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MCQs in Internal Medicine [5 ed.]
 9789387085732

Table of contents :
Contents
1. Gastroenterology
2. Hepatobiliary and Pancreatic Disorders
3. cardiology
4. PUlmonology
5. Neurology
6. Nephrology
7. Haematology
8. Poisoning, Toxins and Environmental Hazards
9. Infections and Infestations
10. Fluid, Electrolytes, Nutrition and Metabolic Disorders
11. Dermatology
12. Rheumatology
13. Endocrinology
14. Geriatric Medicine
15. Radiology
16. Genetics and Immunity

Citation preview

From the Author of Bedside Clinics in Medicine, Part I and II

Fifth Edition

MCQs ·n

Internal Medicine Arup Kumar Kundu

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MCQs in

Internal Medicine Fifth EdlHon

2290 Single Choice MCQs with Best Possible Answers

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MCQs in

Internal Medicine Fifth EdlHon

2290 Single Choice MCQs with Best Possible Answers Arup Kumar Kundu MD, r1cP, NW>S Professor, Department of Medicine, and ln 1.1 g/cll in all

except: A. Tuberculous peritonitis B. Congestive cardiac failure

C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Budd-Otlari syndrome 19. All of the following are associated with obstructive jaundice

except: A. B. C. D.

Oral contraceptives

Pregnancy Crigler-Najjar type II Secondary carcinoma of liver

20. Secretory diarrhoea has no association with: A. Pancreatic insufficiency B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome C. Villous adenoma of rectum D. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid 21. WBC in stool is not found in: A. Giardiasis C. Campylobacter

B. Shigella D. Entero-invasive E. coli

22. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is defined as: A. When > 50% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated B. When > 60% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated C. When > 70% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated D. When > 85% of the total serum bilirubin is unconjugated 23. Latent jaundice may be a featw:e of all except: A. Pernicious anaemia B. Acute pulmonary thromboembolism C. Tropical sprue D. Congestive cardiac failure Ans: 1&-D 17-D 18-A 1f.C 20-A 21-A 22-D 23-C

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24. Which of the following is not a variety of osmotic diarrhoea? A. Whipple's disease B. Coeliac disease C. Lactase deficiency D. Laxative abuse 25. Regarding haematochezia,, which one is false? A. Pas.sage of bright red blood per rectum B. May be due to rectal polyp, ulcerative colitis or angiodysplasia of colon C. The blood may not be mixed with stool D. Bleeding source is proximal to ligament of Treitz 26. Which is not a member of familial non-haemolytic hyperbilirubinaemia? A. Rotor syndrome B. Reye's syndrome C. Dubin-Johnson syndrome D. Gilbert's syndrome 27. Regarding melae:na,, which statement is false? A. At least 60 ml of blood is required B. Blood should remain at least 4 hOW'S within the gut C. Black tarry semisolid. stool D. Offensive in odour

28. Manometric study of lower oesophagus is important in all

u:upt: A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome B. Polymyositis C. Diffuse oesophageal spasm D. Achalasia cardia 29. Which one is true in relation to Barrett's oesophagus? A. Hiatal hernia may be present in 20% patients B. Metaplasia of normal oesophageal squamous epithelium to form columnar epithelium is known as Barrett's oesophagus C. A consequence of achalasia cardia D. Risk of adenocarcinoma increases 10-fold

30. Which organ does not move at all with respiration? A. Pancreas B. Transverse colon C. Stomach D. Kidney Ans: 24-D 25·D 28·8 27-B 28-A 29-B 30·A

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31. Atypical chest pain of reflux oesophagitis is very often precipitated by: A. Consumption of food B. Otange of posture C. Induction of vomiting D. Attacks of emotional stress 32. Achalasia cardia gives rise to all except: A. Otest pam B. Heartburn C. Dysphagia D. Reguzgitation

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33. Regarding carcinoma of oesophagus, all are true u.cept: A. Trachea-oesophageal fistula may occur in advanced disease B. Dysphagia starts with solid foods C. Odynophagia may be a symptom D. Commonest site of affection is lower third 34. Lower oesophageal sphincter is relaxed by: A. Gastrin B. f3-adrenergic agonist D. Protein meal C. Metodopramide 35. Carcinoma of oesophagus may be predisposed by alt ex.apt: A. Lye ingestion B. Otronic achalasia cardia C. Plummer-Vinson syndrome D. Hypervitmtinosis A 36. The water content of adult stool is approximately: A. 2~30% B. 40-50% C. 50-60% D. More than 60% 37. Features of Mallory-Weiss syndrome comprise all u.cept: A. Usually involves the lower oesophageal mucosa but also may involve the gastric mucosa near the squamocolumnar junction B. May produce melaena C. Commonly precipitated by vomiting and retching D. In majority of patients, bleeding stops spontaneously 38. Amino acids malabsorption is seen in: A. Homocystinuria B. Phenylketo.n.uria D. Cystinuria C. Alkaptonuria 39. Achalasia cardia may lead to all u.cept: A. Pneumonia B. Lung abscess C. Emphysema D. Fibrosis of the lung Ans: 31-B 32-B 33-D 34-B 35-D 38-D 37-A 31-D 39-C

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40. Serum alkaline phosphatase is increased in alt exupt: A. Paget's disease of bone B. Osteomalacia C. Sclerosing cholangitis D. Osteoporosis 41. Regarding H. pylori, which statement is false? A. Gram-negative bacillus

B. Multiflagellated C. It penetrates within the epithelial cells af the stomach D. Often resides in the dental plaques of the patient 42. Pyloric stenosis is commonly associated. with all except: A. Bilious vomiting B. Obliteration of Traube's space tympanicity C. Distension af upper abdomen with succussion splash D. Visible peristalsis 43. Which statement is false regarding duodenal ulcer? A. More common in first degree relatives of duodenal ulcer patients B. Increased frequency of blood group 0 and of the non-secretor status

C. Increased incidence of HLA-B5 antigen D. An increase in serum pepsinogen II level

44. H. pylori is usually not associated. with: A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome B. Antral gastritis C. Non-ulcer dyspepsia D. Gastric lymphoma 45. The lower oesophageal mucosa! ring (Schatzki ring) is: A. A normal oesophageal anatomy B. A cause of haematemesis and/or melaena C. A cause of dysphagia D. A late complication of vagotomy

46. Regarding diffuse oesophageal spasm,. which of the following is true? A. Usually a clisease of teen age B. Otest pain mimics angina pectoris C. Invariably requires surgery D. 'Nutcracker' oesophagus is the mildest form

Ana: 40-D 41 ·C 42-A 43-D 44-A 45-C 46·8

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47. Which of the following does not give rise to haematemesis? A. Carcinoma of the stomach B. Duodenal diverti.cula C. Mallory-Weiss syndrome D. Stomatostatinoma 48. The weight of normal daily stool of healthy adult is: A. 100-200 g B. 300-400 g C. 500-600 g D. 700-800 g

49. NSAID-induced ulcers are best treated by: A. Proton pump inhibitors B. Hrreceptor antagonists C. Coating agents like sucralfate D. Prostaglandins like ntisoprostol SO. Milk-alkali syndrome (Burnett's syndrome) may lead to all

exapt: A. B. C. D.

Hypercalcaemia Hypophosphataemia Elevated blood urea nitrogen Increased bicarbonate level in serum

51. All of the following are methods for detection of H. pylori

exapt: A. Histology C. Polymerase chain reaction

B. Endoscopic view D. Rapid uxease test

52. AU are absorbed maximally in the upper small intestine except: A. Folates B. Ca++ C. Vitamin 812 D. Fe++

53. Treatment of peptic ulcer with magnesium hydroxide is characterised by: A. Stronger than Hrreceptor blockers B. Suitable for patients with renal impairment C. 50% of magnesium is absorbed by the small intestine D. Produces loose stool 54. Add peptic disease is rarely found in: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Pregnancy C. Polycythaemia vera D. Oaronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Ans: 47-D 48-A 49-D 50·8 51·8 52-C 53-D 54-B

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SS. Gastrin is predominantly secreted from: A. Antral mucosa B. Fundus of the stomach C. 2nd part of the duodenum D. Jejunum

56. Carbenoxolone sodium may be associated with all of the following features except: A. Development of systemic hypertension B. May be associated with milk-alkali syndrome C. Complicated by oedema D. Development of potassium depletion 57. Aluminium hydroxide as an antacid may have all characteristics except: A. Produces constipation B. Phosphate depletion is a complication C. May lead to Brunner's gland hyperplasia D. May contribute to osteomalacia

58. Late dumping syndrome may be manifested by all except: A. Diaphoresis B. Dizziness C. Postural hypertension D. Confusion 59. The most common gastrointestinal disorder in a community

is: A. Diverticulitis C. Reflux oesophagitis

B. Duodenal ulcer D. hritable bowel syndrome

60. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is commonly seen accompanying: A. Reflux oesophagitis B. Oesophageal carcinoma C. Alcoholism D. Hiatal hernia 61. Incidence of stress ulcers in acutely traumatised patients is: A. 3~0% B. 50-60% C. 70-80% D. 90-100%

62. Which of the following surgical procedures in peptic ulcer most commonly give rise to recurrent ulceration? A. Gastroenterostomy B. Vagotomy with pyloroplasty C. Three-quarter gastric resection D. Vagotomy with gastroenterostomy

Ans: 55-A 56-B 57-C 58-C 59-D 60-C 61-D 62-A

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Regarding clmetidine, all of the following are true except: A. Related structurally to histamine B. May cause mild elevation of serum transaminases and creatinine levels C. May produce benign intracranial hypertension D. Tender gynaecomastia may be a complication after prolonged

use 64. Silvery stool signifies a lesion characteristic of. A. lleocaecal region B. Ampulla of Vater C. Right colic flexure D. Meckel's diverticulum

65. Among the following drugs, which one is thought to be safest in pregnancy? A. Sucralfate B. Misoprostol C. Carbenoxolone sodium D. Omeprazole

66. All of the following produce hypergastrinaemia except: A. Lansoprazole therapy B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome C. Atrophic fundal gastritis D. Duodenal ulcer 67. Commonest cause of antral gastritis is: A. Alcohol B. H. pylori infection C. Pernicious anaemia D. Herpes virus infection 68. Chronic gastritis may be characterised by all except: A. Incessant vomiting B. Anorexia C. Haematemesis D. Gastric polyp 69. What percentage of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome are malignant? A. 20% B. 30% C. 40% D. 60% 70. All of the following are true in respect to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome except: A. Pancreatic gastrinomas are most common in the head of the pancreas B. Solitary primary tumOUIS are very common C. Duodenum, hilum of the spleen and rarely the stomach may have gastrinomas D. Majority of tumours are biologically malignant

Ans: 63-C 64-B 65-A 66-D 67-B 68-A &•D 70-B

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71. The most valuable provocative test of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is: A. Feeding of a standard meal B. Calcium infusion test C. S&retin injection test D. Histamine injection test '12. The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is reported in association with all of the following ex.apt: A. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Pituitary adenomas '13. The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is associated with all of the

following except: A. Recalcitrant upper GI ulcers B. Diarrhoea and steatorrhoea C. Vitamin B12 malabsorption D. Diagnasis with certainty by BAO/MAO ratio '14. Chronic afferent loop syndrome producing obstruction may

lead. to: A. Steatorrhoea C. Palpitation

B. Hypoglycaemia D. Recurrent ulceration

75. All of the following endocrine disorders are associated with malabsorption except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Adrenal insufficiency C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Carcinoid syndrome 76. Chronic gastritis may be associated with all except: A. Gastric atrophy B. Intestinal metaplasia C. Anti.bodies to parietal cells D. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease

'1'1. All of the following produce "sub-total villous atrophy'

exupt: A. B. C. D.

Radiation Coeliac disease Hypogammaglobulinaemia Abetalipoproteinaemia Ana: 71-C 72-A 73-D 74-A 75-C 76-D 77-D

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78. Upper GI bleeding, angioid streaks in retina and yellowish skin papules indicate: A. Render-Weber-Osler disease B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

1

79. Which of the following has the highest acid secretory effect?

A. Fat C. Protein

B. Iron D. Carbohydrate

80. Menetrier's disease may have all of the following except:

A. Large tortuous gastric mucosal folds B. Gastritis C. Hypoprote:inaemia D. Hypochlorhydria 81. Extra.intestinal amoebiasis may involve all eJt.C¢

A. Skin C. Vulva

B. Heart D. Meningeswithencephalon

82. Worldwide, the commonest cause of foreign body obstruction of the GI tract is: A. Bez.oars B. Enteroliths C. Gallstones D. Parasites 83. In gastroparesis, the following drugs are helpful except: A. Cizapride B. Tetracycline D. Domperidone C. Metoclopramide 84. All of the following may produce intestinal pseudo-obstruction

except: A. Sderoderma C. Hyperthyroidism

B. Diabetes mellitus

D. Imipramine

85. Malabsorption may produce all of the following except: A. Cheilosis B. Achlorhydria D. Loss of libido C. Peripheral neuropathy 86. A normal faecal fat is defined as: A. < 6 g for 24 hrs B. < 9 g for 24 hrs C. < 12 g for 24 hrs D. < 15 g for 24 hrs Ans: 78-C 79-C 80·B 81 ·B 82-C 83-B 84-C 85-B 86-A

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87. Which cardiovascular disorder is not associated with steatorrhoea? A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Left atrial myxoma D. Mesenterk vascular insufficiency

88. All of the following may be associated with diaIThoea except: A. Amitriptyline B. Colchicine C. Sorbitol D. Theophylline 89. The smallest absorbing unit of the small intestinal mucosa is: A. Microvillus B. Crypts C. Villus D. Colummar cells 90. Jejunal divert:icula may be associated with: A. Vitamin B12 malabsorpfion B. Hypochlorhydria C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Chronic paru:reatitis 91. Which ion is necessary for active transport of sugars? A. Calcium B. Potassium C. Magnesium D. Sodium 92. Fats are ingested primarily in the form of: A. Monoglycerides B. Diglycerides C. Triglycerides D. Fatty acids

93. Protein-losing enteropathy may be feature of all exeept: A. Intestinal tuberculosis B. Atrial septa! defect C. Juvenile polyposis coli D. Chronic cor pulmonale 94. Tropical sprue may be associated with all exeept: A. Malabsorption B. Patchy lesion C. Partial villous atrophy is more common than subtotal villous atrophy D. Treatment is done satisfactorily by intestinal resection

Ans: 87-C 88-A 89-A 90-A 91-D 92-C 93-C 94-D

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95. Steatorrhoea accompanying diabetes meWtus may be due to all e:xapt: A. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency B. Associated vasculitis C. Coexistent coeliac sprue D. Abnormal bacterial proliferation in proximal intestine 96. The basic defect in coeliac sprue lies in: A. Protein metabolism B. Fat metabolism C. Carbohydrate metabolism D. Vitamins and minerals absorption

97. All of the following may give rise to flat oral GTT and a normal IVGTTuupt: A. Coeliac sprue B. Whipple's disease C. Pancreatic insufficiency D. Gastric retention 98. All of the fo11owing may be associated with hyposplenism

except: A. Coeliac disease C. Dermatitis herpetiformis

B. Haemolytic anaemia D. Sickle cell disease

99. Lactose intolerance with lactase deficiency may be present in all e:xapt: A. Crahn's disease B. Giardiasis C. Cystic fibrosis D. Amoebiasis 100. The most reliable screening test in patients suffering from malabsorption is: A. Quantitative determination of faecal fat B. D-xylose absorption test C. Radioactive triolein absorption (breath) test D. Small intestinal X-rays 101. The most specific treatment in coeliac sprue is: B. Anb'biotics A. Gluten-free diet C. Corticosteroids D. Folk add

Ans: 95-B 96-A 97-C 98-B 99-D 100-B 101-A

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102. Hepatic amoebiasis is associated with all except: A. May lead to development of amoebic liver abscess B. Right lower intercostal tenderness C. Abscess commonly affects the right lobe D. Jaundice is present in majority

103. The most common and most specific radiological feature in barium meal follow-through in a patient of malabsorption is: A. Segmentation and clumping B. Coarsening of mucosa! folds C. Dilatation D. Loss of mucosa! pattern

104. Water is minimally absorbed from: A. Caecum B. Ascending colon C. Transverse colon D. Descending colon 105. U intestinal biopsy is not possible, the diagnosis of Whipple's disease can be made by: A. Lymph node biopsy B. Stomach biopsy C. Llver biopsy D. Rectal biopsy 106. A patient of severe malabsorption having fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphade:nopathy, sacroiliitis and increased skin pigmentation is probably suffering from: A. Intestinal lymphoma B. Cardnoid syndrome C. Whipple's disease D. Intestinal lymphangiectasia 107. Treatment of choice in correcting anaemia of ""blind loop syndrome' is: A. Iron B. Broad-spectrum antibiotics C. Vitamin D. Folic acid

108. The major site of bile salt absorption is:

A. Stomach

B. Duodenum

C. Proximal small intestine

D. Distal small intestine

Ans: 102-D 103-C 104-D 105-A 106-C 107-B 108-D

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109. Giardiasis is characterised by alt except: A. Infection usually occurs by ingesting contaminated water - - - containing the flagellate form 1 B. Malabsorption C. Inflammation of duodenal and jejuna! mucosa D. Lactose intolerance

110. All of the following enzymes may be normally found in stool

exupt: A. Amylase C. Pepsin

B. Lipase D. Trypsin

111. All are recognised complications of inflammatory bowel disease except: A. Gallstone formation B. Pyod.erma gangrenosum C. Aphthous stomatitis D. Erythema marginatum 112. Intestinal lymphangiedasia is characterised by all except: A. Hypoproteinaemia and oedema B. Low level of transfe.rrin and caeruloplasmin C. Malabsorption D. Lymphocytosis 113. Regarding ulcerative colitis, which is true? A. Segmental involvement is common B. Granuloma and fistula formation are characteristic C. Crypt abscesses are typical D. Malignancy never follows even in long-standing disease 114. The inheritance of cystic fibrosis is: A. Sex-linked recessive B. Autosomal recessive C. Sex-linked dominant D. Autosomal dominant 115. Pseudomembranous colitis is best treated by: A. Vancomycin B. Clindamycin

C. Tobramycin

D. Erythromycin

116. Which segment of the Gl tract is most susceptible to volvulus? A. Caecum B. Sigmoid colon C. Small intestine D. Stomach

Ans: 109-A 110-C 111-D 112-D 113-C 114-B 115-A 116-B

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117. Commonest cause of anaemia after peptic ulcer surgery is: A. Iron deficiency B. Haemolysis D. Folic acid deficiency C. Vitamin B12 deficiency 118. Crohn's disease may be complicated by all except: A. Hydroureter B. Clubbing C. Amyloidosis D. Chronic choleqstitis 119. Jejunoileal bypass surgery done for obesity may be compli· cated by all except: A. Arthritis B. Electrolyte imbalance C. Emphysema D. Nephrolithiasis

120. Giardia lamblia infestation produces a syndrome mimicking: A. Peptic uker clisease B. Initable bowel syndrome C. Tropical sprue D. Biliary dyspepsia 121. Most helpful differentiating point between ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease by rectal biopsy is: A. Granuloma B. Crypt absces.s C. Fibrosis D. Tran.smural involvement 122. Pyloric stenosis may be complicated by: A. Acidosis B. Hyperkalaemia C. Hyperchloraemia D. Hypochloraemic alkalosis

123. 'String sign' in Crohn's disease is due to: A. Fistula B. Spasm C. Pseudopolyps D. Small ulceration 124. The commonest manifestation of radiation proctitis is: A. Diarrhoea B. Mucous discharge C. Pruritus ani D. Bleeding per rectum

125. All of the following are true regarding Whipple's disease

except: A. B. C. D.

Gram-negative bacilli Clostridium whipplei is responsible Coronary arteritis may be a feature Cranial nerve palsy may occur Commonly manifested by diarrhoea, weight loss with hepatosplenomegaly

Ans: 117-A 118-0 119-C 120-B 121-A 122-0 123-8 124-D 125-A

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126. The causative agent of b.'opical sprue is: A. Shigella B. Campylobacter C. Yersinia D. Unknown

1

127. Which segment of colon is commonly affected by vascular - - - insufficiency? A. Ascending colon B. Hepatic fleXW'e C. Transverse colon D. Splenic flexure 128. Regarding Meckel's diverticulum, which one is false? A. Present in 2% population

B. Usually 5 cm long C. Present within 100 cm of the ileocaecal valve D. May contain oesophageal or rectal mucosa 129. Peritonitis may be complicated by all except: A. Renal failure B. Acute lung injury C. Pelvic abscess D. Haemorrhagic pancreatitis UO. Which is true in respect to irritable bowel syndrome? A. Most common GI disorder in practice B. Commonly affects middle-aged males C. Easily treatable D. Nocturnal diarrhoea is common 131. Features of gastric outlet obstruction produced by congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis develop in infants: A. Atbirth B. Within first 24 hours of birth C. During the first 10 days of life D. Over the first 4-6 weeks of life 132. Hirschsprung's disease is not manifested by: A. Distended abdomen B. Vomiting C. Obstipation D. Rectal ampulla is full of faeces while the anal sphincter is normal

Ans: 126-D 127-D 128-D 129-D 130-A 131-D 132-D

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U3. Commonest complaint by a patient in carcinoma of the rectum is: A. Constipation B. Pain abdomen C. Haematochezia D. Analpain

134. All of the following are true regarding acute mesenteric vascular ocdusion except: A. Young women are the main victims B. Severe periumbili.cal pain at the onset C. Abdominal distension with normal peristaltic sound, even in the face of severe infarction D. Barium study of the small intestine reveals 'thumbprinting'

135. All of the following are true in irritable bowel syndrome except: A. Usually have 3 clinical components: spastic, diarrhoeal and both B. Altered intestinal motility and increased visceral perception are the main pathophysiologic abnormalities C. Redal ampulla is empty but tender sigmoid is full of faeces D. Sigm.oidoscopy shows multiple small disaete ulcers often covered with slough

136. Crohn's disease may produce all of the following except: A. Ves:icovaginal fistula B. Rectovesical £istula C. Perianal fistula D. Jejunocoli.c fistula 137. Commonest extraintestinal complication of ulcerative colitis

is: A. Sclerosing cholangitis C. Pyoderma gangrenosum

B. Arthritis D. Uveitis

138. Symptoms in carcinoma of the left colon include all exeept: A. Cramps in the abdomen B. Melaena C. Low back pain D. Alteration of bowel habit 139. Which is true regarding irritable bowel syndrome? A. Pain abdomen usually lasts for 1/2 hour B. Temporary relief of pain by passage of flatus or stool C. Nocturnal pain abdomen is frequent complaint D. Periodicity is common Ans: 133-C 134-A 135-D 136-A 137-B 138-B 139-B

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140. Which part of the colonic carcinoma is very easily overlooked? A. Hepatic flexure B. Cae 400 ID/L B. Serum AST> 400 ID /L C. Hperglycaemia > 200 mg/ dl D. Leucocyto.sis > 16000/mm3 18. Acute pancreatitis is not associated with: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Billiary tract disease C. Pancreatic carcinoma D. Pancreatic islet cell tumour

19. Endopeptidases include all except: A. Trypsin B. Elastase C. Chymotrypsin D. Carboxypeptidase 20. Which of the following clotting factors retains its activity in hepatocellular disorder? A. II B. VIII C. IX D. VII 21. Which one of the following is not a space-occupying disease of liver? B. Metastatic tumour A. Gummas c. Amyloid D. Cyst 22. Commonest cause of pancreatic calcification is: A. Alcohol abuse B. Protein-energy malnutrition C. Hyperthyroidism D. Pancreatic carcinoma

Ans: 15-D 16-A 17-B 18-D 19-D 20-B 21-C 22-A

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23. Hyperamylasaemia may be caused by all except: A. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy B. Administration of morphine C. Diabetic ketoacidosis D. Basal pneumonia

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24. Which of the following is a predisposing factor for the development of pancreatic carcinoma? A. Cigarette smoking B. Alcohol abuse C. Cholelithiasis D. Maaoamylasaemia .25. In exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, which of the following tests remains normal? A. O..xylose absorption test B. Secretin test C. Quantitative estimation of faecal fat D. Bentiromide test 26. Commonest cause of chronic relapsing pancreatitis is: A. Trauma B. Gallstones D. Infe6 months implies carrier state B. HbeAg implies high infectivity C. Anti.-HBs appears to reflect immunity D. IgG anti-HBc indicates acute hepatitis B virus infection

41. Secretin is produced in largest quantities in: A. Jejunum B. Stomach C. Duodenum D. llewn 42. Pruritus associated with cholestasis is mostly seen: B. At daytime A. On the palms and soles C. After a cold bath D. In males 43. Which of the following is not associated with 1eucocytosis7 B. Acute viral hepatitis A. Toxic hepatitis C. Weil's disease D. Amoebic liver abscess 44. Hepatic rub may be found in: A. Haemangi.oma of liver C. Acute viral hepatitis

B. Hepatic neoplasm D. Pyogenic liver abscess

45. Vitamin K absorption is dependent on: Bilesal~

A. HCl

B.

C. Bilirubin

D. Succus entericus

Ans: 37-B 38-B 39-A 40-D 41-C 42-A 43-B 44-B 45-B

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46. The best way to diagnose Gilbert's syndrome is: A. Testing for red blood cell survival B. Liver biopsy C. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test D. 48 hours fasting with only 300 cal/day 47. Differential diagnosis of jaundice includes all ~ A. Argyria B. Carotenae.mia D. Diffuse xanthomatosis C. Atabrine toxicity 48. The presence of hepatic bruit over the liver suggests: A. Recent liver biopsy B. Perihepatitis D. Portal hypertension C. Hepatoma 49. Predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is seen in all

euept: A. B. C. D.

Shunt hyperbilirubinaemia

Dubin-Johnson syndrome Gilbert's syndrome Crigler-Najjar syndrome

SO. Cholestasis is the retention of all substances in the blood exupt: A. Triglycerides B. Bile salts C. Vitamin D D. Otolesterol Sl. Bedside diagnosis of obstructive jaundice includes all except: A. Generalised pruritus B. Palpable gallbladder D. Xanthelasma C. High-coloured stool

52. Characteristic of hepatic pre-coma is: A. Night-time somnolence B. Flaccid muscles D. Presence of ankle clonus C. Babinski's sign 53. Leptospirosis can be diagnosed during the 1st week of illness by: A. Urine analysis B. Stool culture D. Agglutination test C. Dark-field examination 54. All of the following are present in hepatic coma except: A. Asterixis B. Abnormal EEC C. Absent deep reflexes D. Increased ammonia level in blood Ans: 46-D 47-A 48-C 49-B 50-C 51-C 52-D ~ 54-A

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SS. Commonest form of hepatic tuberculosis is: A. Miliary tuberculosis B. Tuberculomas C. Tuberculous hepatitis D. Tuberculous abscess

2

56. The earliest and most common metabolic abnormality in hepatic encephalopathy is: A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Metabolic acidosis 57. Which of the following surgeries is related to severe hepato-

cellular dysfunction? A. Vagotomy C. Pyloroplasty

B. Jejunoileal bypass D. Gastric bypass

58. Which of the following clotting factors is not produced in the liver? B. VII A. II C. IV D. V 59. Which of the following dnlg'8 is not associated. with cholesiasis?

A. Erythromycin stearate B. Otlorpropamide C. Otlorpromazine D. Methyl testosterone 60. Which of the following infections commonly produces hepatic granuloma? A. Pneu.mococcus B. Leptospira C. Brucella a'borlus D. LDbody

61. Which is not true so far as definition of cirrhosis of liver is concerned? A. Fatty infiltration B. Necrosis C. Fibrosis D. Regeneration 62. What is true about Weil's disease? A. Low glucose in CSF B. Leucopenia C. Liver biopsy is diagnostic D. Myocarditis may be a complication Ans: 55-A 56-A 57-B 58-C 59-A 60-C 61-A 62-D

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39

Spider naevi: A. Are pathognomo.nic of portal hypertension B. May be seen in some healthy people C. Often seen in first trimester of pregnancy D. Correlates with the amount of urinary oestradiol excretion

64. Chronic active hepatitis may have all the following features

exupt: A. Amenorrhoea C. JaW'\dice

B. Arthralgia D. Haematemesis

65. Following cardiac surgery of which valve operation is most likely to develop jaundice? B. Tri.cuspid valve A. Mitra! valve D. Pulmonary valve C. Aortic valve 66. Among the W'\dermentioned liver function tests, which one is least likely to be impaired during normal pregnancy? A. Serum albumin B. Serum transa:minases D. Serum bilirubin C. Serum cholesterol 67. Congenital hepatic fibrosis may be associated with: A. Atrial septa! defect B. Medullary sponge kidney C. Retroperitoneal fibrosis D. Endocardial fibroelastosis 68. Which is true in halothane-induced. hepatitis? A. Males are commonly susceptible B. Splenomegaly C. Marked cholestasis D. Peripheral eosinophilia 69. The prostaglandins are: A. Proteins C. Polysaccharides

B. Enzymes D. Fatty acids

70. Hyperbiliru.binaemia is not associated with: A. Hereditary spherocytosis B. Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis C. Budd-Chiari syndrome D. Dubin-Johnson syndrome Ans: 63-B 64-D 65-A 66-B 67-B 68-D &•D 70-B

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MCQs In Internal Medicine

71. Which light source produces best photodecompositi.on of bilirubin? A. Ultraviolet B. Fluorescent D. Moonlight c. Sunlight

2

'12. The most sensitive test which detects hepatic involvement in congestive cardiac failure is: A. Level of transaminases B. Serum bilirubin assay C. Bromsulphalein (BSP) excretion test D. Serum albwrtin estimation 73. The principal lipid. contents of human bile are all except: A. Free fatty adds B. Conjugated bile salts C. Cholesterol D. Lecithin 74. Fatty liver may be produced by: A. Chloramphenicol B. Oral contraceptives C. Anabolic steroids D. Tetracycline

'15. Commonest micro-organism responsible for cholangitis is: A. E. coli B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Streptococcus faecalis D. Salmonella '16. Commonest malignant tumour of gallbladder is: A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Adenocarcinoma C. Haemangioendoth.elioma D. Sarcoma 77. Cholangiocardnoma may be associated with: A. Cholelithiasis B. Ulcerative colitis C. Tinea echinococcus infestation D. Biliary atresia

'18. Reye's syndrome may be associated with all except: A. Moderate jaundice B. Elevated aminotransferase& C. Hypoglycaemia D. Chickenpox as a predpitating factor

Ans: 71-B 72-C 73-A 74-D 75-A 76-B 77-B 78-A

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79. Which is true regarding rapidly shrinking liver in fulminant hepatic failure? A. The disease process is improving B. A fluctuating clinical course C. A bad prognosis D. Means nothing to clinical course

80. In complete biliary obstruction, urinary urobilinogen is: A. Decreased B. Elevated C. Remains normal D. Episodic increase and decrease 81. Which is false regarding Reye's syndrome? A. Mitochondrial dysfunction of liver B. Salicylates may be responsible C. There may be cerebral oedema D. Survivors pass on to chronic liver disease 82. All are recognised complications of acute viral hepatitis

except: A. Polyarteri.tis nodosa C. Meningitis

B. Aplastic anaemia D. Myocarditis

83. Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is > 1.1 !Veil in all

except: A. Nephrotic syndrome

B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Portal hypertension D. Fulminant hepatic failure 84. All of the following may be associated with hypoglobuli-

naemia exupt: A. Severe combined immunodeficiency

B. AIDS C. Multiple myeloma D. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia

85. All of the following are features of hepatocellular failure

except: A. Fetor hepaticus C. Flapping tremor

B. Ascites D. Haematemesis

Ana: 79-C 80-A 81-D 82-C 83-A 84-B 85-D

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MCQs In Internal Medicine

86. All are associated with low serum caeruloplasmin level

euept:

2

A. B. C. D.

Newborn and infants (up to 6 months) Protein-losing enteropathies Wilson's disease Polycystic kidney disease

87. All of the following may be the aetiology of Budd-Chiarl syndrome except: A. Congenital hepatic fibrosis B. Antiphospholipid syndrome C. Oral contraceptive pills D. Right atrial myxoma

88. Senun of patient contains only anti-HBs; he is: A. Acutely infected by type B virus B. Suffering from chronic hepatitis B virus infection C. Low level of HbsAg carrier D. Vaccinated 89. All of the following may produce hepatic granuloma exupt: A. Losartan B. INH C. Allopwinol D. Sulphonamides 90. Minimal free fluid in the abdomen required to be diagnosed by ultrasonography is: A. 15ml B. 30ml c. 75ml D. 100ml

91. Which one of the following is false in hepatorenal syndrome? A. Slow-onset azotaemia in chronic liver disease B. Urine Na+ concentration >10 mEq/dl C. Urine to plasma os:molality ratio >1.0 D. Urine to plasma creatinine ratio >30 92. Which one of the following is false in mese:nteric cyst? A. Moves freely at right angles to the line of attachment of the

mesentery B. A well-defined cystic swelling in abdomen C. Positive 'puddle sign' D. Positive fluid thrill Ana: 86-D ffl-A 88-D 89-A 9G-B 91-B 92-C

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93. Non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis may be associated with: A. Oral contraceptives B. Chronic arsenic ingestion C. Sarcoidosis D. Umbilical sepsis 94. All are causes of chylous ascites except: A. Intra-abdominal malignancy B. Thrombosis of mesenteric artery C. Tuberculosis D. Filariasis 95. Primary biliary cirrhosis may be associated. with all except: A. Wilson's disease B. CREST syndrome C. Renal tubular acidosis D. Autoimmune thyroiditis 96. Minimal fiuid required to have classical shifting dullness in asci.tes is: A. 100-250 ml B. 250-800 ml C. 500-1000 ml D. More than 1 litre 'J'l. Hepatitis-like feature may be seen in therapy with all except:

A. Atorvastatin C. INH

B. Ketoconazole D. Zidovudine

98. Example of transudative asdtes is: A. Malignant peritonitis B. Budd-Chiari syndrome C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Chylous ascites 99. Chronicity in hepatitis C virus infection is: A. 10% B. 30% C. 50% D. 80% 100. In gallbladder disease, plain abdominal X-ray may diagnose all except: A. Limey bile B. Acakulous cholecystitis C. Porcelain gallbladder D. Emphysematous cholecystitis 101. All of the following may present as latent jaundice except: A. Pernicious anaemia B. Acute panaeati.tis C. Pyloric stenosis D. Acute myocardial infarction Ans: 93-B 94-B 95-A 96-C 97-A 98-C 99-C 100-B 101-C

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MCQs In Internal Medicine

102. Acalculous cholecystitis may be precipitated by all except: A. Va.sculitis B. Torsion of the gallbladder C. Diabetes mellitus D. Cholelithiasis

- - - - 103. Normal portal venous pressure is: A. 12mmHg C. 5-7mmHg D. 7-lOmmHg

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104. Endoscopic retrograde cholagiopancreatography (ER.CP) has

all the ad.vantages except: A. Best visualisation of cystic duct B. Endoscopic sphincterotomy and stone removal C. Biliary manometry D. Bile or pancreatic cytology 105. All of the following produce deep jaundice except: A. G6PD deficiency B. Recurrent cholestasis of pregnancy C. Carcinoma of the head of pancreas D. Sclero.sing cholangitis 106. Cigarette smoking may predispose to all except: A. Hepatocellular carcinoma B. Periampullary carcinoma C. Otolangiocarcinoma D. Carcinoma of pancreas 107. Which is not an extrahepatic manifestation of hepatitis B virus infection? A. Polymyalgia rheumatica B. Essential mixed cryoglobulinaemia C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Fibrosing alveolitis 108. Which one is false in granulomatous hepatitis? A. Mild, firm hepatomegaly B. Jaundice C. Sarcoidosis may be an aetiology D. Liver biopsy is diagnostic

109. All are metabolic: causes of cirrhosis of liver except: A. Type IV glycogenesis B. Galactosaemia C. Homocystinurias D. Wilson's disease

Ans: 102-D 103-C 104-A 105-A 106-C 107-D 108-B 109-C

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110. Acutely tender liver is found in all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Carcinoma of liver D. Haemangioma of liver 111. Amoebic typhlitis is the infiammation of: A. Hepatic capsule leading to perihepati.tis B. Hepatic flexure of large intestine C. Sigmoidorectal junction D. Caecum

tu.

Secondary carcinoma of liver should not have: A. Malignant ascites B. Splenomegaly C. Jaundice D. Knobbly liver

113. Commonest cause of portal hypertension is: A. Acute viral hepatitis B. Chronic active hepatitis C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Carcinoma of liver 114. Treatment modalities of Wilson's disease include all except: A. Tetrathiomolybdate B. Penicillamine C. Cokhicine D. Elemental zinc

115. Most consistent clinical finding in haemochromatosis is: A. Increased skin pigmentation B. Hepatomegaly C. Arthropathy D. Hypogonadism 116. Rapid diminution in the size of liver is seen in: A. Cholangiohepatitis B. Fulminant hepatic failure D. Acute alcoholic hepatitis C. Carcinoma of liver 117. The Kayser-Fleischer ring is: A. Broader laterally and medially B. The inferior pole of cornea is first affected C. Copper deposition in Descemet's membrane D. Hampers vision 118. Definitive test for diagnosis of haemochromatosis is: A. Plasma iron >300 µg/ dl B. Liver biopsy C. TIBC < 200 µg/dl D. Hepatic iron index >1.5 119. Superficial venous flow in portal hypertension is: A. Away from the umbilicus B. Below upwards

C. Towards umbilicus

D. Above downwards

Ana: 110.0 111-D 112-B 113-C 114-C 115-8 116-8 117-C 118-B 11•A

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MCQs In Internal Medicine

120. Which of the following is false regarding haemoduomatosis? A. Pancreatic iron deposition leads to diabetes B. Most common cardiac manifestation is congestive heart failure C. Melanin and iron deposition gives rise to bronzing of skin D. Hypogonadism results from iron deposition in testes 121. Commonest cause of post-transfusion hepatitis is: A. Hepatitis B B. Hepatitis C C. Hepatitis D D. Hepatitis E 122. Kayser-Fleischer like ring is found in all u.cept: A. Cryptogenic cirrhosis B. 0.20 B. >0.34

C. >0.38

D. >0.52

72. Which is not a part of 'Kartagener's syndrome'? A. Dextrocardia B. Sinusitis C. Impotence D. Bronchiedasis 73. Which is false regarding emphysema? A. Pa~ 65-75 mm Hg B. Increaesd diffusion capacity C. PaC~ 35-40 mm Hg D. Decreased elastic recoil 74. Which is not a recognised complication of cystic fibrosis? A. Atelectasis B. Bronchiectasis C. Pleural effusion D. Pulmonary hypertension Ans: 67-D 68-D 69-B 70-B 71-D 72-C 73-B 74-C

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MCQs In Internal Medicine

75. Which of the following is not common in primary pulmonary tuberculosis? A. Cavity B. Fibrosis C. Lymphadenopathy D. Pleural effusion 76. Which of the following is not a bedside feature of fibrosing alveolitis? A. Orthopnoea B. Anaemia C. Oubbing D. Velcro crepitations

4

77. Chronic respiratory failure is not seen in: A. Diffuse interstitial fibrosis B. Emphysema

C. Pneumothorax

D. Otronic bronchitis

78. Commonest middle mediastinal mass is: A. Lymphoma B. Aortic aneurysm C. Bronchogenic cyst D. Thymoma 79. Which of the following is not associated with interstitial lung disease? A. Graft versus host clisease B. Idiopathic pulmonary haemosiderosis C. Bronchiectasis D. Scleroderma 80. Commonest posterior mediastinal tumour is: A. Neurofibroma B. Lymphoma C. Teratodermoid D. Metastatic carcinoma 81. All of the following drugs may produce fibrosing alveolitis

u:upt: A. Busulfan C. Beclomethasone

B. Bleomycin D. Nitrofuratoin

82. Lung abscess is not a complication of: A. Malignancy B. Bronchopneumonia C. Wegener's granulomatosis D. Suppurative staphylococcal pneumonia 83. Bilateral parotid enlargement is seen in all except: A. Sjogren's syndrome B. Guanethicline-induced C. Sarcoidosis D. Guillam-Barre syndrome Ans: 75-A 76-B 77-C 78-B 79-C 86-A 81-C 82-B 83-D

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93

84. Silo-filter's disease is inhalation of: A. Nitrogen dioxide B. Hydrogen fluoride C. Sulphur dioxide D. Chlorine 85. ai-antitrypsin deficiency PiZZ type have predominant: A. Paraseptal emphysema B. Centriacinar emphysema C. Paracicatrical emphysema D. Panacinar emphysema 86. Which opportunistic organism commonly affects patients of pulmonary alveolar proteinosis? A. Pseudomonas B. Staphylococcus C. Pneumococcus D. Nocardia

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87. Bronchopleural fistula is commonly due to: A. Pulmonary tuberculosis B. Bronchogenic carcinoma C. Lung cyst D. Honeycomb lung 88. The most reliable symptom of acute pulmonary thromboembolism is: A. Substemal chest pain B. Haemoptysis C. Breathlessness D. Syncope 89. Which of the following is false regarding Pickwickian syndrome? A. Marked obesity B. Hyperventilation C. Somnolence D. Right-sided heart failure

90. The commonest benign pulmonary neoplasm is: A. Adenoma B. Lipoma C. Hamartoma D. Fibroma

91. Luge amount of eosinophils in the sputum is diagnostic of: A. Staphylococcal pneumonia B. Fibrosing alveolit:is C. Pulmonary aspergillosis D. Cystic fibrosis 92. Commonest histologic variety of bronchogenic cardnoma is: A. Small cell carcinoma B. Large cell carcinoma C. Epidermoid carcinoma D. Adenocarcinoma 93. Which of the following is false regarding primary pulmonary hypertension? A. Age ranges 2()-40 yrs B. Females are the main victims C. Primarily due to heart disease D. Calcium channel blockers may alleviate symptoms Ans: 84-A 85-D 86·D 87·A 88-C

e•B 90-A 91-C 92-C 93-C

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MCQs In Internal Medicine

94. Investigation of highest diagnostic efficacy in acute pulmonary tluomboembolism is: A. ECG B. Arterial blood gas estimation C. Contrast-enhanced spiral CT scan D. Ventilation-perfusion lung scans

95. A high amylase in pleural fiuid is found in alt except: A. Oesophageal rupture B. Broncltogenic carcinoma C. Sarcoidosis D. Acute paru:reatitis

4 ---~

96. Laennec's pearls and Curschmann's spirals in sputum are characteristically seen in: A. Pulmonary tuberculosis B. Farmer's lung D. Bronchial asthma C. Chronic bronchitis 97. Which of the following is not a neurological paraneoplastic syndrome of bronchogenic carcinoma? A. Eaton-Lambert syndrome B. Cerebral thrombosis C. Retinal blindness D. Subacute cerebellar degeneration

98. Thymoma may be associated. with all except: A. AIDS B. Pure red cell aplasia D. Myasthenia gravis C. Cushing's syndrome

99. Which of the following is not in the list of bedside severity assessment of bronchial asthma? A. Kussmaul's sign C. Silent chest

B. Pulsus paradoxus D. Central cyanosis

100. Which of the following is used to treat cystic fibrosis? A. Low-molecular weight heparin B. High dose of glucocorlicoids C. Dornase alfa D. Zafirlukast 101. Pure 0 2 therapy may produce all of the following except: A. Acute lung injury B. Respiratory depression C. Fibrosis of the lung D. Consolidation of the lung Ans: 94-D 95-C 96-D 97-B 98-A 99-A 100-C 101-C

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102. Brassy cough is seen in: A. Rei B. J.. P02 and normal PC02 C. Normal POi and t PC02 D. J. P02 and t PCC>i 145. The commonest cause of acute cor pulmonale is: A. Lobar consolidation B. Pneumothorax C. Pulmonary thromboembolism D. Fibrosing alveolit:is 146. Egg shell calcification in chest X-ray is characteristic of: A. Tuberculosis B. Silicosis C. Asbestosis D. Histoplasmosis Ans: 138-C 138-B 140-D 141-C 142-A 14S-8 144-0 145-C 146-8

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MCQs In Internal Medicine

147. Exudatlve pleural effusion is characteristic of: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Right ventricular failure 148. Hypercarbia is associated with: A. Cold-clammy extremities B. Thready pulse C. Intention tremor D. Systemic hypertension

149. Which of the following clru.gs is not \lHd in acute asthma?

----

4

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A. Zafirlukast C. Corticosteroids

B. Terbutaline D. lpratropium bromide

150. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis is due to: A. Berylliosis B. Bys.sinosis C. Asbestosis D. Bagassosis 151. The next step in a patient of haemoptysis with non-conclusive chest X-ray is: A. Bronchoscopy B. HR.CT C. Bronchography D. MRI 152. Bronchoalveolar lavage is indicated in evaluation of: A. Bronchopleural fistula B. Bronchial asthma C. Chronic bronchitis D. Interstitial lung disease

153. Which variety of lung carcinoma is most commonly associated with hypercalcaemia? A. Oat cell carcinoma B. Large cell carcinoma C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Adenocarcinoma 154. Orthodeoxia is charaderistic of: A. Chronic bronchitis

B. Congestive cardiac failure C. Hepatopulmonary syndrome D. Huge ascites 155. Hepatopulmonary syndrome is characterised by all except: A. Oubbing B. P-pulmonale in ECG C. Reduction in diffusing capacity of lung D. Hypoxia Ans: 147-C 148-D 149-A 15CH> 151-8 152-D 1SS.C 154-C 155-8

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156. In pleural effusion, an impaired transport of glucose into the pleural space is found in: A. Myxoedema B. Tuberculosis C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Rheumatoid arthritis 157. Which of the following is not a recognised ocular complication of sarcoidosis? A. Scleromalacia perforans B. Ophthalmoplegia C. Uveitis D. Calcium deposits 158. Which is not manifested as cavitary lung lesion? A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Progressive massive fibrosis D. Tuberculosis

159. Haemoptysis is characteristically seen in all except: A. Goodpasture's syndrome B. Aspergilloma D. Bys.sinosis C. Pulmonary vasculitis 160. Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis may be associated with all except: A. Oironic constrictive pericard.itis B. Hashimoto's thyroid.itis C. Renal tubular acidosis D. Oaronic active hepatitis

161. Calcification of pleura is not seen in: A. Tuberculosis B. Haemothorax C. Haemosiderosis D. Asbestosis 162. Which of the following is not a recognised feature of fib:rosing alveolitis? A. Oubbing B. Velcro crepitations C. Recurrent haemoptysis D. Circulating rheumatoid factor 163. Characteristic feature of pulmonary hypertension does not include: A. Prominent a-wave in jugular venous pulse B. Left parastemal heave C. Diastolic shock D. Wide splitting of S;i with loud P 2 Ans: 156-D 157-A 158-B 159-D 160-A 161-C 162-C 163-D

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MCQs In Internal Medicine

164. Acute pulmonary oedema may develop after consumption of all except: A. Procarbazine B. Interleukin 2 C. Methadone D. Propoxyphene

165. Stridor is not a manifestation of: A. Tetany B. Diphtheria C. Foreign body impacted in left main bronchus D. Infection by Haemophilus injluenzae

----'~ 166. All of the following commonly affect the upper zone of lung in chest X-ray except: A. B. C. D.

Progressive systemic sclerosis Silicosis Ankylosing spondylitis Pulmonary tuberculosis

167. Haemoptysis following acute pleuritic chest pain and dyspnoea is characteristic of: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Pulmonary thromboembolism C. Pulmonary tuberculosis D. Arteriovenous malformations 168. Scar carcinoma of lung is: A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Oat cell carcinoma C. Large cell carcinoma D. Adenocarcinoma 169. Hysterical hyperventilation may be mainfested by all except: A. Circumoral numbness B. Loss of ankle jerk C. Respiratory alkalosis D. -hydroxybutyric acid Acetone Drug treatment with salicylates Acetoaceti.c acid

38. 'Sweaty feet' odour is found in: B. Glutaric acidwia A. Argininaemia C. Hypervalinaemia D. Isovaleric acidaemia 39. Starvation is thought to be life-threatening, when the body weight falls below: A. 40% of normal B. 50% of normal C. 60% of normal D. 70% of normal 40. Which of the following is not elevated in serum in maple syrup urine disease? B. Isoleucine A. Valine

C. Omithine

D. Leudne

41. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is characterised by all exapt: A. Intracerebral calcification B. Self-mutilation C. Choreoath.etosis D. Hyperuricaemia 42. Band keratopathy is found in all except: A. Copper deposition in Wilson's disease B. Oaloroquine crystals in treating DLE C. Iron deposition in haemochromatosis D. Cystine crystals in cystinosis 43. Acute gouty arthritis should be treated by: A. Allopurinol B. Probenecid C. Benzbromarone D. Naproxen Ana: 35-D 36-C 37-A 38-D 39-D 40-C 41-A 42-C 43-D

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MCQs In Internal Medicine

44. Which has the highest percentage of involvement in haemochromatosis? B. Skin pigmentation A. Splenomegaly C. Diabetes mellitus D. Cardiac involvement 45. Pellagra-like clinical syndrome is found in: A. Hlstidinuria B. Hartnup disease C. Cystinosis D. Iminoglycinuria 46. Hypochromic anaemia with megaloblastic changes in bone marrow is seen in: A. Galactosaemia B. Abetalipoproteinaemia C. Gaucher's disease D. Hereditary orotic aciduria 47. In c:ystinuria, which of the amino acids is not excreted in urine? A. Ornithine B. Cysteine C. Arginine D. Cystine

48. All of the following may lead. to hyperuricaemia euept: A. Thiazide diuretics B. High doses of aspirin C. Nicotinic acid D. Pyrazinamide

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49. Which is false in alcaptonuria (ochronosis)? A. X-ray of lumbar spine is virtually pathognomoni.c B. Pigmentation of skin C. Urine turns black upon alkalinization D. Photophobia SO. All are the indications of treating asymptomatic hyperuricaemia except: A. Patient becomes symptomatic B. Has a strong family H/O gout or nephrolithiasis C. 24-hrs urinary uric acid excretion >1100 mg D. Associated with hypertension and diabetes mellitus 51. Increased urinary aminolevulinic acid and porphobilinogen are found in all except: A. Infedious mononucleosis B. Lead poisoning C. Amyloidosis D. Acute intermittent porphyria Ane: 44-B 45·B 48-D 47·B 48·B 49-D 50-D 51·C

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52. von Gierke's disease results from deficiency of: A. Muscle phosphorylase B. Glycogen synthetase C. Glucose-6-phosphatase D. Llver phosphorylase kinase 53. Which is not a feature of acute intermittent porphyria? A. Psychiatric disturbances B. Pain abdomen C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Diarrhoea 54. Hereditary fructose intolerance present9 with all except: A. Postprandial hypoglycaemia B. Lactic acidosis C. Renal stones D. Dental caries SS. Which is considered to be a safe drug in porphyria? A. Chlorpromazine B. Barbiturates D. Chlorpropamide C. Oral contraceptive pills 56. Galactosaemia does not feature: A. Cataract B. Seizures C. Intellectual impairment D. Development of cirrhosis of liver 57. Type I gtycogenosis (von Gierke's disease) is not associated with: A. Myoglobinuria B. Lipaemia retinalis C. Maaoglos.sia D. Hypoglycaemia 58. Point out the false one regarding familial lipoprotein lipase deficiency: A. Llpaemia retinalis B. Abdontinal pain due to pancreat:itis C. Accelerated atherosclerosis D. Eruptive xanthoma 59. Probably the commonest form of glycogen storage disorder is: A. Type I glycogenosis B. Type ill glycogenosis C. Type V glycogenosis D. Type VI glycogenosis Ans: 52-C 53-D 54-D 55-A 56-B 57-A 58-C 59-B

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MCQs In Internal Medicine

60. Familial dysbetalipoproteinaemia (type S hyperlipoproteinaemia) is manifested by all except: A. Fluminant atherosclerosis B. Palmar xanthoma C. Results from accumulation of remnant-like particles derived fromVLDL D. Manifested before the age of 20 61. Gaucher's disease is featured by all except: A. Most commonly enco\Ultered lysosomal storage disorder B. Bonepain C. High serum alkaline phosphatase D. Hepatosplenomegaly 62. Weber-Ouistian disease does not include:

A. Pa:nniculitis B. Evidence of panaeatic disease C. Erythema marginatum D. Vasculitis 63. Secondary hyperlipoproteinaemia is associated with all

except: A. Acute alcoholism C. Use of oral contraceptives

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B. Diabetes mellitus D. Addison's disease

64. Tay-Sachs gangliosidosis is characterised by all except: A. Vascular thrombosis B. Macroencephaly C. Ocular cherry-red spots D. Hyperacusis

65. Tangier's disease is manifested by: A. Premature atherosclerosis B. Pigmentation of skin C. Low serum cholesterol level D. Haemolysis 66. Hurler disease has all the following features except: A. Accwnulation of heparan and dennatan sulphate B. Absence of corneal clouding C. Gibbus D. Beaking of the lumbar vertebrae 67. Abetalipoproteinaemia is not characterised by: A. Ataxia B. Eruptive xanthoma C. Acanthocytosis D. Retinitis pigmentosa Ans: ~D 61-C 62-C 63-D 64-A 65-C 66-B 67-B

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68. Fabry's disease does not include: A. Autosomal re1 hour D. Arthritis of hand joints 115. Rheumatoid arthritis patients confront an increased risk of developing all exupt: A. Hodgkin's disease B. Leukaemia C. Gastrointestinal malignancy D. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma Ans: 107-C 1CJ8.A 108-C 110.S 111-8 112-D 113-A 114-B 115-C

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MCQs In Internal Medicine

116. Which is not true in pleural disease of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Exudative effusion B. Glucose 10-50 mg/di C. High CH50 D. Protein > 4 g/di 117. 'Arthritis mutilans' is characteristic of: A. Psoriasis B. Reite.r's syndrome C. ~et's syndrome D. Sjogren's syndrome

118. CREST syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of: A. Anti.-RNP antibody B. Anti-centromere antibody C. Anti.-Jo-1 anti'body D. Anti.-histone anb'body 119. Which type of collagen is abundant in bones? A. Type IV B. Type II c. Type m D. Type I 120. Onion-skin spleen is classically seen in: A. Scleroderma B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Mixed connective tissue clisease D. SjOgren.'s syndrome

121. Drug-induced livedo reticularis is seen with: A. Amiodarone B. Finasteride C. Amantadine D. Bromocryptine 122. Brucella arthritis commonly affects: A. Knee joint B. Joints of hands

12

c.

Spine

D. Metatarsophalangeal joint 123. Sneddon'& syndrome in antiphospholipid syndrome has skin manifestation as: A. Livedo reticularis B. Nail-fold thrombi C. Erythema nodosum D. Palpable purpura 124. False-positive lupus band test is seen in all except: A. Rosacea B. Porphyria cutanea tarda C. Mixed connective tissue clisease D. Rheumatoid arthritis Ans: 116-C 117-A 118-8 119-D 126-B 121-C 122-C 123-A 12~

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125. Metacarpophalangeal foints are usually not affected in: A. Osteoarthritis B. Reactive arthritis C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 126. Which of the following usually presents as monoarthropathy? A. SLE B. Rheumatoid. arthritis C. Gout D. Sjogren's syndrome 127. Anti-qtokine therapy is \lSu.ally not associated with: A. Demyelination B. Anaphylaxis C. Reactivation of latent tuberculosis D. Reversible lupus-syndrome 128. Jaccoud's arthropathy is not characteristic of: A. Sarcoidosis B. Reiter's syndrome C. Rheumatic fever D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 129. ANF is not found in SLE, when there is: A. Overlap syndrome B. Presence of lupus anticoagulant C. Otronic renal failure D. Presence of anti-cardiolipin antibody

130. All of the following rheumatological disorders are commonly encountered in diabetes mellitu.s except: A. Dupuytren's contracture B. Oteiroarthropathy C. Osteoarthritis of knee D. Sacroillitis U1. Which is not used to b.'eat acute gouty arthritis? A. Etoricoxib B. Allopurinol

C. Prednisolone

D. Colchicine

132. Finkelstein's test is positive in: A. De Quervains' tenosynovitis B. Cervical rib C. Dupuytren's contracture D. Ankylosing spondylitis Ana: 125-A 126-C 127-B 128-B 129-C 130-D 131-B 132-A

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U3. Which of the following is not regarded as a 'small vessel' vasculitides? A. Microscopic polyangiitis B. Henoch-5chonlein purpura C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Essential mixed cryoglobulinaemia 134. Which of the following is false regarding anti-cyclic citrullina· ted peptide (CCP) antibody? A. Commonly found in rheumatoid. arthritis B. Pre.sent in approximately 1.5% of normal population C. Common in non-smokers D. Psoriatic arthropathy patients may have anti-CCP positivity 1SS. Gout may be treated by all except: A. Interleukin-1 inhibitor, anakinra B. Benzbromarone C. Pegloticase D. Olmesartan 136. In 'SAPHO syndrome' in rheumatology, "'A" stands for: A. Acanthosis nigricans B. Acne C. Achrochordon D. Adenoma sebaceum 137. Complex regional pain syndrome was previously known by all except: A. Sudek's atrophy B. Causalgia C. Allodynia D. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome

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138. Inclusion body myositis is characterised by all except: A. Progressive weakness of proximal muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in > 50% of the patients C. Creatine kinase is mildly elevated D. BMG shows both myopathic and neuropathic patterns 139. Sickle cell anaemia may be complicated by all except: A. Avascular necrosis of bone B. Osteomyelitis C. Polyarthritis D. Dactylitis 140. Commonest presentation of cardiac lupus is: A. Aortic incompetence B. Myocarditis C. Llbman-5.acks endocarditis D. Pericarditis Ans: 133..C 134-C 135-D 136·8 137..C 138-A 139..C 140-D

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141. Churg-Strauss syndrome commonly manliests as: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Allergic rhinitis C. Sinusitis D. Epistaxis 142. HI.A B-27 is usually detected in all except: A. Psoriatic arthritis B. Reactive arthritis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Ankylosing spondylitis 143. Infliximab is directed against: A. Intercellular adhesionmolecule-1 (ICAM-1) B. Interleukin-2 C. Interleukin-6 D. Tumour necrosis factor-a

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Ans: 141-B 142-C 143-D

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13 Endocrinology

1. Features of hypoglycaemia do not include: A. Drenching sweat B. Tachycardia C. Tachypnoea D. Brisk jerk

2. Earliest changes observed by ophthalmoscope in background retinopathy of diabetes is: A. Venous dilatation B. Microaneurysms C. Increased capillary permeability D. Arteriovenous shunts 3. Which of the following is not a part of metabolic 'syndrome X'? A. Hyperlipidaemia B. Obesity C. Ischaemic heart disease D. Hypertension 4. Thiazolidinedione group of anti.diabetic is: A. Vogl:a'bose B. Nateglinide C. Rosiglitazone D. Glimepiride

5. Effect of diabetes on foetus includes all except: A. Microsomia B. Hyperbilirubinaemia C. Stillbirth D. Open neural tube defed 6. All are features of diabetic ketoacidosis ex.apt: A. Hyperthermia B. Drowsiness C. Dehydration D. Air hunger 7. Commonest cause of coma in a diabetic is: A. Diabetic ketoacid.osis B. Lactic acidosis C. Hyperosmolar non-ketotic coma D. Hypoglycaemia Ane: 1-C 2·B 3-C 4-C 5-A 6-A 7·D

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8. Which of the following is not a feature of diabetes mellltus? A. Rubeosis iridi.s B. Pseudo Argyll Robertson pupil C. Hippus D. Isolated IIIrd cranial nerve palsy 9. A patient of impaired fasting glucose ranges blood glucose value in between: A. 96-106 mg/dl B. 106-116 mg/dl C. 100-125 mg/dl D. 116-130 mg/dl 10. Glycated fru.ctosamine gives an indication of glycaemia control for last: A. 3days B. 7 days C. 10 days D. 14 days 11. Neurological features of myxoedema include all of the following except: A. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Hypertonia D. Bradylalia 12. Hypoglycaemia may result from all except: A. Glycogen storage disease B. Oaronic pancreatitis C. Galactosaemia D. Post-gastrectomy

13. Which of the following is not a neuromuscular feature of thyrotoxicosis? A. Myasthenic syndrome B. Brisk knee jerk C. Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis D. Hyperkinesia 14. Myxoedema coma is characterised. by: A. Hypertension B. Tachycardia D. Hypoventilation C. Euthermia

15. Commonest cause of unilateral exophthalmos is: A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Retrobulbar tumour C. Otloroma D. Thyrotoxicosis Ans: 8-C

~

10-D 11·C 12·B 13-B 14-D 15·D

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16. Thyroid eye disease is treated by all except: A. 1% methyl cellulose B. Prednisolone C. 5% guanidine D. Levothyroxine 17. "Microalbuminuria' is urinary albumin excretion ratio: A. 10-100 µg/min B. 20-200 µg/min C. 30-300 µg/min D. 40-400 µg/min 18. Hypothyroidism in neonatal period is manifested by all

except: A. Prolonged physiological jaundice B. Hoarse cry

C. Diarrhoea D. Somnolence 19. Sleeping pulse rate is not increased in: A. Anxiety neurosis B. Rheumatic carditis C. Pulmonary tuberculosis D. Atropinised patient

20. Which of the following is not a feature of autonomic neuropathy in diabetes? A. Retrograde ejaculation B. Gustatory sweating C. Mononeuritis multiplex D. Hypoglycaemic unresponsiveness 21. Beta-blockers can be used in all exeept: A. Glaucoma B. Bronchial asthma C. Anxiety states D. Angina pectoris

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22. Cardiovascular findings of thyrotoxicosis do not include: A. Loud~ B. Means-Lerman scartch C. Water-hammer pulse D. Ejection click

23. Myxoedema is characterised by all except: A. Butterfly rash in face B. Sinus bradycardia C. Solid oedema D. Madarosis 24. Secondary hypothyroidism is not featured by: A. Normal cholesterol B. Menorrhagia D. Fine hairs C. Low TSH Ans: 1•0 17-B 18-C 19-A 20-C 21-B 22-D 23-A 24-B

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25. Thyroid aaopachy is found in: A. Subdi.nical hypothyroidism B. Graves' disease C. Myx.oedema D. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid 26. Upper segment > lower segment of body is found in all (in dwarfism) except: A. Pituitary dwarf B. Cretinism C. Achondroplasia D. Juvenile myx.oedema

27. Acromegaly is associated with all of the following except: A. Acanthosis nigricans B. Fibromata mollusca C. Micrognathia D. Cardiomegaly 28. Klinefelter's syndrome is characterised by: A. Small, soft testes B. Chromosomal pattern 46, XO C. Upper segment> lower segment of body D. Gynaecomastia 29. Which of the following is not an intermediate-acting glucocorticoid7 A. Cortisone B. Triamcinolone C. Prednisolone D. Prednisone

30. Hirsutism may develop from all exeept: A. Psoralens B. Diazoxide C. Carbamazepine D. Minoxidil 31. Tall stature is not characteristic of: A. Klinefelter's syndrome B. Homocystinuria D. Turner's syndrome C. Marfan's syndrome 32. Which cranial nerve is not involved. in acromegaly7 A. vm B. m, IV, VI C. V D. Il 33. Cushing's syndrome does not give rise to: A. Hirsutism B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Purple striae D. Acne Ana: 25-B 2&-A 27-C 28-D 29-A 30.C 31-D 32-C 33-B

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34. Medical adrenalectomy is done by aU except: A. Aminoglutethimide B. Mitotane C. Mexiletine D. Metyrapone 35. "Pseudo-Cushing's syndrome' may be found in aU exupt: A. Myxoedema B. Chronic alcoholism C. Obesity D. Depression 36. Sheehan's syndrome presents with: A. Cardiac failure B. Persistent lactation C. Fever D. Striking cachexia 37. Hypocakaemia is produced by all except: A. Hysterical hypoventilation B. Acute pancreatitis C. Chronic renal failure D. Osteomalacia

38 'Menopause' may be manifested by all except: A. Hirsutism B. Emotional lability C. Osteoporosis D. Phobic neuroses 39. Gynaecomastia may be produced after treatment with all

uapt: A. Spironolactone

c.

Cimetidine

B. Digitalis D. Rifampicin

40. Primary hyperaldosteronism is not featured by: A. Diastolic hypertension B. Paraesthesia C. Alkalosis D. Oedema

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41. Thyrotoxicosis may be featured by all except: A. Myopathy B. Pretibial myxoedema C. Hypernatraemia D. Atrial fibrillation 42. Which of the following is not associated with hypothyroidism? A. Loss of h'bido B. Weight loss C. Cardiac failure D. Organic pyschosis

43. Tetany is characterised by all of the following signs except: A. Trousseau's sign B. Tinel's sign C. Erb's sign D. Peroneal sign Ans: 34..C 35-A 36-D 37-A 38-D 39-D 40-D 41-C 42-B 43-B

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44. All of the following are featured by dermal hyperpigmentation

euept: A. Conn's syndrome C. Addison's disease

B. Bronchogenic carcinoma D. Haemochromatosis

45. Hyperparathyroidism is not featured by: A. Acute panaeati.tis B. Nephrocalcinosis C. Palpable neck swelling D. Pseudogout 46. Phaeoduomocytoma is not associated with: A. Weight gain B. Fear of death (angor animi) C. Paroxysmal hypertension D. Constipation

47. Which of the following is false :regarding medullary carcinoma of thyroid? A. Cervical Iymphadenopathy B. High serum calcitonin C. Carcinoid syndrome may be associated with D. Psychosis 48. Malignant hypercalcaemia is treated by all euept: A. Pamidronate B. Calcitonin C. Calcitriol D. Glucocorticoids 49. Most common type of carcinoma of the thyroid gland is: A. Follicular B. Anaplasti.c C. Papillary D. Mixed (A +C) SO. Features of Addison's disease do not include: A. Diarrhoea B. Dizziness C. Dermatitis D. Dehydration

51. Pseudohypoparathyroidism is not associated with: A. Cataract B. Raised level of plasma PIH C. Mental retardation D. Reduced level of plasma phosphate 52. Commonest cause of phaeochromocytoma is: A. Tumour of adrenal medulla B. Necrosis of adrenal gland C. Small cell carcinoma of bro:nchus D. Adrenal cortical hyperplasia Ans: 44-A 45-C 46-A 47-D 48-C 49-D 50-C 51-D 52-A

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&3. Commonest cause of Addison's disease is: A. Granuloma B. Idiopathic atrophy C. Inflammatory necrosis D. Malignancy

54. All of the following are noted in Cushing's syndrome except: A. Psychosis B. Systemic hypertension C. Sexual precocity D. Osteoporosis 55. Secondary hyperaldosteronism is associated with all except: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Nephroti.c syndrome

C. SIADH

D. Cirrhosis of liver

56. Empty sella syndrome may be due to all except: A. Sheehan's syndrome B. Spontaneous development C. Pituitary tumour D. Post-irradiation necrosis of pituitary gland 57. Increased muscle mass with slowness of activity (Hoffman syndrome) is seen in: A. Aaomegaly B. Myxoedema C. Pseudohypoparathyroidism D. Myotonia dystrophica

58. All of the following develop into dwarfism except: A. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia B. Hypopituitarism C. Homocystinuria D. Pseudohypoparathyroidism

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59. Plummer's nails are a feature of: A. Atopic eczema B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Multiple endocrine neoplasia type I 60. Froehlich's syndl'ome is characterised by alt ex.cept: A. Infantilism B. Troncal obesity D. Mental retardation C. Diabetes mellitus Ans: 53-B 54.C 55-C 56-C 57-B 58-C 59-C 60-C

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61. The triad of hyponatraemia, haemodilution and urine hypertonic to plasma suggest diagnosis of: A. Nephrotic syndrome B. SIADH C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D. Addison's disease

62. 'Heel-pad thickness' for a male acromegaly should be: A. >14mm C. >19mm ~.

B. >18mm D. >21mm

Neph:rogenk diabetes insipidus may develop due to all except: A. Cystinosis B. lithium-induced C. Chronic hepatitis D. Heavy metal poisoning

64. All of the following drugs may produce galactorrhoea except: A. Salicylates B. Reserpine D. Methyldopa C. Cimetidine 65. All of the following produce hypergonadotropic hypogonadism.

except: A. Sertoli cell only tumour C. Kallman's syndrome

B. Klinefelter's syndrome

D. Reifenste:in's syndrome

66. Which is not a part of multiple endocrine neoplasia type I (Wermers syndJ.'ome)? A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Tumour of pituitary C. TumOUl' of panaeas D. Hyperparathyroidism

67. Calcification of basal ganglia is seen in: A. Primary hyperparathyroidism B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Secondary hyperparathyroidism D. Milk-alkali syndrome

68. Phaeochromocytoma may be associated with following anomalies ex.cept: A. Neurofibromatosis B. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Addison's disease Ans: 61-B 62-D 63-C 64-A &S-C 66-A 67-B 68-D

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69. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism is commonly found in: A. Rickets B. Pseudohypoparathyroidism C. Oaronic renal failure D. Malabsorpfion syndrome 70. Commonest enzymatic defect for development of congenital adrenal hyperplasia is: A. C-21 hydroxylase deficiency B. 3bdehydrogenasedeficiency C. C-11 hydroxylase deficiency D. C-17 hydroxylase deficiency

71. 'Brown tumour' of bone is found in: A. Primary hyperparathyroidism B. Pseudohypoparathyroidism C. ~ondary hyperparathyroidism D. Hypoparathyroidism 72. Primary aldosteronism is not featured by: A. Low plasma renin B. Hypokalaemia D. Systemic hypertension C. Oedema 73. Which is not a feature of mucosal neuroma syndrome (multiple endocrine neoplasia type 111)7 A. Cafe au lait spots B. Blubbery lips C. Kyphoscoliosis D. Thickened ulnar nerve 74. Necrolyti.c migratory erythema is characteristic of: A. Insulinoma B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome C. Pancreatic cholera D. Glucagonoma

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15. Prader-Willi syndrome is featured by alt except: A. Mental retardation B. Obesity D. Hypogonadism C. Hyperto.nia

76. Which of the following does not produce fasting hypo· glycaemia? A. Galactosaemia B. Insulinoma C. Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency D. Systemic camitine deficiency Ans: &•C 70-A 71-A 72-C 73-D 74-D 7S.C 7&-A

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Tl. Schmidt syndrome (polyglandular deficiency syndrome) is not

associated with: A. Adrenal insufficiency C. Diabetes mellitus

B. Hypoparathyroidism D. Phaeochromocytoma

78. All of the following produce hirsutism with virllisation except: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Arrhenoblastoma C. Malignant adrenal hyperplasia D. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia 79. Erythropoietin is secreted from: A. Mesenchymal tumours B. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma C. Juxtaglomerular tumour D. Lymphoma

80. Turner's syndrome is not associated with: A. Shield-like chest B. Aortic incompetence C. Bilateral cubitus valgus

D. Webbing of neck

81. Melatonin is clinically used in: A. Pituitary tumour B. ~ompres.sion sickness C. High-altitude pulmonary oedema D. Jetlag 82. POEMS syndrome aggregates polyneuropathy, organomegaly, M-proteins, skin changes and.___. A. Enlarged pituitary gland B. Empyema thorads C. Endocrinopathy D. Endocarditis

83. Sildenafil (Viagra) should be used with caution in: A. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Diabetes mellitus C. Endogenous depression D. Hypertension 84. Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) excretion is increased in urine in: A. Conn's syndrome B. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia C. Testicular feminisation syruhome D. Phaeochromocytoma Ans: 77-D 78-A 79-B 80-B 81-D 82-C 83-A 84-D

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85. Commonest cause of thy:rotoxicosis is: A. Multinodular goitre B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis C. Graves' disease D. Well-differentiated carcinoma 86. In pregnancy, antithyroid treatment of choice is: A. Radio-active iodine B. Carbimazole c. Subtotal thyroidectomy D. Corticosteroid 87. Charcot joint in diabetes mellitus commonly affed9: A. Hip B. Shoulder C. Knee D. Foot

88. Osmorec:eptors are present in: A. Atria B. Kidney C. Anterior hypothalamus D. Adrenal cortex

89. The prostaglandins were first demonstrated in: A. CSF B.Urine C. Semen D. Blood 90. Which is considered to be an endocrine organ? A. Skin B. Ciliary body C. Small intestine D. Breast 91. Epiphyseal dysgenesis is seen in: A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Secondary hyperparathyroidism C. Cushing's syndrome D. Hypothyroidism

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92. Commonest site of insulinoma is in the pancreatic: A. Tail B. Head C. Body D. Same incidence everywhere 93. In Somogyi phenomenon commonly associated with type 2 diabetes mellitus, the dose of insulin should be: A. Increased B. Stopped D. Needs no change C. Decreased Ans: 85-C 86-B 87-D 88-C 89-C 9G-C 91-D 92-D 93-C

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94. Miglitol used in diabetes mellitus falls under category of drugs like: A. Alpha-glucosidase inhI'bitor B. Thiazolidinediones C. Sulphonylureas D. Biguanides 95. Thyromegaly may develop from all except: A. Otlorpromazine B. Lithium C. Phenylbutazone D. PAS 96. In the Klinefelter's syndrome: A. All the patients are infertile B. Plasma FSH is elevated C. There may be shield-like chest D. Testes and breast atrophy

'¥1. Which of the following is not a recognised feature of myxoedema? A. Ascites B. Cerebellar ataxia C. Increased incidence of pernicious anaemia D. Thyroid acropachy 98. Percussion myoedema is characteristic of: A. Acromegaly B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Sheehan's syndrome D. Hypothyroidism 99. Anorexia nervosa is not associated with: A. Hypokalaemia B. Primary amenorrhoea C. Exclusively in females D. Low FSH and LH

100. 'Blubbery' Ups are characteristic of: A. Mucosal neuroma syndrome (MEN type III) B. McCune-Albright syndrome C. Osteogenesis imperfecta D. Schmidt syndrome (polyglandular deficiency syndrome)

101. Priapism may be a side effect of: A. Reserpine B. Octreotide C. Methaqualone D. Trazodone Ans: 94-A 95-A 96-B 97-D 98-D 99-C 100-A 101-D

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102. Which of the following is false regarding prerequisites of oral glucose tolerance test? A. Restricted carbohydrate diet, 72 hours before test B. Patient will take 75 g of glucose orally during the test C. Fasting overnight D. Should not smoke during the test 103. Orlistat is used to treat: A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Obesity C. Pseudohypoparathyroidism D. Anorexia nervosa 104. Prolonged ingestion of iodine can produce goib.'e, and is known

as: A. Jod-Basedow effect C. Wolf-Otaikoff effect

B. Sick euthyroid syndrome D. Thyrotoxicosis factitia

105. Priapism may be encountered in all except: A. Spinal cord injury B. Alprostadil therapy C. Sickle cell anaemia D. Autonomic neuropathy

106. Seminal emission may be absent in all euept: A. Phentolamine therapy B. Parasympathetic denervation C. Retrograde ejaculation D. Androgen deficiency 107. Advanced maternal age is a predisposing factor in: A. Turner's syndrome B. Ataxia-telangiectasia C. I