Pmp Exam: Quick Reference Guide -Fast Track. 300 Questions with detalied Answer

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QUICK REFERENCE GUIDE FOR PMP® EXAM PMP® – FAST TRACK

THIYAGARAJAN PERUMAL MBA, PMP, PMI-ACP, CSM, ITIL, PRINCE2 PRACTIONER, CBAP

PMP® Exam Study Guide Copyright @ THIYAGARAJAN PERUMAL MBA, PMP, PMI-ACP, CBAP, PRINCE2 PRACTITIONER, CSM, ITIL, 6 SIGMA BLACKBELT All rights reserved. No part of this book may be used or reproduced by any means, graphic, electronic or mechanical including photocopying, recording, taping or by any information storage retrieval system without the written permission of the publisher except in the case of brief quotations embodied in critical articles and reviews. Although the author and publisher of this book have made every effort to ensure accuracy and completeness of the content entered in this book, we assume no responsibility for errors, inaccuracies, omissions or inconsistencies. Any similarities of people, places or organizations are completely unintentional. All inquiries will be addressed via email to [email protected] Reach us @ https://facebook.com/projectmgtcoach https://twitter.com/mgtcoachproject

PMI, PMI-ACP, PMBOK, PMI are registered trademarks of Professional Management Inc. About the PMP® Exams The exam is composed of 200 multiple choice questions. PMP® is a closed book examination. 25 questions in the exam are sample questions used in future exams and they are not used to calculate the final score in the exam. 4 hours are allowed to take the exam and it is conducted by the parametric exam centers worldwide. The exam is computer based and the candidate will know the results immediately. The passing score for the PMP® exam is around 61 percent, and the candidate needs to answer 106 questions out of 175 questions. No negative Marking for the wrong answer. Be cautious of answers which use the terms “ALWAYS” or “NEVER” or “NOT” Many questions contain at least one distractor. Use the process of elimination to remove wrong answer from the list, and then focus on the remaining answers. Always choose answer based on PMI’s code of ethics In the scratch paper write down the things you want to remember for the exam e.g. formula If the question is tough mark the question for review and move it to the next question. Answer the easy questions first and don’t mark it for review, because you the know the answer is 100 % correct. For the hard/complex question answer it and mark it for review. Don’t spend much time in this category. Mark it and move it to the next question. How to Register For PMP® Exam: You need to create an account for pmi.org. It will give you access to fill the application form. Once you have filled and submitted the application, PMI will take one week to approve or reject the application. Some applications are selected for audit. If your application is approved, you can pay the exam fee and book the date/time for the exam. In case if your application is selected for audit, you need to provide proof of degree and other experiences that you provided in the application. About 6 th Edition of PMBOK® 5 process Groups 10 knowledge Areas 49 processes having input/Tools and Technique and Output 10 Knowledge Areas are Project Integration Management Project Scope Management Project Schedule Management Project Cost Management 4

Project Quality Management Project Resource Management Project Communications Management Project Risk Management Project Procurement Management Project Stakeholder Management Process Groups

Approximate percentage of questions

Approximate number of questions

Initiating

13 %

26

Planning

24 %

48

Executing

31%

62

Monitor and control

25 %

50

Closing

7%

14

Total number of Questions

100 %

200 Questions

ELIGIBILITY/REQUIREMENTS Secondary degree (high school diploma, associate’s degree or the global equivalent) 60 months of project management experience 35 hours of project management education OR CAPM certification OR Four-year degree 36 months of project management experience within the last 8 years 35 hours of project management education OR CAPM certification Exam Fee Member: US$405.00 Non-member: US$555.00 Relevant and Updated to the Current Syllabus A satisfying, fulfilling career and successful future are hinged on your ability to pass this exam. Take a step towards assuring your advancement – buy this book. About the Author: Thiyagarajan Perumal has depth knowledge in IT Services, traditional/agile project management practices. 5

He holds the credentials MBA, PMP, PMI-ACP, CSM, CABP, PRINCE2 PRACTIONER, ITIL and around 20 years of experience in software industry as a consultant and project lead in industries like healthcare, Telecom and logistics. He managed various teams of software programmers, requirement analysts, Business analysts, Functional users, Quality control teams etc. He has a passion for teaching and learning. He has published couple of books in amazon related to PMI-ACP and PMP exam. (amazon.com/author/thiyagarajanperumal) He is passionate about project management. He has other interests like music, reading, travelling and outdoor activities. Dedication: This book is dedicated to my family and friends for their unconditional love and support.

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TABLE OF CONTENTS: Eligibility/Requirement for PMP® Exam About the PMP® Exam Practice Exam Match the Terminologies Practice Input/Output/Tools and Techniques Formulas used for Calculations Free PMI-ACP® Practice Questions with Answers

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Scenario based Practice Questions: (200 Questions) 1. Select the characteristic related to the project from the choices given below. A. A project can create a service or capability to perform a service. B. It has a definite beginning and an end. C. A project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product. D. All of the above. 2. Max is working in a matrix organization. Sam has worked for a couple of years in a functional organization. Now both Max and Sam are working together on a project. During their discussion, Sam has an argument with Max regarding one of the project constraints that he mentioned. As per Sam one of the choices given below is not a valid project constraint, which is? A. Risk. B. Market demand. C. Quality. D. Budget. 3. Chris is the project manager for an agile project, and the project is going to be completed in 8

another 3 months. Already the project cost overrun and it is behind the schedule. Since it is one of the key stakeholder’s interest, the project team is continuing the project. One of the given options is not valid for project trigger, which is? A. Project manager’s wish. B. Customer request. C. Technological advance. D. Market demand. 4. Carl is assigned as a project manager by the PMO of the organization. Rick is the operations manager of the product that Carl’s team is delivering. The team is aware of the fact that both the operations work and the project work is different. One of the below options is considered as an operational work, identify it. A. Has a definite start period and end period. B. Work is repeatable and ongoing. C. Creates a unique product. D. Progressively elaborated. 5. David is working in the supportive PMO structure and responsible for the project as well as provides support functions to the project. Randy is working as a project manager in his team. Sam also reports to David, and handles a group of projects in a program. How can they distinguish between project, program and portfolio management? A. A project is a collection of related projects which are closely linked, Program is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, and Portfolio is a group of projects or programs which are linked together by a common objective. B. A portfolio is a collection of related projects which are closely linked, Project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, and Program is a group of projects or programs which are linked together by a common objective. C. A program is a collection of related projects which are closely linked, Project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, and Portfolio is a group of projects or programs which are linked together by a common objective. D. A Portfolio is a collection of related projects which are closely linked, Program is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, and Project is a group of projects or programs which are linked together by a common objective. 6. Sam is working in a company’s PMO. One of the below objectives is not related to the PMO objective. Which one is it? A. Manage the project. B. Manage shared resources. C. Coaching, mentoring and providing guidance. D. Identify and develop project management methodology, standards and best practices. 9

7. Ralph is working as a project manager in a tight schedule project. He is using the crashing/fasttracking to compress the schedule to finish the project on time. Ralph is reporting to a PMO structure in which the level of control is high, moderate and low. Identify the PMO structure that Ralph is reporting to. A. Directing, supportive and controlling. B. Directing, controlling and supportive. C. Supportive, Directing and controlling. D. Controlling, Supportive and directive. 8. Smith is the Project manager who deals with the project management strategy and project team in a critical project for the organization. He is working in a strong matrix organization and supported by a directive PMO structure. One of the below is not the core competencies of the project manager, identify it. A. Performance. B. Personal. C. Conflict management. D. Knowledge. 9. Michael is working as a director, and reports to the PMO who manages all the projects, shares the resources in between projects, provides methods, tools and techniques, and guidance. PMO can take key decisions related to the project such as terminate or postpone the project. Robert is working as a project manager and reports to the PMO structure which provides polices and guidelines. Such a structure is known as? A. Controlling. B. Directing. C. Supportive. D. None of the above. 10. Karen is working in a startup organization. He was appointed by the PMO. The PMO structure which appoints project managers and manages all the projects in his organization is known as? A. Controlling. B. Directing. C. Supportive. D. None of the above. 11. Ken is the project manager in a cloud project, which migrates all the software code to the cloud. In his organization project manager shares the authority with the functional manager. Lisa is the functional manager in the same organization, working for a long time. Lisa and Ken are working on the project which has a tight budget. One of the matrix organization in the below 10

options is not a valid matrix organization. Identify the wrong one. A. Strong matrix organization. B. Balanced matrix organization. C. Project matrix organization. D. Weak matrix organization. 12. Richard is working in an organization as a project manager in which the project manager does the administrative tasks, doesn’t have much power and reports to the functional manager. Identify the type of organization that Richard works for. A. Matrix organization. B. Projectized organization. C. Functional organization. D. Weak matrix organization. 13. Paul is working in an organization in which the project manager has the most authority and responsible for the project’s success and they can take important decisions regarding budget, schedule, and resources in the project. Identify the type of organization in which Paul works for. A. Matrix organization. B. Projectized organization. C. Functional organization. D. Weak matrix organization. 14. Sam is working in an organization in which the project manager’s role is part-time and decisions are taken by the functional manager, their role is similar to that of project expeditor. Identify the type of organization in which Sam works for. A. Matrix organization. B. Functional organization. C. Strong matrix organization. D. Weak matrix organization. 15. Paul is the project manager in a technology company which innovates smart technology projects. He used to conduct daily stand up meetings at 9 am. His offshore team members and onsite team members participate in the daily stand-up meetings. In today’s meeting, they had an argument related to risks. One of the team members argues that only the initiating stage risks are higher, and in the later stages, risks will be reduced. During which phase of the project are risks and uncertainties higher? A. Planning. B. Executing. C. Initiating. 11

D. Monitor & control. 16. Will and Ted are working in an organization in which project managers and functional managers work together to complete the project work. Identify the type of organization in which Project expeditors and coordinators don’t exist. A. Functional. B. Projectized. C. Strong matrix. D. Weak matrix. 17. Joy is the tech lead in the organization which manufactures LCD TVs. He reports to Pamela, and she reports to the directive PMO structure. Their organization is going to start a new project soon. Pamela asked Joy to identify the stakeholders impacted by the project. Joy is reviewing one of the below documents used to identify people who are affected by the project. Identify the document. A. Project plan. B. Risk register. C. Stakeholder register. D.WBS. 18. A project can be divided into any number of phases. A phase is a collection of logically related activities in order to complete one or more deliverables. Project phases can be sequential or overlap, and it depends on the situation. A Project is separated into different logical groups which are called phases for the purpose of management, planning and control. The number of phases in the project depends on the size, complexity and impact of the project. Every phase needs to go through all the 5 process groups. During closing of the phase the product can be handed over to the customers for review, and based on the feedback, the next phase starts. Most of the projects have the below types of phase-to-phase relationship. One of the given below is not a valid phaseto-phase relationship. Which one is it? A. Overlapping relationship. B. Sequential relationship. C. Iterative relationship. D. Parallel relationship. 19. Taylor and Crystal are working in a strong matrix organization. Crystal is a functional manager and represents the assembly line. One of the projects they are working together on has a phase-to-phase relationship, the next phase starts only if the previous phase is complete. Identify the correct relationship below. A. Overlapping relationship. B. Sequential relationship. C. Iterative relationship. 12

D. None of the above. 20. Wilson is a team member and working in a project which has zero-tolerance related to scope, schedule and cost. He is reporting directly to David, who is the functional manager. David asked Wilson to identify the enterprise environmental factors available in the project. One of the below is not a valid EEF (enterprise environmental factor). Identify the wrong option given below. A. Market condition. B. Lessons learned databases. C. Government and industry standards. D. Organizational culture, structure and governance. 21. Kevin is recently promoted to a project manager position, and he is reporting to directive PMO structure. John is managing the PMO, and he follows directive PMO structure. John asked Kevin to review the corporate knowledge base to identify the project constraints for a similar project that Kevin is going to start. Kevin found out that one of the below is not a valid OPA (organizational process asset). Identify it. A. Lessons learned databases. B. Project records, files from previous projects. C. Market condition. D. Templates, guidelines, and procurement policies. 22. Sara and Tim are working on a project which is done by multiple iterations. They are working in the last iteration, after which the product will be handed over to the customer in a week after sign-off. They are not sure what kind of task they are going to be assigned to after this project from the organization. Identify this type of organization structure, in which when the project is complete the team members don’t have any place (no home) to back and continue the work. A. Projectized. B. Functional. C. Strong matrix. D. Weak matrix. 23. William is the project manager and has a team of 7 members, they are working in project delivery which has short iterations. Sam is working as a functional manager. William and Sam are working together on the current project. Team members are sometimes confused about whom to report to when there is an issue or escalation. Identify this type of organization structure in which conflicts are more, and resource allocation is difficult also the team members have more than one person to report to. A. Functional. B. Projectized. C. Matrix. 13

D. None of the above. 24. Dorothy is working in an organization in which duties are grouped by specialty. John is the project manager, but he is not having influence/power in the project. He is working as an assistant to Dorothy. John is doing mostly administrative tasks in the project. Identify this type of organization structure in which resources are grouped based on specialty and the project manager has less authority. A. Projectized. B. Strong matrix organization. C. Weak matrix organization. D. Functional organization. 25. Requirements from the customer are prioritized in backlog and work is done by taking the high priority item in the backlog, it is known as a predictive lifecycle. In this lifecycle scope, cost and schedule are determined in the early stage of the project, before starting the work. Predictive lifecycle is also known as? A. Adaptive lifecycle. B. Plan driven lifecycle. C. Iterative lifecycle. D. Change driven lifecycle. 26. Smith is working as a project manager in an organization known as Firstcorp. He follows all the 5 process group initiating of planning, executing, monitor and control and closing to complete the project. Currently, he is working on developing project charter as well as identifying the stakeholders in the project. The process group which identifies the stakeholders as well as develop project charter is called? A. Planning. B. Monitor and control. C. Initiating. D. Closing. 27. Peter is working in a plan-driven project work. He is involved in the process of developing a project document that formally gives him authority over the project to assign resources required to complete the project. This process is known as? A. Planning. B. Monitor and control. C. Project charter. D. Closing. 28. Maria is working as a developer in a software development project. Since her manager got a 14

promotion, they moved her to the manager’s position. And she is new to the role assigned to her. She is actively involved in executing the project as per defined in the project management plan. Smith is her director, and he asked her which stage of the project she is working on? What is Maria’s answer to her director from the given choices? A. Planning. B. Monitor and control. C. Initiating. D. Direct and manage project work. 29. Andrew is the project manager in an iterative project. He is closely working with the change control board, for changes in the project. Mostly Andrew works in a process which measures and monitors the progress and performance of the project, and identifies if there are any variances and take corrective actions if needed. This process is known as? A. Planning. B. Monitor and control project work. C. Initiating. D. Executing. 30. The knowledge area which includes the processes and activities to identify, define, combine and coordinate the various processes and project management activities within the project management process groups is called? A. stakeholder management. B. Integration management. C. Quality management. D. Communications management. 31. Fred is working on the process that the main output is the final product, final report and project document updates. Identify the process group that Fred is currently involved with. A. Direct and manage project work. B. Develop project charter. C. Monitor and control project work. D. Closing. 32. Joe is assigned as a project manager for an innovative project, which creates bots. Joe plans the Work to be done in the near (next) iteration is planned in detail, and the work in the future is planned at a higher level. After the customer reviewed the work, and updates are done in the product, the next iteration is planned in detail. Planning is an iterative process, and it must be done throughout the project as more information is available. This act is known as? A. Continuous iteration. B. Iteration planning. 15

C. Progressive elaboration. D. None of the above. 33. Keith is the project manager in a time-sensitive project. The leadership style in the project allows team members to make their own decisions and establish their own goals. Identify the leadership style in the organization that Keith is working in. A. Servant leader. B. Transactional. C. Laissez-faire. D. Transformational. 34. Rita is working as a team member in a pharmaceutical company that develops medicines for rare diseases. And she is working in the EDI division (electronic data interchange) to automate the transactions. She is reporting to Mary who is the project manager and many in the office like her characteristics and personality. Some of the effective characteristics that a project manager should have to be successful are? A. Courteous, creative. B. Emotional, intellectual. C. Political, service-oriented. D. All of the above. 35. Dalia is working as a Director of the organization. Michael is reporting to Dalia, and he is having excellent project management skills. The project got approved, and it is progressing by iterations. Michael’s duties in this process group are; measure progress and performance, find out the variance, and recommend preventive and corrective actions through change control and provide updates to the project management plan. This process is known as? A. Manage project knowledge. B. Develop project management plan. C. Monitor and control project work. D. Develop project charter. 36. ABC Corporation is the market leader in manufacturing industry. James is working on an agile project which has multiple iterations. His main duties as defined in the project management plan is to implement approved changes to achieve the project objectives. What are the main outputs of the process group James is involved in? A. Project charter, Assumption log. B. Final product, Final report. C. Deliverables, Change requests, issue log. D. All of the above. 16

37. Ronald is working on a complex project, which he needs to work with the functional managers. Currently, he is involved in the process group which obtains formal sign-off from customer for the project or phase, measure customer satisfaction, archive project records and documents, document lessons learned and release the resources. The process which Ronald is involved in is called? A. Direct and manage project work. B. monitor and control project work. C. Close project. D. Perform integrated change control. 38. Pyramid Corporation is involved in manufacturing car spare parts for the past 20 years. They are the market leaders in the segment. Mathew is working as an IT manager for Pyramid Corporation. Mathew is recoding the conflicts, gaps, issues in the issue log, which help him effectively track and manage issues and to ensure it is resolved in a timely manner. He is updating the issue log in the monitor and control activities process during the project. The data on the issue log contains? A. Final solution, priority. B. Issue type, who is assigned to the issue. C. Status, who raised the issue. D. All of the above. 39. In general project management process, groups are placed into the below categories. Which process group needs to be included in all the projects? A. Initiating, planning, executing. B. Initiating, planning, executing, monitor and control, closing. C. Initiating, planning, executing, monitor and control. D. Initiating, planning, monitor and control and closing. 40. Edward is the program manager in a sports goods manufacturing company. Ralph and Sam are reporting to Edward on a regular basis regarding the development of the project. Ralph and Sam are interacting with many other department project managers, and they are involved in other project-related meetings also. Ralph’s project is part of the program, and the program has other critical projects also. The other projects in the program may impact Ralph’s project due to below reason. A. Priorities of the funding, Distribution of deliverables. B. Demand for the same resource, Alignment of project goals and objectives related to the organization. C. Both A and B. D. Only B. 41. The project charter formally authorizes a project. Project charter authorizes the PM to apply 17

resources to complete the work on the project. It is the first thing done in a project. An approved project charter initiates the project. One of the below options related to project charter is not correct. Identify the incorrect option. A. Authorizes the PM to apply resources to complete the work on the project. B. Documents the business needs, assumptions, constraints, risks, high-level requirements, etc. C. It describes, that the project is worth the investment. D. Formally authorize the project. 42. Joseph is working with PMO in one of the projects. He is an expert in all knowledge areas, and has a better view of the project. Integration management includes the processes and activities that coordinate various project management activities. One of the given processes is not related to project integration management, which is? A. Develop project charter, develop project management plan. B. Develop a business case. C. Direct and manage project work, monitor and control project work. D. Perform integrated change control, close project/phase. 43. Tech Systems is an innovative technology company using artificial intelligence in their reject project. They are making robots for some of the automation work. Charles is working as a project manager in this project and deals with resource allocation, examining alternative project approaches, and managing the interdependencies in the project. One of the given options is not valid output in project integration management, identify which. A. Project charter, Deliverables. B. Project management plan, approved change requests. C. Change requests, work performance report. D. Scope management plan. 44. John is the senior project manager in a project and he spends most of his time with stakeholders for the funding approval. He is working on the input which describes the product scope description, the business need and how the project supports the strategic plan. This process that John is working on is called? A. Business case. B. Project charter. C. Project statement of work. D. Project management plan. 45. Configuration management is part of PMIS. Steve is the key stakeholder in the project, as well as he is managing the project. Steve is involved in some of the Configuration management activities performed in the integrated change control process. In general these activities are known as? 18

A. Configuration identification. B. Configuration status accounting. C. Configuration verification and audit. D. All of the above. 46. Business case is one of the key inputs to develop the project charter process in project integration management. Daniel is the project manager and trying to convince the project board to support it. He is preparing for the town hall meeting to explain the proposal that is worth the investment. During the process, he is creating the business case. Business case is created as a result of? A. Organization need, market demand. B. Legal requirement, Technological advancement. C. Social need, customer request. D. All of the above. 47. Information management tools and techniques are used to create and connect people to get information. Randy is working on some of the Information management tools in his project. Some of the tools and techniques related to information management are? A. Lessons learned register. B. PMIS (project management information systems). C. library services, information gathering. D. All of the above. 48. Christopher is the senior analyst in an agile project. He is involved in the process of reviewing the change requests by the board based on the merits and demerits, approve or reject them and manage the changes. This process is called? A. Change control process. B. Perform integrated change control process. C. Change control board. D. Change control meeting. 49. Scheduling tool, configuration management system, work authorization system all are part of PMIS. The formal documented procedure which describes how to authorize and initiate the work in the right sequence and the right time is known as? A. Project management plan. B. Project charter. C. Work authorization system. D. Organization chart. 19

50. Donald is the project manager in one of the projects, which is part of the program. He is working in project integration management and taking care of all the process in the integration management. In this phase of the project, he is mostly involved in directing and managing project work. One of the options given below is not a valid input to direct and manage the work process, which one is it? A. Project management plan. B. Business Case. C. Approved change requests. D. EEF, OPA. 51. Jonathan is working on a project which has more uncertainties. These activities ensure that future project performance of the project is aligned with the project management plan. Jonathan is working on the Actions taken to reduce the possibility of risks. The action is commonly known as? A. Corrective action. B. Preventive action. C. Defect repair. D. None of the above. 52. FirstTech corporation is involved in projects that support automation. Jose is the project manager, and manages the team of 15 members in onsite as well as offshore. The project reached the closing stage. Jose is involved in the activities that take place during closure of the project or phase. Which activity is this? A. Scope is measured against the baseline. B. Product is handed over to the customer and they issue a formal acceptance. C. Release the project resources from the project work, archive the lessons learnt and other documents. D. All of the above. 53. Martha is the senior project manager. She is working on the project which has multiple iterations. Currently, she is involved in the process which compares the actual performance against the planned outcome in the project management plan and if there is any variation from the plan, the variation is corrected through corrective action by the change control process. Identify the process. A. Direct and manage project work. B. Perform integrated change control. C. Monitor and control project work. D. Close project. 54. Natalie is the project manager working in a matrix organization. She reports to PMO, which has many projects. Her project work is part of a program. She is performing the task, as defined 20

in the project management plan. The process is called? A. Direct and manage project work. B. Perform integrated change control. C. Monitor and control project work. D. Close project. 55. Carol is the senior manager in the plan-driven project. She is involved in the process whereby she compares the actual performance against the planned one in the project management plan. If there is any variation from the plan, the variation is corrected through corrective action by the change control process. One of the options given below is not a valid input to this process. Identify it. A. Project management plan. B. Project charter. C. Project documents. D. Work performance information. 56. Scope management involves the process required to ensure the project includes all the work required, and only the work required to complete the project successfully. Amanda is mostly working on project resource management and project scope management. Mainly she works with stakeholders to collect the requirements and validating the scope of the product that is developed as a result of the project. She was talking to a co-worker regarding the processes available in project scope management. She identified one of the options given below is not a valid process in project scope management, which one is it? A. Plan scope management, collect requirements. B. Project schedule, schedule management plan. C. Define scope, create WBS. D. Validate scope, control scope. 57. Deborah is working for the company XYZ Corporation. And she has dual roles as a business analyst as well as a project manager in the project. She is working on prioritizing the requirements. One of the group decision-making techniques that she is working on is not valid. Identify the group decision making technique which is not valid from the given options. A. Majority. B. Unanimity. C. Minority. D. Dictatorship. 58. Kathleen is working as a team lead related to a project which has many complex requirements. Christine is the business analyst and she is reporting to Kathleen. Kathleen and Christine work together to collect requirements and define the scope of the project. Also 21

Christine has the additional task of validating the scope after the product is delivered to the customer. One of the requirements that Kathleen and Christine are working on is not valid. Identify the requirement type which is not valid. A. Business requirement, Stakeholder requirement. B. Functional requirement, Non-functional requirement. C. Business validation requirement, Scope validation requirement. D. Solution requirement, Transition requirement. 59. Creation of WBS is the process of decomposition of deliverables into more manageable components. The actual work is defined in the lower level of a component called work package. Work package contains more details about the work to be done in the project. A control account is assigned to each work package or multiple work packages. Control account is the tool which is used to track work packages. Details of all the work packages in the work breakdown structure are stored in? A. Requirement traceability matrix. B. Scope management plan. C. WBS dictionary. D. Schedule network diagram. 60. Julie is working as a functional manager, and she works with Sam in a strong matrix organization. She is involved in product analysis in the define scope process. She is involved in asking questions about the product and collecting answers to describe the characteristics of the product to be delivered. Some of the examples of product analysis are? A. Requirement analysis, Product breakdown. B. System analysis. C. Value analysis and value engineering. D. All of the above. 61. Janice is the project manager in a project which makes car spare parts. And she is involved in the creation of work breakdown structure. Creation of WBS is the process of decomposition of deliverables into more manageable components. The actual work is defined in the lower level of a component called work package. The work package can be scheduled, estimated monitored and controlled. One of the options given below is not a valid option related to the work breakdown structure, which one is it? A. Creation of WBS is the process of decomposition of deliverables into more manageable components. B. The actual work is defined in the lower level of a component called work package and it contains more details about the work to be done in the project. C. Sequence wise, it is the first process defined in the project scope management. D. WBS dictionary contains details about each work package in the WBS. 22

62. Kayla is involved in collecting the requirements process in the project scope management. She involved some of the decision-making techniques, which is used to collect requirements and finalize them. The decision-making technique that Kayla used is? A. Autocratic decision making. B. Voting. C. Multicriteria decision making. D. All of the above. 63. Megan worked in a company that has a change control board to approve changes. She moved to a company in which to fix the problem, without any procedure they implement the fix in production. She created the change control board in the new company and appointed members of the board. After the board reviewed the changes the number of uncontrolled changes is reduced. The reason for uncontrolled changes that will affect the project cost, schedule, quality and also increase the risk for the project is called? A. Gold plating. B. Scope creep. C. Change request. D. Transition requirement. 64. Roy is the senior project manager in the project. And he is involved in the group creativity technique related activities with stakeholders. Some of the available group creativity techniques are? A. Brainstorming, Nominal group technique. B. Idea/mind mapping, Affinity diagram. C. Multi-criteria decision analysis. D. All of the above. 65. Samantha created the change control board in the company and appoints members of the board. After the board review the changes it will approve or reject the change. The uncontrolled changes will affect the project cost, schedule, quality and also it will increase the risk for the project. Change requests are made for? A. Corrective action. B. Preventive action. C. Defect repair and updates. D. All of the above. 66. Bradley is working on establishing the baselines for the project. He is working on the combination of project scope statement, WBS and Work package and planning package. The baseline that Bradley is working on is called? A. Project baseline. 23

B. Scope baseline. C. Requirement baseline. D. Product baseline. 67. Ralph is working in the Quality control department and he is reporting to Ray. Ray is the project manager in the project and he assigned Ralph some tasks related to validating the scope of the product and Verifying the scope of the product. Once the approval from the Quality control department is given generally the product is sent to the customer for their review. The main difference between the validate scope and control scope is? A. Validate scope is the process of obtaining formal acceptance for the deliverables from the customer, whereas control scope mainly deals with the changes related to the scope baseline. B. Control scope is the process of obtaining formal acceptance for the deliverables from the customer, whereas validate scope mainly deals with the changes related to the scope baseline. C. Control scope is the process of obtaining formal acceptance for the deliverables from the customer, whereas validate scope mainly deals with the changes related to the product baseline. D. Validate scope is the process of obtaining formal acceptance for the deliverables from the customer, whereas control scope mainly deals with the change requests from the customer. 68. Requirement traceability matrix links requirements to the origin and to the deliverables. Some of the attributes used in requirement traceability matrix are? A. Unique id, description of the requirement. B. Source of requirement, owner of requirement. C. Current status, priority. D. All of the above. 69. Creation of WBS is the process of decomposition of deliverables into more manageable components. Rafael is working on the decomposition process and he defined the work in the lower level of the component called work package. He assigned the work package to team members and tracked the work package assigned to the team. Rafael estimated the Project cost and project duration at the work package level. The work package contains more details about the work to be done in the project .WBS dictionary contains? A. Contains details about the work done for each work package in the WBS. B. Assumptions and constraints, acceptance criteria. C. Quality requirements, account identifier, schedule, cost estimates. D. All of the above. 70. Leslie is working on project scope management. She was working with a diagram, that shows the input, and shows who provide the input, and output from the business system, and who receives the output. This diagram visually shows a business system and how people and other business systems are interacting with it. A. Affinity diagram. 24

B. Idea/mind mapping. C. Context diagram. D. Delphi. 71. Project schedule management includes the process required to manage the timely completion of the project. Adrian is working on the project as a project manager. Schedule management defines when the project will deliver the product. One of the options given below is not a valid process in project schedule management, which one is it? A. Plan schedule management, develop schedule, control schedule. B. Define activities, sequence activities. C. Plan activities, Define scope, create WBS. D. Estimate activity durations. 72. Ashley is the project manager in an agile project which has 2-week iterations. Every iteration the backlog is adjusted, and the pending tasks are moved to next iterations. Ashley is reporting to Tanya regarding the project development and constraints in the project. Tanya asked her to tailor the project schedule according to the project. From the choices given below, what are some of the considerations might Ashley be considering for tailoring project schedule management? A. Life Cycle approach. B. Technology support. C. Availability of resources. D. All of the above. 73. Stacy is the project manager and she is involved in the schedule management process to develop schedule and control schedule. Her manager asked her to estimate the activity durations. The main outputs of project schedule management are? A. Schedule management plan, activity list, and milestone list. B. Project Schedule network diagram, basis of estimates, schedule data. C. Duration estimates, project schedule, schedule baseline. D. All of the above. 74. Precedence diagramming method is also known as activity on node. In this diagram, activities are done on node. This diagram displays the logical and sequential activities in the project. Activities are shown in rectangle and the relationships are shown in arrows. Charlie is working on this diagramming method. And his manager Victor asked him about the relationships available in the Precedence diagramming method. Charlie explained to him the valid relationships available in the diagram. One of the options given below is not a valid relationship in the precedence diagramming method, which one is it? A. Start-to-Start. B. Finish-to-Start. 25

C. Start-to-End. D. Finish-to-Finish. 75. Alan has more experience and knowledge in artificial intelligence methods and recent technologies. He is a critical resource, and multiple teams are looking for his assistance in their projects. Since he is busy with other activities on the critical path, then the critical path needs to add the dependency. It can change the critical path. Alan’s manager Tim is thinking about resource leveling. Resource leveling is used when? A. Resources are in limited quantity. B. Resource usage at constant level. C. Resources are over-allocated and the necessary resources to do the task are available only on certain times. D. All of the above. 76. Schedule compression is the technique that is used to shorten the project schedule without reducing the scope or quality to meet the desired dates. Erik is the project manager in a fastpaced project. The project which Erik is working on is having very strict schedules, which can’t be missed or altered for any reason. Erik wants to use schedule compression techniques to meet the schedule. He is to keep working on the 2 techniques in schedule compression named as crashing and Fast-tracking. The main difference between crashing and fast-tracking is? A. Fast-tracking is done to meet the project dates additional resources added to the critical path whereas in crashing activities on the critical path are done in sequence. B. Crashing is done to meet the project dates additional resources added to the critical path whereas in fast-tracking activities on the critical path are done in sequence. C. Crashing is done to meet the project dates additional resources added to the critical path whereas in fast-tracking activities on the critical path are finished fast by adding the resources. D. None of the above. 77. Plan schedule management has 6 processes available. Terrence is the project manager in the company named as Future Technologies. He has completed the schedule management processes tasks related to Define activities, Sequence activities and Estimate activity Durations. He is involved in the process of analyzing activity sequence, dependency, resource requirements, duration, and logical relationships to develop the schedule model. The process which Terrence is working on is called? A. Control schedule. B. Develop schedule. C. Plan schedule management. D. Sequence activities. 78. PDM diagram displays the logical and sequential activities in the project. Activities are shown in rectangle and the relationships are shown in arrows. Jeffrey is working on this diagramming method. His manager asked him to complete the diagram in a week. Also he asked Jeffrey to 26

identify the PDM diagram (Precedence diagramming method) most commonly used relationship as well as rarely used relationship. Choose the correct option from the given options. A. Finish-to-Start and Start-to-Finish. B. Finish-to-Start and Finish-to-Finish. C. Start-to-Finish and Finish-to-Start. D. Start-to-Start and Finish-to-Start. 79. Lead is the amount of time that the project team gives to a successor task to get started before the predecessor task is finished. Lag time is the amount of time delay that the project team gives between the predecessor and successor tasks . Adjusting leads and lags is done in one of the below processes, which is A. Schedule compression. B. Schedule development. C. Define activities. D. Sequence activities. 80. It is the preferred way that the organization wants the work to be done. It is known as preferred logic or soft logic. This type of dependencies is easy to change when needed. One of the options below is not a valid dependency used in sequence activities, which one is it? A. External and Internal. B. Finish-to-Start. C. Discretionary. D. Mandatory. 81. Jennifer is working on an agile project. And she is working on planning the iterations. Work to be done in the near (next) iteration is planned in detail, and the work in the future is planned at a higher level. The work to be done in the future planned at a higher level is called? A. Progressive elaboration. B. Rolling wave planning. C. Options A and B are correct. D. Only Option B is correct. 82. Vincent is working on some of the dependency attributes. He is working on the mandatory and discretionary dependencies. Mandatory (They are required by the nature of work) and discretionary dependencies (It is the preferred way that the organization wants the work to be done). Mandatory and discretionary dependencies are also known as? A. Soft logic, hard logic. B. Hard logic, Soft logic. C. Hard logic, internal. 27

D. None of the above. 83. Critical path method helps to find out which activities have float, and can be delayed without delaying the project schedule. Critical path has zero float, so the activities on the critical path should not be delayed. Float makes the project work flexible . One of the below options is not a valid float, identify it. A. Free float. B. Product float. C. Total float. D. Project float. 84. Martin is working on a fixed price contract. All the terms in the contract must be satisfied to fulfill the contract. As per the terms in the contract, Coding should be done before the testing starts. This type of dependency is called? A. External dependency. B. Mandatory dependency. C. Internal dependency. D. Discretionary dependency. 85. Allan is the project manager and working on project estimates. He is working on a technique that employs estimation similar to a previous project. This reference estimation will work if the team and the activities in the previous project are the same. Identify the estimation technique that Allan is working on. A. Bottom-up estimation. B. Three-point estimation. C. Parametric estimation. D. Analogous estimation. 86. Project cost management includes the processes involved in planning, estimating, budgeting, financing, funding, managing and controlling costs. Bob is working on the project as a project manager. Cost management mainly considers the cost of resources needed to complete project activities. Bob is working on all the 4 processes in project cost management, and he just created the cost baseline. One of the options given below is not a valid process in project cost management, identify it. A. Plan cost management. B. Estimate activity resources. C. Estimate costs, control cost. D. Determine budget. 87. Philip is the project manager in an agile project which has very short iterations. In every 28

iteration the backlog is adjusted, and the pending tasks are moved to the next iterations. Philip is reporting to Dan regarding the project budget and constraints in the project. Dan asked him to tailor the project cost management processes according to project’s situation. Some of the considerations that Philip is considering for tailoring for project cost management are? A. Estimating and budgeting. B. Earned value management. C. Governance. D. All of the above. 88. It is the reserve allocated within the cost baseline for identified risks. It is used for known risks identified. The budget is to address the known-unknown. It can be a percentage of estimated cost, a fixed number . To address the known-unknown and to address the unknown-unknown the reserves allocated are? A. Management, unknown. B. Contingency, schedule. C. Management, contingency. D. Contingency, management. 89. Vincent is the project manager and he is involved in the cost management process to determine the budget. His manager asked him to develop the cost management plan. The main outputs of project cost management are? A. Cost management plan, cost estimates. B. Cost baseline, project funding requirements. C. Cost forecasts, work performance information. D. All of the above. 90. Karen is the project manager in a project which involves many functional managers. He is working on the reserve which deals with the unknown. Additional reserves are allocated to manage the unforeseen risks. Karen identified One of the options given below is not part of the cost baseline but included in the project budget. Which one is it? A. Contingency reserve. B. Management reserve. C. Both A& B. D. None of the above. 91. Andrea is the project manager and working on project estimates. She is working in a technique, in that, estimation of a similar project which was done before was used as a reference. This estimation will work if the team and the activities in the previous project are the same. This technique is used to estimate the schedule or budget from the previously done project. It is used when very less information is available for estimation for the current project. It uses the 29

parameters from the previous project such as cost, duration, complexity, size of the project as a basis of estimate the activity durations. Analogous estimating can also be called? A. Top-down estimation. B. Bottom-up estimation. C. Parametric estimation. D. 3 point estimation. 92. Julia is working on creating the project budget. She is considering the activity costs, work package costs and control account costs to create the project budget. To create a budget, activity costs are rolled up into work package costs. Then work package costs are rolled up into control account costs, and then final project costs. Julia is rolling up costs from the work package level to the control account level which is called? A. Cost estimation. B. Cost aggregation. C. Forecasting. D. Cost performance index. 93. Estimate costs is the process of developing an approximate cost of resources needed to complete the project. It is done periodically throughout the project, to reflect when additional details are available. Costs are estimated for labor, materials, equipment, services, facilities etc. The project in the initiation phase has the ROM (rough order of estimate) of? A. -25 % to +75% B. -5 % to + 10% C. – 25 % to + 50 % D. None of the above 94. Patricia is the project manager and she is working on the project cost management processes. She is involved in costs estimate process in project cost management. She is working on the cost baseline as well as the cost budget. The difference between cost baseline and cost budget is? A. Contingency reserve. B. Management reserve. C. Project reserve. D. Project budget. 95. Sharon is the senior business analyst and working with Sam. Sam is the project manager in the project and he is involved in the cost estimate process in project cost management. Sharon and Sam are discussing about various costs in the project. They are discussing about all type of costs in the project which includes opportunity cost, direct cost, indirect cost etc. Monthly salary to employees working in an organization is an example of? A. Sunk cost. 30

B. Opportunity cost. C. Direct cost. D. Indirect cost. 96. Susan is the senior Project manager and working with Bill. Bill is the PMO in the project and he is involved in the cost estimate process in project cost management. Susan and Bill are discussing about various costs in the project. They are discussing about all type of costs in the project which includes opportunity cost, direct cost, indirect cost etc. The cost to support the product from creation of product to day-to-day operations is called as, A. Direct cost. B. Indirect cost. C. Opportunity cost. D. Life cycle cost. 97. Dorothy is the project manager, and she works on the cost estimation in the project. She came through many terminologies and values in the process. Dorothy came to know estimated value of the work actually completed is called? A. Planned value. B. Earned value. C. Actual cost. D. Sunk cost. 98. The agile project team in the Tech corporation company is working on project estimates. Alex is the project manager of the project. Alex also working with the project team to determine the project estimates and budget. During the estimation process, the project team identified alternatives and considered the options below. Which is the best option? A. Buy vs lease, Make vs buy. B. Resource sharing. C. Cost trade-offs. D. All of the above. 99. Steven is the project manager assigned to the tight budget project. The project must be completed within the budget as per the senior management. Steven is working with an estimating mathematical model, in which formulas are used for cost and time estimates. The technique uses the mathematical formulas and statistical relationships that Steven is employing based on the historical data from other projects to estimate cost. This technique is known as? A. Analogous. B. Parametric. C. Bottom-up. D. 3-point estimation. 31

100. Brandon is the project manager of a software development company based in Los Angeles. He is working on this technique which examines the project performance over time to find if performance is improving or deteriorating. Deviation from the baseline indicates the potential impact of threats or opportunities. Identify the technique that Brandon is working on. A. Variance analysis. B. Reserve analysis. C. Trend analysis. D. Vendor bid analysis. 101. Project quality management includes the processes of incorporating organization's quality policies such as planning, managing, controlling project and product quality requirements to meet the objectives of stakeholders. Cynthia is working on the project as a project manager. She is working on the continuous improvement activities in the organization. She is working on all the 3 processes in project quality management, and she just created a quality management plan and quality metrics. One of the options given below is not a valid process in project quality management. Identify it. A. Plan Quality management. B. Plan Quality audit. C. Manage Quality. D. Control quality. 102. Tyler is working for a multinational company named Qualtech. And this company involved in the spare parts manufacturing. He is working on the project quality management process, and involved in effective quality management activities. Tyler updated his manager on the number of defects to be reduced once implementation of the strict measures in the Quality control department is affected. The levels of effective quality management are? A. Detect and correct the defects before the product is delivered to the customer as part of quality control process. B. Use quality assurance to examine the available processes and correct the processes itself. C. Create a culture throughout the organization of awareness and commitment to quality in the products and processes available. D. All of the above. 103. Quality audits are done by the team external to the organization. Harvey is responsible for quality control and quality audits. He is reporting to Smith who is the project manager for the specialized products that the company is manufacturing. The objectives of quality audit are? A. To identify the best practices implemented in the organization. B. To identify the gaps. C. Share the good practices in the industry or in the organization. D. All of the above. 32

104. Mike is working on the control quality process. He is reporting to Samantha. Samantha is collecting the benefits of quality control process and report to the management. Some of the benefits of control quality process in project quality management are? A. Validate the deliverables against the requirements given, for the purpose of customer acceptance. B. Identify the methods of quality improvement. C. Take corrective and preventive action through the change control process. D. All of the above. 105. When a data point falls outside the control limits, the data point is out of control, and when it happens the entire process is out of control. Every process has variation in the end products. The range is calculated based on +- 3 sigma. Data points within the range are in control, and the data points not in the range are out of control. A process is considered as out of control when? A. Seven consecutive points above the mean. B. Seven consecutive points below the mean. C. A data point exceeds the control limit. D. All of the above. 106. The cost of quality covers the cost of additional work in the project to accommodate quality related activities. Cost of quality can be categorized into? A. Cost of conformance to requirements (Prevention Costs, Appraisal Costs). B. Cost of non-conformance to requirements (Internal Failure costs, External Failure Costs). C. Both A& B. D. None of the above. 107. Stanley is working on the Project Quality management related processes. Stanley is reporting to the PMO directly. The process which Stanley is working on is used to find the project activities which are in compliance with organizational standards, policies, procedures regularly. This process is called? A. Quality Audit. B. Quality control. C. Quality review. D. Quality Assurance. 108. This diagram plots 2 variables against each other to find out if they are related, it is called correlation chart, also known as? A. Histogram. B. Pareto diagram. C. Scatter diagram. D. Cause and effect diagram. 33

109. Dorothy is the project manager of a company that is manufacturing toys. She is working on software quality improvement processes. She is involved in all the processes in project quality management. She is currently involved in the process which is used to inspect the deliverables and find out the defects. The process is known as? A. Quality audit. B. Control quality. C. Quality assurance. D. Quality metrics. 110. Ashely is working on one of the data representation technique that uses the diagrams. She explains the concept to her manager that the diagram helps to identify the critical issues which need the attention immediately. It is based on the concept of a larger number of problems are caused by a smaller number of causes. One of the below diagram which is related to the 80/20 rule, i.e. 80 percent of the problems come from 20 percent of the causes. The diagram is known as? A. Scatter diagram. B. Histogram. C. Cause and effect diagram. D. Pareto diagram. 111. Pauline is the project manager and he involved in the Quality management related activities. She was involved in all 3 quality management process plans; quality management, manage quality and control quality. She used tools like Data gathering and Design for X to support the quality management process. She is mainly using the project management plan and project charter in all 3 quality management processes. Some of the outputs created as a result of plan quality management, manage quality and control quality processes are? A. Quality management plan. B. Quality reports. C. Verified deliverables. D. All of the above. 112. Sylvia is the quality control department manager. She is reporting to multiple department managers regarding the quality control activities in the organization. She is spending the money allocated for the project to avoid failures. The cost of conformance includes prevention costs and appraisal costs. Examples of cost of conformance are? A. Quality training, investing in prevention of nonconformance requirements. B. Document processes, testing. C. Inspections, equipment. D. All of the above. 34

113. Sherry is working for a pharmaceutical company. And she is reporting to the PMO. She was involved in all the 3 processes in project quality management. She was technical lead for the quality control department. She was involved in calculating the money spent during and after the project because of the failures. The cost of nonconformance includes internal failure costs and external failure costs. Examples of cost of non-conformance are? A. Rework. B. Scrap. C. Warranty costs. D. All of the above. 114. Erika is the project manager in an agile project which has 2-week iterations. Every iteration the backlog is adjusted, and the pending tasks are moved to next iterations. Erika is reporting to Tanya regarding the project development and constraints in the project. Tanya asked her to tailor the project quality management according to the project. What are some of the considerations that Ashley could be considering for tailoring for project quality management? A. Policy compliance and auditing. B. Continuous improvement. C. Stakeholder engagement. D. All of the above. 115. Edward is working as a project managed and involved in finding solutions for issues. He is using a systematic approach in problem solving for quality assurance and quality improvements. He found problems are the result of quality audits. He is using the problem solving methods which includes one of the below elements. Which one is it? A. Define the problem. B. Identifying the root-cause. C. Generating possible solutions. D. All of the above. 116. Project resource management includes the processes to identify, acquire and manage the resources needed for the successful completion of the project. Processes helps to ensure the right resources at the right time are available to complete the project. Audrey is working on the project as a project manager. She is the manager and controller of resources in the organization. She is working on all the 6 processes in project resource management, and she just created a resource management plan and team charter. One of the options given below is not a valid process in project resource management. Identify the invalid process from the given choices. A. Plan resource management. B. Plan communications. C. Acquire resources. D. Manage team. 35

117. Grace is the project manager in an agile project which has multiple iterations. In every iteration the backlog is adjusted, and the pending tasks are moved to the next iterations. Grace is reporting to Todd regarding the resources and the tasks assigned to them. Because each project is unique, Todd wants Grace to tailor the project resource management processes. What are some of the considerations Grace could be is considering for tailoring project resource management? A. Physical location, diversity. B. Life cycle approaches. C. Acquisition of team members. D. All of the above. 118. Jessica is working on the team charter. The team charter provides clear guidelines about the acceptable behavior of the team members. She wants all the members of the team to contribute while developing the team charter. And she is updating the charter periodically. Team charter is a document that establishes the team values, agreements and operating guidelines for the team. What does it include? A. Team values, communication guidelines. B. Decision making criteria and process, conflict resolution process. C. Meeting guidelines, team agreements. D. All of the above. 119. Roy is working as a HR manager in a company manufacturing bath accessories called Bath necessities Inc. Roy is reporting to Jordan who is the CEO of the company. Jordan asked Roy to tailor the way that the project resource management works in the organization, because every project is unique. What are some of the tailoring considerations that Roy is considering for the project resource management? A. Diversity, Industry-specific resources. B. Physical location, Acquisition of team members. C. Both A & B. D. Only A 120. A project manager has numerous forms of power. Brandon is working as a project manager in a company who is manufacturing home goods. He is reporting to Sam, who is the PMO of the organization. Brandon is having 15 years of experience, and possessing PMP and some other cloud related certifications. The power which is derived from experience and training is called? A. Expert. B. Referent C. Persuasive. D. Personal. 121. NNC is the company manufacturing chemicals for household purposes. Vivian is handling 36

the agile projects in the organization. Vivian is reporting to Carrie. In this project there is a conflict between the critical team members. Vivian asked for Carrie’s advice. Carrie advised the conflict resolution technique the affected parties openly discuss the issues and try to incorporate multiple perspectives to reach the consensus and this results in win/win situation. Identify the conflict resolution technique that Carrie advised to Vivian. A. Compromise. B. Collaborate. C. Force. D. Withdraw. 122. National Broadcasting Corporation is the industry leader in the media industry. Megan is the project manager and her team consists of 3 project leaders and 15 team members. The broadcasting company started a key project as part of innovation techniques. At the beginning of the project Megan found the team members are not collaborative and the environment is not productive. In this stage, team members began to build understanding and relationship between them. They adjusted their work habits and behaviors and started working as a team. Team members begin to trust each other. Which stage of team development is this? A. Forming. B. Storming. C. Norming. D. Performing. 123. Data representation technique uses various formats to document team member’s roles and responsibilities. Doris is working for a financial company, and she is helping her project manager in some of the data representation techniques used in the organization. She is referring to a couple of data representation techniques which were used before in the organization. One of the given charts is not a valid chart which describes team member’s roles and responsibilities. Which one is it? A. Text oriented format. B. Hierarchical type chart. C. Pareto chart. D. Matrix-based chart. 124. Teamwork is critical for team success. Sylvia is the project manager and working on creating an environment for her team that continuously motivates the team by providing challenges and opportunities and provide timely feedback to correct the mistakes. She identified High team performance can be achieved by? A. managing conflicts in a constructive manner. B. Encourage collaborative decision making. C. Developing trust among team members. D. All of the above.

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125. Kristin is working as a project manager in a leading banking company. Kristin is reporting to the PMO directly regarding the project constraints. Also she is involved in developing project budget and in the approval process. After many years of working in the industry she identified some of the personality traits of an effective project manager. Some of the personality characteristics traits of an effective leader/project manager are? A. Service-oriented, Creative, Social, Authentic. B. Intellectual, political, systemic, courteous. C. Emotional, cultural, managerial. D. All of the above. 126. Econo Travel is an innovative technology company using artificial intelligence in its reject project. They are making AI robots for some of the automatic bookings. Ivan is working as a project manager in this project and deals with resource allocation, examining alternative project approaches, managing the constraints in the project. Ivan is working on developing Team charter and Resource management plan. One of the given options is not a valid output in project resource management, which one is it? A. Resource management plan. B. Resource calendar, Team performance assessments. C. Communication management plan. D. Change requests. 127. Match the conflict resolution technique with the corresponding outcome. A. Withdraw (lose/lose), Forcing (win/lose), Smoothing (win/lose), Compromise (lose/lose), collaborate (win/win). B. Withdraw (lose/lose), Forcing (win/win), Smoothing (win/lose), Compromise (lose/lose), collaborate (win/lose). C. Withdraw (lose/win), Forcing (win/lose), Smoothing (win/win), Compromise (lose/lose), collaborate (win/win). D. Withdraw (win/lose), Forcing (win/lose), Smoothing (win/lose), Compromise (lose/lose), collaborate (win/lose). 128. Conflict is not avoidable in a project. Josephine is the project manager for a leading Office Solutions provider company. In her recent agile project, conflicts are frequent. And she is looking for some advice from her PMO. Esther is assisting Josephine in some of the conflict resolution methods. Some of the factors that influence the conflict resolution methods are? A. Motivation to resolve conflict on a short-term or long-term basis. B. Importance of conflict. C. Both A and B. D. None of the above. 38

129. Erika is working as a senior project manager for a company that is related to telecom industry. She is involved in one of the project resource management that ensures the assigned resources are available when needed, and released from the project when no longer needed. She is involved in the process throughout the project work. It includes physical resources as well as team members. Identify some of the factors that she is involved in. A. Identify resource surplus/shortage before it happens. B. To ensure resources are utilized and released according to the project plan. C. Both A and B. D. None of the above. 130. Amy is the project manager of a project that is involved in the chain grocery stores. She is working in the project resource management. Amy is reporting to Sam. She is using a technique that members of the project team selected in advance before the project started. These resources are guaranteed for the project due to their experience, skills and the project is dependent on their expertise. Identify the technique that Amy is involved in. A. Negotiation B. Acquisition C. Project-staff assignments D. Pre-assignment 131. Communications management includes the processes necessary to ensure the information needs of the project and its stakeholders are met. Lorraine is working on project communications management. Lorraine used to work with stakeholders to collect the requirements, and validating the scope of the product that is developed as a result of the project. She was talking to a coworker regarding the processes available in project communications management. She identified one of the options given below is not a valid process in project communications management, which one is it? A. Plan communications management. B. Human resource management plan. C. Monitor communications. D. Manage communications. 132. Naomi is the project manager in an agile project which has 1-week iterations. In every iteration the backlog is adjusted, and the pending tasks are moved to the next iterations. Naomi is reporting to Erin regarding the project development and constraints in the project. Erin asked her to tailor the project communications management due to the reason that this project is unique to the organization. What are some of the considerations that Naomi is considering for tailoring for project communications management? A. Communications technology. B. Physical location. C. Both A and B. 39

D. None of the above. 133. Data representation technique uses various formats to document team member’s roles and responsibilities. June is working for an Airlines company, and she is helping her project manager in some of the data representation techniques used in the organization. She is referring to a couple of data representation techniques which were used before in the organization. One of the given charts is not a valid hierarchical chart. Identify it. A. Work breakdown structure. B. RACI chart. C. Organizational breakdown structure. D. Resource breakdown structure. 134. Samantha is the project manager in a company that manufactures soda and energy drinks. For the current project, she is working with logistics-related companies and Advertisement Company. She is communicating effectively with all the stakeholders in the project. Samantha is reporting to Ellie who is the senior director of the organization. Some of the dimensions of effective communication activities are? A. Formal, Internal, External. B. Official, unofficial. C. Written and oral. D. All of the above. 135. South Pacific Electric is the market leader in the energy industry. Allison is working on an agile project which has multiple iterations. Allison is involved in all the processes in the project communications management. What are the main outputs of the process group Allison is involved in? A. Work performance information, change requests. B. Project communications. C. Communication management plan. D. All of the above. 136. Josephine is the project manager in a Fortune 100 company which is the leader in cable television and internet. All cutting edge technologies are used in the project to provide effective service to customers. Josephine is reporting to Maria, who is the director of the company. Maria always insists on effective communication results in misunderstanding and miscommunication and this can be achieved by proper selection of communication methods. She further insists misunderstanding can be eliminated if we follow the 5 C’s of written communication named as? A. Controlling flow of words and ideas. B. Correct grammar and spelling. C. Both A and B. D. None of A and B. 40

137. Jacob is working for a Trident Corporation. He is involved in project communications management, and he is involved in all the processes available in project communications management. He is involved in management of communication process which is used to ensure efficient and effective information flows between the project team and stakeholders. Jacob is using some of the techniques that are helpful for effective communications management. One of the given options is not the correct technique used for effective communications management. Identify it. A. Presentation and Facilitation. B. Active listening. C. Expert judgment. D. Choice of media. 138. This method is used to send a large volume of documents to a large number of people. In this method, the information is placed in the central location for communication purposes to the audiences. Recipients get the message from the central location by reading the information. Some of the examples of this method are e-learning, intranet sites, knowledge repositories. The information that the project team is getting from the website is an example of? A. Interactive communication. B. Push communication. C. Pull communication. D. All of the above. 139. Lucy is the HR manager in a company and reports to Sam. Sam reports to the PMO of the organization. Lucy used a communication model to communicate with all stakeholders in the project. She used a basic sender/receiver model for communication. A sequence of steps in the basic sender/receiver communication model is? A. Decode, Transmit message, Encode. B. Encode, Transmit message, Decode. C. Only Option B is correct. D. Both A and B are correct. 140. In this method, sender sends the information to the corresponding parties. Parker is the project manager in the project, and his main task is communicating with the stakeholders. Parker spent most of the time in communication. He used mostly emails for communication purposes. Email to the project team, memo, and sending fax are the examples of? A. Interactive communication. B. Push communication. C. Pull communication. D. All of the above. 41

141. Sophie is the project manager and involved in project communications management. When she faces any issues in the project she gets help from Emma. Emma is the functional manager representing multiple functional groups. Sophie is involved in all the 3 processes available in project communications management. She is using some of the tools and techniques available in project communications management. One of the tools mentioned below is not used in project communications management. Which one is it? A. Expert judgment. B. Work performance information. C. Communication technology. D. Project management information system. 142. Some of the Tailoring considerations for project communications management include stakeholders, physical location, communications technology, and language and knowledge management. Henry is working on communication technology which is suitable for the current project, and comfortable to all stakeholders involved in the project. While selecting the communication technology Henry found some of the factors that can affect the choice of communication technology. Factors that can affect the choice of communication technology are? A. Project environment. B. Availability and reliability of the technology. C. Both Option A and B are correct. D. Only Option A is correct. 143. Lydia is the project manager as well as the key stakeholder in the project. She is working with all the processes available in project communications management. She is involved in monitoring communications processes. She is using tools and techniques available in monitoring communications processes. The tools that Lydia is using provides a set of tools for the project manager to capture, store and distribute information related to the cost of the project, schedule update and performance to the corresponding stakeholders according to the information defined in the communication plan. Which tool is Lydia using in monitoring the communication process? A. Performance report. B. Project management information system. C. Work performance report. D. Work performance data. 144. Some of the projects that Victor is working on are very complex in nature and difficult to manage. He works for First Line Inc. which is a credit card company. He reports to Miles who is the senior director in the organization. The complexity arises in the project due to one of the reasons below, which is? A. Human behavior. B. Ambiguity. C. Only option B is correct. 42

D. Both A and B are correct. 145. Linda is the project manager and she is involved in the project integration management processes. She is involved in all the 7 processes in the project integration management. She reports to Samuel in a weak matrix organization. She is currently working in the direct and manage project work in project integration management. The main output direct and manage project work process is? A. Work performance data. B. Issue log. C. Deliverables. D. All of the above. 146. The objectives of project risk management are to increase the probability of positive risks and decrease the impact of negative risks. Kenneth is the project manager working for multiple projects in Tech connection Inc. Kenneth is involved in all the risk management processes. One of the options given below is not a valid process in project risk management. Identify it. A. Plan risk management, identify risks. B. Perform qualitative risk analysis. C. Perform quantitative risk analysis, plan risk response and monitor risks. D. Plan Risk register. 147. Project risk management includes the process of conducting risk management planning, analysis, response planning, response implementation and monitoring the risks throughout the project. Alvin is working on the project which is totally unique to the organization. He is the project manager and involved in project risk management. Since the project is unique to the organization, he is considering tailoring the project risk management processes according to the project he is working on. Some of the considerations to tailor the risk management processes are? A. project size. B. Project complexity. C. Both A and B are correct. D. Both A and B are not valid options. 148. Travis is the project manager and he is involved in the risk management process to determine the risks in the project. Individual project risks can have a positive or negative impact on the project if they occur. Project risk management identifies and manages the risks which are not addressed by other project management processes. His manager asked him to develop the risk management plan. The main outputs of project risk management are? A. Risk management plan, Risk register. B. Project document updates, project management plan updates. C. Work performance information, change requests. 43

D. All of the above. 149. One of the processes available in project risk management is to identify risks. This process identifies the individual project risks and determines the sources of the overall project risk and document their characteristics. Amber is working on identifying the risks in the project that she is working on. Her project manager asked her to identify all the risks and plan the risk response strategies to deal with them. Risk identification is done during? A. At the beginning of the project. B. At regular intervals throughout the project. C. During execution of the project. D. During developing project charter. 150. Janet is working on project risk management. She works on Data first. She is involved in risk management process which helps her to prioritize risks and find its probability and impact. Identify the project risk management process that Janet is working on. A. Perform quantitative risk analysis. B. Perform qualitative risk analysis. C. Monitor risks. D. Plan risk response. 151. Lawrence is working on project risk management. Project risk management includes the processes of conducting risk management planning, identification, analysis, response planning, response implementation and monitoring risk on a project. He is working on the Plan risk response and implement risk response processes. These risks always need to be considered when developing response strategies. It is a direct outcome of implementing a risk response. Risks that are caused by implementing a risk response is known as? A. Primary risk. B. Residual risk. C. Secondary risk. D. Contingency risk. 152. Sophia is the technical lead in a project for an energy company. She was involved in all the 7 processes in project risk management. She was developing a risk register and risk reports to submit to the higher authorities in the organization. When a negative risk happens usually it will increase the cost or delay the schedule when the positive risk happens, it will benefit the project by reducing the cost or by decreasing the duration of the project. One of the given strategies is not a valid strategy to deal with negative risks. Which one is it? A. Avoid. B. Mitigate. C. Transfer. 44

D. Exploit. 153. Bruce is the project manager, and he is involved in creating the risk management plan and risk register. Risk identification is an iterative process, new risks evolve as the project progresses, and it will continue throughout the project. Participants in the risk identification process are project manager, project team, SME, customers, stakeholders, end users and other risk management experts. Bruce is working with all to identify the risks. Most of the risks are identified during which risk management process? A. Performing quantitative risk analysis. B. Performing qualitative risk analysis. C. Identifying risks and monitor risks. D. Monitoring risks. 154. Acceptable level of risk Organization is willing to take risk, in anticipation of the benefit to them. In general the risk attitudes of organizations is classified into 3 themes which are risk appetite, risk tolerance and risk threshold. Analytical techniques like strategic risk scoring sheets and stakeholder risk profile analysis provide information about the stakeholders' risk attitude, risk appetite, threshold and their risk tolerance level. Based on this assessment project team develop the approach to allocate resources to execute risk management activities. The level of risk individual or group is willing to accept is called? A. Risk threshold. B. Risk appetite. C. Risk tolerance. D. Secondary risk. 155. Plan risk response is the process to find out what will organizations do if the risks happen in the project. There are many options available to deal with the risks, by the way of allocating additional funds to deal with the risk, by extending the project schedule or transfer to the 3 rd party or to avoid the risk completely. The risk responses must be updated in the risk register. Name the person who implements the response strategies defined in the risk mitigation and risk contingency plans. A. Project manager. B. Risk analyst. C. Risk owner. D. Project team. 156. Nicole is the project manager in an agile project which has very short iterations. Every iteration the backlog is adjusted, and the pending tasks are moved to next iterations. Nicole is reporting to Brandon regarding the project risks and constraints in the project. Brandon asked him to tailor the project risk management processes according to the situation in the project. Some of the considerations that Philip is considering for tailoring the project risk management are. 45

A. Project complexity. B. Project importance. C. Both A and B are correct. D. Only Option A is correct 157. Gloria is the lead financial analyst in a Fortune 100 company. She is handling multiple projects and, spent most of the time in project cost-related techniques and calculations. In one of the performance meeting project manager came up with the following measurement, AC (Actual cost) =500, PV (planned value) =600 and EV (earned value) =650. What is going on in this project? A. Project is under budget, and ahead of schedule. B. Project is over budget, and ahead of schedule. C. Project is under budget, and behind the schedule. D. Project is over budget, and behind schedule. 158. Jeremy is working for Synergy Inc. He is working as a lead analyst in the projects. He is reporting to Cheryl, who is the agile project manager in Synergy Inc. Cheryl asked Jeremy to identify the risks as well as prioritize the risks which may affect the project. Jeremy considers some other characteristics other than probability and impact of risk. Which is the characteristic used to prioritize risk? A. Proximity. B. Manageability. C. Detectability. D. All of the above. 159. A questionnaire is sent to risk experts and asking about the risks in the project, once the questionnaire is collected, it was recirculated again to reach the consensus and generate an opinion. This process is known as? A. Interview. B. Delphi technique. C. Brainstorming. D. Sensitivity analysis. 160. Brittany is a lead business analyst for a leading pharmaceutical company. She is reporting to Kayla who is the director of the company. Kayla asked Brittany to calculate the future value based on the current parameters in the project. The present value of the project is $350000 Brittany was asked to calculate the future value of the project in 4 years’ time from now, and the interest rate is 8 %. What is the future value? A. $475,000 B. $476,000 46

C. $477,000 D. $478,000 161. Procurement management includes the processes necessary to purchase or acquire products or services needed from outside the project team. Megan is mostly working on the process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller and offer the contract. Mainly Megan is involved in obtaining the seller responses for a project, and from the list selecting a seller. The selected seller has been awarded the contract. She will receive proposals from the sellers, and based on the predefined criteria the sellers are selected for the work. She identified one of the options given below is not a valid process in project procurement management, identify it. A. Plan procurement management. B. Control procurement risks. C. Conduct procurement. D. Control procurement. 162. Carol is the construction manager in a leading design company. Carol reports to Susan. In the latest project, Susan asked Carol to find out the option to make the product in-house or contract the job. Carol is thinking whether or not to contract out a job. If she hires an engineer the cost will be 35,000 and pay a construction team 15,000 per week. A contractor quotes you a price of 19,000 per week and your expert agrees that you won’t find a lower price than that. Time is 16 weeks. What is the best way to proceed? A. To contract the job. B. Make the product in the company. C. Outsource the job. D. None of the above. 163. Reach communication is the market leader in the telecom industry. Ethan is working on an agile project which has 2 iterations for every month. Ethan is involved in documenting the procedures for procurement decisions and obtaining seller response, selecting a seller and award the contract to them, and monitor the contract performance. What are the main outputs of the process group Ethan is involved in? A. Procurement management plan, procurement statement of work. B. Selected sellers, agreements. C. Closed procurements. D. All of the above. 164. Arthur is working for a leading logistics company in USA. The company is handles new projects for every year. Arthur is directly reporting to the financial director of the company. In one of the projects Arthur is handling has the information, SPI (schedule performance index) is 1.2 and the CPI (cost performance index) is 0.9, which statement is true? A. SPI 1.2 means the project is behind schedule, and the CPI 0.9 or less than one means the project is 47

over budget. B. SPI 1.2 means the project is ahead of schedule, and the CPI 0.9 or less than one means the project is under budget. C. SPI 1.2 means the project is behind schedule, and the CPI 0.9 or less than one means the project is under budget. D. SPI 1.2 means the project is ahead of schedule, and the CPI 0.9 or less than one means the project is over budget. 165. Your company can accept one of the 3 projects. Project A has NPV of $30,000, it will take 5 years to complete, and the associated cost will be $10,000. Project B has NPV of $60,000 it will take 3 years to complete, and the cost will be $ 15,000. Project C has NPV of $80,000 it will take 4 years to complete and it will cost $40,000. Which project will you pick? A. $30,000 B. $80,000 C. $60,000 D. $45,000 166. This contract is suitable when the type of work is predictable and the requirements are well defined and not likely to change. It has more risk to the seller. Sometimes unexpected costs occur during the course of the project. Since the price is fixed on the contract, the seller is responsible for the unexpected additional expenses. The risk to the buyer in the contract is, if the seller won’t’ deliver the work. In one of the below contract type the seller may have impacted due to sudden change in requirement or project scope, which one? A. Cost reimbursable contract. B. Fixed price contract. C. Time and materials contract. D. Cost plus incentive fees contract. 167. Ruth is working on procurement management process. She was involved in plan procurement management. She is working on the cost-reimbursable contract. In this type of contract, the seller is reimbursed with all the allowable costs to perform the contract work and receive a fixed-fees payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs. The fees which is used in cost-plus contracts to encourage the seller to increase the performance of the work is known as? A. Fixed fees. B. Economic price adjustment fees. C. Incentive fees. D. Award fees. 168. Tom is the project manager in the project and he is involved in the procurement related work. He is involved in analyzing the qualified seller list and creating source selection criteria. Which procurement management process Tom is involved in? 48

A. Plan procurement management, conduct procurement. B. Conduct procurement, control procurement. C. Conduct procurement. D. Conduct procurements, Plan procurement management. 169. Alan is the project manager in a project which develops software for drones. He was involved in all the processes in procurement management. In the current project he is involved in closing the contract. After closing the contract normally he went through it again to find out what happened to the project to find out what went wrong and updating the lessons learnt documents. This act is known as? A. Organizational process asset updates. B. Procurement audit. C. Record management system. D. Inspection and audit. 170. Procurements process involves obtaining the seller responses for a project, and from the list selecting a seller. The selected seller is awarded the contract. During this process, the project team will receive proposals from the sellers, and based on the predefined criteria the sellers are selected for the work. Procurement process involves selection of the seller’s proposals, negotiating with the selected seller, buyer and seller finally comes to an agreement and sign the contract. The process of evaluating seller responses, selecting the seller and award the contract is called? A. Plan procurement management. B. Conduct procurement. C. Control procurement. D. All of the above. 171. Price redefined Inc. is the leading credit card company. Jennifer works in the procurement department and she directly reports to the CFO of the company. She is involved in all the procurement management related processes in the organization. She is currently involved in a contract, in this type of contract, the buyer is going to pay the seller costs involved in the project plus an agreeable amount on top of it. This type of contract is risky to both the buyer and the seller. If the cost involved in the project is more than expected, the buyer needs to pay the additional costs occurred. The fixed fee on top of the costs occurred, sometimes not worth to the seller. Identify the type of contract the buyer is going to pay the seller costs involved in the project plus an agreeable amount on top of it. A. Cost plus award fee contract. B. Cost plus incentive fee contract. C. Cost plus fixed fees contract. D. Fixed price plus incentive fees contract. 172. Good Health LLC is a drug manufacturing company and it has many divisions around the 49

world. Smith works in the procurement division. They are working on a unique contract with the vendors. He represents the buyer. For this contract, the buyer won’t have the expertise to evaluate the price quoted by the seller. In this type of situation, Good Health LLC approaches the 3 rd party to do the evaluation and the 3 rd party will come with the estimates of how much the project costs. This technique is called? A. Expert judgment. B. Bidder conference. C. Procurement audit. D. Independent cost estimates. 173. This category of contract involves payments to the seller for all actual costs on the completed work plus a profit. It is used when the scope of work is expected to change significantly during the execution of the contract. In this type of contract, the seller is reimbursed with all the costs, but the main fee is earned based on the satisfaction of certain broad subjective performance criteria that is defined in the contract. This type of contract is called? A. Cost plus fixed fee contract. B. Cost plus incentive fees contract. C. Cost plus award fees contract. D. Firm fixed fees contract. 174. Bid documents are used to select proposals from the seller. Depending on the service, the bid documents can include request for quotation, request for proposal or other procurement related documents. Gloria is the project manager working on bids with the sellers. She is working on the document to come up with information that will help in determining how vendors will satisfy the requirements and how much it will cost. Identify the bid document that Gloria is working on. A. RFQ B. RFI C. RFP D. None of the above. 175. Madison is working as a lead in the procurement department for the organization involved in construction. She is involved in the procurement management process which involves the verification of the product and work for compliance purpose. After which she will finalize the open claims, update records, archiving all the information for future reference. This type of procurement is called? A. Plan procurement management. B. Control procurement. C. Both A and B. D. Conduct procurement. 50

176. Project stakeholder management includes the processes of identifying the people and groups impacted by the project. Processes help to find the right stakeholders and develop approaches to involve them based on their needs. Natalie is working on the project as a project manager. She is working on communicating with stakeholders to meet their needs and tailoring strategies according to stakeholders and their needs. She is working on all the 4 processes in project stakeholder management, and she just created stakeholder register and stakeholder engagement plan. One of the options given below is not a valid process in project stakeholder management. Identify the invalid process from the given choices. A. Plan stakeholder engagement. B. Conduct stakeholder management. C. Identify stakeholders. D. Manage stakeholder engagement, monitor stakeholder engagement. 177. Helen is the project manager in a company that is manufacturing storage tanks. She is working on the earned monetary value in the current project that she is working on. She is reporting to Bruce who is the PMO for the group of projects. Bruce asked Helen to calculate the project EMV for the project that she is working on. The current project is to reduce the errors in the accounting system, and has 70 % chance of saving the company $200,000 over the next year. It has 30 % chance of costing the company $100,000. What’s the project EMV? A. $ 140,000 B. $30,000 C. $110,000 D. $170,000 178. Discount Inc. is the market leader in coupon industry. Justin is working on a project which has multiple iterations. He is involved in the processes required to identify people that could be impacted by the project. He is also involved in developing the strategies for managing those affected by the project by involving them in project decisions. What are the main outputs of the process group Justin is involved in? A. Stakeholder engagement plan. B. Work performance information, change requests. C. Stakeholder register. D. All of the above. 179. Lori is the key stakeholder as well as the project manager in the project. She reports to Lawrence. She is working on one of the data representation technique called stakeholder engagement assessment matrix. Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix compares the current engagement levels of stakeholders and the desired engagement levels for the success of the project. Stakeholder’s engagement levels are classified into? A. Supportive, resistant, aware. B. Unaware, neutral, resistant, supportive, leading. 51

C. Internal, external, neutral, resistant. D. Supportive, aware, neutral. 180. Daniel is working on the data representation techniques for FirstCorp Inc. Daniel is working on all the processes in project stakeholder management. Some of the Classification models used in stakeholder analysis are? A. Power/interest grid, power/influence grid or influence/impact grid. B. Stakeholder cube. C. Salience model. D. All of the above. 181. Gilbert is working on a stakeholder management project. He is working on developing a matrix that denotes the current engagement level and desired engagement level. The current engagement level by stakeholders is shown as “C” and the desired engagement levels are shown as “D”. This matrix is used to find the gaps in engagement levels and actions are taken to close the gap between the current state and desired future state of engagement. The matrix used to find out the current engagement level and the desired engagement level of stakeholders for the project is called? A. RACI matrix. B. Responsibility assignment matrix. C. Probability and impact matrix D. Stakeholder assignment engagement matrix. 182. Randall is the project manager of Excel Technologies Inc. He is involved in all the project risk management processes. He is working on developing strategies for threats as well as opportunities. One of the given options is not a valid strategy to deal with the threats in the project. Identify the strategy which is not valid for a threat. A. Accept. B. Exploit. C. Avoid. D. Escalate. 183. Debra is working for a leading insurance company in USA. The company is handles new projects for every quarter. Debra is directly reporting to the financial director of the company. In one of the projects Debra is handling has the information EV = $130500, PV = 125500, AC = 129000, which of the following statements is true? A. Earned value is greater than the PV, which indicates project is ahead of schedule. AC is smaller than EV that indicates project is under budget. B. Earned value is greater than the PV, which indicates project is behind the schedule. AC is smaller than EV that indicates project is under budget. 52

C. Earned value is greater than the PV, which indicates project is ahead of schedule. AC is smaller than EV that indicates project is over budget. D. Earned value is greater than the PV, which indicates project is behind the schedule. AC is smaller than EV that indicates project is over budget. 184. Eugene is the key stakeholder as well as the project manager in the project. She is working on some of processes available in project stakeholder management. Currently she is working on a classification model in stakeholder analysis based on the power, urgency and their involvement in the project. This model is known as? A. Power/interest grid. B. Power/influence grid. C. Influence/impact grid. D. Salience model. 185. Stakeholder register is used to identify all the internal and external stakeholders who have interest and influence on the project. It is used to identify the stakeholders involved in the project who can provide information related to the requirements. It also contains key requirements for the project, stakeholder information, their communication needs and requirements. One of the given options is used to identify all the internal and external stakeholders who have interest and influence on the project. Which one is it? A. RACI matrix. B. Responsibility assignment matrix. C. Stakeholder register. D. SWOT. 186. Sam owns a truck company, which delivers machinery. He has 10 employees in the company. In the current project work, Sam and his team ar e delivering machineries worth 600,000. In the past during deliveries no issue or accidents have been reported. This time Sam estimates that there is a 5 percent probability that the equipment could be damaged or lost. While exploring the possibility of transferring this risk to an insurance company, you found out the insurance premium 15000. What will be the best course of action? A. Replace the damaged products. B. Buy insurance. C. Take the risk. D. Do nothing. 187. Madison is the project lead for a major telecom company. Her project currently has 10 more people assigned to the team beside you. As her project is getting delayed, management wants her to add 4 additional team members to the project at the end of the month. How many more communication channels will she have once the additional team members are added? A. 70 53

B. 60 C. 40 D. 50 188. Paul is the project manager of Xylo Corporation. He is involved in all the project risk management processes. He is working on developing strategies for threats as well as opportunities. One of the given options is not a valid strategy to deal with the opportunities in the project. Identify the strategy. A. Escalate B. Accept C. Mitigate D. Share 189. Joshua is a Stakeholder who has low power or influence and has low interest in the ongoing project. She is reporting to Samuel who is the functional manager in the organization. Select the right option to communicate with the stakeholder. A. Kept informed. B. Kept satisfied. C. Monitored. D. Managed closely. 190. Amana is the project lead for a leading chain store in North America. She handles all the processes in the project stakeholder management. Amanda reports to Brian who is the senior manager in the company. Brian wants her to identify all the inputs related to plan stakeholder management. One of the given options is not a valid input to plan stakeholder management. Identify it. A. Project management plan. B. Stakeholder engagement plan. C. Project charter. D. EEF. 191. Christine is the project manager for a project where scope keeps changing. Due to changes in scope the code also needs to change and updated. At the last iteration, the requested changes are more. Every time she used to get approval from the change control board since the scope is baselined. Change requests may include? A. Corrective action. B. Preventive action. C. Defect repair. D. All of the above. 54

192. Andrea is the project manager in a company that manufactures paper boards. She used to report to Jerry and consult with him regarding the project constraints. They both used to get guidance from the PMO in the organization. Some of the Project manager competencies are? A. Technical project management. B. Leadership. C. Strategic and business management. D. All of the above. 193. Lawrence is working as a project manager. Most of his work is project cost estimation related. Lawrence reports to Christina. The project would cost $6, 00,000. The expected inflows will be $30, 000 per quarter for the first 2 years and then $90,000 per quarter thereafter. What is the payback period for this project? A. 48 months. B. 24 months. C. 36 months. D. 60 months. 194. Decomposition of the total project work into work packages involves the following activities. A. Identifying and analyzing the deliverables and related work, Structuring and organizing the wbs. B. Decomposing the upper wbs levels into lower level detailed components. C. Developing and assigning identification codes to the wbs components, verifying that the degree of decomposition of the deliverables is appropriate. D. All of the above. 195. Dylan is the project manager for the company named Synergy Inc. The finance department allocated a project a budget of 90,000 to develop a program. Dylan is reporting to Scott who is the director of the company. Dylan found Actual cost AC = 30,000 and Earned value (EV) = 35,000. What is his EAC (estimate at completion)? A. $85,000 B. $90,000 C. $70,000 D. $60,000 196. Walter is working on the program which contains a group of projects. Out of 8 projects, management has selected 2 projects and later on decided to go for Project X, which would yield $250,000 in benefits instead of project Y, which would yield $200,000. What is the opportunity cost for selecting project X over Project Y? A. $50,000 B. $200,000 55

C. $250,000 D. $300,000 197. Jacob is the project manager in a multinational company which has many branches throughout the world. More than 5000 employees are working for his company. Jacob reports to Amy regarding any issues in the project. Amy asked Jacob to define the problem solving steps. Which of the following is a problem solving elements? A. Define the problem, Identify the root-cause. B. Generating possible solutions, choosing the best solution. C. Implementing the solution, verifying solution effectiveness. D. All of the above. 198. Sylvia is the project manager for a project where requirements keep changing. Due to the requirement change, the scope baseline also needs to change and updated. In the middle of the iteration the requested changes are more. Every time she used to get approval from change control board, since the scope is baselined and approved. Change control tools should support change management activities such as? A. Identify changes, Document changes. B. Decide on changes. C. Track changes. D. All of the above. 199. Debra is the project manager in the quality control department. She is working on the cost of quality, which covers the cost of additional work in the project to accommodate the qualityrelated activities. The cost of quality work incurred throughout the project consists one or more of the following costs. A. Preventive costs. B. Appraisal costs. C. Both A and B. D. only A 200. Kelly is the project manager for a leading company involved in virtual reality. She reports to Amber. Amber wants Kelly to find out the source selection criteria used in the organization, which they are working on. Commonly used source selection methods is? A. least cost, qualifications only. B. Quality based/highest technical proposal score. C. Quality and cost based, sole source, fixed budget. D. All of the above.

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Answers to Practice Questions: 1. Answer: D. A project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product. It has a definite beginning and an end. It can be a part of a program or portfolio. Project drive changes to the organization. 2. Answer. B. Market demand is not a valid project constraint. Valid project constraints are risk, quality, resources, budget, scope and schedule. 3. Answer: Option A is not a valid option for project trigger. Valid options are legal requirements, market demand, customer request, technology and social needs. 4. Answer: Option B is correct. Operations work is ongoing and repeatable. Other options are related to the characteristics of the project. 5. Answer: Option C is correct. Program is a collection of related projects which are closely linked, Project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, and Portfolio is a group of projects or programs which are linked together by a common objective. 6. Answer: Option A is not an objective of PMO. It is one of the project manager’s tasks. The functions of PMO are; Manage shared resources. Coaching, mentoring, guidance whenever needed. Identify and develop project management methodology, standards and best practices. Monitoring compliance with project management processes by audits. Develop and manage organizational process assets such as procedures, templates, policies. Communications between projects. 7. Answer: Option B is correct. The level of control is high in directive PMO Structure. The level of control is medium in controlling PMO Structure. The level of control is low in supportive PMO structure. 8. Answer: Option C is not one of the core competencies of a project manager. It is one of the interpersonal skills of a project manager. Project managers should have the competencies shown below, Knowledge: How much they know about project management. Performance: A project manager is able to apply the knowledge to get the results. Personal: It is the attitude and other personal characteristics, leadership shown when doing the project. 9. Answer: Option A is correct. Based on the control and influence the PMO structure may be, Supportive : This type serves as a project repository, and the role in this type is 57

consultative. The level of control is low. Controlling : It has a moderate level of control. Provide supportive roles and requires compliance. Directing : Directly involves in projects and programs. The level of control is high. 10. Answer: Option B is correct. Directing PMO structure which appoints project manager and manages all the projects in the organization. 11. Answer: Option B is not a valid matrix organization. Other options are correct. Matrix organization is subdivided into 3 categories as weak matrix organization, strong matrix organization and balanced matrix organization. 12. Answer: Option C is correct. Richard is working in a functional organization. In a Functional organization: Project team reports to functional managers. Organization is grouped by functional areas e.g.: marketing, sales etc. Project managers have not much influence/power in this type of organization. Project managers work as an assistant to the functional managers. Project managers mostly work on administrative tasks in the project. 13. Answer: Option B is correct. Paul is working in a projectized organization. Projectized organization: Project teams are grouped based on the projects. Once the project work is done, the project team is disbanded and the team members continue to work on other projects. The project manager is responsible for the project's success and has authority. The project manager can make key decisions related to resources, budget, and schedule. Project coordinators and expeditors won't exist in projectized organization. When the work is complete, the team members don't have departments to go back to. 14. Answer: Option D is correct. Sam is working in a weak matrix organization. Weak matrix organization: Functional manager has more authority than the project manager. Major project decisions are taken by the functional manager. Project manager role in this type of organization is part time. Power of project manager is similar to expeditor (can't make any decisions in the project) and project coordinators (can make some decisions). 15. Answer: Option C is correct. During the Initiating phase of the projects project risks and uncertainties are higher. Risk and uncertainty high at the beginning of the project and decrease during the course of the project. 16. Answer: Option B is correct. In a projectized organization, Project expeditors and coordinators don’t exist. In a weak matrix organization the Power of project manager is similar to expeditor (can't 58

make any decisions in the project) and project coordinators (can make some decisions). 17. Answer: Option C is correct. Stakeholder register is used to identify the people who are affected by the project. A stakeholder register is used to identify the stakeholders involved in the project who can provide information related to the requirements. Also it contains the key requirements for the project. 18. Answer: Option D is not a valid phase-to-phase relationship. Valid phase-to-phase relationship is sequential relationship and overlapping relationship. 19. Answer: Option B is correct. Sequential phase-to-phase relationship, the next phase starts only if the previous phase is complete. This step-by-step approach reduces risk, but the overall schedule may be impacted. 20. Answer: Option B is OPA (organizational process asset). It refers to conditions that are not under the project team’s control, and it influences the project. Some of the EEF factors are: Market condition. Organizational culture, structure and governance. Human resources. Personal administration. Political conditions. Work authorization system. PMIS (project management information systems). Government and industry standards. Commercial databases. Stakeholder risk tolerance. Infrastructure. Communication channels. 21. Answer: Option C is EEF (Enterprise environmental factor). Some of the OPA are, Historical records. Templates. Plans, processes and procedures. Lessons learned. 22. Answer: Option A is correct. In a Projectized organization; Project teams are grouped based on the projects. Once the project work is done, the project team is disbanded and the team members continue to work on other projects. Project manager is responsible for the project’s success and has authority. Project manager can make key decisions related to resources, budget, and schedule. Project coordinators and expeditors won’t exist in projectized organization. When the work is complete, the team members don’t have departments to go back. 23. Answer: Option C is correct. In a Matrix organization conflicts are more, and resource allocation is 59

difficult also the team members have more than one person to report. 24. Answer: Option D is correct. Some of the characteristics of a functional organization are: Project team reports to functional managers. Organization is grouped by functional areas e.g.: marketing, sales, etc. Project managers have no much influence/power in this type of organization. They work as an assistant to the functional managers. Project managers mostly work on administrative tasks in the project. 25. Answer: Option B is correct. Predictive life cycle is also called plan-driven lifecycle. In this lifecycle scope, cost and schedule are determined in the early stage of the project, before starting the work. Projects go through series of sequential or overlapping phases. Project is initiated and the team define the scope of the project, then creates the plan to develop the product, and execute the work. Any changes to the scope are managed through the change control process and it requires re-planning and formal acceptance. When the scope is well known then the project work is done by the predictive lifecycle. 26. Answer: Option C is correct. Initiating process is to define and authorization to start the project. Initiate the project and decide what is going to be built for the project. It is using the identify stakeholder and develop project charter. The main outputs in this process group are project charter, identified stakeholders and stakeholder register. Project manager is assigned during this process. Once the project charter is approved, the project starts officially. 27. Answer: Option C is correct. It formally authorizes a project. Project charter authorizes the PM to apply resources to complete the work on the project. It is the first thing done on a project. An approved project charter initiates the project. It is in the Initiating process group. Since project is sponsored by sponsors, charter needs to be approved by sponsors. PM should be allocated while developing the project charter for the purpose of understanding the requirements. Charter identifies the business needs and stakeholders' expectations. 28. Answer: Option D is correct. Executing process, executes the defined plan, to complete the work defined in project management plan. Actual project work is done in the executing process group. Project costs are usually high in this process group since it is utilizing all the resources to complete the project. As per the project management plan execution process group perform the activities to complete the work defined. It involves managing stakeholders and their expectations, manage resources, and perform the activities as per the project management plan. During execution of project the plan may change, and the baselines must be updated to reflect the changes. As a result change requests are created to bring back the project as per the plan. Change request approvals are done for preventive, corrective actions and defect repairs. 29. Answer: Option B is correct. Monitor and control measures and monitors the progress and performance of the project, and identify if there are any variances and take corrective actions if needed. 30. Answer: Option B is correct. The knowledge area integrates with all parts of the project is called 60

project integration management. 31. Answer: Option D is correct. Project enters into the closing process group when the project phase is completed or the project is completed. The closing process group formally completes all the activities across all project management groups in a project phase or a project or contractual obligations. Premature closure of the project is also formally done in this process group. During project closure, the following may happen. Obtain formal sign-off from customer for the project or phase. Conduct post-project review. Measure customer satisfaction. Archive project records and documents. Document lessons learned. Update organizational project assets. Transfer products to operations. Release the team. Close the contract. 32. Answer: Option C is correct. Planning is an iterative process, and it must be done throughout the project as more information is available is called progressive elaboration. Work to be done in the near (next) iteration is planned in detail, and the work in the future is planned at a higher level. It is called progressive elaboration. 33. Answer: Option C is correct. Laissez-faire: Allows the team to make their own decisions and establish their own goals. Charismatic: The leader has a high energy level and enthusiastic and self-confident. Able to inspire the team by their activities. Servant leader: This type of leader committed to serve and put others first. They focus on other people’s growth, learning, development, autonomy and well-being. Interactional: This type of leader has the combination of transactional, transformational and charismatic leadership styles. Transactional: This type of a leader focuses on goals, feedback and accomplishment to determine rewards. Transformational: They empower the followers through encouragement for innovation and creativity and individual consideration. 34. Answer: Option D is correct. An effective project manager has the following characteristics. Courteous Creative Authentic Intellectual Managerial Political Social 61

Service-oriented cultural 35. Answer: Option C is correct. The activities in the monitor and control process group are measure progress and performance, find out the variance, and recommend preventive and corrective actions through change control, updates to the project management plan. Monitoring and control process group track, measure and review the progress and performance of the project, to ensure the project is on track and identify areas in which changes to the plan are required and initiate the changes. Performance is measured at regular intervals to verify the variance from the project management plan. 36. Answer: Option C is correct. James is working on the process to direct and manage project work. The key outputs of the process are: Deliverables, change requests, issue log, work performance data, project management plan updates, project document updates, OPA updates. 37. Answer: Option C is correct. The process group which Obtains formal sign-off from the customer for the project or phase, Measure customer satisfaction, Archive project records and documents, Document lessons learned, Release the team is called closing. Project enters into the closing process group when the project phase is completed or the project is completed. The closing process group formally completes all the activities across all project management groups in a project phase or a project or contractual obligations. Premature closure of the project is also formally done in this process group. During project closure, the following may happen. Obtain formal sign-off from customer for the project or phase. Conduct post-project review. Measure customer satisfaction. Archive project records and documents. Document lessons learned. Update organizational project assets. Transfer products to operations. Release the team. Close the contract. 38. Answer: Option D is correct. This log keeps recording all the issues occurred during execution of the project, and it needs to be shared with the stakeholders. This log is kept updated throughout the project, whenever new issues are identified. An issue log is the project document, where all the issues are recorded and tracked, data on issue log includes; Issue type, who raised the issue and when, description, priority, who is assigned to the 62

issue, target resolution date, status and final solution. 39. Answer: Option B is correct. Initiating, planning, executing, monitor and control, closing process groups must be included in all the projects. 40. Answer: Option C is correct. The projects within a program may impact a project due to. Priorities of funding. Demand for the same resource. Alignment of project goals and objectives with the organization. Distribution of deliverables. 41. Answer: Option C is not correct. It is related to business case. Project charter formally authorizes a project. Project charter authorizes the PM to apply resources to complete the work on the project. It is the first thing done in a project. An approved project charter initiates the project. It is in the Initiating process group. Since project is sponsored by sponsors, charter needs to be approved by sponsors. PM should be allocated while developing the project charter for the purpose of understanding the requirements. Charter identifies the business needs and stakeholders' expectations. Key Contents of Project Charter: Project Title and description. Stakeholders. Business case. Project constraints and assumptions. Sponsor for the project. Stakeholder influence/authority level. Product description. Budget for the project. PM & their roles, authority etc. Project Risks. Project justification. 42. Answer: Option B is not a process in project integration management. Valid processes in project integration management are: Develop project charter. Develop project management plan. Direct and manage project work. Manage project knowledge. Monitor and control project work. Perform integrated change control. Close project or phase. 43. Answer: Option D is not a valid output. Valid outputs from project integration management are: 63

Project charter. Project management plan. Assumption log, issue log. Deliverables, work performance data. Change requests, lessons learned register, work performance reports. Approved change requests, final product. Project document updates, OPA updates. 44. Answer: Option C is correct. Project statement of work describes the business need, the product scope description and how the project supports the strategic plan. It describes the product that is delivered by the project. 45. Answer: Option D is correct. The activities related to configuration management performed in perform integration management are configuration identification, configuration status accounting, configuration verification and audit. 46. Answer: Option D is correct. Business case is created as a result of: Market demand. Customer request. Organizational needs. Legal requirement. Technological advance. Social needs. Ecological impact. 47. Answer: Option D is correct. Information management tools and techniques are used to create and connect people to information. Some of the tools and techniques involved in information management are: Lessons learned register. Library services. PMIS. Information gathering. 48. Answer: Option B is correct. Perform integrated change control process reviewing the change requests by the board based on the merits and demerits approve or reject them, manage the changes. 49. Answer: Option C is correct. Work authorization system is used to manage when and what sequence the project work will be done. Scheduling tool, configuration management system, work authorization system all are part of PMIS. 50. Answer: Option B is not a valid input. Valid inputs to direct and manage work are: Project management plan. Project documents. 64

Approved change requests. EEF. OPA. 51. Answer: Option B is correct. An action taken to reduce the possibility of risks in the project is called preventive action. Corrective action: Actions taken to bring the project back in line with the project management plan Preventive action: Actions taken to reduce the risk in the project. Defect repair: Actions taken to modify the product. Updates: Changes to the formal project related documents. 52. Answer: Option D is correct. Activities that take place during closure of the project or phase are: Close the contract. Release the team. Update OPA. Document lessons learned. Obtain sign-off from customer. 53. Answer: Option C is correct. Monitor and control project work compares the actual performance against the planned one in the project management plan and if there is any variation from the plan, the variation is corrected through corrective action by the change control process. Constant monitoring of performance through taking readings against the cost, schedule and performance baselines. In general, this process is concerned with: Comparing actual performances against the baseline. If the actual performance varies from baseline corrective action is taken to maintain the baselines specified in the plan. Provides information for status reports. Monitor the risks. Monitor the approved changes. Forecast on schedule, costs, etc. Provide reports to the stakeholders involved in the project. 54. Answer: Option A is correct. Performing the task, as defined in the project management plan and the process is called direct and manage project work. It is the process, where the project team works together to produce the deliverables. Some of the tasks are: -accomplish project objectives. -produce deliverables. -manage stakeholder expectations. -risk management. -change control management. 65

-manages the communication. -document lessons learnt. -work performance data is constantly collected and action is taken through change control, if there is any variation from the planned. 55. Answer: Option B is not a valid option. Valid input to the monitor and control project work process are: Project management plan. Project documents. Work performance information. EEF. OPA. 56. Answer: Option B is not a valid process. Both project schedule and schedule management plan are the key outputs in project scope management. Valid processes available in project scope management are: Plan scope management. Collect requirements. Define scope. Create WBS. Validate scope. Control scope. 57. Answer: Option B is not correct. Valid group decision making techniques are: Unanimity: This decision is taken by everyone in the group and also accepted by everyone. Majority: In this decision making more than half of the members of the group support the decision. Plurality: Decision is based on the largest block in the group, even if the majority of the vote is not reached. Dictatorship: In this method one individual decides for the entire group. 58. Answer: Option C is not a valid type of requirement. Requirements can be classified into different types as follows: Business requirements: It describes the needs of the organization. Stakeholder requirements: It describes the needs of the stakeholders. Solution requirements: It describes the features, characteristics of the project. It is further classified into functional and non-functional requirements. Functional requirements: It describes the behavior of the product. Non-functional requirements : It describes the environmental conditions or qualities required for the project. E.g.: performance, security, etc. Transition requirements: It is needed during the transition from current state to future state. 66

Quality requirements: It describes condition or capability that needs to be met by the project or product. 59. Answer: Option C is correct. Details of all the work packages in the work breakdown structure are stored in WBS Dictionary. It contains: A unique identifier called code of account identifier. Assumptions and constraints. Acceptance criteria. Schedule, cost estimates. Description about the work that needs to be done. The team responsible to do the work. Quality requirements. 60. Answer: Option D is correct. Examples of product analysis technique are: Requirement analysis. Product breakdown. System analysis. System engineering. Value analysis. Value engineering. 61. Answer: Option C is not a valid option regarding the WBS. WBS shows how the deliverables are broken down into work packages. 62. Answer: Option D is correct. The techniques used for decision making in collect requirement process are: Voting (Unanimity, majority, plurality). Autocratic decision making -- one individual takes responsibility for deciding for the group. Multicriteria decision making - It uses the decision matrix to establish criteria such as risk level, uncertainty, valuation to evaluate and rank the ideas. 63. Answer: Option B is correct. Uncontrolled changes and will affect the project cost, schedule, quality and also it will increase the risk for the project is called scope creep. It will increase the risk of the project. 64. Answer: Option D is correct. Available group creativity techniques are: Brainstorming, Nominal group technique. Idea/mind mapping, Affinity diagram. Multi-criteria decision analysis. Affinity diagram. Questionnaire and surveys. 67

65. Answer: Option D is correct. Change requests are made for the purpose of : Corrective action: Actions taken to bring the project back in line with the project management plan. Preventive action: Actions taken to reduce the risk in the project. Defect repair: Actions taken to modify the product. Updates: Changes to the formal project related documents. 66. Answer: Option B is correct. Scope baseline contains project scope statement, WBS and Work package and planning package. Once the scope is finalized and approved scope baseline is created. For future updates to the scope baseline must be approved by change control board, through the change control process. 67. Answer: Option A is correct. The main difference between the validate scope and control scope is: Validate scope is the process of obtaining formal acceptance for the deliverables from the customer, whereas control scope mainly deals with the changes related to the scope baseline. Validate Scope: It is the process of obtaining formal acceptance for the deliverables from the customer. Verified product from the quality control process is reviewed by customer for acceptance. There are some differences between the quality control process and validate scope process. The differences are, quality control considers mainly the correctness of the product generally done by the quality control department and validate scope considers completion of the project done by the customer. Both can be done in parallel, perform control quality is done before validate scope. Control Scope: Control scope mainly deals with the changes related to the scope baseline. Through the control scope, the scope baseline is maintained throughout the project. Change is inevitable in a project. When a change is requested, it needs to go through the change control process for approval. Whenever a change is requested, it is compared against the baseline, and planning is done for the new request. It will result in updated baseline. 68. Answer: Option D is correct. It is a grid which links requirements of the products from their origin to deliverables. Attributes used in requirement traceability matrix are: Unique id. Description of requirement. Source of requirement. Owner of requirement. Current status. Priority. 69. Answer: Option D is correct. WBS Dictionary contains the details of work packages listed in the WBS. WBS dictionary contains 68

details about the work done for each work package in the WBS. It contains: A unique identifier called code of account identifier. Assumptions and constraints. Acceptance criteria. Schedule, cost estimates. Description about the work that needs to be done. Team responsible to do the work. Quality requirements. 70. Answer: Option C is correct. Context diagram visually shows a business system and how people and other business systems are interacting with it. It shows the input, and shows who provide the input, and output from the business system, and who receives the output. Affinity diagrams: Ideas generated from any other requirement collection technique grouped together based on similarities. Each group can be given a title, to find out additional ideas. Idea/mind mapping: Ideas collected from different individual brainstorming sessions are discussed and drawn into a graphical format. It helps to visualize the ideas related to each other ideas generated. Delphi technique: This technique is used to get the opinions of experts. In this technique, instead of everybody in the same room, the questionnaire is sent to risk experts and asking about the risks in the project. Once the questionnaire is collected, it was recirculated again to reach the consensus in opinion. It will take a few rounds to reach the consensus. In this technique, nobody knows about who else is involved in this process. 71. Answer: Option C is not a valid option. Valid processes in project schedule management are: Plan schedule management. Define activities. Sequence activities. Estimate activity durations. Develop schedule. Control schedule. 72. Answer: Option D is correct. Some of the considerations for tailoring are: Resource availability – considering the relation between resource availability and productivity. Life cycle approach – finding out the correct life cycle approach for a detailed schedule. Project dimensions - considering different aspects of project like complexity, technological uncertainty etc. for the impact of the project. Technology Support - Technology used to develop, record, transmit, receive, store the project schedule is accessible. 73. Answer: Option D is correct. Main outputs of plan schedule management are: Schedule management plan. 69

Activity list. Activity attributes. Milestone list. Change requests. Project schedule network diagram. Duration estimates. Basis of estimates. Schedule baseline. Project schedule. Schedule data. Project calendars. Project management plan updates, project documents updates. Work performance information. Schedule forecasts. 74. Answer: Option C is not a valid option. Valid relationship is Start-to-Start, Start-to-Finish, Finishto-Start, and Finish-to-Finish. Start-to-Start : Successor activity cannot be started until a predecessor activity has started. Start-to-Finish : Successor activity cannot be finished until a predecessor activity has started Finish-to-Start : Predecessor activity must be completed before the successor activity can be initiated. Finish-to-Finish : Successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity is finished. 75. Answer: Option D is correct. Resource leveling is used to produce the resource limited schedule. Sometimes key resources to finish a task are limited in the organization. If the resource is busy with other activities on the critical path, then the critical path needs to add the dependency. It can change the critical path. Resource leveling is used when: The necessary resources to do the task are available only at certain times. Resources are in limited quantity. Resources are over-allocated. Resource usage at a constant level. 76. Answer: Option B is correct. Crashing is done to meet the project dates additional resources added to the critical path whereas in fast-tracking activities on the critical path are done in sequence. Crashing: To meet the project dates, additional resources added to the critical path. This is called Crashing. It always costs more due to additional resources. If the budget is fixed for the project, we can’t use this technique. Fast Tracking: In this technique 2 activities on the critical path doing in sequence. It is risky and ends up in redoing again from the beginning. It can be used when activities are overlapped to shorten the duration. 77. Answer: Option B is correct. Developing schedule is a process of analyzing activity sequence, dependency, resource requirements, duration, and logical relationships to develop the schedule model. Developing schedule is an iterative process. It is a process of analyzing activity sequence, dependency, 70

resource requirements, duration, and logical relationships to develop the schedule model. Schedule tool is used mostly to develop the schedule. We need to enter the durations, schedule activities, resources, resource availability, and duration into the scheduling tool, to generate the schedule. Based on the schedule model used, we can determine the planned start and finish dates for the project activities. Approved project schedule can be used as a baseline and it is helpful to track the project progress. 78. Answer: Option A is correct. In the PDM diagram (Precedence diagramming method). This diagram displays the logical and sequential activities in the project. Activities are shown in rectangle and the relationships are shown in arrows. Most commonly used relationship: Finish-to-Start. Rarely used relationship: and Start-to-Finish. 79. Answer: Option B is correct. Adjusting leads and lags is done in schedule development. 80. Answer: Option B is not a valid dependency. Finish-to-Start is not a valid dependency in sequencing activities. 4 types of dependencies attributes in the project are: Internal, External. Mandatory. Discretionary dependencies. Mandatory dependencies: They are required by the nature of work.eg: contract. All the terms in the contract must be satisfied to fulfill the contract. It is called as hard logic. Discretionary dependencies: It is the preferred way that the organization wants the work to be done. It is called preferred logic or soft logic. These type of dependencies are easy to change when needed. E.g. fast tracking. During fast-tracking, these discretionary dependencies can be modified or removed. External dependencies: In some situations, the project work depends on the external factors which are outside of the project work. It is not in the control of the project team. E.g. project approval by environmental regulations. Internal dependencies: These are the dependencies within the project team’s control. It depends on the project's needs. Project management team decides which dependencies are internal or external.

81. Answer: Option C is the right answer. Work to be done in the near (next) iteration is planned in detail, and the work in the future is planned at a higher level and it is called rolling wave planning. Progressive elaboration is also a correct answer. Rolling wave planning: It uses iterative planning. Work to be done in the near (next) iteration is planned in detail, and the work in the future is planned at a higher level. It is called progressive elaboration. Agile methodologies using rolling wave planning. Only plan in detail for the current iteration and complete the work. After user 71

reviewed the work, and updates are done in the product, the next iteration is planned in detail. Progressive elaboration: Planning is an iterative process, and it must be done throughout the project as more information is available. It is called progressive elaboration. 82. Answer: Option B is correct. Mandatory and Discretionary dependencies also called, Hard logic and Soft logic respectively. Discretionary dependency: It is the preferred way that the organization wants the work to be done. It is known as preferred logic or soft logic. These type of dependencies are easy to change when needed. E.g. fast tracking. During fasttracking, these discretionary dependencies can be modified or removed. Mandatory dependency: They are required by the nature of work.eg: contract. All the terms in the contract must be satisfied to fulfill the contract. It is called as hard logic. 83. Answer: Option B is not a valid float. Valid Float Types are; Total Float: The float for an activity is the amount of time that can be delayed without impacting the project schedule. The float for the activities on the critical path is zero. Free Float: The amount of time an activity can be delayed without affecting the early start of its successor. Project Float : The amount of time a project can be delayed without delaying the externally imposed project completion date. 84. Answer: Option B is correct. Coding should be done before the testing starts. This is a type of dependency called mandatory dependency. Dependency has 4 attributes, mandatory dependencies, discretionary dependencies, external dependencies and internal dependencies. Mandatory dependencies: They are required by the nature of work.eg contract. All the terms in the contract must be satisfied to fulfill the contract. It is known as hard logic. Discretionary dependencies: It is the preferred way that the organization wants the work to be done. It is known as preferred logic or soft logic. This type of dependencies are easy to change when needed. Eg.fast tracking. During fast-tracking, these discretionary dependencies can be modified or removed. External dependencies: In some situations, the project work depends on the external factors which are outside of the project work. It is not in the control of the project team. E.g. project approval by environmental regulations. Internal dependencies: These are the dependencies within the project team’s control. It depends on the project's needs. Project management team decides which dependencies are internal or external. 85. Answer: Option D is correct. Analogous estimation is the correct answer. This estimate uses the information from similar projects which is done before, with the same size, complexity, scope and budget, schedule and it uses the estimate for the current project. One drawback in this estimation is, it is less accurate. This estimation is used during the earlier stages of the project 72

when limited information is available. It uses historical information and expert judgment for estimation. It is also known as a top-down approach. 86. Answer: Option B is not a valid process. Valid processes available in project cost management are: Plan cost management. Estimate costs. Determine budget. Control costs. 87. Answer: Option D is correct. Some of the considerations for tailoring project cost management are: Knowledge management – Organization has formal knowledge management. Estimating and budgeting. Earned value management. Use of agile approach. Governance. 88. Answer: Option D is correct. To address the known-unknown and to address the unknown-unknown the reserves allocated are contingency reserve and management reserve. Contingency reserve: It is the reserve allocated within the cost baseline for identified risks. It is used for known risks that are identified. The budget is to address the known-unknown. It can be a percentage of estimated cost, a fixed number. Management reserve: Additional reserves allocated to manage the unforeseen risks. It is not included in the schedule baseline. It is associated with unknown-unknowns. Cost baseline: project cost + contingency reserve Cost budget: cost baseline + management reserve 89. Answer: Option D is correct. Main outputs of project cost management are: Cost management plan. Cost estimates. Basis of estimates. Cost baseline. Project funding requirements. Work performance information, cost forecasts. Change requests. Project management plan updates, project document updates. 90. Answer: Option B is correct. Management reserve is not part of cost baseline but it is included in the project budget. Additional reserves allocated to manage the unforeseen risks. It is not included in the schedule baseline. 73

It is associated with unknown-unknowns. Cost baseline: project cost + contingency reserve Cost budget: cost baseline + management reserve 91. Answer: Option A is correct. Analogous estimating can be called as top-down estimation. Analogous estimating: It is known as top-down estimation. In this type of estimation a similar project which was done before is used as a reference. This estimation will work if the team and the activities in the previous project are the same. This technique is used to estimate the schedule or budget from the previously done project. It is used when very little information is available for estimation for the current project. It uses the parameters from previous projects such as cost, duration, complexity, size of the project as a basis of estimating the activity durations. Since it takes data from previous projects it is less costly and less time consuming, but also less accurate. 92. Answer: Option B is correct. Rolling up costs from the work package level to the control account level is known as cost aggregation. Cost aggregation: To create budget, activity costs are rolled up into work package costs. Then work package costs are rolled up into control account costs, and then final project costs. It is known as cost aggregation. 93. Answer: Option A is correct. ROM (rough order of estimate) is done during the initiating process group. Initial phase the project has ROM (rough order of magnitude) as -25 % to + 75 %. As the project goes the estimates can range from -5 % to +10 %. Some organizations have specific guidelines for the estimation process. 94. Answer: Option B is correct. The difference between cost baseline and cost budget is management reserve. Cost budget = cost baseline + management reserve. 95. Answer: Option C is correct. Monthly salary to employees working in an organization is an example of direct cost. Rent, utility bills – fixed cost Wages, cost of material, supplies – variable cost Salary for the team, training the team – direct cost Taxes - indirect cost 96. Answer: Option D is correct. The cost to support the product from creation of product to day-to-day operations is called lifecycle cost. 97. Answer: Option B is correct. Estimated value of the work actually completed is known as earned value. Other options are not correct. 98. Answer: Option D is correct. During estimation the project team identifies alternatives and selects from the available options. The below factors are considered for estimation. 74

Buy vs lease. Make vs buy. Resource sharing. Cost trade-offs. Risks. 99. Answer: Option B is correct. Parametric estimation is the correct answer. Parametric estimating: In this estimating mathematical model, formulas are used for cost and time estimates. The level of accuracy is better in this method. To calculate the estimate duration’s data similar to number of lines of code per hour, number of defects per cycle may be used. It can be applied to the entire project or specific parts of the project. Analogous estimation: This estimate uses the information from similar projects which is done before, with the same size, complexity, scope and budget, schedule and it uses the estimate for the current project. One drawback of this estimation is, it is less accurate. This estimation is used during the earlier stages of the project when limited information is available. It uses historical information and expert judgment for estimation. It is known as top-down approach. Bottom-up estimating: This method is used to estimate the project schedule, project cost by summing up all the resources from the bottom of WBS. Breaking the activities into smaller pieces, and then adding the resources from the bottom. 3 point estimating: This estimating method considers the project uncertainty and risks while estimating. It uses most likely, optimistic and pessimistic ranges. Most likely: This estimate may happen. Optimistic: This estimate activity duration represents the best-case scenario for the activity. Pessimistic: This estimate duration represents the worst-case case scenario for the activity. 100. Answer: Option C is correct. Trend analysis is the correct answer. Trend analysis: Trend analysis examines the project performance over time, to find if performance is improving or deteriorating. Trend analysis identifies the trends in the performance. Deviation from the baseline indicates the potential impact of threats or opportunities. 101. Answer: Option B is not a valid process in project quality management. Valid processes available in project quality management are: Plan quality management. Manage quality. Control quality. 75

102. Answer: Option D is correct. 5 levels of effective quality management are: Detect and correct the defects before the product is delivered to the customer as part of quality control process. Use quality assurance to examine the available processes and correct the processes itself. Create a culture throughout the organization is aware and committed to quality in the products and processes available. Incorporate quality into planning and design of the project and product. Most expensive quality management approach is to let the customer find the defects, because it will lead to recalls, rework, increase the costs, loss of reputation, etc. 103. Answer: Option D is correct. Quality audits are done by auditors either internal or external, to find whether the project activities comply with organizational policies and procedures. Objectives of quality audit. Identify the best practices implemented in the organization. Identify the gaps, nonconformity. Share the good practices in similar projects in the industry or in the organization. Proactively assist to improve the implementation of quality processes to help the productivity of the team. Update the lessons learnt in each quality audit in the repositories. As a result of quality audits, the quality is improved and also customer satisfaction and acceptance of the product is enhanced. 104. Answer: Option D is correct. The benefits of control quality process are: Validate the deliverables against the requirements given, for the purpose of customer acceptance. Identify the methods of quality improvement. Take corrective and preventive action through the change control process. 105. Answer: Option D is correct. A process is considered as out of control when: A data point exceeds the control limit. Seven consecutive points above the mean. Seven consecutive points below the mean. Out of control : When a data point falls outside the control limits, the data point is out of control, and when it happens the entire process is out of control. Every process has variation in the end products. The range is calculated based on +- 3 sigma. Data points within the range are in control, and the data points not in the range are known as out of control. 106. Answer: Option C is correct. Cost of quality can be categorized into: Cost of conformance to requirements. Cost of non-conformance to requirements. Cost of quality: It covers the cost of additional work in the project to accommodate the 76

quality-related activities. E.g.: training employees, follow the standards to ensure quality and quality control activities. Cost of conformance: Includes Prevention costs, Appraisal costs. Cost of nonconformance: Internal failure costs, External failure costs. Prevention costs (Build a quality product): Training, equipment, documentation, timings Appraisal costs: Testing, inspection. Internal Failure cost: Rework, Scrap (Failures found by the project). External Failure cost: Warranty work, lost business (Failures found by the customer). 107. Answer: Option D is correct. Quality Assurance is used to ensure project activities are in compliance with organizational standards, policies, procedures on regular basis. Perform quality assurance is the process to find the project activities comply with organizational standards, policies and procedures. It is used to perform continuous improvement in the project to achieve quality, reduce defects and eliminates activities that do not add value. If changes are needed, it can be done through the change control procedures. Identify the inefficiencies in the process. Perform continuous improvement. Confirm activities follow the policies and standards in the organization. Recommend changes through corrective action. 108. Answer: Option C is correct. Scatter diagram plots 2 variables against each other to find out if they are related it is also called correlation chart. The direction of correlation may be positive or negative or zero correlation. The trend line in the chart is calculated to show the correlation between the variables, which is used for estimation and forecast. 109. Answer: Option B is correct. Quality control is used to inspect the deliverables and find out the defects. It is performed to measure compliance and fitness to use the product before delivering the product to the customer. Quality control must be performed throughout the project and the aim is to meet the customer acceptance criteria. 110. Answer: Option D is correct. Pareto diagram is related to the 80/20 rule, i.e. 80 percent of the problems come from 20 percent of the causes. It helps to identify the critical issues which need the attention immediately. It is based on the concept of a larger number of problems are caused by a smaller number of causes. It shows the frequency of errors and the causes in a histogram. It is based on the concept of 80/20 rule. 80 percent of the problems come from 20 percent of the causes. Similar to histogram, except the variables are arranged in descending order (high to low). 111. Answer: option D is correct. The main outputs of project quality management are: Quality management plan. Quality report, quality metrics. Change requests, quality control measurements. 77

Verified deliverables, work performance information. Project management plan updates, project document updates. 112. Answer: option D is correct. Some of the examples of cost of conformance are: Training cost, testing, inspections, document the processes, time to do it right are examples of cost of conformance . 113. Answer: Option D is correct. Some of the examples of cost of non-conformance Rework, repairs, complaints, scrap, liabilities, warranty work, lost business are examples of cost of nonconformance . Cost of quality is as categorized below: Cost of conformance to requirements (e.g., investing in prevention of nonconformance requirements). Cost of non-conformance to requirements (e.g.: rework due to nonconformance of requirements). 114. Answer: Option D is correct. Tailoring considerations for the project quality management are: Policy compliance and auditing. Continuous improvement. Stakeholder engagement. Standards and regulatory compliance. 115. Answer: Option D is correct. Problem solving methods include the following elements. Define the problem. Identify the problem. Generating possible solutions. Choosing the best solution. Implementing the solution. Verifying the solution effectiveness. 116. Answer: Option B is not a valid process in project resource management. The valid processes available in project resource management are: Plan resource management. Estimate activity resources. Acquire resources. Develop team. Manage team. Control resources. 117. Answer: Option D is correct. Considerations for tailoring the project resource management are: Diversity. 78

Physical location. Acquisition of team members. Management of team. Industry specific resources. Life cycle approaches. 118. Answer: Option D is correct. A team charter is a document that establishes the team values, agreements and operating guidelines for the team. It includes: Team values, Communication guidelines, Decision making criteria and process, Conflict resolution process, Meeting guidelines, Team agreements, 119. Answer: Option C is correct. Some of the tailoring considerations for project resource management are: Diversity. Physical location. Industry specific resources. Acquisition of team members. Management of team. Life cycle approaches. 120. Answer: Option A is correct. Some of the powers available to the project manager working in a project are: Positional: It is derived from the position granted in the organization. Coercive (Punitive): This power enables the project manager to penalize the team members, if they didn’t meet the targets. Reward- oriented : This power allows the project manager to give rewards to motivate the team members. Expert : This power is derived from the knowledge of the project manager in the specific domain. It gives creditability to the project manager. Referent : This power is based on the respect, charismatic personality of the project manager. Informational : Control or gathering distribution of information. Avoiding: Refuse to participate in key decisions, avoid meetings etc. Personal or charismatic : It is derived from the charm or attraction. Situational: This type of power is obtained from a unique situation due to a crisis in the project or organization. Persuasive: This power is derived from the ability to provide arguments to move people to a desired course of action. 79

Relational: It is derived due to contacts, networking, connections, etc. Guilt-based: It is derived from the imposition of obligation. Pressure-based: This type of power is derived from limit freedom of choice or movement for the purpose of gaining compliance. Ingratiating: It is derived from in excessive praise or for the other common causes to win co-operation. 121. Answer: Option B is correct. Collaborate is the correct option. Techniques to resolve conflict are: Withdraw/Avoid: This method postpones the decision on the conflict. The outcome of this technique results in lose/lose situation to the 2 parties. Force/Direct: Pushing someone’s viewpoint at the expense of others. It is a win-lose situation for the 2 parties. It is enforced through power. Smooth/Accommodate: This technique emphasizing the areas of agreement, rather than the areas of difference. Collaborate/problem solving: In this method the affected parties openly discuss the issues and try to incorporate multiple perspectives to reach the consensus. This results in a win/win situation. It requires a co-operative attitude and commitment to resolve the issue. Compromise/reconcile: In this technique both parties reach some level of satisfaction. Both parties are requested to give up something they want. This creates a lose/lose situation since no one gets what they want. 122. Answer: Option C is correct. Norming is the correct option. Tuckman’s theory of development through the 5 stages, The duration of every stage depends on the team size, leadership and team dynamics. Forming: Team members are brought together as a team to do the task. In this stage they meet and learn more about the project and their roles and responsibilities. Storming : There are some disagreements between the members of the team, as they work together in the project. The team goes through conflicts in this stage. Norming: In this stage, team members begin to build an understanding between and relationship between them. They adjust their work habits and behaviors and start working as a team. Team begin to trust each other. Performing: In this stage the team is working effectively. In this stage, teamwork independently and works through issues smoothly. The role of PM in this stage is delegating. Adjourning : As the project ends, the team members are moved to the next assignment. Team members are released from the project. 123. Answer: Option C is not a valid chart which describes team member’s roles and responsibilities. Other options are correct. Some of the valid data representation techniques are: Hierarchical charts – Work breakdown structure, organizational breakdown structure and resource breakdown structure. 80

Assignment matrix – RAM (Responsibility assignment matrix), RACI chart. Text-oriented formats. 124. Answer: Option D is the correct answer. High team performance can be achieved by: Creating team-building opportunities. Managing conflicts in a constructive manner. Encouraging collaborative problem solving. Using open and effective communication. Developing trust among team members. Encouraging collaborative decision making. 125. Answer: Option D is correct. Some of the personality traits of an effective leader are: Managerial - this trait is related to the measurement of effective management practices. Authentic - It is related to accepting people the way they are. Service-oriented – Show interest in assisting others and the team. Systemic – ability to understand and build systems. Creative - ability to think and see things creatively and differently. Intellectual - measurement of human intelligence. Political - it is the measurement of the skill using influence to make things happen. Social - able to understand people or resources. Courteous - apply correct etiquette. Emotional - it is the ability to perceive the emotions. Cultural – measurement of diversity. 126. Answer: Option C is not valid. Valid outputs in project resource management are: Resource management plan. Team charter, resource requirements. Basis of estimates. Resource breakdown structure. Physical resource assignments, project team assignments. Resource calendars, change requests. Project management plan updates, project documents updates. EEF updates, OPA updates. Team performance assessments. Work performance information. 127. Answer: Option A is correct. Conflict resolution techniques and their outcomes related to the concerned parties are: Withdraw (lose/lose). Forcing (win/lose). Smoothing (win/lose). Compromise (lose/lose). Collaborate (win/win).

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128. Answer: Option C is correct. Some of the factors that influence conflict resolution methods are: Time pressure to resolve the conflict. Importance of conflict. Motivation to resolve conflict on a short-term or long-term basis. Relative power of people involved in the conflict. Importance of maintaining the relationship. 129. Answer: Option C is correct. Some of the factors related to control resources in project resource management are: Identify the resource surplus/shortage before it happens. Ensure the resources are used and released according to the project plan. Monitor the expenditure of the resources used in the project. Inform the related stakeholders when issue arises due to the resources. Manage the changes as they occur. 130. Answer: Option D is correct. Pre-assignment is the correct answer. In this technique members of the project team are selected in advance before the project start. Resources are guaranteed for the project due to their experience and skills. The project is dependent on their expertise. 131. Answer: Option B is not a valid response. The valid process in project communications management is: Plan communications management. Manage communication. Monitor communication. 132. Answer: Option C is correct. Some of the tailoring considerations for project communications management are: Communications technology - identify the cost effective technology that can be used to communicate with stakeholders. Physical location - considers the team members location, i.e. collocated or distributed, or multiple time zones they are working in. Language - consider the possibilities of one language can be used for communication activities or multiple languages can be used. Stakeholders - identify the stakeholders internal or external to the organization. Knowledge management - considers the organization's available repositories used. 133. Answer: Option B is not a hierarchical chart. It is a matrix-based chart. Types of hierarchical chart are: RBS

- resource breakdown structure. 82

OBS WBS

- organizational breakdown structure. - work breakdown structure.

134. Answer: Option D is correct. Some of the dimensions of effective communication are: Internal, External. Formal, Informal. Hierarchical focus: upward, downward, horizontal. Official, unofficial. Written and oral communication. 135. Answer: Option D is correct. The main outputs of project communication management are: Communication management plan. Project communications. Work performance information. Change requests. Project management plan updates, project documents updates. OPA updates. 136. Answer: Option C is correct. 5C’s of written communication are: Controlling the flow of words and ideas. Correct grammar and spelling. Coherent logical flow of ideas. Clear purpose of communication, and expression directed to the needs of the reader. Concise expression and elimination of excess words. 137. Answer: Option C is not correct. Some of the techniques and considerations used for effective communication are: Presentation and Facilitation. Choice of media. Active listening. Sender-receiver model. Writing style. Meeting management. 138. Answer: Option C is correct. Project team getting the information from website is an example of pull communication. This is used to send a large volume of documents to a large number of people. In this method the information is placed in the central location for communication to the audiences. Recipients receive the message from the central location by pulling the information. E.g.: intranet sites, e-learning, knowledge repositories, etc. The method of communication is decided by considering the stakeholder's opinion. Interactive communication: 83

2 or more parties are involved in this type of interactive communication. This method is very efficient to ensure a common understanding of messages by all the participants. E.g. Meetings, phone calls, video conferencing and messaging. Push communication : In this method sender sends the information to the corresponding parties, whoever needed but didn’t expect feedback or it is understood by them. E.g.: letters, status reports, memos, etc. 139. Answer: Option B is correct. Sequence of steps in a basic communication model are: Encode - message coded as symbols as text or sound. Transmit message – message sent through the communication channel. Decode - data received is translated by the receiver, in a form which is helpful to the receiver. Sample interactive communication model steps are: Encode, transmit message, decode, and acknowledge, feedback/response. 140. Answer: Option B is correct. Email to the project team, memo, sending fax are examples of push communication. Push communication : In this method, sender sends the information to the corresponding parties, whoever needed but didn’t expect feedback or it is understood by them. E.g.: letters, status reports, memos, etc. 141. Answer: Option B is not correct. It is the output of monitoring communications process. Some of the tools and techniques used in project communications management are: Expert judgment. Communications technology. Communications methods, communication models. Project management information systems. Data representation. Interpersonal and team skills, meetings. Data representation, project reporting. 142. Answer: Option C is correct. Factors that can affect the choice of communication technology are: Urgency of the need for information. Availability and reliability of technology, Ease of use. Project environment. Sensitivity and confidentiality of the information. 143. Answer: Option B is correct. Project Information management system provides a set of tools to 84

capture, store and distribute information related to the cost of the project, schedule update and performance to the corresponding stakeholders. Other options are not correct. 144. Answer: Option D is correct. Complexity in the project is due to the nature of: System behavior -due to interdependencies of multiple systems involved in the project. Human behavior – due to diverse individuals and groups. Ambiguity - lack of understanding in the project team. 145. Answer: Option D is correct. All the given options are correct. The main outputs of direct and manage project work in project integration management are: Deliverables. Work performance data. Issue log. Change requests. Project management plan updates, project document updates. OPA updates. 146. Answer: Option D is not a valid process. Valid processes in project risk management are: Plan risk management. Identify risks. Perform qualitative risk analysis. Perform quantitative risk analysis. Plan risk response. Implement risk response. Monitor risks. 147. Answer: Option C is correct. Some of the tailoring considerations in the processes available in project risk management are: Project size. Project complexity. Development approach. Project importance. 148. Answer: Option D is correct. The main outputs of project risk management are: Risk management plan. Risk register. Risk report. Change requests. Work performance information. Project document updates, project management plan updates, OPA updates. 149. Answer: Option B is correct. Risk identification is done at regular intervals throughout the project. 85

Risk Identification process is used to identify all the risks which affect the project and document their characteristics. Risk identification is an iterative process, new risks evolve as the project progresses, and it will continue throughout the project. Participants in the risk identification process are project manager, project team, SME, customers, stakeholders, end users and other risk management experts. The project team is involved in this process of risk identification for the purpose of ownership of risks as well as the responsibility of risk response actions. Major risk identification occurs during the planning process. 150. Answer: Option B is correct. Perform qualitative risk analysis helps to prioritize risks and find its probability and impact. To perform qualitative risk analysis, prioritize the risk for further analysis by assessing their probability and impact to the project. This helps to allocate enough time and proper resources to deal with the risks if they occur and also the project team's focus of high-priority risks. It assesses the probability of identified risks and its impact, and also the risk response timeframe and organizations risk tolerance levels related to scope, cost, quality and schedule. It involves a shortlist of previously identified risks and it is further analyzed to perform quantitative risk analysis. Performing qualitative risk analysis is a subjective analysis of risks identified in the risk register. It is a cost effective method to prioritize plan risk response and foundation for the performance of quantitative risk analysis. It will be performed throughout the project. 151. Answer: Option C is correct. Risks that are caused by implementing a risk response is known as secondary risk. Secondary risk: Secondary risks always need to be considered when developing response strategies. Secondary risk is the one, which occurs as a result of implementing a risk response. It is a direct outcome of implementing a risk response. Residual risks: These are the risks that remain after implementing the risk responses. It is known as residual risks. 152. Answer: Option D is not a valid strategy. Valid strategies to deal with negative risks are; Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, And Accept. Avoid: This is a suitable strategy for critical risks with high impact. Eliminate the root cause of risk in this strategy. This can be done by changing the project management plan to eliminate the threat. E.g.: removing a work package from the project, which is considered risky, reduce the scope or extend the schedule. Transfer: This is a suitable strategy for less critical risks with less impact. This strategy makes someone responsible for the risks and the responses. Transfer does not eliminate the risks completely. Contracts can be used to transfer liability of risks to the 3 rd party. e.g.: by purchasing insurance, warranty for the product. Mitigate: This is a suitable strategy for critical risks with high impact. This strategy reduces the probability of occurrence or impact of the threat. This strategy helps to maintain the risks within the threshold levels defined. E.g.: more testing, avoid complex processes, etc. 86

Accept: This is a suitable strategy for less critical risks with less impact. Sometimes it is not possible to eliminate all the risks in the project. Also the cost to avoid or mitigate or transfer the risk to the 3 rd party is very high. In such scenarios, acceptance is the best option, and the project management plan is not changed in this strategy. This can be used for both threats as well as opportunities. Acceptance can be active or passive. Active acceptance is to establish a contingency reserve to deal with the threats. Passive acceptance requires no action. 153. Answer: Option C is correct. Most of the risks are identified during risk management process. The main objective is to identify risks and monitor risks. Identifying risk process is used to identify all the risks which affect the project and document their characteristics. Risk identification is an iterative process, new risks evolve as the project progresses, and it will continue throughout the project. Participants in the risk identification process are project manager, project team, SME, customers, stakeholders, end users and other risk management experts. Project team is involved in this process of risk identification for the purpose of ownership of risks as well as the responsibility of risk response actions. Major risk identification occurs during the planning process. 154. Answer: Option B is correct. The level of risk individual or group is willing to accept is known as risk appetite. Risk appetite: Acceptable level of risk an organization is willing to take in anticipation of the benefit arising from them. In general the risk attitude of organizations is classified into 3 themes which are risk appetite, risk tolerance and risk threshold. 155. Answer: Option C is correct. A risk owner implements the response strategies defined in the risk mitigation and risk contingency plans. 156. Answer: Option C is correct. Some of the tailoring considerations related to project risk management process are: Project size – depends on the size of the project in terms of resources, budget, scope need to customized the processes in risk management. Project complexity -- new technology, innovation projects needs and detailed risk approaches. Project importance -- if it is critical to the organization growth, addresses major issues, innovation, the processes can be customized. Development approach - depending on the project approach, waterfall or agile, the processes can be customized. 157. Answer: Option A is correct. SV – Schedule Variance. EV – Earned value. PV – Planned value. 87

AC – Actual cost. We know SV = EV – PV and CV = EV – AC So SV = 650 – 600 = 50, and CV = 650 – 500 = 150 Positive CV indicates, the project is under budget, and a positive SV indicates the project is ahead of schedule. 158. Answer: Option D is correct. The characteristics which are used to prioritize the risks are: Urgency - when the risk response can be implemented in the project, to be effective. Proximity - the period before the risk might have the impact on project objectives. Manageability - where managing the risk is easy to risk owner. Connectivity - the risk is relevant to other individual project risks. Detectability - risk occurrence can be detected easily. Dormancy - the period of time that may elapse after a risk has happened and before its impact is detected. Strategic impact - the effect of risk has major impacts on organization's goals. Controllability - where the outcome of the risk can be easily controlled. Propinquity - the risk which matters most to one or more stakeholders. 159. Answer: Option B is correct. In Delphi technique, the questionnaire is sent to risk experts and asking about the risks in the project, once the questionnaire is collected, it was recirculated again to reach the consensus in opinion. Delphi technique: This technique is used to get the opinions of experts. In this technique, instead of everybody in the same room, the questionnaire is sent to risk experts. Asking about the risks in the project. Once the questionnaire is collected, it is recirculated again to reach the consensus in opinion. It will take a few rounds to reach the consensus. In this technique, nobody knows about who else is involved in this process. 160. Answer: Option B is correct. Future value can be calculated from: PV = FV/(1+r)n PV – present value, FV – future value, r – rate of interest n – number of years FV/(1+r)n = PV, so FV = PV* (1+r)n =350000 * (1+0.8)4 =350000 * (1.08)4 =$4, 76,000 161. Answer: Option B is not a valid process in procurement management. Processes available in project procurement management are: Plan procurement management. Conduct procurements. Control procurements. 88

162. Answer: Option B is correct. As per the below calculations, it is better to make the product. 19,000 per week for 16 weeks = 19,000 * 16 =304,000 In house pay 35,000 for engineer + 15,000 per week for 16 weeks = 35000 + 15,000*16 = 2,75,000. Make it rather than buy. 163. Answer: Option D is correct. The main outputs of procurement management process are: Procurement management plan. Procurement strategy, bid documents. Procurement statement of work. Source selection criteria. Make or buy analysis. Independent cost estimates. Change requests. Selected sellers, agreements. Closed procurements. Work performance information. Project management plan updates, OPA updates, project document updates. 164. Answer: Option D is correct. SPI – schedule performance index, CPI – cost performance index. SPI 1.2 means the project is ahead of schedule, and the CPI 0.9 or less than one means the project is over budget. 165. Answer: Option B is correct. Number of years and cost are not relevant as they are accounted for in the calculation of net present value. Select the project with the highest NPV. In this case project C has the NPV value of $80,000 166. Answer: Option B is correct. The seller needs to analyze thoroughly the requirements, otherwise they need to provide more for the same fixed price. Fixed price contracts are suitable when the type of work is predictable and the requirements are well defined and not likely to change. It has more risk to the seller. Sometimes unexpected costs occur during the course of the project. Since the price is fixed on the contract, the seller is responsible for the unexpected additional expenses. The risk to the buyer in the contract is, if the seller won’t’ deliver the work. 167. Answer: Option C is correct. Incentive fees is used in cost-plus contracts to encourage the seller to increase performance of the work. Cost-plus contracts are suitable when the work is evolving, likely to change or not well defined. Incentives and awards may be used to align the objectives of the buyer and seller. 168. Answer: Option D is correct. Tom is involved in conduct procurements, Plan procurement management processes. 89

169. Answer: Option B is correct. Procurement audit: After closing the contract normally we used to go through it again to find out what happened on the project for the purpose of finding out what went wrong and updating the lessons learnt documents. It is a structured review of procurement process from plan procurement until the close procurements. 170. Answer: Option B is correct. The process of evaluating seller responses, selecting the seller and award the contract is known as conduct procurement. Conduct procurements process involves obtaining the seller responses for a project, and from the list selecting a seller. The selected seller has been awarded the contract. During conduct procurements, the project team will receive proposals from the sellers, and based on the predefined criteria the sellers are selected for the work. The main activities that happen in conduct procurement process are: Buyer finds the seller through advertisement, pre-qualified seller list, internet, and bidder conferences. Once the sellers are identified, the buyer sends the procurement document to the sellers. Buyer arranges meetings to clarify the sellers' questions. Once the clarifications are done at the seller end, they decide to bid for the work. Seller sends the proposals to the buyer. Buyer receives the proposals from seller and reviews the proposals using source selection criteria and scoring system. Buyer compares the price and other details submitted by the sellers. Once the buyer likes the seller proposals, they start negotiating with them. After the negotiation process, buyer and seller agrees and signs the contract. 171. Answer: Option C is correct. In cost plus fixed fees contract, the buyer is going to pay the seller costs involved in the project plus an agreeable amount on top of it. CPFF – cost plus fixed fee contract: In this type of contract, the buyer is going to pay the seller costs involved in the project plus an agreeable amount on top of it. This type of contract is risky to both the buyer and the seller. If the costs involved in the project are more than expected, the buyer needs to pay the additional costs incurred. The fixed fee on top of the costs incurred, sometimes not worth it for the seller. E.g.: costs incurred in the project + fixed amount of $20000. 172. Answer: Option D is correct. Independent estimates is the correct answer. Independent estimates: Sometimes the buyer won’t have expertise to evaluate the price quoted by the seller. In this type of situation, buyer approaches the 3 rd party to do the evaluation and the 3 rd party will come with the estimates of how much the project costs. It is provided by consulting services. The difference between the 3 rd party estimate and seller estimates, indicates that procurement statement of work is not up to the standard or the sellers misunderstood the procurement statement of work. 90

173. Answer: Option C is correct. In this type of contract seller is reimbursed with all the costs, but the main fee is earned based on the satisfaction of certain broad subjective performance criteria that is defined in the contract known as cost plus award fees contract. 174. Answer: Option C is correct. It is a type of procurement document, used to request proposals from prospective sellers of products or services. 175. Answer: Option B is correct. The procurement management process which involves the verification of the product and work and confirmation that are acceptable, finalize the open claims, update records, archiving all the information for future reference is known as conduct procurements. Conduct procurements process involves obtaining the seller responses for a project, and from the list selecting a seller. The selected seller is awarded the contract. During conduct procurements the project team will receive proposals from sellers, and based on the predefined criteria the sellers are selected for the work. Main activities that happen in conduct procurement process are: Buyer finds the seller through advertisement, pre-qualified seller list, internet, and bidder conferences. Once the sellers are found, the buyer sends the procurement document to the sellers. Buyer arrange meetings to clarify the sellers' questions. Once the clarifications are done at the seller end, they decide to bid for the work. Seller sends the proposals to the buyer. Buyer receives the proposals from the sellers and reviews the proposals using source selection criteria and scoring system. Buyer compares the price and other details submitted by the sellers. Once the buyer like the seller proposals, they start negotiating with them. After the negotiation process, buyer and seller agrees and signs the contract. 176. Answer: Option B is not a valid process. Valid processes in stakeholder management are: Identify stakeholders. Plan stakeholder engagement. Manage stakeholder engagement. Monitor stakeholder engagement. 177. Answer: Option C is correct. Savings = 70 % * 200,000 = 140,000 Cost = 30 % * - 100,000 = -30,000 Emv = 140,000 – 30,000 = 110,000 178. Answer: Option D is correct. Outputs of stakeholder management process are: Stakeholder register. Change requests. Stakeholder engagement plan. Work performance information. 91

Project management plan updates. Project documents updates. 179. Answer: Option B is correct. Stakeholder’s engagement levels are classified into: Unaware : stakeholders are unaware of the project and the impacts. Resistant : stakeholders are aware of the project and its potential impacts, and opposed to change. Neutral : stakeholders are aware of the project and its impacts, they are neither supportive nor resistant. Supportive : stakeholders are aware of the project and its impacts, and supportive to change. Leading : stakeholders are aware of the project and its impacts, actively engaged in the project to make it a success. 180. Answer: Option D is correct. Classification models used in stakeholder analysis are: 1. Power/interest grid : This is based on the level of authority and their level of interest on the project outcome. 2. power/influence grid: This model is based on the level of authority or power and their active involvement in the project. 3. Influence/impact grid: This model is based on grouping stakeholders based on their involvement in the project and their ability to effect changes to the project’s planning or execution. 4. Salience model: This is based on the power, urgency and their involvement in the project. 181. Answer: Option D is correct. Stakeholder assignment engagement matrix is used to find out the current engagement level and the desired engagement level of stakeholders for the project. Stakeholder assignment engagement matrix: It is used to find out the current engagement level and the desired engagement level of stakeholders for the project. Current engagement level by stakeholders is shown as “C” and the desired engagement levels are shown as “D”. This matrix used to find the gaps in engagement levels and actions and communications are taken to close the gap between the current state and desired future state of engagement. 182. Answer: Option B is not correct. Valid strategies to deal with threat are: Accept. Avoid. Escalate. Transfer. Mitigate. 183. Answer: Option A is correct. Earned value is greater than the PV, which indicates the project is ahead of schedule. AC is smaller than EV that indicates the project is under budget. 184. Answer: Option D is correct. Classification model in stakeholder analysis is based on the power, 92

urgency and their involvement in the project known as salience model. Classification models used in stakeholder analysis are: 1. Power/interest grid : This is based on the level of authority and their level of interest on the project outcome. 2. power/influence grid: This model is based on the level of authority or power and their active involvement in the project. 3. Influence/impact grid: This model is based on grouping stakeholders based on their involvement in the project and their ability to effect changes to the project’s planning or execution. 4. Salience model: This is based on the power, urgency and their involvement in the project. 185. Answer: Option C is correct. Stakeholder register is used to identify all the internal and external stakeholders who have interest and influence on the project. It is used to identify the stakeholders involved in the project who can provide information related to the requirements. Also it contains the key requirements for the project. It contains the stakeholder information and their communication needs and requirements. 186. Answer: Option B is correct. Sam can purchase the insurance, since the cost of damage is more than the cost of insurance. Cost of damage is 5 % of 600,000 = 30,000. Cost of insurance = 15,000. Better purchase the insurance. 187. Answer: Option D is correct. Currently has 11 members including her. Number of channels, n(n-1)/2 = 11(11-1)/2 = 11*10/2 = 55 If you add 4 members then, 11+4 = 15 members 15 (15-1)/2 = 15*14/2 =105 So she will have 105 -55 = 50 more channels after adding new members. 188. Answer: Option C is not correct. Strategies for opportunities are: Escalate. Exploit. Share. Enhance. Accept. 189. Answer: Option C is correct. Stakeholder who has low power or influence and has low interest in the ongoing project should be monitored. 190. Answer: Option B is not a valid option. Valid inputs to plan stakeholder management are: 93

Project charter. Project management plan. Project documents. Agreements. EEF. OPA. 191. Answer: Option D is correct. Change requests can be made for the purpose of: Corrective action: Actions taken to bring the project back in line with the project management plan. Preventive action: Actions taken to reduce the risk in the project. Defect repair: actions taken to modify the product. Updates: Changes to the formal project related documents. 192. Answer: Option D is correct. Project manager competencies are: Technical project management. Leadership. Strategic and business management. 193. Answer: Option C is correct. 2 years ➔ total 8 quarters → each quarter inflow $30,000 → for 2 years 8 * 30,000 = 2, 40,000 Remaining investment = 600000 – 240000 = 360,000. After 2 years the payback is $90,000 per quarter, so for the amount 360,000 will be 4 quarters (12 months). Total payback time is 36 months or 3 years. 194. Answer: Option D is correct. Decomposition: This technique subdivides the project deliverables into more manageable pieces. The work package is the lowest level in the WBS. Project cost and project duration is estimated at the work package level. Dividing the deliverables into work packages depends on the complexity of the project. Decomposition involves: Analyze the deliverables. Organize the WBS. Decompose the WBS into more manageable components. Assign the identification codes to the decomposed components. 195. Answer: Option A is correct. EAC = AC + (BAC- EV) BAC = 90,000 94

EAC = 30,000 + (90000 – 35000) = 85000 196. Answer: Option B is correct. Opportunity cost for Project X is the value of project Y or 200,000. 197. Answer: Option D is correct. Problem solving involves the following elements. Define the problem. Identify the root-cause. Generating possible solutions. Choosing the best solution. Implementing the solution. Verifying solution effectiveness. 198. Answer: Option D is correct. Change control tools should support the following change management activities. Identify changes, Document changes. Decide on changes. Track changes. 199. Answer: Option C is correct. It covers the cost of additional work in the project to accommodate quality related activities. E.g.: training employees, follow the standards to ensure quality and quality control activities. Cost of quality consists of one or more of the following costs: Preventive costs. Appraisal costs. Failure costs. 200. Answer: Option D is correct. Commonly used source selection methods are: Least cost. Qualifications only. Quality based/highest technical proposal score. Quality and cost based. Sole source. Fixed budget.

95

Match the Following: 130 Questions with answers: 1

PMO’s functionality

A

Projects has definite start and end, operations are ongoing, and does the repeatable job.

2

Characteristics of project charter are

B

Directive structure

3

Examples of work performance data

C

manages the methodologies, strategies, risks and opportunities, interdependencies for the entire organization

4

Projects and operations the difference is

D

From support functions to the complete responsibility for the project.

5

The project manager

E

Project manager controls the resources in the project to achieve the goals. In the PMO optimizes the shared resources between the projects.

6

The PMO structure in which the level of control over the projects is high

F

Number of defects in the cycle. Number of change requests in the iteration Actual costs, Duration of the cycle Key performance indicators

7

The role of PMO

G

Organizational strategy

8

The PMO structure in which the level of control over the projects is low

H

Supportive structure.

9

Regarding the resources the difference between the project manager and PMO

I

Manages the constraints like schedule, cost, quality, scope, quality and risk in the project.

10

provides guidance and direction to project management in an organization

J

High level requirements, Business needs Assumptions and constraints, Budget Project justification, Milestones Stakeholder information, Sponsor PM assignment & their authority level, Risks

Answer: 1. D, 2. J, 3.F, 4. A, 5. I, 6.B, 7.C, 8.H, 9.E, 10.G.

96

1

Key elements of project governance framework are,

A

Once the project work is done, the project team is disbanded, When the work is complete, the team members don’t have departments to go back.

2

Benefits management plan describes key elements of the benefits includes

B

Weak matrix organization.

3

The advantages of functional organization are

C

Provides comprehensive, consistent method of controlling the project and helps project success by documenting, communicating reliable and repeatable project practices.

4

Expeditor and project coordinators won’t exist in this type of organization

D

High at the beginning of the project and decrease during the course of the project.

5

Power of project manager is similar to expeditor and project coordinators in

E

Conflict may happens between functional manager and project manager over the priority, 2 bosses are difficult to report for the team, Resource allocation is difficult.

6

disadvantages of projectized organization are

F

Decision making processes, Relationship between the stakeholders, Project lifecycle approach, Process to identify, resolve and escalate issues, Acceptance criteria,

7

Project governance

G

Overlapping relationship

8

Risk and uncertainty

H

Projectized

9

This relationship increase the risk and need more resources to do the work done in parallel.

I

Career path is well defined, One manager to report, Resources are grouped by specialty

10

Disadvantages of matrix organization

J

Target benefits, strategic alignment, metrics, assumptions, risks, timeframe for realizing benefits, benefits owner

Answer: 1. F, 2. J, 3. I, 4. H, 5.B, 6.A, 7. C, 8.D, 9. G, 10. E. 97

1

Business case can present the 3 options regarding the project addressing the problem or opportunity

A

Actual work is done as per the project management plan, Determine performance, implement change control request for preventive, corrective action and defect repair, select the seller, Determine the needs for training

2

Activities happens during planning process

B

Obtain formal sign-off from customer for the project or phase, Conduct post-project review, Measure customer satisfaction, Archive project records and documents, Document lessons learned, Update organizational project assets, Transfer products to operations, Release the team, close the contract.

3

Activities happens during execution process

C

input

4

Activities happens during monitor & control process

D

Project management plan, scope management plan, schedule management plan, cost management plan, quality management plan, resource management plan, communication management plan, risk management plan, procurement management plan, and stakeholder management plan.

5

Activities happens during closing process

E

Executing process group.

6

Item either internal or external that needs to complete the work required by the process

F

measure progress and performance, find out the variance, and recommend preventive and corrective actions through change control, project management plan updates manage schedule and cost, progress report and status report to stakeholders, document and analyze and monitor the risks

98

7

The plans developed during the planning phase are

G

8

Implement the changes from change control board, which includes preventive action, corrective action and defective repair happens during

H

Do nothing Do the minimum possible to address the problem or opportunity Do more than the minimum to address the problem or opportunity Closing process group.

9

Index and archive the project records happens during

I

Executing process group.

10

Team member performance assessment happens during

J

Create project scope statement Develop the project management plan Define the roles and responsibilities for team, Develop WBS,WBS dictionary, Define and sequence activities Estimate time, cost to complete the activities

Answer: 1. G, 2.J, 3. A, 4. F, 5. B, 6.C, 7. D, 8. I, 9. H, 10. E

99

Project Integration Management: 1

Monitor and control process deals with

A

Business case

2

Change control board

B

Perform quality assurance

3

It contains the information regarding whether or not the project is worth for the investment

C

Brainstorming, problem solving, and conflict resolution.

4

It is the subset of PMIS which contains different versions and characteristics of the product is called as

D

Used to confirm the project deliverables meet the quality standards defined.

5

The process that makes sure the project team is using the correct processes is called

E

Expert judgment

6

Some of the analytical techniques used during monitor and control project work are

F

Responsible for approving/rejecting the change, Board members include SME, customer, sponsor, project manager etc.

7

Formal documented procedure to explain how to authorize and initiate the work in right sequence and at right time is called as

G

Comparing actual performances against the baseline, If the actual performance varies from baseline corrective action is taken to maintain the baselines specified in the plan, Provides information for status reports, Monitor the risks, Monitor the approved changes, Forecast on schedule, costs etc. Provide reports to the stakeholders involved in the project.

8

Project help/guidance provided by outside consultants, SME, PMO, stakeholders, professional associations is called as

H

Work authorization system.

9

Commonly used facilitation techniques are

I

Variance analysis, Trend analysis Grouping methods, Regression analysis Earned value measurement Reserve analysis, Root cause analysis Failure mode and effect analysis Fault tree analysis.

10

Control quality

J

Configuration management system

100

Answer: 1. G, 2. F, 3.A, 4.J, 5.B, 6.I, 7.H, 8. E, 9.C, 10.D.

101

PROJECT SCOPE MANAGEMENT: 1

In this technique develop as many options possible and identify the different approached to do the work.

A

Used to get formal acceptance from customers.

2

Decomposition technique involves,

B

The features and functionality of the product

3

WBS Dictionary contains

C

At the end of every phase

4

Verify scope

D

Alternative generation.

5

Requirements documentation contains

E

Affinity diagram

6

Product scope

F

Requirements documentation, requirements traceability matrix.

7

The diagram which is used to handle Ideas generated from any other requirement collection technique grouped together based on similarities is called as

G

Analyze the deliverables Organize the WBS Decompose the WBS into more manageable components Assign the identification codes to the decomposed components

8

Validate scope is done

H

Nominal group technique.

9

Outputs of collect requirements

I

Business requirements Stakeholder requirements Solution requirements, Transition requirements, Any assumptions, risks, constraints, Quality requirements Business rules, Acceptance criteria

10

The technique which is used to vote and prioritize the ides generated during brainstorming session is called as

J

a unique identifier called code of account identifier, assumptions and constraints acceptance criteria, schedule, cost estimates, description about the work needs to be done, team responsible to do the work quality requirements

Answer: 1. D, 2. G, 3.J, 4. A, 5.I, 6.B, 7.E, 8.C, 9.F, 10.H.

102

PROJECT SCHEDULE MANAGEMENT 1

This activity occurs before the dependent activity & the dependent activity that comes after another activity is called as

A

Early Start, Early finish

2

The amount time that the project team gives to a successor task to get started before the predecessor task is finished.

B

Resources are available only at certain duration, Resources are available in limited quantity, To keep utilization of resource at constant level.

3

It is the earliest time an activity can start, It is the earliest time an activity can finish called as

C

Fast tracking adds risk to the project, crashing adds cost to the project because adding resources to do the work fast.

4

Control schedule mainly used

D

Predecessor activity, Successor activity

5

Usage of network diagrams

E

Analogous estimation

6

Resource leveling is used when

F

Parametric estimation

7

Except control schedule process all the process in the time management are done in, and control schedule is done in

G

Lead time.

8

Difference between fast tracking and crashing

H

To define the logical relationship between the activities, shows the project progress at any point of time, Used to compress the schedule and calculate the critical path and near critical path.

9

It uses the parameters from previous project such as cost, duration, complexity, size of the project as a basis of estimate the activity durations, this estimation technique is called as

I

Planning process, monitor and control process group.

10

The level of accuracy is better in this method, and it use mathematical model, formulas are used for cost and time estimates

J

To find out the current status of project schedule, Influencing factors that create schedule changes,

103

Manage the changes as they occur. Answer: 1. D, 2. G, 3. A, 4. J, 5. H, 6. B, 7.I, 8.C, 9.E, 10.F

104

PROJECT COST MANAGEMENT 1

Analytical techniques like return on investment, payback period, and internal rate of return, net present value, and discounted cash flow are used to develop

A

Cost aggregation.

2

Cost management plan includes

B

Schedule variance: EV – PV, negative means behind schedule, positive means ahead of schedule, Cost variance :EV –AC , negative means over budget, positive is under budget, Schedule performance Index: EV/PV, Greater than one is good, less than one is not Cost performance Index: EV/AC, Greater than one is good, less than one is not

3

Factors considered for estimation are

C

The cost of work spent to the project to accommodate the quality efforts

4

To create budget, activity costs are rolled up into work package costs. Then work package costs are rolled up into control account costs, and then final project costs. It is called as

D

Rent, utility bills – fixed cost Wages, cost of material, supplies – variable cost Salary for the team, training the team – direct cost Taxes - indirect cost

5

Cost of quality

E

Sunk cost – is the money already spent on the project Opportunity cost – value of the project which is not chosen, so that the money can be spent on the other project.

6

Schedule variance, cost variance, schedule performance index, cost performance index can be calculated from,

F

Lifecycle costing

7

Examples of fixed cost, variable cost, direct cost, and indirect cost are

G

Funding limit reconciliation

8

Sunk cost and opportunity cost can be defined as

H

cost management plan

9

reconcile the funding limits according to

I

Levels of accuracy needs for the estimates

105

Level of precision Unit of measure Control thresholds Units of measure Reporting format used Rules for measuring the performance

the funds allocated for the project called as

10

Total cost of the product from development to support the product after it is in market

Answer: 1. H, 2. I, 3.J, 4.A, 5.C, 6.B, 7.D, 8. E, 9.G, 10.F

106

J

Buy vs lease ,Make vs buy ,Resource sharing, Cost trade-offs, Risks

PROJECT QUALITY MANAGEMENT 1

The quality theories, The product to build need to be fits on customer needs, The built product needs to satisfy the stated and implied requirements, It is based on the concept of continuous improvement are

A

Design of experiments

2

Example of Cost of conformance to requirements and Cost of non-conformance to requirements are

B

failure rate, availability, reliability, failure rate, number of defects

3

Examples of quality metrics are

C

flowcharts

4

The output of manage quality process are,

D

Fitness for use: The product to build need to be fits on customer needs, Conformance to requirements: The built product needs to satisfy the stated and implied requirements, PDCA (plan-do-check-act):It is based on the concept of continuous improvement

5

The technique which is to identify which factors may have the influence on the product or process outcome called as

E

Affinity diagram

6

This technique weighs the cost of the quality activities against the gain due to the efforts called as

F

Process analysis

7

The chart display the sequence of steps, branching in the process that transforms one or more inputs into one or more output & shows activities, decision points, loops, parallel paths, order of processing, interrelationship between elements in the process is called as

G

Training cost, testing are examples of cost of conformance, Rework, repairs, complaints are examples of cost of non-conformance.

8

analyze the non-value added activities, identify the underlying cause of the issue, and develop preventive actions, and it is called as

H

PDPC (Process decision program charts)

107

9

The diagram which is used to structure and group the results of root-cause analysis in the quality assurance process, and based on that we can decide if there is need to change the policies, procedures to address the issue

I

Quality reports, change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, test and evaluate documents.

10

The chart used to create contingency plans in a project and also helps the project team in anticipating the contingency plan to mitigate the risk

J

Cost-benefit analysis

Answer: 1. D, 2.G, 3.B, 4. I, 5.A, 6.J, 7.C, 8.F, 9.E, 10. H

108

PROJECT RESOURCE MANAGEMENT 1

In this technique members of the project team are selected in advance before the project start and they are guaranteed for the project due to their experience, skills and the project is dependent on their expertise.

A

Virtual team to do the work.

2

Types of hierarchical charts are

B

Plan human resource managementplanning Acquire resources – executing Develop team – executing Manage team - executing

3

In this technique considering couple of factors and decide who should be on the project team. This technique is called as

C

Motivation to resolve conflict on a short or long-term basis, Position of those involved in the conflict resolution, Time restriction to resolve the conflict, Important and intensity of conflict

4

When team members are located in different locations, the project manager can use

D

Pre-assignment

5

The number and type of resources needed can be find using the vertical bar chart in the staffing management plan is called,

E

Coaching, consensus, delegating, influencing, consultative, autocratic and facilitating

6

The 6 processes in the plan human resource management and their corresponding process groups are

F

Collaborate/problem solving and withdraw/avoid

7

Some of the management/leadership styles available in organization are

G

resource management plan, team performance assessments, change requests, team charter

8

Win/win and lose/lose situation happens to both the parties in this type of conflict resolution technique

H

Resource histogram

9

Factors influencing conflict resolution methods are

I

RBS,OBS and WBS

10

The main outputs of resource management processes are

J

Multicriteria decision analysis

109

Answer: 1. D, 2.I, 3.J, 4.A, 5.H, 6.B, 7.E, 8.F, 9. C, 10.G

110

PROJECT COMMUNICATIONS MANAGEMENT 1

Examples of Formal written, Formal verbal, Informal written, Informal verbal,

A

Active listening.

2

Improper communication results in

B

Interactive communications

3

Every message communicated has been go through the process

C

progress reports

4

Information management systems

D

Hard copy documents, Electronic communications, Electronic tools for project management

5

The listener uses both verbal and nonverbal clues like nodding or repeating the words to communicate that the message has been received by the receiver is called as

E

Delay in the message reaching the audience, Misunderstanding of the message communicated

6

Plan communication management has 3 process namely plan communication management, manage communications and monitor communications, and all the 3 process groups are

F

Push communication

7

2 or more parties involved in this type of communication and it is very efficient to ensure common understanding of messages by all the participants

G

complex issues, and technical details, contract, updates to the project management plan, presentations, conferences and speeches, email, text messaging, notes, conversation, discussions

8

The report shows what has been achieved in the project until now,

H

Encode – Transmit message – Decode – Acknowledge – Feedback/Response.

9

In this communication method sender sends the information to the corresponding parties, but didn’t expect feedback or it is understood by them

I

Provides a set of tools to capture, store and distribute information related to the cost of the project, schedule update and performance.

10

Tools used in information management system are

J

Planning, executing, monitor and control

111

Answer: 1. G, 2.E, 3.H, 4.I, 5.A, 6.J, 7.B, 8.C, 9. F 10.D

112

PROJECT RISK MANAGEMENT 1

All the risk management process are in the planning process group except

A

Workaround

2

Risk register contains

B

Risk owner

3

Perform qualitative risk analysis and perform quantitative risk analysis the difference is

C

Analysis helps to find the difference between what was planned and what is happening. Analysis identifies the trends in the performance. Deviation from the baseline indicates the potential impact of threat or opportunities.

4

Unplanned risk responses developed to deal with the unexpected risks are called

D

Monitor risks process. It is in the monitor and control process group.

5

Example of diagramming techniques and information gathering techniques are

E

Influence diagram

6

The person responsible for implementing the actions defined in mitigation and contingency plan in risk management

F

List of risks List of potential response to the risks Root cause of risks Risk by category Risk owner, secondary risk,

7

Warning signs that the project risk is about to happen in the project is called as

G

Reserve analysis

8

Variance and trend analysis

H

Risk triggers

9

This technique used to find the contingency reserves allocated are sufficient at any point in the project. It compares the risk remaining vs the amount of contingency reserve fund available to deal the risks.

I

Perform qualitative risk analysis is the process to prioritized the risks for further analysis by assessing their probability and impact. Perform quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objective.

10

It is a graphical representation of influencers that may influence others that will affect the project.

J

Cause & effect diagram, process flow charts, influence diagram and brainstorming, Delphi technique, interviews, root cause analysis.

113

Answer: 1. D, 2.F, 3.I, 4.A, 5.J, 6.B, 7.H, 8.C, 9.G, 10.E

114

PROJECT PROCUREMENT MANAGEMENT 1

Activities done during the plan procurement process

A

Control procurements

2

The factors to be considered during the make or buy analysis

B

Conduct bidder conference, Clear the doubts that sellers have, Select the seller by using the evaluation criteria, Negotiate with the seller, Award the contract

3

Procurement management plan includes,

C

Plan procurement management – planning Conduct procurements – executing Control procurements – monitor and control Close procurements - closing

4

Ensures both the buyer and sellers performance meets procurement requirements and both meets contractual obligations.

D

Independent estimates

5

Close procurement process involves

E

Buyer evaluates the potential sellers and select one, Finalize the make or buy decision, Review the contract types and select the contract type which is appropriate for the project, Create the procurement statement of work, Source selection criteria, Procurement management plan creation

6

Conduct procurement involves

F

how much it will cost to build compared to buy it, How the decision which we choose will impact other constraints scope, schedule etc., Contract types available, Availability of resources, If a purchase decision is made, then consider whether to lease or purchase, Consider both direct and indirect costs

7

The document which informs sellers to

G

Bidder conference

115

submit the proposals, Document sent to sellers to request information about their capacity to do the work Give the seller an opportunity to examine the procurement documents and prepare the proposal 8

The 3 processes in the procurement management processes are done in the process groups

H

the verification of the product and work and confirm that are acceptable, finalize the open claims, update records, Archiving all the information for future reference.

9

In this technique all the bidders can compete in unbiased manner, and it provides all the vendors the information about requirements, and answers all their questions

I

IFB,RFI,RFP,

10

Sometimes the buyer won’t have expertise to evaluate the price quoted by the seller. In this type of situation buyer approaches the 3 rd party to do the evaluation and the 3 rd party will come with the estimates of how much the project costs and this technique is called as

J

Different contract types used, Metrics to measure the vendor performance, How the seller selection will be handled, Planned delivery date, List of pre-qualified vendors, Any assumptions and constraints related to the procurements, Handling leading times, Handling make/buy decisions

Answer: 1. E, 2.F, 3. J, 4.A, 5.H, 6.B, 7.I, 8.C, 9. G, 10.D

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PROJECT STAKEHOLDER MANAGEMENT 1

Stakeholder management plan provides

A

Stakeholder register, stakeholder engagement plan, work performance information, change requests

2

The activities in manage stakeholder management process are

B

Name, title, classification, expectation, information needs, roles,

3

Information management system

C

Based on grouping stakeholders based on their involvement in the project and their ability to effect changes to the project’s planning or execution. Based on the power, urgency and their involvement in the project.

4

The 4 stakeholders management processes are identify stakeholders, plan stakeholder management, manage stakeholder engagement, monitor stakeholder engagement are done in the process groups called

D

Stakeholder communication requirements, Required engagement levels of the stakeholders by different stages of the project, Information needs of stakeholders. Time and frequency of distribution of information to stakeholders.

5

The main outputs of stakeholder management are

E

Based on the level of authority and their level of interest on the project outcome. Based on the level of authority or power and their active involvement in the project.

6

Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix is the technique used in

F

Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix

7

Stakeholder register has the information such as

G

Manage stakeholder expectation through negotiation and communication, Engage stakeholders throughout the project life cycle to get commitment from them, Resolve issues and concerns proactively

8

Used to find the gaps in engagement levels and actions and communications are taken to close the gap between the current state and desired future state of engagement

H

Plan stakeholder management

117

9

Power/interest grid classification model based on, and power/influence grid classification model is based on,

I

It provides the tools to capture, store and distribute information to stakeholders related to project performance, scope, cost, and schedule and also consolidates information from various systems and send reports to stakeholders

10

Influence/impact grid and Salience model based on

J

Initiating, planning, executing, monitor and control

Answer: 1. D, 2.G, 3.I, 4.J, 5.A, 6.H, 7.B, 8.F, 9.E, 10.C

118

Formulas used in Calculations: Project X, which would yield $250,000 in benefits instead of project Y, which would yield $200,000. What is the opportunity cost for selecting project X over Project Y? The opportunity cost for Project X is the value of project Y or 200,000. SPI 1.2 means the project is ahead of schedule, and the CPI 0.9 or less than one means the project is over budget. Earned value is greater than the PV (Planned value) which indicates the project is ahead of schedule. AC (Actual cost) is smaller than EV (Earned value) that indicates the project is under budget. Number of years and cost are not relevant as they are accounted for the in calculation of net present value. Select the project with the highest NPV (Net Present value). Rough order of magnitude (-25 percent to 75 percent). EMV (estimated monitor value) can be calculated by multiplying the probability and impact. EMV = Probability * Impact Schedule Variance SV = EV - PV Cost Variance CV = EV - AC Positive CV indicates, the project is under budget, and a positive SV indicates the project is ahead of schedule. Cost Performance Index CPI = EV / AC (EV – earned value, AC – Actual cost) Payback Period = Initial Investment / Periodic Cash flow PV = FV/ (1+r) n PV - present value, FV - future value, r - rate of interest n - number of years FV/ (1+r) n = PV, so FV = PV* (1+r) n Estimate To Complete (ETC) = EAC - AC Earned value (EV) = % complete * Budget at Completion (BAC) SPI 1.2 means the project is ahead of schedule, and the CPI 0.9 or less than one means the project is over budget. Select the project with the highest NPV (Net Present Value) PERT Formula: (P + 4M + O) / 6 119

P – Pessimistic estimate, O – optimistic estimate, M – Most Likely estimate Standard Deviation = (Pessimistic estimation – Optimistic estimation) / 6 Number of channels in communication: n (n-1)/2 EAC = AC + (BAC- EV) EAC = BAC/ CPI Variance at Completion (VAC) = BAC - EAC TCPI (To Complete Performance Index) = (BAC – EV)/ (EAC – AC) Return of Investment ROI = (Net profit/ cost of investment)/ 100

120

PMI-ACP® (AGILE CERTIFIED PRACTITIONER) PRACTICE EXAMS: 1. Which of the below choice is correct about continuous integration? A. The code changes are checked into version control after every iteration. B. The code changes are checked in for every release. C. The code changes are checked in and tested every day. D. The code changes are checked in once the project is complete. 1. Answer: C Explanation: Option C is the correct answer. One risk mitigation technique used in an agile environment that developers need to continuously integrate their code to verify recent changes haven't broken the base code, which is already developed. Continuous Integration helps to find code issues as soon as possible. 2. Wireframe models used to help the agile teams with A. It helps to elicit requirements that regular personas might miss. B. A fictional user of the system under development C. Confirm the created design. D. None of the above. 2. Answer: C Explanation: Wireframes are simplified block diagrams that show the placement of elements in a user interface and demonstrate the intended layout and functionality of a solution. Option C is the correct answer. Option A is for Extreme persona. Option B is defined for Persona. 3. One of the below is the valid list of emotional intelligence quadrants, A. None of the below. B. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing. C. Self, Others, Recognize, Regulate. D. Self, Others, Regulate, Recognize. 3. Answer: D Explanation: Option D is the correct answer. Option B is for the team formation stages. Option C is not correct. 4. One of the choices given below denotes dysfunctions of a team A. Absence of trust. B. Inattention to results. C. Lack of commitment. D. All of the above. 4. Answer: D Explanation: Option D is the correct answer. The main dysfunctions of the agile team are the absence of trust, inattention to results, lack of commitment, fear of conflict, and avoidance of 121

accountability. 5. List the steps used in the estimating process, A. Determine the size of the project. ` B. Calculate the work effort to do the work. C. Convert the work effort into the schedule. D. All of the above. 5. Answer: D Explanation: Option D is the correct answer. The typical steps used in estimating process are determining the size of the project, calculate the work effort to do the work in hours, convert the work effort into the schedule, and calculate the cost. 6. In the current iteration, the agile team committed for 20 story points. But during the last day of the iteration looks like they have completed only 15 story points. As an agile manager, what is your reaction? A. Ignore the situation. B. Complete the 15 story points and keep the remaining five story points in the backlog. C. Cancel the current iteration. D. Extend the iteration duration. 6. Answer: B Explanation: Option B is the correct answer. Iteration is always time-boxed, and duration should not be extended. In this situation, the team should complete the 15 story points and keep the remaining 5 points in the backlog. 7. One of the following is correct about progressive elaboration, A. Detailed planning occurs at the beginning. B. No planning in progressive elaboration. C. Detailed plan occurs as more details emerge in the project. D. None of the above. 7. Answer: C Explanation: progressive elaboration is a process of refining the product vision so that the highest priority features are developed. In this planning occurs in phases rather than all at the beginning. Plan at high level in the beginning and detailed planning occurs close to the project. 8. One of the options given below is the common failure modes, A. Prefer to fail conservatively. B. Making mistakes. C. Being inconsistent. D. All of the above. 8. Answer: D Explanation: Option D is the correct answer. The common failure modes are making 122

mistakes, being inconsistent, being creatures of habit, prefer to fail conservatively. 9. A short period of proof-of-concept work is called as, A. Risk-based-spike. B. User story. C. TDD (Test-driven development). D. None of the above. 9. Answer: A Explanation: Option A is the correct answer. A short period of a proof-of-concept of work is called risk-based-spike. Option B and Option D are not right. 10. One of the benefits of retrospectives for the agile team, A. Improved productivity B. Improved quality. C. Improved capacity. D. All of the above. 10. Answer: D Explanation: Option D is the correct answer. The benefits of retrospectives of the agile team are improved productivity, improved quality, improved capacity, and improved capability. 11. One of the activities to help to set the stage in the retrospective process is, A. Focus on/Focus off B. ESVP C. Check-in D. All of the above. 11. Answer: D Explanation: Option D is the correct answer. In the Retrospective process the activities, help to set the stage is Focus on / Focus off, ESVP, working agreements, and check-in. 12. In ESVP (Explorers, Shoppers, Vacationers, Prisoners), the definition of Vacationers is defined as, A. They are eager to discover new ideas and insights. B. They find all the available information & have a new idea based on that. C. Vacationers are not interested in the retrospective work, to get away from the regular job they participate in the retrospective session. D. They feel like they are forced to attend the retrospective session. 12. Answer: C Explanation: Option C is the correct answer for vacationers. Option A is for Explorers. Option B is for shoppers. Option D is for Prisoners. 13. Lessons learnt happens during, 123

A. During only the first few iterations. B. During the product demo. C. Throughout the project duration. D. Only after the project failure during the post review session. 13. Answer: C Explanation: Option C is the correct answer. Lessons learnt should be captured throughout the project from the team. If something good or bad happens during the project, the team remembers when it is fresh, and forget critical details after some time. 14. Agile project teams do the planning at three levels named as, A. Schedule, cost, quality B. Release, iteration, retrospective. C. Release, Iteration, Daily. D. None of the above. 14. Answer: C Explanation: Option C is the correct answer. Three levels of planning are release, iteration, and daily. Other options A, B, and D are not correct. 15. One of the following is a central repository that helps to track changes and save changes and provides the history of changes. A. Release plan. B. Product vision box. C. Version control system. D. None of the above. 15. Answer: C Explanation: The Version control system is a central repository that helps to track changes and save changes and provides the history of changes. Other options are not correct. 16. The total number of story points planned for a release is called, A. None of the below. B. Release baseline. C. Schedule baseline. D. Performance measurement baseline 16. Answer: D Explanation: Performance measurement baseline is defined as the total number of story points planned for a release. Other options are not correct. 17. The main reason for most of the product failures are, A. Technical risk. B. Inefficient quality control. C. Market risk. 124

D. None of the above. 17. Answer: C. Explanation: The reason for product failure is market risk. None of the reasons given insignificant compared to market risk. 18. The Waterfall approach is called as, and agile approach is called as, A. Active, Reactive. B. Not flexible, Flexible. C. Plan driven, Value-driven. D. All of the above. 18. Answer: C. Explanation: In the waterfall (traditional) approach, everything is planned. It is called a Plan driven approach. An agile approach to the most valuable requirements to the customer are delivered; first, it is called value-driven approach. Other given options are not correct. 19. When it is necessary to split a user story A. Whenever the project manager thinks to split the story. B. Not necessary to split the user story. C. The user story is large to fit within a single iteration. D. All of the above. 19. Answer: C Explanation: Sometimes, the user story is too large to fit into a single iteration. At those times, we need to split the user story. 20. The agile triangle constraints are, A. Time, Cost, Scope B. Value, Quality, Constraint C. Both of the above. D. Both A and B are wrong 20. Answer: B Explanation: Agile triangle relates to value, quality, and constraint. Time, Cost, Scope is related to traditional management. 21. The process to minimize the work-in-process and maximize the business value is called, A. XP B. ITIL C. None of the above. D. Lean 21. Answer: D. Explanation: Value stream mapping is a lean tool used to analyze the value stream by means of eliminating waste, and minimize the work-in-process and maximize the value. 125

22. The list of capabilities, stories, features that the product team identified is called, A. Backlog. B. User stories. C. Capacity. D. All of the above. 22. Answer: A. Explanation: The list of capabilities, stories, features that the product team identified is called a backlog. It used to be maintained by the team, led/prioritized by the product owner. 23. The usage of story cards in agile, A. provides info about who is working in the team. B. Both C and D. C. It provides estimates about the stories. D. It provides basic information about stories. 23. Answer: D. Explanation: Story cards are used to provide necessary information about user stories like requirements, acceptance criteria, etc. Acceptance criteria are written on the back of the story card. 24. The least preferred contract type of agile project is, A. Time & Materials Contract B. Phased contract. C. Agile iteration contract. D. Firm Fixed Price Contract. 24. Answer: D. Explanation: Firm fixed-price contract is the least preferred contract type of agile projects. In this contract, the price is fixed, but agile welcome changes even at the last minute also. So it is difficult to accommodate changes in this type of contract. 25. Remove obstacles for the team is the responsibility of scrum master. By removing obstacles, we are eliminating A. Roadblocks. B. Impediments. C. Project Risk. D. None of the above. 25. Answer: C Explanation: By the way, removing obstacles/impediments, we are eliminating the risk of the agile project. 26. Risk mitigation technique that happens due to continuously integrate the code changes and confirm the changes to the code has not broken the base code is called, A. None of the below. 126

B. Pair programming. C. Continuous migration. D. Continuous integration. 26. Answer: D Explanation: Continuous integration is one of the risk mitigation techniques used in an agile environment that developers need to continuously integrate their code to verify recent changes haven't broken the base code, which is already developed. 27. The diagram which reduces risk due to workload imbalance by spreading it more evenly is called as, A. Pareto chart. B. Burn up chart. C. Cumulative Flow diagram. D. Burn down chart. 27. Answer: C Explanation: CFD, reduces risk due to workload imbalance by spreading it more evenly. This chart gives a quick overview of what is going in the project. We can find how much work is done, ongoing work, unfinished work, etc. It is used where the bottlenecks are there in the workflow. Through CFD, we can track how long it will take to deliver the desired results, the total size of the backlog is reduced or constant or increasing. 28. A meeting which is for the team and by the team, in which the team choose the topic to discuss is called as, A. Iteration planning meeting. B. Open space meeting. C. Retrospective meeting. D. Daily standup meeting. 28. Answer: B Explanation: The meeting, which is for the team and by the team, in which the team chooses the topic to discuss, is called an open space meeting. 29. A typical, regular workday is called, A. All of the below. B. Ideal Day. C. Normal Day. D. Actual Day. 29. Answer: D Explanation: A regular workday is called actual day, which starts at either 9 am or 8 am, and contains eight work hours and 1-hour break. 30. The day which is defined as the time required to complete an activity, assuming there are no 127

interruptions so that work can be completed 100% efficiently, A. Ideal days. B. A & D C. Actual Days. D. Normal working day. 30. Answer: A. Explanation: Time required to complete an activity, assuming there are no interruptions so that work can be completed 100% efficiently is called ideal days. 31. The time-boxed plan is what? A. The product scope is committed, but the release date is not confirmed. B. Both the product scope and release date approved in advance. C. The release date is committed, but the features to be developed for the release is not defined. D. None of the above. 31. Answer: C Explanation: In a time boxed plan, the release date is committed, but the features to be developed for the release are not defined. 32. When the agile team considers the factors that will support or oppose a change in the organization process is called, A. Force field analysis. B. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. C. Deming PDCA cycle. D. SWOT analysis. 32. Answer: A Explanation: Force field analysis is a tool used to examine organizational factors that are supporting or opposing the change. It considers the organization’s driving and restraining forces. 33. The terminology in agile, which look forward in the future and learn the unknown and reduce the uncertainty is called, A. Estimating. B. Predicting. C. Planning D. Scanning. 33. Answer: D. Explanation: The terminology, which looks forward in the future and learns the unknown and reduce the uncertainty, is called scanning. Other options are not correct. 34. Decisions are made at the time of last responsible moment is called A. Project Commitment. 128

B. Deferring commitment. C. Soft commitment. D. Hard commitment. 34. Answer: B Explanation: Decisions are made at the time of the last responsible moment is called Deferring commitment. Other options are not correct. 35. To deliver the most valuable requirements to the customer first, makes the customer happy because they start realizing the benefits. This kind of product delivery is called A. Rapid delivery. B. Fast delivery. C. None of the options A, B, D. D. Incremental delivery. 35. Answer: D. Explanation: Build the smallest thing possible to get value as soon as possible to the customer. E.g.: Release the software in incremental by releasing the key features in the first iteration. 36. If the defects are found very late in the agile software project, it causes A. Less expensive. B. More expensive. C. It is not making any difference in cost. D. cost savings. 36. Answer: B. Explanation: If we find the defects very late in the project, it is more expensive to fix it. If we find the errors very early in the project phase, it is less costly to fix. 37. Sam is working on the agile project and involved in developing software. The team is behind schedule. The software developed is not done thoroughly, A. If it has bugs. B. the software can’t ship. C. If the testing is not done. D. the software can ship to the vendor. 37. Answer: B. Explanation: The developed software is not done completely, if the developed software cannot be shipped. 38. In Agile EVM (Earned Value Measurement) the progress is usually measured at the end of A. All of the below. B. Project level. C. Release level. D. Iteration level. 129

38. Answer: D Explanation: In Agile EVM, the progress is usually measured at the end of every iteration. 39. Restructuring the code, without changing the external behavior of the code is called, A. Working in pairs. B. Validating the code. C. Refactoring D. bug fixing 39. Answer: C Explanation: Restructuring the code, without changing the external behavior is called refactoring. 40. Work in progress limit is defined as 10. The maximum number of things that can be allowed in the stream is, A.11 B. 15 C. 10 D. 20 40. Answer: C Explanation: If the WIP limit is defined means, we can’t add more than the limit to the value stream. 41. In Burn down charts, X and Y axis we track, A. X-axis track time, and Y-axis track the work remaining B. X-axis track the work remaining, and Y-axis track the time. C. Both A & B. D. None of the above. 41. Answer: A Explanation: In burn down chart plotted against the time vs work remaining. In x axis, we plot the time and the Y-axis; we plot the work remaining in the project. 42. The different levels of agile project planning are, A. Project Vision. B. Product Roadmap. C. Release Planning. D. All of the above. 42. Answer: D. Explanation: The different levels of agile project planning are product vision, product roadmap, release planning, and iteration planning, daily stand-up. 43. The values used in agile modeling are, 130

A. Communication. B. Simplicity. C. Courage. D. All of the above. 43. Answer: D. Explanation: The four values used in agile modeling are communication, simplicity, courage, and feedback. 44. Prototyping is one of the agile, A. Version control technique. B. Feedback technique. C. Code review. D.code refactor method 44. Answer: B Explanation: Prototype is used to get valuable feedback from the users early in the project. 45. The process which is performed frequently for the quality of the product is called, A. Validation. B. Frequent verification and validation. C. Verification. D.Inspection 45. Answer: B. Explanation: The process which is performed frequently for the quality of the product is called frequent verification and validation. 46. Critical soft skills needed for any type of project, A. Listening. B. Negotiation. C. Facilitation. D. All of the above. 46. Answer: D Explanation: Critical soft skills are listening, negotiation, conflict resolution, facilitation. 47. The agile manifesto, which is considered as team empowerment A. Individuals and interactions over process and tools. B. Working software over comprehensive documentation. C. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation. D. Responding to Change over following a plan. 131

47. Answer: A. Explanation: Individuals and interactions over process and tools, this manifesto is related to team empowerment. 48. An initial node in a large user story is called as A. Epic B.iteration log C. User stories. D. Task. 48. Answer: A. Explanation: Epic span around many iterations called a capacity. It is the largest part of the user story. Epic is a larger user story, can be decomposed into smaller user stories. 49. Self-organizing teams can make their own A. The Product owner decides on a self-organizing team. B. Scrum master decides on the self-organizing team. C. Can’t make their own decisions. D. Decisions. 49. Answer: D Explanation: Self-organizing team can make their own decisions. The best architectures, requirements, and designs emerge from self-organizing teams. 50. Project charter includes, A. Milestones. B. Critical success factors. C. Vision. D. All of the above. 50. Answer: D. Explanation: Project charter includes project vision, milestones, and critical success factors. 51. The undue influence of a single strong-willed member often because of undisclosed agenda A. Influencing. B. Anchoring C. Refactoring. D. Pair programming. 51. Answer: B. Explanation: Undue influence by a single strong-willed member often because of undisclosed agenda called anchoring. 52. Artifacts in the agile projects, A. Product backlog. 132

B. Product vision statement. C. Product roadmap. D. All of the above. 52. Answer: D. Explanation: Records of project inputs, outputs are called artifacts. E.g. of artifacts in the agile product backlog, product vision statement, product roadmap. 53. Provides authority to the project manager to apply resources for the project. A. Elevator Statement. B. Product vision box. C. Business case. D. Product backlog. 53. Answer: C Explanation: The Business case is a written document that explains how the use of resources aligned with the accomplishment of a goal. It provides authority to the project manager to apply resources for the project. 54. Advantages of a collocated team in agile, A. Closer working relationships. B. Collaboration. C. Enables the face-to-face communication. D. All of the above. 54. Answer: D. Explanation: Having co-located teams improve communication, closer working relationships, collaboration, and enables face-to-face communication. 55. Meaning of done-done means product is, A. Coded. B. Tested. C. Defect-free. D. All of the above. 55. Answer: D. Explanation: Done-done means the product is coded, tested, defect-free, and accepted by the product owner. 56. The last step in FDD (Feature-driven development) is A. Develop the overall model. B. Build by feature. C. Plan by feature. D. Design by feature. 133

56. Answer: B. Explanation: Feature Driven Development is an iterative software development methodology intended for use by large teams working on a project using object-oriented technology. The steps are, - Develop an overall model - Build a feature list - Plan by feature - Design by feature Build by feature 57. The team stops focusing on delivering new features, and instead spends their time on stabilizing the system and getting it ready to be released is called, A. Iteration 0. B. Handoff iteration. C. Hardening iteration. D. Buffer iteration 57. Answer: C Explanation: In a hardening iteration, the team stops focusing on delivering new features, and instead spends their time on stabilizing the system and getting it ready to be released. 58. Name one of the innovation games used in agile, A. Bang for the buck B. Speed boat C. Prune the product tree D. All of the above. 58. Answer: D Explanation: Bang for the buck, Speed boat, Prune the product tree is some sample innovation games. Generally, it used to identify customer requirements, improve retrospectives, and prioritize backlogs. 59. Not one of the Kanban principles, A. Visualize the flow. B. Limit the amount of work in progress. C. Refactoring. D. Enhance the workflow. 59. Answer: C Explanation: Kanban based on three fundamental principles ➢ Visualize the workflow ➢ Limit the amount of work in progress ➢ Enhance the workflow 60. Not one of the Lean process, A. Individuals and interactions over process and tools. B. Empower the team. C. Optimize the whole. D. Eliminate waste. 60. Answer: A. Explanation: Lean focus on value stream mapping. Eliminate waste is the core 134

principle of lean. Lean Principles ➢ Eliminate waste ➢ Empower the team ➢ Delivers fast ➢ Optimize the whole ➢ Build quality in ➢ Defer decisions ➢ Amplify learning. 61. The smallest set of functionality, which gives value to the customer called, A. Marketable feature. B. Minimum marketable feature. C. Product features. D. Desired feature. 61. Answer: B. Explanation: Smallest set of functionality, which gives value to the customer. Build the smallest thing possible to get value as soon as possible. It has 3 attributes minimum, marketable, and feature. Other options are not correct. 62. MoSCoW technique used for the prioritization of user stories. W stands for, A. Would have. B. Will have. C. Won’t have. D. None of the above. 62. Answer: C. Explanation: One of the Prioritization techniques used. (Must have, should have, could have, and won’t have). Other options are not correct. 63. INVEST acronym used in user story development? The letter “T” stands for A. Traceable. B. Testable. C. Team effort. D. Taxable. 63. Answer: B. Explanation: Attributes of a user story INVEST (independent, negotiable, valuable, estimable, small, and testable). 64. In Agile iteration contract, A. Mutually agreed deliverables by the team and product owner, not changing the iteration backlog priorities. B. Mutually agreed deliverables by the team and product owner can change the iteration backlog priorities. C. When the customer doesn't see the value, they stop paying, and the project ends. D. When the customer sees value, they stop paying, and the project continues. 64. Answer: A. Explanation: In an agile iteration contract, mutually agreed on deliverables by the team and product owner, not changing the iteration backlog priorities during the iteration. Other options are not correct. 135

65. In Time and materials contract, A. When the customer sees value, they stop paying, and the project ends. B. When the customer doesn't see the value, they stop paying, and the project ends. C. Mutually agreed deliverables by the team and product owner can change the iteration backlog priorities. D. Mutually agreed deliverables by the team and product owner, not changing the iteration backlog priorities. 65. Answer: B Explanation: In Time and materials contract, when the customer doesn't see the value, they stop paying, and the project ends. Other options are not correct. 66. In Phased development contract, A. When the customer doesn't see the value, they stop paying, and the project ends. B. Mutually agreed deliverables by the team and product owner, not changing the iteration backlog priorities during the iteration. C. Funded based quarterly, and additional funding approved following each successful release. D. All of the above. 66. Answer: C Explanation: In Phased development contract funded based every quarter, and additional funding approved following each successful release. Other options are not correct. 67. Objectives of the kickoff meeting, A. Communicate project vision to the team. B. Establish the ground rules for the team and the project. C. Review the business case. D. All of the above. 67. Answer: D. Explanation: Objectives of the kickoff meeting are to communicate the project vision to the team, establish the ground rules for the team and project, review the business case. 68.______________ is used to quantify the work effort and complexity required to develop a user story related to other stories. A. A story card. B. User stories. C. Story points. D. Relative sizing 68. Answer: C Explanation: Story points used to quantify the work effort and complexity required to develop a user story related to other stories. Other options are not correct. 69. A task of a short experiment carried out to gain the knowledge about a specific question called, A. Refactoring. 136

B. Flexibility matrix. C. Spike. D. Pair programming. 69. Answer: C Explanation: Spike is a task of a short experiment carried out to gain knowledge about a specific question. Knowledge gained by an exploratory spike, do understand the issue is called processcentric knowledge. Other options are not correct. 70. A process of collecting time-series data points about one or more variables and examines the data to detect the patterns to predict the future called A. Variance analysis. B. Trend analysis. C. Process analysis. D. Force field analysis. 70. Answer: B. Explanation: A process of collecting time-series data points about one or more variables and examines the data to detect the patterns to predict the future is called trend analysis. Other options, A, C, D, are wrong. 71. Placing stories on the wall greatest to the least called A. Absolute sizing. B. Sizing. C. Relative sizing D.None of the above 71. Answer: C. Explanation: Placing stories on the wall most significant to the least called relative sizing. It is one of the estimation technique. Other options are not correct. 72. The coach sees an increase in the number of escaped defects, which traced back to a developer. What action he needs to do, A. Address this issue with the developer. B. Address this issue with the team. C. Bring this issue in the daily standup meeting. D. Ignore this issue. 72. Answer: B. Explanation: Since agile is an empowered, self-organizing team, the coach should address this issue with the team. Other options A, C, D, are not correct. 73. Management asked the agile team for a detailed project plan. The response of the agile coach should be, A. Tell the management that plans not needed for an agile project. B. Request the team to stop the work and prepare the detailed project plan. C. Prepare the comprehensive project plan. 137

D. Take the opportunity to educate the senior management on agile principles 73. Answer: D. Explanation: Management asked the agile team for a detailed project plan. The agile coach uses this opportunity to educate senior management on agile principles. Other options are not correct. 74. During iteration H A. No new functionality has developed during this iteration. B. New functionality has developed during this iteration. C. Work to prepare formal documentation and other deliverables that need for the project. D. Adding an iteration to deal with unexpected changes or risks to avoid project delays and increase the reliability of the project schedule. 74. Answer: A. Explanation: During iteration H, no new functionality has developed during this iteration. Other options are not correct. 75. The number of story points completed by the agile team during an iteration called, A. Burn ratio. B. Burn rate. C. Velocity. D. Team’s burn rate. 75. Answer: C. Explanation: The number of stories that a team can deliver within the iteration is called velocity. Other options are not correct. 76. Information radiator that shows story points planned and completed during an iteration called A. Burn up chart. B. Burndown chart. C. Cumulative flow diagram. D. Product vision box. 76. Answer: A. Explanation: Information radiator that shows story points planned and completed during an iteration called burn up chart. Other options are not correct. 77. Type of information radiator that uses green, yellow, and red color indicators to show the status of specific aspects of the project called, A. Burndown chart. B. Burn up chart. C. Dashboard. D. Product vision box. 77. Answer: C. Explanation: Type of information radiator that uses green, yellow, and red color indicators to show the status of specific aspects of the project called Dashboard. Other options are not 138

correct. 78. One of the reasons to implement agile in the organization, A. Minimize cycle time. B. Increase market opportunities for the organization. C. Reduce threats. D. All of the above. 78. Answer: D. Explanation: One of the reasons to implement agile in the organization, should minimize cycle time, and increase the market opportunities for the organization and reduce threats. 79. This chart shows the work remaining in story points or ideal days in the project. A. Burn up chart. B. Dashboard. C. Burndown chart. D. Product vision box. 79. Answer: C Explanation: Burndown chart shows the work remaining in story points or ideal days in the project. Other options are not correct. 80. The chart shows the work completed, in story points or ideal days in the project, A. Burndown chart. B. Burn up chart C. Cumulative flow diagram. D. Dashboard. 80. Answer: B Explanation: The chart shows the work completed, in story points or ideal days in the project called Burn up chart. Other options are not correct. 81. A tool which used mainly to balance workload imbalances by spreading it more evenly called, A. Burn up chart. B. Kanban board. C. Cumulative flow diagram D. Burndown chart. 81. Answer: C. Explanation: A tool that used mainly to balance workload imbalances by spreading it more evenly called a cumulative flow diagram. Other options are not correct. 82.____________can be defined as organizations pay, even though no deliverables are produced, but based on the level of effort. A. Level of effort. B. Law of large numbers. 139

C. Level of risk. D. Level of work 82. Answer: A. Explanation: Level of effort can be defined as organizations pay, even though no deliverables are produced, but based on the level of effort. Other options are not correct. 83. User stories at the top of the backlog are, A. Not well defined. B. Well defined. C. Prioritized. D. Not-prioritized. 83. Answer: B. Explanation: User stories at the top of the backlog are well defined. Other options are not correct. 84. A tool used for continuous improvement called, A. Kanban board. B. Product vision box. C. Elevator statement. D. Information Radiator. 84. Answer: A. Explanation: A tool used for continuous improvement is called Kanban board. Kanban is a process designed to help teams work together more effectively. Kanban board used for constant improvement. Other options are not correct. 85. Time taken to shift between activities during meetings called A. Actual Time. B. Ideal Time. C. Shuffle time. D. Calendar Time. 85. Answer: C. Explanation: Time taken to shift between activities during meetings called Shuffle time. Other options are not correct. 86. The agile manager collects lessons learned during A. End of every iteration. B. End of every release. C. Throughout the project. D. End of every retrospective. 86. Answer: C. Explanation: The agile manager collects lessons learned throughout the project. Other options are not correct. 140

87. A chart which used in collecting requirements, when some distractions happen during the discussion called as A. Burndown chart. B. Parking lot chart. C. Burn up chart. D. Kanban board. 87. Answer: B. Explanation: A chart which used in collecting requirements, when some distractions happen during the discussion called a Parking lot chart. 88. Definition of done can be created by, A. Team. B. Product owner. C. Scrum master. D. All of the above. 88. Answer: D Explanation: Definition of done can jointly be created by the team, product owner, and the scrum master. 89. Continuous improvement can follow on the below agile practices, A. Daily stand up meeting. B. Retrospectives. C. Demo. D. All of the above. 89. Answer: D. Explanation: Continuous improvement can be followed on the agile practices Daily stand up meeting, Pair programming, Demo, Review, Retrospectives. 90. Work in progress, the agile team, prefers to A. Increase. B. Reduce. C. Stop. D.Pause 90. Answer: B. Explanation: Work in progress, the agile team prefers to reduce because Work in progress has a cost (investment), but no value (output). 91. One of the below is not an emotional intelligence quadrant A. Self-awareness B. Project-awareness. C. Self-management D. Social awareness 141

91. Answer: B. Explanation: Emotional intelligence quadrants are Self-awareness, Self-management, Social Awareness, and Social skills. 92. Escaped defects are identified by the, A. Customer. B. Agile team. C. Quality control team. D. Operations. 92. Answer: A Explanation: The customer identifies escaped defects. 93. Persona has one of the following, A. Name. B. Picture. C. Behavioral traits. D. All of the above. 93. Answer: D. Explanation: Persona is a fictional user of the system under development. A persona is a fictional character that represents a subset of the market we want to capture. Persona typically has a name, a picture, and relevant characteristics such as age or income group, behavioral traits. They encourage us to follow a user-centric approach. 94. The product backlog should be, A. Detailed B. Estimable C. Prioritized D. All of the above. 94. Answer: D. Explanation: Product backlog should be detailed, estimable, emergent, prioritized. 95. Sprint 0 focuses on, A. Developing an initial requirement B. Initial architecture C. Setting up the environment D. All of the above. 95. Answer: D. Explanation: Spring 0 focuses on developing an initial requirement, initial architecture, and setting up the environment. 96. Standard that an agile team to follow in the work environment called A. Agile contract. B. Team agreement. 142

C. Working agreement. D. Agile agreement. 96. Answer: C Explanation: Standard that an agile team to follow in the work environment. It posted in a familiar place. 97. One of the below is not a core principle of XP, A. Planning game. B. Working software is the primary measure of progress. C. Collective code ownership. D. Refactoring. 97. Answer: B. Explanation: Working software is the primary measure of progress is the agile principle. 98. One of the below is not an information radiator, A. Burn up chart. B. Excel sheet stored on the computer. C. Burndown chart. D. Dashboard. 98. Answer: B. Explanation: Excel sheet stored in the computer is not an information radiator. 99. Team space encourages the following, A. Collaboration B. Communication. C. Transparency. D. All of the above. 99. Answer: D Explanation: Team space should encourage collocation, collaboration, communication, transparency, and visibility. It should enhance productivity. Agile team space should promote maximum interaction and communication from the team members. 100. The meetings usually held at the end of the iteration A. Review meeting (product-based). B. Retrospective meeting (process-based). C. A and B. D. Team happy hour. 100. Answer: C Explanation: 2 meetings usually held at the end of the iteration. Review meeting (product based) and Retrospective meeting (process-based).

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