the shape of the lens for near vision. D) control the production of aqueous humor. E) adjust the shape of the cornea. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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81) If your vision is 20/15, this means that you can see A) 20-point font at 15 feet. B) objects at 20 feet that individuals with normal eyesight can see at 15 feet. C) objects at 15 feet that individuals with eye problems see at 20 feet. D) all 15 eye chart letters from 20 feet. E) objects that are 20 feet or less away. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

82) During accommodation, the ciliary muscle ________ causing the ciliary body to move ________ and apply ________ tension on the lens. A) relaxes; toward the lens; more B) contracts; toward the lens; less C) contracts; away from the lens; more D) relaxes; inward; less E) contracts; away from the lens; less Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

83) When light encounters a medium of different density, it is A) refracted. B) diffracted. C) reflected. D) angled. E) absorbed. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

84) An irregularity in curvature in the cornea or lens, called ________, causes a reduction in visual acuity. A) astigmatism B) glaucoma C) a cataract D) macular degeneration E) corneal atrophy Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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85) A person suffering from ________ can see objects that are close, but distant objects appear blurred. A) myopia B) hyperopia C) emmetropia D) presbyopia E) diplopia Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

86) A person suffering from ________ can see distant objects more clearly than those that are close. A) myopia B) hyperopia C) emmetropia D) presbyopia E) diplopia Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

87) A type of farsightedness that results from a loss of lens elasticity with age is A) myopia. B) hyperopia. C) emmetropia. D) presbyopia. E) diplopia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

88) Old discs shed from rods and cones are phagocytosed by A) the outer segment. B) the inner segment. C) the pigment epithelium. D) the bipolar cells. E) the ganglion cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

89) Which of the following is not true about the resting state of rods? A) It is during darkness. B) Retinal is in 11-cis form. C) Gated sodium channels are open. D) Bleaching occurs. E) Membrane potential is around -40mV. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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90) Rods exposed to a phosphodiesterase inhibitor would A) remain in the resting state. B) return to resting membrane potential. C) break down rhodopsin. D) cause bleaching to occur. E) decrease neurotransmitter release. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

91) Dietary deficiency of vitamin A is likely to cause A) retinitis pigmentosa. B) color blindness. C) night blindness. D) retinal detachment. E) altered depth perception. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

92) A sudden increase of light into the eye would cause A) contraction of the sphincter pupillary muscles. B) contraction of the radial pupillary muscles. C) conversion of 11-trans to 11-cis retinal. D) an increase in the size of the pupil. E) parasympathetic stimulation to the pupil. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

93) In the light-adapted state, A) photoreceptors are much more sensitive to stimulation. B) photoreceptors are much less sensitive to stimulation. C) we can only see color, and not black and white. D) we would see better in the dark. E) colors are dull. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

94) Under which condition would the release of neurotransmitter by photoreceptors be greatest? A) under normal room light B) in a pitch-black room after 30 minutes C) immediately after going outside in bright sunlight D) focusing intently on a close object E) focusing intently on a distant object Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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95) There are three different types of cones, each one sensitive to different light energies. These cones are designated A) red, yellow, blue. B) red, green, blue. C) red, green, yellow. D) yellow, red, blue. E) red, white, blue. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

96) The cell of the retina that produces an action potential that goes to the brain is a(n) A) bipolar cell. B) photoreceptor. C) ganglion cell. D) amacrine cell. E) horizontal cell. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

97) When all three cone populations are stimulated equally, we perceive A) red. B) blue. C) green. D) white. E) black. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

98) The first step in the process of photoreception is A) the bleaching of rods. B) the bleaching of cones. C) absorption of a photon by a visual pigment. D) inhibition of the sodium pumps. E) release of neurotransmitter. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

99) Visual pigments are derivatives of the compound A) retinal. B) opsin. C) rhodopsin. D) transducin. E) cGMP. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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100) The following steps occur in rods when they are excited by photons of light. What is the proper sequence for these steps? 1. Membrane sodium channels close. 2. Increased phosphodiesterase breaks down cGMP. 3. Retinal changes from the 11-cis form to the 11-trans form. 4. The membrane hyperpolarizes and the rate of neurotransmitter release declines. 5. Opsin activates transducin. 6. Opsin activation occurs. A) 1, 6, 5, 2, 4, 3 B) 3, 6, 5, 2, 1, 4 C) 6, 3, 5, 2, 1, 4 D) 3, 6, 5, 1, 2, 4 E) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 2 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

101) A period of adjustment is required when moving from a dark room into bright light because A) the breakdown of rhodopsin to opsin occurs slowly. B) the lens requires time to accommodate dim light. C) rods exposed to strong light need time to regenerate rhodopsin. D) rhodopsin does not function in dim light. E) only cones function in dim light. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

102) Where are the visual pigments located in the rods and cones? A) in the inner segment of photoreceptors B) in mitochondria located in the outer segment C) inside membrane discs stacked in the outer segment D) inside a photosensitive nucleus E) sandwiched in the cell membrane of the photoreceptors Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

103) A young child has been diagnosed with a recessive hereditary disease that results in destruction of the lateral geniculate body. The result of this would be A) inability to change the focus with your lens. B) excessive light bouncing around within the posterior portion of the eyeball. C) total blindness. D) no production of rhodopsin. E) partial loss of vision. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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104) Photoreceptor cells that are most useful in dim light are A) rods. B) cones. C) amacrine cells. D) horizontal cells. E) bipolar cells. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

105) Photoreceptors that convey our ability to see color are A) rods. B) cones. C) amacrine cells. D) horizontal cells. E) bipolar cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

106) Color blindness is a(n) A) hereditary disease involving a lack of certain cones. B) nutritional disease related to a deficiency of vitamin A. C) progressive deterioration of the ganglion cells of the retina. D) inflammatory reaction causing damage to the photoreceptors. E) infection of the retina, resulting in destruction of the cones. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

107) Otitis media is A) an infection of the pinna. B) also known as swimmerʹs ear. C) an infection of the middle ear. D) an infection of semicircular canals. E) a ringing in the ears. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

108) Our inner ear is protected from very loud noises by A) the tensor tympani stiffening the tympanic membrane. B) the stapedius reducing movement of the stapes. C) the tensory tympani stiffening the tympanic membrane and the stapedius reducing movement of the stapes. D) cerumen in the auditory canal. E) contraction of the auditory tube. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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109) Between the bony and membranous labyrinth flows ________, while the membranous labyrinth contains ________. A) perilymph; endolymph B) endolymph; perilymph C) endolymph; air D) cerebrospinal fluid; perilymph E) perilymph; air Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

110) The vestibular complex includes the A) cochlea and organ of Corti. B) cochlea and tympanic membrane. C) vestibule and semicircular canals. D) vestibule and cochlea. E) auditory ossicles and oval window. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

111) Conflicting sensory information from visual and movement signals may cause A) ringing in the ears. B) temporary deafness. C) difficulty hearing low tones. D) motion sickness. E) enhanced hearing. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

112) Shaking your head ʺnoʺ will stimulate the hair cells of the A) anterior semicircular duct. B) lateral semicircular duct. C) posterior semicircular duct. D) utricle. E) saccule. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

113) Vertical movement is detected by which structure? A) ampullary crest of the lateral semicircular canal B) ampullary crest of the anterior semicircular canal C) ampullary crest of the posterior semicircular canal D) macula in the utricle E) macula in the saccule Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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114) The cochlear duct lies between which two structures? A) utricle and saccule B) vestibule and semicircular canals C) basilar and tectorial membranes D) scala vestibuli and scala tympani E) ganglion cells and the cochlear nerve Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

115) When the tympanic membrane vibrates with the same frequency as the incoming sound waves it is known as A) resonance. B) amplitude. C) pitch. D) hertz. E) cycles. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

116) As the stapes vibrates the oval window, pressure waves first begin A) in the endolymph of the scala vestibuli. B) in the endolymph of the scala tympani. C) in the perilymph of the scala vestibuli. D) in the perilymph of the scala tympani. E) in the endolymph of the cochlear duct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

117) Which structure of the brain does not receive any auditory input? A) superior olivary nucleus of the pons B) inferior colliculi of the midbrain C) auditory cortex of the temporal lobe D) medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus E) pineal gland of the epithalamus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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118) The ________ ear collects sounds waves and transmits them to the ________ ear, which contains auditory ossicles. A) inner; middle B) outer; middle C) outer; inner D) middle; inner E) superficial; deep Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

119) The external acoustic meatus ends at the A) tympanic membrane. B) auditory ossicles. C) cochlea. D) pinna. E) vestibule. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

120) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term basilar membrane? A) moves up and down due to currents in the perilymph B) transmits movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear C) supports the olfactory organ D) tiny duct necessary for the static sense of equilibrium E) covers over the oval window Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

121) The ________ convey(s) information about head position with respect to gravity. A) cochlea B) utricle C) ampulla D) saccule E) utricle and the saccule Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

122) A sound with a frequency of 12,000 hertz would A) be very loud. B) be barely audible. C) be high-pitched. D) be low-pitched. E) damage the tympanic membrane. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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123) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term otoliths? A) move up and down when the stapes moves back and forth B) transmit movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear C) bending these produces receptor potential in hair cells D) tiny weights necessary for the static sense of equilibrium E) seal the oval window Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

124) The auditory ossicles connect the A) tympanic membrane to the oval window. B) tympanic membrane to the round window. C) oval window to the round window. D) stapedius to the tympanic membrane. E) otitis to the media. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

125) The structure that forms the ʺroofʺ of the spiral organ is the A) basilar membrane. B) tectorial membrane. C) stapedius. D) perilymph. E) endolymph. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

126) The structure that supports the spiral organ is the A) tectorial membrane. B) basilar membrane. C) membranous labyrinth. D) vestibular duct. E) tympanic membrane. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

127) Gravity and linear acceleration are sensed in the A) semicircular canals. B) cochlea. C) scala tympani. D) saccule and utricle. E) spiral organ. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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128) The sensory receptors of the semicircular canals are located in the A) saccules. B) ampullary crest. C) perilymph. D) utricles. E) basilar membrane. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

129) The region of the ampulla that contains the receptors for rotational (dynamic) equilibrium are called A) utricles. B) ampullary crests. C) saccules. D) fovea. E) maculae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

130) The superficial hard part of the inner ear is called the ________ and contains ________. A) bony labyrinth; perilymph B) membranous labyrinth; perilymph C) membranous labyrinth; endolymph D) cochlea; perilymph E) bony labyrinth; endolymph Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

131) Movement of the endolymph in the semicircular canals A) produces a rushing sound. B) allows us to hear low tones. C) signals rotational movements. D) signals body position with respect to gravity. E) signals linear acceleration. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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132) The structure attached to the oval window that transmits vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear is the A) malleus. B) basilar membrane. C) incus. D) stapes. E) auditory tube. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

133) Low frequency sounds stimulate hair cells on which part of the basilar membrane? A) area close to the round window B) the entire membrane C) the distal end D) the middle region E) area close to the oval window Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

134) The energy from a pressure wave in the cochlear fluid is released by the bulging and stretching of the A) tectorial membrane. B) cochlear duct. C) round window. D) vestibular membrane. E) oval window. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

135) The function of the auditory tube is to A) help maintain equilibrium. B) amplify sounds. C) equalize air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane. D) redistribute endolymph after hearing a sound. E) provide a passageway for sound waves to enter the ear. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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136) Standing still in an elevator that suddenly lowers will stimulate receptors in the A) basilar membrane. B) spiral organ. C) semicircular canals. D) bony labyrinth. E) utricle and saccule. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

137) An infection that damages the vestibular nerve could result in a loss of A) hearing and equilibrium. B) olfaction. C) visual acuity. D) hearing. E) equilibrium. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

138) The hair cells of the utricle and saccule are clustered in A) ampullae. B) cristae. C) ampullary cupulae. D) maculae. E) otoconia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

139) The frequency of a perceived sound depends on A) the frequency of stereocilia vibration. B) the number of hair cells that are stimulated. C) which part of the cochlear duct is stimulated. D) the movement of perilymph in the cochlear duct. E) the frequency of vibration of the tectorial membrane. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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140) The following is a list of the steps that occur in the production of an auditory sensation. What is the proper sequence for these steps? 1. The pressure wave distorts the basilar membrane on its way to the round window. 2. Movement of the tympanic membrane causes displacement of the malleus. 3. Displacement of the stereocilia stimulates sensory neurons of the cochlear nerve. 4. Movement of the malleus causes movement of the incus and stapes. 5. Distortion of the basilar membrane forces the hair cells of the spiral organ to vibrate against the tectorial membrane. 6. Movement of the oval window establishes pressure waves in the perilymph of the scala vestibuli. A) 2, 4, 1, 6, 5, 3 B) 2, 4, 6, 3, 5, 1 C) 2, 1, 4, 6, 5, 3 D) 2, 4, 6, 1, 5, 3 E) 2, 5, 4, 6, 1, 3 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

141) Perception of gravity and linear acceleration depends on A) changes in the pressure exerted by the ampullary cupula on hair cells. B) vibrations of the tectorial membrane striking hair cells. C) the force exerted by otoliths on hair cells of the maculae. D) the movement of endolymph within the semicircular canals. E) the bending of hair cells in the ampullae. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

142) Sound waves are converted into mechanical movements by the A) auditory ossicles. B) cochlea. C) oval window. D) round window. E) tympanic membrane. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

143) The cell bodies of sensory neurons that innervate the hair cells of the cochlea form the ________ ganglion. A) vestibular B) spiral C) cochlear D) acoustic E) auditory Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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144) The vestibular nuclei at the boundary of the pons and the medulla function in all of the following except A) integrating the vestibular information arriving from each side of the head. B) relaying vestibular information to the cerebellum. C) relaying vestibular information to the cerebral cortex. D) sending commands to motor nuclei in the brain stem and spinal cord. E) sending information to the vestibular complex of the inner ear. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

145) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term stereocilia? A) move up and down when the stapes moves back and forth B) transmit movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear C) bending these produces receptor potential in hair cells D) tiny weights necessary for the static sense of equilibrium E) seal the oval window Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

146) The elevated ridges within the semicircular canals that support the hair cells are known as A) ampullary crests. B) maculae. C) canals. D) vestibules. E) otoliths. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

147) ________ fills the membranous labyrinth. A) Perilymph B) CSF C) Interstitial fluid D) Endolymph E) Blood Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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148) The ________ is a region of dense bone that surrounds and protects the membranous labyrinth. A) sella turcica B) ossicle C) auditory canal D) membranous labyrinth E) bony labyrinth Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

149) ________ is a fluid similar to cerebrospinal fluid that fills the space between the bony labyrinth and the membranous labyrinth. A) Perilymph B) Endoplasma C) Interstitial fluid D) Endolymph E) Blood Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

150) The hair cells of the cochlear duct are located in the A) spiral organ. B) ossicles. C) ampullary crest. D) utricle. E) saccule. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

151) ________ deafness results from conditions in the outer or middle ear that block the transfer of vibrations from the environment to the tympanic membrane or to the oval window. A) Sensory B) Nerve C) Conductive D) Mechanical E) Macular Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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152) ________ deafness occurs because of a problem in the cochlea or somewhere along the auditory pathway. A) Vibrational B) Nerve C) Conductive D) Mechanical E) Macular Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

153) Abnormal jumpy eye movements that may appear after brain stem or inner ear damage are called A) tinnitus. B) vertigo. C) strabismus. D) nystagmus. E) trismus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

154) ________ sensations inform us of the position of the head in space by monitoring gravity, linear acceleration, and rotation. A) Nociceptor B) Proprioceptor C) Olfactory D) Gustatory E) Vestibular Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

155) When you spin quickly, you may feel dizzy. Which component of the inner ear generates the sensations that can lead to this feeling? A) spiral organ B) maculae C) otoliths D) semicircular canals E) ossicles Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Figure 17-2 The Ear Use Figure 17-2 to answer the following questions: 156) Identify the structures labeled ʺ8.ʺ A) cochlea B) auditory ossicles C) auricle D) tympanic membrane E) vestibule Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

157) Which structure contains the receptors for hearing? A) 6 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10 E) 11 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 17  The Special Senses   571

158) Which structure is known as the vestibule? A) 6 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10 E) 11 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

159) Identify the structure that is called the pinna or auricle. A) 1 B) 5 C) 6 D) 8 E) 9 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

160) Identify the structure labeled ʺ3.ʺ A) cochlea B) semicircular canals C) auricle D) tympanic membrane E) vestibule Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Choose the correct word from each pairing: The lacrimal gland is located (inferior, superior) and (lateral, medial) to the eye. (Figure 17 -4) A) inferior; lateral B) inferior; medial C) superior; lateral D) superior; medial Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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2) Amacrine cells are found where what other types of cells synapse? Horizontal cells are found where what other types of cells synapse? (Figure 17-7) A) bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells; photoreceptors synapse with bipolar cells B) photoreceptors synapse with bipolar cells; bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells C) photoreceptors synapse with ganglion cells; bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells D) horizontal cells synapse with photoreceptors; amacrine cells synapse with ganglion cells E) horizontal cells synapse with bipolar cells; amacrine cells synapse with bipolar cells Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) The tympanic cavity and auditory ossicles are found in which anatomical region of the ear? (Figure 17-21) A) external ear B) middle ear C) internal ear D) temporal ear E) vestibule of ear Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) The scala vestibuli and scala tympani contain a different fluid than the cochlear duct. What type of fluid does each chamber contain? (Figure 17-28) A) The scala vestibuli and scala tympani contain vitreous humor; the cochlear duct contains aqueous humor. B) The scala vestibuli and scala tympani contain aqueous humor; the cochlear duct contains vitreous humor. C) The scala vestibuli and scala tympani contain perilymph, the cochlear duct contains endolymph. D) The scala vestibuli and scala tympani contain endolymph, the cochlear duct contains perilymph. E) The scala vestibuli and scala tympani contain CSF; the cochlear duct contains otoliths. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

Essay Questions 1) Robbie has been diagnosed with pigmentary glaucoma. In this type of glaucoma, pigment granules from the iris break off into the aqueous humor. Describe the steps of aqueous humor formation, circulation, and drainage and how glaucoma may develop. Answer: The epithelial cells of the ciliary processes of the ciliary body produce aqueous humor. It is secreted into the posterior chamber then flows into the anterior chamber through the pupil. After filtering through connective tissues at the base of the iris it enters the scleral venous sinus into veins in the sclera. If pigment pieces block the scleral venous sinus canal the fluid that is continuously produced cannot drain at the same rate and intraocular pressure will increase causing glaucoma. Learning Outcome: 17-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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2) Sallyʹs driverʹs license indicates that she must wear glasses when she drives. She does not need glasses to see objects that are close. What type of lenses is in Sallyʹs eyeglasses? How do they work? Answer: Sally is apparently nearsighted (myopic) and needs diverging lenses to correct the condition by moving the focal distance back in the eye to the retina. Learning Outcome: 17-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

3) Trace the pathway of a nerve impulse from the eye to the cortex. Answer: ganglion cell → optic nerve (cranial nerve I) through optic chiasm → lateral geniculate nucleus of thalamus → primary visual cortex (occipital lobe) Learning Outcome: 17-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

4) What six basic steps are involved in the process of hearing? Answer: (1) Sound waves arrive at the tympanic membrane. (2) Movement of the tympanic membrane causes displacement of the auditory ossicles. (3) Movement of the stapes at the oval window establishes pressure waves in the perilymph of the vestibular duct. (4) The pressure waves distort the basilar membrane on their way to the round window of the tympanic duct. (5) Vibration of the basilar membrane causes vibration of hair cells and bending of stereocilia against the tectorial membrane. (6) Information about the region and intensity of stimulation is relayed to the brain stem over the cochlear branch of N VIII. Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

5) Each of the special senses can be expected to decline in some way over time. Describe some of the changes commonly seen in the function of the special senses with age. Answer: Olfactory receptors are reduced in number and olfactory glands decline in activity. Both changes reduce olfactory acuity. Gustatory sense declines with a decline in the number of taste buds and taste receptors. Vision suffers from a loss of retinal function, clouding of lens and cornea, and loss of lens elasticity, leading to senile hyperopia (presbyopia). Hearing declines due to accumulation of cerumen, scarring of the tympanum, arthritis of the ossicular chain, and loss of proximal hair cells in the organ of Corti, leading to high-tone deafness. Balance declines due to nerve problems, fluid problems, and vascular problems, leading to faulty or delayed vestibular information. That decline coupled with a sluggish and weak motor response increases the risk of falls and consequent trauma. Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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6) How would blockage of the auditory (Eustachian) tube at its exit in the nasopharynx by lymphatic tissue (ʺadenoidsʺ) affect ear function and health? Answer: Blockage of the auditory tube leads to pain because pressure cannot equilibrate between the middle ear and the atmosphere. Also, fluid can accumulate (otitis media) in the middle ear, which is also painful and potentially infective. Untreated, adenoids can lead to scarring of the tympanum and some loss of hearing. Learning Outcome: 17-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 18 The Endocrine System Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is true of the endocrine system? A) It responds rapidly to stimuli. B) It responds specifically to digestive stimuli. C) It communicates by the release of neurotransmitters. D) It responds with motor output. E) It responds slowly but effectively for maintaining homeostatic functions. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) Endocrine cells A) are a type of nerve cell. B) release their secretions onto an epithelial surface. C) release their secretions directly into body fluids such as blood. D) contain few vesicles. E) are modified connective tissue cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) ________ are chemical messengers that are released by cells and transported in the bloodstream to alter the activities of specific cells in other tissues. A) Hormones B) Neuropeptides C) Neurotransmitters D) Humoral antibodies E) Antigens Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) A hormone might A) alter a membrane channel by changing its shape, thereby affecting what can go through it. B) depolarize a skeletal muscle cell. C) interfere with norepinephrine at a neuronal synapse. D) inactivate glucose so it cannot be used by a cell. E) block the production of a cell membrane. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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5) Which of the following is not true regarding target cells? A) They have receptors for a specific hormone. B) They can be anywhere in the body. C) They are associated with synapses. D) They can respond to more than one hormone if they have receptors for each one. E) If a target cell lacks receptors for a hormone then it cannot bind that hormone. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

6) Hormones known as ʺcatecholaminesʺ are A) lipids. B) peptides. C) steroids. D) derivatives of the amino acid tyrosine. E) derivatives of reproductive glands. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) Peptide hormones are A) composed of amino acids. B) produced by the adrenal glands. C) derived from the amino acid tyrosine. D) lipids. E) chemically related to cholesterol. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) A kinase is an enzyme that performs A) phosphorylation. B) as a membrane channel. C) active transport. D) protein synthesis. E) as an antibody. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

9) Calcium ions serve as messengers, often in combination with the intracellular protein A) calcitonin. B) calcitriol. C) calmodulin. D) calcium-binding globulin. E) calcitropin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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10) Which of the following substances activates protein kinases and thus acts as a second messenger? A) insulin B) ACTH C) epinephrine D) cyclic AMP E) TSH Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

11) All of the following are true of steroid hormones except that they A) are produced by the adrenal medulla. B) are derived from cholesterol. C) are produced by reproductive glands. D) bind to receptors within the cell. E) are lipids. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

12) Each of the following hormones is an amino acid derivative except A) epinephrine. B) norepinephrine. C) thyroid hormone. D) testosterone. E) melatonin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

13) Membrane receptors are used by which of the following types of hormones? A) catecholamines B) peptide hormones C) eicosanoids D) thyroid E) catecholamines, peptide hormones, and eicosanoids Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

14) Steroid hormones A) are proteins. B) cannot diffuse through cell membranes. C) bind to receptors in the nucleus of their target cells. D) act on target cells by activating second messenger cascades. E) are transported in the blood dissolved in the plasma. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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15) When a catecholamine or peptide hormone binds to receptors on the surface of a cell, the A) hormone receptor complex moves into the cytoplasm. B) cell membrane becomes depolarized. C) second messenger appears in the cytoplasm. D) cell becomes inactive. E) hormone is transported to the nucleus where it alters the activity of DNA. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

16) Hormones can be divided into different groups based on their chemistry. These categories include all of the following except A) peptides. B) steroids. C) eicosanoids. D) amino acid derivatives. E) acetylcholine derivatives. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

17) Hormonal actions on cells affect all of the following except A) quantities of enzymes. B) activities of enzymes. C) synthesis of enzymes. D) gating of ion channels. E) thickness of the plasma membrane. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

18) The link between a first messenger and a second messenger in a cell that responds to peptide hormones is usually A) cAMP. B) cGMP. C) adenyl cyclase. D) a G protein. E) calcium ion levels. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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19) When adenyl cyclase is activated, A) ATP is consumed. B) cAMP is formed. C) cAMP is broken down. D) ATP is produced. E) ATP is consumed and cAMP is formed. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

20) After a steroid hormone binds to its receptor to form an active complex, A) adenyl cyclase is activated. B) cyclic nucleotides are formed. C) G proteins are phosphylated. D) gene transcription is initiated. E) protein kinases are activated. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

21) The humoral control of hormone release may be triggered which of the following factors? A) blood level of an ion like calcium B) blood level of a pituitary hormone C) blood level of a hypothalamic hormone D) nervous stimuli E) neurotransmitter activation Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

22) Which of the following hormones is/are water soluble and therefore bind(s) to extracellular receptors? A) insulin B) epinephrine C) cortisol D) calcitriol E) insulin and epinephrine Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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23) If the adenyl cyclase activity of liver cells were missing, which of these hormones could no longer stimulate release of glucose? A) progesterone B) glucagon C) cortisol D) thyroxine E) leptin Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

24) Increased activity of phosphodiesterase in a target cell would decrease its level of A) testosterone. B) estrogen. C) thyroid hormone. D) cAMP. E) progesterone. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

25) The intracellular protein ________ binds calcium ion. This complex can then activate enzymes. A) prostaglandin B) phosphodiesterase C) cyclic AMP D) calmodulin E) kinase Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

26) Receptors for ________, peptide hormones, and eicosanoids are found in the cell membranes of target cells. A) catecholamines B) carbohydrates C) kinases D) genes E) acetylcholine Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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27) Cells that respond to a hormone are called ________ cells. A) stem B) pluripotent C) germ D) target E) peripheral Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

28) One cause for insulin resistance in non-insulin dependent (Type II) diabetes is A) insulin receptor up-regulation. B) decreased insulin secretion. C) decreased cortisol secretion. D) insulin receptor down-regulation. E) cortisol receptor up-regulation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

29) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the second-messenger mechanism of hormone action? A) Hormone effects are amplified. B) G proteins and cAMP are used. C) Receptors are on the cell surface. D) Cellular operations are altered by direct stimulation of a gene. E) Kinases may phosphorylate proteins. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

30) Upon binding of a single first messenger to a plasma membrane, thousands of second messengers may become activated. This effect is known as A) receptor down-regulation. B) receptor up-regulation. C) amplification. D) humoral stimuli. E) synergism. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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582   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

31) Intracellular calcium stores open in response to intracellular activation of A) protein kinase C, diacylglycerol, and inositol triphosphate. B) calmodulin. C) leukotrienes. D) adenylate cyclase. E) phosphodiesterase, adenylate cyclase, and prostacyclins. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

32) Leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and thromboxanes are all examples of A) amino acid derivatives. B) eicosanoids. C) tyrosine derivatives. D) glycoproteins. E) steroid hormones. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

33) Which hormone is not correctly matched? A) epinephrine: amino acid derivative B) insulin: peptide hormone C) testosterone: amino acid derivative D) cortisol: lipid derivative E) eicosanoids: lipid derivative Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

34) The hypothalamus acts as both a neural and a(n) ________ organ. A) endocrine B) cardiovascular C) renal D) muscular E) hepatic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

35) The most complex endocrine responses involve the A) thyroid gland. B) pancreas. C) adrenal glands. D) hypothalamus. E) thymus gland. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 18  The Endocrine System   583

36) Destruction of the supra-optic nucleus of the hypothalamus would have which of the following results? A) loss of ADH secretion B) loss of GH secretion C) loss of melatonin secretion D) loss of thyroid stimulating hormone secretion E) loss of prolactin secretion Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

37) If the hypophyseal portal system is destroyed, the hypothalamus would no longer be able to control the secretion of which of the following hormones? A) TSH B) ACTH C) PRL D) ADH and OXT E) TSH, ACTH, PRL Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

38) Changes in blood osmotic pressure would most affect the secretion of A) ACTH. B) ADH. C) oxytocin. D) TSH. E) LH. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

39) The hypothalamus controls secretion in the adenohypophysis by A) direct neural stimulation. B) indirect osmotic control. C) secreting releasing and inhibiting hormones into the hypophysealportal system. D) altering ion concentrations and pH in the anterior pituitary. E) gap synaptic junctions. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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584   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

40) Neurons of the supra-optic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus manufacture A) CRF and GnRH. B) TSH and FSH. C) ADH and oxytocin. D) FSH and PRL. E) GHIH and GHRH. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

41) The main action of antidiuretic hormone is A) increased water conservation by kidneys. B) to stimulate kidney cells to secrete renin. C) increase urine output to remove excess fluid. D) increased blood pressure by increased Na+ reabsorption. E) inhibition of aldosterone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

42) Excess secretion of growth hormone during early development will cause A) dwarfism. B) rickets. C) gigantism. D) acromegaly. E) diabetes insipidus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

43) Which of the following hormones may lead to acromegaly if hypersecreted after closure of the epiphyseal plates? A) cortisol B) parathyroid hormone C) insulin D) growth hormone E) epinephrine Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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44) The hormone produced by the pars intermedia of the adenohypophysis during early childhood is A) FSH. B) ADH. C) TSH. D) MSH. E) ACTH. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

45) Each of the following hormones is produced by the pars distalis of the adenohypophysis except A) FSH. B) oxytocin. C) TSH. D) corticotropin. E) somatotropin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

46) All of the following are true of oxytocin except? A) It promotes uterine contractions. B) It is responsible for milk expression from the mammary glands. C) It triggers prostate gland contraction. D) It is produced in the hypothalamus. E) It is stored in the anterior pituitary. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

47) Growth hormone does all of the following except A) promote bone growth. B) promote muscle growth. C) promote cortisol release. D) spare glucose. E) promote amino acid uptake by cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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586   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

48) Liver cells respond to growth hormone by releasing hormones called A) gonadotrophins. B) prostaglandins. C) hepatic hormones. D) somatomedins. E) glucocorticoids. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

49) The pituitary hormone that triggers the release of thyroid hormone from the thyroid gland is A) TSH. B) ACTH. C) FSH. D) LH. E) GH. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

50) The pituitary hormone that controls the release of glucocorticoids from the adrenal cortex is A) TSH. B) ACTH. C) FSH. D) LH. E) GH. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

51) The pituitary hormone that promotes egg development in ovaries and sperm development in testes is A) TSH. B) ACTH. C) FSH. D) LH. E) GH. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 18  The Endocrine System   587

52) The pituitary hormone that promotes ovarian secretion of progesterone and testicular secretion of testosterone is A) TSH. B) ACTH. C) FSH. D) LH. E) GH. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

53) The pituitary hormone that stimulates milk production by the mammary glands is A) TSH. B) ACTH. C) growth hormone. D) FSH. E) prolactin. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

54) The pituitary hormone that stimulates cell growth and replication by accelerating protein synthesis is A) ACTH. B) MSH. C) prolactin. D) insulin. E) growth hormone. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

55) After brain surgery, a patient receiving postoperative care in an intensive care unit began to pass large volumes of very dilute urine. The ICU nurse administered a medicine that mimics one of the following hormones. Which one? A) aldosterone B) epinephrine C) renin D) ADH E) cortisol Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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588   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

56) The term used to describe excess production of urine is A) polyuria. B) polydipsia. C) hematuria. D) glycosuria. E) polyphagia. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

57) The two lobes of the pituitary gland together produce or store how many hormones? A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9 E) 16 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

58) The hormone(s) that may be slowly administered by intravenous drip to accelerate labor and delivery is/are A) oxytocin. B) prolactin. C) luteinizing hormone. D) follicle stimulating hormone. E) both oxytocin and luteinizing hormone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

59) The posterior lobe of the pituitary is also known as the A) basal ganglion. B) infundibulum. C) adenohypophysis. D) mesencephalon. E) neurohypophysis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

60) The anterior lobe of the pituitary is also known as the A) basal ganglion. B) infundibulum. C) adenohypophysis. D) mesencephalon. E) neurohypophysis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 18  The Endocrine System   589

61) The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland can be divided into three parts: the pars distalis, the pars intermedia, and the pars A) tuberalis. B) nervosa. C) pinea. D) intermedia. E) magnus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

62) Hormones produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland that regulate the male and female reproductive organs are collectively called A) tropic hormones. B) androgens. C) somatotropins. D) immunogens. E) gonadotropins. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

63) Abnormally low production of LH and FSH results in A) diabetes insipidus. B) a diabetogenic effect. C) hypogonadism. D) a glucose-sparing effect. E) hypocortisolism. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

64) Vasopressin is a common term for this hormone. A) ADH B) GH C) oxytocin D) prolactin E) TSH Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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590   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

65) The pituitary gland is located within this structure. A) the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone B) hypoglossal canal C) crista galli D) sella turcica of the sphenoid bone E) petrous part of the temporal bone Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

66) Milk production is stimulated by ________, milk ejection is stimulated by ________. A) somatomedin; MSH B) prolactin; oxytocin C) oxytocin; prolactin D) MSH; somatomedin E) LH; FSH Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

67) All of the following are functions of LH except A) triggering ovulation. B) stimulating secretion of testosterone. C) stimulating the formation of the corpus luteum. D) stimulating the secretion of progesterone. E) stimulating follicle development. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

68) A tumor in the pituitary gland could directly result in all of the following except A) hypercortisolism. B) pituitary dwarfism. C) diabetes insipidus. D) gigantism. E) hypogonadism. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

69) Hormones that stimulate endocrine glands to release other hormones are A) humoral. B) tropic. C) reflexive. D) up-regulators. E) paracrine factors. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 18  The Endocrine System   591

70) Hypophyseal portal system capillaries are A) lined by tight junctions. B) lined by microglial cells. C) fenestrated. D) impermeable. E) lined by podocytes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 18-1 Pituitary Hormones and Their Targets Use Figure 18-1 to answer the following questions: 71) Identify the hormone labeled ʺ4.ʺ A) thyroid-releasing hormone B) thyroid-stimulating hormone C) thyroxin D) thyrotropin E) calcitonin Answer: B

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592   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

72) Identify the hormone labeled ʺ1.ʺ A) mineralocorticoid B) cortisol C) dopamine D) ACTH E) aldosterone Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

73) A deficiency of which hormone can lead to diabetes insipidus? A) 3 B) 7 C) 2 D) 8 E) 14 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

74) Identify the hormone labeled ʺ5.ʺ A) thyroid-releasing hormone B) thyroid-stimulating hormone C) thyroxine D) thyrotropin E) parathyroid hormone (PTH) Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

75) Identify the hormone labeled ʺ13.ʺ A) LH B) progesterone C) estrogen D) oxytocin E) testosterone Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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76) Which of the following elements is necessary for the production of thyroid hormone? A) sodium B) iodine C) potassium D) iron E) colloid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

77) Activity of which of the following cells is inhibited by calcitonin release? A) alpha cells B) osteoclasts C) osteoblasts D) C cells E) all cells in the body Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

78) All of the following are known effects of thyroid hormone on peripheral tissues  except A) increased oxygen consumption. B) increased heart rate. C) increased sensitivity to autonomic stimulation. D) increased body temperature. E) decreased cellular metabolism. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

79) Mental and physical sluggishness and low body temperature may be signs of A) hyperthyroidism. B) hypothyroidism. C) hyperparathyroidism. D) hypoparathyroidism. E) diabetes insipidus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

80) The hormone that plays a pivotal role in setting the metabolic rate and thus impacting body temperature is A) somatotropin. B) thyroxine. C) calcitonin. D) parathyroid hormone. E) glucagon. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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81) A hormone that can lower blood levels of calcium ion is A) parathyroid hormone. B) thyroxine. C) calcitonin. D) glucagon. E) oxytocin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

82) The C cells of the thyroid gland produce A) thyroxine. B) TSH. C) calcitonin. D) PTH. E) triiodothyronine. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

83) Increased levels of the hormone ________ will lead to decreased levels of calcium ion in the blood via inhibition of ________. A) thymosin; osteocytes B) calcitonin; osteoclasts C) PTH; osteocytes D) aldosterone; osteoclasts E) cortisol; osteoblasts Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

84) Where does the chemical reaction between thyroglobulin and iodine take place? A) in lysosomes B) in rough endoplasmic reticulum C) in the follicle cavity D) in pinocytotic vesicles E) in apical microvilli Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

85) TSH plays a key role in the ________ of thyroid hormones. A) inhibition B) synthesis C) release D) inhibition and secretion E) synthesis and release Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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86) The control of calcitonin excretion is an example of direct ________ regulation. A) endocrine B) pancreatic C) homeostatic D) hepatic E) vascular Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

87) Thyroxine and calcitonin are secreted by the A) kidneys. B) heart. C) thyroid gland. D) gonads. E) pituitary gland. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

88) Which of the following is not an action of TSH? A) stimulates T3  and T 4  secretion B) stimulates iodide trapping by thyroid follicle cells C) inhibits T3  and T 4  secretion D) stimulates pinocytosis of colloid by thyroid follicle cells E) increases cyclic AMP concentration within thyroid follicle cells Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

89) The two lobes of the thyroid gland are connected by the A) isthmus. B) pars intermedia. C) commissure. D) aqueduct. E) infundibulum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

90) The thyroid gland is composed of many ________ that produce and store thyroid hormone. A) tubules B) follicles C) ducts D) capillaries E) plexuses Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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91) Thyroid hormones are structural derivatives of the amino acid A) glutamic acid. B) epinephrine. C) iodine. D) tyrosine. E) glycine. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

92) The specific target cells of the thyroid hormones, thyroxine and triiodothyronine are A) the cells of the parathyroid glands. B) the cells of the pituitary gland. C) all cells of the body. D) the cells of the ovaries and testes. E) the cells of the thymus gland. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

93) Follicle cells synthesize a protein called A) calcitonin. B) thyroglobulin. C) transthyretin. D) albumin. E) colloid. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

94) The majority of thyroid hormones are secreted as ________ but small amounts of ________ is also secreted from the follicle. A) transthyretin; calcitonin B) T3; calcitonin C) T4; T3 D) thyroglobulin; transthyretin E) calcitonin; colloid Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

95) Thyroid hormone may increase cellular ATP production by binding to A) the cytoplasm. B) the outer surface of the plasma membrane. C) the inner surface of the plasma membrane. D) the mitochondria. E) the vesicles. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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96) If dietary iodine levels are deficient you would expect that plasma TSH levels would be ________ and that plasma thyroxine levels would be ________. A) high; low B) low; high C) unchanged; low D) low; unchanged E) low; low Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

97) Before the discovery of these glands, thyroid surgery often led to a rapid drop in blood calcium levels, which triggered muscle contractions and cardiac arrhythmias. What glands are these and which hormone is lacking? A) thyroid glands; calcitonin B) parathyroid glands; calcitonin C) parathyroid glands; parathyroid hormone D) thyroid glands; levothyroxine E) parathyroid glands; levothyroxine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

98) Parathyroid hormone does all of the following except A) stimulate osteoclast activity. B) inhibit osteoblast activity. C) build up bone. D) stimulate the formation and secretion of calcitriol at the kidneys. E) enhance the reabsorption of calcium at the kidneys. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

99) The hormone that does the opposite of calcitonin is A) insulin. B) glucagon. C) growth hormone. D) parathyroid hormone. E) thyroid hormone. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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100) The parathyroid glands produce a hormone that A) stimulates the formation of white blood cells. B) increases the level of calcium ions in the blood. C) increases the level of sodium ions in the blood. D) increases the level of potassium ions in the blood. E) increases the level of glucose in the blood. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

101) A tumor present on the parathyroid gland causing hyperparathyroidism may lead to A) osteoporosis and kidney stones. B) diabetes mellitus and hypercortisolism. C) diabetes mellitus. D) diabetes insipidus. E) hypogonadism. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

102) The zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex produces A) androgens. B) glucocorticoids. C) mineralocorticoids. D) epinephrine. E) norepinephrine. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

103) The zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex produces A) androgens. B) glucocorticoids. C) mineralocorticoids. D) epinephrine. E) norepinephrine. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

104) The zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex produces A) androgens. B) glucocorticoids. C) mineralocorticoids. D) epinephrine. E) norepinephrine. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 18  The Endocrine System   599

105) The adrenal medulla produces A) androgens. B) glucocorticoids. C) mineralocorticoids. D) catecholamines. E) corticosteroids. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

106) A hormone that promotes gluconeogenesis in the liver is A) aldosterone. B) erythropoietin. C) thymosin. D) cortisol. E) calcitonin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

107) A hormone that helps to regulate the sodium ion content of the body is A) cortisol. B) parathormone. C) thymosin. D) somatotropin. E) aldosterone. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

108) Cushingʹs disease results from an excess of A) growth hormone. B) parathyroid hormone. C) ADH. D) glucocorticoids. E) epinephrine. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

109) Reduction of fluid losses at the kidneys due to the retention of Na +  is the action of A) antidiuretic hormone. B) calcitonin. C) aldosterone. D) cortisone. E) oxytocin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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600   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

110) The adrenal medulla produces the hormones A) synephrine and neosynephrine. B) epinephrine and norepinephrine. C) corticosterone and testosterone. D) androgens and progesterone. E) cortisone and cortisol. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

111) Damage to cells of the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex would result in A) the loss of axillary and pubic hair. B) increased volume of urine formation. C) decreased levels of sodium ion in the blood. D) decreased ability to convert amino acids to glucose. E) increased water retention. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

112) A rise in cortisol would cause an increase in each of the following except A) the rate of glucose synthesis by the liver. B) the rate of glycogen formation by the liver. C) the level of fatty acids in the blood. D) fatty acid metabolism by muscle cells. E) ACTH levels. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

113) If a patient is administered a powerful glucocorticoid (such as prednisone) to suppress the immune system, what unintended effects might this have on blood chemistry? A) increase of sodium B) decrease of sodium C) increase of blood glucose D) decrease of blood glucose E) both an increase in insulin and an increase in glucose Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

114) Hyposecretion of cortisol causes A) goiter. B) diabetes mellitus. C) diabetes insipidus. D) Addisonʹs disease. E) Cushingʹs disease. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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115) A hormone that is synergistic to growth hormone is A) aldosterone. B) insulin. C) cortisol. D) calcitonin. E) renin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

116) Which of the following hormones increases and prolongs effects of the sympathetic nervous system? A) cortisol B) parathyroid hormone C) insulin D) growth hormone E) acetylcholine Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

117) Which gland is called the ʺemergency glandʺ and helps the body adjust to stress? A) thyroid B) adrenal (suprarenal) C) pituitary D) pancreas E) thymus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

118) Which group of hormones cause an anti-inflammatory action? A) thyroglobulins B) mineralocorticoids C) pancreatic hormones D) antidiuretic hormones E) glucocorticoids Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

119) Hormones from the adrenal cortex that regulate electrolyte balance are A) antidiuretics. B) calcitonin and parathyroid hormone. C) mineralocorticoids. D) androgens. E) glucocorticoids. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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120) During dehydration the body would increase production of A) aldosterone and cortisol. B) cortisol and ADH. C) epinephrine and cortisol. D) aldosterone and ADH. E) epinephrine and ADH. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

121) Which hormone may be prescribed in chronic inflammatory disorders such as Lupus? A) aldosterone B) cortisol C) androgens D) calcitonin E) insulin Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

122) The adrenal medulla primarily secretes A) epinephrine. B) norepinephrine. C) dopamine. D) cortisol. E) aldosterone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

123) Excess production of hormones by the zona reticularis may lead to which disorder? A) aldosteronism B) gigantism C) pheochromocytoma D) adrenogenital syndrome E) Cushingʹs disease Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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124) A patient is receiving exogenous cortisol in the form of hydrocortisone shots for a sinus infection. Their natural adrenal secretion of cortisol will decrease due to negative feedback on the ________ reducing the secretion of ________. A) hypothalamus; ACTH B) anterior pituitary; CRH C) hypothalamus; cortisol D) anterior pituitary; cortisol E) anterior pituitary; ACTH Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

125) Which of the following is false concerning melatonin? A) Exposure to light inhibits production. B) Exposure to light stimulates production. C) It inhibits releases of GnRH. D) It is produced by pinealocytes. E) It is made from serotonin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

126) Melatonin is produced by the A) thymus. B) pineal gland. C) kidneys. D) skin. E) heart. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

127) Each of the following is true of the pineal gland except that it A) is a component of the epithalamus. B) is a component of the hypothalamus. C) secretes melatonin. D) contains pinealocytes. E) responds to light and darkness. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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604   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

128) The condition known as seasonal affective disorder (SAD) may be caused by A) increased levels of melanin. B) increased levels of melatonin. C) increased levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone. D) increased levels of gonadotrophins. E) decreased levels of testosterone. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

129) All of the following may be functions of melatonin except that it A) can act as an antioxidant. B) protects against free-radicals. C) may maintain circadian rhythms. D) can act as an insulin synergist. E) may influence sexual maturation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

130) Alpha cells are to ________ as beta cells are to ________. A) glucagon; insulin B) somatostatin; insulin C) insulin; glucagon D) glucagon; somatostatin E) pancreatic polypeptide; insulin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

131) If a diabetic patient received too much insulin, the low blood sugar could be corrected by injecting A) glucagon. B) GHIH. C) thyroid hormone. D) aldosterone. E) antidiuretic hormone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

132) The pancreatic hormone that causes blood sugar levels to fall is A) cortisol. B) somatotropin. C) insulin. D) glucagon. E) aldosterone. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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133) In persons with untreated diabetes mellitus all of the following are true, except A) blood glucose levels are very high. B) excessive thirst is shown. C) glucose is present in the urine in large amounts. D) a large excretion of urine occurs. E) intracellular and tissue levels of glucose is very high. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

134) Which of the following might occur in an overdose of insulin? A) glycosuria B) ketoacidosis C) high blood glucose D) low blood glucose E) polyuria Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

135) Which of the following statements is true about the pancreas? A) The pancreas lies over the top of the stomach. B) The sole function of the pancreas is to produce hormones. C) The pituitary gland produces stimulating hormones that control the pancreas. D) The islets contain a variety of different cells producing different hormones. E) The pancreas stores glucose, which can be released into the blood. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

136) When blood glucose levels fall, A) insulin is released. B) glucagon is released. C) peripheral cells take up more glucose. D) protein synthesis increases. E) calcitonin is secreted. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

137) The beta cells of the pancreatic islets produce A) insulin. B) glucagon. C) somatostatin. D) cortisol. E) peptide P. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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606   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

138) The delta cells of the pancreatic islets produce A) insulin. B) glucagon. C) somatostatin. D) cortisol. E) peptide P. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

139) Type II diabetes is characterized by A) a lack of response by target cells to insulin. B) a decrease in secretion by pancreatic beta cells. C) excessive secretion of glucagon. D) inadequate insulin production. E) low blood-glucose concentration. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

140) Which of the following hormones stimulates skeletal muscle fibers to take in glucose from the blood? A) calcitonin B) cortisol C) insulin D) glucagon E) parathyroid hormone Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

141) Which of the following directly regulates the secretion of insulin? A) parasympathetic nervous system B) sympathetic nervous system C) blood glucose concentration D) hypothalamus E) tropic hormones from the pituitary gland Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

142) All of the pancreatic hormones are regulated by A) the adenohypophysis. B) the liver. C) the neurohypophysis. D) the thyroid gland. E) nutrient concentrations in the blood. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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143) Cells in the brain A) can absorb glucose without insulin stimulation. B) prefer fats to glucose for energy production. C) are sensitive to insulin but not to glucagon. D) are very sensitive to high concentrations of glucagon. E) can store glycogen, to be used later for glucose release. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

144) Inability of the pancreas to produce insulin results in A) acromegaly. B) goiter. C) diabetes mellitus. D) diabetes insipidus. E) Addisonʹs disease. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

145) Which problem is related to untreated diabetes mellitus? A) damage to the retina B) neuropathy C) gastric ulcers D) goiter E) retinal problems and nerve problems Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

146) Type 2 diabetes A) can usually be controlled by diet and exercise rather than with medication. B) is associated with an immune reaction to the pancreatic cells. C) is a lack of insulin production. D) is typically diagnosed in the very young. E) is not as common as type 1 diabetes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

147) Which hormone is not produced by the pancreas? A) glucagon B) pancreatic polypeptide C) somatostatin D) calcitriol E) insulin Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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608   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

148) At about 4pm in the afternoon, you could expect that ________ will be released if you have not eaten since 12pm. A) insulin B) glucagon C) melatonin D) pancreatic polypeptide E) insulin and glucagon Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

149) Which of the following is not true regarding Type 1 Diabetes? A) pancreatic destruction of beta cells B) need insulin injections or infusion C) tissues exhibit insulin resistance D) accounts for only about 5% of cases of diabetes E) usually diagnosed in children or young adults Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

150) Poorly managed diabetes can adversely affect which organ(s)? A) kidneys B) eyes C) heart and blood vessels D) nerves E) kidneys, eyes, nerves, heart and blood vessels Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

151) The interstitial endocrine cells of the testes produce A) LH. B) progesterone. C) testosterone. D) inhibin. E) FSH. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

152) Follicle cells in the ovary secrete ________ when stimulated by FSH. A) estrogen B) progesterone C) testosterone D) inhibin E) gonadotropins Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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153) A structure known as the corpus luteum secretes A) testosterone. B) progesterone. C) aldosterone. D) cortisone. E) androstenedione. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

154) The hormone that opposes the release of FSH in both males and females is A) testosterone. B) LH. C) inhibin. D) aldosterone. E) somatostatin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

155) The hormones that are important for coordinating the immune response are A) thymosins. B) corticosteroids. C) aldosterones. D) thyroxines. E) somatotropins. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

156) Which of the following hormones increases production of red blood cells? A) cortisol B) erythropoietin C) thymosin D) aldosterone E) atrial natriuretic peptide Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

157) Cholecalciferol is synthesized within the A) bone marrow of the skeletal system. B) splenic pulp of the lymphatic system. C) endothelial linings of the cardiovascular system. D) hypothalamus of the nervous system. E) epidermis of the integumentary system. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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610   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

158) The heart secretes the hormone A) progesterone. B) oxytocin. C) thymosin. D) thyroxine. E) atrial natriuretic peptide. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

159) Adipocytes produce a peptide hormone called ________ that acts on the hypothalamus. A) leptin B) grehlin C) lipase D) glucagon E) adipocin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

160) The hormone related to appetite control is A) thymosin. B) brain natriuretic peptide. C) melanin. D) leptin. E) erythropoietin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

161) Why might someone want to take erythropoietin in a non -medical situation? A) to increase muscle mass B) to sleep C) to increase oxygen-carrying capacity and increase stamina D) to increase the chance of getting pregnant E) to increase sex drive Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

162) The effects of this hormone oppose aldosterone. A) ADH B) oxytocin C) inhibin D) atrial natriuretic peptide E) renin Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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163) This hormone is released in response to PTH and its actions are synergistic to PTH. A) calcitriol B) calcitonin C) inhibin D) cholecystokinin E) pancreatic polypeptide Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

164) Which is not a component of the RAAS and does not contribute to blood volume and electrolyte homeostasis? A) renin B) angiotensin C) ADH D) aldosterone E) androgens Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

165) Increased aggressive and assertive behavior is associated with an increase in which of the following hormones? A) somatostatin B) thyroxine C) growth hormone D) androgens E) insulin Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

166) The hormone that dominates during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is A) testosterone. B) aldosterone. C) cortisol. D) thyroid hormone. E) epinephrine. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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612   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

167) You have just become the nurse manager of a nursing home and you are reminding yourself about what problems your nursing home population might have by studying your old pathophysiology books from nursing school. Many of the residents are tired and have problems with blood glucose levels. All of the following hormones might be related except A) insulin. B) cortisol. C) thymosin. D) thyroid hormones. E) GH. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

168) During the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS), there is A) decreased blood flow to skeletal muscles and skin. B) decreased mental alertness. C) mobilization of energy reserves. D) increased urine release. E) decreased rate of respiration. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

169) If stress lasts longer than a few hours, an individual will enter the ________ phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS). A) alarm B) resistance C) exhaustion D) extension E) prolonged Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

170) Hormones that dominate during the resistance phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) are the A) mineralocorticoids. B) androgens. C) glucocorticoids. D) catecholamines. E) gonadotropins. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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171) During the resistance phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS), A) lipid reserves are mobilized. B) proteins are conserved. C) blood glucose levels fall drastically. D) levels of growth hormone decrease. E) levels of insulin decrease. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

172) The exhaustion phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is characterized by A) failure of electrolyte balance. B) an increasing ability to produce glucose from glycogen. C) increased pumping effectiveness of the heart. D) a sharp increase in motivation and energy. E) an increase in urine output. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

173) Two hormones that have opposing effects are called A) antagonists. B) agonists. C) resistors. D) synergists. E) adjuvants. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

174) Two hormones that have additive effects are called A) antagonists. B) agonists. C) resistors. D) synergists. E) adjuvants. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

175) Hormones that produce different but complementary results are called A) permissive. B) integrative. C) radicals. D) synergists. E) antagonists. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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176) Normal growth is dependent on all of the following hormones except A) thyroid hormones. B) oxytocin. C) growth hormone. D) insulin. E) glucocorticoids. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

177) Which of the following is not an antagonistic hormone pair? A) glucagon; insulin B) calcitonin; parathyroid hormone C) leptin; thymosins D) aldosterone; atrial natriuretic peptide E) FSH; inhibin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

178) The absence of which hormone during development will cause the nervous system to develop abnormally and cause developmental delays? A) thymosin B) calcitriol C) calcitonin D) androgens E) thyroxine Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) The regulatory hormones from the hypothalamus control secretion from endocrine cells, which are located where? (Figure 18-6) A) anterior lobe of the pituitary gland B) posterior lobe of the pituitary gland C) thalamus D) cortex of the adrenal gland E) medulla of the adrenal gland Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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2) In a typical regulation pattern of endocrine secretion, which hormone is responsible for negative feedback? (Figure 18-8) A) the releasing hormone B) hormone 1 from the pituitary gland C) hormone 2 from the endocrine target gland D) the inhibiting hormone E) the posterior pituitary hormone Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

3) What hormones are released from the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland and how does their release differ from hormones released by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland? (Figure 18 -9) A) melanocyte stimulating hormone and growth hormone; posterior pituitary hormones are released in response to circadian rhythms B) LH and FSH; posterior pituitary hormones are released at puberty C) epinephrine and norepinephrine; posterior pituitary hormones are released following neural stimulation by the SNS D) ADH and oxytocin; posterior pituitary hormones are released following stimulation by hypothalamic releasing hormones E) ADH and oxytocin; posterior pituitary hormones are released directly from the hypothalamus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

4) Which zone of the adrenal cortex produces mineralocorticoids and what is the primary mineralocorticoid? (Figure 18-14) A) zona reticularis; cortisol B) zona reticularis; aldosterone C) zona fasciculata; epinephrine D) zona glomerulosa; aldosterone E) zona glomerulosa; cortisol Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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5) Which pancreatic cells secrete glucagon? List the effects of glucagon. (Figure 18 -17) A) alpha; to increase blood glucose levels by increasing the breakdown of glycogen and fat, and by increasing the synthesis and release of glucose by the liver B) beta; to increase blood glucose levels by increasing the breakdown of glycogen and fat, and by increasing the synthesis and release of glucose by the liver C) delta; to increase blood glucose levels by increasing the breakdown of glycogen and fat, and by increasing the synthesis and release of glucose by the liver D) alpha; to decrease blood glucose levels by decreasing the breakdown of glycogen and fat, and by increasing cellular uptake of glucose E) beta; to decrease blood glucose levels by decreasing the breakdown of glycogen and fat, and by increasing cellular uptake of glucose Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

Essay Questions 1) Communication between cells is key to organism-level regulation of the internal environment to maintain health, that is, nearly constant internal conditions (homeostasis). Outline and compare the intercellular communication pathways that function to provide homeostasis. Answer: Intercellular communication occurs largely through the nervous system and the endocrine system. In general, the nervous system performs short-term ʺcrisis management,ʺ whereas the endocrine system regulates longer-term, ongoing metabolic processes. Ideally, the nervous system communicates by an impulse over an axon to a neuron or some other effector. This is a very fast and spatially specific process. In contrast, the endocrine system relies on blindly sending out chemical messages to the whole body through the blood and interstitial fluid. This process is slow, and relies on the response of a different target cell. Learning Outcome: 18-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

2) You see a patient with a goiter. You run some tests and find the patient is iodine deficient. Explain how iodine is used in the production of thyroid hormones. Also, explain how a goiter might form as a result of iodine deficiency. Be sure to include the role of TSH in your response. Answer: Iodine atoms are attached to tyrosine molecules. Tyrosine molecules join together forming thyroid hormones as triiodothyronine (with 3 iodine atoms) or thyroxine (with 4 iodine atoms). If the patient is iodine deficient then he cannot produce adequate levels of thyroid hormones and negative feedback to the anterior pituitary does not occur. When the body is deficient in thyroid hormone the anterior pituitary will produce excess TSH trying to stimulate the thyroid gland. Excess TSH will cause the gland to hypertrophy and form a goiter. Learning Outcome: 18-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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3) When patients who are receiving glucocorticoid therapy (for example, with prednisone need to stop taking it, the doctor will prescribe a series of doses of tapering size to gradually lower the dose rather than suddenly stop it. Explain this dosage strategy in terms of the negative feedback control of cortisol secretion. Answer: Glucocorticoids inhibit the production of corticotrophin-releasing hormone by the hypothalamus and ACTH by the anterior pituitary. High doses of prednisone will mean that levels of ACTH in the patient have been quite low, and so the zona fasciculate of the adrenal cortex will have not been stimulated for a while and canʹt do much synthesis. By slowly reducing the prednisone, it gives the patientʹs own ability to make cortisol a chance to recover and thus prevents collapse of blood pressure and other serious effects of suddenly withholding the corticosteroid. Learning Outcome: 18-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

4) What does it mean to say that the pancreas is both an endocrine and an exocrine organ? Answer: The pancreas contains both exocrine and endocrine cells. Cells of the endocrine pancreas form clusters called pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans) and the exocrine cells cluster in structures called pancreatic acini. The endocrine cells secrete at their basal surfaces into the interstitial space, exactly opposite to the exocrine gland cells, which secrete fluid and digestive enzymes out of their apical surfaces into tiny ducts. The pancreatic islets secrete the hormones glucagon, insulin, somatostatin, and pancreatic polypeptide, which diffuse into nearby capillaries and then reach cells throughout the body via the circulation. The pancreatic exocrine secretions enter the intestine during digestion and play a key role in both protecting the epithelium and dissolving food particles into their constituent building blocks. Learning Outcome: 18-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

5) Describe the three phases of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) that constitute the bodyʹs response to stress. Which endocrine secretions play dominant roles in the alarm and resistance phases? Answer: The three phases are alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. During the alarm phase, energy reserves are mobilized and the body prepares itself with ʺfight or flightʺ responses. During the resistance phase, glucocorticoids are released to (1) mobilize lipid and protein reserves, (2) conserve glucose for neural tissue, (3) elevate and stabilize blood glucose concentrations, (4) conserve salts and water, and (5) lose K +  and H + . During the exhaustion phase, homeostatic regulation breaks down. Epinephrine plays a dominant role in the alarm phase and glucocorticoids are dominant in the resistance phase. Learning Outcome: 18-10 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 19 Blood Multiple Choice Questions 1) Plasma is closest in composition to A) urine. B) isotonic saline solution. C) sterile water. D) CSF. E) interstitial fluid. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the A) viscosity. B) specific gravity. C) packed volume. D) hematocrit. E) differential cell count. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) Which of the following statements about blood is false? A) Blood contains buffers that control pH. B) The normal pH of blood is 6.8 to 7.0. C) Blood is more viscous than water. D) Blood is about 55 percent plasma. E) Cells in blood comprise the formed elements. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) The combination of plasma and formed elements is called A) serum. B) lymph. C) whole blood. D) extracellular fluid. E) packed blood. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 19  Blood   619

5) Whole blood for testing in a clinical laboratory is usually collected from A) the heart. B) a superficial artery. C) a superficial vein. D) a capillary. E) an arteriole. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) Consider the following results from a blood lab test. Which value is most likely abnormal? A) RBCs5.2 million/μl B) platelets280,000/μl C) leukocytes8600/μl D) hemoglobin10.7 g/100 ml E) hematocrit44 percent Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

7) Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood, except a A) temperature of approximately 38 degrees Celsius. B) viscosity about the same as water. C) pH of 7.4. D) built-in system for clotting. E) red color from hemoglobin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) The total volume of blood in the body of a 76-kg man is approximately ________ liters. A) 10 B) 6 to 8 C) 5.3 D) 4.4 E) 3.8 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

9) The most abundant component of plasma is A) ions. B) proteins. C) water. D) gases. E) nutrients. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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10) A person who has a low blood volume is said to be A) hypovolemic. B) hypervolemic. C) normovolemic. D) isovolemic. E) antivolemic. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

11) The chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the concentration of A) water. B) electrolytes. C) nitrogen wastes. D) proteins. E) glucose. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

12) A typical adult hematocrit is A) 85. B) 75. C) 65. D) 45. E) 25. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

13) Which of the following is not one of the formed elements of blood? A) RBCs B) platelets C) antibodies D) lymphocytes E) basophils Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

14) Plasma composes about ________ percent of whole blood and water composes ________ percent of the plasma volume. A) 55; 92 B) 92; 7 C) 92; 55 D) 45; 55 E) 50; 50 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 19  Blood   621

15) A hematocrit provides information on A) blood type. B) clotting factors. C) formed elements abundance. D) plasma composition. E) sedimentation rate. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

16) You are caring for an adult patient who weighs 48 kg. What would her approximate blood volume be? A) 6.6 L B) 6.0 L C) 5.6 L D) 4.8 L E) 3.8 L Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

17) Approximately 45 percent of blood volume is composed of the A) clotting factors. B) formed elements. C) leukocytes. D) plasma. E) antibodies. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

18) Blood volume represents about ________ percent of a personʹs body weight. A) 7 B) 15 C) 2 D) 25 E) 42 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

19) Thyroid-binding globulin is an example of which kind of plasma protein? A) metalloprotein B) steroid-binding C) hormone-binding D) apolipoprotein E) transport albumin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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20) Transferrin is an example of which kind of plasma protein? A) metalloprotein B) steroid-binding protein C) hormone-binding protein D) apolipoprotein E) transport albumin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

21) Which plasma protein transports fatty acids and some hormones? A) apolipoprotein B) steroid-binding protein C) hormone-binding protein D) albumin E) gamma globulin Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

22) Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins? A) pancreas B) heart C) kidney D) brain E) liver Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

23) The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are A) globulins. B) transport proteins. C) albumins. D) lipoproteins. E) fibrinogens. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

24) Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the A) albumins. B) fibrinogens. C) immunoglobulins. D) metalloproteins. E) lipoproteins. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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25) A plasma protein essential for blood clotting is A) albumin alpha. B) fibrinogen. C) immunoglobulin A. D) metalloprotein D. E) lipoprotein C. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

26) All of the following are functions of blood except A) regulating pH. B) transporting gases and hormones. C) generating action potentials. D) defending against pathogens. E) regulating ion concentration. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

27) In what way does blood assist in immune function? A) Platelets allow clotting. B) Red blood cells transport gases. C) White blood cells defend against pathogens. D) Albumins transport hormones. E) Plasma antibodies and white blood cells defend against pathogens. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

28) The protein(s) that are the major contributors to plasma osmolarity is/are A) globulins. B) albumins. C) fibrinogen. D) lipoprotein. E) transferrin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

29) Blood that has clotting proteins removed is termed A) whole blood. B) hematocrit. C) formed elements. D) serum. E) plasma. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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30) In an emergency situation, a patient may be given plasma expanders while blood typing occurs. The plasma expanders are used to A) stimulate blood clotting. B) replace lost albumin. C) increase blood volume and maintain osmolarity. D) elevate blood pH. E) stimulate immune responses. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

31) Antibodies are what type of plasma protein? A) apolipoprotein B) metalloprotein C) steroid-binding protein D) immunoglobulin E) fibrinogen Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

32) The primary reason males have a higher hematocrit than females is because A) males have more skeletal muscle. B) males have larger livers. C) males have longer blood vessels. D) males have fewer white blood cells. E) males have androgens. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

33) You have spent 24 hours traveling from the U.S to New Zealand, on quite a few airplanes with many stops. Because of the stress, changes in time zones, and short blocks of time between planes, you find yourself tired with a headache when you arrive. You are severely dehydrated. A hematocrit value of your blood would be ________ than normal because ________. A) lower; more red blood cells are being made by the bone marrow B) higher; you have less blood plasma volume C) lower; the bone marrow is making fewer red blood cells due to the latitude of the airplanes D) higher; more plasma proteins are made by the liver E) lower; you have less blood plasma volume Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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34) Jane has been taking the antibiotic chloramphenicol for a few weeks as treatment for a serious bacterial infection. There is a possibility that a future side effect of long-term antibiotic therapy could cause her to develop problems in blood cell counts. The result is A) autoimmune disease. B) aplastic anemia. C) drug resistance. D) thrombocytopenia. E) erythroblastosis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

35) All the circulating red blood cells in an adult originate in the A) heart. B) thymus. C) spleen. D) red bone marrow. E) lymph tissue. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

36) Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone A) thymosin. B) angiotensin. C) erythropoietin. D) thymopoietin. E) renin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

37) Which of the following statements concerning red blood cells is false? A) Red cells are biconcave discs. B) Red cells lack mitochondria. C) Red cells are about 18 μm in diameter. D) Red cells are specialized for carrying oxygen. E) Red cells can form stacks called rouleaux. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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38) Which of these proteins functions to store or transport iron? A) hemoglobin B) ferritin C) hemosiderin D) transferrin E) ferritin, hemosiderin, and transferrin Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

39) The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if A) the diet is deficient in iron. B) there is insufficient heme in the hemoglobin. C) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal. D) red blood cells bind too much oxygen. E) hemolysis is prevented by a mutated gene. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

40) Surgical removal of the stomach could cause A) hemophilia. B) pernicious anemia. C) thrombocytopenia. D) leukocytosis. E) jaundice. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

41) Mary is tested for the amount of hemoglobin in her blood. The test results indicate that her hemoglobin level is 16 g/dL of blood. This value indicates that A) she is suffering from anemia. B) she has fewer red blood cells than normal. C) her hematocrit is probably lower than normal. D) she may be suffering from a form of leukemia. E) her hemoglobin level is normal. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

42) An obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would result in A) pernicious anemia. B) renal anemia. C) increased erythropoiesis. D) decreased erythropoiesis. E) increased sensitivity to vitamin K. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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43) The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following  except A) anemia. B) high altitude. C) as a consequence of hemorrhage. D) periods of fasting. E) when blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

44) The average life span of a red blood cell is A) 24 hours. B) 1 month. C) 4 months. D) about 1 year. E) many years. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

45) The function of red blood cells is to A) carry oxygen from the cells to the lungs. B) carry carbon dioxide from the lungs to the bodyʹs cells. C) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the bodyʹs cells. D) defend the body against infectious organisms. E) carry oxygen to the cells and then carry away carbon dioxide. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

46) Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest candidate? A) aplastic anemia B) iron-deficiency anemia C) sickle cell anemia D) vitamin K deficiency E) vitamin B6  deficiency Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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47) In adults, the only site of red blood cell production, and the primary site of white blood cell formation, is the A) liver. B) spleen. C) thymus. D) red bone marrow. E) yellow bone marrow. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

48) Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of A) magnesium. B) calcium. C) iron. D) sodium. E) copper. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

49) Excess iron is stored in the liver and spleen as A) transferrin. B) urobilin and stercobilin. C) bilirubin and biliverdin. D) hemoglobin. E) hemosiderin and ferritin. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

50) In which of the following situations would you expect the blood level of bilirubin to be elevated? A) during coagulation B) an alcoholic with a damaged liver C) iron-deficient diet D) low hematocrit E) low blood volume Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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51) If bile ducts are blocked, A) more bilirubin appears in the plasma. B) bilirubin appears in the saliva. C) more hemolysis takes place. D) more red blood cells are produced. E) more white blood cells are produced. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

52) More than 95 percent of the protein in a red blood cell is A) albumin. B) porphyrin. C) hemoglobin. D) immunoglobulin. E) fibrinogen. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

53) The function of hemoglobin is to A) carry dissolved blood gases. B) carry bicarbonate ion. C) aid in the process of blood clotting. D) produce antibodies. E) stimulate erythropoiesis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

54) ________ is a condition in which the oxygen -carrying capacity of the blood is reduced. A) Polycythemia B) Leukemia C) Anemia D) Leukopenia E) Thrombocytopenia Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

55) Pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated by A) oral doses of iron. B) injections of iron. C) oral doses of vitamin B12. D) injections of vitamin B 12. E) blood transfusion. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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56) Which of the following would you expect to see in increased numbers in a peripheral blood sample after donating a unit of blood? A) fibrocytes B) platelets C) reticulocytes D) lymphocytes E) neutrophils Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

57) A red blood cell that contains excessive amounts of hemoglobin would be called A) hyperchromic. B) normochromic. C) hypochromic. D) normocytic. E) macrocytic. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

58) A bruise appears as a greenish spot in the skin because A) hemoglobin has leaked from the blood into the injury and hemoglobin has a green color. B) the heme group in the hemoglobin has broken down into biliverdin. C) bilirubin from iron recycling has built-up in the bruise. D) red blood cells lyse releasing biliverdin from inside. E) dead white blood cells accumulate at the site of injury. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

59) Aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by macrophages in the A) spleen. B) liver. C) bone marrow. D) digestive tract. E) spleen, liver, and bone marrow. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

60) The waste product bilirubin is produced from A) globin chains of hemoglobin. B) heme molecules plus iron. C) heme molecules lacking iron. D) iron found in hemoglobin molecules. E) abnormal proteins found in red blood cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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61) Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is A) excreted by the kidneys. B) excreted by the liver. C) excreted by the intestines. D) recycled to the red bone marrow. E) stored in yellow bone marrow. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

62) In adults, erythropoiesis exclusively takes place in A) the liver. B) yellow bone marrow. C) red bone marrow. D) the spleen. E) lymphoid tissue. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

63) The process of red blood cell production is called A) erythrocytosis. B) erythropenia. C) hemocytosis. D) erythropoiesis. E) hematopenia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

64) The developmental stage at which erythrocytes enter the circulation is as A) hemocytoblasts. B) reticulocytes. C) band forms. D) myeloid cells. E) proerythrocytes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

65) ________ are immature erythrocytes that are present in the circulation. A) Erythroblasts B) Normoblasts C) Myeloblasts D) Band cells E) Reticulocytes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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66) Erythropoiesis is stimulated when A) oxygen levels in the blood increase. B) carbon dioxide levels in the blood decrease. C) blood flow to the kidney declines. D) coagulation begins. E) blood pressure increases. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

67) Each hemoglobin molecule contains A) four alpha chains. B) one alpha and one beta chain. C) four iron atoms. D) one heme group. E) a molecule of oxygen and a molecule of carbon dioxide. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

68) Reticulocytes complete their development into ________ in the circulation. A) neutrophils B) megakaryocytes C) thrombocytes D) macrophages E) erythrocytes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

69) Which mature cell has no nucleus, no mitochondria and no ribosomes? A) erythrocyte B) leukocyte C) platelet D) thrombocyte E) neutrophil Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

70) Erythropoietin is a hormone A) released by the liver to stimulate red blood cell production. B) released by the liver to stimulate white blood cell production. C) released by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production. D) released by the kidneys to stimulate red and white blood cell production. E) released by the bone marrow to stimulate red blood cell production. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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71) Which of the following is not a way that red blood cell shape is significant? A) It gives the red blood cell a large surface area to volume ratio. B) It allows fast exchange of gases between the inside of the cell and the plasma. C) It enables red blood cells to form stacks. D) It allows red blood cells to bend and flex. E) It enables red blood cells to phagocytose bacteria. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

72) Which of the following is true regarding red blood cells? A) They are anucleate. B) They survive for approximately one year. C) They have a biconvex shape. D) They are produced in the spleen. E) They primarily carry carbon dioxide. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

73) When hemoglobin does not have oxygen bound to hemoglobin it is termed A) carbaminohemoglobin. B) deoxyhemoglobin. C) oxyhemoglobin. D) hemolyzed. E) sickle hemoglobin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

74) When hemoglobin is saturated with oxygen atoms it is termed A) carbaminohemoglobin. B) deoxyhemoglobin. C) oxyhemoglobin. D) hemolyzed. E) sickle hemoglobin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

75) When carbon dioxide is bound to hemoglobin it is termed A) carbaminohemoglobin. B) deoxyhemoglobin. C) oxyhemoglobin. D) hemolyzed. E) sickle hemoglobin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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76) Hydroxyurea is a common drug treatment for sickle cell anemia patients. Hydroxyurea improves sickle cell symptoms because it A) causes more hemoglobin alpha chains to be produced improving oxygen transport. B) causes more hemoglobin beta chains to be produced improving oxygen transport. C) increases the free iron in plasma. D) stimulates the production of fetal hemoglobin improving oxygen transport. E) increases the production of heme. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

77) During fetal development the primary site(s) of red blood cell production is/are A) bone marrow. B) liver. C) thymus. D) kidneys. E) liver and spleen. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

78) A personʹs blood type is determined by the A) size of the RBCs. B) volume of the RBCs. C) chemical composition of the hemoglobin. D) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane. E) shape of the RBCs. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

79) People with type AB blood are considered the ʺuniversal recipientʺ for transfusions because A) their blood cells lack A and B antigens. B) their blood lacks A or B agglutinins. C) their blood is plentiful in A and B agglutinins. D) they usually have very strong immune systems. E) they are usually Rh negative. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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80) Type AB blood has which of the following characteristics? A) RBCs have the Rh positive antigens and the anti-D plasma antibodies. B) RBCs have no surface antigens and both anti -A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. C) RBCs have both the A & B surface antigens and no ABO plasma antibodies. D) RBCs have the A and the B surface antigens and the plasma has anti -A and anti-B antibodies. E) RBCs have the A antigen and the plasma has the anti -B antibody. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

81) Anti-D antibodies are present in the blood of A) all individuals with type AB blood. B) Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen. C) all Rh positive individuals. D) Rh positive individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen. E) all Rh negative individuals. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

82) Antigens of the surface of red blood cells are also called ________ and antibodies in the blood plasma are also called ________. A) agglutinins; agglutinogens B) agglutinogens; agglutinins C) T-cells; B-cells D) erythrogens; antibiotics E) serum; plasma Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

83) Which of the following combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the newborn? A) mother Rh positive, baby Rh negative B) mother Rh negative, baby Rh negative C) mother Rh negative, baby Rh positive D) mother type A+, baby type O+ E) mother Rh positive, baby Rh positive Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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84) A cross-match test is performed between donor blood and recipient blood, even though the ABO and Rh blood types match between the two because A) there are many more surface antigens on red blood cells other than A, B and Rh. B) all antibodies of the donor blood and the recipient blood must be identified. C) coagulation can occur even in a small percentage of cases. D) one has to make sure that the same agglutinogens have to be on both donor and recipients red blood cells. E) errors are commonly made by the clinical staff regarding donor -recipient matches. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

85) Type A blood has ________ antibodies in the blood plasma. A) anti-A B) anti-D C) anti-B D) anti-Rh E) anti-O Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

86) The clumping of red blood cells, when the specific antibody against the antigen on the cells is added, is called A) coagulation. B) agglutination. C) hemostasis. D) vascularization. E) areolation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

87) Jane has Type A blood; therefore, she A) has antibodies to B agglutinogens. B) can give blood to other people with Type A blood only. C) can receive blood from other people with Type A blood only. D) makes anti-A without ever having been exposed to Type A blood. E) has B antigen on her RBCs. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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88) You have type B positive blood. What are all the types of packed RBCs you can receive? A) A positive and A negative B) B positive and B negative C) A positive and B positive D) B positive, B negative, O positive, O negative E) O positive and O negative Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

89) The most common blood type is A) type A. B) type B. C) type AB. D) type O. E) type AO. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

90) In an emergency situation when you have no time to wait for cross -matched blood you could give a patient type ________ until the cross-match is available. A) A positive B) O negative C) B negative D) AB positive E) AB negative Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

91) The process of lymphopoiesis occurs mainly in the A) spleen. B) kidneys. C) lymph nodes. D) red bone marrow. E) thymus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

92) All of the following are true of neutrophils except that they are A) granular leukocytes. B) phagocytic. C) also known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes. D) important in coagulation. E) active in fighting bacterial infections. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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93) The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

94) White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

95) ________ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells. A) Neutrophils B) Eosinophils C) Basophils D) Lymphocytes E) Monocytes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

96) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term colony stimulating factor? A) adheres to collagen beneath endothelium B) helper cells are one type C) hormone that regulates white blood cell formation D) kills bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

97) White blood cells that are increased in allergic individuals are the A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) platelets. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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98) A hormone that stimulates production of granulocytes and monocytes is A) M-CSF. B) G-CSF. C) GM-CSF. D) multi-CSF. E) thymosin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

99) Monocytes can be stimulated by which of the following colony -stimulating factors? A) G-CSF B) G-CSF and GM-CSF C) EPO D) G-CSF and EPO E) M-CSF, GM-CSF, multi-CSF Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

100) The most numerous WBCs in a differential count of a healthy individual are A) neutrophils. B) basophils. C) lymphocytes. D) monocytes. E) leukocytes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

101) Which of the following is not true of neutrophils? A) less abundant than lymphocytes B) can make hydrogen peroxide C) can exit capillaries D) can destroy bacteria E) attracted to complement-coated bacteria Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

102) Which of these descriptions best matches the term B lymphocytes? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) helper cells are one type C) develop into plasma cells and produce antibodies in response to antigens D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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103) Which of these descriptions best matches the term T lymphocytes? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) are involved in cell mediated immunity C) develop into plasma cells and produce antibodies in response to antigens D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

104) Which of the following is not true of monocytes? A) about same size as basophils B) enter tissues and wander C) become macrophages D) are long-lived E) can phagocytize bacteria Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

105) Eosinophils function in A) destroying antibody-labeled antigens. B) blood coagulation. C) production of surface antigens for red blood cells. D) antibody production. E) production of heparin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

106) During a bacterial infection you would expect to see increased numbers of A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) reticulocytes. E) thrombocytes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

107) The blood cells involved in specific immunity are the A) neutrophils. B) monocytes. C) basophils. D) erythrocytes. E) lymphocytes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 19  Blood   641

108) Non-specific immunity, such as phagocytosis, is a function of which blood cells? A) basophils and eosinophils B) neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes C) lymphocytes and monocytes D) platelets E) lymphocytes Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

109) A patient has an infected puncture wound to her foot. Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be elevated in a differential white cell count? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) basophils D) lymphocytes E) monocytes Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

110) Hormones called ________ are involved in regulation of white blood cell populations. A) erythropoietin B) bilirubin C) thrombopoietin D) colony-stimulating factors E) plasmin Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

111) The ________ is a procedure that is used to determine the number of each of the various types of white blood cells. A) differential count B) hematocrit C) sedimentation rate D) WBC count E) complete cell count (CBC) Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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112) A small white blood cell with a large round nucleus would be a A) neutrophil. B) lymphocyte. C) monocyte. D) basophil. E) eosinophil. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

113) Which feature of WBCs makes them particularly important in tissue injury? A) They undergo aerobic respiration. B) They stick to injured blood vessels. C) They undergo a fast rate of mitosis. D) They can squeeze out through blood vessel walls into tissues. E) They carry loads of oxygen. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

114) Which of the following white blood cells are mobile? A) lymphocytes B) neutrophils C) monocytes D) neutrophils and monocytes E) basophils Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

115) Which white blood cell is most effective against parasitic infections? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) basophils D) monoctyes E) lymphocytes Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

116) During routine bloodwork, Maryʹs doctor noticed significant leukocytosis. He is concerned she might have A) pernicious anemia. B) sickle cell anemia. C) thalassemia. D) leukemia. E) leukopenia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 19  Blood   643

117) Macrophages develop from A) neutrophils. B) lymphocytes. C) thrombocytes. D) eosinophils. E) monocytes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

118) Natural killer cells are one of the functional classes of A) neutrophils. B) lymphocytes. C) thrombocytes. D) eosinophils. E) monocytes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 19-1 The Origins and Differentiation of Formed Elements Use Figure 19-1 to answer the following questions: 119) Identify the cell labeled ʺ5.ʺ A) erythrocyte B) lymphocyte C) eosinophil D) basophil E) monocyte Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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120) Identify the cell labeled ʺ6.ʺ A) erythrocyte B) lymphocyte C) eosinophil D) basophil E) monocyte Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

121) Identify the cell labeled ʺ4.ʺ A) neutrophil B) lymphocyte C) platelet D) basophil E) monocyte Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

122) Identify the cell labeled ʺ2.ʺ A) lymphocyte B) eosinophil C) basophil D) neutrophil E) monocyte Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

123) Identify the formed element that originated as a megakaryocyte. A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 2 E) 7 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

124) The function of platelets is to assist in the A) destruction of bacteria. B) process called hemostasis. C) removal of worn out red blood cells. D) immune response during an infection. E) transport of blood gases such as oxygen. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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125) Platelets are pinched off from giant multinucleated cells in the bone marrow called A) erythroblasts. B) normoblasts. C) megakaryocytes. D) myeloblasts. E) lymphoblasts. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

126) Platelets are A) red blood cells that lack a nucleus. B) red blood cells that have a nucleus. C) large cells with a prominent, concave nucleus. D) tiny cells with a polynucleus. E) cytoplasmic fragments of large cells. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

127) In case of hemorrhage, platelets are stored as a reserve in A) the heart. B) the kidneys. C) the spleen. D) the thymus gland. E) bone marrow. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

128) Which of the following descriptions best matches the function of platelets? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) helper cells are one type C) produce antibodies in response to antigens D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

129) A person whose platelet count is 40,000/μl is suffering from A) thrombocytosis. B) leukocytosis. C) hemocytosis. D) thrombocytopenia. E) leukopenia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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130) A sign of thrombocytopenia would be A) a drop in oxygen-carrying capacity. B) allergic reactions. C) bacterial infections. D) excessive clotting. E) bleeding. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

131) The hormone that stimulates platelet formation is A) thymosin. B) thrombopoietin. C) erythropoietin. D) colony-stimulating factor. E) endothelin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

132) ________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. A) Vascular spasm B) The platelet phase C) Retraction D) Coagulation E) Fibrinolysis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

133) Most of the protein factors that are required for clotting are synthesized by A) platelets. B) megakaryocytes. C) the liver. D) the kidneys. E) the spleen. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

134) The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. D) release of heparin from the liver. E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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135) The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the A) sticking of platelets to each other. B) activation of Factor XII by platelet factors. C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. D) release of heparin from the liver. E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

136) The common pathway of coagulation begins with the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium. D) activation of Factor X and production of prothrombin activator. E) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

137) The process of fibrinolysis A) activates fibrinogen. B) draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer together. C) dissolves clots. D) forms emboli. E) forms thrombi. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

138) The enzyme that can digest fibrin and dissolve a clot is A) thrombin. B) plasmin. C) heparin. D) fibrinase. E) phosphokinase. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

139) Tissue factor (Factor III) is a factor in the ________ pathway. A) extrinsic B) intrinsic C) common D) retraction E) fibrinolytic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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140) Tissue factor is a factor in the ________ pathway. A) extrinsic B) intrinsic C) common D) retraction E) fibrinolytic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

141) Some rat poisons contain a toxin that blocks the liverʹs ability to utilize vitamin K. Animals that consume this poison would die of A) anemia. B) acidosis. C) hemorrhage. D) thrombocytopenia. E) starvation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

142) A substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to A) cause clots to form faster. B) cause clot dissolution to proceed faster. C) initiate clot formation. D) recruit platelets to the area. E) recruit neutrophils to an infection. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

143) How would removal of calcium ions from a blood sample affect coagulation? A) The coagulation pathway would be more sensitive to activation. B) Coagulation would be prevented. C) There would be no important effect because magnesium can substitute for calcium. D) Coagulation would occur only in Rh positive individuals. E) More blood cells would be produced. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

144) Which of the following vitamins is needed for the formation of clotting factors? A) vitamin A B) vitamin B C) vitamin K D) vitamin D E) vitamin E Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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145) A moving blood clot is called a(n) A) embolus. B) thrombus. C) plaque. D) procoagulant. E) platelet plug. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

146) Areas in a vessel wall where large quantities of lipid accumulate are called A) thrombi. B) emboli. C) plaques. D) clots. E) occlusions. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

147) People who suffer from hemophilia A fail to produce a functional Factor VIII; as a result, A) they lack a functional intrinsic pathway. B) they lack a functional extrinsic pathway. C) they lack a functional common pathway. D) their coagulation times are much longer than normal. E) their coagulation times are too quick. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

148) The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by the enzyme A) fibrinogen-converting enzyme. B) plasmin. C) factor VIII. D) thrombin. E) prothrombinase. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

149) The phase of hemostasis that involved clotting of blood is called A) coagulation. B) hemolysis. C) vascular spasm. D) a platelet plug. E) diapedesis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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650   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

150) A fibrin network that contains trapped blood cells and platelets is called a(n) A) platelet plug. B) rouleaux. C) agglutinin. D) blood clot. E) lysin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

151) Which common over the counter drug can decrease blood clotting and thus may be beneficial for preventing a heart attack? A) cough syrup B) anti-histamines C) aspirin D) acetaminophen E) tums Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

152) Which of these is used clinically to impede or prevent blood clotting? A) thrombin B) heparin C) fibrin D) tissue factor E) prothrombin Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

153) A blood clot attached to the inner surface of a blood vessel is called a A) embolus. B) plaque. C) thrombus. D) platelet plug. E) fibrin mesh. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

154) The first step of hemostasis is A) coagulation. B) agglutination. C) clot retraction. D) vascular spasm. E) platelet phase. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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155) Which of the following could be used as a treatment for a stroke if given early in the disease progression? A) tissue factor B) vitamin K C) calcium channel blockers D) factor X E) tissue plasminogen activator Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Each molecule of heme contains a single ion of what element? (Figure 19-3) A) sodium B) potassium C) magnesium D) iron E) calcium Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) Where are red blood cells produced? (Figure 19-5) A) spleen B) liver C) red bone marrow D) kidney E) large intestine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) Type A blood has what type of RBC surface antigen and what type of opposing antibodies? (Figure 19-6) A) antigen A; anti-B antibodies B) antigen B; anti-A antibodies C) antigen A; anti-A antibodies D) antigen B; anti-B antibodies E) antigen A; both anti-A and anti-B antibodies Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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652   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

4) Granulocytes consist of what three types of mature cells and from what blast cell do granulocytes differentiate? (Figure 19-10) A) monocytes, lymphocytes, and platelets; lymphoblast B) basophil, eosinophil, and neutrophil; myeloblast C) erythrocyte, neutrophil, and lymphocyte; proerythroblast D) reticulocyte, megakaryocyte, and promonocyte; monoblast E) platelets, erythrocyte, and monocyte; reticulocyte Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

Essay Questions 1) Why do people with advanced kidney disease commonly become anemic? Answer: For three reasons: (1) Damaged kidneys produce less erythropoietin and so there is less stimulation of the marrow to produce RBCs. (2) Erythropoietin is more easily lost into the urine by leaky kidneys. (3) Finally, during dialysis treatment, the patientʹs erythropoietin is washed away. Treatment for kidney patients today includes injections of synthetic erythropoietin. Learning Outcome: 19-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

2) How does Rhogam prevent erythroblastosis fetalis (HDN, hemolytic disease of the newborn)? Answer: If a mother who is Rh negative carries a fetus who is Rh positive, she will make antibodies against its Rh positive RBCs after being exposed to the infantʹs blood during labor and delivery. By giving a dose of anti -Rh antibody (Rhogam) just before or after delivery, the fetal red cells will be agglutinated and removed from the motherʹs circulation before her immune system will have time to make anti-Rh antibodies that would endanger her next Rh-positive offspring. Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

3) Which of the formed elements would increase after the donation of a pint of blood? Answer: Reticulocytes would increase in number as additional numbers of immature RBCs move into the bloodstream to compensate for the reduction in blood volume. Learning Outcome: 19-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 20 The Heart Multiple Choice Questions 1) The heart beats approximately ________ times each day. A) 1,000 B) 10,000 C) 100,000 D) 1,000,000 E) 10,000,000 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) The heart pumps approximately ________ liters of blood each day. A) 8,000 B) 15,000 C) 20,000 D) 50,000 E) 100,000 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) The adult heart is roughly the size of A) the liver. B) a manʹs clenched fist. C) the gallbladder. D) the hand of a 10-year-old. E) the brain. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) The term used to describe fluid collecting in the pericardial cavity that restricts the movement of the heart is known as A) cardiac tamponade. B) mitral valve prolapse. C) pleural effusion. D) cardiomyopathy. E) pericarditis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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5) The structure that permits blood flow from the right atrium to the left atrium in the fetal circulation is the A) foramen ovale. B) interatrial septum. C) coronary sinus. D) fossa ovalis. E) ligamentum arteriosus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) Blood leaves the right ventricle by passing through the A) aortic valve. B) pulmonary valve. C) mitral valve. D) tricuspid valve. E) bicuspid valve. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) The atrioventricular valves permit blood flow A) in one direction only. B) in both directions. C) in many directions. D) in opposite directions on the right and left. E) from a ventricle to an atrium. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) Blood returning to the heart from the systemic circuit first enters the A) right atrium. B) right ventricle. C) left atrium. D) left ventricle. E) conus arteriosus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

9) Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary circuit first enters the A) right atrium. B) right ventricle. C) left atrium. D) left ventricle. E) conus arteriosus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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10) The earlike extension of the atrium is the A) ventricle. B) coronary sinus. C) coronary sulcus. D) auricle. E) interatrial septum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

11) The coronary sulcus is a groove that A) marks the border between the atria and ventricles. B) marks the boundary line between the right and left ventricles. C) marks the boundary line between the right and left atria. D) separates the atrioventricular valves from the atria. E) separates the coronary arteries from the coronary veins. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

12) In the middle of the thoracic cavity is a region occupied by the heart, great vessels, thymus, esophagus, and trachea called the A) pleural space. B) pericardial space. C) mediastinum. D) cardiac notch. E) ventral cavity. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

13) The cusps (leaflets) of atrioventricular valves attach directly to A) papillary muscles. B) trabeculae carneae. C) chordae tendineae. D) interatrial septa. E) coronary sulci. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

14) Contractions of the papillary muscles A) close the atrioventricular valves. B) close the semilunar valves. C) eject blood from the ventricles. D) prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria. E) eject blood from the atria into the ventricles. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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15) The visceral pericardium is the same as the A) mediastinum. B) parietal pericardium. C) epicardium. D) myocardium. E) endocardium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

16) Most of the middle layer in the heart wall is composed of A) cardiac muscle cells. B) chondrocytes. C) epithelial cells. D) fibrocytes. E) smooth muscle cells. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

17) The right ventricle pumps blood to the A) right and left lungs. B) left ventricle. C) left atrium. D) aorta. E) right atrium. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

18) The left ventricle pumps blood to the A) lungs. B) right ventricle. C) right atrium. D) aorta. E) pulmonary circuit. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

19) The right atrium receives blood from all of the following structures except the A) coronary sinus. B) superior vena cava. C) inferior vena cava. D) systemic circuit. E) pulmonary veins. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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20) When a blood clot forms on a ruptured plaque in a coronary artery, the condition is referred to as a(n) A) coronary spasm. B) myocardial infarction. C) coronary thrombosis. D) angina pectoris. E) pulmonary embolism. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

21) Cardiac cells damaged by infarction will show all of the following except A) a switch to anaerobic metabolism. B) release of enzymes into the circulation. C) release of troponin T and I into the circulation. D) release of CK-MB into the circulation. E) an increase in metabolic activity. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

22) As blood leaves the right ventricle, it passes through the ________ and then into the pulmonary trunk. A) pulmonary veins B) conus arteriosus C) aorta D) inferior vena cava E) superior vena cava Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

23) Coronary veins empty into the A) left atrium. B) left ventricle. C) right atrium. D) right ventricle. E) conus arteriosus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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24) There are ________ pulmonary veins. A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 12 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

25) Rupture of the papillary muscles in the left ventricle may result in A) pulmonary valve regurgitation. B) mitral valve prolapse. C) tricuspid regurgitation. D) tricuspid prolapse. E) aortic valve prolapse. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

26) Blood is supplied to the muscular wall of the left atrium by the A) brachiocephalic artery. B) right coronary artery. C) left coronary artery. D) phrenic arteries. E) pulmonary arteries. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

27) The pulmonary valve prevents backward flow into the A) aorta. B) pulmonary trunk. C) pulmonary veins. D) right ventricle. E) left atrium. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

28) The bicuspid or mitral valve is located A) in the opening of the aorta. B) in the opening of the pulmonary trunk. C) where the venae cavae join the right atrium. D) between the right atrium and right ventricle. E) between the left atrium and left ventricle. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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29) The ________ valve prevents backward flow into the left atrium. A) semicaval B) semilunar C) bicuspid D) tricuspid E) pulmonic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

30) The function of an atrium is to A) store blood for use by the myocardial cells. B) pump blood to the lungs. C) pump blood into the systemic circuit. D) pump blood to the ventricle. E) collect blood then pump it to the ventricle. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

31) Compared to the right ventricle, the left ventricle has all the following characteristics  except A) has a thicker wall. B) is round in cross section. C) pumps a greater volume. D) works harder. E) produces about four to six times more pressure when it contracts. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

32) Which of the following are involved in the pulmonary circuit? A) superior vena cava, right atrium, left ventricle B) right ventricle, pulmonary veins, aorta C) right ventricle, pulmonary trunk, left atrium D) inferior vena cava, right atrium, aorta E) left ventricle, pulmonary veins, right atrium Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

33) The right pulmonary veins carry ________ blood to the ________. A) deoxygenated; left atrium B) oxygenated; right lung C) deoxygenated; superior vena cava D) deoxygenated; right atrium E) oxygenated; left atrium Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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660   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

34) The following is a list of vessels and structures that are associated with the heart. What is the correct order for the flow of blood entering from the systemic circulation?  1. right atrium 2. left atrium 3. right ventricle 4. left ventricle 5. venae cavae 6. aorta 7. pulmonary trunk 8. pulmonary veins A) 1, 2, 7, 8, 3, 4, 6, 5 B) 1, 7, 3, 8, 2, 4, 6, 5 C) 5, 1, 3, 7, 8, 2, 4, 6 D) 5, 3, 1, 7, 8, 4, 2, 6 E) 5, 1, 3, 8, 7, 2, 4, 6 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

35) The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the A) heart. B) lungs. C) brain. D) intestines. E) liver. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

36) The pulmonary veins carry blood to the A) heart. B) lungs. C) brain. D) intestines. E) liver. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

37) The foramen ovale in the fetal heart is located in the A) right atrium. B) left atrium. C) right ventricle. D) left ventricle. E) interatrial septum. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 20  The Heart   661

38) Blood is supplied to the myocardium by A) the coronary sinus. B) contact with blood in the pumping chambers. C) the coronary arteries. D) arteries that branch from the pulmonary arteries. E) arteries that branch off the subclavian arteries. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

39) The first blood vessels to branch from the aorta are the ________ arteries. A) pulmonary B) coronary C) circumflex D) carotid E) subclavian Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

40) The marginal branch and posterior interventricular branch are branches of the A) right coronary artery. B) left coronary artery. C) circumflex artery. D) coronary sinus. E) aorta. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

41) The circumflex branch and the anterior interventricular artery are branches of the A) right coronary artery. B) left coronary artery. C) interventricular artery. D) coronary sinus. E) aorta. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

42) The great and middle cardiac veins drain blood into the A) superior vena cava. B) inferior vena cava. C) coronary sinus. D) coronary sulcus. E) aorta. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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662   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

43) The heart lies within the ________ cavity. A) peritoneal B) pleural C) orbital D) dorsal E) pericardial Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

44) The superior portion of the heart where major blood vessels enter and exit is the A) apex. B) hilum. C) base. D) septum. E) mediastinum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

45) The inferior point of the heart is called the A) apex. B) hilum. C) base. D) septum. E) mediastinum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

46) Pericardial fluid A) provides oxygen to the heart muscle. B) is located between the myocardium and the endocardium. C) is a lubricant between the heart and the pericardial sac. D) consists of plasma that has leaked out of whole blood. E) flows through the four chambers of the heart. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

47) The ________ is shared by the two ventricles. A) vena cava B) bicuspid valve C) chordae tendineae D) interventricular septum E) trabeculae carneae Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 20  The Heart   663

48) Muscular ridges on the inner surface of the ventricles are called A) coronary sinuses. B) trabeculae carneae. C) intercalated discs. D) papillary muscles. E) chordae tendineae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

49) The ________ circuit carries blood to and from the lungs. A) pulmonary B) systemic C) oxygen D) portal E) primary Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

50) The ________ circuit carries blood from the aorta to the right ventricle. A) pulmonary B) systemic C) oxygen D) portal E) primary Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

51) The ________ carry blood away from the heart. A) arterioles B) arteries C) veins D) venules E) capillaries Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

52) The ________ carry blood toward the heart. A) arterioles B) arteries C) veins D) lacteals E) capillaries Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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664   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

53) The ________ covers the outer surface of the heart. A) epicardium B) myocardium C) endocardium D) parietal pericardium E) mediastinum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

54) The muscle layer of the heart is the A) epicardium. B) myocardium. C) endocardium. D) parietal pericardium. E) mediastinum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

55) The ________ lines the chambers of the heart, covers the heart valves, and is continuous with the endothelium. A) epicardium B) myocardium C) endocardium D) visceral pericardium E) mediastinum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

56) Oxygen is added to blood as it flows through the ________ circuit. A) pulmonary B) systemic C) oxygen D) portal E) primary Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

57) The term ________ refers to blockage in the coronary circulation. A) congestive heart failure B) atherosclerosis C) coronary artery disease D) embolism E) phlebitis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 20  The Heart   665

58) ________ is the symptom generally brought on by coronary ischemia. A) Angina pectoris B) Memory loss C) A rash D) Hematuria E) Fluid in the lungs Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

59) In a procedure known as ________, an inflatable balloon at the end of a catheter is used to press plaque back against the vessel wall. A) balloon angioplasty B) coronary arterial bypass graft C) intravenous catheterization D) ablation E) atherectomy Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

60) A procedure in which a length of the patientʹs vein or artery is used to create a detour around an obstruction in a coronary artery is called A) balloon angioplasty. B) coronary artery bypass graft. C) intravenous catheterization. D) ablation. E) atherectomy. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

61) A fine tubular wire mesh called a ________ may be inserted into a coronary vessel, holding it open. A) angioplast B) stent C) angiogram D) keyhole E) catheter Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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666   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

62) The coronary sinus drains the ________ into the ________. A) coronary arteries; left ventricle B) cardiac veins; right atrium C) interventricular artery; left ventricle D) right atrium; right ventricle E) cardiac vein; right ventricle Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

63) The ________ is a remnant of an important fetal blood vessel that once linked the pulmonary and systemic circuits. A) fossa ovalis B) ductus arteriosus C) foramen ovale D) ductus venosus E) ligamentum arteriosum Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

64) Which of the following statements is true concerning differences between the right and left ventricles? A) The right ventricle pumps with more force compared to the left. B) The left ventricles pumps twice as much blood as the right ventricle. C) The right ventricles pumps blood to the body, whereas the left ventricle pumps blood to the lungs. D) The right ventricle is conical-shaped while the left ventricle is half-moon shaped. E) The efficiency of the right ventricle is increased by the left ventricle because the wall of the left ventricle pushes into the right ventricle. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

65) Cardiac muscle layers form this distinct pattern. A) inner longitudinal layer B) outer longitudinal layer C) outer circular layer D) figure eight E) weave Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 20  The Heart   667

66) The endocardium consists of this type of tissue. A) cardiac muscle B) simple squamous epithelium C) dense irregular connective tissue D) reticular connective tissue E) stratified squamous epithelium Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

67) A hole in the interventricular septum in an infant may cause all of the following symptoms except A) mixing of oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood. B) a murmur to be heard. C) the heart to work harder. D) the individual to have low peripheral oxygen saturation. E) build-up of atherosclerotic plaque. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

68) Thick projections of muscle in the ventricles that anchor chordae tendineae are called A) pectinate muscles. B) conus arteriosus. C) papillary muscles. D) trabeculae carneae. E) auricles. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

69) Prominent muscular ridges in the anterior atrial wall and auricles are called A) pectinate muscles. B) conus arteriosus. C) papillary muscles. D) trabeculae carneae. E) fossa ovalis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

70) Which of the following is not true regarding the right atrioventricular valve? A) It has 3 cusps. B) It is also called the tricuspid valve. C) It prevents backflow of blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium. D) The valve closes when the right atrium contracts. E) The cusps provide one-way flow of blood. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

668   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

71) The ________ is an important ridge of muscle extending horizontally around the right ventricle from the interventricular septum to the base of the anterior papillary muscle containing part of the conducting system. A) auricle B) pectinate muscle C) trabeculae carneae D) moderator band E) conus arteriosus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

72) Which valve(s) contains 2 cusps? A) right AV valve B) left AV valve C) right and left AV valves D) left AV and aortic valves E) right AV and pulmonary valves Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

73) Which valve(s) cusps open up toward the base of the heart? A) right and left AV valves B) aortic and pulmonary valves C) left AV and aortic valves D) right AV and pulmonary valves E) right AV, left AV, aortic and pulmonary valves Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

74) These structures keep the aortic valve cusps from sticking to the wall of the aorta. A) auricles B) chordae tendineae C) papillary muscles D) pectinate muscles E) aortic sinuses Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 20  The Heart   669

75) Which statement correctly describes the term left atrioventricular valve? A) Its cusps open into the left atrium. B) Its cusps open into the superior vena cava. C) Its cusps open into the aorta. D) Its cusps open into the left ventricle. E) Its cusps open into the pulmonary trunk. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

76) Which chamber has the thickest wall? A) left atrium B) right atrium C) left ventricle D) right ventricle E) left auricle Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

77) An MI that affects the ________ side of the heart is more severe because it has to pump blood with ________ force. A) right; less B) right; more C) left; less D) left; more E) right; equal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

78) One possible consequence of untreated strep throat is a disease causing inflammation of heart called A) rheumatic fever. B) rheumatoid arthritis. C) coronary thrombosis. D) coronary ischemia. E) angina pectoris. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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670   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

79) Rheumatic fever causes generalized inflammation of the heart called A) rheumatoid arthritis. B) coronary thrombosis. C) carditis. D) coronary ischemia. E) myocardial infarction. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

80) The connective tissues of the heart are important for all of the following reasons  except A) they help distribute the forces of contraction. B) they prevent overexpansion of the heart. C) they provide support for blood vessels and nerves. D) they produce the pericardial fluid. E) they provide elasticity to help the heart return to its original shape after contraction. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 20  The Heart   671

Figure 20-1 The Heart Use Figure 20-1 to answer the following questions: 81) Identify the structure labeled ʺ19.ʺ A) tricuspid valve B) pulmonary semilunar valve C) aortic semilunar valve D) bicuspid valve E) ligamentum arteriosum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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672   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

82) Identify the structure(s) labeled ʺ8.ʺ A) moderator band B) pectinate muscles C) papillary muscles D) trabeculae carneae E) chordae tendineae Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

83) Identify the structure labeled ʺ6.ʺ A) cusp of tricuspid valve B) pulmonary semilunar valve C) aortic semilunar valve D) bicuspid valve E) ligamentum arteriosum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

84) Which chamber receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circuit? A) 5 B) 10 C) 16 D) 13 E) both 5 and 16 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

85) Identify the structure labeled ʺ22.ʺ A) pulmonary trunk B) aortic arch C) pulmonary veins D) superior vena cava E) carotid artery Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

86) Tetanic muscle contractions donʹt occur in a normal cardiac muscle because A) cardiac muscle tissue contracts on its own. B) neural stimulation is lacking. C) the refractory period lasts until the muscle relaxes. D) the refractory period ends before the muscle reaches peak tension. E) potassium channels outnumber sodium channels. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 20  The Heart   673

87) Cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells differ in a few ways. Which of the following is not one of them? A) Cardiac muscle cells are smaller in size. B) Cardiac muscle cells have a single, centered nucleus. C) Cardiac muscle cells branch. D) Skeletal muscle cells lack intercalated discs. E) Cardiac muscle cells lack transverse tubules. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

88) In cardiac muscle, the fast depolarization phase of the action potential is the result of A) increased membrane permeability to sodium ions. B) increased membrane permeability to potassium ions. C) decreased membrane permeability to calcium ions. D) decreased membrane permeability to sodium ions. E) increased membrane permeability to chloride ions. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

89) The long plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential is due to A) movement of fewer sodium ions across the cell membrane. B) calcium channels remaining open. C) increased membrane permeability to potassium ion. D) decrease in the amount of calcium diffusing across the membrane. E) increased membrane permeability to sodium ions. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

90) In cardiac muscle, A) calcium ions are not released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. B) calcium ions do not bind to troponin molecules. C) calcium ions play no role in the process of contraction. D) about 20 percent of the calcium ion required for contraction comes from outside the cell. E) calcium ions play an important role in repolarizing the membrane after the depolarization phase. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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674   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

91) The normal pacemaker of the heart is located in A) the Purkinje fibers. B) the sinoatrial node. C) the atrioventricular node. D) the wall of the left ventricle. E) both the left and right ventricles. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

92) Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the shape of the ________ in an ECG tracing. A) P wave B) T wave C) QRS complex D) P-R interval E) R-T interval Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

93) As a result of the long refractory period in the cardiac action potential, cardiac muscle cannot exhibit A) tonus. B) treppe. C) tetany. D) recruitment. E) fatigue. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

94) If the pacemaker cells in the SA node become more permeable to potassium ions, the A) heart rate will increase. B) heart rate will decrease. C) cells will depolarize. D) cells will hyperpolarize. E) heart rate will decrease and cells will hyperpolarize. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 20  The Heart   675

95) If the connection between the SA node and AV node becomes blocked, A) the ventricles will beat faster. B) the ventricles will beat more slowly. C) the ventricular beat will remain unchanged. D) cardiac output will increase. E) the atria will contract more forcefully. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

96) The following are structural components of the conducting system of the heart. 1. Purkinje fibers 2. AV bundle 3. AV node 4. SA node 5. bundle branches The sequence in which excitation would move through this system is A) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5. B) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1. C) 3, 5, 4, 2, 1. D) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1. E) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

97) The P wave of the electrocardiogram is a signal from A) the SA node. B) depolarization of the AV node. C) depolarization of the atria. D) repolarization of the atria. E) depolarization of the ventricles. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

98) If there is a complete block between the SA node and the AV node, how would the ECG be affected? A) The P-R interval will be shorter. B) The QRS duration will be longer. C) There will be much bigger P waves. D) The ventricles will stop beating. E) The rate of P waves will be faster than the rate of QRS complexes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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676   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

99) Depolarization of the ventricles is represented on an electrocardiogram by the A) P wave. B) T wave. C) S wave. D) QRS complex. E) PR complex. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

100) The T wave on an ECG tracing represents A) atrial depolarization. B) atrial repolarization. C) ventricular depolarization. D) ventricular repolarization. E) ventricular contraction. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

101) Analysis of the electrocardiogram can reveal all of the following except A) heart rate. B) stroke volume. C) the condition of the conducting system. D) the effects of drugs and poisons. E) the duration of the ventricular action potential. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

102) Pacemaker cells isolated from the SA node generate action potentials at ________ beats per minute. A) 20-40 B) 40-60 C) 80-100 D) 100-140 E) 140-180 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

103) ________ is to slow heart rate as ________ is to fast heart rate. A) Tachycardia; bradycardia B) Bradycardia; cardiomyopathy C) Bradycardia; tachycardia D) Cardiac tamponade; bradycardia E) Angina; infarction Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 20  The Heart   677

104) Depolarization of the atria corresponds to the EKGʹs A) P wave. B) QRS complex. C) QT interval. D) T wave. E) S-T segment. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

105) Which of the following statements is true regarding cardiac muscle? A) Its main source of ATP production is glycogen. B) The actin and myosin myofilaments are not arranged in sarcomeres. C) Cardiac muscle preferentially metabolizes anaerobically. D) There are specialized gap junctions in cardiac muscle not found in skeletal or smooth muscles. E) Cardiac muscle goes into sustained contractions faster than skeletal muscle. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

106) The property of heart muscle to contract in the absence of neural or hormonal stimulation is called A) intrinsic. B) extrinsic. C) automaticity. D) self-replicating. E) self-starting. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

107) The structures responsible for distributing excitation to the contractile cells are A) contractile cells. B) conducting cells. C) intercalated cells. D) pacemaker cells. E) internodal cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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678   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

108) A slower-than-normal heart rate is called A) tachycardia. B) bradycardia. C) hypercardia. D) hypocardia. E) procardia. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

109) A faster-than-normal heart rate is called A) tachycardia. B) bradycardia. C) hypercardia. D) hypocardia. E) procardia. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

110) Collectively, the conducting cells that carry the impulse from the SA node to the AV node is known as the A) conducting system. B) AV block. C) internodal pathway. D) bundle branches. E) pacemaker cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

111) Which of the following describes what is directly measured by an ECG? A) the force of contractions B) blood vessel resistance C) end-systolic volume D) electrical conduction E) neural stimulation of cardiac myocytes Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

112) Gradual drifting of membrane potential toward threshold in autorhythmic cells is termed a A) receptor potential. B) pacemaker potential. C) gated potential. D) ligand-gated potential. E) action potential. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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113) The basic heartrate established by the SA node is called the A) pacemaker potential. B) action potential. C) vagal tone. D) sinus rhythm. E) SA potential. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

114) The AV node delay is beneficial because A) it allows time for the atria to contract. B) it allows time for the ventricles to contract. C) it allows time to send feedback to the brain about heartrate. D) it decreases neural stimulation of the heart. E) it hyperpolarizes the ventricular cell membranes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

115) An ECG is used to diagnose all of the following conditions except A) an AV block. B) an ectopic pacemaker. C) angina pectoris. D) premature atrial contractions. E) ventricular tachycardia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

116) The first heart sound (ʺlubbʺ) is associated with A) atrial systole. B) closing of the atrioventricular valves. C) opening of the atrioventricular valves. D) closing of the semilunar valves. E) opening of the semilunar valves. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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680   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

117) Considering the left ventricle, why does isovolumetric ventricular contraction occur during ventricular systole? A) The ventricle needs to pressurize the blood to close the aortic valve. B) Ventricular pressure is greater than atrial pressure so the ventricle cannot eject blood. C) The bicuspid valve needs time to shut before the ventricle can eject blood. D) Aortic pressure is higher than ventricular pressure and the ventricle must pressurize the blood to open the aortic valve. E) The ventricle is still filling with blood and therefore cannot eject blood during this time. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

118) The phase in the cardiac cycle when the mitral valve is closed and the aortic valve is open is the A) atrial systole. B) early diastolic filling phase. C) late diastolic filling phase. D) systolic ejection phase. E) dicrotic phase. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

119) During ventricular systole, the A) atria are contracting. B) blood is entering the ventricles. C) AV valves are closed. D) pressure in the ventricles remains constant. E) pressure in the aorta remains constant. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

120) With each ventricular systole, A) blood pressure remains steady. B) the ventricles fill with blood. C) blood pressure decreases. D) cardiac output decreases. E) blood pressure increases. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 20  The Heart   681

121) The contraction phase of the cardiac cycle is called A) depolarization. B) systole. C) diastole. D) hyperpolarization. E) asystole. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

122) The relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle is called A) depolarization. B) systole. C) diastole. D) hyperpolarization. E) asystole. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

123) Abnormal heart sounds caused by turbulent flow through faulty valves are called A) ectopic foci. B) murmurs. C) asystole. D) fibrillations. E) flutters. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

124) The backward flow of blood from a ventricle to its atrium or from a outflow vessel to its ventricle is called A) emesis. B) flutter. C) fibrillation. D) regurgitation. E) stenosis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

125) In mitral valve prolapse, the cusps of the mitral valve are pushed into the A) left ventricle. B) right ventricle. C) left atrium. D) right atrium. E) aorta. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

682   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

126) The ________ is the amount of blood in a ventricle after it has contracted and before it begins to refill. A) ejection fraction B) end-diastole volume C) start-diastolic volume D) end-systolic volume E) stroke volume Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

127) The ________ is the volume of blood in a ventricle at the beginning of systole. A) ejection fraction B) end-diastole volume C) asystolic volume D) end-systolic volume E) stroke volume Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

128) The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle when the semilunar valve closes is the A) ejection fraction. B) end-diastole volume. C) start-diastolic volume. D) end-systolic volume. E) stroke volume. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

129) The heart spends most of the cardiac cycle in which phase? A) atrial systole B) atrial diastole C) ventricular systole D) ventricular diastole E) isovolumetric contraction Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 20  The Heart   683

130) During the beginning of ventricular systole when the muscle is contracting but not enough pressure has built up to open the semilunar valves the heart is said to be in A) atrial kick. B) isovolumetric contraction. C) isovolumetric relaxation. D) atrial systole. E) passive ventricular filling. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

131) When heart rate increases, the time spent in A) systole increases. B) diastole increases. C) all phases decreases but most of the decrease is during systole. D) all phases decreases but most of the decrease is during diastole. E) isovolumetric contraction increases. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

132) In an adult at rest, the end-diastolic volume is typically A) 50 mL. B) 80 mL. C) 130 mL. D) 320 mL. E) 560 mL. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

133) Which of the following is occurring during ventricular diastole? A) The ventricles are passively filling. B) The ventricles are passively filling and atria are contracting. C) The AV valves are closed. D) The SL valves are open. E) Ventricular ejection. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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684   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

Figure 20-2 Cardiac Cycle Use Figure 20-2 to answer the following questions: 134) What occurs at the circle labeled ʺ3ʺ on the graph? A) atrial systole B) isovolumetric relaxation C) atrial diastole and ventricle systole D) atrial ejection E) ventricular ejection Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 20  The Heart   685

135) What volume is labeled ʺGʺ on the graph? A) cardiac output B) stroke volume C) end-systolic volume D) end-diastolic volume E) ejection fraction Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

136) What occurs at ʺAʺ on the graph? A) Semilunar valve opens. B) Semilunar valve closes. C) AV valve opens. D) AV valve closes. E) end systolic volume Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

137) What volume is labeled ʺEʺ on the graph? A) cardiac output B) stroke volume C) end-diastolic volume D) end-systolic volume E) total cardiac volume Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

138) What occurs at the circle labeled ʺ5ʺ on the graph? A) peak systolic pressure B) isovolumetric systole C) isovolumetric contraction D) ventricular refilling E) increased heart rate Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

139) What occurs at the area labeled ʺBʺ on the graph? A) Ventricular ejection occurs. B) AV valve closes. C) Semilunar valve opens. D) Semilunar valve closes. E) AV valve opens. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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686   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

140) What occurs at the circle labeled ʺ4ʺ on the graph? A) ventricular ejection B) sympathetic stimulation C) isovolumetric ventricular contraction D) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation E) ventricular filling Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

141) What occurs at the circle labeled ʺ7ʺ on the graph? A) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation B) sympathetic stimulation C) isovolumetric ventricular contraction D) ventricular ejection E) ventricular filling Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

142) What volume is labeled ʺFʺ on the graph? A) cardiac output B) end-systolic volume C) end-diastolic volume D) total cardiac volume E) stroke volume Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

143) What occurs at the area labeled ʺCʺ on the graph? A) AV valve opens. B) AV valve closes. C) Ventricular filling begins. D) Semilunar valve closes. E) Semilunar valve opens. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

144) What is occurring in the left atrium at the circle labeled ʺ2ʺ on the graph? A) Left atrium is pressurizing the left ventricle. B) Left atrium is in systole. C) Left atrial pressure is decreasing. D) Left atrium is in diastole. E) Left atrium is receiving pressure from the left ventricle. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 20  The Heart   687

145) An increase in the rate of action potentials from baroreceptors will trigger a reflex to A) increase heart rate. B) decrease heart rate. C) decrease blood pressure. D) both decrease heart rate and decrease pressure. E) both increase heart rate and increase pressure. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

146) The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the A) end-diastolic volume. B) end-systolic volume. C) stroke volume. D) cardiac output. E) cardiac reserve. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

147) Each of the following factors will increase cardiac output except increased A) venous return. B) parasympathetic stimulation. C) sympathetic stimulation. D) heart rate. E) force of contraction. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

148) Which of the following would not increase heart rate? A) increased sympathetic stimulation of SA node B) decreased parasympathetic stimulation of nodal fibers C) increased levels of epinephrine D) faster depolarization of the pacemaker potential E) beta blocking drugs Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

149) Stroke volume depends on all of the following factors except A) end diastolic volume. B) the contractility of the ventricle. C) the pressure required to pump blood into the aorta. D) venous return of blood to the heart. E) respiratory rate. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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688   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

150) Cardiac output can be increased by all of the following except A) decreasing ejection fraction. B) decreasing end systolic volume. C) increasing stroke volume. D) increasing ejection fraction. E) increasing heart rate. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

151) Heart rate is controlled by neurons of the cardiovascular center located in the A) pons. B) thalamus. C) medulla oblongata. D) hypothalamus. E) higher centers. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

152) Which of the following would cause stroke volume to increase? A) when venous return is decreased B) when ventricular contraction is reduced C) drugs that stimulate beta-1 receptors D) decrease in heart rate E) decreased sympathetic stimulation Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

153) Cardiac output is increased by A) sympathetic stimulation. B) increased end systolic volume. C) decreased end diastolic volume. D) decreased venous return. E) inhibiting the atrial reflex. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

154) Activation of which kind of receptor causes heart rate to increase? A) alpha-one B) beta-one C) muscarinic D) beta-two E) preganglionic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 20  The Heart   689

155) Drugs that block the beta-one adrenergic receptors will A) increase heart rate. B) decrease heart rate. C) increase contractility. D) increase cardiac output. E) decrease the end-systolic volume. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

156) If the force of ventricular contraction increases, what will happen to the end-systolic volume? A) increase B) fluctuate rapidly C) remain the same D) decrease E) reduced to zero Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

157) End-systolic volume is defined as the A) amount of blood a ventricle ejects per cycle. B) amount of blood which backflows into a ventricle. C) amount of blood remaining in an atrium after atrial systole. D) amount of blood remaining in a ventricle after contraction. E) stroke volume multiplied by the heart rate. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

158) A patient has an end-diastolic volume of 125 ml. A heart attack has weakened her left ventricle so it can pump a stroke volume of only 40 ml. Calculate her end-systolic volume. A) 85 ml B) 3.1 ml C) 5000 ml D) 165 ml E) There is not enough data given to calculate the end-systolic volume. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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690   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

159) Calculate cardiac output if the heart rate is 125 beats/minute, the end-diastolic volume is 130 ml, and the end-systolic volume is 40 ml. A) 21,250 ml / min B) 16,250 ml / min C) 11,250 ml / min D) 195 ml / min E) 200 ml / min Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

160) Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with a heart rate of 100 beats/minute and a stroke volume of 75 ml. A) 0.75 ml / min B) 750 ml / min C) 7500 ml / min D) 175 ml / min E) 25 ml / min Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

161) ________ is when the heart canʹt maintain adequate cardiac output. A) Heart failure B) Fibrillation C) Flutter D) Murmur E) Coronary heart disease Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

162) The ________ is the difference between the resting and maximal cardiac output. A) end-systolic volume B) end-diastolic volume C) cardiac reserve D) stroke volume E) ejection fraction Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 20  The Heart   691

163) The principle that increasing the end-diastolic volume results in a corresponding increase in the stroke volume is known as A) afterload. B) cardiac capacity. C) cardiac reserve. D) Frank-Starling principle. E) expandibility. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

164) The amount of blood returning to the heart is the A) afterload. B) stroke volume. C) end-diastolic volume. D) cardiac reserve. E) venous return. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

165) Which factor directly influences preload? A) contractility B) heart rate C) stroke volume D) venous return E) parasympathetic tone Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

166) Positive inotropic drugs such as glucagon and thyroid hormone cause A) decreased heart rate. B) increased heart rate. C) increased contractility. D) decreased contractility. E) asystole. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

167) Hypertension increases ________ causing stroke volume to ________. A) afterload; increase B) afterload; decrease C) preload; increase D) preload; decrease E) contractility; increase Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

692   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

168) John encounters a bear while hiking. His heart will respond in all of the following ways  except A) increasing preload. B) increasing heart rate. C) increasing contractility. D) decreasing heart rate and contractility. E) increasing venous return. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

169) A tumor on the adrenal gland increasing catecholamine release will cause all of the following cardiovascular responses except A) decreased heart rate. B) increased contractility. C) increased venous return. D) increased preload. E) decreased ESV. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) The ________ side of the heart supplies blood to the systemic circuit, while the ________ side of the heart supplies blood to the pulmonary circuit. (Figure 20-1) A) superior; inferior B) inferior; superior C) left; right D) right; left E) left; superior Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) Beginning with the right atrium, what is the order of the valves through which blood will pass? (Figure 20-5) A) mitral valve, aortic valve, tricuspid valve, pulmonary valve B) aortic valve, tricuspid valve, mitral valve, pulmonary valve C) tricuspid valve, mitral valve, pulmonary valve, aortic valve D) pulmonary valve, tricuspid valve, aortic valve, mitral valve E) tricuspid valve, pulmonary valve, mitral valve, aortic valve Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 20  The Heart   693

3) What happens to the electrical impulse when it reaches the AV node? (Figure 20 -11) A) It fizzles out. B) It gets delayed. C) It gets stronger. D) It spreads across the purkinje fibers. E) It causes ventricular contraction to occur. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

4) Which ionʹs entry causes rapid depolarization? Which ionʹs entry causes the plateau? Which ionʹs exit causes repolarization? (Figure 20-15) A) sodium; calcium; potassium B) potassium; calcium; sodium C) calcium; sodium; potassium D) sodium; potassium; calcium E) sodium; iron; potassium Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

5) Which division of the autonomic nervous system would increase heart rate? (Figure 20-21) A) sympathetic nervous system B) parasympathetic nervous system Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) What is considered a ʺnormalʺ cardiac output when resting? Please provide units. (Figure 20-24) A) 1-2 L/min B) 2-5 L/min C) 5-7.5 L/min D) 10-12.5 L/min E) 20-25 L/min Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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694   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

Essay Questions 1) A doctor tells her nursing students that it is important to monitor patientsʹ blood pressure when they are receiving verapamil (a calcium channel blocker). Why? Answer: Calcium channel blockers inhibit the movement of calcium ions from the interstitial fluid into cardiac and smooth muscle cells. This would cause a decrease in heart rate, stroke volume, and cardiac output. These in turn would lower blood pressure. In addition, the calcium channel blockers would also inhibit contraction of the smooth muscle in the wall of blood vessels, causing them to get wider and thus also lower blood pressure. Because both heart and smooth muscle cells are inhibited by verapamil, its effects on blood pressure are particularly potent. Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

2) A patientʹs ECG recording shows a very long P-R interval. What is the cause of this abnormal wave pattern? Answer: The P wave marks the time of atrial depolarization and the QRS complex signals ventricular depolarization. Between those two events the AV node was excited and the action potential was spread through the conducting tissue to the ventricular myocardium. A prolonged P-R interval signifies an unusually slow conduction through the AV node and conducting system, possibly due to insufficient blood flow (ischemia). Learning Outcome: 20-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

3) If a patientʹs resting cardiac output is 5.6 l/min and on a stress test she elevated her heart rate to a maximum of 176 beats/min with a stroke volume of 115 ml/beat, what is her cardiac reserve? Show your work. Answer: Cardiac reserve equals maximum cardiac output - resting cardiac output. Maximum CO = HR × SV = 176 beats/minute × 0.115 liters/beat = 20.2 liters/minute. Cardiac reserve equals 14.6 liters/minute. Learning Outcome: 20-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 21 Blood Vessels and Circulation Multiple Choice Questions 1) The muscular layer in the wall of a blood vessel is the tunica A) intima. B) externa. C) media. D) interna. E) adventitia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) Compared to arteries, veins A) are rounder in a sectional cut. B) have more smooth muscle in their tunica media. C) have a pleated endothelium. D) have thinner walls. E) hold their shape better when cut. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) Capillaries that have a complete lining are called A) continuous capillaries. B) fenestrated capillaries. C) sinusoidal capillaries. D) sinusoids. E) vasa vasorum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) The smallest arterial branches are called the A) muscular arteries. B) arterioles. C) capillaries. D) venules. E) veins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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696   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

5) The layer between the tunica media and the tunica externa in a large artery is the A) tunica intima. B) external elastic membrane. C) tunica media. D) internal elastic membrane. E) tunica externa. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) Which of the following layers of a vessel contains collagen fibers with scattered bands of elastic fibers? A) tunica intima B) external elastic membrane C) tunica media D) internal elastic membrane E) tunica externa Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) After blood leaves the capillaries, it enters the A) arteries. B) arterioles. C) capillaries. D) venules. E) veins. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) Which layer of a blood vessel contains concentric sheets of smooth muscle tissue? A) tunica intima B) external elastic membrane C) tunica media D) internal elastic membrane E) tunica externa Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

9) The large vessels that return blood to the heart are called A) arteries. B) arterioles. C) capillaries. D) venules. E) veins. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 21  Blood Vessels and Circulation    697

10) In arteries, the thick layer of elastic fibers associated with the tunica intima is called the A) tunica intima. B) external elastic membrane. C) tunica media. D) internal elastic membrane. E) tunica externa. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

11) Which of the following is the innermost layer of a blood vessel? A) tunica intima B) external elastic membrane C) tunica media D) internal elastic membrane E) tunica externa Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

12) Venoconstriction ________ the amount of blood within the venous system, which ________ the volume in the arterial and capillary systems. A) doubles; decreases B) reduces; increases C) decreases; doubles D) increases; reduces E) reduces; reduces Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

13) Venous valves are responsible for A) preventing anterograde flow. B) channeling blood away from the heart. C) channeling blood toward the heart. D) preventing blood from re-entering a ventricle. E) regulating blood pressure in veins. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

14) Venae cavae are the largest of what type of vessel? A) artery B) arteriole C) capillary D) venule E) vein Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

698   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

15) Which of the following vessels changes diameter most readily to local conditions or SNS stimulation? A) elastic arteries B) arterioles C) fenestrated capillaries D) venules E) veins Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

16) Of the following, which is an elastic artery? A) the subclavian B) the external carotid C) the brachial D) the femoral E) the ulnar Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

17) You would expect to find fenestrated capillaries in A) skeletal muscles. B) cardiac muscle. C) the pituitary gland. D) bone. E) skin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

18) A sample of tissue displays many large flattened spaces lined by fenestrated endothelium. Blood moves slowly through these spaces. This tissue sample most likely came from the A) heart. B) lungs. C) liver. D) kidneys. E) skin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 21  Blood Vessels and Circulation    699

19) These vessels may be continuous or fenestrated. A) arteries B) arterioles C) capillaries D) venules E) veins Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

20) What structure do RBCs move through single-file? A) artery B) arteriole C) capillary D) venule E) vein Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

21) Capillaries with a perforated lining are called A) perforated capillaries. B) discontinuous capillaries. C) fenestrated capillaries. D) sinuses. E) vasa vasorum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

22) Exchange between a blood vessel and the cells that surround it can occur only in A) arteries. B) arterioles. C) veins. D) venules. E) capillaries. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

23) Which kind of vessel is also called a resistance vessel? A) artery B) arteriole C) capillary D) venule E) vein Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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700   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

24) Blood flow through a capillary is controlled by the A) vasa vasorum. B) plexus. C) precapillary sphincter. D) thoroughfare channel. E) venule. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

25) The common iliac artery is an example of which type of artery? A) arteriolar B) elastic C) connective D) muscular E) vascular Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

26) Venoconstriction reduces the diameter of which vessel? A) artery B) arteriole C) capillary D) venule E) vein Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

27) The brachial and femoral arteries are examples of which type of artery? A) arteriolar B) elastic C) connective D) muscular E) vascular Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

28) What vessels contain elastic fibers in the walls that are stretched during systole? A) arteries B) arterioles C) capillaries D) venules E) veins Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 21  Blood Vessels and Circulation    701

29) Which of the following is most likely to result from an aneurysm in a brain artery? A) hypotension B) quadriplegia C) stroke D) myocardial infarction E) pulmonary embolism Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

30) Complications related to arteriosclerosis account for roughly ________ percent of deaths in the United States. A) 30 B) 60 C) 20 D) 50 E) 25 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

31) Arteriosclerosis can lead to all of the following except A) hypertension. B) stroke. C) coronary artery disease. D) myocardial infarction. E) diabetes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

32) Which of the following are the smallest venous vessels? A) large veins B) venules C) medium veins D) arteriovenules E) venous valves Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

33) Blood moves forward through veins because of all of the following except A) the pressure in the veins is lower than in the arteries. B) pumping by the smooth muscle in the wall of the vein. C) the respiratory pump. D) valves in the veins preventing the backward flow of blood. E) muscular compression. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

702   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

34) Which part of the vascular system functions as a blood reservoir and contains over 60% of the bodyʹs blood? A) pulmonary arteries B) capillaries C) systemic arterioles D) veins E) arteries Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

35) What is the correct order for the sequence of blood vessels that blood would travel in the systemic circuit, starting at the aorta? 1. venules 2. arterioles 3. capillaries 4. elastic arteries 5. medium veins 6. large veins 7. muscular arteries A) 6, 5, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4 B) 4, 7, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6 C) 7, 4, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6 D) 5, 6, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4 E) 2, 7, 6, 3, 1, 5, 6 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

36) The main control of peripheral resistance occurs in the A) arterioles. B) venules. C) veins. D) arteries. E) capillaries. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

37) Multiple arteries joined in order to serve a single capillary network are called A) convergents. B) arteriole beds. C) portals. D) connexons. E) collaterals. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 21  Blood Vessels and Circulation    703

38) The direct interconnection of two arteries is called an arterial A) collateral. B) anastomosis. C) unification. D) merger. E) portal. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

39) A(n) ________ is a direct connection between an arteriole and a venule. A) arteriovenule joint B) collateralization C) arteriovenous anastomosis D) arteriovenule junction E) arch Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

40) The ________ are small blood vessels that nourish tissue components in the wall of large arteries and veins. A) tunica capillaria B) perfusion capillaries C) vasa vasorum D) vascular capillaries E) cortical vessels Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

41) The increase in effective blood volume that results from venoconstriction is the A) venous reserve. B) capacitance of veins. C) vessel mobilization. D) venous return. E) vessel residual. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

42) In the condition known as ________, the wall of an artery becomes thicker and stiffer. A) arthritis B) arteriosclerosis C) stenosis D) atherosclerosis E) multiple sclerosis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

704   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

43) The condition known as ________ is characterized by the formation of fatty plaques within the wall of arteries. A) arthritis B) arteriosclerosis C) stenosis D) atherosclerosis E) multiple sclerosis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

44) Points where a muscular artery can be compressed against a bone to control severe bleeding are called A) decompression points. B) palpation points. C) diastolic points. D) regulation points. E) pressure points. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

45) A(n) ________ is a bulge, or weakened wall, of an artery. A) aneurysm B) stroke C) vascular edema D) arteriosclerosis E) atherosclerosis Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

46) ________ form elaborate capillary networks within tissues that allow for very slow blood flow. A) Varicosities B) Sinusoids C) Foramina D) Portal systems E) Perfusion centers Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 21  Blood Vessels and Circulation    705

47) After the precapillary sphincter, blood enters a(n) A) venule. B) anastomosis. C) vein. D) arteriole. E) thoroughfare channel. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

48) The tunica intima consists of A) stratified squamous epithelium. B) simple squamous epithelium and loose connective tissue. C) smooth muscle and loose connective tissue. D) simple squamous epithelium and smooth muscle. E) loose connective tissue. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

49) What are the layers of blood vessels from outside to inside? A) tunica intima; tunica externa; tunica media B) tunica intima; tunica media; tunica externa C) tunica media; tunica externa; tunica interna D) tunica externa; tunica interna; tunica media E) tunica externa; tunica media; tunica interna Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

50) What is the difference between elastic arteries and muscular arteries? A) Elastic arteries have more smooth muscle than muscular arteries. B) Muscular arteries have larger lumens than elastic arteries. C) Elastic arteries have elastic fibers throughout the tunica media whereas muscular arteries have few elastic fibers in the tunica media. D) Elastic arteries are closest to the arterioles and muscular arteries are farther away. E) Elastic arteries have a larger tunica intima and tunica media compared to muscular arteries. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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706   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

51) Monocytes filled with lipid that attach to the endothelial lining in atherosclerosis are termed A) lipoproteins. B) foam cells. C) Kuppfer cells. D) fibrocytes. E) adipocytes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

52) Cardiovascular diseases typically affect A) young children. B) young women. C) old men. D) old men and old women. E) young men. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

53) What is the primary reason cardiovascular disease affects older women and not younger women? A) Older women are less likely to smoke. B) Older women are less likely to see a doctor. C) Older women lack estrogen. D) Older women are more likely to have osteoporosis. E) Older women lack growth hormone. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

54) A genetic condition that leads to the inability to absorb and recycle cholesterol in the liver is A) focal calcification. B) familial hypercholesterolemia. C) atherosclerosis. D) arteriosclerosis. E) coronary artery disease. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

55) Which of the following is not a commonly palpated arterial pressure point? A) axillary B) radial C) brachial D) femoral E) popliteal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 21  Blood Vessels and Circulation    707

56) Which vessel has only the tunica intima layer? A) artery B) vein C) arteriole D) venule E) capillary Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

57) In the bone marrow, new blood cells must enter the circulation through A) arterioles. B) continuous capillaries. C) fenestrated capillaries. D) sinusoidal capillaries. E) venules. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

58) Anti-angiogenic drugs are being used to decrease tumor growth. These drugs work by decreasing A) cell division. B) cell communication. C) new blood vessel formation. D) focal calcification. E) vascular flow. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

59) Distension of the superficial veins caused by weakened valves is termed A) hemorrhoids. B) venoconstriction. C) vaso vasorum. D) varicose veins. E) venous reserve. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

60) Resistance is a force that A) increases blood flow. B) decreases blood flow. C) never changes in a blood vessel. D) acts with pressure to move blood along a vessel. E) is always higher than blood pressure. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

708   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

61) Total peripheral resistance is related to all of the following except the A) length of a blood vessel. B) osmolarity of interstitial fluids. C) turbulence. D) blood viscosity. E) blood vessel diameter. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

62) As blood travels from arteries to veins, A) pressure builds. B) pressure drops. C) flow becomes turbulent. D) viscosity increases. E) diameter of the blood vessels gets progressively smaller. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

63) Blood flow to a tissue will increase if the A) level of oxygen at the tissue increases. B) level of carbon dioxide at the tissue decreases. C) veins constrict. D) arterioles dilate. E) arterioles constrict. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

64) Blood pressure is determined by A) measuring the size of the pulse. B) listening carefully to the pulse. C) estimating the pressure needed to close off an artery with an external pressure cuff. D) estimating the degree of turbulence in a partly closed vessel. E) measuring the force of contraction of the left ventricle. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

65) In what vessel is blood pressure the highest? A) artery B) arteriole C) capillary D) venule E) vein Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 21  Blood Vessels and Circulation    709

66) Blood pressure increases with all of the following except increased A) cardiac output. B) peripheral resistance. C) blood volume. D) parasympathetic innervation. E) force of cardiac contraction. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

67) Which of the following factors will increase the net filtration pressure to move fluid out of capillaries? A) decreased plasma albumin B) increased blood hydrostatic pressure C) increased tissue hydrostatic pressure D) both decreased plasma albumin and increased blood hydrostatic pressure E) increased plasma albumin and decreased blood hydrostatic pressure Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

68) The main control of peripheral resistance occurs in the A) artery. B) arteriole. C) capillary. D) venule. E) vein. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

69) The vascular pressure that declines from roughly 35 mm Hg to about 18 mm Hg is the A) venous pressure. B) capillary hydrostatic pressure. C) diastolic pressure. D) peripheral pressure. E) pulse pressure. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

70) Clinically, the term blood pressure usually refers to A) arteriovenous pressure. B) capillary hydrostatic pressure. C) arterial pressure. D) peripheral pressure. E) pulse pressure. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

710   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

71) Averaged over a few heartbeats, venous return is ________ cardiac output. A) much higher than B) somewhat higher than C) equal to D) somewhat lower than E) much lower than Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

72) Blood pressure is lowest in the A) arteries. B) arterioles. C) capillaries. D) venules. E) veins. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

73) If blood pressure doubled, the blood flow through a vessel would be A) doubled. B) halved. C) four times greater. D) 1/4 as much. E) unchanged. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

74) In which of the following would the blood flow be highest? A) a vessel 0.5 cm in diameter and 2 meters long B) a vessel 1.0 cm in diameter and 10 meters long C) a vessel 0.5 cm in diameter and 4 meters long D) a vessel 1.0 cm in diameter and 2 meters long Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

75) Each of the following factors would increase peripheral resistance except A) increased sympathetic stimulation. B) elevated levels of epinephrine. C) vasodilation. D) irregularities in the vessel walls caused by plaques. E) elevated hematocrit. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 21  Blood Vessels and Circulation    711

76) If a person has a blood pressure of 120/90, his mean arterial pressure would be ________ mm Hg. A) 210 B) 100 C) 93 D) 105 E) 90 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

77) The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the ________ pressure. A) critical closing B) mean arterial C) pulse D) blood E) circulatory Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

78) The blood colloid osmotic pressure mostly depends on the A) concentration of plasma sodium ions. B) concentration of plasma glucose. C) concentration of plasma waste products. D) concentration of plasma proteins. E) number of red blood cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

79) Which of the following statements is false concerning the movement of fluid between capillaries and interstitial space? A) Blood hydrostatic pressure forces fluid from the capillary to the interstitial space. B) Blood osmotic pressure moves fluid from the interstitial space to the capillary. C) The osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid is less than the blood osmotic pressure. D) The hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid is largely unimportant in determining fluid movement. E) The net filtration pressure is usually zero. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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80) Each of the following changes will result in increased blood flow to a tissue  except A) increased hematocrit. B) increased vessel diameter. C) increased blood pressure. D) decreased peripheral resistance. E) relaxation of precapillary sphincters. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

81) In comparison to a vessel with a large diameter, a vessel with a small diameter has A) less resistance to blood flow. B) the same amount of pressure as resistance. C) a greater resistance to blood flow. D) a higher blood pressure. E) a greater blood flow. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

82) Which of the following equations shows the correct relation between blood flow (F), pressure (P), and resistance (R)? A) P = (F × R) × 4 B) F = R/P C) F = P + R D) F = P - R E) F = P/R Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

83) As blood circulates from arteries into capillaries, the total cross-sectional area of capillaries A) decreases and causes the blood velocity to decrease. B) is the same as the total cross-sectional area of arteries and blood velocity is equal between arteries and capillaries. C) increases and causes the blood velocity to decrease. D) increases and causes the blood velocity to increase. E) decreases and causes the blood velocity to increase. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 21  Blood Vessels and Circulation    713

84) Which of the following is normally the greatest source acting against blood flow? A) vascular resistance B) venous pressure C) viscosity of blood D) vessel length E) turbulence Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

85) The force that moves fluid out of capillaries is ________ pressure whereas the opposing force that moves fluid into capillaries is ________ pressure. A) systolic; diastolic B) hydrostatic; colloid osmotic C) blood; interstitial D) colloid osmotic; hydrostatic E) plasma; extracellular Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

86) Some of the fluid that is forced out of capillaries is returned to the blood by the A) muscular arteries. B) liver. C) hepatic portal vein. D) venules. E) lymphatic system. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

87) Blood colloid osmotic pressure is produced by A) large non-diffusible proteins in the blood plasma. B) a greater salt concentration in blood cells. C) the force of blood pushing against the vessel wall. D) osmosis of water. E) hypertonic solutions separated by a cell membrane. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

88) Blood colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP) decreases in starving children because A) starvation increases blood pressure which, in turn, decreases BCOP. B) starvation increases the permeability of capillaries causing a decrease in BCOP. C) starvation prevents the liver from producing enough protein to maintain BCOP. D) malnourished children do not exercise, which results in a decrease in BCOP. E) This statement is false; BCOP actually increases in starving children. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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89) Calculate the net filtration pressure (NFP) with a blood hydrostatic pressure of 40 mm Hg and a blood colloid osmotic pressure of 25 mm Hg. Then determine if filtration or reabsorption occurs. NFP = ________ and results in a fluid ________. A) 15 mm Hg; filtration B) 65 mm Hg; reabsorption C) 65 mm Hg; filtration D) 15 mm Hg; reabsorption E) -15 mm Hg; filtration Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

90) Which of the following opposes the flow of blood back to the heart? A) vascular resistance B) peripheral veins have valves to prevent backflow of blood C) muscular pumps squeeze veins and move blood toward the heart D) blood pressure E) blood pressure gradient from arteries to veins Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

91) As blood travels from arteries to veins, A) viscosity of blood changes. B) pressure increases. C) diameter of the blood vessels gets progressively smaller. D) pressure decreases. E) flow becomes turbulent. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

92) Edema may occur when A) the plasma concentration of protein is reduced. B) capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated. C) capillary endothelium permeability goes up. D) the plasma concentration of protein is reduced and capillary endothelium permeability goes up. E) the plasma concentration of protein is reduced, capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated, and the capillary endothelium permeability goes up. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 21  Blood Vessels and Circulation    715

93) The resistance to blood flow of the entire cardiovascular system is known as A) severe combined constriction. B) vasomotion. C) vasoconstriction. D) total peripheral resistance. E) systemic resistance. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

94) Systemic arterial pressure in an adult at the entrance to the aorta averages A) 18 mmHg. B) 35 mmHg. C) 80 mmHg. D) 120 mmHg. E) 93 mmHg. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

95) You can expect children to have lower blood pressures than adults on average because A) they have fewer blood vessels. B) their hearts beat less forcefully. C) their capillaries are leakier. D) their blood is less viscous. E) their blood vessel length is less. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

96) Total peripheral resistance is affected primarily by A) blood vessel diameter. B) blood vessel length. C) blood viscosity. D) venous pressure. E) turbulence. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

97) All of the following conditions change peripheral resistance by affecting blood viscosity except A) sickle-cell anemia. B) increase in erythropoietin. C) polycythemia. D) atherosclerosis. E) pernicious anemia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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98) Cross-sectional area is highest in A) arteries. B) arterioles. C) capillaries. D) venules. E) veins. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

99) Which of the following is true of arteries compared to other vessels? A) Blood pressure and velocity are lowest. B) Blood pressure and velocity are highest. C) Blood pressure and cross-sectional area are lowest. D) Blood pressure and cross-sectional area are highest. E) Velocity and cross-sectional area are highest. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

100) Which of the following is true of capillaries compared to other vessels? A) Blood pressure and velocity are highest. B) Blood pressure and cross-sectional area are lowest. C) Cross-sectional area is highest and velocity is lowest. D) Cross-sectional area is lowest and velocity is highest. E) Blood pressure is highest and velocity is lowest. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

101) A temporary loss of consciousness due to a decrease in blood flow to the brain is termed A) stroke. B) coronary ischemia. C) cerebral hypoxia. D) fainting. E) cerebral hypotension. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

102) During hemorrhaging, the drop in capillary hydrostatic pressure will ________ NFP, thus ________ reabsorption. A) increase; reducing B) increase; increasing C) decrease; reducing D) decrease; increasing E) stabilize; reducing Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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103) Each of the following will lead to a decrease in blood pressure  except A) release of renin. B) decrease in blood volume. C) decreased peripheral resistance. D) increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide). E) decreased levels of aldosterone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

104) Each of the following will cause an increase in blood pressure except A) increased levels of aldosterone. B) increased levels of angiotensin II. C) increased blood volume. D) increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide). E) increased levels of ADH (antidiuretic hormone). Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

105) When a person rises quickly from a sitting position, all of the following reactions will occur except A) the carotid baroreceptors become less active. B) venous return is decreased. C) reflex vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels occurs. D) heart rate is reflexively elevated. E) cardiac output will decrease. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

106) Stimulation of the aortic baroreceptors reflexively results in A) stimulation of the cardioaccelerator center in the brain. B) increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart. C) increased activity by the parasympathetic nervous system. D) stimulation of the vasoconstrictive center. E) increased heart rate. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

107) Fear can result in A) increased stimulation of the cardioinhibitory center by higher brain centers. B) increased stimulation of the cardioacceleratory center by higher brain centers. C) decreased heart rate. D) decreased blood pressure. E) parasympathetic stimulation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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108) Elevated levels of the natriuretic peptide hormones ANP and BNP will produce increased A) salt and water loss through the kidneys. B) blood volume. C) sodium ion levels in blood. D) venous return and preload. E) blood pressure. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

109) When carotid and aortic baroreceptors reduce their output, A) heart rate increases. B) heart rate decreases. C) stroke volume increases. D) both heart rate and stroke volume increase. E) the heart rate will decrease to lower blood pressure. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

110) Increased levels of carbon dioxide in the blood will result in decreased A) heart rate. B) cardiac output. C) blood flow to the lungs. D) parasympathetic stimulation of the heart. E) sympathetic stimulation of the heart. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

111) Vickie has a tumor that secretes excess amounts of the hormone aldosterone. Because of the elevated level of hormone, she exhibits A) decreased blood volume. B) increased blood pressure. C) increased body stores of sodium ions. D) polycythemia. E) both an increase in blood pressure and an increase in stored sodium ions. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

112) Which of the following conditions is least likely to lead to renin release? A) renal artery thrombus B) vasospasm of the renal arteries C) circulatory shock D) increased sympathetic activity E) hypertension Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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113) The regulation of blood flow by local mechanisms within a capillary bed is called A) autoregulation. B) hormonal regulation. C) hemoregulation. D) vasoregulation. E) neuroregulation. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

114) Partial constriction due to constant sympathetic stimulation of blood vessels is known as A) vasoconstriction. B) vasodilation. C) arteriosclerosis. D) vasomotor tone. E) aortic reflex. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

115) Baroreceptors are located in the A) carotid sinuses. B) aortic sinuses. C) right atrial wall. D) carotid and aortic sinuses. E) carotid and aortic sinuses and the right atrial wall. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

116) Which is not an effect of angiotensin II to increase blood pressure? A) increasing production of aldosterone B) increasing secretion of ADH C) increasing atrial natriuretic peptide D) increasing thirst E) vasoconstriction increasing total peripheral resistance Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

117) Which of the following changes does not occur during exercise compared to rest? A) Cardiac output is higher. B) Heart blood flow is higher. C) Skin blood flow is lower. D) Abdominal viscera blood flow is lower. E) Kidney blood flow is lower. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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118) To defend blood volume against dehydration, the body A) reduces reabsorption of water at the kidneys. B) experiences an increase of interstitial fluids. C) experiences a decrease in the blood colloidal osmotic pressure. D) releases antidiuretic hormone (ADH). E) releases atrial natriuretic peptide. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

119) All of the following occur during exercise except A) vasodilation occurs at the active skeletal muscles. B) venous return increases. C) both cardiac output and stroke volume increase. D) tissue perfusion to the digestive system decreases. E) angiotensin II is released. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

120) In response to hemorrhage, there is A) peripheral vasodilation. B) increased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart. C) mobilization of the venous reserve. D) constriction of elastic arteries to maintain blood pressure. E) increased blood flow to the digestive system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

121) Homeostatic mechanisms in response to blood loss include all of the following except A) uptake of interstitial fluid due to reduced capillary pressure. B) inhibition of EPO secretion. C) activation of ADH secretion. D) activation of aldosterone secretion. E) increased thirst and water intake. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

122) Trained athletes tend to have ________ heart rates and ________ stroke volumes than nonathletes at rest. A) higher; higher B) lower; lower C) higher; lower D) lower; higher E) similar; higher Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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123) Which of these is not a short-term response to a decrease in blood pressure? A) release of EPO B) increase in heart rate C) increase in heart contractility D) peripheral vasoconstriction E) release of epinephrine and norepinephrine Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

124) Pulmonary arteries carry blood to the A) right atrium. B) left atrium. C) lungs. D) aorta. E) systemic circuit. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

125) The pulmonary veins carry ________ blood to the ________. A) deoxygenated; left atrium B) oxygenated; right lung C) deoxygenated; superior vena cava D) deoxygenated; right atrium E) oxygenated; left atrium Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

126) How many pulmonary veins are there? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) it varies Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

127) Branches off the aortic arch include the A) brachiocephalic trunk. B) left subclavian artery. C) left common carotid artery. D) left subclavian artery and left common carotid artery. E) brachiocephalic trunk, left subclavian artery, and left common carotid artery. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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722   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

128) Major branches of the subclavian artery include the ________ artery(ies). A) radial B) brachial C) internal thoracic D) digital E) phrenic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

129) After passing the first rib, the subclavian artery becomes the ________ artery. A) radial B) ulnar C) brachial D) axillary E) digital Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

130) After entering the arm, the axillary artery becomes the ________ artery. A) radial B) ulnar C) brachial D) subclavian E) digital Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

131) The brachial artery branches to form the radial and ________ arteries. A) axillary B) digital C) ulnar D) subclavian E) brachiocephalic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

132) The two vertebral arteries fuse to form a large artery called the A) cerebral arterial circle. B) common carotid artery. C) external carotid artery. D) internal carotid artery. E) basilar artery. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 21  Blood Vessels and Circulation    723

133) The ________ carries nutrient-rich blood into the liver. A) hepatic artery B) gastric vein C) myenteric capillaries D) hepatic portal vein E) superior mesenteric vein Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

134) The internal carotids and the basilar artery are interconnected by an anastomosis called the A) common carotid artery. B) basal ring. C) cerebral arterial circle. D) external carotid artery. E) arterial bypass. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

135) Near the carotid sinus, A) the common carotid divides into an internal and an external branch. B) the internal carotids fuse with the vertebral arteries. C) the external carotid forms the internal carotid. D) veins and arteries anastomose. E) the aorta gives rise to the common carotids. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

136) The ________ divides the aorta into the thoracic aorta and the abdominal aorta. A) pericardium B) mediastinum C) diaphragm D) peritoneum E) pleura Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

137) Branches of the thoracic aorta include all of the following except the ________ arteries. A) basilar B) superior phrenic C) esophageal D) bronchial E) intercostal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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724   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

138) Near the level of vertebra L4 , the aorta branches to form the ________ arteries. A) common carotid B) common iliac C) femoral D) tibial E) popliteal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

139) The external iliac artery branches to form the ________ arteries. A) radial and ulnar B) femoral and popliteal C) femoral and tibial D) tibial and popliteal E) femoral and deep femoral Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

140) At the knee, the femoral artery becomes the ________ artery. A) iliac B) deep femoral C) popliteal D) tibial E) peroneal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

141) Branches of the popliteal artery include the A) femoral artery. B) anterior tibial artery. C) iliac artery. D) dorsalis pedis. E) plantar arch. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

142) The vessel that receives blood from the head, neck, chest, shoulders, and arms is the A) internal jugular vein. B) external jugular vein. C) superior vena cava. D) inferior vena cava. E) coronary sinus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 21  Blood Vessels and Circulation    725

143) Veins of the brain empty into A) coronary sinuses. B) dural sinuses. C) the cerebral arterial circle. D) external jugular veins. E) vertebral veins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

144) The superior sagittal sinus collects blood from the A) heart. B) lungs. C) brain. D) arms. E) legs. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

145) Which of the following is a deep vein of the forearm? A) azygos B) hemiazygos C) cephalic D) radial E) basilic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

146) The radial and ulnar veins fuse to form the ________ vein. A) azygos B) hemiazygos C) axillary D) brachial E) basilic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

147) At the level of the first rib, the axillary vein becomes the ________ vein. A) cephalic B) azygos C) subclavian D) innominate E) external jugular Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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148) The vein that is formed from the fusion of the subclavian with the internal and external jugulars is the ________ vein. A) azygos B) hemiazygos C) axillary D) iliac E) brachiocephalic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

149) The fusion of the brachiocephalic veins forms the A) inferior vena cava. B) superior vena cava. C) innominate vein. D) subclavian vein. E) azygos vein. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

150) Each of the following is a component of the cerebral arterial circle  except the ________ artery. A) anterior communicating B) anterior cerebral C) posterior communicating D) posterior cerebral E) basilar Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

151) An important artery that supplies blood to the brain is the ________ artery. A) internal carotid B) external carotid C) mental D) azygos E) maxillary Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

152) Blood from the brain returns to the heart through the ________ vein. A) vertebral B) azygos C) innominate D) internal jugular E) external jugular Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 21  Blood Vessels and Circulation    727

153) Which of the following contributes to the formation of the popliteal vein? A) internal iliac B) small saphenous and great saphenous C) anterior and posterior tibial and fibular D) peroneal and popliteal E) great saphenous and posterior tibial Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

154) Blood from capillaries on the superior surface of the foot drains into a(n) A) plantar vein. B) dorsal venous arch. C) small saphenous vein. D) peroneal vein. E) iliac vein. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

155) Blood from the dorsal venous arch is drained by the ________ vein(s). A) small saphenous B) great saphenous C) posterior tibial D) small saphenous and great saphenous E) posterior tibial and great saphenous Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

156) At the knee, the small saphenous, tibial, and fibular veins unite to form the ________ vein. A) femoral B) popliteal C) external iliac D) internal iliac E) inferior vena cava Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

157) When the popliteal vein reaches the femur, it becomes the ________ vein. A) femoral B) deep femoral C) internal iliac D) external iliac E) lumbar Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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158) The ________ vein is formed by the fusion of the greater saphenous vein, femoral vein, and deep femoral vein. A) internal iliac B) external iliac C) common iliac D) inferior vena cava E) azygos Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

159) Which of the following veins empty directly into the inferior vena cava? A) left gonadal B) hepatic portal C) azygos D) left adrenal E) renal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

160) The two common iliac veins form the A) femoral vein. B) greater saphenous vein. C) inferior vena cava. D) hepatic portal vein. E) innominate vein. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

161) The blood vessel that carries blood to the arm and shoulder is the ________ artery. A) axillary B) subclavian C) brachial D) acromial E) brachiocephalic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

162) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the head and neck is the ________ artery. A) brachiocephalic B) vertebral C) subclavian D) common carotid E) cervical Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 21  Blood Vessels and Circulation    729

163) The bronchial arteries branch from the ________ to supply the lung airways. A) pulmonary arteries B) thoracic aorta C) pulmonary veins D) pleural arteries E) brachiocephalic trunk Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

164) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the liver, stomach, and spleen is the A) celiac artery. B) inferior mesenteric vein. C) hepatic portal vein. D) gastric vein. E) superior mesenteric artery. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

165) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the pancreas, the small intestine, and most of the large intestine is the A) celiac artery. B) inferior mesenteric vein. C) hepatic portal vein. D) gastric vein. E) superior mesenteric artery. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

166) The ________ is the kidneyʹs sole blood supply. A) celiac trunk B) abdominal aorta C) hepatic artery D) renal artery E) superior mesenteric artery Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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167) The blood vessel that branches from the subclavian artery to supply the anterior wall of the chest is the A) internal thoracic. B) azygos artery. C) mediastinal artery. D) thoracic aorta. E) vertebral artery. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

168) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the cerebral arterial circle from the posterior is the ________ artery. A) basilar B) middle cerebral C) vertebral D) internal carotid E) posterior cerebral Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

169) The superior phrenic artery supplies blood to the A) lungs. B) heart. C) diaphragm. D) pharynx. E) pancreas. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

170) The ________ artery supplies blood to the face. A) facial B) vertebral C) common carotid D) external carotid E) internal carotid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 21  Blood Vessels and Circulation    731

171) The lower part of the large intestine including the rectum receives blood from the A) celiac trunk. B) inferior mesenteric artery. C) internal iliac artery. D) abdominal aorta. E) external iliac artery. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

172) Ovaries and testes receive a blood supply from the ________ arteries. A) gonadal B) reproductive C) pelvic D) pubic E) internal iliac Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

173) The inferior portion of the spinal cord and the abdominal wall receive blood from the A) vertebral artery. B) abdominal aorta. C) sacral artery. D) coccygeal artery. E) lumbar artery. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

174) The larger of the two branches of the common iliac artery is the ________ artery. A) superficial iliac B) deep iliac C) external iliac D) internal iliac E) femoral Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

175) The branch of the common iliac artery that enters the pelvic cavity is the ________ artery. A) superficial iliac B) deep iliac C) external iliac D) internal iliac E) femoral Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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176) The vessels that receive blood from the ovaries or testes are the A) gonadal veins. B) reproductive veins. C) inferior vena cavae. D) pelvic veins. E) pubic veins. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

177) Blood is drained from the liver by the A) inferior vena cava. B) celiac trunk. C) hepatic vein. D) hepatic portal vein. E) both the hepatic vein and the hepatic portal vein. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

178) The ________ receives blood from the diaphragm. A) pleural vein B) phrenic vein C) inferior vena cava D) celiac trunk E) inferior mesenteric vein Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

179) Blood returns from the gallbladder by way of the ________ vein. A) hepatic B) hepatic portal C) biliary D) cystic E) azygos Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

180) Arteries that supply the plantar portion of the foot branch from the posterior ________ artery. A) popliteal B) femoral C) calcaneal D) tibial E) dorsalis pedis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 21  Blood Vessels and Circulation    733

181) The vein in the arm commonly sampled for blood by venipuncture is the ________ vein. A) cephalic B) basilic C) brachial D) median cubital E) ulnar Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

182) The ________ vein ascends along the ulnar side of the forearm. A) cephalic B) basilic C) brachial D) median cubital E) ulnar Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

183) The ________ vein ascends along the radial side of the forearm. A) cephalic B) basilic C) brachial D) median cubital E) ulnar Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

184) Blood from the medial border of the stomach is drained by the A) celiac trunk. B) gastric vein. C) superior mesenteric vein. D) inferior mesenteric vein. E) inferior vena cava. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

185) Blood is drained from the lower portion of the large intestine by the A) celiac trunk. B) gastric vein. C) superior mesenteric vein. D) inferior mesenteric vein. E) inferior vena cava. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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186) Veins from the spleen, pancreas, and lateral border of the stomach unite to form the A) celiac trunk. B) hepatic portal vein. C) splenic vein. D) gastric vein. E) superior mesenteric vein. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

187) The ________ collects blood from the entire small intestine and two -thirds of the large intestine. A) celiac trunk B) hepatic portal vein C) splenic vein D) gastric vein E) superior mesenteric vein Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

188) Which of the following arteries is not a trunk? A) brachiocephalic B) carotid C) celiac D) pulmonary E) thyrocervical Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

189) The left and right coronary arteries originate at the A) aortic arch. B) carotid sinus. C) brachiocephalic trunk. D) aortic sinus. E) aortic valve. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

190) The brachiocephalic trunk delivers blood to A) the left arm. B) the right arm. C) the left arm and neck. D) the right arm and neck. E) the right arm, head and neck. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 21  Blood Vessels and Circulation    735

191) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the muscles and other tissues of the neck, shoulder, and upper back is the A) brachiocephalic trunk. B) common carotid artery. C) jugular vein. D) thyrocervical trunk. E) axillary artery. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

192) The fingers are supplied with blood by the ________ arteries. A) deep palmar B) digital C) superficial palmar D) plantar E) dorsalis pedis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

193) An important pulse point in the neck on the lateral sides of the trachea is the A) internal carotid artery. B) external carotid artery. C) common carotid artery. D) internal jugular vein. E) external jugular vein. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

194) Which blood vessel enters the brain through the carotid canal? A) internal carotid artery B) external carotid artery C) common carotid artery D) internal jugular vein E) carotid sinus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

195) The internal carotid artery branches into the A) ophthalmic artery and anterior cerebral artery. B) ophthalmic artery and middle cerebral artery. C) ophthalmic artery, anterior cerebral and middle cerebral arteries. D) ophthalmic artery, anterior cerebral, middle cerebral, and posterior cerebral arteries. E) ophthalmic artery and basilar artery. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

736   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

196) Which artery is not part of the cerebral arterial circle? A) anterior communicating artery B) anterior cerebral artery C) posterior communicating artery D) posterior cerebral artery E) middle cerebral artery Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

197) The most common site of a stroke is the A) anterior communicating artery. B) anterior cerebral artery. C) posterior communicating artery. D) posterior cerebral artery. E) middle cerebral artery. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

198) Which of the these blood vessels is not a visceral branch of the thoracic aorta? A) intercostal arteries B) pericardial arteries C) bronchial arteries D) esophageal arteries E) mediastinal arteries Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

199) The azygos vein is the major branch of the A) axillary vein. B) superior vena cava. C) inferior vena cava. D) common iliac vein. E) jugular vein. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

200) The gluteal, internal pudendal, obturator, and lateral sacral veins fuse to form the A) femoral circumflex vein. B) deep femoral vein. C) internal iliac vein. D) external iliac vein. E) common iliac vein. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 21  Blood Vessels and Circulation    737

201) The largest branches of the inferior vena cava are the A) lumbar veins. B) gonadal veins. C) hepatic veins. D) renal veins. E) adrenal veins. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

202) The median cubital vein is located at the A) anterior surface of the elbow. B) posterior surface of the elbow. C) anterior surface of the knee. D) posterior surface of the knee. E) posterior surface of the scapula. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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738   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

Figure 21-1 Arteries Use Figure 21-1 to answer the following questions: 203) Identify the artery labeled ʺ16.ʺ A) axillary B) inferior mesenteric C) celiac D) superior mesenteric E) splenic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 21  Blood Vessels and Circulation    739

204) Identify the artery labeled ʺ10.ʺ A) brachiocephalic trunk B) common carotid C) subclavian D) brachial E) axillary Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

205) Identify the artery labeled ʺ1.ʺ A) axillary B) brachiocephalic trunk C) common carotid D) ascending aorta E) brachial Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

206) Identify the arteries labeled ʺ9.ʺ A) axillary B) brachiocephalic C) common carotid D) aorta E) brachial Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

207) Identify the artery labeled ʺ6.ʺ A) common iliac B) internal iliac C) external iliac D) abdominal aorta E) femoral Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Figure 21-2 Veins Use Figure 21-2 to answer the following questions: 208) Identify the vein labeled ʺ9.ʺ A) axillary B) brachial C) cephalic D) basilic E) median cubital Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 21  Blood Vessels and Circulation    741

209) Identify the vein labeled ʺ12.ʺ A) cephalic B) median cubital C) radial D) basilic E) brachial Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

210) Identify the vein labeled ʺ10.ʺ A) inferior vena cava B) superior vena cava C) aorta D) pulmonary E) thoracic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

211) Identify the vein labeled ʺ8.ʺ A) superior vena cava B) brachiocephalic C) axillary D) external jugular E) subclavian Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

212) Identify the vein labeled ʺ6.ʺ A) inferior vena cava B) common iliac C) internal iliac D) external iliac E) femoral Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

213) The developing fetus receives nutrient rich blood through the A) umbilical artery. B) placental artery. C) gonadal artery. D) umbilical vein. E) placental vein. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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742   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

214) Which of the following is not a cardiovascular modification present during fetal development? A) ductus arteriosus B) ductus venosus C) foramen ovale D) ligamentum arteriosum E) incomplete interatrial and interventricular septa Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

215) Elderly individuals are more prone than younger individuals to have all of the following, except A) hypertension. B) venous thrombosis. C) increased elasticity of vessel walls. D) varicose veins. E) arteriosclerosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Which type of blood vessel has (a) the largest lumen and (b) the thickest tunica media? (Figure 21-2) A) arteries; veins B) veins; arteries C) arteries; capillaries D) capillaries; arteries E) veins; capillaries Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) Which of the following would increase vascular resistance? increased vessel length, increased vessel luminal diameter, turbulence. (Figure 21-7) A) increased vessel length and increased vessel luminal diameter B) increased vessel luminal diameter and turbulence C) increased vessel luminal diameter D) increased vessel length and turbulence E) increased vessel length, increased luminal diameter, and turbulence Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 21  Blood Vessels and Circulation    743

3) For blood flow to be autoregulated, what types of stimuli signal inadequate local blood flow and blood pressure? (Figure 21-12) A) physical stress, chemical changes, and increased tissue activity B) decreased tissue activity and decreased inflammatory responses C) blood oxygen levels are high D) carbon dioxide levels are low and pH is high E) increased baroreceptor stretch and decreased tissue activity Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

4) What hormones are released as a short-term response to a decrease in blood pressure and blood volume? (Figure 21-15) A) natriuretic peptides B) erythropoietin C) epinephrine and norepinephrine D) aldosterone E) ADH Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

5) The superficial temporal, maxillary, occipital, facial, and lingual arteries are all branches of what carotid artery? (Figure 21-21) A) internal carotid artery B) common carotid artery C) external carotid artery D) carotid sinus E) transverse carotid artery Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) What veins are shown draining directly into the superior vena cava? (Figure 21 -29) A) right and left common iliac, renal, and adrenal veins B) right and left subclavian, and right and left jugular veins C) right and left jugular veins D) phrenic and hepatic veins E) right and left brachiocephalic, mediastinal, and the azygos veins Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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744   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

Essay Questions 1) During exercise, the blood flow to the active skeletal muscles is increased by autoregulation. How does this work? What other controls on blood flow operate? Answer: When a skeletal muscle becomes more active, it consumes oxygen and nutrients and releases carbon dioxide, waste products, and potassium ions. One effect of reduced oxygen is to cause the smooth muscle cells that block capillary blood flow, the precapillary sphincters, to relax. As these relax, the capillaries open and plasma and red cells can perfuse the active tissue. After recovery from exercise is complete, gases and metabolites return to normal and blood flow returns to its resting value. This local mechanism works along with central control of vasodilation by the sympathetic vasodilator fibers that appear to utilize nitric oxide (NO) as the transmitter substance. Learning Outcome: 21-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

2) If a wound overwhelms the clotting mechanism and leads to serious hemorrhage and drop in blood pressure, what compensations does the body have to maintain cardiac output? Answer: Acutely, the autonomic nervous system undergoes sympathetic activation. Epinephrine from the adrenal medulla supports the neural mechanisms. Heart rate and contractility are increased in trying to maintain cardiac output. Vasoconstriction increases peripheral resistance, raising blood pressure and redirecting flow to vital internal organs. Simultaneously, venoconstriction occurs, increasing venous return and forcing extra blood from the venous to the arterial side of the circulation. The endocrine system releases ADH, angiotensin II, and aldosterone, which act together to raise blood volume by reducing fluid loss at the kidney. Learning Outcome: 21-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

3) Compare the hearts of a trained athlete and a nonathlete. Answer: The athleteʹs heart will be larger and will have a higher resting stroke volume and a lower resting heart rate. During maximum activity, stroke volume will be much greater for the athlete, and cardiac output of the athlete may approach 30 liters/minute compared to 20 liters/minute of the nonathlete. Maximum heart rates will be about the same despite the much larger cardiac output, due to the larger stroke volume. Learning Outcome: 21-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

4) Your friend tells you that her baby was dubbed a ʺblue babyʺ by hospital staff and that it was born with a ʺhole in its heartʺ. Provide an explanation to your friend of this phenomenon. Answer: A fetus has reduced need for blood flow to the lungs, since the lungs are not yet functional in terms of gas exchange. A fetal modification called foramen ovale provides a direct connection between the right and left atria, thereby allowing blood to more directly enter the systemic circuit. If this bypass persists after birth, there is reduced systemic blood flow which results in cyanosis. Learning Outcome: 21-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 22 The Lymphatic System and Immunity Multiple Choice Questions 1) The primary function of the lymphatic system is A) the transport of hormones. B) circulation of nutrients and dissolved gases. C) defending the body against both external and internal threats. D) the production and distribution of plasma proteins. E) the production and maturation of leukocytes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) The lymphatic system does all of the following except A) helps maintain normal blood volume. B) transports gases to and away from lymph nodes. C) eliminates variations in the composition of interstitial fluid. D) transports lipids from the digestive tract. E) fights infection. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) The lymphatic system is composed of all of the following except A) lymphatic vessels. B) the venae cavae. C) the spleen. D) lymph nodes. E) lymph. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) Compared to blood capillaries, lymph capillaries exhibit all of the following  except that they A) have no basement membrane. B) have only a tunica interna. C) have walls of endothelial cells that overlap like shingles. D) are smaller in diameter. E) are frequently irregular in shape. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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746   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

5) Lymph nodes do all of the following except A) produce antibodies through B cells. B) monitor the contents of lymph. C) remove debris and pathogens from the lymph. D) accumulate cancer cells. E) remove excess nutrients from the lymph. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) All of the following are true of the thymus gland except that it A) activates B cells. B) reaches its greatest relative size during the second year of life. C) involutes after puberty. D) produces T cells. E) lies in the anterior mediastinum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) Most of the lymph returns to the venous circulation by way of the A) right lymphatic duct. B) thoracic duct. C) cisterna chyli. D) hepatic portal vein. E) dural sinus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) The medulla of a lymph node contains ________ lymphocytes and macrophages. A) cytotoxic T B) medullary C) NK D) B E) cordal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

9) ________ are large lymphatic nodules that are located in the walls of the pharynx. A) Tonsils B) Peyerʹs patches C) Lymph nodes D) Immune complexes E) Spleens Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 22  The Lymphatic System and Immunity   747

10) ________ are clusters of lymphatic nodules deep to the epithelial lining of the small intestine. A) Tonsils B) Adenoids C) Peyerʹs patches D) Immune complexes E) Lymph glands Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

11) The term lymphadenopathy refers to A) a congenital lack or malformation of lymph nodes. B) a chronic or excessive enlargement of lymph nodes. C) accumulations of lymph in the tissue space. D) the lack of lymphocytes in peripheral circulation. E) increased numbers of circulating lymphocytes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

12) Areas of the spleen that contain large aggregations of lymphocytes are known as A) Peyerʹs patches. B) adenoids. C) white pulp. D) red pulp. E) lymph nodes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

13) Which class of cells is particularly abundant in the red pulp of the spleen? A) T lymphocytes B) macrophages C) B lymphocytes D) neutrophils E) Natural Killer cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

14) Lymphatic organs differ from lymphatic tissues in what way? A) They contain T lymphocytes and lymphatic tissues do not. B) They are found in the digestive tract and lymphatic tissues are found in the thorax. C) They are surrounded by a fibrous capsule and lymphatic tissues are not. D) They cannot produce antibodies, whereas lymphatic tissues can. E) They occur throughout the body except in the head. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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748   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

15) T Lymphocytes are produced and stored in all of the following except A) the thymus. B) lymphatic nodules. C) lymph node organs. D) the spleen. E) the brain. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

16) Lymphatic capillaries are known for all of the following except A) being the starting point of the lymphatic circulation. B) being the smallest lymphatic vessels. C) having larger diameters and looser walls than blood capillaries. D) having shingle-like endothelial cells. E) allowing nutrient and gas exchange. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

17) The merging of ________ forms the right lymphatic duct. A) the right jugular, right subclavian, and right bronchomediastinal trunks B) the right lumbar, right subclavian, and right bronchomediastinal trunks C) two great vessels D) the thoracic and mediastinal ducts E) superior and inferior lymphatic ducts Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

18) Dividing lymphocytes can be found in the ________ of the lymphatic nodule. A) sinus regions B) germinal center C) cortical layer D) capsular space E) stroma Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

19) Lymphatic vessels begin in peripheral tissues and ultimately drain into A) veins. B) peripheral capillary beds. C) arteries. D) the kidneys. E) arterioles. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 22  The Lymphatic System and Immunity   749

20) Which of the following statements about lymph flow in a node is false? A) Lymph enters in an afferent lymphatic. B) Lymph first enters the subcapsular space. C) Lymph flows past dendritic cells. D) The efferent lymphatic exits at the hilum. E) The afferent lymphatic enters at the hilum. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

21) Stem cells that can form all types of lymphocytes are concentrated in the A) circulation. B) thymus. C) red bone marrow. D) spleen. E) yellow marrow. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

22) T cells develop from stem cells in the A) bone marrow. B) liver. C) spleen. D) thymus. E) kidneys. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

23) Lymphatic tissue is found in the greatest quantity in A) the adult spleen. B) the adult thymus. C) bone marrow. D) the tonsils. E) Peyerʹs patches. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

24) If the thymus shrank and stopped making thymosins, we would expect to see an immediate decrease in the number of A) B lymphocytes. B) NK cells. C) T cells. D) neutrophils. E) red blood cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

750   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

25) The cell that dominates the deep cortical region of a lymph node is the ________ cell. A) B B) T C) plasma D) nodule E) NK Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

26) The thoracic duct originates from an expanded chamber called the A) thoracic sinus. B) cisterna chyli. C) thoracic trunk. D) hilum. E) thoracic ventricle. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

27) The ________ lymphatics leave the lymph node at the hilum. A) ascending B) lateral C) afferent D) descending E) efferent Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

28) Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals are A) located primarily in the large intestine. B) necessary for the transport of dietary lipids. C) part of the fenestrated capillary group. D) more numerous than blood capillaries. E) located throughout the body. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

29) An infection and inflammation of the aggregated lymphatic nodules in the pharynx is called A) laryngitis. B) lymph edema. C) tonsillitis. D) indigestion. E) lymphosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 22  The Lymphatic System and Immunity   751

30) An accumulation of lymph in a region where lymphatic drainage has been blocked is called A) lymphopenia. B) lymphadenopathy. C) lymphoma. D) lymphedema. E) lymphosis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

31) The primary lymphoid tissues include A) the bone marrow. B) the thymus. C) the bone marrow and thymus. D) the lymph nodes and tonsils. E) the bone marrow, thymus, spleen and lymph nodes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

32) Which of the following is not a secondary lymphoid tissue or organ? A) spleen B) tonsils C) MALT D) thymus E) lymph nodes Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

33) Lymphatic capillaries are not found in A) the digestive system. B) the skin. C) cornea of the eye. D) skeletal muscles. E) the liver. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

34) Large lymphatic vessels have a wall structure most similar to which blood vessel? A) veins B) venules C) capillaries D) arterioles E) arteries Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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752   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

35) Lymph fluid enters the venous circulation via the A) right atrium. B) subclavian veins. C) brachiocephalic trunks. D) jugular veins. E) superior and inferior vena cava. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

36) The lymphoid organ that acts like a filter as lymph passes through is A) appendix. B) tonsils. C) adenoids. D) lymph nodes. E) thymus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

37) The blood-thymus barrier is made up of A) immature T cells. B) mature T cells. C) macrophages. D) plasma cells. E) epithelial reticular cells. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 22  The Lymphatic System and Immunity   753

Figure 22-1 The Structure of a Lymph Node Use Figure 22-1 to answer the following questions: 38) Identify the structure labeled ʺ1.ʺ A) efferent lymphatic vessel B) venule C) arteriole D) afferent lymphatic vessel E) lymphatic nodule Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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754   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

39) Identify the structure labeled ʺ2.ʺ A) deep cortex B) capsule C) subcapsular space D) trabeculae E) medullary cord Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

40) Identify the structure labeled ʺ3.ʺ A) deep cortex B) capsule C) subcapsular space D) trabeculae E) outer cortex Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

41) Identify the structure labeled ʺ6.ʺ A) medulla B) cortex C) capsule D) trabeculae E) cortical sinus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

42) Identify the dominant cell type in the area labeled ʺ6.ʺ A) T cells B) B cells C) erythrocytes D) platelets E) dendritic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

43) A substance that provokes an immune response is called an A) immunoglobulin. B) antihistamine. C) antibody. D) antigen. E) allopath. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 22  The Lymphatic System and Immunity   755

44) In general, lymphocytes A) spend most of their time in lymphatic tissue. B) have relatively short life spans. C) have two nuclei. D) are produced and mature only in red bone marrow. E) are located primarily in the blood stream. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

45) The cells directly responsible for cellular immunity are the ________ cells. A) dendritic B) plasma C) helper T D) cytotoxic T E) suppressor T Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

46) The cells responsible for humoral immunity are the ________ cells. A) NK B) B C) helper T D) cytotoxic T E) suppressor T Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

47) Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are ________ cells. A) plasma B) B C) helper T D) cytotoxic T E) suppressor T Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

48) Lymphocytes A) are actively phagocytic. B) destroy red blood cells. C) respond to antigens. D) are primarily found in red bone marrow. E) decrease in number during infection. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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756   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

49) The cells responsible for the production of circulating immunoglobulins are ________ cells. A) NK B) plasma C) helper T D) thymus E) liver Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

50) Stem cells that will form B cells or NK cells are found only in the A) red bone marrow. B) liver. C) spleen. D) thymus. E) kidneys. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

51) T is to ________ as B is to ________. A) top-located; bottom-located B) thymus-dependent; bone marrow-derived C) thyroid-drawn; bowel-developed D) non-thymus-dependent; bottom-located E) trabeculae-descended; bursa-origin Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

52) Which of the following is not a lymphocyte? A) NK cells B) plasma cells C) memory T cells D) macrophages E) suppressor T cells Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

53) Sally has a tumor. In an effort to fight the cancerous cells her body increases the production of A) neutrophils. B) NK cells. C) suppressor T cells. D) memory B cells. E) plasma cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 22  The Lymphatic System and Immunity   757

54) The bodyʹs innate defenses include all of the following except A) the skin. B) complement. C) interferon. D) inflammation. E) antibodies. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

55) Each of the following is a physical barrier to infection except A) body hair. B) epithelium. C) secretions. D) complement. E) basement membranes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

56) An inflammatory response is triggered when A) red blood cells release pyrogens. B) T cells release interferon. C) mast cells release histamine and heparin. D) neutrophils phagocytize bacteria. E) blood flow to an area increases. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

57) The release of endogenous pyrogen (or interleukin-1) by active macrophages would A) cause inflammation. B) produce a fever. C) activate complement. D) opsonize pathogens. E) activate antibodies. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

58) Microphages include A) monocytes. B) Kupffer cells. C) neutrophils. D) eosinophils. E) both neutrophils and eosinophils. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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758   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

59) Various types of macrophages are derived from A) lymphocytes. B) monocytes. C) neutrophils. D) eosinophils. E) basophils. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

60) Plasma contains ________ special proteins that form the complement system. A) about 3 B) exactly 10 C) roughly 18 D) exactly 25 E) more than 30 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

61) Histamine increases blood flow and vascular permeability. This would account for all of the following changes that occur during inflammation except A) redness of the inflamed tissue. B) chemotaxis of phagocytes. C) heat of the inflamed tissue. D) movement of defense proteins and cells into the interstitial space. E) swelling of the inflamed tissue. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

62) Leslie has a severe sore throat and the lymph nodes in her neck are swollen. This would indicate that A) the focus of the infection is the lymph nodes. B) lymph is not flowing consistently through these lymph nodes. C) the lymph nodes contain an increased number of lymphocytes. D) the lymph nodes are actively producing phagocytes. E) the lymph nodes have increased their secretion of thymosin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 22  The Lymphatic System and Immunity   759

63) A sample of Johnʹs blood shows a high level of pyrogens. This would indicate that John A) is feeling achy. B) is producing T lymphocytes. C) has a sore throat. D) is running a fever. E) has swollen lymph nodes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

64) The effects of activating the complement system include all of the following  except A) destruction of target cell plasma membranes. B) stimulation of inflammation. C) inhibition of the immune response. D) opsonization. E) chemotaxis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

65) The classic pathway of complement activation begins when the protein C1 binds to A) the cell wall of bacteria. B) the plasma membrane of bacteria. C) two antibodies attached to an antigen. D) a cell surface antigen. E) a plasma protein. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

66) The cells that perform immunological surveillance are the ________ cells. A) NK B) plasma C) B D) helper T E) suppressor T Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

67) The first line of cellular defense against pathogens are the A) T cells. B) B cells. C) NK cells. D) phagocytes. E) plasma cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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68) The phagocytic antigen-presenting cells belong to the ________ group. A) tumor-suppressing B) complement C) interferon D) monocyte-macrophage E) lymphatic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

69) Fixed macrophages that are found in the central nervous system are called A) astrocytes. B) oligodendrocytes. C) microglia. D) Kupffer cells. E) ventricular macrophages. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

70) ________ are fixed macrophages found in the liver. A) Astrocytes B) Oligodendrocytes C) Microglia D) Kupffer cells E) Ventricular macrophages Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

71) Free phagocytes found in the air sacs of the lungs are called A) alveolar macrophages. B) histiocytes. C) Kupffer cells. D) pleurocytes. E) microglia. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

72) The movement of phagocytes through the capillary wall is called A) chemotaxis. B) diapedesis. C) adherens. D) transcytosis. E) diffusion. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 22  The Lymphatic System and Immunity   761

73) The attraction or repulsion of certain cells to chemicals in their environment is called A) polarity. B) diapedesis. C) cytotoxicity. D) infection. E) chemotaxis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

74) Cytokines that make a cell and its neighbors resistant to virus infection are called A) complement. B) interferons. C) interleukins. D) immunoglobulins. E) transferrins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

75) An important protein in the activation of the alternative pathway of complement activation is A) properdin. B) interferon. C) histamine. D) fibrin. E) C1. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

76) NK cells use ________ to lyse abnormal cells. A) pyrogen B) perforin C) interferon D) complement E) phagocytosis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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77) Place the following steps of NK cell killing in order. 1. Secretion of perforin 2. Realignment of Golgi apparatus 3. Lysis of abnormal cell 4. Recognition and adhesion A) 4, 2, 1, 3 B) 2, 1, 4, 3 C) 4, 1, 2, 3 D) 1, 2, 4, 3 E) 1, 4, 3, 2 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

78) Cancer cells can be detected by NK cells when they show A) interferons. B) complement proteins. C) tumor-specific antigens. D) opsonization. E) CD4 markers. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

79) Interferons A) prevent viruses from leaving a cell. B) prevent viruses from entering a cell. C) bind to viruses and destroy them. D) interfere with viral replication. E) reduce macrophage chemotaxis to the infection. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

80) The complement system works closely with and complements the action of A) interferons. B) antibodies. C) pyrogens. D) phagocytes. E) microphages. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 22  The Lymphatic System and Immunity   763

81) The end result of the classical and alternative pathways of complement activation is A) an increase in pyrogen release. B) release of histamine. C) activated C3B attached to the cell wall. D) C1 bound to two antibodies. E) activation of properdin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

82) Immunity that is genetically determined and present at birth is called ________ immunity. A) active B) natural passive C) passive D) auto E) innate Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

83) Cytotoxic T cells can attack target cells with which of the following chemical weapons? A) secrete strong acid B) secrete organic solvent C) secrete free radicals D) secrete a cytokine that triggers apoptosis E) secrete mutant proteins that get incorporated into the targetʹs DNA Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

84) All of the following are characteristics of adaptive defenses except A) versatility. B) tolerance. C) memory. D) specificity. E) present at birth. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

85) Defense of the body against a particular pathogen is provided by A) innate immunity. B) adaptive immunity. C) immunological surveillance. D) skin defenses. E) fever. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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764   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

86) Immunity that results from exposure to an antigen in the environment is called ________ immunity. A) naturally acquired active B) naturally acquired passive C) artificially acquired active D) artificially acquired passive E) innate Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

87) Immunity that results from antibodies that pass through the placenta from mother to fetus is called ________ immunity. A) naturally acquired active B) naturally acquired passive C) artificially acquired active D) artificially acquired passive E) innate Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

88) In passive immunity, the A) immune system attacks normal body cells. B) body is deliberately exposed to an antigen. C) body receives antibodies produced by other humans. D) body receives antibodies produced by an animal. E) body receives antibodies produced by other humans or by an animal. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

89) In an experimental situation, a rabbit is exposed to a viral antigen to which it makes antibodies. These antibodies are then purified and injected into a human with the same viral disease. This is an example of A) innate immunity. B) active immunization. C) passive immunization. D) natural immunity. E) alloimmunity. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 22  The Lymphatic System and Immunity   765

90) Hormones of the immune system include all of the following except A) interleukins. B) interferons. C) natriuretic factor. D) thymosins. E) tumor necrosis factor. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

91) ________ cells enable the immune system to respond quickly and robustly if the same antigen is encountered a second time. A) Secondary B) Primary C) Memory D) Responder E) Transponder Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

92) ________ exists when the immune system does not respond to a particular antigen. A) Immunity B) Memory C) Adaptation D) Tolerance E) Versatility Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

93) Frank was bitten by a rattlesnake and received anti -venom containing neutralizing antibodies. Frank received ________ immunity and he ________ long -term immunity as a result. A) naturally acquired passive immunity; will have B) artificially acquired passive immunity; will not have C) artificially acquired passive immunity; will have D) naturally acquired active immunity; will have E) naturally acquired active immunity; will not have Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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766   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

94) T cells and B cells destroy one antigen without affecting other antigens or normal tissues, this is termed A) memory. B) versatility. C) tolerance. D) specificity. E) antigen processing. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

95) Interleukins do all of the following except A) increase T-cell sensitivity to antigens exposed on macrophage membranes. B) stimulate B-cell activity, plasma cell formation, and antibody production. C) stimulate inflammation. D) elevate body temperature. E) stimulate collagen synthesis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

96) The following are steps in the cell-mediated immune response. What is the correct sequence for these steps? 1. Several cycles of mitosis occur. 2. Antigen is engulfed and presented by a macrophage. 3. Cytotoxic T cells migrate to focus of infection. 4. T cells with specific receptors recognize the antigen. 5. T cells differentiate into cytotoxic T cells or T memory cells. 6. Cytotoxic T cells release perforin and/or lymphotoxin. A) 4, 1, 5, 3, 6, 2 B) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3, 6 C) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3, 6 D) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5, 6 E) 3, 6, 4, 5, 1, 2 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

97) Cells that help regulate the immune response are ________ cells. A) B B) plasma C) helper T D) cytotoxic T E) NK Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 22  The Lymphatic System and Immunity   767

98) Suppressor T cells act to A) suppress antigens. B) erase memory T cells. C) limit antigen proliferation. D) inhibit T and B cell activities. E) produce antibodies involved in autoimmunity. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

99) When an antigen is bound to a Class I MHC molecule, it can stimulate a ________ cell. A) B B) plasma C) helper T D) cytotoxic T E) NK Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

100) Class II MHC molecules are found on which of the following? A) all body cells with a nucleus B) red blood cells C) granulocytes and microphages D) lymphocytes and antigen-presenting cells E) liver cells and macrophages in the spleen Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

101) When an antigen is bound to a Class II MHC protein, it can activate a ________ cell. A) plasma B) helper T C) NK D) suppressor T E) cytotoxic T Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

102) Helper T cells do all of the following except A) trigger B-cell division, plasma cell maturation, and antibody production. B) provide a rapid response to a future exposure to the antigen. C) enhance production of memory and cytotoxic T cells. D) attract macrophages to the affected area. E) enhance nonspecific defenses. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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768   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

103) T cells and B cells can be activated only by A) pathogens. B) interleukins, interferons, and colony-stimulating factors. C) cells infected with viruses, bacteria, or cancer cells. D) exposure to a specific antigen at a specific site in a plasma membrane. E) disease-causing agents. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

104) In order for a lymphocyte to respond to an antigen, the antigen must A) be phagocytized by the lymphocyte. B) enter the cytoplasm of the lymphocyte. C) bind to the DNA of the lymphocyte. D) bind to specific receptors on the lymphocyte surface. E) depolarize the lymphocyte. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

105) CD8 markers are to ________ T cells as CD4 markers are to ________ T cells. A) suppressor; cytoxic B) cytoxic; helper C) helper; suppressor D) NK; cytoxic E) plasma; NK Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

106) Antigen-presenting cells located in the epithelia of the skin are called A) keratinocytes. B) squamous macrophages. C) germinative cells. D) dendritic cells. E) Merkel cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

107) Hormones that regulate the activity of B cells and T cells and enhance nonspecific defense are called A) calcitriol. B) glucocorticoids. C) mineralocorticoids. D) interleukins. E) immunoglobulins. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 22  The Lymphatic System and Immunity   769

108) Hormones that slow tumor growth are called A) transferrins. B) tumor necrosis factors. C) interferons. D) radiation agents. E) chemotherapins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

109) Martha had a heart transplant. In order to keep her body from rejecting the transplant she takes A) aspirin. B) antacids. C) immunosuppressive drugs. D) anti-rheumatic drugs. E) anti-histamines. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

110) An abnormal cell would be identified by the immune system because it showed A) Class I MHC proteins. B) Class II MHC proteins. C) Class I MHC proteins with an antigen bound. D) Class II MHC proteins with an antigen bound. E) a CD3 receptor complex in the membrane. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

111) Class II MHC proteins are present in the plasma membrane only when A) a helper T cell has engulfed an antigen. B) an antigen-presenting cell has engulfed and is processing an antigen. C) a virus-infected cell secretes interferons. D) a cancerous cell gets attacked by NK cells. E) the body cells are healthy. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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770   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

112) A T cell can only become activated after being physically or chemically stimulated by the abnormal target cell in a process called A) costimulation. B) opsonization. C) sensitization. D) neutralization. E) precipitation. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

113) During a primary humoral response to antigens all of the following occur except A) B cells may differentiate into plasma cells immediately. B) B cells may undergo several rounds of mitosis before producing plasma cells and memory cells. C) antibody levels do not peak until 1 to 2 weeks after the initial exposure. D) neutrophils invade the surrounding areas, releasing chemotactic substances. E) the first immunoglobulins to appear in circulation are of the IgM type. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

114) All of the following are true of the secondary response of humoral immunity except that it A) depends on memory B cells. B) results in much higher antibody titers than in the primary response. C) results in much quicker rise in antibody titers. D) produces more effective antibodies. E) weakens quickly because memory B cells only survive for a year or two. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

115) All of the following are true of the primary response of humoral immunity except that A) it depends on antigen triggering the appropriate B cell. B) it requires B cell differentiation into plasma cells. C) it depends on memory B cells. D) circulating antibodies undergo a gradual, sustained rise. E) it peaks 1 to 2 weeks after the initial exposure. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 22  The Lymphatic System and Immunity   771

116) If the disulfide bonds in IgG were broken, how many peptide chains would be set free? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 1 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

117) The various classes of immunoglobulins are differentiated on the basis of their A) asymmetry. B) antigen specificity. C) light-chain variable segments. D) heavy-chain constant segments. E) reactivity. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

118) Immunoglobulins that are most abundant and are responsible for resistance against many viruses, bacteria, and bacterial toxins are A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

119) Immunoglobulins that attach to and sensitize mast cells and basophils are A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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772   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

120) Immunoglobulins that are found on the surface of B cells and that may activate antibody production are A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

121) Immunoglobulins, formed of five subunits, that are the first antibodies to be produced in response to infection, are A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

122) B cells are primarily activated by the activities of A) antigens. B) antibodies. C) helper T cells. D) macrophages. E) plasma cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

123) In IgG, the antigen binding site is formed by the A) variable segment of the light chain. B) variable segment of the heavy chain. C) constant segment of the heavy chain. D) variable segments of both the light and heavy chains. E) ionized segment of the light chain and the isotropic segment of the heavy chain. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 22  The Lymphatic System and Immunity   773

124) Which of the following is not a property of an IgG heavy chain? A) has one constant segment B) has one variable segment C) binds one light chain D) binds antigen at both ends E) binds complement in the constant region Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

125) Each IgG has ________ binding sites for attachment to antigenic determinants. A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) up to 8 E) as many as a 1000 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

126) In a routine examination, some blood is taken and analyzed. The results show a high IgM titer for the mumps virus but a low IgG anti-mumps titer. This would indicate the person A) has just recovered from mumps. B) was recently infected with mumps. C) is allergic to mumps. D) is immune to mumps. E) is relying on passive immunity. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

127) A crime scene investigator found that a biological fluid sample contains a large amount of IgA-type antibody. This fluid is probably A) blood. B) lymph. C) serum. D) tears. E) interstitial. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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774   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

128) Another term for antibodies is A) cytokines. B) cytosolic factors. C) interleukins. D) interferons. E) immunoglobulins. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

129) The portions of an antigen to which antibodies bind are the A) active sites. B) reactive sites. C) antigenic determinant sites. D) antibody active sites. E) antigen activation segments. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

130) A ________ antigen is an antigen with at least two antigenic determinant sites. A) complete B) perfect C) mature D) paired E) dipolar Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

131) A measure of antibody level in the plasma is A) the primary response. B) the secondary response. C) antigen concentration. D) body temperature. E) the antibody titer. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

132) The process by which antibodies bind to antigenic sites on viruses or toxins, rendering them incapable of binding to other cells, is called A) opsonization. B) activation. C) agglutination. D) precipitation. E) neutralization. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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133) The process by which soluble antigens combine with antibodies to form insoluble immune complexes is called A) opsonization. B) activation. C) agglutination. D) precipitation. E) neutralization. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

134) The process by which antibodies bind to the antigen on the surface of cells, forming large immune complexes, is called A) opsonization. B) activation. C) agglutination. D) precipitation. E) neutralization. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

135) The process by which the surface of a microorganism is covered with antibodies and complement, rendering it more likely to be phagocytized, is called A) opsonization. B) activation. C) agglutination. D) precipitation. E) neutralization. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

136) When antigens bind to inactive B cells and are brought into the cell by endocytosis to be displayed on the Class II MHC proteins this results in ________ of the B cells. A) activation B) sensitization C) co-stimulation D) cloning E) division Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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137) Partial antigens that do not cause B cell activation alone are called A) complete antigens. B) immunoglobulins. C) mature antigens. D) haptens. E) short chains. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

138) A sensitized B cell typically is not activated until A) it binds a helper T cell that releases cytokines. B) it binds a cytotoxic T cell. C) memory B cells have been cloned. D) it has cloned plasma cells. E) antibodies have been produced. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

139) Pregnant women are encouraged to get flu shots so that the maternal ________ can pass through the placenta to the fetus. A) IgG B) IgE C) IgD D) IgM E) IgA Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

140) Anti-A and Anti-B blood typing antibodies are of which class? A) IgG B) IgE C) IgD D) IgM E) IgA Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

141) Which is not a way that antigen-antibody complexes may cause elimination of the antigen? A) opsonization B) enhancing phagocytosis C) activation of complement D) neutralization E) sensitization Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 22  The Lymphatic System and Immunity   777

142) Newborns gain their immunity initially from A) early immunizations during routine neo-natal check-ups. B) contact with viruses and bacteria. C) antibodies passed across the placenta from the mother. D) contact with siblings. E) breast milk. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

143) Autoantibodies are A) produced by activated T cells. B) produced during an allergic reaction. C) directed against the bodyʹs own antigens. D) the first step in immunological competence. E) important in tissue rejection reactions. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

144) Inappropriate or excessive immune responses to antigens are A) immunodeficiency diseases. B) autoimmune diseases. C) allergies. D) the result of stress. E) signs of a weak immune system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

145) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that causes the disease known as AIDS selectively infects ________ cells. A) B B) plasma C) cytotoxic T D) helper T E) suppressor T Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

146) Infection with the HIV virus occurs through A) eating contaminated food. B) airborne droplets from coughs and sneezes. C) intimate contact with an infected personʹs body fluids. D) casual contact with an infected individual. E) sharing clothes with an infected individual. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

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147) Which of the following is not a characteristic of AIDS? A) has killed at least 1/2 million people in the United States B) is spread most often through sexual contact C) attacks the T helper (CD4) cells D) is declining worldwide E) almost always eventually fatal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

148) Milly has just received a kidney transplant and is taking cyclosporin A to help prevent graft rejection. This medication is one in a class of drugs known as ________ drugs. A) anticoagulant B) antibiotic C) analgesic D) retroviral E) immunosuppressive Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

149) Stress can affect the immune response in all of the following ways  except by A) inhibiting glucocorticoid release. B) depressing the inflammatory response. C) reducing the number of phagocytes. D) inhibiting interleukin secretion. E) increasing the level of cortisol. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

150) The term immunological ________ refers to the ability to demonstrate an immune response upon exposure to an antigen. A) determination B) readiness C) competence D) potency E) drive Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 22  The Lymphatic System and Immunity   779

151) In a(n) ________, either the immune system fails to develop normally or the immune response is blocked. A) autoimmune disease B) immunodeficiency disease C) allergic response D) cross-reaction E) agglutination reaction Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

152) When the immune response mistakenly targets normal body cells and tissues, a(n) ________ develops. A) autoimmune disease B) immunodeficiency disease C) allergic response D) cross-reaction E) agglutination reaction Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

153) Antigens that trigger allergic reactions are called A) interferons. B) microbes. C) pyrogens. D) allergens. E) agglutinins. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

154) The production of autoantibodies generally causes A) allergic reactions. B) autoimmune diseases. C) immunodeficiency diseases. D) allergic reactions and immunodeficiency diseases. E) a normal immune response. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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780   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

155) Immediate hypersensitivity reactions like hay fever may be treated by A) aspirin. B) anti-rheumatic drugs. C) immunosuppressive drugs. D) antihistamines. E) interferons. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

156) All of the following are characteristics of anaphylaxis except A) the first exposure does not always lead to a reaction. B) IgE antibodies are produced. C) symptoms include capillary dilation, airway constriction, pain and itching. D) helper T cells are destroyed. E) sensitized mast cells and basophils are stimulated upon each exposure to an allergen. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

157) Changes in the immune system that accompany aging include all of the following  except A) T cells becoming less responsive to antigens. B) fewer cytotoxic T cells responding to infections. C) decreased numbers of T helper cells. D) more efficient secondary responses. E) B cells are less responsive. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) What feature do lymphatic vessels share with veins that allows lymph to flow in only one direction? (Figure 22-3) A) incomplete basement membrane B) blunt end tubes C) thick muscular walls D) valves E) endothelial cell inner lining Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 22  The Lymphatic System and Immunity   781

2) What types of cells are found in the white pulp of the spleen and in the red pulp of the spleen? (Figure 22-8) A) lymphocytes; epithelial reticular cells B) lymphocytes; red blood cells C) red blood cells; macrophages D) red blood cells; lymphocytes E) epithelial cells; endocrine cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) Which type of interferon attracts and stimulates NK cells as a way to enhance viral resistance to viral infection? (Figure 22-12) A) interferon alpha B) interferon beta C) interferon gamma D) interferon delta E) interferon omega Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) What type of immunity develops after receiving a vaccine? (Figure 22 -17) A) innate immunity B) naturally acquired active immunity C) artificially acquired active immunity D) naturally acquired passive immunity E) artificially acquired passive immunity Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

5) During the primary response, which antibody peaks sooner? During the secondary response, which antibody level is higher? (Figure 22-25) A) IgM; IgG B) IgG; IgM C) IgD; IgE D) IgE; IgA E) IgA; IgG Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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6) After the appearance of bacteria in the body, which immune cell is present for the shortest amount of time? (Figure 22-26) A) neutrophils B) NK cells C) macrophages D) cytotoxic T cells E) plasma cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

Essay Questions 1) List and briefly describe the components of the lymphatic system. Answer: The lymphatic system consists of (1) lymph, a fluid that resembles plasma but contains a much lower concentration of suspended proteins; (2) a network of lymphatic vessels, often called lymphatics, which begin in peripheral tissues and end at connections to veins; (3) an array of lymphatic tissues and lymphatic organs such as lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus scattered throughout the body; and (4) lymphocytes and smaller numbers of phagocytes and other cells such as dendritic cells. Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

2) Explain what MALT is and give a couple of examples? What role does it play in the bodyʹs defenses? Answer: MALT is an acronym for mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue. It consists of aggregated lymphatic nodules deep to the mucosa (gut lining) of the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive systems. Examples of MALT in the digestive system include Peyerʹs patches in the small intestine and the vermiform appendix that is attached where the small intestine joins the large intestine. These lymphocytes are positioned to detect and neutralize pathogens to enter the body across the digestive mucosa. Beside these specific defenses, there is also mucus and other protective secretions. Learning Outcome: 22-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

3) List and briefly describe the four general properties of adaptive immunity. Answer: (1) Specificity: The immune response is triggered by a specific antigen and defends against only that antigen. (2) Versatility: The immune system can differentiate among hundreds of millions of antigens that it might encounter during a normal lifetime. (3) Memory: The immune response following the second exposure to a particular antigen is stronger and lasts longer than before. (4) Tolerance: Some antigens, such as those on your own cells, do not elicit an immune response. Learning Outcome: 22-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 22  The Lymphatic System and Immunity   783

4) You are a researcher interested in studying the cytoskeleton. How can you use antibodies to locate actin- and tubulin-containing structures? Answer: Since those cytoskeletal components are proteins, it is possible to immunize an animal with foreign proteins isolated from tissues. For example, a rabbit could be immunized with the actin and tubulin purified from tissues of the chicken, a very distant relative of the rabbit. Those antibodies could be purified from the rabbitʹs blood and then linked to fluorescent tags. When the cells are exposed to the anti-actin and anti-tubulin antibodies, they will stick to those molecules in the cell. If different colored dyes were used to tag the antibodies, it would be possible to localize those cytoskeletal proteins in the same cell. Learning Outcome: 22-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 23 The Respiratory System Multiple Choice Questions 1) The nasal cavity, pharynx, and larynx constitute the ________ portion of the airway. A) conducting B) exchange C) respiratory D) sinus E) primary Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) The respiratory epithelium of the conducting airways consists of A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. B) moist cuboidal epithelium. C) simple squamous epithelium. D) ciliated squamous epithelium. E) stratified squamous epithelium. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) The larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles all make up the A) upper respiratory tract. B) lower respiratory tract. C) internal respiratory tract. D) alveoli of the respiratory tract. E) respiratory mucosa. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) The respiratory mucosa consists of A) epithelium and underlying layer of areolar tissue. B) dense irregular connective and adipose tissue. C) ciliated stratified squamous and columnar cells. D) fibrocartilage and mucous cells. E) dense regular connective and areolar tissue. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 23  The Respiratory System   785

5) Tuberculosis results from an infection by the bacterium A) Clostridium difficile. B) Staphylococcus aureus. C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis. D) Vancomycin-resistant streptococcus. E) Tuberculin plumonae. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) ________ is the most common lethal inherited disease affecting individuals of Northern European descent. A) MRSA B) Congestive heart failure C) Cystic fibrosis D) Myasthenia gravis E) Parkinsonʹs disease Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

7) Air entering the body is filtered, warmed, and humidified by the A) upper respiratory tract. B) lower respiratory tract. C) lungs. D) alveoli. E) bronchioles. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) Inhaling through the nostrils is preferred over the mouth because A) there is less resistance to air flow. B) it combines olfaction with respiration. C) it allows better conditioning of the inhaled air. D) bacteria wonʹt be inhaled from the oral cavity. E) it dries out the mouth. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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786   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

9) Harry suffers from cystic fibrosis and has severe breathing difficulties. His problems result from A) genetic mutation in cilia production. B) laryngospasms. C) thick secretions that are difficult to transport. D) lack of neural control of respiration. E) reduced mucus secretions in the trachea. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

10) The entire array of protective mechanisms in the respiratory system is called the A) respiratory immunity. B) macrophage complex. C) respiratory defense system. D) acquired respiratory defense. E) mucus escalator. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

11) The beating of the cilia of the respiratory passages in the direction of the pharynx forms a(n) A) debris filter. B) mucus escalator. C) respiratory rhythmicity center. D) smooth slick surface allowing particles to slide. E) increased surface area for gas exchange. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

12) Which of these is not part of the upper respiratory system? A) larynx B) pharynx C) nasal cavity D) nose E) sinuses Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

13) The respiratory portion of the respiratory tract includes the A) bronchi. B) trachea. C) larynx. D) alveoli. E) nose. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 23  The Respiratory System   787

14) An important component of the lamina propria in the upper respiratory system is A) sweat glands. B) ceruminous glands. C) mucus glands. D) serous glands. E) smooth muscle cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

15) The nasopharynx transitions into the oropharynx at the level of the A) hard palate. B) soft palate. C) cribriform plate. D) internal nares. E) pharyngeal septum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

16) The ________ is shared by the respiratory and digestive systems. A) pharynx B) esophagus C) trachea D) windpipe E) right mainstem bronchus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

17) Which of the following organs is not part of the lower respiratory system? A) pharynx B) trachea C) larynx D) bronchi E) alveoli Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

18) The conchae A) divide the nasal cavity into a right and a left side. B) provide an opening into the pharynx. C) provide a increase in surface area for the sense of smell. D) create turbulence in the air to trap particulate matter in mucus. E) provide an opening to paranasal sinuses. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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788   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

19) Functions of the nasal cavity include all of the following except A) filtering the air. B) warming the air. C) humidifying the air. D) housing tonsils. E) housing olfactory receptors. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

20) The openings to the nasal cavity are the A) external nares. B) internal nares. C) nasal meatuses. D) nasal conchae. E) nasal sinuses. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

21) The portion of the nasal cavity contained within the flexible tissues of the external nose is the A) nasopharynx. B) vestibule. C) internal chamber. D) conchae. E) nasal septum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

22) The nasal cavity is separated from the oral cavity by the A) hard palate. B) soft palate. C) cribriform plate. D) internal nares. E) pharyngeal septum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

23) The common passageway shared by the respiratory and digestive systems is the A) larynx. B) glottis. C) vestibule. D) pharynx. E) trachea. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 23  The Respiratory System   789

24) The auditory tubes open into the A) nasopharynx. B) oropharynx. C) laryngopharynx. D) larynx. E) nasal cavity. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

25) The palatine tonsils lie in the walls of the A) nasopharynx. B) oropharynx. C) laryngopharynx. D) larynx. E) nasal cavity. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

26) The ________ is lined by stratified squamous epithelium. A) nasopharynx B) trachea C) oropharynx D) larynx E) nasal cavity Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

27) Physical damage to the lamina propria of the nasal mucosa is likely to result in A) epistaxis. B) nasal congestion. C) nosebleeds. D) a deviated septum. E) epistaxis or nosebleeds. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

28) Which of the following is false about the pharynx? A) It is shared by the integumentary and respiratory systems. B) The nasopharynx is superior. C) The oropharynx connects to oral cavity. D) The laryngopharynx ends at esophagus opening. E) Solids, liquids, and gases pass through. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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790   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

29) The superior region of the pharynx is called the A) nasal cavity. B) nasopharynx. C) oropharynx. D) laryngopharynx. E) superior nasal conchae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

30) The nasal cavity opens into the nasopharynx through a connection known as the A) oropharynx. B) nasal meatus. C) nasal vestibule. D) internal nares. E) auditory canal. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

31) Which bone does not form part of the lateral or superior walls of the nasal cavity? A) maxilla B) mandible C) nasal D) ethmoid E) sphenoid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

32) Air flows between nasal conchae through the A) dorsum nasi. B) apex. C) external nares. D) nasal vestibule. E) superior, middle, and inferior nasal meatuses. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

33) Accidently sending fluid up out of the nose happens when the ________ fails to close off the ________. A) epiglottis; larynx B) epiglottis; nasopharynx C) soft palate; nasopharynx D) soft palate; larynx E) soft palate; oropharynx Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 23  The Respiratory System   791

Figure 23-1 The Upper Airways Use Figure 23-1 to answer the following questions: 34) What is the function of the structure labeled ʺ5ʺ? A) help olfaction B) improve warming of air C) cause air to swirl within the respiratory passageway D) prevent food from entering the larynx E) prevent food from entering the nasopharynx Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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35) Identify the structure labeled ʺ7.ʺ A) internal nares B) esophagus C) glottis D) oropharynx E) laryngopharynx Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

36) Identify the structure labeled ʺ2.ʺ A) olfactory organ B) oropharynx C) nasopharynx D) internal nares E) nasal sinus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

37) What is the function of the structure labeled ʺ8ʺ? A) forces air into the lungs B) causes air to swirl within the respiratory passageway C) prevents food from entering the larynx D) acts like a supplementary air pump E) adjusts tension of vocal folds Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

38) Identify the structure labeled ʺ5.ʺ A) pharyngeal tonsil B) palatine tonsil C) epiglottis D) soft palate E) hard palate Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

39) The larynx contains ________ cartilages. A) 14 B) 6 C) 9 D) 2 E) 5 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 23  The Respiratory System   793

40) The glottis is A) the soft tissue that hangs off the end of the soft palate. B) a flap of elastic cartilage. C) the opening to the larynx. D) the opening to the pharynx. E) part of the hard palate. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

41) The vocal folds are located within the A) nasopharynx. B) oropharynx. C) larynx. D) trachea. E) bronchi. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

42) The elastic cartilage that covers the opening to the larynx during swallowing is the A) thyroid cartilage. B) cricoid cartilage. C) corniculate cartilage. D) cuneiform cartilage. E) epiglottis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

43) The largest cartilage of the larynx is the ________ cartilage. A) thyroid B) cricoid C) cuneiform D) arytenoid E) epiglottic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

44) The ring-shaped cartilage just inferior to the thyroid cartilage is the ________ cartilage. A) epiglottis B) cuneiform C) corniculate D) cricoid E) arytenoid Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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794   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

45) The paired cartilages that articulate with the superior border of the cricoid cartilage are the ________ cartilages. A) cricothyroid B) innominate C) cuneiform D) corniculate E) arytenoid Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

46) A common site to place a tracheostomy tube is through the ligament that connects the cricoid cartilage to the ________ cartilage. A) thyroid B) cuneiform C) corniculate D) epiglottic E) vestibular Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

47) A pair of ligaments covered by laryngeal epithelium that function in sound production are the A) intrinsic ligaments. B) extrinsic ligaments. C) ventricular folds. D) vocal folds. E) intrinsic laryngeal muscles. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

48) Air passing through the glottis vibrates the vocal folds and produces A) speech. B) articulation. C) phonation. D) whistling. E) ululation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 23  The Respiratory System   795

49) The laryngeal cartilage which is not composed of hyaline cartilage is the A) arytenoid. B) corniculate. C) cricoid. D) epiglottis. E) thyroid. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

50) An acute infection of the throat that can lead to swelling and closure of the glottis and cause suffocation is known as A) laryngitis. B) laryngospasm. C) acute epiglottitis. D) strep throat. E) acute pharyngitis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

51) Contraction of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles can A) move the cricoid cartilage. B) close the glottis. C) constrict the trachea. D) move food from the larynx to the esophagus. E) assist in breathing during exercise. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

52) Tina is singing a song. At a certain point in the song, she forces a large volume of air out of the glottis and at the same time increases the tension on her vocal cords. The sound that she produces is A) low pitched and loud. B) high pitched and loud. C) low pitched and soft. D) high pitched and soft. E) medium pitched and soft. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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796   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

53) The adult human trachea is about ________ in diameter and contains ________ tracheal cartilages. A) 1.0 cm; 15-20 B) 1.0 cm; 10-15 C) 2.5 cm; 15-20 D) 2.5 cm; 40-50 E) 4.5 cm; 60-80 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

54) During a choking episode, most foreign objects are lodged in the ________ bronchus due to its larger diameter and steeper angle. A) right primary B) left primary C) right lobar D) left lobar E) medial Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

55) Which of the following statements about the trachea is false? A) It is lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. B) Tracheal cartilages prevent tracheal collapse. C) It contains many mucous glands. D) It alters its diameter in response to the autonomic nervous system. E) It is completely wrapped in smooth muscle. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

56) The airway that connects the larynx to the bronchial tree is the A) trachea. B) bronchiole. C) laryngopharynx. D) alveolar duct. E) bronchus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 23  The Respiratory System   797

57) The ________ branch from the trachea at the carina. A) terminal bronchioles B) lobar bronchi C) segmental bronchi D) primary bronchi E) alveolar ducts Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

58) The C shape of the tracheal cartilages is important because A) large masses of food can move through the esophagus. B) large masses of air can pass through the trachea and thus the bronchi. C) it facilitates turning of the head. D) the bronchi are also C-shaped. E) it permits the trachea to pinch shut prior to sneezing. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

59) Primary bronchi are to ________ as secondary bronchi are to ________. A) main bronchi; lobar bronchi B) lobar bronchi; segmental bronchi C) segmental bronchi; lobar bronchi D) trachea; pharynx E) lobar bronchi; alveolar ducts Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

60) Roughly ________ terminal bronchioles arise from each segmental bronchus. A) 1,500 B) 3,000 C) 6,500 D) 10,000 E) 100,000 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

61) Asthma is A) a collapsed lung resulting from insufficient production of surfactant. B) due to an excessive stimulation of smooth muscle in bronchioles. C) an obstructive tumor targeting primarily the terminal bronchioles. D) characterized by fluid buildup in the alveoli. E) caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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798   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

62) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term bronchiolar smooth muscle? A) accessory muscle of expiration B) accessory muscle of inspiration C) primary muscle of inspiration D) contraction increases airway resistance E) affects lung compliance Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

63) The flap-like structure that prevents food from entering the larynx is called the A) uvula. B) soft palate. C) epiglottis. D) thyroid cartilage. E) cricoid cartilage. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

64) An elastic ________ ligament and the ________ muscle connect the ends of tracheal cartilage. A) tracheal; trachealis B) anular; trachealis C) tracheal; anular D) cricoid; anular E) cricoid; trachealis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

65) The ligament bridging the larynx with the trachea is the ________ ligament. A) cricoid B) thyrohyoid C) vestibular D) cricothyroid E) cricotracheal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

66) The thyroid cartilage is also called the A) vestibular fold. B) vocal cord. C) laryngeal prominence. D) Adamʹs apple. E) laryngeal prominence and Adamʹs apple. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 23  The Respiratory System   799

67) Children have slender, short vocal cords so their voices tend to be A) louder. B) softer. C) higher pitched. D) lower pitched. E) deeper toned. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

68) JJ is suffering from laryngitis. He will most likely experience which of the following symptoms? A) coughing B) hoarseness C) sneezing D) suffocation E) impaired swallowing Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

69) Primary bronchi enter their respective lungs along with pulmonary vessels, nerves, and lymphatics at which region? A) base B) apex C) hilum D) cardiac notch E) superior lobe Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

70) The following is a list of some airways. What is the order in which air passes through them? 1. lobar bronchus 2. bronchioles 3. alveolar ducts 4. primary bronchus 5. respiratory bronchiole 6. alveoli 7. terminal bronchiole A) 4, 1, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6 B) 4, 1, 2, 5, 7, 3, 6 C) 1, 4, 2, 5, 7, 3, 6 D) 1, 4, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6 E) 2, 4, 1, 7, 5, 3, 6 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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800   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

71) The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are the A) bronchioles. B) terminal bronchioles. C) spaces between the parietal and visceral pleura. D) blood air barrier of the alveoli. E) interlobular septa. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

72) The blood air barrier consists of A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. B) 1 layer of moist cuboidal epithelium. C) 2 layers of simple squamous epithelium. D) stratified squamous epithelium. E) surfactant cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

73) Respiratory function deteriorates as a result of pneumonia because inflammation A) causes fluids to leak into the alveoli. B) causes respiratory bronchioles to swell and dilate. C) causes the lungs to leak air into the thorax. D) reduces movement of the epiglottis. E) reduces the size of the pleural cavity. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

74) Surfactant is produced by what cell type in the alveolus? A) smooth muscle cells B) pneumocytes Type I C) pneumocytes Type II D) pneumocytes Type I and Type II E) alveolar macrophages Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

75) The condition resulting from inadequate production of surfactant and the resultant collapse of alveoli is A) respiratory distress syndrome. B) COPD. C) anoxia. D) pulmonary embolism. E) pneumothorax. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 23  The Respiratory System   801

76) The interlobular septa divide the lungs into A) lobes. B) pulmonary lobules. C) alveolar sacs. D) vital capacity and residual volume. E) visceral pleura and fibrous trabeculae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

77) The right lung is to ________ as the left lung is to ________. A) three lobes; two lobes B) two lobes; two lobes C) two lobes; three lobes D) three lobes; three lobes E) four lobes; three lobes Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

78) The most superior portion of the lung is called the A) base. B) apex. C) cardiac notch. D) hilus. E) epipleurium. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

79) A patient with a connective tissue disease experiences increased pulmonary vascular resistance. Over a period of time, you would expect to observe A) increased cardiac output from the right ventricle. B) increased cardiac output from the left ventricle. C) increased thickness of the right ventricular wall. D) distension of the pulmonary veins from the right lung. E) no appreciable changes in heart structure or function. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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802   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

80) The resulting pain and inflammation when pleural fluid is unable to prevent friction between the opposing pleural surfaces is known as A) pleurisy. B) pulmonary hypertension. C) asthma. D) emphysema. E) COPD. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

81) Blockage of pulmonary blood flow by a traveling clot or similar obstruction is A) emphysema. B) COPD. C) anoxia. D) pulmonary embolism. E) pneumothorax. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

82) Which respiratory organ has a cardiac notch? A) right lung B) left lung C) right primary bronchus D) left primary bronchus E) diaphragm Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

83) The ________ fissure separates the lobes of the left lung. A) lateral B) longitudinal C) medial D) left horizontal E) oblique Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

84) A unique feature of the left lung is the A) hilum. B) carina. C) primary bronchus. D) cardiac notch. E) apex. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 23  The Respiratory System   803

85) The serous membrane that covers the lungs is the A) visceral pleura. B) parietal pleura. C) visceral pericardium. D) parietal pericardium. E) visceral peritoneum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

86) Lung tissue receives oxygen and nutrients from the A) pleural arteries. B) pulmonary arteries. C) pulmonary veins. D) coronary arteries. E) bronchial arteries. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

87) The process by which dissolved gases are exchanged between the cells and interstitial fluids is A) pulmonary ventilation. B) external respiration. C) internal respiration. D) cellular respiration. E) breathing. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

88) External respiration involves the A) movement of air into and out of the lungs. B) diffusion of gases between the interstitial fluid and the external environment. C) exchange of dissolved gases between the cells and interstitial fluids. D) binding of oxygen by hemoglobin. E) utilization of oxygen by tissues to support metabolism. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

89) In which direction does carbon dioxide move during internal respiration? A) from the blood into the tissue cells B) from the blood into the lungs C) from the lungs into the atmosphere D) from the tissue cells into the blood E) from the lungs into the blood Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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804   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

90) Low partial pressure of oxygen in tissues is a condition called A) asthma. B) emphysema. C) hypoxia. D) ischemia. E) lung cancer. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

91) The physical movement of air into and out of lungs is termed A) external respiration. B) internal respiration. C) cellular respiration. D) pulmonary ventilation. E) gas diffusion. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

92) The most common unit of measurement for measuring pulmonary pressures is A) mm Hg. B) torr. C) cm H2 O. D) psi. E) centigrade. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

93) When there is no air movement, the relationship between the intrapulmonary and atmospheric pressure is that A) they are equal. B) intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric. C) atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary. D) atmospheric pressure is more than intrapulmonary. E) intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 23  The Respiratory System   805

94) Boyleʹs law states that the pressure of a gas is A) inversely proportional to the volume of its container. B) always higher in the atmosphere than in the lungs. C) directly proportional to temperature. D) inversely proportional to temperature. E) directly proportional to the volume of its container. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

95) Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is A) greater than intraalveolar pressure. B) less than the pressure in the atmosphere. C) less than intrapulmonic pressure. D) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere. E) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

96) During quiet breathing, A) only the internal intercostal muscles contract. B) inspiration involves muscular contractions and expiration is passive. C) inspiration is passive and expiration involves muscular contractions. D) both inspiration and expiration are passive. E) both inspiration and expiration involve muscular contractions. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

97) What is one atmosphere of pressure? A) 760 mm Hg B) 1000 mm Hg C) 105 mm Hg D) 45 mm Hg E) 650 mm Hg Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

98) If the volume of the lungs increases, what happens to the air pressure inside the lungs? A) It decreases. B) It increases and possibly damages the lungs. C) It increases twice the amount of the increase in volume. D) It remains constant. E) It increases. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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806   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

99) What occurs if intrapulmonic pressure is 763 mm Hg? A) hyperventilation B) exhalation C) pause in breathing D) apnea E) inhalation Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

100) During exercise, which of the following contract for active exhalation? A) rectus abdominis and internal intercostal muscles B) diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles C) rectus abdominis and diaphragm muscles D) diaphragm and external intercostal muscles E) pectoralis major and serratus anterior muscles Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

101) The term ________ describes the result from an injury that permits air to leak into the intrapleural space. A) pleurisy B) pneumonia C) pneumothorax D) pulmonary edema E) emphysema Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

102) Quiet breathing is to ________ as shallow breathing is to ________. A) eupnea; diaphragmatic breathing B) eupnea; costal breathing C) costal breathing; eupnea D) costal breathing; diaphragmatic E) diaphragmatic breathing; eupnea Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 23  The Respiratory System   807

103) ________ involves active inspiratory and expiratory movements and calls on accessory muscles to assist with inhalation, while exhalation involves contraction of the internal intercostal muscles and sometimes abdominal muscles, too. A) Eupnea B) Forced breathing C) Costal breathing D) Vital breathing E) Passive breathing Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

104) ________ is the amount of air that moves into the respiratory system during a single respiratory cycle. A) Residual volume B) Expiratory reserve volume C) Inspiratory reserve volume D) Tidal volume E) Inspiratory capacity Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

105) ________ is the amount of air that you can inhale above the resting tidal volume. A) Residual inhaled volume B) Expiratory reserve volume C) Inspiratory reserve volume D) Enhanced tidal volume E) Inspiratory capacity Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

106) Expiratory movements are produced by contraction of the ________ muscle. A) scalene B) diaphragm C) internal intercostal D) external intercostal E) serratus anterior Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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808   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

107) When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, A) the volume of the thorax increases. B) the volume of the thorax decreases. C) the volume of the lungs decreases. D) the lungs shrink. E) expiration occurs. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

108) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term external intercostal? A) accessory muscle of expiration B) accessory muscle of inspiration C) primary muscle of inspiration D) primary muscle of expiration E) an accessory muscle for both expiration and inspiration Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

109) Increasing the alveolar ventilation rate will A) decrease the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli. B) decrease the rate of oxygen diffusion from the alveoli to the blood. C) increase the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli. D) decrease the rate of carbon dioxide diffusion from the blood to the alveoli. E) hardly affect either the partial pressure or diffusion of gases. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

110) Alveolar ventilation refers to the A) movement of air into and out of the lungs. B) movement of air into and out of the alveoli. C) movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood. D) movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli. E) utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

111) The function of pulmonary ventilation is to A) remove carbon dioxide from the blood. B) supply oxygen to the blood. C) maintain adequate alveolar ventilation. D) remove air from dead air space. E) prevent gas exchange in the bronchioles. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 23  The Respiratory System   809

112) If a patient inhales as deeply as possible and then exhales as much as possible, the volume of air expelled would be the patientʹs A) tidal volume. B) inspiratory reserve volume. C) expiratory reserve volume. D) reserve volume. E) vital capacity. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

113) ________ = respiratory rate × (tidal volume - anatomic dead space) A) Vital capacity B) Respiratory minute volume C) Pulmonary ventilation rate D) Alveolar ventilation rate E) External respiration rate Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

114) Boyleʹs law of gases states that A) the pressure and volume of a gas are equal. B) as the temperature goes up, the pressure goes up. C) the total gas pressure is equal to the sum of the partial pressures. D) the concentration of dissolved gas is proportional to its partial pressure. E) if the volume goes up, the pressure goes down. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

115) As an astronaut is lifted into Earthʹs orbit, what is the first change to take place in response to the drop in cabin pressure? A) increased hematocrit B) renal hypoxia C) increased alveolar ventilation rate D) decreased alveolar P O2 E) decreased hemoglobin saturation Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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810   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

116) While playing in an intramural football game, Joe is tackled so hard that he breaks a rib. He can actually feel a piece of the rib sticking through the skin and he is having a difficult time breathing. Joe is probably suffering from A) a collapsed trachea. B) an obstruction in the bronchi. C) a pneumothorax. D) decreased surfactant production. E) a bruised diaphragm. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

117) Which of the following can be calculated if the tidal volume and respiratory rate are known? A) respiratory minute volume B) inspiratory reserve volume C) expiratory reserve volume D) anatomical dead space E) forced vital capacity Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

118) When the inspiratory muscles relax, the rib cage returns to its original position as a result of A) exhalation. B) gravity. C) elastic rebound. D) accessory muscle contraction. E) partial pressure difference. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

119) The ________ of the lungs is an indication of their expandability, how easily the lungs expand and contract. A) compliance B) ventilation C) volume D) intrapulmonary pressure E) cellular respiration Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 23  The Respiratory System   811

120) Use of the accessory respiratory muscles is characteristic of forced breathing, or A) hyperpnea. B) eupnea. C) dyspnea. D) hypoxia. E) apnea. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

121) The normal respiratory rate of a resting adult ranges from ________ breaths each minute, or roughly one for every four heartbeats. A) 6-10 B) 8-14 C) 10-15 D) 12-18 E) 18-22 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

122) During inhalation, air continues to move into the lungs until A) the internal pressure is the same is atmospheric pressure. B) the internal pressure is less than atmospheric pressure. C) the internal pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure. D) the compliance of the lung decreases. E) the lungs recoil. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

123) A condition that increases lung compliance is A) lung cancer. B) respiratory distress syndrome. C) loss of surfactant. D) emphysema. E) pneumothorax. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

124) A pneumothorax typically causes A) COPD. B) emphysema. C) atelectasis. D) loss of surfactant. E) elevated intrapulmonary pressure. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

812   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

125) A typical respiratory minute volume is A) 1 liter. B) 2 liters. C) 500 mL. D) 6 liters. E) 10 liters. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

126) Air that remains in conducting passages and doesnʹt participate in gas exchange is termed A) vital capacity. B) minimal volume. C) residual volume. D) functional residual capacity. E) anatomic dead space. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

127) Lungs are held tightly to the wall of the thorax due to A) the diaphragm and intercostal muscle contractions. B) tight junctions between the lungs and the thorax. C) surface tension of the pleural fluid and negative pressure in the cavity. D) atmospheric pressure pushing on the lungs. E) pulmonary ligaments that anchor the lungs. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

128) Which pressure remains negative throughout the respiratory cycle? A) intrapulmonary B) intrapleural C) intra-alveolar D) atmospheric E) intrapulmonary and intra-alveolar Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 23  The Respiratory System   813

Figure 23-2 Mechanics of Ventilation Use Figure 23-2 to answer the following questions: 129) Which muscle(s) produce(s) the movement labeled ʺ1ʺ? A) rectus abdominis B) internal intercostals C) external intercostals D) diaphragm E) both rectus abdominis and external intercostals Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

130) What is the relationship between the pressures at label ʺ3ʺ? A) P outside = P inside B) P outside > P inside C) P outside  P inside C) P outside 7 mEq/L? (Figure 27-7) A) muscle weakness leading to paralysis B) increased urine volume C) respiratory depression D) acidosis E) cardiac arrhythmias Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 27  Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance   961

3) In which body fluid do the phosphate and protein buffer systems help regulate the pH? (Figure 27-10) A) intracellular fluid B) extracellular fluid C) blood plasma D) cerebrospinal fluid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) What is the kidneyʹs response to alkalosis caused by the removal of H + ? (Figure 27-14) A) secrete H +  and conserve HCO3 B) conserve H+  and secrete HCO 3 C) remove CO2 D) convert carbonic acid to water E) secrete sodium ions and conserve potassium ions Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

5) How do the lungs respond to metabolic acidosis? (Figure 27-16) A) lungs increase respiratory rate B) lungs decrease respiratory rate C) lungs secrete H+ D) lungs conserve H+ E) lungs convert carbonic acid to water Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

Essay Questions 1) The maintenance of normal volume and composition of extracellular and intracellular fluids is vital to life. List and briefly describe the kinds of homeostasis involved. Answer: Three types of homeostasis are involved: fluid balance, electrolyte balance, and acid-base balance. Fluid balance means that the total quantity of body water remains almost constant and that the distribution between the ICF and ECF are normal. Electrolyte balance implies the same thing for ions. Acid-base balance means that the pH of the ECF is maintained in the range of 7.35 to 7.45, and that gains or losses of hydrogen ion as a consequence of metabolism are followed by equivalent losses or gains so as to maintain constant buffer reserves. Learning Outcome: 27-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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962   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

2) Fred has chronic emphysema. Blood tests show that his pH is low but almost normal but his bicarbonate levels are elevated significantly. How can this be? What would urinalysis show? Answer: Emphysema limits alveolar ventilation, leading to increased carbon dioxide in Fredʹs body. Since Fredʹs condition is chronic (long term) his body has compensated for the excess carbonic acid (the result of hypercapnia due to poor ventilation) by increasing the amount of bicarbonate to match the elevated level of hydrogen ion. This compensation for respiratory acidosis was accomplished by the kidneyʹs secretion of hydrogen ion both in the PCT and DCT and the retention of bicarbonate from the elevated carbonic acid. Urinalysis would indicate a very low pH and high levels of ammonia, produced by the distal tubule to absorb the secreted hydrogen ion. Learning Outcome: 27-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

3) Why does potassium concentration rise in patients with acidosis? What is this called? What effects does it have? Answer: When pH is low, hydrogen ion levels in the blood are high and also in the interstitial and peritubular fluid. Hydrogen ion competes with potassium ion for the sodium countercurrent exchanger in the tubules. As hydrogen ion secretion rises (which compensates for the acidosis), potassium is retained and hyperkalemia develops. If severe enough, muscle cramps and cardiac arrhythmias result. Learning Outcome: 27-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 28 The Reproductive System Multiple Choice Questions 1) The reproductive system includes all of the following except A) gonads and external genitalia. B) ducts that receive and transport the gametes. C) accessory glands and organs that secrete fluids. D) organs for copulation. E) glands and organs that produce and store urine. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) The reproductive organ that produces gametes is called a A) duct. B) gland. C) gonad. D) womb. E) girdle. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) The male gonad is called a(n) A) seminal vesicle. B) epididymis. C) rete. D) testis. E) prostate. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) Sperm are moved along the ductus deferens (vas deferens) by A) hydrostatic force. B) ciliary action. C) peristaltic contractions. D) suction. E) hydraulic action. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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964   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

5) Arrange the four structures listed below into the order in which sperm pass from the testis to the external urethral orifice. 1. ductus deferens 2. urethra 3. ejaculatory duct 4. epididymis A) 1, 3, 4, 2 B) 4, 3, 1, 2 C) 4, 1, 2, 3 D) 4, 1, 3, 2 E) 1, 4, 3, 2 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) The organ that monitors and adjusts the composition of tubular fluid, recycles damaged sperm, and is the site of sperm maturation is the A) ductus deferens. B) rete testis. C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle). D) epididymis. E) prostate gland. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

7) The organ that carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra is the A) ductus deferens (vas deferens). B) epididymis. C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle). D) ejaculatory duct. E) corpus cavernosum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) Inward projections of the tunica albuginea, known as septa testis, divide the testis into A) seminiferous tubules. B) straight tubules. C) lobules. D) rete testis. E) the epididymis and the testis proper. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 28  The Reproductive System   965

9) Straight tubules originate at the seminiferous tubules and form a network of passageways called the A) epididymis. B) ductus deferens. C) rete testis. D) efferent ducts. E) vas deferens. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

10) The spermatic cord is A) a bundle of tissue that contains the ductus deferens, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics that serve the testis. B) a narrow opening that links the scrotal chamber with the peritoneal cavity. C) the external marking of the boundary between the two chambers of the scrotum. D) a layer of smooth muscle in the skin of the scrotal sac. E) a dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds the testis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

11) Interstitial endocrine cells produce A) sperm. B) inhibin. C) nutrients. D) testosterone. E) androgen-binding protein. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

12) Sperm production occurs in the A) ductus deferens. B) seminiferous tubules. C) epididymis. D) seminal glands (seminal vesicles). E) rete testis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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966   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

13) The organ that produces a secretion that contains fructose, prostaglandins, and fibrinogen is the A) prostate gland. B) bulbo-urethral gland. C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle). D) corpus cavernosum. E) preputial gland. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

14) The organ that surrounds the urethra and produces an alkaline secretion is the A) seminal gland (seminal vesicle). B) bulbo-urethral gland. C) prostate gland. D) preputial gland. E) Bartholinʹs gland. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

15) The small paired structures at the base of the penis that secrete a thick, alkaline mucus are the A) seminal vesicles. B) prostate glands. C) preputial glands. D) Bartholin glands. E) bulbo-urethral glands. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

16) Semen contains all of the following except A) sperm. B) seminal fluid. C) prostaglandins. D) spermatogonia. E) fibrinogen. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

17) The external marking of the boundary between the two testes is the A) spermatic cord. B) raphe. C) tunica albuginea. D) acrosome. E) dartos muscle. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 28  The Reproductive System   967

18) The organ that delivers semen into the female reproductive tract is the A) urethra. B) ejaculatory duct. C) penis. D) corpus cavernosum. E) corpus spongiosum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

19) The fold of skin that covers the glans penis is the A) ejaculatory duct. B) foreskin. C) corpus cavernosum. D) corpus spongiosum. E) penile urethra. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

20) The erectile tissue that surrounds the urethra is the A) membranous urethra. B) penile urethra. C) glans penis. D) corpus spongiosum. E) corpora cavernosa. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

21) The paired erectile bodies in the penis are the A) membranous urethra. B) penile urethra. C) corpus spongiosum. D) corpora cavernosa. E) foreskin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

22) Which of the following glands contributes the most volume to semen? A) prostate gland B) rete testis C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle) D) bulbo-urethral gland E) foreskin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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968   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

23) The delicate layer of serous membrane that covers the testis is called the A) median raphe. B) tunica vaginalis. C) tunica albuginea. D) dartos. E) lamina propria. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

24) The PSA test is used for diagnosis of A) testicular cancer. B) penile cancer. C) prostatitis. D) premature puberty. E) prostate cancer. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

25) A typical ejaculation releases approximately ________ sperm. A) 1 million B) 250 million C) 100,000 D) 20 million E) 800 million Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

26) If the prostate stopped secreting fluid, this would result in semen A) that lacked sperm. B) with a higher than normal pH. C) with less fructose. D) with no mucus. E) that was rich in prostaglandins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

27) A vasectomy would interfere with a manʹs ability to A) secrete testosterone. B) make sperm. C) ejaculate. D) produce semen. E) deliver sperm to the ejaculatory duct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 28  The Reproductive System   969

28) Contraction of the cremaster muscles A) tenses the scrotum. B) pulls the testes closer to the body cavity. C) propels sperm through the urethra. D) moves sperm through the ductus deferens. E) tenses the scrotum and pulls the testes closer to the body cavity. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

29) Contraction of the dartos muscle A) tightens the scrotum. B) produces an erection. C) propels sperm through the urethra. D) moves sperm through the ductus deferens. E) initiates seminal emission. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

30) Functions of the accessory glands of the male reproductive system include all of the following except A) production of sperm. B) meeting the nutrient needs of sperm for motility. C) propelling sperm and fluids along the reproductive tract. D) producing buffers. E) activating the sperm. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

31) A normal sperm count ranges from approximately ________ sperm per milliliter. A) 10 million B) 100-150 million C) 1-2 million D) 500 million E) 20-100 million Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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970   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

32) Why are inguinal hernias generally associated with males? A) Males have a gene on the Y chromosome that codes for inguinal hernia, whereas women do not have the Y chromosome. B) Women have a thicker set of skeletal muscles in the abdominal wall compared to men. C) Males work more strenuously than women, thereby damaging the abdominal wall. D) Males have a canal through the abdominal wall that the testes move through, and it often does not close up properly. E) The groin area is genetically weaker in men than in women because of the presence of the penis and testes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

33) The portion of the urethra that passes through the pelvic cavity floor is called the A) membranous urethra. B) bulbo-urethral. C) penile urethra. D) ureter. E) prostatic urethra. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

34) The portion of the urethra that penetrates the urogenital diaphragm is the A) membranous urethra. B) penile urethra. C) corpus spongiosum. D) spongy urethra. E) vascular urethra. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

35) The surgical removal of the foreskin is called A) circumcision. B) orchidectomy. C) tubectomy. D) vasectomy. E) pupectomy. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 28  The Reproductive System   971

36) The ________ carries fluid from the seminal gland (seminal vesicle) through the prostate. A) ejaculatory duct B) vas deferens C) ductus deferens D) epididymis E) rete Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

37) The ductus deferens passes through the ________ to enter the pelvic cavity. A) canaliculi B) mesiobuccal canal C) epididymis D) inguinal canal E) urinary bladder Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

38) The organ inferior to the urinary bladder and contains the urethra in the middle is the ________ gland. A) prostate B) bulbo-urethral C) Cowperʹs D) seminal vesicle E) seminiferous tubular Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

39) The cremaster muscle can raise and lower the testes to regulate A) temperature. B) expansion. C) erection. D) pH. E) size. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

40) The pampiniform plexus of the testicular vein is found within the A) epididymis. B) raphe. C) spermatic cord. D) cremaster muscle. E) rete testis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

972   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

41) For normal sperm development, the testes must be kept about A) the same temperature as the brain. B) 1.1°C cooler than core body temperature. C) 1.1°C warmer than core body temperature. D) 4.8°C cooler than core body temperature. E) 4.8°C warmer than core body temperature. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

42) Each lobule contains approximately ________ seminiferous tubules. A) 4 B) 100 C) 400 D) 800 E) 1500 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

43) The rete testis is connected to the epididymis by A) efferent ductules. B) the spermatic cord. C) the tunica albuginea. D) the tunica vaginalis. E) the straight tubules. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

44) Frank is experiencing difficulty urinating, painful urination, low back pain and a slight fever. The doctor prescribes antibiotics and Frank recovers. It is likely that Frank suffered from A) impotence. B) prostate cancer. C) prostatitis. D) a vasectomy. E) a circumcision. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

45) Which of the following does not contribute to seminal fluid? A) seminal glands B) prostate gland C) nurse cells and epididymis D) spermatic cords E) bulbo-urethral glands Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 28  The Reproductive System   973

46) Which of the following are not important enzymes found in seminal fluid? A) proteases, help dissolve mucus in the vagina B) seminalplasmin, an antibiotic enzyme C) fibrinolysin, dissolves the semen clot after 15-30 minutes D) coagulating enzymes, form a semen clot after ejaculation E) hydrolases, remove water and concentrate semen Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

47) The erectile tissue that extends down into the glans penis is the A) corpus spongiosum. B) corpora cavernosa. C) preputial glands. D) smegma. E) crus of penis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

48) Kevin has been experiencing difficulty urinating now that he is over the age of 60. The doctor examines his prostate gland and finds no evidence of inflammation. Furthermore, Kevinʹs PSA test is normal. It is most likely that Kevin is suffering from A) impotence. B) prostate cancer. C) benign prostatic hypertrophy. D) prostatitis. E) male climacteric. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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974   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

Figure 28-1 The Male Reproductive System Use Figure 28-1 to answer the following questions: 49) Identify the structure labeled ʺ11.ʺ A) bulbo-urethral gland B) prostate gland C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle) D) epididymis E) ductus deferens Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 28  The Reproductive System   975

50) Identify the structure labeled ʺ3.ʺ A) corpora cavernosa B) prostatic urethra C) corpus spongiosum D) spongy urethra E) ejaculatory duct Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

51) Identify the structure labeled ʺ13.ʺ A) bulbo-urethral gland B) prostate gland C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle) D) epididymis E) ductus deferens Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

52) Identify the structure labeled ʺ4.ʺ A) testis B) prostate gland C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle) D) epididymis E) ductus deferens Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

53) Identify the structure that produces a fructose-rich fluid. A) 9 B) 10 C) 11 D) 12 E) 13 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

54) Identify the structure labeled ʺ12.ʺ A) prostatic urethra B) ejaculatory duct C) ductus deferens D) vas deferens E) membranous urethra Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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976   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

55) Identify the structure labeled ʺ6.ʺ A) ejaculatory duct B) seminiferous tubule C) ductus deferens D) epididymis E) testis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

56) Identify the structure labeled ʺ1.ʺ A) membranous urethra B) ejaculatory duct C) corpora cavernosa D) corpus spongiosum E) prostatic urethra Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

57) Identify the structure labeled ʺ9.ʺ A) scrotum B) cremaster muscle C) ductus deferens D) testis E) foreskin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

58) Identify the structure labeled ʺ2.ʺ A) penile urethra B) ejaculatory duct C) corpora cavernosa D) corpus spongiosum E) membranous urethra Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

59) The nurse cells of the seminiferous tubules do all of the following except A) maintain the blood testis barrier. B) support spermiogenesis. C) secrete inhibin. D) secrete testosterone. E) secrete androgen-binding protein. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 28  The Reproductive System   977

60) Sperm develop from stem cells called A) spermatogonia. B) primary spermatocytes. C) secondary spermatocytes. D) spermatids. E) sperm. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

61) When spermatogonia divide, the daughter cells are called A) spermatogonia. B) spermatocytes. C) spermatids. D) sperm. E) Sertoli cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

62) The cells that are formed during spermatogenesis by meiosis I are called A) spermatogonia. B) primary spermatocytes. C) secondary spermatocytes. D) spermatids. E) sperm. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

63) The process of spermiogenesis produces A) spermatogonia. B) primary spermatocytes. C) secondary spermatocytes. D) spermatids. E) sperm. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

64) The role of FSH in males is to A) stimulate the interstitial endocrine cells to produce testosterone. B) stimulate the growth of male accessory glands. C) initiate sperm production in the testes. D) develop and maintain secondary sex characteristics. E) influence sexual behaviors and sex drive. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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978   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

65) The pituitary hormone that stimulates the interstitial endocrine cells to secrete testosterone is A) FSH. B) LH. C) ACTH. D) GnRH. E) GH. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

66) A primary spermatocyte matures into ________ spermatids having ________ chromosomes. A) millions of; 46 B) four; 23 C) one; 46 D) millions of; 23 E) four; 46 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

67) The special type of cell division required to produce gametes is called A) mitosis. B) meiosis. C) maturation. D) capacitation. E) fertilization. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

68) Sperm are functionally matured within the A) epididymis. B) straight tubules. C) rete testes. D) seminiferous tubules. E) seminal gland (seminal vesicle). Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

69) During meiosis I, maternal and paternal chromosomes come together during the process called ________ to form a ________. A) synapsis; chromatid B) prophase I; chromatid C) synapsis; spermatid D) metaphase II; tetrad E) synapsis; tetrad Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 28  The Reproductive System   979

70) In a mature human sperm, the A) acrosome is next to the flagellum. B) midpiece contains the chromosomes. C) tail contains the mitochondria. D) head contains 23 chromosomes. E) head is diploid. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

71) Secondary spermatocytes each contain A) 23 chromosomes. B) 23 pairs of chromosomes. C) twice the diploid number of chromosomes. D) 46 pairs of chromosomes. E) 46 chromosomes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

72) Testosterone is secreted by the A) hypothalamus. B) anterior pituitary. C) nurse cells. D) interstitial endocrine cells. E) adrenal cortex. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

73) Where in the male reproductive system would you expect to find the most mature sperm? A) in the seminiferous tubules B) in the head of the epididymis C) near the tail of the epididymis D) in the seminal gland E) in the prostate gland Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

74) A boy has a genetic mutation such that FSH is not produced, but LH is normal. After the boy grows to maturity, it is likely he will A) not develop secondary sex characteristics. B) be sterile. C) be impotent. D) have impaired function of the interstitial endocrine cells. E) produce large amounts of inhibin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

980   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

75) A male bodybuilder starts taking injections of testosterone (an anabolic steroid on a daily basis. After three weeks, you expect to observe all of the following, except A) increased sex drive. B) decreased levels of GnRH. C) decreased levels of LH and FSH. D) increased muscle mass. E) decreased nurse cell stimulation. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

76) Spermatids mature into sperm by the process of A) spermiogenesis. B) meiosis II. C) spermatogenesis. D) cytokinesis. E) meiosis I. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

77) The ________ is the part of the sperm that contains the DNA. A) head B) neck C) acrosome D) zona pellucida E) corona radiata Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

78) The middle piece of the sperm contains the ________ in a spiral arrangement. A) nucleosome B) chromosomes C) mitochondria D) flagella E) acrosome Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

79) The ________ of a sperm contains the enzymes essential for fertilization. A) acrosome B) flagellum C) nucleosome D) neck E) nucleus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 28  The Reproductive System   981

80) The most important androgen is A) dihydrotestosterone. B) androstenedione. C) dehydroepiandrosterone. D) progesterone. E) testosterone. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

81) The hormone that stimulates spermatogenesis in males is A) PTH. B) FSH. C) LH. D) GH. E) MSH. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

82) The interstitial endocrine cells in the testes produce A) dihydrotestosterone. B) androstenedione. C) growth hormone. D) progesterone. E) testosterone. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

83) The level of testosterone is kept high locally in the seminiferous tubules by activation of A) LH. B) FSH. C) androgen-binding protein. D) dihydrotestosterone. E) GnRH. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

84) Which of the following is not found within the seminiferous tubule? A) spermatogonia B) spermatocytes C) nurse cells D) interstitial endocrine cells E) spermatids Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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982   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

85) The complete process of spermatogenesis takes approximately how many days? A) 14 B) 28 C) 45 D) 64 E) 120 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

86) At the end of meiosis II, one spermatogonium has formed A) 2 fully functional sperm. B) 4 fully functional sperm. C) 2 spermatids. D) 4 spermatids. E) 1 sperm and 3 polar bodies. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

87) Which of the following is not true of meiosis I? A) reductional division occurs B) 4 haploid gametes are formed C) number of chromosomes is reduced from 46 to 23 in daughter cells D) diploid daughter cells form E) daughter cells contain sister chromatids Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

88) The role of inhibin in male reproduction is to A) decrease the production of testosterone. B) keep testosterone levels high inside the seminiferous tubule. C) stimulate the testes to descend. D) stimulate spermiogenesis. E) provide negative feedback regulation of FSH and GnRH secretion. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

89) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term endometrium? A) thick layer of smooth muscle cells B) supports the uterus anteriorly C) supports the uterus laterally D) consists of a functional zone and a basilar zone of epithelium E) After ovulation, the ovum is captured by it. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 28  The Reproductive System   983

90) The broad ligament is a(n) A) extensive mesentery that encloses the ovaries, uterine tubes, and uterus. B) thickened fold of mesentery that supports and stabilizes the position of the ovary. C) pocket formed between the posterior wall of the uterus and the anterior surface of the rectum. D) structure that anchors the ovary to the recto-uterine pouch. E) structure that extends from the lateral surface of the ovary to the pelvic wall. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

91) The organ that transports the ovum to the uterus is the A) uterosacral ligament. B) vagina. C) uterine (Fallopian) tube. D) infundibulum. E) myometrium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

92) The organ that provides mechanical protection and nutritional support for the developing embryo is the A) vagina. B) uterine tube. C) ovary. D) uterus. E) cervix. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

93) The round ligaments extend from the A) base of the uterus and vagina to the lateral walls of the pelvis. B) lateral surface of the uterus to the anterior surface of the sacrum. C) lateral margins of the uterus, through the inguinal canal to the external genitalia. D) body of the uterus to the fundus. E) cervix of the uterus to the vagina. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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984   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

94) The inferior one-third portion of the uterus that projects into the vagina is the A) isthmus. B) vaginal fornix. C) fundus. D) body. E) cervix. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

95) The thick muscular layer of the uterus is the A) endometrium. B) perimetrium. C) myometrium. D) uterometrium. E) sarcometrium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

96) Which of the following statements concerning the vagina is  false? A) It serves as a passageway for the elimination of menstrual fluids. B) It receives the penis during sexual intercourse. C) It holds sperm prior to their passage to the uterus. D) It forms the lower portion of the birth canal. E) It loses a portion of its lining during menses. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

97) The vagina is A) lined by simple columnar epithelium rich in goblet cells. B) similar to the inner lining of the uterus. C) another term for the cervix. D) a muscular tube extending between the uterus and the external genitalia. E) a muscular tube extending between the uterus and the anus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

98) The vulva includes all of the following except the A) mons pubis. B) vagina. C) labia minora. D) clitoris. E) labia majora. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 28  The Reproductive System   985

99) The space bounded by the labia minora is the A) vaginal fornix. B) vestibule. C) hymen. D) clitoris. E) isthmus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

100) Fatty folds of skin that encircle and partially conceal the labia minora and vestibule are the A) fornices. B) ampullae. C) labia majora. D) mons pubis. E) vestibular arches. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

101) The pigmented skin that surrounds the nipple is the A) zona reticularis. B) fornix. C) zona pellucida. D) peripapilla. E) areola. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

102) The ________ is the region of the vagina that surrounds the cervix. A) rugae B) vaginal fornix C) dartos D) fundus E) external os Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

103) Which region of the uterine tube captures the ovum? A) ampulla B) anterior segment C) infundibulum D) posterior segment E) isthmus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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986   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

104) The ________ is the rounded portion of the uterine body superior to the attachment of the uterine tubes. A) body B) cervix C) myometrium D) fundus E) internal os Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

105) The portion of the uterine tube that ends in fingerlike fimbriae is the A) ampulla. B) distal segment. C) infundibulum. D) proximal segment. E) isthmus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

106) The fold of peritoneum that extends out from the ovary to the wall of the pelvis is called the A) suspensory ligament. B) tunica albuginea. C) ovarian ligament. D) ovarian hilum. E) uterovesical ligament. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

107) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term myometrium? A) thick layer of smooth muscle cells B) supports the uterus anteriorly C) supports the uterus laterally D) consists of a functional zone and a basilar zone E) After ovulation, the ovum is captured by it. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

108) The segment of the uterine tube where fertilization commonly occurs is the A) ampulla. B) fimbriae. C) infundibulum. D) posterior. E) boundary between the ampulla and isthmus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 28  The Reproductive System   987

109) Which of the following statements is false regarding the female reproductive tract? A) Acidity in the vagina kills most sperm. B) The uterus contains large amounts of fructose nutrients. C) The size of breasts is primarily determined by adipose tissue. D) Cervical cancer may be caused by a virus. E) The inner wall layer of the vagina consists of stratified squamous epithelium, like the skin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

110) The broad ligament attaches to all of the following organs except the A) ovaries. B) uterine tubes. C) uterus. D) oviducts. E) urinary bladder. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

111) All of the following are functions of ovaries, except A) secretion of hormones. B) production of oocytes. C) formation of immature gametes. D) secretion of inhibin. E) receives the ovum after ovulation. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

112) Another term for vulva is A) gonads. B) vagina. C) female external genitalia. D) accessory glands. E) labia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

113) Ovarian cancer is the deadliest of the reproductive cancers because it A) is the most aggressive. B) is usually not diagnosed early. C) does not respond to any chemotherapy medications. D) affects the elderly population. E) is the most resistant to radiation therapy. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

988   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

114) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term uterine tube? A) has ciliated epithelium B) has stratified squamous epithelium C) covers the glans penis or glans clitoris D) holds the uterus to the ovary E) passes through erectile tissue in females Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

115) The hood that covers the clitoris is called the A) glans. B) prepuce. C) labia minora. D) cervix. E) vestibule. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

116) The ________ ligament extends from the uterus, near the attachment of the uterine tube, to the medial surface of the ovary. A) suspensory B) ovarian C) round D) gubernaculum E) mesovarium Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

117) The ________ ligament extends from the lateral surface of the ovary to the pelvic wall. A) suspensory B) ovarian C) round D) gubernaculum E) mesovarium Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

118) The ________ are fingerlike projections that capture the freshly ovulated ovum. A) gubernaculum B) fimbriae C) infundibulum D) uterine horn E) uterine tunnel Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 28  The Reproductive System   989

119) The expanded, initial segment of the uterine tube closest to the ovary is called the A) vaginal fornix. B) infundibulum. C) tunnel. D) ampulla. E) os. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

120) The ________ of the uterine tube is between the uterus and the ampulla. A) isthmus B) ampulla C) fimbra D) os E) commissure Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

121) Sperm enter the cervical canal through the external A) isthmus. B) ampulla. C) fimbra. D) os. E) commissure. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

122) The ________ ligaments extend from the base of the uterus and vagina to the lateral walls of the pelvis. A) cardinal B) uterosacral C) round D) broad E) mesovarium Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

123) The main portion of the uterus is called the corpus or A) fundus. B) cervix. C) horn. D) body. E) isthmus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

990   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

124) The portion of the uterus that projects into the vagina is called the A) fundus. B) cervix. C) horn. D) body. E) isthmus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

125) The painful condition that develops because epithelial tissue from the uterus is present in the peritoneal cavity is A) endometriosis. B) ovarian cysts. C) peritonitis. D) lymphedema. E) orchitis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

126) The ________ is the inner lining of the uterus. A) endometrium B) epimetrium C) perimetrium D) myometrium E) exometrium Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

127) Which disease exhibits similar symptoms as breast cancer? A) cervical cancer B) ovarian cancer C) uterine cancer D) fibrocystic disease E) vaginitis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

128) The leading cause of death in women between the ages of 35 -45 is A) cervical cancer. B) ovarian cancer. C) uterine cancer. D) fibrocystic disease. E) breast cancer. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 28  The Reproductive System   991

129) An inflammation of the vaginal canal caused by fungi, bacteria, or parasites is called A) endometriosis. B) a UTI. C) peritonitis. D) vaginitis. E) orchitis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

130) The ________ is an elastic epithelial layer between the vagina and vestibule, which, if present, is often torn during first intercourse. A) zona pellucida B) prepuce C) isthmus D) vaginal fornix E) hymen Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

131) The glands that produce mucus used as a lubricant during sexual intercourse are ________ glands. A) greater vestibular B) seminal C) vulvular D) bulbourethral E) mons Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

132) Which condition is characterized by a malignant, metastasizing tumor of the mammary gland? A) menopause B) fibrocystic disease C) breast cancer D) ductal blockage E) endometriosis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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992   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

133) The corpus spongiosum of the penis in males is analogous to the ________ in females. A) clitoris B) vagina C) uterus D) bulb of vestibule E) hymen Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

134) The pad of adipose tissue covering the pubic symphysis is the A) hymen. B) clitoris. C) labia majora. D) prepuce. E) mons pubis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

135) The ducts of the mammary glands open to the body surface through a A) sinus. B) nipple. C) labia. D) secretory lobule. E) fornix. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

136) Which layer of the uterus undergoes dramatic changes in thickness and structure during the uterine cycle responding to hormones. A) functional layer of the endometrium B) basal layer of the endometrium C) myometrium D) perimetrium E) epimetrium Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 28  The Reproductive System   993

137) Which of the following correctly lists the order of arteries from the external uterus to internal uterus? A) radial, arcuate, straight, uterine, spiral B) uterine, radial, straight, spiral, arcuate C) uterine, arcuate, radial, straight, spiral D) spiral, straight, radial, arcuate, uterine E) arcuate, uterine, spiral, radial, straight Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

138) The Pap smear looks for abnormal cytology of the A) vagina. B) uterus. C) uterine tube. D) cervix. E) ovary. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

139) What is the thickest portion of the uterine wall? A) functional layer of the endometrium B) basal layer of the endometrium C) myometrium D) perimetrium E) epimetrium Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

140) What is the function of uterine tube peg cells? A) secretion of estrogen B) secretion of progesterone C) propel the oocyte to the uterus D) secrete nutrient-rich fluid E) secrete mucus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

141) The pocket formed between the uterus and the posterior wall of the bladder is the A) vestibule. B) vesico-uterine pouch. C) recto-uterine pouch. D) broad ligament. E) uterine hilum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

994   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

142) Dense connective tissue that covers the ovary is called the A) ovarian hilum. B) fibrous capsule. C) tunica vaginalis. D) broad ligament. E) tunica albuginea. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 28-2 The Female Reproductive System  

Use Figure 28-2 to answer the following questions: 143) Identify the structure labeled ʺ2.ʺ A) vagina B) uterine tube C) clitoris D) ureter E) ovary Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 28  The Reproductive System   995

144) Identify the structure labeled ʺ6.ʺ A) uterus B) vagina C) cervix D) clitoris E) greater vestibular gland Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

145) Which structure produces oocytes? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 E) 9 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

146) Which structure is lined by a ciliated epithelium? A) 1 B) 2 C) 9 D) 11 E) 12 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

147) Identify the structure labeled ʺ12.ʺ A) uterus B) vagina C) clitoris D) labium minus E) ovary Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

148) Identify the structure labeled ʺ7.ʺ A) vagina B) clitoris C) greater vestibular gland D) labium minus E) labium majus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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996   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

149) Identify the structure labeled ʺ8.ʺ A) vagina B) clitoris C) greater vestibular gland D) labium minus E) labium majus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

150) Identify the structure labeled ʺ10.ʺ A) vaginal fornix B) cervical canal C) ampulla D) areola E) cervix Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

151) Identify the structure labeled ʺ5.ʺ A) cervix B) uterine tube C) ureter D) vagina E) urethra Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

152) In which structure does gestation occur? A) 1 B) 4 C) 9 D) 11 E) 13 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

153) Which of the following statements concerning oogenesis is  false? A) Oogenesis begins before birth. B) Ova develop from stem cells called oogonia. C) An ovum completes its last meiosis after it is fertilized. D) About half the oogonia complete mitosis between birth and puberty. E) By the time of their birth, girls have already lost about the majority of their oocytes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 28  The Reproductive System   997

154) The surge in luteinizing hormone that occurs during the middle of the ovarian cycle triggers A) follicle maturation. B) menstruation. C) ovulation. D) menopause. E) atresia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

155) A rise in the blood levels of follicle-stimulating hormone at the beginning of the ovarian cycle is responsible for A) follicle maturation. B) menstruation. C) ovulation. D) menopause. E) atresia. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

156) The average length of the menstrual cycle is ________ days. A) 16 B) 19 C) 21 D) 28 E) 35 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

157) During the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle, the A) corpus luteum is forming. B) functional zone of the endometrium is restored. C) fertilized ovum implants. D) old functional layer is sloughed off. E) endometrium finalizes the preparation for implantation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

158) During the menstrual phase, A) progesterone levels are high. B) a new uterine lining is formed. C) secretory glands and blood vessels develop in the endometrium. D) the old functional layer is sloughed off. E) the corpus luteum is most active. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

998   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

159) The uterine phase that develops because of a fall in progesterone levels is the A) menstrual phase. B) proliferative phase. C) secretory phase. D) follicular phase. E) luteal phase. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

160) The principal hormone secreted by the corpus luteum is A) LH. B) FSH. C) progesterone. D) luteosterone. E) estrogen. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

161) The granulosa cells of developing follicles secrete A) estrogens. B) progesterone. C) FSH. D) LH. E) GnRH. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

162) The primary follicle develops from the A) ovarian hilum. B) tunica albuginea. C) primordial follicle. D) ovarian stroma. E) granulosa cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

163) Which of the following is not a similarity between the testis and ovary? A) Both produce progesterone. B) Meiosis takes place in both. C) Both respond to follicle-stimulating hormone. D) Both respond to luteinizing hormone. E) Both produce gametes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 28  The Reproductive System   999

164) Which of the following statements about oogenesis is false? A) The polar body is the egg cell which is then fertilized by the sperm cell. B) Far fewer eggs are produced by the female than sperm produced by the male. C) Meiosis I begins in the female fetus. D) Meiosis II is not completed until after the egg cell makes contact with the sperm cell. E) The lack of viable oogonia in the ovaries leads to menopause in the female. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

165) A sample of a womanʹs blood is analyzed for reproductive hormone levels. The results indicate a high level of progesterone, relatively high levels of inhibin, and low levels of FSH and LH. The female is most likely experiencing ________ of the uterine cycle. A) the proliferative phase B) the menstrual phase C) the secretory phase D) menarche E) menopause Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

166) After ovulation, the ovary secretes A) luteinizing hormone. B) estrogen. C) progesterone. D) both estrogen and progesterone. E) luteinizing hormone, estrogen, and progesterone. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

167) The hormone that stimulates ovulation is A) luteinizing hormone. B) FSH. C) growth hormone. D) progesterone. E) testosterone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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1000   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

168) The ________ is the glycoprotein-rich region between the developing oocyte and the granulosa cells. A) acrosome B) rugae C) antrum D) zona pellucida E) corona radiata Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

169) The fluid-filled cavity that appears in a secondary follicle is called the A) corpus luteum. B) cortex. C) stroma. D) antrum. E) corpus albicans. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

170) The ________ consists of the follicle cells that cling to the oocyte after ovulation. A) stroma B) corpus albicans C) antrum D) zona pellucida E) corona radiata Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

171) Menstruation is the process of sloughing off the old functional layer of the A) perimetrium. B) endometrium. C) epimetrium. D) myometrium. E) exometrium. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 28  The Reproductive System   1001

172) The ________ is the endometrial layer that undergoes dramatic changes during the menstrual cycle. A) functional layer B) corpus albicans C) basal layer D) corpus luteum E) stroma Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

173) Painful menstruation is called A) dysmenorrhea. B) polymenorrhea. C) amenorrhea. D) menorrhea. E) nocimenorrhea. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

174) The first menses is called the A) menarche. B) menopause. C) climacteric. D) emission. E) ovulation. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

175) In a 28 day cycle, ovulation typically occurs around day A) 3. B) 7. C) 14. D) 21. E) 28. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

176) Rachel is experiencing difficulty conceiving. All of the following may be reasons why, e xcept A) her pituitary gland is not producing adequate levels of FSH. B) her ovarian and menstrual cycles are not properly coordinated. C) her ovaries are not producing enough progesterone. D) she has a 28 day cycle. E) her ovaries are not producing enough estrogen. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

1002   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

177) The menstrual and proliferative phases of the uterine cycle occur during the ________ phase of the ovarian cycle. A) follicular B) ovulation C) luteal D) secretory E) involution Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

178) The secretory phase of the uterine cycle occurs during the ________ phase of the ovarian cycle. A) follicular B) ovulation C) luteal D) proliferative E) involution Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

179) Oogenesis produces A) 4 secondary oocytes. B) 4 ova. C) 1 secondary oocyte and 3 ova. D) 1 secondary oocyte and 2 or 3 polar bodies. E) 4 ova and 2 or 3 polar bodies. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

180) Progesterone levels are highest during which phases of the ovarian and uterine cycles, respectively? A) follicular; menstrual B) luteal; secretory C) luteal; menstrual D) follicular; proliferative E) luteal; proliferative Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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Chapter 28  The Reproductive System   1003

181) All of the following are true of emission and ejaculation, except they A) occur under sympathetic stimulation. B) begin with peristaltic contractions of the ampulla. C) are responsible for propelling semen toward the external urethral opening. D) involve contractions of the seminal glands. E) stimulate the release of urine from bladder to clean the urethra. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

182) Erectile dysfunction is defined as an inability to achieve or maintain A) an erection. B) an emission. C) ejaculation. D) a normal sperm count. E) blood flow. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

183) Which of the following is directly responsible for an orgasm? A) menarche B) erection C) emission D) spermiogenesis E) ejaculation Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

184) The subsidence of an erection after ejaculation is known as A) detumescence. B) tumescence. C) menses. D) emission. E) ejaculation. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

185) Contractions of the skeletal muscles of the pelvic floor result in A) erection. B) emission. C) ejaculation. D) detumescence. E) impotence. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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1004   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

186) During female sexual arousal, parasympathetic activation leads to engorgement of the A) mons pubis. B) clitoris and vestibular bulbs. C) vagina. D) cervix. E) vaginal fornix. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

187) Infertility may result when an STD leads to A) menarche. B) premenstrual dysphoric disorder. C) polycystic ovary syndrome. D) pelvic inflammatory disease. E) menorrhagia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

188) Which of the following statements regarding erection is false? A) It involves parasympathetic stimulation. B) Vascular channels in the erectile tissue become engorged with blood. C) Dilation of penile arteries occurs. D) It involves nitric oxide production by neurons. E) It is commonly the result of plaque in the blood vessels of the penis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

189) The term ________ means the failure of one or both testes to descend into the scrotum by the time of birth. A) premature puberty B) vasculitis C) cryptorchidism D) priapism E) orchitis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

190) Which of the following does not occur after menopause? A) Menstrual cycles cease. B) Ovulation ceases. C) Estrogen levels rise. D) GnRH secretion increases. E) FSH secretion increases. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 28  The Reproductive System   1005

191) The cessation of menstruation after no more developing follicles remain is called A) dysmenorrhea. B) detumescence. C) menopause. D) menses. E) amenorrhea. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

192) After menopause, the production of two pituitary hormones increases. One of these is A) LH. B) prolactin. C) estrogen. D) progesterone. E) andostenedione. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

193) A man can get testosterone injections to increase sexual drive, muscle mass, and overall mood. These symptoms can occur as a result of A) prostate cancer. B) male climateric. C) premature ejaculation. D) testicular cancer. E) menopause. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) Which erectile tissue is split into two cylindrical masses that surround a central artery? Which erectile tissue surrounds the urethra? (Figure 28-7) A) corpus spongiosum; corpora cavernosa B) corpora cavernosa; corpus spongiosum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 28-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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1006   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

2) What is the name of the cell at each stage of sperm development, from mitosis to spermiogenesis? (Figure 28-9) A) secondary spermatocyte, spermatid, sperm, spermatogonium, primary spermatocyte B) spermatids, spermatogonium, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, sperm C) primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatogonium, spermatids, sperm D) spermatogonium, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatids, sperm E) spermatogonium, spermatids, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, sperm Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) In which of the four parts of a sperm are the centrioles found? (Figure 28 -11) A) acrosome B) head C) neck D) middle E) tail Answer: C Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) At what stage of development is the oocyte during ovulation? (Figure 28 -22) A) primordial B) oogonium C) primary oocyte D) secondary oocyte E) ovum Answer: D Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

5) Which layer of the endometrium is affected most during the uterine cycle? (Figure 28 -23) A) functional layer B) basal layer C) myometrial layer D) perimetrial layer E) secretory layer Answer: A Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) What is the precursor for all steroid hormones in both males and females? (Figure 28 -25) A) androgens B) prostaglandins C) androstenedione D) estradiol E) cholesterol Answer: E Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 28  The Reproductive System   1007

Essay Questions 1) How are male and female reproductive systems functionally different? Answer: In males, the gonads (testes) secrete androgens and produce hundreds of millions of gametes (sperm) each day. The sperm are mixed with secretions, forming semen, and are expelled from the body during ejaculation into the female. In females, the gonads (ovaries) secrete estrogen and progesterone and release a single ovum (gamete) every month. The vagina receives the penis during sexual intercourse and the ejaculate is deposited near the external os of the uterus. If the ovum is fertilized and implants in the endometrium, the femaleʹs body nourishes the development of the embryo and fetus until birth. Learning Outcome: 28-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

2) Explain how estrogen and progesterone control each phase of the uterine cycle. Answer: At the beginning of the 28 day cycle, both estrogen and progesterone levels are very low. The low levels of these hormones causes the menstrual phase because not enough progesterone is available to maintain the functional layer of the endometrium so it is sloughed off. As the ovarian follicle grows the granulosa cells produce increasing amounts of estrogen. The rising estrogen concentration causes the proliferative phase of the uterine cycle to begin and continue through ovulation. When the oocyte is ovulated the corpus luteum forms from the follicle and begins producing progesterone. The rising progesterone stimulates the secretory phase of the uterine cycle. This phase continues until the oocyte is fertilized or if it is not fertilized then the levels of progesterone fall and the menstrual phase begins again. Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

3) Imagine that a seven-year-old girl develops a hormone-secreting ovarian tumor derived from granulosa cells. What signs of the disease would you expect? Answer: Granulosa cells produce estrogen, so a tumor involving these cells would lead to highly elevated levels of estrogen. Estrogen would set in motion the development of secondary sex characteristics, such as breast enlargement, deposition of fat in characteristic places, development of axillary and pubic hair and apocrine sweat glands, along with accelerated skeletal growth. Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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1008   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

4) The release of FSH and LH from gonadotropes in the adenohypophysis is separately controlled by the same hypothalamic releasing hormone, GnRH. How is it possible to organize their secretion during the menstrual cycle? Answer: In females, the GnRH pulse frequency and amplitude (amount secreted per pulse change throughout the course of the ovarian cycle. Consider changes in pulse frequency, as their effects are both dramatic and reasonably well understood. Changes in GnRH pulse frequency are controlled primarily by circulating levels of estrogens and progestins. Estrogens increase the GnRH pulse frequency, and progestins decrease it. The endocrine cells of the adenohypophysis respond as if each group of endocrine cells is monitoring different frequencies. As a result, each group of cells is sensitive to some GnRH pulse frequencies and insensitive to others. For example, consider the gonadotropes, the cells responsible for FSH and LH production. At one pulse frequency, the gonadotropes respond preferentially and secrete FSH, whereas at another frequency, LH is the primary hormone released. FSH and LH production also occurs in pulses that follow the rhythm of GnRH pulses. If GnRH is absent or is supplied at a constant rate (without pulses), FSH and LH secretion will stop in a matter of hours. Learning Outcome: 28-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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Chapter 29 Development and Inheritance Multiple Choice Questions 1) The gradual modification of anatomical structures and physiologic characteristics from fertilization to maturity is termed A) gametogenesis. B) ontogeny. C) development. D) transformation. E) disablement. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

2) The formation of different types of cells required in development, or ________, occurs through selective changes in genetic activity. A) differentiation B) cupellation C) deployment D) gametogenesis E) phylogeny Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

3) The transfer of genetically determined characteristics from generation to generation is termed A) development. B) differentiation. C) inheritance. D) phylogeny. E) maturity. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-1 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) Sperm cannot fertilize an oocyte until they A) undergo capacitation. B) undergo meiosis. C) lose their flagellum. D) are in the vagina for 3 days. E) are activated by sustentacular cells of the vagina. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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1010   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

5) Which of the following is not part of oocyte activation? A) softening of the zona pellucida B) influx of sodium ion C) membrane depolarization D) release of calcium ion from smooth ER E) discharge of exocytotic vesicles adjacent to the oocyte membrane Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

6) Polyspermy results in A) twins. B) fetuses with different fathers. C) haploid individuals. D) chimeric adults. E) a nonfunctional zygote. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

7) During amphimixis, A) sperm become haploid. B) the ovum finishes meiosis II. C) the male and female pronuclei fuse. D) meiosis occurs. E) gametes are formed. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

8) The site where fertilization normally occurs is in the A) cervix. B) fimbrae. C) uterine wall near the fundus. D) outer one-third of the uterine tube. E) union of the vagina and uterus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

9) The layer of follicle cells that surround the unfertilized egg is called the A) zona pellucida. B) corona radiata. C) Graafian follicle. D) functional zone. E) tunica follicularis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 29  Development and Inheritance   1011

10) Block to polyspermy is prevented by the ________ reaction. A) metabolic B) gamete C) gollumina D) cortical E) polarity Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

11) The cell that directly results from the fusion of a secondary oocyte and a single sperm is called a(n) A) ootid. B) gastrula. C) blastula. D) morula. E) zygote. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

12) Sperm release ________ to break down the bonds between adjacent follicle cells surrounding the oocyte. A) relaxin B) hyaluronidase C) calcium D) zonal inhibiting proteins E) glucose Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

13) Fertilization stimulates the oocyte to enter meiosis II and the fertilized oocyte is called a(n) A) oogonium. B) primary oocyte. C) secondary oocyte. D) ovum. E) polar body. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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1012   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

14) The developmental period that is the period of all embryological and early fetal development is A) the first trimester. B) the second trimester. C) the third trimester. D) infancy. E) adolescence. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

15) The period of gestation that is characterized by rapid fetal growth and fat deposition is the ________ trimester. A) first B) second C) third Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

16) The period of gestation when organs and organ systems complete most of their development and the fetus looks distinctly human is the ________ trimester. A) first B) second C) third Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

17) The term ________ refers to the time spent in prenatal development. A) transformation B) micturition C) parturition D) gestation E) cleavage Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

18) The human gestation period consists of A) fertilization and one trimester. B) two trimesters of 1 month each. C) three trimesters of 1 month each. D) two trimesters of 2 months each. E) three trimesters of 3 months each. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 29  Development and Inheritance   1013

19) Which of the following statements concerning development is false? A) The term induction refers to the chemical interplay between developing cells. B) The developing oocyte receives molecules that affect development from the surrounding granulosa cells. C) Each blastomere in the blastocyst receives exactly the same cytoplasmic composition. D) Differences in a cellʹs cytoplasmic makeup affect the cellʹs genetic activity. E) Cells release molecules that affect the developmental process of neighboring cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

20) After fertilization, the first cell division is completed A) within a few seconds. B) within the hour. C) about 6 hours later. D) in 12 hours. E) about 30 hours later. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

21) During early development, the Y chromosome produces a substance called ʺtestis determining factorʺ (TDF) that causes the indifferent gonad to become a testis. This would be an example of A) capacitation. B) activation. C) differentiation. D) induction. E) predilection. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

22) The process of cell division that divides the cytoplasm of the zygote among blastomeres is called A) cleavage. B) implantation. C) placentation. D) embryogenesis. E) blastulation. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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1014   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

23) The penetration of the endometrium by the blastocyst is referred to as A) cleavage. B) implantation. C) placentation. D) embryogenesis. E) fertilization. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

24) ________ are nearly identical cells that are produced by early cleavages. A) Blastomeres B) Morulas C) Gastrulas D) Amnions E) Blastulas Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

25) The solid ball of cells that has been likened to a mulberry is called a A) chorion. B) blastula. C) gastrula. D) morula. E) blastocyst. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

26) A blastocyst is a(n) A) extraembryonic membrane. B) solid ball of cells. C) hollow ball of cells. D) portion of the placenta. E) origin of the urinary bladder. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

27) The inner cell mass of the blastocyst will A) form the placenta. B) form the morula. C) form the embryo. D) form blood vessels of the placenta. E) provide nutrients for early growth. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 29  Development and Inheritance   1015

28) During implantation, the A) trophoblast erodes a path through the endometrium. B) inner cell mass begins to form the placenta. C) maternal blood vessels in the endometrium are walled off from the blastocyst. D) entire trophoblast becomes syncytial. E) inner cell mass is temporarily deprived of nutrients. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

29) Under the influence of the trophoblast, maternal blood vessels in the endometrium A) disappear. B) attach to the inner cell mass. C) break down and form sinuses or lacunae. D) form a capillary network in the trophoblast. E) increase in size and penetrate the blastocyst. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

30) A space opens within the inner cell mass that will form the A) blastocoele. B) lacunae. C) amniotic cavity. D) chorion. E) allantois. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

31) Shortly after gastrulation, the body and organs of the embryo begin to form. This process is called A) cleavage. B) implantation. C) placentation. D) embryogenesis. E) germination. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

32) Which of the following is false concerning the allantois? A) It derives partly from endoderm. B) It projects into the umbilical cord. C) It stores nitrogenous wastes. D) Part will develop as the urinary bladder. E) It acts as the fetal bone marrow. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

1016   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

33) Ectoderm is to ________ as mesoderm is to ________. A) neural tissue; muscle tissue B) cardiovascular system; neural tissue C) mesoderm; endoderm D) neural tissue; epithelial tissue E) muscle tissue; neural tissue Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

34) The mesoderm and the trophoblast combine to form the A) amnion. B) amniotic sac. C) chorion. D) allantois. E) inner cell mass. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

35) During gastrulation, A) the blastomeres fuse. B) the placenta penetrates the endometrium. C) three germ layers are formed. D) cells from the hypoblast move to the epiblast. E) the neural tube closes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

36) The region known as the primitive streak is the site of A) migration of mesodermal cells to form the endoderm. B) endoderm formation. C) ectoderm formation. D) migration of ectodermal cells to form the mesoderm. E) amnion formation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

37) The ectoderm forms A) muscle. B) blood. C) neural tissues. D) the lining of the digestive tract. E) the urinary system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 29  Development and Inheritance   1017

38) The mesoderm forms A) muscle. B) epidermis. C) the brain. D) the lining of the digestive tract. E) respiratory epithelium. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

39) The endoderm forms A) muscle. B) blood. C) neural tissue. D) skin. E) the urinary bladder. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

40) The extraembryonic membrane that forms blood is the A) yolk sac. B) amnion. C) allantois. D) chorion. E) decidua. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

41) Oxygenated blood from the placenta returns to the fetus in the A) allantois. B) umbilical vein. C) umbilical arteries. D) decidua capsularis. E) umbilical capillaries. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

42) Where in the embryo does mesoderm first appear? A) between the cell layers of the inner cell mass B) within the blastocoele C) in the chorionic villi D) above the epiblast E) around the trophoblast Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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1018   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

43) The part of the endometrium that covers the implanted embryo and lacks chorionic villi is the A) parietal decidua. B) albicans decidua. C) functional decidua. D) capsular decidua. E) basal decidua. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

44) Which embryonic germ layer forms the linings of the respiratory and digestive tracts? A) mesoderm B) ectoderm C) trophoderm D) endoderm E) epiderm Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

45) Which embryonic germ layer forms connective tissues such as bone and cartilage? A) epiderm B) trophoderm C) ectoderm D) mesooderm E) endoderm Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

46) Which embryonic germ layer forms the brain and spinal cord? A) ectoderm B) endoderm C) trophoderm D) epiderm E) mesooderm Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

47) The extraembryonic membrane that forms a fluid-filled sac is the A) yolk sac. B) amnion. C) allantois. D) chorion. E) decidua. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 29  Development and Inheritance   1019

48) The umbilical cord contains the yolk sac, the placental blood vessels and the A) chorionic villi. B) allantois. C) amnion. D) chorion. E) decidua. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

49) The extraembryonic membrane that forms the fetal portion of the placenta is the A) yolk sac. B) amnion. C) allantois. D) chorion. E) decidua. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

50) Which of the following is not one of the extraembryonic membranes? A) yolk sac B) amnion C) allantois D) chorion E) umbilical cord Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

51) In ________, implantation occurs somewhere other than in the uterus. A) ectopic pregnancy B) hydramnios C) placenta previa D) abortion E) spontaneous abortion Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

52) The outer layer of the blastocyst that can penetrate the endometrium is the A) archegonium. B) chorion. C) gastrula. D) blastula. E) trophoblast. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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1020   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

53) The hollow cavity within the blastocyst is the A) blastula. B) gastrula. C) blastocoele. D) trophoblast. E) ootid. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

54) The ________ is the portion of the endometrium not in contact with the chorion. A) trophoblast B) allantois C) capsular decidua D) functional decidua E) parietal decidua Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

55) The ________ is formed by the allantois, blood vessels, and yolk sac. A) umbilical cord B) chorion C) chorioallantoic membrane D) trophoblast E) amnion Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

56) The almost identical cells produced by cleavage divisions are called A) centromeres. B) blastomeres. C) telomeres. D) myosomes. E) somal cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

57) The process by which a viable embryo is formed is called A) embryogenesis. B) organogenesis. C) gametogenesis. D) morphogenesis. E) blastogenesis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 29  Development and Inheritance   1021

58) Placental functions are concentrated in a disc-shaped area in the endometrium called the A) trophoblast. B) allantois. C) capsular decidua. D) basal decidua. E) parietal decidua. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

59) Blood flows from the fetus to the placenta through paired A) umbilical vein. B) iliac veins. C) umbilical arteries. D) uterine veins. E) uterine arteries. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

60) The processes that occur in the pre-embryonic period are A) cleavage and implantation. B) cleavage and placentation. C) implantation and placentation. D) implantation and embryogenesis. E) placentation and embryogenesis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

61) The processes that occur in the embryonic period are A) cleavage and implantation. B) cleavage and placentation. C) implantation and placentation. D) implantation and embryogenesis. E) placentation and embryogenesis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

62) Which of the following statements about the first trimester is false? A) The events that occur during the first trimester are very complex. B) Only about 40 percent of conceptions survive the first trimester. C) During this trimester, cleavage, implantation, placentation and embryogenesis occur. D) The fetus gains the most weight during the first trimester. E) It consists of 10 developmental weeks. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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1022   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

63) The inner cellular layer of trophoblast that remains intact inside the blastocyst is termed the A) morula. B) cytotrophoblast. C) synctiotrophoblast. D) lacunae. E) amnion. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

64) The uterine epithelium is broken down by the enzyme, A) hyaluronidase. B) acrosin. C) urase. D) proteoglycan. E) relaxin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

65) The uterine epithelium is broken down by which structure of the blastocyst? A) allantois B) cytotrophoblast C) syncytiotrophoblast D) blastocoele E) amnion Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

66) The separation between the inner cell mass and the trophoblast forms a fluid -filled chamber called the A) chorion. B) yolk sac. C) allantois. D) amniotic cavity. E) placenta. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

67) The embryo becomes a fetus at A) the end of the first week. B) the end of the second week. C) the end of the eighth week. D) the end of the second trimester. E) the end of the third trimester. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 29  Development and Inheritance   1023

68) The primary nutrient source for early embryonic development that later becomes an important site for blood formation is the A) amniotic fluid. B) placenta. C) basal decidua. D) umbilical vein. E) yolk sac. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

69) The epidermis and accessory structures of skin form from which germ layer? A) endoderm B) mesoderm C) epiderm D) ectoderm E) trophoderm Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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1024   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

Figure 29-1 Early Human Development Use Figure 29-1 to answer the following questions: 70) Identify the structures labeled ʺ6.ʺ A) polar bodies B) cytotrophoblast C) blastomeres D) syncytiotrophoblast E) trophoblast Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

71) Identify the stage labeled ʺ12.ʺ A) zygote B) early morula C) blastocyst D) trophoblast E) late morula Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 29  Development and Inheritance   1025

72) Identify the stage labeled ʺ8.ʺ A) zygote B) early morula C) blastomere D) trophoblast E) advanced morula Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

73) What is the developmental fate of ʺ9ʺ? A) forms the embryo B) forms the trophoblast C) forms the chorion D) forms the placenta E) forms the parietal decidua Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

74) Identify the process occurring at the structure labeled ʺ13.ʺ A) fertilization B) ovulation C) implantation D) migration E) gastrulation Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

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1026   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

Figure 29-2 Fetus at 10 Weeks Use Figure 29-2 to answer the following questions: 75) Identify the structure labeled ʺ8.ʺ A) amnion B) chorion C) basal decidua D) placenta E) capsular decidua Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

76) Identify the structure labeled ʺ4.ʺ A) amnion B) chorion C) basal decidua D) placenta E) endometrium Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 29  Development and Inheritance   1027

77) Identify the structure labeled ʺ7.ʺ A) amnion B) chorion C) basal decidua D) placenta E) endometrium Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

78) Identify the structure labeled ʺ3.ʺ A) umbilical cord B) placenta C) basal decidua D) capsular decidua E) yolk sac Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

79) Identify the structure labeled ʺ6.ʺ A) umbilical cord B) placenta C) basal decidua D) amnion E) parietal decidua Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

80) Identify the structure labeled ʺ2.ʺ A) basal decidua B) chorion C) amnion D) placenta E) endometrium Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

81) During the second trimester, the mesoderm on the outer surface of the amnion contacts the mesoderm on the inner surface of the chorion and fuse to form the ________ membrane. A) cervical B) syncytial C) amniochorionic D) embryonic E) umbilical Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-5 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

1028   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

82) By the end of gestation, maternal blood volume normally increases by almost ________ percent. A) 20 B) 25 C) 50 D) 80 E) 100 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

83) Which of the following does not occur during pregnancy? A) A womanʹs respiratory rate and tidal volume increase. B) Maternal blood volume increases. C) Maternal nutrient requirements increase. D) A womanʹs glomerular filtration rate increases. E) A womanʹs bladder capacity increases. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

84) The placenta is a source of all of the following hormones,  except A) hCG. B) relaxin. C) placental lactogen. D) progesterone. E) luteinizing hormone. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

85) The hormone that increases the flexibility of the pubic symphysis during pregnancy is A) luteinizing hormone. B) progesterone. C) human chorionic gonadotropin. D) human placental lactogen. E) relaxin. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

86) If fertilization occurs, the ________ is maintained because the embryo secretes ________. A) corpus albicans; human chorionic gonadotrophin B) corpus luteum; luteinizing hormone C) corpus cavernosum; human chorionic gonadotrophin D) corpus luteum; human chorionic gonadotrophin E) corpus albicans; placental prolactin Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 29  Development and Inheritance   1029

87) The hormone called the hormone of pregnancy, inhibiting uterine contractions, is A) hCG. B) relaxin. C) placental lactogen. D) progesterone. E) luteinizing hormone. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

88) Mammary gland development requires a combination of all of the following hormones, except A) oxytocin. B) placental prolactin. C) prolactin. D) human placental lactogen. E) estrogen. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-6 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

89) The prostaglandins produced in the endometrium A) initiate the release of oxytocin for parturition. B) stimulate smooth muscle contractions. C) initiate secretory activity in the mammary glands. D) promote breast development. E) stimulate the milk let-down reflex. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

90) Stretching of the cervix causes an increase in the blood levels of A) estrogen. B) progesterone. C) oxytocin. D) relaxin. E) chorionic gonadotropin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

91) During gestation, contraction of the myometrium is inhibited by ________, produced by the corpus luteum. A) progesterone B) estrogen C) oxytocin D) prostaglandins E) inhibin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

1030   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

92) The first stage of labor is the ________ stage. A) dilation B) expulsion C) placental D) decidual E) neonate Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

93) The stage of labor during which the fetus emerges from the vagina is called the ________ stage. A) emergence B) dilation C) placental D) expulsion E) fetal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

94) An infant born ________ prematurely has a good chance of survival. A) 1.5 months B) 3 months C) 4 months D) 5 months E) 6 months Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

95) Uterine contractions that are irregular and brief that occur toward the end of gestation are called A) parturition. B) expulsion. C) true labor. D) Braxton-Hicks. E) dilation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

96) In a(n) ________, an incision is made in the perineal musculature. A) episiotomy B) lumbar puncture C) crowning D) epidural E) peritoneal cut Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 29  Development and Inheritance   1031

97) Fraternal twins result from A) one egg that is fertilized by two different sperm. B) two different zygotes. C) one zygote that splits into two zygotes. D) two eggs fertilized by one sperm cell. E) a blastula that splits into two blastulas. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

98) Twins that occur when blastomeres separate are called A) monozygotic. B) blastulatory. C) zygoblastic. D) dizygotic. E) fraternal. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

99) The goal of labor is childbirth, also termed A) gestation. B) development. C) parturition. D) abortion. E) senescence. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

100) Which of the following places the stages of labor in the correct order? A) placental, expulsion, dilation B) placental, dilation, expulsion C) expulsion, dilation, placental D) dilation, placental, expulsion E) dilation, expulsion, placental Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

101) Immediately after birth, a newbornʹs health is assessed by an Apgar score. Which of the following is not part of the Apgar assessment? A) heart rate B) breathing C) muscle tone D) hearing E) skin color Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

1032   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

102) Which of the following does not occur at puberty? A) FSH levels rise. B) GnRH levels decline. C) Levels of sex hormones rise. D) Gametogenesis begins. E) Secondary sexual characteristics begin to develop. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

103) As a person ages, A) the skin becomes more elastic. B) lung tissue becomes more elastic. C) peristalsis and muscle tone decrease. D) all hormone levels decrease. E) peristalsis and muscle tone decrease and some hormone levels decrease. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

104) The infancy stage of life is considered to be over at A) 3 months B) age 2. C) 6 months. D) 1 month. E) 18 months. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

105) ________ is the medical specialty that focuses on postnatal development from infancy to adolescence. A) Geriatrics B) Orthopedics C) Pediatrics D) Psychiatrics E) Obstetrics Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

106) The neonatal period extends A) for the first 24 hours of life. B) for the first month of life. C) until the first birthday. D) for the first six months. E) until breast feeding stops. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 29  Development and Inheritance   1033

107) The developmental period heralded by the onset of puberty is known as A) post-infancy. B) adolescence. C) early childhood. D) teenage years. E) pre-teen. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

108) The period from 1 month after birth to 1 year is known as A) childhood. B) post-fetal. C) neogen. D) infancy. E) neonatal. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

109) A mother has a lot of milk stored in the breast and mammary glands but cannot seem to expel the milk for her newborn. Her doctor thinks that the cause may be A) low levels of oxytocin. B) high levels of HCG. C) low levels of estrogen. D) low levels of progesterone. E) unresponsive smooth muscle around the mammary glands. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

110) The clear liquid secreted by the mammary glands before milk production begins is called A) milk. B) colostrum. C) serum. D) plasma. E) peritoneal. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

111) Adolescence begins at the period of sexual maturity called A) menopause. B) puberty. C) senescence. D) postnatal. E) gestation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

1034   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

112) All of the following changes occur during puberty, except A) the hypothalamus decreases its production of GnRH. B) FSH levels increase. C) LH levels increase. D) growth rate increases. E) gamete formation begins. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

113) A patient comes in the clinic expressing concern over changes in her body. She says she has been experiencing axillary and genital hair growth, breast growth, acne and she is going through a growth spurt. You reassure her these are all a normal part of maturation and inform her that she has begun A) menarche. B) menopause. C) peri-menopause. D) prenatal development. E) puberty. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

114) Non-sex chromosomes are called A) homologous. B) homozygous. C) heterozygous. D) autosomal. E) chromatids. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

115) The alternate forms of any one gene are called A) homologous. B) homozygous. C) heterozygous. D) autosomes. E) alleles. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 29  Development and Inheritance   1035

116) If an individual carries a pair of alleles that are the same, the individual is ________ for the trait. A) homologous B) homozygous C) heterozygous D) autosomous E) polygenic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

117) If a color-blind (X-linked recessive trait) man marries a woman who is heterozygous for the trait, what proportion of their male offspring can be expected to be color blind? A) 1/2 B) 1/4 C) 1/8 D) 3/4 E) 100 (all) Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

118) If an individual carries two different alleles for the same trait, the individual is ________ for the trait. A) homologous B) homozygous C) heterozygous D) autosomous E) polygenic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

119) If a sperm carrying the ʺYʺ chromosome fertilizes the ovum, the resulting offspring will be A) haploid. B) Rh positive blood type. C) male. D) fraternal twins. E) female. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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1036   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

120) The presence of a recessive gene can be detected (seen) only if the individual is A) homozygous recessive. B) heterozygous dominant. C) heterozygous recessive. D) homozygous dominant. E) epistatic recessive. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

121) A woman who is heterozygous for blood type A mates with a man who is homozygous for blood type O. What blood type(s) would their children have? A) 75% heterozygous type A B) 100% type A C) 75% homozygous type O D) 100% type O E) 50% type A, 50% type O Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

122) The gene for normal skin pigment (A) can also code for the recessive trait of albinism (a). An albino man and a homozygous normal pigmented woman marry and have four children. What is the phenotype of the children? A) 75% normal skin pigment and 25% albino B) 100% normal skin pigment C) 50% normal skin pigment and 50% albino D) 25% normal skin pigment and 75% albino E) 100% albino Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

123) In simple autosomal inheritance, phenotypic characters are determined, or controlled, by A) a single pair of alleles. B) multiple alleles. C) the action of a single gene. D) regulator genes on a different chromosome. E) the genes on the Y chromosome. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 29  Development and Inheritance   1037

124) In polygenic inheritance, phenotypic characters are A) determined by a double pair of alleles. B) determined by interactions among several genes. C) determined by multiple copies of a single gene. D) always controlled by genes on the same chromosome. E) determined by the genes on the Y chromosome. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

125) How many chromosomes do human gametes contain? A) 12 B) 23 C) 46 D) 92 E) 6 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

126) How many chromosomes do human somatic cells contain? A) 12 B) 23 C) 46 D) 92 E) 6 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

127) The 23rd set of chromosomes determines A) characteristics of the brain. B) sex. C) body characteristics. D) blood type. E) sex drive. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

128) In ________, a sample of amniotic fluid is removed and the fetal cells it contains are analyzed. A) chorionic villus sampling B) amniocentesis C) paracentesis D) amniosis E) thoracentesis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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1038   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

129) The full set of genetic information in an individualʹs chromosomes is called A) pleiotype. B) allotype. C) phenotype. D) isotype. E) genome. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

130) The traits of an individual controlled by his or her genotype are his or her A) pleiotype. B) allotype. C) phenotype. D) isotype. E) genotype. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

131) A ________ allele will always be expressed regardless of what the other allele happens to be. A) homologous B) homocentric C) recessive D) maternal E) dominant Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

132) A ________ allele is expressed only when homozygous. A) homologous B) homocentric C) recessive D) maternal E) dominant Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

133) The entire set of chromosomes of an individual can be visualized on a A) locus. B) map. C) karyotype. D) Punnett square. E) genotype. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 29  Development and Inheritance   1039

134) Height is not expressed by a simple dominant and recessive allele. This type of inheritance is termed A) polygenic inheritance. B) incomplete dominance. C) codominance. D) strict dominance. E) simple inheritance. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

135) The ABO blood type is an example of which type of inheritance? A) polygenic inheritance B) incomplete dominance C) codominance D) strict dominance E) sex-linked Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

136) An individualʹs karyotype shows trisomy 21. This is an example of a A) translocation. B) chromosomal abnormality. C) mutation. D) recombination error. E) teratogen. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

137) A geneʹs position on a chromosome is called a A) karyotype. B) map. C) recombinant. D) genome. E) locus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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1040   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

In-Text Figure Based Questions 1) What is the name and function of the outer cell layer of a blastocyst? (Figure 29 -2) A) inner cell mass; become the yolk sac B) morula; become the amniotic fluid C) trophoblast; provide nutrients D) blastomere; implant into the uterine wall E) blastocoele; form the embryo Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

2) What is the name of the third germ layer that forms during gastrulation? (Figure 29 -4) A) ectoderm B) endoderm C) mesoderm D) primitive streak E) embryonic disc Answer: C Learning Outcome: 29-4 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

3) What hormones stimulate and increase the excitability of the myometrium? (Figure 29 -10) A) oxytocin and prostaglandins B) prolactin and prostaglandins C) estrogen and progesterone D) oxytocin and progesterone E) estrogen and prostaglandins Answer: A Learning Outcome: 29-7 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

4) Explain why this is a karyotype of a male and not a female. (Figure 29-14) A) The 23rd pair of chromosomes are an XX. B) The 23rd pair of chromosomes are an XY. C) There are 24 pairs of chromosomes. D) There are 22 pairs of chromosomes. E) The 23rd chromosome is a Y chromosome. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Remembering

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Chapter 29  Development and Inheritance   1041

5) What types of inheritance are involved in the following phenotypes -nearsightedness, normal vision, and red-green color blindness? (Figure 29-15) A) simple inheritance; polygenic inheritance; sex-linked inheritance B) polygenic inheritance; sex-linked inheritance; sex-linked inheritance C) sex-linked inheritance; polygenic inheritance; polygenic inheritance D) polygenic inheritance; simple inheritance; polygenic inheritance E) simple inheritance; simple inheritance; sex-linked inheritance Answer: E Learning Outcome: 29-9 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

Essay Questions 1) What activity during oocyte activation prevents penetration by additional sperm? Answer: The first sperm to penetrate the oocyte triggers a sequence of changes that block entry by other sperm, or polyspermia. Polyspermy is prevented by depolarization of the egg membrane by opening of sodium channels and by the cortical reaction triggered by the release of calcium ion from smooth ER within the oocyte. The calcium ion stimulates the vesicles to undergo exocytosis. Their contents cause the zona pellucida to harden, creating a barrier against further sperm penetration. Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Understanding

2) Outline the events that take place between exposure of the oocyte to spermatozoa and formation of the first blastomere pair. Answer: Powerful acrosomal hydrolases released from the sperm head create openings between adherent granulosa cells (the corona radiata) and penetrate the zona pellucida. A solitary sperm penetrates to the oocyte membrane to which it fuses, sending its nucleus into the oocyte. This is the moment of fertilization. This triggers maturation of the haploid maternal pronucleus, followed by development of the male pronucleus. These then fuse in the act of amphimixis, the true combining of maternal and paternal haploid chromosome sets to form a unique diploid set of 46 chromosomes. Spindle fibers organize the chromosomes on the metaphase plate after the nuclear envelopes break down. After mitosis is complete, cytokinesis takes place, dividing the original zygote into two daughter cells or pair of blastomeres. This takes more than 30 hours to complete. Learning Outcome: 29-2 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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1042   Test Bank for Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 11e

3) List and briefly characterize the three trimesters of gestation. Answer: For convenience, we think of the gestation period as consisting of three integrated trimesters, each lasting 3 months in duration: (1) The first trimester is the period of embryological and early fetal development. During this period, the rudiments of all the major organ systems appear. (2) The second trimester is dominated by the development of organs and organ systems, a process that nears completion by the end of the sixth month. During this period, body shape and proportions change; by the end of this trimester, the fetus looks distinctively human. (3) The third trimester is characterized by rapid fetal growth and deposition of adipose tissue. Early in the third trimester, most of the fetusʹs major organ systems become fully functional. Learning Outcome: 29-3 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

4) A new mother tells you that when she nurses her baby, she feels as if she is having menstrual cramps. How would you explain this phenomenon? Answer: During nursing, the mechanical stimulus of suckling triggers a neural reflex that leads to the release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary. Oxytocin enters the bloodstream and stimulates contractile cells that surround the secretory cells in the mammary glands to contract and move milk into the lactiferous sinusesthe milk let-down reflex. Oxytocin also stimulates smooth muscle cells of the myometrium, so the rise in oxytocin sometimes leads to uterine contractions as well, producing a feeling similar to menstrual cramping. The uterine contractions help stem uterine bleeding. Learning Outcome: 29-8 Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Applying

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