Kiran Bank Po Reasoning Chapterwise Solved Papers 1999 Till Date (English Medium) 9821874015, 9821643815

Table of contents :
Cover
Title
Copyrights
About The Book
Contents
Untitled
1 : ALPHABET
2 : SERIES
3 : ANALOGY
4 : CLASSIFICATION
5 : CODING/DECODING
6 : BLOOD RELATIONSHIP
7 : SYMBOLS & NOTATIONS
8 : DISTANCE & DIRECTION
9 : RANKING/ARRANGEMENT
10 : INPUT
11 : SYLLOGISM
12 : PROBLEM SOLVING
13 : ARGUMENTATION
14 : ASSUMPTION
15 : CONCLUSIONS/ INFERENCES
16 : COURSES OF ACTION
17 : DATA SUFFICIENCY
18 : DATA ANALYSIS
19 : CAUSE & EFFECT
20 : MISCELLANEOUS

Citation preview

n K ir a

’s

Chapterwise Questions with explanation of Previous Years’ Exams conducted by Nationalised Banks, Gramin Banks, IBPS (PO/MT/SO, RRBs Officer), SBI & SBI Associates, RBI (Grade ‘B’), NABARD (Grade–‘A’) & Insurance Sector (AAO, AO etc.)

FOR FRANCHISEE CONTACT :

RU-67, PITAMPURA, DELHI-110034, Ph : 27345258, 27342249, Fax : 27345258 BPRE–1

Delhi : RU-67, Opposite Power House, Pitampura, Delhi-110034, Ph. : 9821874015, 9821643815 Email : [email protected] www.kiranprakashan.com

For the books & magazines of Kiran Prakashan contact your nearest booksellers. For detailed inform ation log on our w ebsite : www.kiranprakashan.com

© KIRAN INSTITUTE OF CAREER EXCELLENCE PVT. LTD. (KICX) NEW EDITION The copyright of this book is entirely with the Kiran Institute of Career Excellence Pvt. Ltd.The reproduction of this book or a part of this will be punishable under the Copyright Act. All disputes subject to Delhi jurisdiction. Every possible effort has been made to ensure that the information contained in this book is accurate at the time of going to press, and the publishers and authors cannot accept responsibility for any errors or omissions, however caused. No responsibility for loss or damage occasioned to any person acting, or refraining from action, as a result of the material in this publication can be accepted by the editor, the publisher or any of the authors. Reviewed by : Think Tank of PRATIYOGITA KIRAN, KIRAN PRAKASHAN & KICX Assistance : ● Rakesh Kumar ● Govind Pd. Singh ● Sanket Sah ● Auranjeb Khan Design & Layout by : KICX COMPUTER SECTION, New Delhi.

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USEFUL FOR ALL COMPETITIVE EXAMS

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299

BPRE–2

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About the Book......✍ The significance of past never diminishes, either in effect or substance. To forget this moot point becomes suicidal sometimes. A minute observation of the past and accumulated experiences help us in shaping our present. The positive and compendious conclusions drawn from the past become our pioneer in charting new ways and teach us to rectify our remedies. Our present is, thus, beautified. Where there is beauty, attraction cannot be negated. It is in this way that the foundation of a concrete future is further solidified. Aspirations turn into realities. This is a realistic reflection. If the past is forgotten by marginalizing this realism, the truth of past surfaces as a path strewn with pebbles. If we preserve and cherish these pebbles of the past and make correct use of them, they become the linchpin of an edifice called success. Thus, the intricacies of our path become effortless and our destination gets more and more intelligible. Kiran Prakashan Pvt. Ltd., which has been at your service for decades and helping you with the multitude of relevant offerings, has made a meaningful effort to put together these invaluable and very useful pebbles in the form of a book, titled Kiran’s BANK PO REASONING Chapterwise Solved Papers. It is indeed a momentous occasion to present the Kiran’s BANK PO REASONING Chapterwise Solved Papers, based on the new syllabus and pattern announced by the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS), SBI, RBI NABARD and Insurance sector. Kiran Prakashan has been keeping you updated with all the relevant information related to these very changes. This Book is another example of the commitment we feel towards our readers, imparting completeness in their search for a better and secure future. The book before you, Kiran’s BANK PO REASONING Chapterwise Solved Papers, is a compilation of chapterwise questions of Reasoning that have been asked in the various competitive examinations by Nationalised Banks, Gramin Banks, IBPS (PO/MT/SO RRBs Officer), SBI, RBI (Grade‘B’), NABARD GRADE–‘A’ & Insurance Sector (AAO, AO etc.). This book has been conceived as a holistic treatment and single solution to all the difficulties that a candidate encounters while appearing at the Nationalised Banks, Gramin Banks, IBPS, SBI, RBI NABARD & Insurance Sector examinations. The Think-Tank of Kiran Prakashan has taken into account the needs and difficulties of candidates and made an attempt to simplify the subject matter by de-constructing every thread and each pattern. Not only have the questions asked in the different examinations conducted by Banks Exams been compiled at one place, but also they have been compartmentalized topically and made easy to grasp and digest with the help of comprehensive explanations. This is a rare collection of more than 10900 questions and their respective explanations. It wouldn’t be bragging if we say, do master these questions and their explanations, you will automatically find yourself at ease with most of what surfaces in form of examination questions. In other words, master this book sincerely; success will itself become the mistress. Kiran’s BANK PO REASONING Chapterwise Solved Papers has been parceled out into 24 Chapters, (20 verbal + 4 Non-verbal) each dealing with bulk of questions and explanations. The Chapters are : VERBAL REASONING : Alphabet, Series, Analogy, Classification, Coding/ Decoding, Blood Relationship, Symbols & Notations, Distance & Direction, Ranking/ Arrangement, Input, Syllogism, Problem Solving, Argumentation, Assumption, Conclusions/Inferences, Courses of Action, Data Sufficiency, Data Analysis, Cause & Effect, Miscellaneous. NON-VERBAL REASONING : Series, Analogy, Classification, Miscellaneous. An attempt has been made to impart completeness to this work which you will find more and more indispensable, the more you get acquainted with it. BPRE–3

Explanations to the questions serve in some way as highly directed study material. We have ensured not to bombard you with bulky study materials which sometimes prove futile if a candidate is facing severe crunch of time. Johann Wolfgang von Goethe, considered the supreme genius of modern German literature, said once: “What is not started today is never finished tomorrow.” And, we have turned the key on with the Book titled Kiran’s BANK PO REASONING Chapterwise Solved Papers, where facts have been consolidated and refined and presented in the easy-to-digest objective question format which have actually been already asked in the different levels and formats of competitive examinations. Scientifically it has been proved that you tend to remember anything for long if that has been asked from you and you found yourself in a testing situation. So, this book has been scientifically weaved on the principle of ‘test to prepare. Some Important Facts ● Always use pen and paper to solve Reasoning. ● Study the facts and formulae of every topic. ● Always try to understand the root/source of the formulae & Tricks. ● Give a subjective approach to your study, otherwise objective approach will serve no objective. ● Comprehend the application of formulae and Tricks. ● A proper use makes the solution easy whereas an improper use hardens it. ● Solve questions of varied kind and degree. ● Go ahead from easy to harder questions. ● Believe in complete solution of questions. ● Practice makes a man perfect. ● Reasoning needs continuous practice. ● While preparing, underline the important points. ● This will help you during revision. ● It is perilous walking on a tight rope. ● So, give a wide dimension to your study. ● Most importantly, think positive, do positive. On making a microscopic appraisal of the above given explanations, you will discover that they are not merely explaining a specific question but they are more in the nature of introducing you to a subject or a theme. You will find yourself at ease in similar other questions as well. In short, this unique compilation of more than 10900 questions will serve you in more than one way. Last, but not the least, there is no shortcut to success. Only hard work and perseverance pays rich dividends in the long term. So, it is desirable on your part to make the best out of this unique offering before you. Let us remind you that the questions you find in this book will not only help you prepare for the Banks PO/Management Trainees, Specialist Officer Examinations, they will equip you with the much required knowledge and insight in ‘cracking’ other examinations as well. Hugh Nibley, the famous American author and Mormon apologist said: “Only if you reach the boundary will the boundary recede before you. If you don’t, if you confine your efforts, the boundary will shrink to accommodate itself to your efforts. If you can only expand your capacities by working to the very limit.” Our researchers have taken painstaking efforts in the direction of accommodating and expanding to the limit. The guiding principle has been to have an eye on whatever is significant, and when you do have such a microscopic eye, there is little that can be expected to have been ignored. So, here is our new, novel and unique offering to you, Kiran’s BANK PO REASONING Chapterwise Solved Papers. Read it, incorporate and digest it to reach the limits of life. See to know what it is all about. With the Best Wishes (Publisher) Satyanarayan Prasad Email : [email protected]

BPRE–4

CONTENTS S.No.

CHAPTERS

Total No. of Questions

Page No.

1.

Alphabet

[No. of Questions 247 (132+115*)]

BPRE–11

2.

Series

[No. of Questions 229 (165+64*)]

BPRE–26

3.

Analogy

[No. of Questions 151 (95+56*)]

BPRE–38

4.

Classification

[No. of Questions 162 (75+87*)]

BPRE–47

5.

Coding/Decoding

[No. of Questions 861 (569+292*)]

BPRE–54

6.

Blood Relationship

[No. of Questions 509 (444+65*)]

BPRE–113

7.

Symbols & Notations

[No. of Questions 972 (666+306*)]

BPRE–160

8.

Distance & Direction

[No. of Questions 300 (265+35*)]

BPRE–234

9.

Ranking/Arrangement

[No. of Questions 2093 (1558+535*)]

BPRE–272

10.

Input

[No. of Questions 546 (391+155*)]

BPRE–438

11.

Syllogism

[No. of Questions 955 (672+283*)]

BPRE–498

12.

Problem Solving

[No. of Questions 1539 (1371+168*)]

BPRE–657

13.

Argumentation

[No. of Questions 170 (92+78*)]

BPRE–807

14.

Assumption

[No. of Questions 280 (124+156*)]

BPRE–825

15.

Conclusions/Inferences

[No. of Questions 363 (184+179*)]

BPRE–843

16.

Courses of Action

[No. of Questions 371 (118+253*)]

BPRE–873

17.

Data Sufficiency

[No. of Questions 470 (317+153*)]

BPRE–893

18.

Data Analysis

[No. of Questions 254 (201+53*)]

BPRE–965

19.

Cause & Effect

[No. of Questions 227 (131+96*)]

BPRE–992

20.

Miscellaneous

[No. of Questions 267 (213+54*)]

BPRE–1013

[TOTAL NO. OF QUESTIONS 10966 (7783+3183*)] * No. of questions available online/visit kicx.in

BPRE–5

Chapterwise Distribution of Questions asked in the Nationalised Banks, Gramin Banks, IBPS (PO/MT/SO) Exams Held from 2011 to 2021

1

3

4

1

—

1

1

1

—

1

—

1

—

—

—

—

—

—

1

—

—

3.

Analogy

—

—

—

2

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

1

—

—

4.

Classification

—

—

1

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

1

—

—

—

5.

Coding/Decoding

—

—

—

5

3

6

5

6

5

4

—

—

5

—

4

6.

Blood Relationship

—

—

—

—

—

1

3

4

—

1

—

3

2

5

5

7.

Symbols & Notations

—

—

—

—

5

—

6

5

5

3

3

—

5

5

—

8.

Distance & Direction

1

—

—

—

1

1

—

—

1

—

—

3

—

—

1

9.

Ranking/Arrangement

—

18

13

12

6

10

12

7

11

11

9

16

10

10

10 —

IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE-III, 26.10.2013

IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Prelim Exam) 04.12.2021

—

—

IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Prelim Exam) 31.12.2020

IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Prelim Exam), 12.10.2019

—

2

IBPS Specialist Officer (Agriculture) CWE 29.10.2017

1

—

Corporation Bank SO (Marketing) Exam, 22.02.2014

—

—

IBPS Specialist Officer CWE, 17.03.2013

2

Series

IBPS RRBs Officer CWE, 09.09.2012

Alphabet

2.

CHAPTERS

IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE, 17.06.2012

1.

S. No.

IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE, 18.09.2011

IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Prelim Exam), 14.10.2018

IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Main Exam), 18.11.2016

IBPS Specialist Officer (IT) CWE 14.02.2016

IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V (Main Exam) 31.10.2015

Bank of Baroda Junior Management Grade/ Scale-I Exam, 18.04.2015

REASONING

VERBAL REASONING

10. Input

5

4

—

3

5

—

—

4

5

5

5

—

—

—

11. Syllogism

2

7

5

5

5

4

6

5

5

3

5

3

—

5

4

12. Problem Solving

10

—

—

—

5

6

7

8

13

10

17

5

10

15

10

13. Argumentation

—

—

—

3

—

—

—

—

1

2

—

—

—

—

—

14. Assumption

5

1

—

2

2

2

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

15. Conclusions/Inferences

5

5

5

7

2

—

1

1

2

—

—

—

—

—

—

16. Courses of Action

—

—

—

—

—

10

—

—

—

2

—

—

—

—

—

17. Data Sufficiency

5

5

—

—

5

—

5

5

—

3

5

—

—

—

—

18. Data Analysis

—

—

3

5

5

5

—

—

—

—

1

3

—

—

—

19. Cause & Effect

5

—

—

6

1

2

2

1

1

3

1

—

—

—

—

20. Miscellaneous

—

—

—

—

5

1

—

—

—

3

3

—

—

—

—

NON-VERBAL REASONING 21. Series

5

5

10

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

22. Analogy

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

23. Classification

—

—

5

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

24. Miscellaneous

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

50

50

40

50

50

50

50

50

50

50

50

35

35

40

35

TOTAL NUMBER OF QUESTIONS

BPRE–6

Chapterwise Distribution of Questions asked in the SBI Exams Held from 2011 to 2019.

SBI PO (Prelim) Exam, 09.06.2019

SBI PO (Prelim) Exam, 08.07.2018

SBI PO Phase-II (Main) Exam, 04.06.2017

SBI PO (Preliminary) Exam 07.05.2017

SBI PO Online (Main) Exam, 31.07.2016

SBI PO Phase–I (Pre.) Online Exam 27.06.2015

SBI Associate PO Online Exam, 30.11.2014

SBI Management Executive Exam, 23.02.2014

CHAPTERS

SBI PO Exam, 28.04.2013

S. No.

SBI Associate Banks PO Exam, 07.08.2011

REASONING

VERBAL REASONING 1. Alphabet

—

—

1

—

—

—

—

—

2

1

2. Series

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

2

3. Analogy

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

1

4. Classification

1

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

1

—

5. Coding/Decoding

6

5

—

—

5

1

1

—

—

—

6. Blood Relationship

—

—

—

3

3

1

1

—

2

3

7. Symbols & Notations 8. Distance & Direction

3 —

10 —

5 —

6 —

5 2

5 —

5 1

— 9

4 4

4 —

9. Ranking/Arrangement

12

5

5

11

10

5

6

10

9

10

10. Input

3

5

—

6

—

5

—

3

4

—

11. Syllogism

—

5

5

6

5

5

—

—

—

4

12. Problem Solving

—

—

5

3

5

10

21

12

9

10

13. Argumentation

2

2

—

—

—

3

—

—

—

—

14. Assumption

1

1

5

—

—

—

—

1

—

—

15. Conclusions/ Inferences 16. Courses of Action

6 —

1 1

5 5

— 2

— —

— —

— —

3 —

— —

— —

17. Data Sufficiency

5

5

4

5

—

5

—

—

—

—

18. Data Analysis

6

5

10

5

—

5

—

6

—

—

19. Cause & Effect

—

—

—

1

—

—

—

1

—

—

20. Miscellaneous

—

—

—

2

—

—

—

—

—

—

21. Series

5

5

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

22. Analogy 23. Classification

— —

— —

— —

— —

— —

— —

— —

— —

— —

— —

24. Miscellaneous

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

50

50

50

50

35

45

35

45

35

35

NON-VERBAL REASONING

TOTAL NUMBER OF QUESTIONS

BPRE–7

Chapterwise Distribution of Questions asked in the RBI Officer Grade–B and NABARD Officer Grade–A Exams Held from 2011 to 2021.

RBI Officer in Grade ‘B’ Phase-I Exam, 16.08.2018

RBI Grade ‘B’ Officer Exam, 09.11.2019

RBI Officer Grade ‘B’ Phase-I Exam, 06.03.2021

—

—

1

—

1

—

2

1

10

—

—

—

1

—

—

—

1

1

—

3.

Analogy

1

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

4.

Classification

1

—

—

1

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

5.

Coding/Decoding

—

6

8

5

5

—

5

—

5

—

5

6.

Blood Relationship

—

—

5

2

—

—

1

—

4

—

10

7.

Symbols & Notations

10

5

5

5

5

5

4

—

5

—

—

8.

Distance & Direction

15

—

—

1

—

—

—

3

3

4

2

9.

Ranking/Arrangement

5

—

8

12

13

10

5

9

10

9

21

Input

5

6

5

2

5

5

5

—

—

5

—

11.

Syllogism

—

6

6

6

5

5

6

3

—

4

5

12.

Problem Solving

5

—

8

11

17

8

16

4

15

20

2

13.

Argumentation

5

—

1

1

—

1

4

—

1

1

—

14.

Assumption

10

5

—

—

—

—

—

—

1

1

—

RBI Officer Grade ‘B’ Phase-I Exam, 04.09.2016 (Shift-II)

—

1

NABARD A.M. Online Exam, 15.05.2016

2

Series

RBI Officer Grade ‘B’ Phase-I Exam, 21.11.2015

Alphabet

2.

RBI Officer Grade ‘B’ Phase-I Exam, 03.08.2014

1.

S. No. CHAPTERS

RBI Grade–B Officer Exam, 06.02.2011

NABARD A.M. Online Exam, 06.08.2017

NABARD Officer Grade ‘A’ Online Exam, 01.03.2015

RBI Officer Grade ‘B’ Online Exam, 25.08.2013

REASONING

VERBAL REASONING

10.

15.

Conclusions/ Inferences 5

7

1

—

1

1

2

—

3

1

—

16.

Courses of Action

—

—

—

—

—

1

1

1

2

—

17.

Data Sufficiency

10

—

3

2

5

3

5

—

5

2

—

18.

Data Analysis

—

17

7

—

1

1

—

—

—

—

—

19.

Cause & Effect

—

3

3

2

1

1

2

—

2

1

5

20.

Miscellaneous

—

5

—

—

—

—

3

—

2

8

—

21.

Series

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

22.

Analogy

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

23.

Classification

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

24.

Miscellaneous

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

80

60

60

50

60

40

60

20

60

60

60

5

NON-VERBAL REASONING

TOTAL NUMBER OF QUESTIONS

BPRE–8

Chapterwise Distribution of Questions asked in the Insurance Officer Exams Held from 2012 to 2019.

LIC AAO Main Exam, 28.06.2019

LIC AAO Prelim Exam, 05.05.2019

NICL A.O. Exam, 05.06.2017

LIC AAO Online Exam, 06.03.2016

NIACL Administrative Office (AO) Online Exam, 12.01.2015

NICL (GIC) Administrative Officer Exam, 15.12.2013

LIC Assistant Administrative Officer Exam, 12.05.2013

CHAPTERS

United India Insurance AAO Exam, 26.05.2013

S. No.

United India Insurance AAO Exam, 03.06.2012

REASONING

VERBAL REASONING 1. Alphabet

3

3

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

2. Series

2

1

—

1

—

—

—

—

—

3. Analogy

14

—

—

2

—

—

—

—

—

4. Classification 5. Coding/Decoding

2 —

— 7

— 6

7 3

— —

— —

— 6

— —

— —

6. Blood Relationship

—

3

1

2

2

2

4

—

1

7. Symbols & Notations

5

—

—

—

6

—

2

4

3

8. Distance & Direction

—

—

—

1

2

2

3

3

1

9. Ranking/Arrangement

5

—

1

3

6

10

10

10

10

10. Input

5

5

—

—

5

—

—

—

—

11. Syllogism

6

6

5

—

8

5

—

5

3

12. Problem Solving 13. Argumentation

— 5

1 —

— —

— —

4 —

11 —

10 —

10 —

10 —

14. Assumption

5

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

15. Conclusions/ Inferences

—

4

6

—

—

—

—

—

—

16. Courses of Action

—

—

1

—

—

—

—

—

—

17. Data Sufficiency

—

5

3

—

5

—

—

—

2

18. Data Analysis

5

15

7

—

11

—

—

—

—

19. Cause & Effect

—

—

—

—

1

—

—

—

—

20. Miscellaneous

3

—

—

6

—

—

—

3

—

NON-VERBAL REASONING 21. Series

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

22. Analogy

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

23. Classification

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

24. Miscellaneous

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

—

60

50

30

25

50

30

35

35

30

TOTAL NUMBER OF QUESTIONS

BPRE–9

C 

ALPHABET

1

ALPHABET

QUESTIONS FROM 1999 TO 2010 ARE AVAILABLE ONLINE NATIONALISED BANKS & IBPS PO/MT/SO EXAMS 1. If all the vowels in the word ‘SAINTLY’ are rearranged in the alphabetical order from left to right, followed by the consonants in the alphabetical order from left to right, the position of which of the following five alphabets will remain unchanged ? (1) S (2) T (3) L (4) A (5) Y (BOB Junior Management Grade/Scale–I Exam. 18.04.2015)

2. It is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the third, fourth, seventh and the eighth letters of the word ‘VIDEOGRAPHY’, which would be the second letter of that word from the right end ? If more than one such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give Z as your answer. (1) D (2) A (3) R (4) X (5) Z (BOB Junior Management Grade/Scale–I Exam. 18.04.2015)

3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘MACHINERY’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both the forward and backward directions), as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ? (1) Three (2) Two (3) None (4) One (5) More than three (BOB Junior Management Grade/Scale–I Exam. 18.04.2015)

4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘LENGTH’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ?

(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three (IBPS RRBs Officer Scale–I & II CWE 13.09.2015)

5. If each vowel in the word ‘REMAINS’ is changed to next alphabet according to the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to previous letter, how many alphabet will be there in the English alphabetical series between the letters which are at the extreme ends of the new word thus formed ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Four (IBPS RRBs Officer Scale–I & II CWE 13.09.2015)

6. If in the word EQUALITY, the positions of first and the fifth letters are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and the sixth letters are interchanged and so on, which letter will be third from the right end? (1) I (2) U (3) Q (4) E (5) L (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V Main Exam. 31.10.2015)

7. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word REFRESHING each of which has as many letters between them (in both forward and backward directions) in the word as they have in the English alphabet? (1) Three (2) One (3) Two (4) None (5) More than three (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V Main Exam. 31.10.2015)

8. If in the word ISOLATE, all the consonants are replaced by the previous letter in the alphabet and all the vowels are replaced by the next letter and then all the letters are arranged alphabetically, which letter will be third from the right end?

BPRE–11

(1) Q (2) P (3) Other than those given as options (4) N (5) B (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V Main Exam. 31.10.2015)

9. How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters IMET, using all the letters but each letter only once in each word? (1) None (2) One (3) Three (4) Four (5) Two (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V Main Exam. 31.10.2015)

10. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ARILT using each letter only once in that word ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three (Punjab & Sind Bank PO Exam. 23.01.2011)

Directions (11–12) : Study the following information to answer the given questions : (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE 18.09.2011)

In a five letter English word (which may or may not be a meaningful English word), there are two letters between L and P. S is not placed immediately next to L. There is only one letter between S and A. S is towards the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to E. 11. Which of the following is correct with respect to the word thus formed? (1) E is at one of the extreme ends of the word (2) P is not placed immediately next to A (3) There are two letters between A and E in the word thus formed (4) P is placed second to the right of E (5) None is correct 12. Whick of ihe following words will be formed based on the given conditions?

ALPHABET (1) SPAEL (2) PEALS (3) LEAPS (4) SEPAL (5) LAPSE 13. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SUBSTANCE’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as in the English alphabet ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three (IBPS Specialist Officer CWE 11.03.2012)

14. How many meaningful English words, not ending with ‘D’ can be made with the third, the fifth, the seventh and the ninth letters of the word ‘STEADFAST’ using each letter only once in each word? (All letters are counted from left to right) (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three (IBPS Specialist Officer CWE 11.03.2012)

15. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BARGAINED, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ? (1) Two (2) Three (3) None (4) One (5) More than three (IBPS RRBs Office Assistant CWE 09.09.2012)

16. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ADJUST ING each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three (Corporation Bank SO (Marketing) Exam, 22.02.2014)

17. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters DERI, using all the letters but each letter only once in each word ? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) More than three (5) None 18. How many meningful English words can be formed with the

letters AEHJLO, using all the letters but each letter only once in each word ? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) More than three (5) None 19. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the first, third, eighth and ninth letters of the word TRANSFORMS, which of the following will be the second letter of that word ? if no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer. (1) T (2) R (3) M (4) X (5) Y 20. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SOLUTION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 21. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘PAINTED’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word in both forward and backward directions, as there are between them in the English alphabetical series? (1) More than three (2) Two (3) Three (4) None (5) One (IBPS Specialist Officer (Marketing) CWE 01.02.2016)

22. How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters NOEC using each letter only once in each word ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 23. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SCHEDULE (in both forward and backward directions), each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabetical series ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three (IBPS RRBs Officer Scale-I CWE, 06.09.2014)

BPRE–12

24. If all the vowels in the word ‘SAINTLY’ are rearranged in the alphabetical order from left to right, followed by the consonants in the alphabetical order from left to right, the position of which of the following five alphabets will remain unchanged ? (1) S (2) T (3) L (4) A (5) Y 25. It is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the third, fourth, seventh and the eighth letters of the word ‘VIDEOGRAPHY’, which would be the second letter of that word from the right end ? If more than one such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give Z as your answer. (1) D (2) A (3) R (4) X (5) Z 26. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘MACHINERY’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both the forward and backward directions), as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ? (1) Three (2) Two (3) None (4) One (5) More than three (Bank of Baroda Junior Management Grade/Scale-I Exam, 18.04.2015)

27. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHARPLY’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions), as there are between them in the English alphabetical series ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) More than three (5) Three (IBPS Specialist Officer (IT) CWE 14.02.2016)

28. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘HONESTY’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

ALPHABET (1) More than three (2) None (3) Two (4) One (5) Three (SIDBI Officer Online Exam.24.02.2016)

29. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CRITICAL, each of which has as many letters in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in English alphabetical series? (1) More than three (2) One (3) None (4) Three (5) Two (United Bank of India PGDBF Manipal Exam,07.08.2016)

30. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BACTERIA each of which has as many letters between them (both in forward and backward directions) in the word as they have in the English alphabetical series ? (1) More than three (2) None (3) Two (4) Three (5) One (Bank of Baroda Exam, 25.09.2016)

31. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the first, second, third and fifth letters of the word TRANSFORM’, which would be the second letter of that word from the left end? If more than one such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as your answer. If no such word can be formed, give ‘Z’ as your answer. (1) T (2) X (3) Z (4) A (5) R (Bank of Baroda Exam, 25.09.2016)

32. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WEIGHTS each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as there are in the English alphabetical series ? (1) One (2) More than three (3) Two (4) Three (5) None (Bank of Maharashtra PO Exam, 26.10.2016)

33. If only one meaningful English word can be made with the first, the fourth, the ninth and the tenth letters of the word CORRUPTION, using each letter only once, then which of the following is the third letter of the word

from the left? If no such word can be formed then your answer is ‘X’. If more than one such word can be formed then your answer is ‘Z’. (1) X (2) Z (3) R (4) O (5) C

38. The position of how many alphabet will remain the same if each of the alphabet in the word NETWORK are rearranged in alphabetical order from left to right ? (1) Three (2) Two (3) None (4) One (5) More than three

(IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Pre.) Exam, 14.11.2016 (Shift-I))

(IBPS RRBs Officers CWE (Prelim Exam) 10.09.2017)

34. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ASTROLOGICAL, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have in the English alphabetical series ? (1) One (2) None (3) Three (4) More than three (5) Two (IBPS SO (Agriculture) Exam, 29.01.2017)

35. The positions of how many alphabet will remain the same if each of the alphabet in the word CLIMATE are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) None (5) More than three (IBPS RRBs Officers CWE (Prelim Exam) 09.09.2017 Ist Sitting)

36. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the third, the fifth and the eighth letters of the word MNEMONICS using each letter once, when counted from left to right. Which of the following will be the second letter of the word so formed from the left end? If no such word can be formed, give X as your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, give Z as your answer. (1) M (2) N (3) E (4) X (5) Z (IBPS RRBs Officers CWE (Prelim Exam) 09.09.2017 IInd Sitting)

37. The position of how many alphabet will remain the same if each of the alphabet in the word COMPANY are rearranged in alphabetical order from left to right? (1) None (2) Two (3) Three (4) One (5) More than three (IBPS RRBs Officers CWE (Prelim Exam) 09.09.2017 IInd Sitting)

BPRE–13

39. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the third, the sixth and the ninth letters of the word REDUCTION using each letter only once, when counted from left to right, which of the following will be the fourth letter of the word so formed from the left end. If no such word can be formed, give X as your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, give Z as your answer. (1) E (2) T (3) X (4) D (5) Z (IBPS RRBs Officers CWE (Prelim Exam) 10.09.2017)

40. The positions of how many alphabet will remain at the same position if each of the alphabet in the word HOLIDAY are rearranged in alphabetical order from left to right? (1) More than three (2) Two (3) None (4) One (5) Three (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Prelim Exam) 16.09.2017)

41. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the first, the second, the fourth and the eighth letters of the word STEROIDAL using each letter of the word only once, when counted from left to right, which of the following will be the fourth letter of the word so formed from the right end. If no such word can be formed give X as your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, give Z as your answer. (1) X (2) S (3) R (4) Z (5) T (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Prelim Exam) 16.09.2017)

42. In the word PATRONISE, the letter immediately before each vowel is replaced with the next al-

ALPHABET phabet (as per the English alphabetical order) and all others remain unchanged. Which of the following letters will appear twice in the word thus formed? (1) Only T (2) Both T and O (3) Both S and O (4) Only Q (5) Only E (IBPS SO (IT Officer) CWE (Prelim Exam) 30.12.2017)

43. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the fourth, the eighth, the ninth and the eleventh fetters from the left of the word EXAMINATION using all the letters but each letter only once, which would be the second letter of the word from the left end? If more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Z’ as your answer. If no such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as your answer. (1) Z (2) T (3) Y (4) M (5) I (IBPS SO (IT Officer) CWE (Prelim Exam) 30.12.2017)

44. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHAMPION each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order? (1) More than Four (2) One (3) Two (4) Four (5) Three (IBPS SO (Law Officer) CWE (Prelim Exam) 31.12.2017)

45. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the third, fifth, tenth and eleventh letters (when counted from left to right) of the word MAGISTERIAL (using each letter only once), which of the following will be the fourth letter of the word from the left end? If no such word can be formed give ‘X’ as your answer. If more than one such word can be formed give ‘Z’ as you answer. (1) L (2) G (3) X (4) S (5) Z (IBPS SO (Law Officer) CWE (Prelim Exam) 31.12.2017)

46. In the word SPHERICAL, if each vowel is changed to the next letter as per English alphabetical order

and each consonant is changed to the previous English alphabetical order and the word thus formed is arranged in an alphabetical order from left to right, which of the following will be fifth letter of the word from the right? (1) Q (2) O (3) G (4) K (5) J (IBPS SO (Law Officer) CWE (Prelim Exam) 31.12.2017)

47. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order and thus they form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (1) GAEF (2) TSWX (3) WQUV (4) PJNO (5) RLPQ (IDBI Bank PO Exam 29.04.2018)

48. The positions of how many alphabet will remain the same if each of the alphabet in the word INDULGES is rearranged in alphabetical order from left to right? (1) Two (2) None (3) Four (4) One (5) Three (IDBI Bank PO Exam 29.04.2018)

49. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SYSTEMATIC each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward direction) as in the English alphabet? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three (IDBI Bank PO Exam 29.04.2018)

50. How Many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘TRANSFER’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabet? (1) None (2) One (3) Three (4) More than three (5) Two (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE-VII (Prelim Exam) 15.10.2017)

51. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TELEPATHY each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions), as they have between

BPRE–14

them in the English alphabetical series ? (1) One (2) Two (3) None (4) Three (5) More than three (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Main Exam) 26.11.2017)

52. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CAUTION each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward direction) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order? (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One (5) More than four (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Prelim Exam) 11.08.2018)

53. If the second, fourth, seventh and eighth letters of the word “FRACTION” are combined to form a meaningful word, then what will be the 3rd letter from the left in the word so formed. If more than one meaningful word is formed then the answer is X, if no such word is formed then answer is Z? (1) O (2) X (3) R (4) Z (5) C (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Prelim Exam) 18.08.2018)

54. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CREDIT’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ? (1) Three (2) None (3) More than three (4) Two (5) One (Indian Bank PO Prelim Exam, 06.10.2018)

55. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the first, the sixth, the ninth and the tenth letters (When counted from left to right) of the word ‘JUNCTIONAL’, using each letter only once, which would be the third letter of that word from the left end? If more than one such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give Z as your answer.

ALPHABET (1) Z (3) X (5) A

(2) I (4) L

(IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Prelim Exam) 14.10.2018)

56. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘TRANSFER’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backword directions) as they have between them in the English alphabet? (1) None (2) One (3) Three (4) Two (5) More than three (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Prelim Exam) 21.10.2018)

57. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WEIGHTS each of which has as many letters between them (in both forward and backward directions) as there are in the English alphabetical series? (1) One (2) More than three (3) Two (4) Three (5) None (Canara Bank PO Exam, 23.12.2018)

58. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘MISCONDUCT’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? (1) One (2) None (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three (IBPS Specialist Officer CWE (Prelim Exam) 31.01.2019)

59. If it is possible to make only one meaningful four letter English word with the first, the fourth, the fifth and the ninth letters of the word EDUCATION using each letter only once, when counted from left to right, which of the following will be the third letter of the word so formed from the left end? If no such word can be formed give X as your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, give Z as your answer. (1) N (2) X (3) C (4) E (5) Z 60. The positions of how many alphabet will remain the same if each of the alphabet in the word CHAMBER are arranged as per the English alphabetical order from left to right ? (1) Three (2) None (3) Two (4) One (5) More than three

61. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the 5th, 6th, 7th and 9th letters of the word UNIVERSITY using each letter only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word? If no such word can be made, your answer is ‘V’ and if more than one such word can be formed, then the answer is ‘Y’. (1) S (2) T (3)V (4) Y (5) R IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Prelim) Exam, 04.08.2019

62. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘EDUCATION’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (5) More than four IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Prelim) Exam, 17.08.2019

63. If all the letters of the word ‘OFFICER’ are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right in such a way that vowels are arranged first followed by consonants, then how many letters are there between O and R after the arrangement (repetition of letters should also be considered)? (1) Two (2) One (3) None (4) Three (5) Four IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Prelim) Exam, 12.10.2019

64. If in the word COLGATE all the letters are arranged as per the English alphabetical order, then how many letters will be there in the English alphabetical order between the fourth letter from the left and second letter from the right of the word thus formed? (1) Three (2) Nine (3) Seven (4) Five (5) Four IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Prelim) Exam, 19.10.2019

65. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word DECOMPOSE, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both the forward and backward directions) as in the English alphabetical series? (1) More than three (2) None (3) Two (4) Three (5) One IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Prelim) Exam, 30.11.2019

66. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘QUOTIENT’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabet? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE Prelim Exam, 13.09.2020)

Directions (67–69) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE Prelim Exam, 07.08.2021)

67. How many meaningful English words can be formed from the letter–clusters NELCAC and TEURO ? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (5) Five 68. How many meaningful English words can be formed from the letter -clusters RATST and PALAH ? (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five (5) Six 69. How many meaningful English words can be formed from the letter -clusters NIOTP and ADERY ? (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five (5) Six

Directions (70 – 74) : Study the following three Sequences 1, 2 and 3 carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE Prelim Exam, 07.08.2021)

1 SDIQSJAUHOABCOADEGEIWGBCDEFUIGOI 2 ADEGSDIQSJAUHOABCOEIWGBCDEFUIGOI 3 2 6832393584593284764572971569763859

BPRE–15

ALPHABET 70. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Sequence –1? (1) Only eleven alphabet are at prime numbered positions (2) Only six alphabet are at perfect square numbered positions (3) Only eight alphabet are immediately followed by a Consonant (4) Only 15 alphabet are immediately preceded by a Vowel (5) Other than those given as options 71. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Sequence – 3? (1) Only 14 even numbers are immediately preceded by an even number (2) Only 12 odd numbers are immediately followed by an odd number (3) Only six perfect square numbers are immediately followed by a prime number (4) Only seven perfect square numbers are immediately followed by an odd number (5) Other than those given as options 72. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Sequence –2 ? (1) Only 15 vowels are immediately followed by a Consonant (2) Only five Consonants are immediately preceded by a Vowel (3) Only eight vowels are immediately followed by a Consonant (4) Only 10 Consonants are immediately followed by a Vowel (5) Other than those given as options 73. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Sequence – 3 ? (1) Only 11 even numbers are at odd numbered positions (2) Only seven odd numbers are at even numbered positions (3) Only five even numbers are at odd numbered positions (4) Only 12 odd numbers are at even numbered positions (5) Other than those given as options

74. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Sequence – 1? (1) Only seven Consonants are at the even numbered positions (2) Only eight vowels are at the odd numbered positions (3) Only five Consonants are at the even numbered positions (4) Only six Vowels are at the odd numbered positions (5) Other than those given as options 75. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SIGNIFICANT, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both the forward and backward directions) as in the English alphabetical series ? (1) One (2) None (3) More than three (4) Two (5) Three (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE Prelim Exam, 04.12.2021)

SBI PO EXAMS 1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the fifth, the seventh and the ninth letters of the word SUBSTANTIAL, which of the following will be the second letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘#’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘@’ as the anwer. (1) U (2) T (3) N (4) # (5) @ 2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHARGED, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabetical series (in both forward and backward directions) ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 3. Each consonant in the word BLARING is replaced with the previous letter and each vowel is replaced with next letter in the English alphabetical series and the new letters are rearranged

BPRE–16

alphabetically. Which of the following will be the third letter from the right end ? (1) K (2) B (3) M (4) J (5) F (SBI Specialist Officer (Law Officer : MMGS Scale-II) Online Exam, 19.04.2014)

4. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, third, sixth and ninth letters of the word REGULATOR (using each letter only once in the words) which would be the second letter of the word from right ? If more than one such word can be formed give ‘Y’ as the answer. If no such word can be formed give ‘Z’ as your answer. (1) A (2) G (3) Z (4) Y (5) R (SBI Assistant Manager (System) Exam, 17.01.2016)

5. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word IMPROVISER, each of which has as many letters between them (in both and forward directions) as there are in English alphabetical series? (1) None (2) More than three (3) Three (4) One (5) Two SBI PO (Prelim Exam), 08.07.2018 (Shift-II))

6. If only one meaningful English word can be formed using the third, fourth, fifth and eighth letters of the word BARGAINED, then what will be the second letter from left of the word so formed? (1) No such word can be formed (2) R (3) A (4) E (5) More than one such words can be formed SBI PO (Prelim Exam), 08.07.2018 (Shift-II))

7. If only one meaningful English word can be formed using the first, second, sixth and seventh letters from the left of the word MARGINED (using each letter only once), then what will be the second letter from the left of the word so formed ? (1) E (2) More than one such words can be formed (3) M (4) N (5) No such word can be formed SBI PO Prelim Exam, 14.06.2019

ALPHABET 8. How many such pairs of LETTERS are there in the word NATIONALS each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order ? (1) One (2) Four (3) Two (4) More than four (5) Three SBI PO Prelim Exam, 14.06.2019

9. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word using the first, the fifth, the sixth and the eighth letters (when counted from left to right) of the word FLOATING (using each letter only one), which of the following will be the second letter of the word so formed from the right end? If no such word can be formed give X as your answer. If more than one such word can be formed give Z as your answer. (1) X (2) T (3) I (4) Z (5) F SBI PO Prelim Exam, 09.06.2019

RBI GRADE–B/ NABARD GRADE–A OFFICER EXAMS 1. The positions of the first and the fourth letters of the word PLANET are interchanged, similarly, the positions of the second and fifth letters and third and sixth letters are interchanged. In the new arrangement thus formed, how many letters are there between the letter which is second from the right and the letter which is fourth from the left according to the English alphabetical order ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Four (RBI Grade-B Officer Exam. 06.02.2011)

2. The positions of how many alphabets will remain unchanged if each of the alphabets in the word WORTHY is arranged in alphabetical order from left to right ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three (RBI Grade-B Officer Exam. 06.02.2011)

3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word REASON, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three

English alphabetical series and all the consonants are changed to the previous alphabet in the English alphabetical series, how will the word be written ? (1) BADHLMPQSV (2) BAFJLMPQSV (3) BAFJLNQQSV (4) BAFJKOQRSV (5) BAFJNOPSUV

(RBI Grade-B Officer Exam. 06.02.2011)

(RBI Officer Grade ‘B’ Phase-I Exam, 04.09.2016 (Shift-II))

4. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, third, eighth and ninth letters of the word ‘CONFL-ICTED’, which would be the second letter of the word from the left? If more than one such word can be formed, give ‘A’ as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give ‘Z’ as your answer. (1) A (2) T (3) O (4) N (5) Z (RBI Grade-B Officer Exam. 06.02.2011)

5. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word PRELIMINARY, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have in the English alphabetical series ? (1) One (2) None (3) Three (4) More than three (5) Two (RBI Officer Grade ‘B’ Phase-I Exam. 21.11.2015)

6. If all the letters in the word ‘REGULATION’ are arranged in English alphabetical order from left to right and then all the vowels are changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series and all the consonants are changed to the previous alphabet in English alphabetical series, how will the word be written? (1) BFFJKOQQSV (2) ZFFJKONSSV (3) ZDHHMONSUT (4) BFHUKMPORV (5) BFFJKMPQSV (RBI Officer Grade ‘B’ Phase-I Exam, 04.09.2016 (Shift-I))

7. If all the letters in the word ‘TAMBOURINE’ are arranged in English alphabetical order from left to right and all the vowels are changed to next alphabet in the

BPRE–17

8. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the seventh, the eighth and the tenth letters of the word RAINFOREST (when counted from left to right) using each letter only once, which of the following will be the second letter of the word so formed from the right end? If no such word can be formed give X as your answer. If more than one such word can be formed give Z as your answer. (1) Z (2) X (3) A (4) T (5) R (RBI Assistant Manager Online Exam 25.03.2017)

9. If in the word WORKPLACE, first all the vowels are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right and then all the consonants are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, and then each letter is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series, which of the following is the fifth letter from the left? (1) Q (2) M (3) L (4) F (5) P (RBI Assistant Manager Online Exam 25.03.2017)

10. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BECOMING each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series? (1) One (2) More than three (3) Three (4) None (5) Two (RBI Assistant Manager Online Exam 25.03.2017)

ALPHABET 11. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word LANGUAGE each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as there are in English alphabetical order? (1) Three (2) One (3) More than three (4) Two (5) None (RBI Officers in Grade ‘B’ Phase-I Exam. 16.08.2018)

12. If only one meaningful English word can be made with the fourth, the fifth, the ninth and the eleventh letters of the word NOURISHMENT (when counted from left to right), using each letter only once, then which of the following will be the second letter of the word from the left end? If no such word can be formed then your answer is ‘X’. If more than one such word can be formed then your answer is ‘Z’. (1) X (2) E (3) Z (4) T (5) R (RBI Officers in Grade ‘B’ Phase-I Exam. 16.08.2018)

13. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order? (1) More than three (2) Three (3) None (4) One (5) Two 14. If it is possible to make only one meaningful four letter English word using the third, the fourth, the seventh and and eleventh letters (when counted from left to right) of the word TRADITIONAL (using each letter only once), which of the following will be the third letter of the word so formed from the left end? If no such word can be formed, mark X as your answer. If more than one such word can be formed mark Z as your answer. (1) A (2) I (3) Z (4) L (5) X RBI Grade ‘B’ Officer Exam, 09.11.2019

Directions (15 – 19) : Study the following two Sequences carefully and answer the questions given below : (RBI Officers Grade ‘B’ Phase-I Exam, 06.03.2021)

1 45729715697638592683239358459328476 2 OABCOEIWGBCDEFUIGOIADEGSDIQSJAUH 15. In the Sequence-1, how many such odd numbers are at the odd numbered positions, each of which is immediately followed by a perfect square number ? (1) None (2) Two (3) One (4) Three (5) More than three 16. In the Sequence-2, how many such Vowels are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a Vowel and also immediately followed by a Consonant ? (1) Seven (2) Three (3) Four (4) Two (5) Five 17. In the Sequence-1, how many such even numbers are at odd numbered positions, each of which is immediately followed by an odd number ? (1) Five (2) Two (3) Four (4) More than five (5) Three 18. In the Sequence-2, if it is possible to make a meaningful English word with the second, the eighth, the eighteenth, the twenty-fifth, the twenty eighth, and the thirty second letters, mark the last letter of that word as your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, mark ‘X’ as the answer and if no such word can be formed, mark ‘Y’ as the answer. (1) W (2) H (3) O (4) X (5) Y 19. In the Sequence-2, how many Consonants at even numbered positions are immediately followed by a Vowel ? (1) One (2) Three (3) Two (4) Four (5) Five Directions (20–24) : In each of the following questions, how many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters of the two letter-clusters separately and using each letter only once in each word ? (RBI Officers Grade ‘B’ Phase-I Exam. 06.03.2021)

BPRE–18

20. MIREP ; SERUL (1) None (2) (3) Two (4) (5) Four 21. SECAE ; WOBEL (1) Four (2) (3) One (4) (5) Five 22. VETNE ; SINEM (1) Two (2) (3) Three (4) (5) One 23. LACEP ; SAFET (1) Four (2) (3) Six (4) (5) Three 24. LEMAS ; COHUT (1) Three (2) (3) Five (4) (5) Six

One Three

Three Two

Four None

Five Two

Four Two

INSURANCE EXAMS 1. How many meaningful words can be formed by using any two letters of the word NOT ? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (General Insurance Corporation Exam. 11.12.2011) 2. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ENCO, using each letter only once in each word ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three (United India Insurance AO Exam. 26.05.2013)

3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word COAST (in both the forward and backward direction), each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three (United India Insurance AO Exam. 26.05.2013)

ALPHABET 4. How many meaningful English words can be formed from the first, the fifth, the eighth and the tenth letters of the word CREATIVITY, using each letter only once in each word ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three (United India Insurance AO Exam. 26.05.2013)

5. Only one meaningful word can be formed by rearranging the letters of the given jumbled word. Find out that word. (1) MUTAMOSPHPC (2) PHIKANTHCOPIST (3) HEPPOCANLUS (4) UPPHPOTAOMIS (NICL (GIC) AO (Finance) Exam, 08.09.2013)

6. If all the vowels in the word ‘GUIDANCE’ are rearranged in the alphabetical order from left to right, followed by the consonants in the alphabetical order from left to right, the position of which of the following five alphabet given below will remain unchanged? (1) N (2) I (3) G (4) D (5) A (OICL Specialist Officer (Finance) Exam. 03.05.2015)

7. It is possible to make only one meaningful word with the sixth, eighth, ninth and tenth letters of the word ‘DOCUMENTARY’, which would be the third letter of that word from left end? If more than one such words can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer. If no such words can be formed, give Z as your answer. (1) X (2) R (3) Z (4) A (5) T (OICL Specialist Officer (Finance) Exam. 03.05.2015)

8. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘PLAT FORMS’ each of which as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions), as they have between them in the English alphabetical series? (1) Three (2) None (3) One (4) Two (5) More than three (OICL Specialist Officer (Finance) Exam. 03.05.2015)

SHORT ANSWERS

S A

1. (5)

NATIONALISED BANKS & IBPS PO/MT/SO EXAMS

A I N T L I L N S T

Y Y

2. (4)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11

1. (5) 5. (1) 9. (4) 13. (4) 17. (2) 21. (3) 25. (4) 29. (5) 33. (3) 37. (2) 41. (4) 45. (5) 49. (3)

2. (4) 6. (3) 10. (3) 14. (2) 18. (5) 22. (3) 26. (1) 30. (4) 34. (4) 38. (3) 42. (2) 46. (5) 50. (3)

3. (1) 7. (1) 11. (4) 15. (5) 19. (5) 23. (4) 27. (3) 31. (2) 35. (4) 39. (5) 43. (5) 47. (2) 51. (2)

4. (3) 8. (2) 12. (3) 16. (4) 20. (4) 24. (1) 28. (5) 32. (2) 36. (5) 40. (2) 44. (5) 48. (4) 52. (1)

V I D E O G R A P H Y

53. (3) 57. (2) 61. (4) 65. (1) 69. (2) 73. (4)

54. (4) 58. (4) 62. (5) 66. (4) 70. (1) 74. (2)

55. (2) 59. (5) 63. (4) 67. (3) 71. (4) 75. (3)

56. (3) 60. (4) 64. (3) 68. (1) 72. (3)

12 5 14 7 20 8 L E N G T H

Specified letters ⇒ D, E, R, A Meaningful words ⇒ DARE, DEAR, READ 3. (1)

2. (4) 6. (5)

8 9 14 5 18 25 H I N E R Y

4. (3)

5. (1)

R

E

M

I

A

–1 +1 –1 +1 +1 Q

SBI PO EXAMS 1. (3) 5. (3) 9. (5)

3 C

13 1 M A

3. (1) 7. (2)

4. (4) 8. (2)

RBI GRADE–B/NABARD GRADE–A OFFICER EXAMS

F

L

B Q

N

S

–1 –1

J

M

R

R

17 18 No letter 6. (3) 1 2 3 4 5 6 E Q U A L I According to question, L

I

T

Y

E

Q

U

7 T

8 Y

A

1. (4) 5. (5) 9. (3)

2. (5) 6. (5) 10. (5)

3. (2) 7. (2) 11. (4)

4. (1) 8. (1) 12. (3)

13. (2)

14. (3)

15. (3)

16. (5)

7. (1)

17. (4)

18. (1)

19. (2)

20. (4)

21. (1)

22. (3)

23. (2)

24. (5)

18 5 6 18 5 19 8 9 14 7 R E F R E S H I N G 8. (2)

3rd from the right end

INSURANCE EXAMS 1. (3) 5. (4)

2. (3) 6. (2)

3. (3) 7. (1)

4. (2) 8. (4)

B

−1

+1

B

−1

B

+1

B B

K

P

R

J

B

E

T

A

L

O

S

I +1

−1

B

+1

S

B F

Alphabetical order of letters : B

F

J

K

P

R

S

EXPLANATIONS NATIONALISED BANKS & IBPS PO/MT/SO EXAMS BPRE–19

3rd from the right end 9. (4) Meaningful words ⇒ TIME, EMIT, ITEM, MITE

ALPHABET 10. (3) Meaningful words ⇒ TRAIL, TRIAL (11–12) : L P L PS L APS LEAPS 11. (4) P is placed second to the right of E. 12. (3) The word is LEAPS. 13. (4)

19 21 2 19 20 1 14 3 S U B

S T

A N

22. (3) Meaningful words ⇒ CONE, ONCE 23. (4)

19 S

3 C

5 E

S ¯ A

24. (1)

5

C E

8 H

4 D

32. (2)

23 W 33. (3)

A I N T L ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ I L N S T

Y ¯ Y

Specified letters ⇒ C, R, O, N Meaningful Word ⇒ CORN Its third letter from the left ⇒ R 34. (4)

Five letter from the left

2 B

1 18 7 A R G

1 9 14 5 A I N E

4 D

3 C

8 9 14 5 18 25 H I N E R Y

4

D

10 21 19 20 9

J

U

S

T

I

14

7

N

G

17. (2) Meaningful words ⇒ RIDE, DIRE 18. (5) No meaningful English word can be formed with the letters AEHJLO. 19. (5)

1 2 3 4 5 6

7 8

9 10

T R A N S F O R

M S

19 S

8 H

1 A

18 R

16 P

12 L

25 Y

8 H

15 O

14 N

5 E

19 20 25 S T Y

21 20 U T

9 15 14 I O N

3 18 9 C R I

20 T

9 I

3 C

1 A

12 L

1 A

9 14 20 I N T

5 E

4 D

20 T

35. (4)

18 R

15 O

12 15 L O

7 G

9 I

3 C

C L I M A A C E I L

1 A

12 L

T E M T

2 B

1 A

31. (2)

1 2 M N

3 4 5 6 7 8 E M O N I C

9 S

37. (2)

C O M P A N Y A C M N O P Y

N E T W O R E K N O R T 39. (5)

H O L 40. (2)

3 C

20 T

5 E

18 R

9 I

1

2

T

R

1 A

3 4 5 6 7 8 9 A N S F OR M

Specified letters ⇒ T, R, A, S Meaningful words ⇒ AR TS, TSAR, TARS, RATS, STAR

BPRE–20

K W

DENT

21. (3)

16 P

19 S

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 R E D U C T I O N Specified letters ⇒ E, D, T and N Meaningful words ⇒ TEND,

29. (5)

30. (4)

15 12 O L

1 A

38. (3)

28. (5)

Specified letters ⇒ T, A, R, M Meaningful Words ⇒ MAR T, TRAM 20. (4)

19 S

10 N

Specified letters ⇒ N, E, O, C Meaningful Words ⇒ CONE, ONCE

27. (3) 1

2 3 4 5678 9 C OR R UP T I O

36. (5)

13 1 M A

16. (4)

A

1

25. (4)

Specified letters ⇒ D, E, R, A Meaningful words ⇒ DARE, DEAR, READ 26. (1)

Meaningful Word ⇒ DATE 15. (5)

7 8 20 19 G H T S

5 E

V I D E O G R A P H Y

S T E A D F A S T

9 I

21 12 U L

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 14. (2) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

5 E

A D H I L 1

41. (4)

I D A

S

Y

O Y

2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 T E R O I D A L

Specified letters ⇒ S, T, R, A Meaningful words ⇒ STAR, ARTS, RAST, RATS, TARS, TSAR 42. (2) P A T R O N I S E

↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ Q A T S O O I T E Both O and T appear twice.

ALPHABET 43. (5)

60. (4)

52. (1)

1 2 3 4 56 7 8 EX A M I N A T

9 10 11 I O N

Specified letters ⇒ M, T, I and N Meaningful Word ⇒ MINT Its second letter from the left end ⇒I 44. (5)

3 C

8 H

3 C

1 A

21 U

20 T

9 I

15 O

53. (3)

2

1

F R

4 5 6 7 C A T I O

↓

P

H

E

R

I

C

A

L

3rd letter

G

F

Q

J

B

B

K

B B F G J K O Q R 5th letter from the right

M

B

E

R

A

C

E

H M

R

B

from the left

9

10

T

Y

G –6 W –6 P R

–6 –6

A +4 E +1 F Q +4 U +1 V +4 +1 O N J +4 +1 Q P L

3 18 5 4 9 20 C R E D I T

5 E

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 J U N C T I O N A L

4 21 3 D U C

63. (4)

Specified Letters ⇒ J, I, A L Meaningful Word ⇒ JAIL Its third letter from the left ⇒ I 56. (3)

20 18 T

R

1

14 19

6

5

18

A

N

F

E

R

S

57. (2)

S + 4 W +1 X

23 5 9 7 8 W E I G H

48. (4)

I N D U L G E S D E G I L N S U

7

8

R

S

I

1 20 9 15 14 A T I O N

55. (2)

O F F I C E R E I O C F F R

There are three letters – C, F and F – between O and R.

C O L G A T E A C E G L O T

4th letter from left ⇒ G 2nd letter from right ⇒ O

GHIJKLMNO 7 Letters 65. (1)

But,

T –1

6

E

Specified letters ⇒ E, R, S, T Meaningful Words ⇒ ERST, RETS, REST, TRES 62. (5)

64. (3)

47. (2)

5

54. (4)

–1 –1 –1 +1 –1 +1 –1 +1 –1 O

A

N

Meaningful word ⇒ CORN

Specified letters ⇒ G, S, A, L Meaningful Words ⇒ GALS, LAGS, SLAG 46. (5)

C H

61. (4) 1 2 3 4 U N I V

Specified letters ⇒ R, C, O, N

1 13 16 9 15 14 A M P I O N

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 M A G I S T E R I A L

R

8

3

45. (5)

S

14 N

20 19 T S

5

3

15

13

D E

C

O

M

4

58. (4)

16 15 19

P

O

5

S E

49. (3)

19 25 19 20 5 13 1 20 9 3 S Y S T E M A T I C 20 18 1 14 19 6 5 18 50. (3) T R A N S F E R 51. (2)

20 T

5 E

12 L

5 E

16 P

1 A

20 T

8 H

25 Y

13 9 19 3 15 14 4 21 3 20 M I S C O N D U C T

17 21 15 20 9 Q U O T I

59. (5)

1

2

66. (4)

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

E D U C A

T

I

O N

Specified letters ⇒ E, C, A and N Meaningful words ⇒ ACNE, ANCE, CANE

BPRE–21

5 14 20 E N T

67. (3) NELCAC ⇒ CANCEL TEURO ⇒ OUTER ; ROUTE 68. (1) RATST ⇒ START PALAH ⇒ ALPHA 69. (2) NIOTP ⇒ PITON; POINT ADERY ⇒ READY

ALPHABET 2. (4)

70. (1)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 S D I Q S J A U H O A B C O A D

72

93 28 97

47 6 97

156

SD

AB

O

EF

GBCD

A DE

45

FU

six even numbers are immediately preceded by an even number. ● Only 10 odd numbers are immediately followed by an odd numbers. ● Only seven perfect square numbers are immediately followed by a Prime Number.

GO

A

B

7

2

9

7

1

U

I

● Only eight vowels are immediate-

diately followed by a vowel. 73. (4)

numbered positions. 74. (2) Only nine Consonants are at the even numbered positions. ● Only eight vowels are at the odd numbered positions. 75. (3)

7

14 9

6

9

3

1

14 20

S

G

N

F

I

C

A

N

I

I

M

M

Q

F

F

J

K

1

2

3

4 5

6

7 8

9

R

E

G U L

A

T O

R

Specified Letters ⇒ E, G, A, R Meaningful Words ⇒ GEAR, RAGE 5. (3)

9 13 16 18 15 22 9 19 5 18 I M P R O V I S E R

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 B A R G A I N E D

6

9

7

6

Specified letters ⇒ R, G, A, E Meaningful Words ⇒ GEAR; RAGE, AGER, GARE

3

8

5

9

SBI PO EXAMS 1. (3)

7. (2) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 M A R G I N E D Specified letters ⇒ M, A, N, E Meaningful words ⇒ MANE; MEAN; NAME; AMEN; 8. (2) 14

1

20

9

15 14

1

N

A

T

I

O

A

N

12 19 L

S

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 S U B S T A N T I A L Specified letters

19 9

J

6. (5)

● Only 10 even numbers at the odd

numbered positions.

Q

ly followed by a consonant. ● Only eight consonants are imme-

5

● Only 12 odd numbers at the even

B

3rd from right

Vowel Consonant

5

K

4. (4)

19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 4

4 D

OI

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 2 6 8 3 2 3 9 3 5 8 4 5 9 3 2 8 4 7

6

5 E

A

IW

GS DI QS JA

I

7 G

Now,

HO AB CO EIWGBC DE

63859

18 R

IQ SJA

COE

U7 IG

1 A

B L A R I N G –1 –1 +1 –1 +1 –1 –1

Consonant Vowel

● Only

72. (3)

EG

UH

93 58

71. (4) 2 6 8 3 2 3

45

AD

8 H

3. (1)

17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 E G E I W G B C D E F U I G O I Prime Numbers : 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31 Perfect Square Numbers : 1, 4, 9, 16, 25 ● 16 alphabet are immediately followed by a Consonant. ● 14 alphabet are immediately preceded by a Vowel.

3 C

⇒ U, T, N and I

Meaningful word

⇒UNIT

9. (5)

1 234 5 F LOA T

6 7 8 I N G

Specified letters ⇒ F, T, I and G Meaningful word ⇒ GIFT Its second letter from the right ⇒F

T

BPRE–22

ALPHABET 10. (5)

RBI GRADE–B/NABARD GRADE–A OFFICER EXAMS 1. (4) P N

L A N E T P

E L

2 B

5 E

3 C

15 O

13 M

9 I

14 N

7 G

14 N

7 G

21 U

1 A

7 G

5 E

11. (4)

T A

L M N O P

12 L

2. (5) W O R T H Y H O R T W Y

1 A

12. (3)

5 6 7 8 9 10 11 I SHM E N T

1 2 3 4 N OU R

3. (2) 18 5 1 19 15 14 R E A S O N 4. (1) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 CO N F L I C T E D Meaningful Words ⇒ NOTE, TONE 5. (5)

16 18 5 12 9 13 9 14 1 18 25 P R E L I M I N A R Y

Specified letters ⇒ R, I, E, T Meaningful words ⇒ RITE, TIER, TIRE 13. (2) 7 G

21 U

1 A

18 R

4 D

5 I

4 D

9 I

1 A

14 N

20. (4) MIREP ⇒ PRIME SERUL ⇒ LURES; RULES 21. (1) SECAE ⇒ CEASE WOBEL ⇒ BELOW; BOWEL; ELBOW 22. (3) VETNE ⇒ EVENT SINEM ⇒ MINES; MIENS 23. (2) LACEP ⇒ PLACE SAFET ⇒ FATES; FEAST; FEATS; FESTA 24. (5) LEMAS ⇒ MALES; MEALS; LAMES; ALMES COHUT ⇒ COUTH; TOUCH

INSURANCE EXAMS 1. (3) Meaningful words : NO, ON, TO. Hence, three meanigful words can be formed by using any two letters of the formed word NOT. 2. (3) Meaningful words ⇒ CONE, ONCE

14. (3) 6. (5) R E G U L A T I O N English alphabetical order : A

E

+1 +1

B

G –1

F

I

L

+1 –1

F

J

N –1

K

O +1

M

R –1

P

T –1

Q

U +1

S

V

7. (2)

T A M B O U R I N E M N O R T U

A B E I

+1 –1 +1 +1 –1 –1 +1 –1 –1 +1 B A F J

L M P Q S V

8. (1)

1 R

2 A

3 4 5 6 I N F O

7 R

8

9 E S

1 T

2 R

3 A

7 8 I O

9 10 11 N A L

Specified letters ⇒ A, D, I and L Meaningful words ⇒ DIAL, LAID 15. (3)

OAB

CO

UIG

O

EIW IAD

GBCDEF EGSDIQSJ

↓ 5th letter from the left

15 O

1 A

19 S

20 T

4. (2)

6. (2)

G U

I

D A

A E

I

U C D G N

N C E

AUH 1 4 5

9 6 9

729715 19

Specified Letters ⇒ A, R, E, T Meaningful words ⇒ RATE, TEAR, TERA 9. (3) W O R K P L A C E According to question, A E O C K L P R W Next letter in the English alphabetical series B F P D L M Q S X

3

3. (3) C

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 C R E A T I V I T Y 15 45729715697638 5 9 2683239358459328476 Meaningful Word ⇒ CITY 16. (5) 5. (4) Meaningful Word Vowel Vowel Consonant ⇒ HIPPOPOTAMUS

17. (4)

10 T

6 T

76385926 8 3 27

21 2 3 33

9358 4 5 9328 4 7 6 18. (1) Specified letters ⇒ A, W, O, D, S, H Meaningful word ⇒ SHADOW 19. (2) 14 4 12 OAB C O EIWGBC D E F U

IGOIADEGSDIQSJAUH

BPRE–23

7. (1) 1 2 3 4 5 D O C U M

6 E

7 N

8 T

9 A

10 R

11 Y

Specified letters ⇒ E, T, A, R Meaningful words ⇒ RATE, TEAR 8. (4)

16 12 1 20 6 15 18 13 19 P L A T F O R M S

❐❐❐

ALPHABET

MODEL EXERCISES 1. How many meaningful words can be formed with the letters EAML? (1) 1

(2) 3

(3) 4

(4) 2

(5) None of these 2. If the second, third, fifth, eight and ninth letters of the word CONTEMPLATION are combined to form a meaningful word, what will be the middle letter of that word? If more than one such words can be formed, your answer is X and if no such word can be formed, your answer is Y. (1) X

(2) O

(3) A

(4) Y

(5) None of these 3. If only the consonants in the word MEAT are changed in such a way that each of them becomes the next letter in the English alphabet and the remaining letters are kept unchanged, then how many meaningful words can be formed with the new set of letters using each letter only once in a word? (1) None

(2) Two

(3) Three

(4) One

(5) None of these 4. Which letter should be the ninth letter to the left of the ninth letter from the right, if the first half of the alphabet of English are reversed ? (1) D

(2) F

(3) E

(4) I

(5) None of these 5. If the second, third, fifth, eighth and ninth letters of the word CONTEMPLATION are combined to from a meaningful word, what will be the middle letter of the word? If more than one such word can be formed, your answer is X and if no such words can be formed your answer is Y. (1) A

(2) O

(3) X

(4) Y

(5) None of these

6. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word INSTRUCTION which have as many letters between them in the word as, in the English alphabet? (1) Two

(2) One

(3) Three

(4) Four

(5) None of these 7. What is the number of the different letters which occur in the word PANCHATANTRA? (1) 7

(2) 6

(3) 9

(4) 12

(5) None of these 8. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘HONESTY’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series? (1) More than three (2) None

(3) Two

(4) One

(5) Three

Directions (9 – 13): Study the following three series (ROWs) carefully and answer the questions given below : (1) A D E G S D I Q S J A U H O A BCOEIWGBCDEFUIG OI (2) 2 6 8 3 2 3 9 3 5 8 4 5 9 3 2 8 4764572971569763 859 (3) S D I Q S J A U H O A B C O A DEGEIWGBCDEFUIG OI 9. With respect to Row – 3, which of the following statement is CORRECT? (1) There are 7 alphabet terms occupy even number positions (2) There are 8 alphabet terms occupy odd number positions

BPRE–24

(3) There are 5 alphabets terms occupy even number positions (4) There are 6 alphabet terms occupy odd number positions (5) None of these 10. With respect to Row – 2, which of the following statements is CORRECT? (1) There are 10 even numbers at odd number positions (2) There are 7 odd numbers at even number place value (3) There are 5 even numbers at odd number positions (4) There are 12 odd numbers at even number positions (5) None of these 11. With respect to Row – 1, which of the following statement is CORRECT? (1) There are 15 vowels immediately a consonant (2) There are 5 consonants immediately preceded by a vowel (3) There are 8 vowels immediately followed by a consonant (4) There are 10 consonants immediately followed by a vowel (5) None of these 12. With respect to Row – 2, which of the following statement is CORRECT? (1) There are 14 even numbers immediately preceded by even numbers (2) There are 12 odd numbers immediately followed by an odd number (3) There are 6 perfect square numbers immediately followed by a prime number (4) There are 7 perfect square number immediately followed by an odd number (5) None of these

ALPHABET 13. With respect to Row – 3, which of the following statement is CORRECT?

10. (4)

SHORT ANSWERS

(1) There are 7 alphabets in prime number positions

1.(2)

2.(2)

3.(1)

4.(3)

5.(2)

6.(4)

7.(1)

8.(5)

(2) There are 10 alphabets in perfect square number positions

9.(2)

10.(4)

11.(3)

12.(4)

13.(1)

14.(4)

15.(3)

16.(3)

(3) There are 8 alphabets immediately followed by a consonant (4) There are 15 alphabets immediately preceded by a vowel

EXPLANATIONS

(1) Two

(2) One

(3) None

(4) Three

(1)

ADEGSDIQSJAUHOA BCOEIWGBCDEFUIG OI 12. (4) 2683239358459328 4764572971569763 859

Lame and male can be formed. 2. (2) The meaningful word that can be formed is Alone. The middle

13. (1) SDIQSJAUHOABCOA DEGEIWGBCDEFUIG OI

letter is O. 3. (1) Consonants in the word ‘Meat’ are M and T. Next alphabet of M is N and for T it is U. The new

14. (4)

word is NEAU. 4. (3) M L K J I H G F E D C B A N OPQRSTUVWXYZ

22 15 3 1

2 21 12 1 18 25

V

B U

O C A

L

A R

Y

5. (2) Here, the specified letters are O, N, E, L and A. The meaningful

(5) More than three 15. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FEATURE, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ?

11. (3)

1. (2) Three meaningful word Meal,

(5) None of these 14. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word VOCABULARY each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

2683239358459328 4764572971569763 859

word formed with these letters is ALONE. Hence, the required middle letter of the word is ‘O’.

15. (3)

6 F

5 E

1 20 21 18 5 A T U R E

6 F

5 E

1 20 21 18 A T U R

6. (4) According to question,

16. (3)

Two

5 E

(2) One So, there are four such pairs.

(3) More than three (4) Three

7. (1) In the word PANCHATANTRA,

16. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FEATURE, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both the forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ?

❑❑❑

different letters are A, C, H, N, P, R and T. So, total 7 letters.

(5) None

CLEAR YOUR DOUBTS

8. (5)

8 H

15 O

14 N

5 E

19 20 25 S T Y

(1) None (2) Three (3) More than three (4) One (5) Two

9. (2) SDIQSJAUHOABCOA DEGEIWGBCDEFUIG

[email protected]

OI

BPRE–25

SERIES

2

SERIES

QUESTIONS FROM 1999 TO 2010 ARE AVAILABLE ONLINE NATIONALISED BANKS & IBPS PO/MT/SO EXAMS 1. What will come in the place of the question mark? G D B A ? (1) E (2) F (3) C (4) H (5) A (Bank Of Baroda PO Exam. 13.03.2011)

2. Which of the following will come next in the following series ? 91982987398764987 6559876546987654 (1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 3 (4) 2 (5) 4 (IBPS RRBs Office Assistant CWE 09.09.2012)

3. Which of the following will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order ? ZA BY XC DW ? (1) VF (2) EU (3) UE (4) EV (5) VE (IBPS RRBs Office Assistant CWE 09.09.2012)

4. What should come next in the following number series ? 45321545321445321 345321? (1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 5 (5) None of these (IDBI Bank Officer Exam. 16.09.2012)

5. Which of the following groups of alphabets should replace the blank spaces so that the group of alphabets, given in bold, follow a logical pattern from the preceding and the following group of alphabets ? bw — yza dstuv — — opqre (1) x, e, d (2) x, c, f (3) v, e, f (4) x, c, d (5) x, e, n (Corporation Bank SO (Marketing) Exam, 22.02.2014)

6. What should come next in the following letter series ?

AN CQ (1) JZ (3) IY (5) LZ

ET

GW ? (2) IZ (4) KA

(IBPS RRBs Officer Scale-I CWE, 06.09.2014)

7. Each odd digit in the number 42793681 is substituted by the previous lower digit and each even digit is substituted by the next higher digit and the digits so obtained are rearranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the third digit from the left end after the rearrangement ? (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 3 (4) 8 (5) 7 (BOB Manipal School of Banking Officer Online Exam, 14.08.2014)

11.

The following series is based on the English alphabet. Which of the following will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the given series ? BDZ CFY DHX EJW ? (1) GKV (2) FLU (3) FMW (4) FLV (5) GLU (Bank of Maharashtra PO Exam, 26.10.2016)

12. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 67594138 (both in forward and backward directions), each of which has as many digits between them in the number as in the arithmetical series? (1) Two (2) None (3) One (4) Three (5) More than three (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Pre.) Exam, 14.11.2016 (Shift-I))

8. The positions of how many digits will remain the same if the digits in the number 69852731 are rearranged in the ascending order within the number from left to right? (1) One (2) More than three (3) Three (4) Two (4) None

13. The following series is based on the English alphabet. Which one of the following will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given alphabetical series? XBF UDK RFO OHR ? (1) LKU (2) MKS (3) LJT (4) MJS (5) LJV

(SIDBI Officer Online Exam.24.02.2016)

14. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 31748296 (both in forward and backward directions), each of which has as many digits between them as in the arithmetical series? (1) Three (2) More than three (3) One (4) None (5) Two

9. If all the digits of number 643915827 are rearranged in ascending order from left to right, the position of how many digits will remain unchanged? (1) More than three (2) One (3) None (4) Three (5) Two (United Bank of India PGDBF Manipal Exam,07.08.2016)

10. What should come in the place of question–mark (?) in the following English alphabetical series? A E G K M Q S ? (1) W (2) U (3) X (4) V (5) Z (Bank of Maharashtra PO Exam, 26.10.2016)

BPRE–26

(IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Pre.) Exam, 14.11.2016 (Shift-I))

(IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Pre.) Exam, 14.11.2016 (Shift-II))

15. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 71864392 (both in forward and backward directions), each of which has as many digits between them in the number as in the arithmetic series?

SERIES (1) More than three (2) None (3) Three (4) One (5) Two (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Pre.) Exam, 14.11.2016 (Shift-III))

16. What will come next in the place of question-mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order? AZ CX FU JQ ? (1) PL (2) OM (3) LO (4) PM (5) OL (IBPS RRBs Officers CWE (Prelim Exam) 09.09.2017 IInd Sitting)

17. What will come in the place of (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order ? AN CP ER GT ? (1) IV (2) JU (3) HW (4) HV (5) IX (IBPS RRBs Officers CWE (Prelim Exam) 10.09.2017)

18. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order? AG–4, CI–8, EK–12, GM–16, ? (1) IO–20 (2) JM–24 (3) KO–20 (4) IO–24 (5) IN–22 (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Prelim Exam) 16.09.2017)

19. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? AZ-4 BY-6 DW-10 GT 16 (?) (1) KP – 20 (2) JO – 20 (3) KN – 24 (4) KP – 24 (5) JO – 22 (IBPS SO (IT Officer) CWE (Prelim Exam) 30.12.2017)

20. What will come in place of (?) in the following series based on English alphabetical order and numbers? YC6 XD 8 VF11 SI 15 ? JR26 (1) ON 21 (2) PN 19 (3) PO 19 (4) OM 20 (5) PM 20 (IBPS SO (Law Officer) CWE (Prelim Exam) 31.12.2017)

21. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabet? BED EIG HMJ KQM ? (1) PUN (2) OUQ (3) NUQ (4) NUP (5) NUR (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE-VII (Prelim Exam) 15.10.2017)

22. How many pair of digits have same number of digits between them in the number “573814269” as in the numeric series? (1) Five (2) Four (3) Six (4) Three (5) More than six (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Prelim Exam) 18.08.2018)

23. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabet? BED EIG HMJ KQM ? (1) PUN (2) OUQ (3) NUQ (4) NUP (5) NUR (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Prelim Exam) 21.10.2018)

24. The following series is based on the English alphabet. Which of the following will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the given series? BDZ CFY DHX EJW ? (1) GKV (2) FLU (3) FMW (4) FLV (5) GLU (Canara Bank PO Exam, 23.12.2018)

25. In a number 86143259 if all digits are arranged in ascending order from left to right within the number then how many digits will remain on the same position? (1) One (2) None (3) Three (4) Two (5) Four (IBPS Specialist Officer CWE (Prelim Exam) 31.01.2019)

26. What will come next in place of (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order? ZBY XDW UGT QKP ? (1) LPK (2) MOL (3) LOK (4) MPL (5) LKK IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Prelim) Exam, 04.08.2019

27. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 2485163 each of which has as many digits between them in the number (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in arithmetic numerals ? (1) None (2) More than three (3) Three (4) Two (5) One IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Prelim) Exam, 04.08.2019

28. If in the number 918755389401, positions of the first and the sec-

BPRE–27

ond digits are interchanged, positions of the third and fourth digits are interchanged and so on till the positions of the 11th and 12th digits are interchanged, which digit will be 7th from the right end? (1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 9 (4) 3 (5) 5 IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Prelim) Exam, 12.10.2019

29. If ‘1’ is subtracted from the first, third, fifth and seventh digits and ‘2’ is added to the second, fourth, sixth and eight digits (when counted from left to right) of the number ‘37824156’, how many odd digits would be in the new number ? (1) More than three (2) Three (3) Two (4) One (5) None (IBPS SO Prelim Exam, 28.12.2019)

30. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number ‘62195738’ each of which has as many digits between them in the number (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the arithmetic numerals? (1) Seven (2) Four (3) Six (4) More than seven (5) Five (Indian Bank Specialist Officer SO Exam, 08.03.2020)

SBI PO EXAMS 1. What will come at the place of question-mark (?) in the following alphabetical series ? AG IN PT ? (1) VZ (2) VY (3) WZ (4) UX (5) UY 2. What will come at the place of question-mark (?) in the following number series ? 12341253412563412 56? (1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 3 (5) 2 (SBI Specialist Officer (Law Officer : MMGS Scale-II) Online Exam, 19.04.2014)

3. How many such digits are there in the number 836257419, each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number?

SERIES (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three (SBI Management Executive Exam, 23.02.2014)

4. The positions of how many digits will remain same if the digits in the number 49276381 are arranged in the ascending order within the number from left to right ? (1) None (2) Three (3) Two (4) One (5) More than three (SBI Assistant Manager (System) Exam, 17.01.2016)

5. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order and numbers? YC – 12 VF-16 SI-21 PL-27 (?) JR-42 (1) MN-34 (2) OR-33 (3) MO-32 (4) NP-32 (5) MO-34 SBI PO Prelim Exam, 09.06.2019

6. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 74925816 each of which has as many digits between them in the number (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in arithmetic numerals ? (1) One (2) Two (3) Four (4) Three (5) More than four SBI PO Prelim Exam, 09.06.2019

7. If ‘1’ is added to each even digit and ‘2’ is subtracted from each odd digit of the number ‘75826349’, then how many digits will not appear more than once in the resultant number? (1) Three (2) One (3) More than three (4) None (5) Two SBI PO Prelim Exam, 09.06.2019

RBI GRADE–B/ NABARD GRADE–A OFFICER EXAMS Directions (1–3) : The following questions are based on the alphabetical series given below: CLRTBQSMAPDINFJ KGYX (RBI Grade-B Officer Exam. 06.02.2011)

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (1) LBT (2) SPA

(3) IJF (4) PID (5) BMS 2. If ‘CT’ is related to ‘RQ’ and ‘AI’ is related to ‘DF’ in a certain way, to which of the following is ‘SP’ related to, following the same pattern ? (1) MD (2) DN (3) AD (4) AI (5) DF 3. What will come in place of the question mark in the following series? CR LB TM SI ? (1) PK (2) DK (3) DG (4) NX (5) PG 4. Which of the following will come in the given series in the place of question mark? W V U T 8 7 6 5 $ % # @ V U T 7 6 5 % # @ U T 6 5 ? (1) % (2) # (3) T (4) @ (5) 5 (RBI Officers in Grade ‘B’ Phase-I Exam. 16.08.2018)

INSURANCE EXAMS Directions (1–5) : In each of the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative. (United India Insurance AAO Exam.03.06.2012)

1. f – h i g h – j h i j – i j – l – k l m (1) gikkj (2) jijlk (3) fihjk (4) ihjfk 2. m – o – o m o – n – n o n o – (1) nomon (2) mnmon (3) nnmmm (4) monno 3. q – r – s s s q r – r r – s – q (1) rssqr (2) srqsq (3) rqqrs (4) qsrsq 4. – j i x h – i j h y y – i x – x – j h y (1) jihxy (2) yxjhi (3) hiyxj (4) xjihy 5. w – q w – q – l y – l – z (1) lxwwq (2) qwlxw (3) wlwqx (4) xqlww Directions (6–10) : In each of the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative. (United India Insurance AAO Exam.03.06.2012)

6. f – h i g h – j h i j – i j – l – k l m (1) gikkj (2) jijlk (3) fihjk (4) ihjfk 7. m – o – o m o – n – n o n o –

BPRE–28

8.

9.

10.

11.

(1) nomon (2) mnmon (3) nnmmm (4) monno q–r–sssqr–rr–s–q (1) rssqr (2) srqsq (3) rqqrs (4) qsrsq –jixh–ijhyy–ix–x–jhy (1) jihxy (2) yxjhi (3) hiyxj (4) xjihy w–qw–q–ly–l–z (1) lxwwq (2) qwlxw (3) wlwqx (4) xqlww What should come next in the following number series ? 02462302464502466702 ? (1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 8 (5) 5 (United India Insurance AO Exam. 26.05.2013)

12. Which number is wrong in the given series ? 1, 9, 25, 50, 81 (1) 1 (2) 25 (3) 50 (4) 81 (NICL (GIC) AO (Finance) Exam, 08.09.2013)

13. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letters series shall complete it ? ab _ _ baa _ _ ab _ (1) baabb (2) aabab (3) aabaa (4) aaaaa (NICL (GIC) Administrative Officer Exam, 08.09.2013)

14. A, D, H, M, ?, Z (1) T (2) G (3) N (4) S 15. b, e, d, f, ?, h, j, ?, l (1) i m (2) m i (3) i n (4) j m (NICL (GIC) AO (Finance) Exam, 15.12.2013)

16. How many 7’s are there in the following series which are preceded by 6, which is not preceded by 8 ? 87678675679761677 688697687 (1) Two (2) Nil (3) One (4) Three (NICL (GIC) Administrative Officer Exam, 15.12.2013)

17. How many such digits are there in the number ‘6384257’ in which the digits are same as in the number series (both from backward and forward directions)? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three (LIC AAO Prelim Exam. 04.05.2019)

SERIES 45321 5

4. (3)

SHORT ANSWERS

14. (5) 3

NATIONALISED BANKS & IBPS PO/MT/SO EXAMS 1. (3)

2. (3)

3. (5)

4. (3)

5. (2) 9. (2) 13. (3) 17. (1) 21. (4) 25. (4) 29. (1)

6. (2) 10. (1) 14. (5) 18. (1) 22. (5) 26. (1) 30. (1)

7. (3) 11. (4) 15. (1) 19. (4) 23. (4) 27. (3)

8. (4) 12. (5) 16. (5) 20. (4) 24. (4) 28. (5)

3. (3) 7. (5)

2. (4)

2. (3) 6. (1) 10. (1) 14. (4)

3. (3) 7. (3) 11. (1) 15. (1)

+2

+2

+2

+3

+3

9 –1

3

3 –1

6

8 +1

+1

1

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 3. (5) The pairs of opposite letters are given. The order of letters is changed every time. Thus,

A N 18. (1)

5

6

7

8

9

Y

+6

G

K

Q

+6

S

W

+6

B

ZA, BY, XC, DW, VE.

E

4

1

3

8

13. (3)

F

+5

U D K

–3 +2 +4

R F O

–3 +2 +3

O H R

BPRE–29

+2 +2

I

+4

8

R

E

+2

12

T

+2 +2

K

G

+2

+4

+2

I

+2

V

+2

G

I

+2

M

O

+4

16

20

+1

B

–1

+2

D

–2

+3 –3

+4

G

K

–4

–1

–2

X

+1

+2

D

+2

+3

8

V F 11

–3 +3 +4

–4

S

O

+4

I 15

M

+5

20

–5

J

+5

R

+6 26

23. (4)

12. (5)

9

+2

E

+2

5 7 3 8 1 4 2 6 9

B +1 C +1 D +1 E +1 F +2 +2 H +2 J +2 L D F –1 –1 –1 W –1 V X Z Y

5

C

P

+2

22. (5)

(4)

7

+2

C

B +3 E +3 H +3 K +3 N E +4 I +4 M +4 Q +4 U D +3 G +3 J +3 M +3 P

+6

M

+2

21. (4)

10. (1)

+2

2

P T W Y +2 6 +4 10 +6 16 +8 24 4 20. (4) C

+6

+2

+4

Z

6

B

9

19. (4)

6 4 3 9 1 5 8 2 7 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

X

3

L

4

9. (2)

–3

4

Q –5

G

0

Std 4 Std 5

3

6

U –4

6 9 8 5 2 7 3 1

6

8

X –3

A

–1

1 2 3 5 6 7 8 9

+6

2. (3) The sereis proceeds as illustrated below : 9, 98, 987, 9876, 98765, 987654, 987654

7 –1

2

E

1

Z –2

8. (4)

NATIONALISED BANKS & IBPS PO/MT/SO EXAMS Std 2 Std 3

6

O

3rd from left

4. (2)

C

9

J +5

A

11.

Std 1

2 +1

0

EXPLANATIONS

A

2

F +4

+2

5 3 6 8 2 7 9 Ascending order of digits

A

B

8

17. (1)

+3

+1

4. (2) 8. (3) 12. (3) 16. (4)

4

C +3

+3 N  → Q   → T   → W   → Z

4. (3)

3. (3)

7

A +2

7. (3)

2. (3) 6. (5)

D

16. (5)

2

A  → C   → E   → G   → I

INSURANCE EXAMS

1. (3) G

45321

6. (2)

RBI GRADE–B/ NABARD GRADE–A OFFICER EXAMS

1. (1) 5. (1) 9. (2) 13. (3) 17. (5)

15. (1) 7

bw x y z a, d s t u v c , f o p q r e

SBI PO EXAMS

1. (4)

45321 3

5. (2)

4

1. (2) 5. (5)

1

45321 4

–3 +2 +2

L

D

+3

+3

E

+4

+4

I

+3

G

+3

H M J

+3

K

+4

M

T

B +1 C +1 D +1 E +1 +2 +2 +2 J +2 F H 24. (4) D –1 –1 –1 –1 W Z Y X

8 1

6 2

1 3

4 3 4 5

2 6

5 8

U

+3

25. (4)

J

N

+4

Q

+3

+3

9 9

P

F L V

SERIES 26. (1)

7. (5)

–2

Z

X

+2

B

U

+3

D

–2

Y

–3

G

–3

W

T

–4

–5

Q

+4 –4

L

+5

K

P

–5

P

K

27. (3)

7 –2

5 –2

5

4

8

5

1

6

3

28. (5) 9

1

8

7 5

1

9

7

8

5

5 3

8 9

4 0

1

8

3 4

9

1

0

5

7th from the right end ⇒ 5 7

8

+2

2

6

+1

9

+1

3

3 –2

7

1

4 +1

9

ix h /x

–2

5

7

RBI GRADE–B/ NABARD GRADE–A OFFICER EXAMS

2

–1

9

+2

7

4 –1

4

1

5

+2

3

–1

3

2

1

9

5

−1

+3

−1

+3

8

−1

r s s q

−1

ix h /x

+2 A  → D

+8

A

I

+7

G

N

+7

P

+6

2. (3) 1 1 1

2 2 2

5 5

3 3 6

1

2

5

6

+1

4. (2) 4

6 3

2 4

5 5

7 4 6 7

1 8

9 9

12 +4

16 +5

21 +6

V U T V U T

P

–3

M

L

+3

O

27 +7

8 7 6 5 7 6 5 6 5

/z 23 45 67

02 4 12. (3) (1)2 = 1 (3)2 = 9 (5)2 = 25

.............

(9)2 = 81 13. (3)

$ % # @ % # @ # @

1. (1) f g h i /g h i j / h i j k –3

J

+3

R

34 +8

l q

11. (1) 0246 0246 0246

42

ly/

(7)2 = 49

a / ab a

14. (4)

S +7 Z

A +3 D +4 H +5 M +6 +3 15. (1) b f +3 j +3

INSURANCE EXAMS

5. (5) S –3 I +3

jhy

ab a / a ba / a b

4 9 2 7 6 3 8 1 1 2 3 4 6 7 8 9 V –3 F +3

+4

U T

4. (3)

Y –3 C +3

W

7 ....

3. (3)

8 3 1 2

+3

+2 +3 +4 +5 R  → B   → M   → I   → G

Y

4 4 3

+2

C  → L   → T   → S   → D

V

+5

T

w

+2 → I P  3. (3)

+6

i

10. (1) w l q / w x q / w

+2 → A S 

1. (2)

y j i x h / x i j h y /y j

9. (2)

+2 I  → F Similarly,

SBI PO EXAMS

/

8. (3) q r r q /s s s q /r q r r /

B  → M   → S

8

/z

m n o /n o m

P  → I   → D +3

l q

7. (3) m n o / n o m /o m n /

+2 → R 2. (4) C   +2 T  → Q

3

w

ly/

i j k l/ j k l m

−1

+2

jhy

6. (1) f g h i /g h i j / h i j k

I  → J   → F

+2

i

5. (1) w l q / w x q / w

→ T 1. (4) L  → B  

6

4

7

+3

y j i x h / x i j h y /y j

4. (2)

S  → P   → A

Odd digits ⇒ 9, 7, 3, 3 30. (1) 6

+1

3

29. (1) –1

2

Digits 9 and 1 appear only once.

2

3

8

e

–1 d –1 h

i m –1

l

/ 16. (4) 87678 67 5 67

9761

i j k l/ j k l m

67 2. (3) m n o / n o m /o m n /

7688697687

17. (5)

m n o /n o m

6. (5)

7

4

9

2

5

8

1

6

3. (3) q r r q /s s s q /r q r r /

r s s q

BPRE–30

6

3

8

4

2

5

7

❐❐❐

SERIES

MODEL EXERCISES 1. Fill in the next number in the series 2

3 4 5 , , , ,? 5 5 5 5 25

(1) (3)

7 25 6 25 5

(2) (4)

6 125 6 5 5

(5) None of these 2. Which combination of alphabets would come in the position of the question mark in the following sequence? ABP, CDQ, EFR, ? (1) GHS (2) GHT (3) HGS (4) GHR (5) None of these 3. Which of the following will come next in the series given below? nsi, org, pqe, qpc, ? (1) pqa (2) rqd (3) aor (4) roa (5) None of these Directions (4-7) : In these questions, a series is given which may consist of number, alphabets or a mixture of both. you have to identify from a choices given against each question, the next term in the series. 4. 6, 13, 28, 59, ? (1) 111 (2) 122 (3) 113 (4) 114 (5) None of these 5. QPO, SRQ, UTS, WVU, ? (1) XVZ (2) ZYA (3) YXW (4) VWX (5) None of these 6. 1, 5, 13, 25, 41, ? (1) 61 (2) 57 (3) 51 (4) 63 (5) None of these 7. 3, 10, 29, 66, 127, ? (1) 164 (2) 187 (3) 218 (4) 216 (5) None of these Directions (8-18) : Find the next term in the given series in each of these questions. 8. 198, 194, 185, 169, .... (1) 136 (2) 144 (3) 112 (4) 92 (5) None of these

9. 6, 9, 7, 10, 8, 11, ..... (1) 12 (2) 13 (3) 9 (4) 14 (5) None of these 10. 5, 6, 8, 9, 11, ... (1) 15 (2) 12 (3) 17 (4) 20 (5) None of these 11. 35, 30, 25, 20, 15, 10, .... (1) 15 (2) 10 (3) 5 (4) 2 (5) None of these 12. 0, 2, 6, 12, 20, .... (1) 38 (2) 30 (3) 45 (4) 60 (5) None of these 13. 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, .... (1) 15 (2) 10 (3) 8 (4) 6 (5) None of these 14. 125, 80, 45, 20, ..... (1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 10 (4) 5 (5) None of these 15. 198, 202, 211, 227, ..... (1) 210 (2) 212 (3) 252 (4) 27 (5) None of these 16. What is the next term in the following series? 2, 15, 41, 80, ? (1) 132 (2) 121 (3) 111 (4) 120 (5) None of these 17. Complete the series— 10, 18, 34, ?, 130, 258 (1) 32 (2) 60 (3) 68 (4) 66 (5) None of these 18. What is the next letter in the following series? a, c, b, d, e? (1) h (2) g (3) j (4) i (5) None of these Directions (19-23) : For these questions, what is the missing element in the sequence represented by the question mark?

BPRE–31

19. A, G, L, P, S, ? (1) X (2) Y (3) W (4) U (5) None of these 20. P3C, R5F, T8I, V12L, ? (1) Y1170 (2) X17M (3) X170 (4) X160 (5) None of these 21. 625, 5, 125, 25, 25, ?, 5 (1) 125 (2) 5 (3) 25 (4) 625 (5) None of these 22. 2, 12, 30, 56, ?, 132, 182 (1) 116 (2) 76 (3) 90 (4) 86 (5) None of these 23. 1, 1, 2, 6, 24, ?, 720 (1) 100 (2) 104 (3) 108 (4) 120 (5) None of these 24. The sum of the series 12 + 22 + 32 + 42 + ... + 152 is (1) 1080 (2) 1240 (3) 1460 (4) 1620 (5) None of these 25. Three numbers are in GP. Their sum is 28 and their product is 512. The numbers are (1) 6, 9 and 13 (2) 4, 8 and 16 (3) 2, 8 and 18 (4) 2, 6 and 18 (5) None of these 26. If the second term of a geometric progression is 2 and the sum of the series to infinity is 8, then the first term is (1) 5 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 1 (5) None of these 1 1 27. If b − a + b − c

=

1 1 + , then a, a c

b, c form a/an (1) arithmetic progression (2) geometric progression (3) harmonic progression (4) All of the above (5) None of these 28. If the nth term of an AP is 4n + 1, then the common difference is (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 (5) None of these

SERIES Directions (29-30) : In each of these questions given below, there is a series with one number missing as shown by question mark. This term is given as one of the alternatives. Mark the correct alternative. 29. 4, 9, 25, ?, 169, 289, 361 (1) 49 (2) 74 (3) 89 (4) 91 (5) None of these 30. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, ? (1) 61 (2) 58 (3) 50 (4) 72 (5) None of these Directions (31-34) : In these questions, some of the letters are missing. The missing letters are given in the proper sequence as one of the alternatives given under each question. Find the correct choice. 31. –c – c a – ab – bc – (1) abcac (2) babca (3) ccabb (4) bcabb (5) None of these 32. rst – – rs – uv– stu – rst – – (1) rstrsts (2) uvtrstu (3) uvtrsuv (4) uvtrvuv (5) None of these 33. ab...abb...bba...b (1) aba (2) bba (3) bab (4) baa (5) None of these 34. Which term of the series 5, 10, 20, 40 .... is 1280? (1) 10th (2) 9 th th (3) 8 (4) 11th (5) None of these Directions (35-37) : A missing term in the series given in each of these questions is marked by a question mark (?). Choose the correct term to complete the series? 35.

1 3 5 7 , , , ,? 2 4 8 16

(1) 9/32 (2) 10/17 (3) 11/34 (4) 12/35 (5) None of these 36. ABD, DGK, HMS3 MTB, SBL, ? (1) ZKW (2) ZKU (3) ZAB (4) XKW (5) None of these

37. Choose the term that will continue the following series : P 3 C, R 5 F, T 8 I, V 12 L, ? (1) Y 17 O (2) X 17 M (3) X 17 O (4) X 16 O (5) None of these Directions (38-39) : In each of the following number series, two terms have been put within brackets. Mark your answer as (1) If the first bracketed term is right and second is wrong (2) If both the bracketed terms are right (3) If the first bracketed term is wrong and second is right (4) If both the bracketed terms are wrong >? (5) None of these 38. 4, 6, 10 (12), 16, (14), 22 39. 3, 10, 29, (66), (127), 218 40. (2), 5, (12), 25, 41, 61 Directions (41-48) : In each of the following questions, various terms of a series are given with one term missing as shown by 0). Choose the missing term. 41. QPO, SRQ, UTS, WVU, (?) (1) XVZ (2) YXW (3) ZYA (4) VWX (5) None of these 42. 19, 2, 38, 3, 114, 4, (?) (1) 228 (2) 352 (3) 256 (4) 456 (5) None of these 43. YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI, (?) (1) QOL (2) TOL (3) QGL (4) QNL (5) None of these 44. AZ, CX, FU, (?) (1) IR (2) JQ (3) IV (4) KP (5) None of these 45. 2Z5, 7Y7, 14X9, 23W11, 34V13, (?) (1) 27U24 (2) 45U15 (3) 47U15 (4) 47V14 (5) None of these 46. Complete the series. D-4, F-6, H-8, J-10, ?, ? (1) K-12, M-13 (2) L-12, N-14 (3) L-12, M-14 (4) K-12, M-14 (5) None of these

BPRE–32

Directions (47-48) : Complete the following series. 47. J2Z, K4X, L7V, ?, N16R, O22P (1) I 11 T (2) LI IS (3) M11 T (4) L 11T (5) None of these 48. gfe — ig — eii — fei —gf — ii (1) e i f g i (2) f i g i e (3) i f g i e (4) i f i g e (5) None of these 49. Which of the following will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following sequence? 6C7, 8F10, 11J14, 15O19, ? (1) 25U20 (2) 20U25 (3) 20U24 (4) 19U25 (5) None of these Directions (50-53) : Complete the series. 50. CAT, FDW, IGZ, ? (1) KJA (2) KTC (3) LHD (4) LJC (5) None of these 51. (2, 3), (3, 5), (5, 7), (7, 11), (11, 13), ? (1) (13, 15) (2) (15, 16) (3) (13, 17) (4) (13, 19) (5) None of these 52. HBGQ, LFKU, PJOY, ?, XRWG (1) TMRB (2) TNSC (3) SMTD (4) TQTB (5) None of these 53. MHZ, NIW, OKT, PNQ, ? (1) RRN (2) QRN (3) QRM (4) QQN (5) None of these Directions (54-57) : Complete the series. 54. A GMS → CIOU then ? (1) BHNT bhnt (2) ABCD ascd (3) BHNT djpv (4) bhnt DJPV (5) None of these 55. 48, 24, 72, 36, 108, ? (1) 115 (2) 110 (3) 121 (4) 54 (5) None of these 56. K-ll, M-13, P-16, T-20, ? (1) V-22 (2) U-21 (3) Y-25 (4) W-25 (5) None of these 57. B0R, E3U, G9Y, J18D..... (1) E3P (2) L30J (3) H9N (4) G3U (5) None of these

SERIES Directions (58-59) : Identify the letter-series that follows the given rule. 58. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series decreases by one. (1) EJNQST (2) CINRTU (3) BGKNPR (4) LQUXAP (5) None of these 59. In the following series, the number of letters skipped in between the adjacent letters are in ascending order, ie, 1, 2, 3, 4. Which one of the following letter groups does not obey this rule? (1) GILPU (2) DFIMR (3) CEHLQ (4) HJMPT (5) None of these Directions (60-64) : Complete the series. 60. X, U, S, P, N, K ? (1) I (2) M (3) L (4) Q (5) None of these 61. FDS, JHW, NLA, ? (1) QND (2) RQD (3) RPE (4) SOF (5) None of these 62. 4, 10, 22, 46, ? (1) 56 (2) 76 (3) 66 (4) 94 (5) None of these 63. 9, 15, 23, 33, ? (1) 44 (2) 38 (3) 36 (4) 45 (5) None of these 64. C-2, E-3, G-4, I-5, ? (1) H-6 (2) K-6 (3) J-8 (4) L-7 (5) None of these Directions (65-67) : Complete the series by replacing the missing term indicated by ? 65. KM5, IP8, GS11, EV14, ‘?’ (1) BY17 (2) BX17 (3) CY17 (4) CY18 (5) None of these 66. 2A11, 4D13, 12G17, ? (1) 36J21 (2) 36 I 19 (3) 48J21 (4) 48J23 (5) None of these 67. ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ? (1) ZAB (2) XKW (3) ZKU (4) ZKW (5) None of these

Directions (68-73) : In each of these questions complete the series by replacing the ‘?’. 68. D-4, F-6, H-8, J-10, ? (1) K-12 (2) M-14 (3) L-12 (4) M-13 (5) None of these 69. 3F, 6G, 11I, 18L, ? (1) 21O (2) 25N (3) 27 P (4) 27Q (5) None of these 70. A, G, L, P, S, ? (1) U (2) W (3) X (4) Y (5) None of these 71. AI, BJ, CK, ? (1) DL (2) DM (3) GH (4) LM (5) None of these 72. 6, 11, 21, 36, 56, ? (1) 42 (2) 51 (3) 81 (4) 91 (5) None of these 73. 1, 9, 17, 33, 49, 73, ? (1) 97 (2) 98 (3) 99 (4) 100 (5) None of these Directions (74-78) : Complete the series by replacing the ‘?’ mark. 74. BC6, EFG, 210, IJK? (1) 1000 (2) 190 (3) 990 (4) 999 (5) None of these 75. 2A11, 4D13, 12G17, ? (1) 36J21 (2) 48J21 (3) 38 I 19 (4) 48J23 (5) None of these 76. 44, 40, 34, ? 16, 4 (1) 26 (2) 21 (3) 28 (4) 19 (5) None of these 77. 5, 9, 16, 29, 54, 103, ? (1) 103 (2) 94 (3) 102 (4) 200 (5) None of these 78. In which of the following series is the number of letters skipped between adjacent letters decreasing by one? (1) LPRU (2) LPSU (3) LPTV (4) LRPU (5) None of these Directions (79-80) : Complete the series by replacing ‘?’ mark.

BPRE–33

79. F6T20 H8V22 ? L12Z26 (1) J10X22 (2) H12X24 (3) H10X22 (4) J10X24 (5) None of these 80. C24W4 D23V5 E22U6 ? (1) F22T10 (2) F21T7 (3) F23T8 (4) F22T7 (5) None of these 81. Complete the series 162, 54, 18, 6, ? by replacing the question mark ‘?’ (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (5) None of these Directions (82-85) : Complete the series. 82. 5G7, 7H10, 10114, 14J19, ....... (1) 16K20 (2) 17K21 (3) 18K21 (4) 19K25 (5) None of these 83. J15K M21N ...... S39T V51W (1) N24P (2) P27Q (3) P29Q (4) P25Q (5) None of these 84. D23F H19J L17N ......... T11V (1) P15R (2) P14R (3) P13R (4) P12R (5) None of these 85. A70B D65F H60J ...... P50R (1) K55L (2) L55M (3) L55N (4) L55P (5) None of these Directions (86-89) : Complete the series by replacing the ‘?’ mark. 86. 4A, 12D, 28G, 60J, 124M, ‘?’ (1) 248Q (2) 252P (3) 256T (4) 246S (5) None of these 87. P3C, R5F, T8I, V12L, ? (1) Y17O (2) X17M (3) X17O (4) X160 (5) None of these 88. K8K, N13E, Q20Z, T31Y, ? (1) Z37Z (2) Z38Q (3) W44S (4) X41X (5) None of these 89. A729, G343, ?, S27, Yl (1) L64 (2) N75 (3) Q100 (4) M125 (5) None of these

SERIES Directions (90-93) : Complete the series by replacing the ‘?’ mark. 90. XZ 16 BD, FH 64 JL, NP 144 RT, VX 256 ZB, ? (1) DF 400 HJ (2) CE 400 HJ (3) DF 515 HJ (4) DF 324 HJ (5) None of these 91. 15 ABC 28, 18 DEF 32, 21 GHI 36, ?, 27 MNO 44 (1) 23 JKL 38 (2) 25 JKL 42 (3) 24 JKL 40 (4) 26 JKL 43 (5) None of these 92. AL20, CQ28, FU40, JX56, ? (1) HZ68 (2) OZ76 (3) LM86 (4) FZ68 (5) None of these 93. A3T, D7R, G16P, J35N, M74L, ? (1) R126P (2) P153J (3) N102L (4) Q163R (5) None of these Directions (94-98) : A sequence of groups of letters and numbers is given with one term missing as shown by (?). Choose the missing term out of the given alternatives. 94. 512 BCD 65, 343 EFG 50, 216 HIJ 37, ?, 64 NOP 17 (1) 180 KLM 30 (2) 191 KLM 33 (3) 125 KLM 26 (4) 98 KLM 26 (5) None of these 95. 17 YXW 65, 26 VUT 126, 37 SRQ 217, ?, 65 MLK 513 (1) 49 NOP 342 (2) 48 PON 341 (3) 50 PON 343 (4) 50 PON 344 (5) None of these 96. ZY 2505 BA, XW 1604 DC, VU 903 FE, ?, RQ 101 JI (1) TS 402 HG (2) ST 402 GH (3) TS 402 GH (4) ST 402 HG (5) None of these 97. 49 BCD 54, 60 EFG 67, 75 HIJ 84, ?, 117 NOP 130 (1) 92 KLM 103 (2) 909 KLM 98 (3) 94 KLM 105 (4) 96 KLM 116 (5) None of these

98. 101 ZA 82, 65 YB 50, 37 XC 26, ?, 5 VE 2 (1) 17 WD 10 (2) 20 WD 18 (3) 15 WD 8

(4) 12 WD 6

(5) None of these Directions (99–107) : Complete the series by replacing the question Mark (?) : 99. B0R, E3U, G9Y, J18D, ? (1) E30P

(2) H27N

(3) L30J

(4) G33U

(5) None of these 100. A729, G343, ?, S27, Y1

SHORT ANSWERS 1.(3)

2.(1)

3.(4)

4.(2)

5.(3)

6.(1)

7.(3)

8.(2)

9.(3)

10.(2)

11.(3)

12.(2)

13.(1)

14.(4)

15.(3)

16.(1)

17.(4)

18.(2)

19.(4)

20.(3)

21.(1)

22.(3)

23.(2)

24.(2)

25.(2)

26.(3)

27.(3)

28.(2)

29.(1)

30.(3)

31.(2)

32.(2)

33.(3)

34.(2)

35.(1)

36.(1)

(1) L64

(2) M75

37.(3)

38.(2)

39.(2)

40.(2)

(3) Q100

(4) M125

41.(2)

42.(4)

43.(1)

44.(2)

45.(3)

46.(2)

47.(3)

48.(3)

49.(2)

50.(4)

51.(3)

52.(2)

53.(2)

54.(3)

55.(4)

56.(3)

57.(2)

58.(1)

59.(4)

60.(1)

61.(3)

62.(4)

63.(4)

64.(2)

(2) FZ68

65.(3)

66.(4)

67.(4)

68.(3)

(4) HZ68

69.(3)

70.(1)

71.(1)

72.(3)

73.(1)

74.(3)

75.(4)

76.(1)

77.(4)

78.(2)

79.(4)

80.(2)

(5) None of these 101. Q331T, U442X, Y553A, ? (1) Z665D

(2) C664C

(3) B666D

(4) B664F

(5) None of these 102. RL12, TQ20, WU32, AX48, ? (1) EZ68 (3) GZ68

(5) None of these 103. V2R,Y8T,B15V, E76X, ? (1) F350Z

(2) G452Z

81.(1)

82.(4)

83.(3)

84.(3)

(3) H355B

(4) H355Z

85.(3)

86.(2)

87.(3)

88.(3)

89.(4)

90.(1)

91.(3)

92.(2)

93.(2)

94.(3)

95.(4)

96.(1)

97.(3)

98.(1)

(5) None of these 104. Select the missing number from the given responses. 9, 8 , 10, 16, 11, ?, 12, 64 (1) 28

(2) 36

(3) 25

(4) 32

101.(2)

99. (3) 100. (4)

102.(2) 103. (4) 104. (4)

105. (4) 106. (3) 107. (2)

105. Select the missing number from the given responses.

EXPLANATIONS

3, 4, 7, 11, 18, 29, ? (1) 31

(2) 39

(3) 43

(4) 47

106. Select the missing number from the given responses. 16, 18, 21, 25, 30, 36, ? ,,.. (1) 38

(2) 61

(3) 43

(4) 51

107. Select the missing number from the given responses. 121, 144, 289, 324, 529, 576, __ ? (1) 961

(2) 841

(3) 900

(4) 1320

BPRE–34

1. (3) Numerator of each fraction increases by 1 and denominator of each fraction is multiplied by

5. Hence, the next fraction would

be

6 25 5

.

2. (1) First and second letter move two steps in forward direction while the third letter moves one step in alphabetical order. 3. (4) 1st letter moves +1 step, second letter moves –1 step. IIIrd letter moves –2 steps. Hence, the next group of letters would be r o a.

SERIES 4. (2) The series progresses with a difference of 7, 7 × 2 + 1 = 15, 15 × 2 + 1 = 31, 31 × 2 + 1 = 63 Hence, the next digit of the series would be 59 + 63 = 122 5. (3) This question can be solved by clear observation of the first letter of each group. First letter of each group progresses with a difference of one letter Q (R) S (T) U (V) W (X) Y. Hence, next letter will be Y. 6. (1) The series progresses with a difference of + 4, + 8, + 12, +16, +20. 7. (3) Difference of each consecutive term of the series is 7, 19, 37, 61, 91. The series of difference moves with the following rule +12, +18, +24, +30. Hence, the next number would be 127 + 91 = 218 8. (2) The sequence progresses with the following difference – 22, –32, –42, –52. 9. (3) First, third, fourth and fifth terms are consecutive natural numbers. 10. (2) The sequence progresses with the following difference +1, +2, +1, +2, +1. Hence, the next number would be 12. 11. (3) The series moves with a difference of –5. 12. (2) The series moves with a difference of +2, +4, +6, +8, +10. 13. (1) The series moves with a difference of +2. 14. (4) The series moves with a difference of –45, –35, –25, –15. 15. (3) The series moves with the difference of + 22, + 32, + 42, + 52. 16. (1) The series follows the following pattern +13, +26, +39, + 52. Hence, the next number will be 80+ 52 = 132 17. (4) The pattern of the series is +8, +16, +32, +64, +128. 18. (2) a(b)c / b(c)d / e(f)g Hence, the next letter of the series would be g. 19. (4) The letters moves +6, +5, +4, +3, +2 steps in alphabetical orders. 20. (3) First letter moves two steps, second letter moves two steps, three steps, four steps .... successively and third letter moves third steps in forward direction. 21. (1) The missing number is 125.

22. (3) The series progresses with the difference +10, +18, +26, +34, +42, +50, .... 23. (2) The difference of the series is × 2, × 2, × 3, × 4, × 5, × 6, .... 24. (2) The sum of the squares of the first n natural numbers is given by n n + 1 2n + 1

b

gb

g

6

=

15 15 + 1 30 + 1

b

gb

g

6

= 1240 25. (2) Let the three numbers of GP be a, ar, ar2. Given, a + ar + ar2 = 28 and ∴ a3r3 = (51)2 ar = 8, a + ar2 = 20 ⇒ 8r2 – 20r + 8 = 0 ⇒ r = 2,r = –2 If r = 2, a = 4 Therefore, the three numbers are 4, 8, 16. 26. (3) Let the series of GP be

32. (2) rst/uv/rst/uv/rst/uv/rst/uv 33. (3) abb /abb /abb /abb 34. (2) The given series is GP. nth term of the series n–1 = ar n–1 1280 = 5 × (2) n–1 256 = (2) ⇒ (2)8 = (2)n–1 n–l=8⇒n=9 35. (1) Numerator increases by 1 and denominator is double that of the preceding number. Hence, the

9 . 32 36. (1) First letter moves +3, +4, +5, +6 ... steps in the alphabetical order, second letter moves +5, +6, +7: +8, ... steps and third letter moves +7, +8, +9, + 10, ... steps in the alphabetical order. 37. (3) First letter moves +1 step in alphabetical order, number moves +2, +3, +4, +5 steps in numerical order and last letter moves +3 steps in alphabetical order. 38. (2) next fraction would be

a , a , ar , ar 2..... a = 2, r a /r S = 1−r ∞

⇒

a r 1- r

b g

39. (2) =8

2

⇒ 4r – 4r + 1 = 0 ⇒ r=

a 1 ⇒ = Ist term = 4 r 2

1 1 1 1 27. (3) b − c − c = a − b − a 2ac ⇒ b = a +c 1 1 1 , , are in AP. a b c ⇒ a, b, c are in HP. 28. (2) nth term = a+ (n – 1) d = 4n + 1 (a – d) + nd = 1 + 4n ⇒ (a – d) = 1 and d = 4 ∴ a = 5 and d = 4 29. (1) The series is square of consecutive prime numbers. 30. (3) The given series is 12 + 1, 22 + 1, 32 + 1, 42 + 1, 52 + 1, 62 + 1, 72 + 1. Hence, the required number is 50. 31. (2) bca/cab/abc/bca.

3 10 29 (1)3 + 2 (2)3 + 2 (3)3 + 2 (66) (127) 218 ( 4 )3 + 2 (5)3 + 2 (6)3 + 2

40. (2)

41. (2)

⇒

BPRE–35

42. (4) The series is alternate one ×2

43. (1)

44. (2)

×3

×4

and

SERIES 45. (3) 55. (4)

66. (4) ×

1 2

×3

×

1 2

×3

×

1 2

56. (3) +2

46. (2) Each alphabetical letter is 2 place ahead in the alphabetical order. 47. (3)

+3

+2

+4

+3

+5

+4

67. (4)

+5

57. (2) +2

+2

+2

+2

68. (3) +2

48. (3) gfeii / gfeii / gfeii / gfeii 49. (2) +2

+3

+4

+1

+2

+4

+2

+2

+3

+4

69. (3)

59. (4)

+3 +3

+2

58. (1)

+5

+5

+7

+9

70. (1)

And C + 3 F + 4 J + 5 O + 6U 50. (4)

60. (1) The series follows the pattern

+6

+1

71. (1) 51. (3) (2, 3), (3, 5), (5,7), (7,11), (11,13) This is the series twin prime number. So, next term will be (13,17). 52. (2)

+4

+4

+4

+4

+4 +4

+1

+3

+1

+1

+1

+1

+2

72. (3)

+4 +4

+4

62. (4) 53. (2)

+6

+12

+24

+48

+6

+8

+10

+12

63. (4)

Similarly,

+4

61. (3)

First letter of each subsequent groups has three alphabets in between. The method is same for second and third letter of each group.

54. (3)

+5

64. (2) C – 2 → (3 – 2) = 1 E – 3 → (5 – 3) = 2 G – 4 → (7 – 4) = 3 I – 5 → (9 – 5) = 4 K – 6 → (11 – 6) = 5 Letter position in alphabet minus the number gives a series of natural number starting from 1. 65. (3)

BPRE–36

+5

+10

+15

+20

+25

73. (1)

+8

+8

+16

+16

+24

74. (3) The pattern is BC = 2 × 3 = 6 EFG = 5 × 6 × 7 = 210 LIK = 9 × 10 × 11 = 990 75. (4) The pattern is +2

×2

+4

×3

+6

×4

76. (1) 77. (4) The pattern is 5×2–1=9 9 × 2 – 2 =16 ... so on ∴ 103 × 2 – 6 = 200 78. (2) The required series is L+4=P P+3=S S+2=U

+24

SERIES 90. (1)

79. (4)

100. (4)

+2

+2

+2

+2

+2

+2

+6 A +6 G +6 M +6 S 27 729 343 125

+2

(9)3

91. (3) 80. (2)

+3

15

+1

ABC

+4

28 92. (2)

+3

18

+3

21

DEF

+1

GHI

+1

32

+4

36

+4

24

+3

27

JKL

+1

M NO

+4

44

40

(5)3

(3)

3

3

(1)

101. (2) +4

Q

+4

U

+111

T

Y

+111

442

+4

553

+3

X

A

+4

C

+111

664

+2

C

102. (2) +2

+3

+5

+4

+4

+5

R  → T  → W  → A  →

82. (4) +3

+4

+5

+6

F +2 L  → Q  → U  →X  → Z +8 +12 +16 +20 12  → 20 →32 →48 → 68

93. (2)

83. (3) +6

(7) 3

331

81. (1)

+2

Y 1

+8

+10

+3

103. (4)

+12

3

3

3

+3

+6

+7

+61

+279

+2

+2

+2

+2

+ + + V  → Y  →B  → E  →

–2

–4

–2

+1

+1

–11

–9

+1

+1

–13

–15

104. (4) There are two alternating series :

9

95. (4)

85. (3) –5

Z

R  → T  →V  →X  →

84. (3) –4

H

2  → 8  →15 →76  → 355

94. (3)

–5

–5

–5

+9

+11

+13

+15

–1

–1

–1

–1

10 +1

8 86. (2)

+1 16

12 +1

32

64

96. (1)

×2

×2

×2

105. (4) 3 + 4 = 7 4 + 7 = 11 11 + 18 = 29

87. (3)

18 + 29 = 47

97. (3) 49

88. (3)

11

+11

BCD \ 54

+1

+ 13

+15

60

EFG

+1

67

+ 17

+19

75 HIJ

+1

84

+ 21

94 KLM 105

+23 +1 +25

117 NOP 130

98. (1)

106. (3)16 + 2 = 18 18 + 3 = 21 21 + 4 = 25 25 + 5 = 30 30 + 6 = 36 36 + 7 = 43

In the second series, each term is increased by next prime number. 89. (4)

99. (3) +3

+2

+3

+3

→ E   → G  → J   → B  +3

+6

+9

+12

0  → 3   → 9  →18  → +3

+4

+5

+6

R  → U   → Y   → D   →

BPRE–37

L 30 J

107. (2) 121 = 11 × 11 144 = 12 × 12 (12 + 5)2 = 17 × 17 = 289 18 × 18 = 324 (18 + 5)2 = 23 × 23 = 529 24 × 24 =576 (24 + 5)2 = 29 × 29 = 841 ❐❐❐

ANALOGY

3

ANALOGY

QUESTIONS FROM 1999 TO 2010 ARE AVAILABLE ONLINE NATIONALISED BANKS & IBPS PO/MT/SO EXAMS Directions (1–3) : Study the following information to answer the given questions : (Indian Bank PO Exam. 02.01.2011 (Ist sitting)

‘TRAVEL’ is related to ‘UDKUSB’ and ‘CORNER’ is related to ‘MDQDPS’. 1. ‘SURVEY’ is related to ____. (1) UDXSTV (2) UXDTSV (3) TVSUDX (4) UDXTVS (5) UDXVTS 2. ‘GROUPS’ is related to ____. (1) TORHSP (2) TOHRSP (3) TORPHS (4) ROTHSP (5) ROTPHS 3. Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as FAN : HEAT ? (1) Water : Drink (2) Light : Night (3) Teach : Student (4) Air : Breathe (5) Food : Hunger (Punjab & Sind Bank PO Exam. 23.01.2011)

Directions (4 – 5) : Study the following information to answer the given questions : (IBPS Specialist Officer CWE Exam.17.03.2013)

‘TRAVEL’ is related to ‘UDKUSB’ and ‘CORNER’ is related to ‘MDQDPS’. 4. ‘SURVEY’ is related to ____. (1) UDXSTV (2) UXDTSV (3) TVSUDX (4) UDXTVS (5) UDXVTS 5. ‘GROUPS’ is related to ____. (1) TORHSP (2) TOHRSP (3) TORPHS (4) ROTHSP (5) ROTPHS 6. In a certain code TEMPORAL is written as OLDSMBSP, how is CONSIDER written in that code?

(1) RMNBSFEJ (2) BNMRSFEJ (3) RMNBJEFS (4) TOPDQDCH (5) None of these IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Prelim) Exam, 17.08.2019

7. In a certain code language ‘LEAGUE’ is written as ‘NHEIXI’ and ‘RETAIL’ is written as ‘THXCLP’. How will ‘DAMAGE’ be written in that code language ? (1) ECPBIH (2) GDPDJH (3) FDQCJI (4) FCOCIG (5) HEQEKI IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Prelim) Exam, 12.10.2019

8. In a certain code Language, POMADE is written as WLTZKV and MOTLEY is written as TLASVF. How will HOSTEL be written in that code language ? (1) NLYAVR (2) SLZAVO (3) PLABVT (4) OLZAVS (5) LOAZSV IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Prelim) Exam, 30.11.2019

9. In a certain code if the word ‘‘IMPOSE’’ is coded as “HNOPRF”, and ‘‘ARDENT’’ is coded as “ZSCFMU”, then the ‘‘HORDES’’ will be coded as “__________”. (1) GPQCFR (2) GPSEDR (3) GPQEDT (4) IPSCFR (5) IPQCDT (IBPS SO Prelim Exam, 28.12.2019)

10. In a certain code language, ‘RIGHT’ is written as ‘UGJKW’ and ‘HOUSE’ is written as ‘KMSVC’. How will ‘POINT’ be written in that code language? (1) SRLQW (2) SMGQW (3) NMGLR (4) RRKPV (5) TNHRV (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE Prelim Exam, 13.09.2020)

BPRE–38

SBI PO EXAMS 1. In a certain code language, FORTUNE is coded as SPGVFOV and JOURNAL is coded as VPKTMBO. How is PROFILE coded in the same code language ? (1) PQQGDKH (2) PSQHFMJ (3) PSQDEMJ (4) NQOHFMJ (5) NQOHDKH SBI PO Prelim Exam, 09.06.2019

RBI GRADE–B/ NABARD GRADE–A OFFICER EXAMS 1. ‘Writing’ is related to ‘Pen’ in the same way as_____? (1) ‘Singing’ is related to ‘Music’ (2) ‘Stitching’ is related to ‘Needle’ (3) ‘Dancing’ is related to ‘Exercise’ (4) ‘Carpenter’ is related to ‘tools’ (5) ‘Paper’ is related to ‘book’ (RBI Grade-B Officer Exam. 06.02.2011)

Directions (2–3) : Study the following information and answer the given questions : (RBI Grade-B Officer’s Exam. 18.12.2011)

‘PROJECT’ is related to ‘CEOPR T’, ‘PLANE’ is related to ‘ELNP' and ‘WIN’ is related ‘NW’. 2. Following the same pattern, ‘ORGANISED’ will be related to_____ (1) ADEGOIRS (2) ADEGIOSR (3) ADEGIORS (4) ADEGBORS (5) Cannot be determined 3. Following the same pattern ‘DISTANCE’ will be related to_____ (1) ACDEINST (2) ACDEINS (3) ACDINST (4) ACDNSTI (5) Cannot be determined

ANALOGY

INSURANCE EXAMS Directions (1–5) : In each of the following questions, there is a certain relation between two given numbers on one side of :: and one number is given on a another side of :: while another number is to be found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this number as the numbers of the given bear. Choose the best alternative. (Oriental Insurance Company Exam.08.04.2012)

1. 11 : 145 :: 14 : ? (1) 155 (2) 198 (3) 226 (4) 238 2. 3 : 36 :: 5 : ? (1) 130 (2) 138 (3) 145 (4) 148 3. 12 : 5 :: ? : 27 (1) 78 (2) 81 (3) 83 (4) 87 4. 6 : 108 :: 8 : ? (1) 220 (2) 238 (3) 278 (4) 320 5. 8 : 48 :: 14 : ? (1) 151 (2) 168 (3) 171 (4) 188 Directions (6–9) : Match the questions given below with (1), (2), (3) and (4) on the basis of relationship among items. The items may not be in the same order. (United India Insurance AAO Exam.03.06.2012)

6. Face : Nose : Mouth (1) Beverage : Coffee : Tea (2) Oak : Pine : Eucalyptus (3) Mountain : Snow : Forest (4) Accident : Injury : Pain 7. Evaporation : Cloud : Rain (1) Beverage : Coffee : Tea (2) Oak : Pine : Eucalyptus (3) Mountain : Snow : Forest (4) Accident : Injury : Pain 8. Physics : Chemistry : Botany (1) Beverage : Coffee : Tea (2) Oak : Pine : Eucalyptus (3) Mountain : Snow : Forest (4) Accident : Injury : Pain 9. Insect : Mosquito : Flies (1) Beverage : Coffee : Tea (2) Oak : Pine : Eucalyptus (3) Mountain : Snow : Forest (4) Accident : Injury : Pain

10. What is ralated to Lapse in the same way as Session is related to Conclude ? (1) Agency (2) Policy (3) Permit (4) Leave (United India Insurance AAO Exam.03.06.2012)

11. If is related to Condition in the same way as But is related to (1) Disapproval (2) Negation (3) Contradiction (4) Strengthen (United India Insurance AAO Exam.03.06.2012)

12. Clock is related to Time in the same way as Vehicle is related to which of the following ? (1) Road (2) Journey (3) Fuel (4) Passenger (United India Insurance AAO Exam.03.06.2012)

13. Bread is related to Wheat in the same way as Brick is related to (1) Clay (2) Building (3) Fire (4) Cement (United India Insurance AAO Exam.03.06.2012)

14. Drummer is related to Orchestra in the same way as Minister is related to (1) Voter (2) Constituency (3) Cabinet (4) Department (United India Insurance AAO Exam.03.06.2012)

Directions (15–19) : In each of the following questions, choose that set of numbers from the four alternative sets, that is similar to the given set. (United India Insurance AAO Exam.03.06.2012)

15. Given set : (91, 77, 143) (1) (109, 99, 119) (2) (117, 63, 187) (3) (119, 99, 187) (4) (169, 121, 127) 16. Given set : (826, 574, 952) (1) (764, 386, 854) (2) (842, 654, 928) (3) (576, 478, 754) (4) (682, 196, 934)

BPRE–39

17. Given set : (112, 136, 162) (1) (65, 84, 105) (2) (90, 128, 136) (3) (36, 52, 70) (4) (96, 102, 162) 18. Given set : (48, 84, 128) (1) (33, 65, 105) (2) (36, 70, 112) (3) (22, 52, 90) (4) (56, 96, 144) 19. Given set : (208, 439, 945) (1) (329, 515, 738) (2) (417, 658, 705) (3) (528, 645, 913) (4) (538, 725, 813) Directions (20–23) : Match the questions given below with (1), (2), (3) and (4) on the basis of relationship among items. The items may not be in the same order. (United India Insurance AAO Exam.03.06.2012)

20. Face : Nose : Mouth (1) Beverage : Coffee : Tea (2) Oak : Pine : Eucalyptus (3) Mountain : Snow : Forest (4) Accident : Injury : Pain 21. Evaporation : Cloud : Rain (1) Beverage : Coffee : Tea (2) Oak : Pine : Eucalyptus (3) Mountain : Snow : Forest (4) Accident : Injury : Pain 22. Physics : Chemistry : Botany (1) Beverage : Coffee : Tea (2) Oak : Pine : Eucalyptus (3) Mountain : Snow : Forest (4) Accident : Injury : Pain 23. Insect : Mosquito : Flies (1) Beverage : Coffee : Tea (2) Oak : Pine : Eucalyptus (3) Mountain : Snow : Forest (4) Accident : Injury : Pain 24. What is ralated to Lapse in the same way as Session is related to Conclude ? (1) Agency (2) Policy (3) Permit (4) Leave (United India Insurance AAO Exam.03.06.2012)

25. If is related to Condition in the same way as But is related to (1) Disapproval (2) Negation (3) Contradiction (4) Strengthen (United India Insurance AAO Exam.03.06.2012)

ANALOGY 26. Clock is related to Time in the same way as Vehicle is related to which of the following ? (1) Road (2) Journey (3) Fuel (4) Passenger (United India Insurance AAO Exam.03.06.2012)

27. Bread is related to Wheat in the same way as Brick is related to (1) Clay (2) Building (3) Fire (4) Cement (United India Insurance AAO Exam.03.06.2012)

28. Drummer is related to Orchestra in the same way as Minister is related to (1) Voter (2) Constituency (3) Cabinet (4) Department (United India Insurance AAO Exam.03.06.2012)

Directions (29–33) : In each of the following questions, choose that set of numbers from the four alternative sets, that is similar to the given set. (United India Insurance AAO Exam.03.06.2012)

29. Given set : (91, 77, 143) (1) (109, 99, 119) (2) (117, 63, 187) (3) (119, 99, 187) (4) (169, 121, 127) 30. Given set : (826, 574, 952) (1) (764, 386, 854) (2) (842, 654, 928) (3) (576, 478, 754) (4) (682, 196, 934) 31. Given set : (112, 136, 162) (1) (65, 84, 105) (2) (90, 128, 136) (3) (36, 52, 70) (4) (96, 102, 162) 32. Given set : (48, 84, 128) (1) (33, 65, 105) (2) (36, 70, 112) (3) (22, 52, 90) (4) (56, 96, 144) 33. Given set : (208, 439, 945) (1) (329, 515, 738) (2) (417, 658, 705) (3) (528, 645, 913) (4) (538, 725, 813)

34. Select the missing characters from the given responses ?

SHORT ANSWERS

BADC : FHEG :: NPMO : ? (1) RQTS (2) NTRC (3) TRQS (4) RTQS 35. Select the missing characters from the given responses.

NATIONALISED BANKS & IBPS PO/MT/SO EXAMS

AGMSY, CIOUA, EKQWC, ?, IOUAG, KQWCI (1) GMSYE (2) FMSYE (3) GNSYD (4) FMYES

1. (4)

2. (1)

3. (5)

4. (4)

5. (1)

6. (1)

7. (3)

8. (4)

9. (3)

10. (2)

SBI PO EXAMS

(NICL (GIC) AO (Finance) Exam, 08.09.2013)

36. Select the related word from the given alternatives. Physician : Treatment : : Judge : ? (1) Punishment (2) Judgement (3) Lawyer (4) Court 37. Select the related letters from the given alternatives. ABCD : WXYZ : : EFGH : ? (1) STUV (2) ZYXW (3) VUTS (4) WXZY 38. Select the related word from the given alternatives. SAFE : SECURE : : PROTECT : ? (1) guard (2) lock (3) sure (4) conserve 39. Select the related letters from the given alternatives. MASTER : OCUVGT : : LABOUR : ? (1) NCDQWT (2) NDERWT (3) NBCRWT (4) NEDRWT (NICL (GIC) Administrative Officer Exam, 08.09.2013)

40. Influenza : Virus :: Typhoid:? (1) Bacillus (2) Parasite (3) Protozoa (4) Bacteria 41. Two items or words bear a particular relation with each other. Third item bears the same relation (which first and the second bear) with one of the answer choices. The candidates are to pick up that word or item. Degree Relationship Warm : Hot : : (1) Glue : Paste (2) Bright: Genius (3) Climate : Weather (4) Leaders : People (NICL (GIC) Administrative Officer Exam, 15.12.2013)

BPRE–40

1. (2)

RBI GRADE–B/ NABARD GRADE–A OFFICER EXAMS 1. (2)

2. (3)

3. (5)

INSURANCE EXAMS 1. (3)

2. (3)

3. (1)

4. (4)

5. (2)

6. (3)

7. (4)

8. (2)

9. (1)

10. (2)

11. (3)

12. (2)

13. (1)

14. (3)

15. (3)

16. (4)

17. (3)

18. (2)

19. (3)

20. (3)

21. (4)

22. (2)

23. (1)

24. (2)

25. (3)

26. (2)

27. (1)

28. (3)

29. (3)

30. (4)

31. (3)

32. (2)

33. (3)

34. (1)

35. (1)

36. (2)

37. (1)

38. (1)

39. (1)

40. (4)

41. (2)

EXPLANATIONS

NATIONALISED BANKS & IBPS PO/MT/SO EXAMS (1-3): –1 –1 –1 T R A V E L

U D K U S B +1 +1 +1

ANALOGY 5. (1) –1 –1 –1 C O R N E R

M O T L E Y M D Q D P S +1 +1 +1

G R O U P S

1. (4)

S U R V E Y

+7

T O R H S P +1 +1 +1

6. (1)

–1 –1 –1

T U D X T V S +1 +1 +1

E

L

+7

The code has been generated on the following pattern :

P

O

R

A

L

+1 D

S

M

B

Code of Vowel = Opposite Letter Therefore,

S

P

H O S T E L

O L Z A V S +7

Therefore, +7

2. (1)

C

G R O U P S

O

N

S

I

D

–1

–1 –1 –1

R T O R H S P +1 +1 +1

M

N

B

S

+7

F

E

J

9. (3)

I M P O S E

L E A G U E

N H E I X I +2 +3 +4 +2 +3 +4

H N O P R F –1 +1 –1 +1 –1 +1

–1 –1 –1

T H X C L P +2 +3

U D K U S B +1 +1 +1

+4 +2 +3 +4

A R D E N T

Z S C F M U –1 +1 –1

Therefore,

+1

D A M A G E

–1 –1 –1 C O R N E R

+7

R

7. (3)

R E T A I L

T R A V E L

E

+1

3. (5) When it is hot, fan circulates air to keep us cool. Similarly, we eat food to satiate our hunger. (4-5) :

F D Q C J I

–1

+2 +3 M D Q D P S +1 +1 +1

+1

+4 +2

+3 +4

P O M A D E

–1 –1 –1

Therefore, H O R D E S

8. (4)

4. (4)

S U R V E Y

+7

Consonant + 7 = Code

M

–1 O

T L A S V F +7

–1 –1 –1

W L T Z K V +7

–1 +1 –1

+7

U D X T V S +1 +1 +1

G P Q E D T

+1 +7

–1 +1

BPRE–41

ANALOGY 10. (2)

R I G H T

RBI GRADE–B/ NABARD GRADE–A OFFICER EXAMS

U G J K W +3 –2 +3 +3 +3

1. (2) Pen is used to write something. Similarly, stitching is done by needle.

The code has been generated on the following pattern : Consonant + 3 ⇒ Code

P R O J E C T

The middle letter is deleted and the remaining letters are arranged according to the English alphabetical series.

Vowel –2 ⇒ Code

H O U S E

(2 –3) :

K M S V C +3 –2 –2 +3 –2

C E O P R T P L A N E ⇒E L NP W I N ⇒NW

2. (3) O R G A N I S E D A

D E G

I

O R S

3. (5) D I S T A N C E

S M G Q W +3 –2 –2 +3 +3

P O I N T

There is no middle letter.

INSURANCE EXAMS 1. (3) 11 × 13 = 143; 143 + 2 = 145 Similarly, 14 × 16 = 224; 224 + 2 = 226

SBI PO EXAMS

2. (3) 36 ⇒ 3 × 6 = 18

1. (2)

F

O

R

+2

+1 S J

P O

U

R N +2

P

K

N

E

+1

V F

G

+1 V

T U

M

8. (2) Physics, Chemistry and Botany are various branches of science. Similarly, Oak, Pine and Eucalyptus are different types of tree. 9. (1) Mosquito and Flies are insects. Similarly, Coffee and Tea are beverages.

Similarly, when a policy is ceased to be in operation it is said that policy has been lapsed. 11. (3) If denotes condition. Similarly, but denotes contradiction. 12. (2) Clock shows time. Clock is used to know the time. Similarly, Vehicle is used for journey. 13. (1) Wheat is the raw material of bread. Bread is made up of wheat. Similarly, brick is made up of clay. 14. (3) Drummer is an integral part of an orchestra. Similarly, Minister is an integral part of Cabinet. 15. (3) Given set

18 is completely divisible by 3.

13 × 7 = 91;

Similarly,

7 × 11 = 77;

145 ⇒ 1 × 4 × 5 = 20

11 × 13 = 143

20 is completely divisible by 5.

Similarly, 119 = 17 × 7;

O

A

V

15 =3 3. (1) 12 + 3 = 15; 5

L

78 + 3 = 81;

B

81 =3 27

O 4. (4)

Therefore,

9 × 11 = 99; 11 × 17 = 187 16. (4) Given set

Similarly,

+1

T

7. (4) Clouds are formed by evaporation of water and clouds cause rain. Similarly, accident causes injury and in turn, injury is painful.

10. (2) When the session ends it is said that session is concluded.

Thus,

Therefore,

6. (3) Nose and mouth are parts of face. Similarly, we find forest and snow on mountains.

108 = 18 6

8 + 2 + 6 = 16 5 + 7 + 4 = 16 9 + 5 + 2 = 16 Similarly, 6 + 8 + 2 = 16 1 + 9 + 6 = 16

P

R

O

+2

+1 P

F

S

Q

I

L

E

+1

H F

M

J

320 = 40 8 5. (2) 8 × 6 = 48 Similarly, 14 × 12 = 168

BPRE–42

9 + 3 + 4 = 16 17. (3) Given set 112 + 24 = 136 136 + 26 = 162

ANALOGY Similarly, 36 + 16 = 52 52 + 18 = 70 18. (2) Given set 48 + 36 = 84 84 + 44 = 128 Similarly, 36 + 34 = 70 70 + 42 = 112 19. (3) Given set

119 = 17 × 7; G +2 I +2 K +2 M +2 O +2 Q +2 S +2 U +2 W +2 +2 +2 +2 Y A C

30. (4) Given set 8 + 2 + 6 = 16 5 + 7 + 4 = 16

9 + 3 + 4 = 16 112 + 24 = 136

913 – 645 = 268

136 + 26 = 162

117 × 2 + 34 = 234 + 34 = 268

Similarly,

24. (2) When the session ends it is said that session is concluded. Similarly, when a policy is ceased to be in operation it is said that policy has been lapsed. 25. (3) If denotes condition. Similarly, but denotes contradiction. 26. (2) Clock shows time. Clock is used to know the time. Similarly, Vehicle is used for journey.

37. (1) A B C D

M S Y E

+2 +2 +2 +2 +2

I O U A G

+2 +2 +2 +2 +2

K Q W C I

W X Y Z

Pairs of opposite Letters Therefore,

36 + 16 = 52 52 + 18 = 70

E F G H

32. (2) Given set

S T U V

48 + 36 = 84 84 + 44 = 128 Similarly, 36 + 34 = 70

38. (1) Safe means protected from danger and harm, secure. Protect means to guard, to keep safe from harm, injury. 39. (1)

70 + 42 = 112 33. (3) Given set 439 – 208 = 231; 945 – 439 = 506 231 × 2 + 44 = 462 + 44 = 506

M A S T E R

Similarly, 645 – 528 = 117;

+2 +2 +2 +2

913 – 645 = 268 117 × 2 + 34 = 234 + 34 = 268 34. (1)

B A D C

F H E G +3 +4 +5

Similarly,

R Q T S +3

29. (3) Given set 13 × 7 = 91; 7 × 11 = 77; 11 × 13 = 143

+4 +4 +5

BPRE–43

Similarly, L A B O UR

+4

N P M O

O C U V G T +2 +2

27. (1) Wheat is the raw material of bread. Bread is made up of wheat. Similarly, brick is made up of clay. 28. (3) Drummer is an integral part of an orchestra. Similarly, Minister is an integral part of Cabinet.

G

31. (3) Given set

645 – 528 = 117;

erages

E

36. (2) The work of physician is treatment. Similarly, the work of Judge is to deliver judgement.

Similarly,

231 × 2 + 44 = 462 + 44 = 506

23. (1) Mosquito and Flies are insects. Similarly, Coffee and Tea are bev-

C

9 + 5 + 2 = 16

1 + 9 + 6 = 16

22. (2) Physics, Chemistry and Botany are various branches of science. Similarly, Oak, Pine and Eucalyptus are different types of tree.

+2

11 × 17 = 187

6 + 8 + 2 = 16

21. (4) Clouds are formed by evaporation of water and clouds cause rain. Similarly, accident causes injury and in turn, injury is painful.

+2

A

945 – 439 = 506

20. (3) Nose and mouth are parts of face. Similarly, we find forest and snow on mountains.

+2

9 × 11 = 99;

439 – 208 = 231;

Similarly,

35. (1)

Similarly,

N C D Q W T +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2

40. (4) The causative agent of influenza is virus. Similarly, the causative agent of typhoid is bacteria. 41. (2) Second is more intense form ❐❐❐ of the first.

ANALOGY

MODEL EXERCISES 1. ‘Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘above board’ is related to (1) Integrity (2) Honesty (3) Guide (4) Competition (5) None of these 2. 5 : 7 : : ? : 28 (1) 20 (2) 14 (3) 56 (4) 26 (5) None of these Directions (3-7) : Fill in the blanks in these questions from among the alternatives (1) to (4) 3. A D G D I N I P ... (1) V (2) W (3) X (4) Y (5) None of these 4. B E I N T ... (1) A (2) S (3) U (4) V (5) None of these 5. Z W S P L I E ... (1) D (2) F (3) K (4) B (5) None of these 6. ABA : ECE : : ...... : ...... (1) LML : NON (2) IDI : OFO (3) PQP : STS (4) CDC : GEG (5) None of these 7. CG : EI : : FJ : ... (1) LM (2) IJ (3) GK (4) JK (5) None of these Directions (8-9) : From the sets of numbers in the four alternatives given below, which is the most similar to the given set. 8. Given Set : (6, 15, 28) (1) (50, 59, 71) (2) (46, 56, 66) (3) (60, 69, 72) (4) (60, 69, 82) (5) None of these 9. Given Set : (81, 77, 69) (1) (56, 52, 44) (2) (64, 61, 53) (3) (92, 88, 79) (4) (75, 71, 60) (5) None of these Directions (10-14) : There is a blank space in each of these questions in which only one of the four alternatives given under each question satisfies the same relationship as is

found between the two terms on the other side of the sign : :. Find the correct alternative to fill in the blank space. 10. Shoe : Leather : : (1) Bus : Conductor (2) Train : Wagon (3) Highway : Asphalt (4) Medicine : Doctor (5) None of these 11. Condone : Offence : : (1) Overlook : Aberration (2) Error : Omission (3) Mitigate : Penitence (4) Conviction : Criminal (5) None of these 12. Dinosaur : Dragon : : (1) Evolution : Revelation (2) Gorilla : Soldier (3) Snow : Ice (4) Primeval : Medieval (5) None of these 13. Deterioration : : Rust : : (1) Recession : Inefficiency (2) Depression : Unemployment (3) Promulgation : Legislation (4) Iron : Water (5) None of these 14. Telephone : Ring :: (1) Door : Knock (2) Gate : Open (3) Door : Wood (4) Lock : Key (5) None of these Directions (15-16) : Find the set which is most similar to the given set. 15. Given set : (6, 15, 28) (1) (46, 56, 66) (2) (50, 59, 71) (3) (60, 69, 72) (4) (60, 69, 82) (5) None of these 16. Given set: (81, 77, 69) (1) (64, 61, 53) (2) (56, 52, 44) (3) (92, 88, 79) (4) (75,71, 60) (5) None of these 17. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one does not belongs to that group ? (1) – (2) + (3) % (4) = (5) None of these Directions (18-19) : Answer the question independent of each other. 18. Off-hand is related to PERFUNCTORY in the same away as Above Board is related to

BPRE–44

(1) guide (2) honesty (3) integrity (4) competition (5) None of these 19. Which one is different from the remaining three? (1) GIJK (2) DFGH (3) CEFG (4) ABCD (5) None of these 20. Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group? (1) 71 (2) 73 (3) 77 (4) 67 (5) None of these 21. Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out. (1) UMRSME (2) EIWNTR (3) PIGRSN (4) LCUOD (5) None of these Directions (22-25) : Each of these questions consists of a pair of words. Establish the relationship among the given pair and identify the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship from amongest the alternatives. 22. Kick : Football (1) Mop : Sweep (2) Dust : Rage (3) Wash : Dishes (4) Throw : Ring (5) None of these 23. Rectangle : Pentagon (1) Triangle : Rectangle (2) Diagonal : Perimeter (3) Side : Angle (4) Circle : Square (5) None of these 24. Inherit : Acquire (1) Instinct : Habbit (2) Learn : Discover (3) Loss : Gain (4) Hierarchial : Succession (5) None of these 25. Oak : Coniferous (1) Fish : sea (2) Animal : Carnivore (3) Tree : Grove (4) Chimpanzee : Ape (5) None of these Directions (26–29) : Each of these questions consists of a pair of words bearing a certain relationship. From amongst the given alternatives, pick up the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship.

ANALOGY 26. Presumption : Certainty (1) Falsehood : Truth (2) Hearsay : Authenticity (3) Theorem: Proof (4) Hunch: Guess (5) None of these 27. Coal : Thermal (1) Power : Energy (2) Bulb : Light (3) Air : Atmosphere (4) Water : Hydel (5) None of these 28. Court: Justice (1) Police : Crime (2) Teacher : Study (3) Doctor : Sickness (4) Auditor : Accuracy (5) None of these 29. Relaxation : Work (1) Play : Cheat (2) Lunch : Dinner (3) Smile : Laugh (4) Fresh : Stale (5) None of these 30. Select the related letters from the given alternatives. ABCD : WXYZ : : EFGH : ? (1) STUV (2) ZYXW (3) VUTS (4) WXZY 31. Select the related word from the given alternatives. SAFE : SECURE : : PROTECT :? (1) guard (2) lock (3) sure (4) conserve 32. Select the related letters from the given alternatives. MASTER : OCUVGT : : LABOUR : ? (1) NCDQWT (2) NDERWT (3) NBCRWT (4) NEDRWT 33. Influenza : Virus :: Typhoid:? (1) Bacillus (2) Parasite (3) Protozoa (4) Bacteria 34. Two items or words bear a particular relation with each other. Third item bears the same relation (which first and the second bear) with one of the answer choices. The candidates are to pick up that word or item. Degree Relationship Warm : Hot : : (1) Glue : Paste (2) Bright: Genius (3) Climate : Weather (4) Leaders : People

35. Find out the number at the place of question mark 6:5::8:? (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 10 36. Select the realated number from the given alternatives : M×N : 13×14 : F×R : ? (1) 14×15 (2) 5×17 (3) 6×18 (4) 7×19 37. Select the related number from the given alternatives. 16 : 56 :: 32 : ? (1) 96 (2) 112 (3) 120 (4) 128 38. In a certain code language, INVERSE is written as ZRMKIWV. How will MAGICAL be written in that code language? (1) JDPNODF (2) LFRPQFH (3) KEPNOEG (4) LFQOPFH (5) KEQOPEG 39. In a certain code language PURSUE is written as NXPQXH and FIESTA is written as DLHQRD. How will SCREAM be written in that code language ? (1) QAPCYK (2) QAPBXJ (3) PZOBXJ (4) QAPHDK (5) VFUCYP 40. In a certain code language, GOLDEN is written as JLOGVQ and GLOBES is written as JOLEVV. How will SEASON be written in that code language ? (1) VVZVLQ (2) VHDVRQ (3) WIEVSR (4) VEZVRK (5) VZVVQL

SHORT ANSWERS 1.(4)

2.(4)

3.(2)

5.(2)

6.(4)

7.(5)

8.(4)

9.(1)

10.(2)

11.(1)

12.(3)

13.(2)

14.(1)

15.(4)

16.(2)

17.(3)

18.(2)

19.(4)

20.(3)

21.(4)

22.(4)

23.(1)

24.(1)

25.(1)

26.(2)

27.(4)

28.(2)

29.(4)

30.(1)

31.(1)

32.(1)

33.(4)

34.(2)

35.(3)

36.(3)

37.(2)

38.(5)

39.(4)

40.(1)

BPRE–45

4.(1)

EXPLANATIONS 1. (4) Above board is related to competition. 2. (4) 5 : 7 : : x : 28 x = 26 –2

–2

+3 +3 3. (2) A ¾ ¾ ¾® D ¾ ¾ ¾® G +5 +5 D ¾¾ ¾® I ¾ ¾ ¾® N +7 +7 I ¾¾ ¾® P ¾ ¾ ¾® W

4. (1) The sequence is following the pattern like + 3, + 4, + 5, + 6, + 7. 5. (2) The sequence is moving backword in alphabetical order with a difference – 3, – 4, – 5, – 6, ....... and so on. 6. (4) In ABA, middle letter B is + 1 of A in alphabetical order whereas in ECE, middle letter C is –1 of letter E in alphabetical order. 7. (5) CG : EI : : FJ : HL +2 +2

+2 +2

8. (4) 6 + 9 = I5, I5 + 13 = 28 60 + 9 = 69, 69 + 13 = 82 9. (1) 81–4 = 77,77–8 = 69 56–4 = 52,52–8 = 44 10. (2) Shoe is made by leather and Train is made by wagon. 11. (1) Condone and offence have a contradictory relationship as an offence cannot be condoned. The same relationship is exhibited by relationship Overlook : Aberration. 12. (3) Dinosaur and Dragon fall in the same category as Snow and Ice. 13. (2) Deterioration is caused by rusting as depression is caused by unemployment. 14. (1) Ring is related with telephone and knock is related with door. 15. (4) The difference between first and second numbers is 9 and that between second and third numbers is 13. 16. (2) The difference between first and second numbers is 4 and that between second and third number is 8. 17. (3) – , + and = are mathematical operators while % is not. 18. (2) According to question Board is related to honesty 19. (4) In others, there is a gap of one letter between the first and the second letters of the group.

ANALOGY 20. (3) 77 does not belong to that group because others are prime number while 77 is not a prime number. 21. (4) LCUOD is odd one because other letters when rearranged provide name of seasons like summer, winter and spring. 22. (4) Kick is related to football same as throw is related to Ring 23. (1) Rectangle is a four sided figure while pentagon is a five sided figure, ie, one side more. Similarly, triangle has one more side than rectangle. 24. (1) Inherit is related to Acquire same as Instinct is related to Habbit 25. (1) Oak is related to coniferous same as Fish is related to sea. 26. (2) Presumption (Noun) means “the action of supposing something to be true”. Certainty (Noun) means “a thing that is certain.” Thus, Presumption is a lower degree word than that of Certainty. Hearsay (Noun) means “things one has heard from another person, which may or may not be true.” Authenticity (Noun) means “the quality of being authentic”. 27. (4) Coal is used to generate thermal power. Similarly, water is used to produce hydel power. 28. (2) Court is a place where trials or other law cases are held and justice is delivered. Similarly, teacher facilitates study. 29. (4) Relaxation is the antonym of work. Similarly, fresh is the antonyms of stale. 30. (1) A B C D

W X Y Z

32. (1)

39. (4)

M A S T E R

O C U V G T +2 +2

P U R S U E

N X P Q X H –2 +3 –2 –2 +3 +3

F I E S T A

D L H Q R D –2 +3 +3 –2 –2 +3

+2 +2 +2 +2

Similarly, L A B O UR

N C D Q W T +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2

33. (4) The causative agent of influenza is virus. Similarly, the causative agent of typhoid is bacteria. 34. (2) Second is more intense form of the first. 35. (3)

6 3;3+2=5 2

The code has been generated on the following pattern : Consonant – 2 = Code Vowel + 3 Code Therefore,

S C R E A M

Q A P H D K –2 –2 –2 +3 +3 –2

8 4;4+2=6 2 36. (3) M × N

13 × 14

Position number in the English alphabetal series. Therefore, F × R 6 × 18

40. (1)

J L O G V Q

G O L D E N +3

+3 16 37. (2) 16 × 3 + 2 ⇒ 48 + 8 = 56 Similarly,

+3 J O L E V V

G L O B E S +3

32 2 ⇒ 96 + 16 = 112 38. (5) 32 × 3 +

Pairs of opposite Letters Therefore, E F G H

S T U V

I

N

V

+4 Z

+3

E

M

R

S

E

+4

K

I

W

V

Therefore, 31. (1) Safe means protected from danger and harm, secure. Protect means to guard, to keep safe from harm, injury.

M

A

I

G

C

+6 E

The code has been generated on the following pattern : Consonant + 3 = Code Vowel = Opposite letter Therefore, V V Z V L Q

S E A S O N +3

+4 K

+3 +3

+6 R

+3

Q

O

A

L

+4 P

BPRE–46

+3 +3

E

G

❑❑❑

CLASSIFICATION

4

CLASSIFICATION

QUESTIONS FROM 1999 TO 2010 ARE AVAILABLE ONLINE NATIONALISED BANKS & IBPS PO/MT/SO EXAMS Directions (1– 2) : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (Bank Of Baroda PO Exam, 13.03.2011)

1. (1) Asia (2) Antarctica (3) Africa (4) Alaska (5) Australia 2. (1) Trophy (2) Medal (3) Certificate (4) Gift (5) Prize Directions (3–5) : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based upon the order in which these appear in the English alphabetical series and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (Bank Of Baroda PO Exam. 13.03.2011)

3. (1) MPQO (2) DGHF (3) RUTV (4) VYZX (5) JMNL 4. (1) AMCL (2) WIVK (3) GVIU (4) XDZC (5) HRJQ 5. (1) AZMN (2) BYEF (3) CXUV (4) FUNO (5) IRDV Directions (6–7) : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (Bank Of Baroda PO Exam. 13.03.2011)

6. (1) BAH (2) EDG (3) CBF (4) HGA (5) DFE 7. (1) ED (2) DC (3) BA (4) EG (5) CB Directions (8-12) : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (Q.11–13 are based upon the English alphabetical series) (Allahabad Bank PO Exam. 17.04.2011)

8. (1) (3) (5) 9. (1) (3) (5)

Succeed Triumph Win Fair Indifferent Just

(2) Victory’ (4) Compete (2) Impartial (4) Unbiased

10. (1) KP (2) BY (3) DW (4) HU (5) GT 11. (1) JLNK (2) TVXU (3) ACEB (4) PRTQ (5) GJKH 12. (1) GIJF (2) OQRN (3) KMNL (4) UWXT (5) CEFB Directions (13–15) : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (based on the English alphabetical series) and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not helong to that group? (Indian Overseas Bank PO Exam. 22.05.2011)

13. (1) ABX (2) ABCDV (3) ABCDEFT (4) ABCW (5) ABCDES 14. (1) DNFL (2) KRIT (3) HUJS (4) BQDO (5) JWLU 15. (1) CXIG (2) AZLJ (3) DWVT (4) BZQO (5) GUKI Directions (16–18) : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ? (Indian Overseas Bank PO Exam. 22.05.2011)

16. (1) Eye (2) Kidney (3) Heart (4) Lungs (5) Ear 17. (1) Unique (2) Exclusive (3) Rare (4) Distinct (5) Extinct 18. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group ? (1) Think (2) Reflect (3) Speak (4) Consider (5) Ponder (IBPS RRBs Office Assistant CWE Exam. 09.09.2012)

Directions (19-21) : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (based on the position of alphabets in the English alphabetical series) and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (IDBI Bank Officer Exam.16.09.2012)

BPRE–47

19. (1) KLNI (2) UVXS (3) CDFA (4) FGID (5) QROT 20. (1) ABCDEFGR(2) ABX (3) ABCDEU (4) ABCW (5) ABCDEFT 21. (1) DEI (2) FGM (3) BCE (4) IJR (5) EFK 22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (1) RVXU (2) TXZW (3) KOPN (4) DHJG (5) LPRO (Bank of Maharashtra PO Exam, 26.10.2016)

23. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (based on their positions of alphabets in the English alphabetical series) and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (1) BFD (2) EIH (3) KOM (4) TXV (5) LPN (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Pre.) Exam, 14.11.2016 (Shift-II))

24. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (based on their positions of alphabet in the English alphabetical series) and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (1) RQT (2) NPL (3) FHD (4) KMI (5) WYU (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Pre.) Exam, 14.11.2016 (Shift-III))

25. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as per the English alphabetical order and so they form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (1) HFBD (2) PNJL (3) XWTV (4) OMIK (5) YWSU (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Prelim Exam) 14.10.2018)

CLASSIFICATION 26. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order and so they form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (1) RVXU (2) TXZW (3) KOPN (4) DHJG (5) LPRO (Canara Bank PO Exam, 23.12.2018)

27. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the English alphabetical order and thus they form a group. Identify the one which does not belong to the group. (1) ABZY (2) JKQP (3) LMPN (4) DEWV (5) GHTS (Indian Bank Specialist Officer SO Exam, 08.03.2020)

SBI PO EXAMS Directions (1-3) : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (SBI Associate Banks PO Exam. 07.08.2011)

1. (1) Break (2) Change (3) Split (4) Divide (5) Separate 2. (1) Train (2) Instruct (3) Educate (4) Advocate (5) Coach 3. (1) Extend (2) Higher (3) Upward (4) Rise (5) Ascend 4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ? (1) JN (2) CG (3) WZ (4) LP (5) PT (SBI Specialist Officer (Law Officer : MMGS Scale-II) Online Exam, 19.04.2014)

5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ? (1) PTSQ (2) UYXV (3) INMJ (4) KONL (5) DHGE (SBI Specialist Officer (Law Officer : MMGS Scale-II) Online Exam, 19.04.2014)

Directions (6–7) : Choose the odd one out from the given set of words or letters (SBI Assistant Manager (System) Exam, 17.01.2016)

6. (1) SXV (3) GLJ (5) RWU

(2) AFD (4) ORT

7. (1) ONRQ (2) HIKL (3) UTXW (4) BAED (5) KJNM 8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the English alphabetical series, and hence they form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group? (1) QSZ (2) IGM (3) DBH (4) HFL (5) TRX SBI PO (Prelim Exam), 08.07.2018 (Shift-II))

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certa in way based on their positions in the English alphabetical order and hence they form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group? (1) JHN (2) PRZ (3) IGM (4) ECI (5) USY SBI PO (Prelim Exam), 14.06.2019

RBI GRADE–B/ NABARD GRADE–A OFFICER EXAMS Directions (1–2) : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

INSURANCE EXAMS Directions (1-5) : Choose the odd numerical pair in each of the following questions : (Oriental Insurance Company Exam.08.04.2012)

1. (1) 13 – 22 (2) 24 – 76 (3) 16 – 52 (4) 17 – 62 2. (1) 6 – 16 (2) 18 – 48 (3) 21 – 56 (4) 27 – 76 3. (1) 39 – 77 (2) 51 – 119 (3) 33 – 88 (4) 52 – 91 4. (1) 26 – 4 (2) 226 – 14 (3) 274 – 16 (4) 82 – 8 5. (1) 2 – 4 (2) 4 – 8 (3) 6 – 18 (4) 8 – 32 Directions (6–9) : In each of these questions some numbers are given in rows (1), (2), (3) and (4). In three rows the numbers are ralated to each other, while the numbers in one row hold no relation. Identify that row. (United India Insurance AAO Exam.03.06.2012)

1 , 3, 4 2 (2) 6, 15, 6, 8

6. (1) 3, 7

(3) 1

(4) 2, 5, 2, 2

(RBI Grade-B Officer’s Exam. 18.12.2011)

1.

2.

3.

(1) Compare (2) Conflict (3) Distinguish (4) Contrast (5) Differentiate (1) Recollect (2) Retrieve (3) Regain (4) Recall (5) Realise Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (based on the English alphabetical series) and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (1) JOLN (2) TYWV (3) CHFE (4) NSQP (4) GLJI (Nabard Officer Grade ‘A’ Online Exam. 01.03.2015)

4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group? (1) KJIL (2) MLKN (3) DBCE (4) YXWZ (5) TSRU (RBI Assistant Manager Online Exam 25.03.2017)

BPRE–48

3 1 1 ,3 ,1 ,2 2 2 4

7. (1) 1

1 1 3 , , ,1 2 2 4

(2) 3, 1, 1 (3)

2 3

1 ,2 2

3 1 3 1 , , , 4 4 8 2

1 3 1 ,1 , 8 4 2 8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ? (1) SUXV (2) MORP (3) DFIG (4) CEGF (5) JLOM (4) 1,

(United India Insurance AAO Exam.03.06.2012)

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

CLASSIFICATION (1) KIF (3) HFL (5) MKH

(2) QOL (4) WUR

(United India Insurance AAO Exam.03.06.2012)

Directions (10–11) : In each of these questions some numbers are given in rows (1), (2), (3) and (4). In three rows the numbers are ralated to each other, while the numbers in one row hold no relation. Identify that row. (United India Insurance AAO Exam.03.06.2012)

1 , 3, 4 2 (2) 6, 15, 6, 8

10. (1) 3, 7

(3) 1

1 1 3 ,3 ,1 ,2 2 2 4

(4) 2, 5, 2, 2

11. (1) 1

1 1 3 , , ,1 2 2 4

(2) 3, 1, 1

(3)

2 3

1 ,2 2

3 1 3 1 , , , 4 4 8 2

1 3 1 ,1 , 8 4 2 Find the odd letters from the given alternatives. (1) DWHS (2) BYDW (3) CWFS (4) EVJQ (4) 1,

12.

(NICL (GIC) AO (Finance) Exam, 08.09.2013)

13.

Find the odd word from the given alternatives. (1) Talking (2) Walking (3) Sleeping (4) Running (NICL (GIC) AO (Finance) Exam, 08.09.2013)

14.

Find the odd word from the given alternatives. (1) Ladder (2) Staircase (3) Bridge (4) Escalator (NICL (GIC) AO (Finance) Exam, 08.09.2013)

15. Choose the pair in which the words are differently related from the rest. (1) Beans : Pulses (2) Rice : Cereals (3) Tea : Beverages (4) Legumes : Nodules (NICL (GIC) AO (Finance) Exam, 15.12.2013)

16. Choose the word which is different from the rest. (1) Wool (2) Honey (3) Silk (4) Wax (NICL (GIC) AO (Finance) Exam, 15.12.2013)

17. Choose the word which is different from the rest. (1) Acharya Kripalani (2) C.V. Raman (3) Rajagopalachari (4) Radhakrishnan (NICL (GIC) AO (Finance) Exam, 15.12.2013)

18. Choose the word which is different from the rest. (1) Chicken (2) Snake (3) Swan (4) Crocodile (NICL (GIC) AO (Finance) Exam, 15.12.2013)

19. Find that pair of numbers which is not related to the other three pairs of numbers due to lack of common property. (1) 47,59 (2) 42,29 (3) 57,69 (4) 73,61 (NICL (GIC) Administrative Officer Exam, 15.12.2013)

20. In each of the following questions find the odd word from the given responses. (1) Mouth Organ (2) Electric Guitar (3) Keyboard (4) Sonata (NICL (GIC) Administrative Officer Exam, 15.12.2013)

21. Find the odd one out. (1) Cathedral (2) Mosque (3) Monastery (4) Temple (NICL (GIC) Administrative Officer Exam, 15.12.2013)

22. Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one (1) PLPAE (2) RAORCT (3) AUVAG (4) NOONI (NICL (GIC) Administrative Officer Exam, 15.12.2013)

23. Find the odd one out (1) Pistol (2) Sword (3) Gun (4) Rifle (NICL (GIC) Administrative Officer Exam, 15.12.2013)

24. Find the odd letters from given alternatives: (1) PQXZ (2) BCQN (3) ABDF (4) MNPR (NICL (GIC) Administrative Officer Exam, 15.12.2013)

BPRE–49

25. In the following question four pairs of words are given out of which words in three pairs are related in the same way. Find the pair which is differently related? (1) Lyric, Ode (2) Sky, Earth (3) Head, Legs (4) Newspaper, Journalist (NICL (GIC) Administrative Officer Exam, 15.12.2013)

26. Four of the following five follow a certain pattern. Which one of the following does not follow the pattern? (1) ECA (2) QOM (3) GEC (4) FBD (5) MKI (LIC AAO Prelim Exam. 04.05.2019)

SHORT ANSWERS

NATIONALISED BANKS & IBPS PO/MT/SO EXAMS 1. (4) 5. (5) 9. (3) 13. (5) 17. (5)

2. (4) 6. (5) 10. (4) 14. (2) 18. (3)

3. (3) 7. (4) 11. (5) 15. (3) 19. (5)

4. (2) 8. (4) 12. (3) 16. (3) 20. (1)

21. (5) 25. (3)

22. (3) 26. (3)

23. (2) 27. (3)

24. (1)

SBI PO EXAMS 1. (2) 5. (3) 9. (2)

2. (4) 6. (4)

3. (1) 7. (2)

4. (3) 8. (1)

RBI GRADE–B/ NABARD GRADE–A OFFICER EXAMS 1. (2)

2. (5)

3. (1)

4. (3)

INSURANCE EXAMS 1. (2) 5. (3) 9. (3) 13. (3)

2. (4) 6. (2) 10. (2) 14. (3)

3. (1) 7. (4) 11. (4) 15. (4)

4. (3) 8. (4) 12. (3) 16. (1)

17. (1) 21. (3) 25. (4)

18. (1) 22. (4) 26. (4)

19. (2) 23. (2)

20. (4) 24. (3)

CLASSIFICATION

EXPLANATIONS

NATIONALISED BANKS & IBPS PO/MT/SO EXAMS 1. (4) Except Alaska, all others ore continents. Alaska is a mountain range. 2. (4) Except Gift, all others are given to winner only. 3. (3) +3

+1

–2

+3

+1

–2

+3

–1

+2

+3

+1

–2

M  → P   → Q   → O D  → G   → H   → F R  → U   → T  → V V  → Y   → Z   → X +3

+1

–2

J  → M   → N   → L +2

4. (2) A

M

C

L –1

–1 W

I

V

9. (3) Indifferent conveys different meaning from the other words. 10. (4) Except HU, all others are pairs of opposite letters. H and S are opposite letters. 11. (5) +2

–4

+1

–4

+2

+1

–2

+2

+1

+2

+1

O  → Q   → R  → N K  → M   → N   → L –4

U  → W   → X   → T –4

C  → E   → F   → B 13. (5) X ⇒ 24, 24 + 2 = 26 V ⇒ 22, 22 + 4 = 26 T ⇒ 20, 20 + 6 = 26 W ⇒ 23, 23 + 3 = 26 S ⇒ 19, 19 + 5 = 24 –2 N

F

U

+2

–1 K

+2 X

D

Z

C

R

H

R

+1

U

J

S

B

Q

20. (1) The sum of the position numbers of the last two letters in each letter group, except in ABCDEFGR, is 26. BX ⇒ 2 + 24 = 26; EU = 5 + 21 = 26; CW = 3 + 23 = 26; FT ⇒ 6 + 20 = 26 But, GR ⇒ 7 + 18 = 25

+1

(5) 4 6 5 D F E –2

7. (4) Except in EG, in all others, the first student is to immediate right of the second student. 8. (4) Compete is different from the other words.

+1

+4

+1

+6

+1

+2

21. (5) D   → E  → I

F  → G  → M B  → C   → E

D

O

+1

+5

E  → F  → K 5 is odd number and other than Even number So, Ans is (5) 22. (3) +

+

+4

+2

+

+

+4

+2

–3

4 1 –2 K   → O   → P  → N –3

L

+4 –2 23. (2) B   → F  → D

+4 –2 → X   → V T 

U

+2 15. (3) Except in DWVT, in all others there is at least one Vowel. 16. (3) Except Heart, all others are found in pair in humans. 17. (5) Except Extinct, all others words convey more or less similar meaning. Extinct (Adjective) means ‘no longer in existence’, ‘no longer active’.

BPRE–50

+

+4 –2 → O   → M K 

–2 W

+8

I  → J  → R

+

+2

J

+5

4 2 –3 → P   → R  → O L  

+1

(4) 8 7 1 H G A

–3

Q  → R   → O   → T

→ J   → G D  → H   –2

6. (5) (1) 2 1 8 (2) 5 4 7 B A H E D G (3) 3 2 6 C B F

+1

–5

T  → X   → Z   → W

+2

5. (5) Except in IRDV, in all others the first two letters are pairs of opposite letters and the last two letters are consecutive letters.

+2

F  → G   → I  → D

4 2 –3 → V   → X  → U R  

Q –1

+1

T

–2 H

J

I

–2

–1 +2

+1

–5

–5

C  → D   → F  → A

L

+2 I

+2

+2

+1

14. (2) D

+2 V

+1

+2

G  → I   → J  → F

+1

+1

U  → V   → X   → S

–3

→ L  → N  → K J  +2 +2 –3 → U T → V → X  +2 +2 –3 → B A → C  → E  +2 +2 –3 → Q P → R → T  +3 +1 –3 → K  → H G → J   12. (3) +2

–5 +1 +2 → L   → N  → I 19. (5) K  

K +2

G

+2

18. (3) Speak is different from the other words. Except ‘Speak’, all other words signify abstract actions.

+4 –2 L  → P  → N +

4 –1 But, E   → I   → H –1

+3

+2

–4

+2

–4

→ Q  → T 24. (1) R   N  → P   → L → H  → D F  +2

–4

→ I K → M  +2

–4

W  → Y  → U

CLASSIFICATION 25. (3) H P O

–2

F

–2

N

–2

M

–4

+2

B

–4

+2

J

–4

+2

I

→ N 4. (3) J 

L

+4 → G C 

K

+4 L  → P

–2 –4 +2 Y W S U But, –1 –3 +2 X W T V 26. (3) R +4 V +2 X –3 U

T D

+4 +4

X H

+4

+2

Z

+2

J

+2

–3 –3

B

+4 P  → T

But, +3 W  → Z –1 –2 +4 → S   → Q 5. (3) P  → T   –1

–2

+4

–1

–2

+4

–1

–2

U  → Y   → X   → V

G

K  → O   → N   → L

–3

Z

+4

W

L P R O But, K +4 O +1 P –2 N 27. (3) A

+4

D

D  → H   → G   → E

But, +5 –1 –3 → N   → M   → J I  +5

–2

+5

–2

+5

–2

+3

+2

→ X  → V 6. (4) S 

Y

A  → F  → D G  → L  → J

Pairs of opposite letters.

O  → R   → T +5

–2

R  → W  → U

J

K

Q

P

–1

+4

–1

O  → N  → R   → Q +1

+2

+1

H  → I   → K   → L –1

7. (2)

D

E

W

V

–1

+4

–1

–1

+4

–1

–2

G +6 M +6 H B +6 L F +6 R X

B  → A   → E   → D

I

D –2 H –2

H

T

S

But,

L

M

O P

T But, Q +2 9. (2) J

N

The opposite letter of L is O.

SBI PO EXAMS 1. (2) ‘Change’ is different from the other words. Except the word Change all other words show fragementation 2. (4) ‘Advocate’ is different from the other words. Except the word Advocate all other words imply some kind of directions, dissemination of knowledge and skill. 3. (1) ‘Extend’ is different from the other words. Except the word Extend all other words indicate altitude.

–1

K  → J  → N   → M

8. (1)

G

+4

U  → T  → X   → W

I E

–2 S –2 –2

+7

G C

–2 –2

U But, +2 P

T C N G 4. (3)

Z

H

S

Conflict (Verb) means “to be very different,” “to be in opposition”. Distinguish (Verb) means “to recognise the difference between people or things”. Contrast (Verb) means “to compare two people or things and show the difference between them”. Differentiate (Verb) means “to see or show that two things are different.” 2. (5) Recollect (Verb) means “to be able to remember something from the past”. Retrieve (Verb) means “to get something back”. Regain (Verb) means “to get something back again after losing it”. Recall (Verb) means “to remember”. Realise (Verb) means “to become aware of or accept something as a fact”. Thus, ‘Realise’ is different from other words. 3. (1) +2 –3 +5 J O L N

+6 +6

N M I Y

+6 +6

+5 +5 +5 +5

+8

S L

–2 –2 –2

W F Q J

–1 –1 –1 –1

V E P I

–1

–1

+3

→ L   → K   → N M  –2 +1 +2 → B   → C   → E D  –1

+3

→ X   → W   → Z Y  Z

RBI GRADE–B/ NABARD GRADE–A OFFICER EXAMS 1. (2) ‘Conflict’ is different from other words. Compare (Verb) means “to examine people or things to see how they are alike and how they are different”, “to judge one thing and measure it against another thing”.

BPRE–51

H

–2

–1 –1 +3 → J   → I   → L K 

–1

R

Y

–1 –1 +3 → S   → R   → U T 

INSURANCE EXAMS 1. (2) 22 – 13 = 9 76 – 24 = 52 52 – 16 = 36 62 – 17 = 45 The difference between the two numbers in all the pairs except 76 – 24, is multiple of 9. 2. (4) 16 – 6 = 10 48 – 18 = 30 56 – 21 = 35 76 – 27 = 49

CLASSIFICATION The difference between the two numbers in all the pairs except 27– 76, is multiple of 5. 3. (1) Except the number pair 39 – 77, in each of all the other number pairs the two numbers are the multiples of a same certain number. 4. (3) 26 = (5)2 + 1 4=5–1 226 = (15)2 + 1 14 = 15 – 1 274 = (17)2 – 15 16 = 17 – 1 82 = (9)2 + 1 8=9–1 5. (3) 2 × 2 = 4 4×2=8 8 × 4 = 32 But, 6 × 3 = 18 3 is an odd number. 6. (2) In all the four options the first and the third numbers from the left are the same. In Option (2) the second and the fourth numbers are whole numbers. 7. (4) Arrange the numbers in ascending order and find out the difference between the two consecutive numbers. This will reveal the pattern of numbers. Option (1)

1 , 2, 3 2 Option (3) 1, 1

1 3 1 3 , , , 4 8 2 4 ⇒ 0.25, 0.375, 0.50, 0.75 Option (4) 1 1 3 , , 1, 1 2 8 4 ⇒ 0.125, 0.75, 1, 1.5 8. (4) +3

+

+

–2

→ U   → X   → V S  2 3 –2  → O   → R  → P M  +2

+3

+2

+2

+

+

−

–2 3 → O    →L Q  +6

–2

→ F  → L H  –2

–3

→ U   → R W  –2 –3 → K   → H M 

10. (2) In all the four options the first and the third numbers from the left are the same. In Option (2) the second and the fourth numbers are whole numbers. 11. (4) Arrange the numbers in ascending order and find out the difference between the two consecutive numbers. This will reveal the pattern of numbers. Option (1)

1 1 3 , , 1, 1 2 2 4 ⇒ 0.50, 0.75, 1, 1.5 Option (2) 1 , 2, 3 2 Option (3) 1, 1

1 3 1 3 , , , 4 8 2 4 ⇒ 0.25, 0.375, 0.50, 0.75 Option (4) 1 1 3 , , 1, 1 2 8 4 ⇒ 0.125, 0.75, 1, 1.5 12. (3) D W Pair of Opposite Letters. H S B Y

1 1 3 , , 1, 1 2 2 4 ⇒ 0.50, 0.75, 1, 1.5 Option (2)

+2

−3

–2

→ I   → F 9. (3) K  

–2

→ F   → I   → G D  –1

→ E   → G   → F C  2 3 –2  → L   → O  → M J 

D

W

E

V

J

Q

The opposite letter of C is X. The opposite letter of F is U. 13. (3) All except sleeping, denote activities. 14. (3) Bridge is different from the other three. Ladder is a structure for climbing up and down. Staircase is a set of stairs and its supporting structure. Escalator is a moving staircase carrying people up or down between floors or different levels. Bridge is a structure of wood, iron, concrete etc. built to provide a way across a river, road, railway etc.

BPRE–52

15. (4) Except in Legumes – Nodules, in all other pairs second denotes the class to which the first belongs. 16. (1) Except wool, all others can be obtained from insects. Wool is obtained from sheep and goat. 17. (1) Except Acharya Kripalani all others are Bharat Ratna Awardees. 18. (1) All except chicken can live in water. 19. (2) Except in the number-pair 4229, in all other pairs, the difference between the two numbers is 12. 59 – 47 = 12; 69 – 57 = 12; 73 – 61 = 12 But, 42 – 29 = 13 20. (4) Sonata is piece of music composed for one instrument or two, one of which is usually the piano. Except sonata, all others are musical instruments or part of a musical instrument. 21. (3) Monastery is a place or building where Buddhist monk lives as a community. All others are places of worship. 22. (4) PLPAE ⇒ APPLE RAORCT ⇒ CARROT AUVAG ⇒ GUAVA NOONI ⇒ ONION Onion is a round white or reddish vegetable with many layers inside each other. 23. (2) Sword is different from the other three. Sword is a weapon with a long thin metal blade and a protected handle. Pistol is a type of small gun. 24. (3) Except ABDF, in all other letter groups all the four letters are consonants. 25. (4) In all others the two terms denote the two extremies. An ode is a poem addressed to a person or thing or celebrating some special event. 26. (4)

E Q G M

–2 –2 –2 –2

C O E K

–2 –2 –2 –2

A M C I

But,

F

–4

B

+2

D ❐❐❐

CLASSIFICATION

MODEL EXERCISES 1. Three of the following are alike in a certain way and form a group. Find the odd one out. (1) Bird (2) Insect (3) Aeroplane (4) Kite (5) None of these Directions (2-5) : In each of these questions, four terms are given. While three of them are identical in some way, one is different from the rest. Select the odd one as your answer. 2. (1) T (2) Z (3) Q (4) H (5) None of these 3. (1) Hat (2) Bag (3) Purse (4) Basket (5) None of these 4. (1) UNICEF (2) IMF (3) WHO (4) SAARC (5) None of these 5. (1) 5 8 7 8 (2) 6 4 8 2 (3) 5 7 8 8 (4) 9 7 4 8 (5) None of these Directions (6-8) : In each of these questions there are four words with the letters jumbled up. Three of them are alike. Find the odd one out.

❖

6. (1) CIRE (3) LOUDSC

(2) NAIR (4) RNUTHDE

(5) None of these 7. (1) FIWE

(2) FLAMEE

(3) BUSHDNA (4) OMAWN (5) None of these 8. Find the odd one out. (1) Grams

(2) Litres

(3) Tonnes

(4) Qminatals

(5) None of these 9. Which of the following cannot be a number of the series 1, 8, 27, 64, 125, ...? (1) 216

(2) 729

(3) 512

(4) 1000

(5) None of these

SHORT ANSWERS 1.(2)

2.(3)

3.(1)

4.(4)

5.(2)

6.(1)

7.(3)

8.(2)

9.(1)

EXPLANATIONS 1. (2) Except insects, all other fly in the sky. 2. (3) Q occupies the odd position (17) in the alphabetical order whereas other occupy the even position. 3. (1) All other objects are used for carrying purpose. 4. (4) Except SAARC, all other are agency of UNO. 5. (2) The sum of digits of all other numbers is 28. 6. (1) If all the letters are arranged then words formed are CRIE, RAIN, CLOUDS, THUNDER. Except CIRE all other belong to the same category. 7. (3) Rearranged words are Wife, Female, Husband woman. Hence, the Husband does not belong to this category. 8. (2) Litre is the unit of measurement for liquid 9. (1) Given numbers are cubes of natural numbers. ❑❑❑

SALIENT FEATURES ❖ A sincere attempt to use reader friendly lucid language to make understanding easy. ❖ Teach yourself approach adopted in shaping this book. ❖ A pious effort to put simple solutions and much needed short-cut methods. ❖ A long list of chapters and a wide variety of questions. ❖ Special emphasis on concept-building. ❖ Detailed discussion on basic concepts of each topic. ❖ Fundamental concepts/formulae illustrated through upgraded questions. ❖ Problem solving techniques through MCQs. ❖ Large number of Multiple Choice Questions (more then 7000) with detailed explanations. ❖ Exercises with a plenty of questions asked in various competitive exams with proper highlight of name of exam and year. ❖ Illustration of more than one method solution to many questions. ❖ Distribution of each exercise in differently oriented categories/ sections. ❖ Every attempt made to encourage to know quantitative aptitude, Price avoid rote learning. 635 ❖ Model Practice Sets for various exams. ❖ Select questions asked in previous exams concerned in each set. Enriched concepts on Algebra, Sequence and Series (Progression), Permutation and Combination, Quadratic Equations and Inequations, Probability, Geometry, Trigonometry, Mensuration and most importantly Data Sufficiency, Analysis and Interpretation.

BPRE–53

CODING / DECODING

5

CODING/DECODING

QUESTIONS FROM 1999 TO 2010 ARE AVAILABLE ONLINE NATIONALISED BANKS & IBPS PO/MT/SO EXAMS Directions (1-5) : Study the following information to answer the given questions : (Indian Bank PO Exam. 02.01.2011 (Ist sitting)

In a certain code ’8 2 9' means ‘how art thou,’ ‘9 5 8’ means ‘thou art good’ and ‘1 5 8 7 3’ means ‘thy good and thou bad’. 1. What may be the possible code for ‘thy’ ? (1) 1 or 7 (2) 7 (3) 3 (4) 5 (5) 1 or 7 or 3 2. What is the code for ‘thou’ ? (1) 9 (2) 8 (3) 2 (4) 5 (5) None of these 3. What is the code for ‘how’ ? (1) 5 (2) 8 (3) 2 (4) 9 (5) None of these 4. Which of the following may possibly be the code for ‘thou no good’ ? (1) 5 0 8 (2) 7 8 0 (3) 5 0 7 (4) 7 8 0 (5) None of these 5. What is the code for ‘how good thou art’ ? (1) 7 5 8 9 (2) 8 2 9 5 (3) 7 1 8 3 (4) 8 7 9 5 (5) Cannot be determined Directions (6–10) : Study the following information to answer the given questions : (Corporation Bank PO Exam. 16.01.2011)

In a certain code ‘a friend of mine’ is written as ‘4 9 1 6’ ‘mine lots of metal’ is written as ‘ 3 1 0 9’ and ‘a piece of metal’ is written as ‘7 1 6 3’. 6. What is the code for ‘piece’ ? (1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 1 (4) 7 (5) Cannot be determined 7. What does ‘9’ stand for ? (1) of (2) mine (3) friend (4) lots (5) metal

Which of the following may represent ‘a pleasure of mine’ ? (1) 6309 (2) 5216 (3) 9216 (4) 3694 (5) 5041 9. What does ‘0’ stand for ? (1) mine (2) metal (3) of (4) lots (5) a 10. ‘8 7 3’ would mean (1) a metal piece (2) metal for friend (3) piece of advise (4) friend of mine (5) large metal piece Directions (11–14) : Study the following information to answer the given questions : 8.

(Corporation Bank PO Exam. 16.01.2011)

In a certain code, ‘ze lo ka gi’ is a code for ‘must save some money’,‘fe ka so ni’ is a code for ‘he made good money’, ‘ni to da so’ is a code for ‘he must be good’ and ‘we so ze da’ is a code for ‘be good save grace’. 11. Which of the following is the code of ‘must’ ? (1) so (2) da (3) lo (4) ni (5) Cannot be determined 12. What does the code ‘ze’ stand for ? (1) some (2) must (3) be (4) grace (5) save 13. Which of the following is the code of ‘good’ ? (1) so (2) we (3) ze (4) lo (5) fe 14. ‘grace of money’, may be coded as (1) ka da fe (2) we ka so (3) ja da we (4) ka we yo (5) ja ka ze 15. In a certain code ‘PLANT’ is written as ‘$@2★©’ and ‘YIELD’ is written as ‘β64@%’. How is ‘DELAY’ written in that code ?

BPRE–54

(1) β4★2% (2) β4@2% (3) %42@β (4) %4@2β (5) None of these (Punjab & Sind Bank PO Exam. 23.01.2011)

Directions (16-20) : In each of the following questions, a group of letters is to be coded by number/symbol codes as per the codes given below and the conditions that follow. In each question, a group of letters is given followed by groups of number/symbol code numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). The correct combination of codes is your answer. If none of the four combinations is correct, your answer is (5), i.e. ‘None of these’. (Punjab & Sind Bank PO Exam. 23.01.2011) Letter P D A F L H M R K T B E U Code 3 6 # 8 $ 4 2 7 @ 9 5 1 %

Conditions (i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, both are to be coded as ‘0’. (ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded as’©’. (iii) If the first as well as the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as the code for first letter. 16. KEDURT (1) @16%7@ (2) 916%7@ (3) 916%79 (4) @16$79 (5) None of these 17. EDRTMP (1) 167923 (2) 167921 (3) 067920 (4) 067923 (5) None of these 18. FHRAMU (1) 847#28 (2) %47#28 (3) 847#2% (4) ©47#2© (5) None of these 19. ULTPHE (1) %$934% (2) 1$9341 (3) %$9341 (4) 1$934% (5) None of these 20. HKEDLB (1) 5@16$4 (2) 4@16$5 (3) ©@16$4 (4) 0@16$5 (5) None of these

CODING / DECODING Directions (21–28) : Study the following information to answer the given questions : (UCO Bank PO Exam. 30.01.2011)

In a certain code ‘it is rush hour traffic’ is written as ‘sa le do mi ru’ ‘go to school’ is written as ’be no pa’, ‘one hour to go’ is written as ‘mi fi pa be’, ‘rush to one’ is written as ‘fi be sa’ and ‘traffic is fine’ is written as ‘ga ru do’. 21. ‘ru be wa’ would mean— (1) is to way (2) traffic is to (3) way is traffic (4) to traffic way (5) Cannot be determined 22. What is the code for ‘school’ ? (1) do (2) ru (3) be (4) pa (5) None of these 23. What is the code for ‘fine’ ? (1) ga (2) ru (3) pa (4) do (5) None of these 24. Which of the following represents ‘school hour go fine’ ? (1) pa be fi ga (2) no mi ra pa (3) pa no ga mi (4) ga no mi le (5) None of these 25. ‘mi fi le’ would mean — (1) it one to (2) to rush one (3) rush hour it (4) it one hour (5) None is correct 26. What does ‘sa’ stand for? (1) rush (2) traffic (3) it (4) is (5) None of these 27. Which of the following may represent ‘traffic is for one hour’ ? (1) fi ye no mi ru (2) fi le do mi ru (3) fi ye do mi ru (4) fi so do mi ro (5) None of these 28. What does ‘do’ stand for? (1) hour (2) ‘is’ or ‘traffic’ (3) it (4) is (5) None of these Directions (29–33) : Study the following information to answer the given questions: (Bank Of Baroda PO Exam. 13.03.2011)

In a certain code, ‘more money in market’ is written as ‘zo li aa to’; ‘share in market profit’ is written as ‘vo to je li’; ‘making more profit now’ is written as ‘su je zo ka’; ‘now the market gains’ is written as ‘do li yo su’.

29. Which of the following does ‘vo’ stand for? (1) profit (2) in (3) share (4) market (5) in or profit 30. What is the code for ‘making’ ? (1) ka (2) su (3) je (4) zo (5) Cannot be determined 31. Which of the .following is the code for ‘gains’ ? (1) su (2) li (3) yo (4) do (5) yo or do 32. Which of the following can be the code for ‘the more you share’ ? (1) do yo zo vo (2) vo wi zo do (3) vo zo wi bu (4) yo je vo wi (5) su vo zo do 33. ‘to ka li aa’ is a code for which of the following? (1) share more in market (2) now share more gains (3) the gains in market (4) the gains in profit (5) making money in market Directions (34-37) : Study the following information to answer the given questions : (Allahabad Bank PO Exam. 17.04.2011)

In a certain code ‘her idea has merit’ is written as ‘fo la ‘bu na’, ‘merit list has been displayed’ is written as ‘jo ke la si na’ and ‘her name displayed there’ is written as ‘ya si bu zo’, ‘name in merit list’ is written as ‘na ya go ke’. 34. What does ‘ke’ stand for? (1) been (2) has (3) merit (4) name (5) list 35. What is the code for ‘idea’ ? (1) fo (2) la (3) bu (4) na (5) Either bu or na 36. Which of the following represents ‘name has been displayed’ ? (1) ya la ke si (2) jo si ya la (3) si jo ke na (4) bu ya ke la (5) ya si jo zo 37. What does ‘zo’ stand for? (1) there (2) displayed (3) name (4) her (5) Cannot be determined 38. Which of the following may represent ‘her name is there’ ? (1) zo ya go wo (2) bu ya zo go (3) zo ya bu ke (4) ya zo wo bu (5) wo go zo ya

BPRE–55

39. What is the code for ‘in’ ? (1) na (2) ya (3) go (4) ke (5) Cannot be determined Directions (40–45) : Study the following information to answer the given questions: (Indian Overseas Bank PO Exam. 22.05.2011)

In a certain code ‘for profit order now’ is written as ‘ho ja ye ga’ ‘right now for him’ is written as ‘ga ve ja se’. ‘place order for profit’ is written as ‘ga bi ho ye’ and ‘only in right order’ is written as ‘ve du ye zo’. 40. What is the code for ‘him’ ? (1) ga (2) ve (3) ja (4) se (5) Cannot be determined 41. What does ‘bi’ stand for? (1) profit (2) order (3) place (4) for (5) now 42. ‘fo ve du’ could be a code for which of the following? (1) in right spirits (2) only in profit (3) order only him (4) place in right (5) order only now 43. What is the code for ‘profit’ ? (1) ye (2) ga (3) bi (4) ja (5) ho 44. Which of the following may represent ‘only for now’ ? (1) ja bi zo (2) du zo ga (3) zo ga ja (4) zo ga ye (5) du bi ja 45. What is the code for ‘order’ ? (1) ye (2) ga (3) bi (4) ja (5) ho 46. In a certain code ‘TEAMWORK’ is written as ‘NBFUJQNV’ and ‘SOME’ is written as ‘PTDL’. How is ‘PERSON’ written in that code? (1) QDOOPT (2) QDOMNR (3) SFQMNR (4) SFQOPT (5) None of these (IBPS Specialist Officer CWE Exam. 11.03.2012)

47. In a certain code ‘BASKET’ is written as ‘5$3%#1’ and ‘TRIED’ is written as ‘14★#2’. How is ‘SKIRT’ written in that code? (1) 3%★41 (2) 3★%41 (3) 3%#41 (4) 3#4%1 (5) None of these (IBPS Specialist Officer CWE Exam. 11.03.2012)

CODING / DECODING Directions (48-52) : Study the following information to answer the given questions : (IDBI Bank Officer Exam.16.09.2012)

In a certain code “new banking systems” is coded as “ss tp na”, “officer in uniform” is coded as “or mu at”, “new bank officer” is coded as ”or bk na” and “systems in bank” is coded as “bk at ss”. 48. What does the code “bk” stand for? (1) new (2) systems (3) officer (4) in (5) None of these 49. What will the code “ss mu” stand for ? (1) banking officer (2) new uniform (3) uniform banking (4) in systems (5) uniform systems 50. How will “new officer” be coded? (1) or na (2) tp na (3) na at (4) tp or (5) ss at 51. How will “bank officer in uniform” be coded ? (1) ss na at or (2) bk at or mu (3) ss na bk at (4) at mu ss or (5) bk ss mu na 52. What is the code in “in” ? (1) ss (2) or (3) at (4) mu (5) None of these Directions (53-57) : Study the following information to answer the given questions : (IBPS Specialist Officer CWE Exam.17.03.2013)

In a certain code ’8 2 9' means ‘how art thou,’ ‘9 5 8’ means ‘thou art good’ and ‘1 5 8 7 3’ means ‘thy good and thou bad’. 53. What may be the possible code for ‘thy’ ? (1) 1 or 7 (2) 7 (3) 3 (4) 5 (5) 1 or 7 or 3 54. What is the code for ‘thou’ ? (1) 9 (2) 8 (3) 2 (4) 5 (5) None of these

55. What is the code for ‘how’ ? (1) 5 (2) 8 (3) 2 (4) 9 (5) None of these 56. Which of the following may possibly be the code for ‘thou no good’ ? (1) 5 0 8 (2) 7 8 0 (3) 5 0 7 (4) 7 8 0 (5) None of these 57. What is the code for ‘how good thou art’ ? (1) 7 5 8 9 (2) 8 2 9 5 (3) 7 1 8 3 (4) 8 7 9 5 (5) Cannot be determined Directions (58-62) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :

62. Which of the following is code of “serial” ? (1) pu (2) to

63.

64.

(Indian Overseas Bank PO Online Exam, 01.09.2013)

In a certain code language : “only in serial order” is written as “ve pu na to”. “order in the state” is written as “li ve su pu”. “the logical idea only” is written as “su na ri jo”. “in idea or theory” is written as “zt jo bk pu”. 58. Which of the following is the code of ‘theory’ ? (1) zt (2) bk (3) jo

(4) pu

(5) Either ‘zt’ or ‘bk’ 59. The code ‘li ri to ve’ may represent (1) serial order theory only (2) only idea state order (3) state logical serial order (4) serial theory state the (5) only the idea logical 60. Which of the following may represent “logical idea is only order”? (1) jo na ri ge ve (2) ve na ri jo pu (3) ri ve na zt bk (4) bk to pu jo ve (5) na ve su li pu 61. Which of the following is the code of “logical” ? (1) su (2) jo (3) na

(4) ri

(5) None of these

BPRE–56

65.

(3) ve (4) su (5) Cannot be determined In a certain code language the word COSTLY is written as WORVMF and the word PRAISE is written as CVGDPS. How will the word SOCCER be written in that code language ? (1) PHAFMV (2) BJWQRA (3) PGAENU (4) AKXPSB (5) None of these In a certain code language ‘he was not absent’ is written as ‘ja si fe ra’; ‘absent case was not’ is written as ‘ga fe je ra’ and ‘no one was absent’ is written as ‘da ge ra fe’. What does ‘si’ stands for ? (1) was (2) not (3) one (4) he (5) case In a certain code language DHIE is written as WSRV and AEFB is written as ZVUY. How will GKLH be written in that code language ? (1) SQNR (2) TQMP (3) TRDO (4) TPOS (5) None of these

(IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE-III, 26.10.2013)

66. In a certain code CONQUER is written as MNBRQDT. How is STEAMER written in that code ? (1) DRSBQDL (2) DSRBLDQ (3) DSRZQDL (4) DSRBQDL (5) None of these Directions (67–71) : Study the following information to answer the given questions : (Corporation Bank SO (Marketing) Exam, 22.02.2014)

In a certain code ‘it is rush hour traffic’ is written as ‘sa le do mi ru’ ‘go to school’ is written as ’be no pa’, ‘one hour to go’ is written as ‘mi fi pa be’, ‘rush to one’ is written as ‘fi be sa’ and ‘traffic is fine’ is written as ‘ga ru do’. 67. Which of the following represents ‘school hour go fine’ ? (1) pa be fi ga (2) no mi ra pa (3) pa no ga mi (4) ga no mi le (5) None of these

CODING / DECODING 68. ‘mi fi le’ would mean — (1) it one to (2) to rush one (3) rush hour it (4) it one hour (5) None is correct 69. What does ‘sa’ stand for? (1) rush (2) traffic (3) it (4) is (5) None of these 70. Which of the following may represent ‘traffic is for one hour’ ? (1) fi ye no mi ru (2) fi le do mi ru (3) fi ye do mi ru (4) fi so do mi ro (5) None of these 71. What does ‘do’ stand for? (1) hour (2) ‘is’ or ‘traffic’ (3) it (4) is (5) None of these 72. If in a certain code language PROUD is coded as OQPTC, NEW is coded MFV, RED is coded as QFC and TIMES is coded as SHNDR, then how is ALONE coded ? (1) BMNOF (2) ZMNOD (3) BKQNF (4) ZKPMD (5) ZNQRJ Directions (73–77) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (BOB Manipal School of Banking Officer Online Exam, 14.08.2014)

In a certain code language, ‘capital cities are crowded’ is written as ‘ju sh pi be’ ‘crowded cities create chaos’ is written as ‘sh be nt ro’ ‘huge industry create capital’ is written as ‘db ju nt ka’ ‘industries are huge chaos’ is written as ‘ka pi ro db’ 73. What would be the code for “crowded cities have huge industry” ? (1) sh be ro ka db (2) pi ka ro sh be (3) ka be db sh ck (4) ju db ka sh pi (5) ka sh be nt db 74. What is the code for ‘chaos’ in that code language ? (1) ro (2) db (3) pi (4) ka (5) be

75. What would be the code for “huge cities create chaos” ? (1) ka be nt ro (2) nt ro db sh (3) be db ro nt (4) ro sh ka nt (5) Cannot be determined 76. What would be the code for “capitals are chaos” ? (1) ju sh pi (2) pi ro ju (3) be ro pi (4) nt ju pi (5) sh ju be 77. What is the code for “huge industry” ? (1) ka pi (2) db ro (3) db ka (4) ka db (5) ka ro Directions (78-82) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS RRBs Officer Scale-I CWE, 06.09.2014)

In a certain code language, ‘rural and urban divide’ is coded as ‘na ku zu la’ ‘gap in rural infrastructure’ is coded as ‘kt la vm pi’ ‘urban planning more important’ is coded as ‘ti na cu bu’ ‘more divide than gap’ is coded as ‘pi cu dm zu’ 78. What is the code for ‘and’ ? (1) zu (2) na (3) ku (4) la (5) Cannot be determined 79. What is the code for ‘rural divide’ ? (1) zu la (2) la dm (3) pi zu (4) ku la (5) Cannot be determined 80. What is the code for ‘gap’ ? (1) dm (2) vm (3) zu (4) pi (5) pi or cu 81. Which of the following may possibly be the code for ‘infrastructure gap divide rural and urban planning’ ? (1) bu ku na zu pi la cu (2) vm la zu pi na cu ku (3) kt bu zu pi ti vm la (4) la ku vm kt ti bu na (5) Cannot be determined 82. What is the code for ‘than’ ? (1) pi (2) dm (3) cu (4) zu (5) ti

BPRE–57

Directions (83–87) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (Bank of Baroda Junior Management Grade/ Scale-I Exam, 18.04.2015)

In a certain code language, ‘many residents of city’ is written as ‘ja nu pa la’ ‘city with many choices’ is written as ‘ko la nu si’ ‘choices made by residents’ is written as ‘pa mx ko tr’ ‘made good choices here’ is written as ‘vk rp tr ko’ (All the codes are two letter codes only) 83. What is the code for ‘with’ in the given code language ? (1) tr (2) la (3) ko (4) si (5) nu 84. What is the code for ‘made by residents’ in the given code language ? (1) mx pa tr (2) ko mx pa (3) tr mx ko (4) la pa tr (5) mx tr vk 85. What is the code for ‘choices’ in the given code language ? (1) si (2) vk (3) la (4) nu (5) ko 86. Which of the following may represent ‘here for good’ in the given code language ? (1) la rp wq (2) xz vk si (3) rp uy vk (4) vk rp ja (5) vk rp la 87. What does the code ‘nu’ stand for in the given code language? (1) of (2) Either ‘city’ or ‘many’ (3) with (4) Either ‘city’ or ‘good’ (5) good Directions (88–92) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (BOB Junior Management Grade/Scale–I Exam. 18.04.2015)

In a certain code language, ‘many residents of city’ is written as ‘ja nu pa la’ ‘city with many choices’ is written as ‘ko la nu si’ ‘choices made by residents’ is written as ‘pa mx ko tr’ ‘made good choices here’ is written as ‘vk rp tr ko’ (All the codes are two letter codes only)

CODING / DECODING 88. What is the code for ‘with’ in the given code language ? (1) tr (2) la (3) ko (4) si (5) nu 89. What is the code for ‘made by residents’ in the given code language ? (1) mx pa tr (2) ko mx pa (3) tr mx ko (4) la pa tr (5) mx tr vk 90. What is the code for ‘choices’ in the given code language ? (1) si (2) vk (3) la (4) nu (5) ko 91. Which of the following may represent ‘here for good’ in the given code language ? (1) la rp wq (2) xz vk si (3) rp uy vk (4) vk rp ja (5) vk rp la 92. What does the code ‘nu’ stand for in the given code language? (1) of (2) Either ‘city’ or ‘many’ (3) with (4) Either ‘city’ or ‘good’ (5) good Directions (93–97) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS RRBs Officer Scale–I & II CWE 12.09.2015)

In a certain code language, ‘few organic farming techniques’ is written as ‘li gs da cr’ ‘fertilizer products few available’ is written ‘fo pz nb gs’ ‘organic waste into fertilizer’ is written ‘nb cr pt mk’ ‘disposal of farming waste’ is written as ‘hu mk li yu’ (All codes are two letter codes only) 93. What will be the code for ‘few waste’ in the given code language? (1) gs li (2) pt da (3) da mk (4) Other than those given as options (5) mk gs 94. What is the code for ‘organic’ in the given code language? (1) gs (2) cr (3) da (4) pt (5) Other than those given as options

95. In the given code language, what does the code ‘yu’ stand for? (1) farming (2) techniques (3) either ‘of’ or ‘disposal’ (4) waste (5) either ‘into’ or ‘few’ 96. If ‘waste management techniques’ is coded as ‘ax da mk’ in the given code language, then how will ‘farming fertilizer management’ be coded as? (1) ax nb cr (2) li ax pt (3) gs li nb (4) nb li ax (5) Other than those given as options 97. What is the code for ‘available’ in the given code language? (1) either ‘pz’ or ‘fo’ (2) either ‘nb’ or ‘mk’ (3) li (4) hu (5) Other than those given as options Directions (98–102) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V (Preliminary) 03.10.2015)

In a certain code language, ‘festival for woman only’ is written as ‘pa ge bo xu’ ‘provide peace to women’ is written as ‘wr dl nj ge’ ‘women like to celebrate’ is written as ‘ge ct fx wr’ ‘celebrate peace in festival’ is written as ‘dl bo sv ct’ (All codes are two letter codes only) 98. What may be the possible code for ‘provide idea’ in the given code language ? (1) fx hy (2) xu bo (3) hy nj (4) nj xu (4) wr fx 99. What is the code for ‘celebrate’ in the given code language ? (1) ct (2) wr (3) sv (4) dl (5) fx 100. In the given code language what does the code ‘pa’ stand for ? (1) peace (2) either ‘for’ or ‘only’ (3) either ‘women’ or ‘to’ (4) celebrate (5) festival

BPRE–58

101. What is the code for ‘women’ in the given code language ? (1) bo (2) xu (3) ct (4) Other than those given as options (5) ge 102. If ‘peace to mind’ is coded as ‘zg wr dl’ in the given code language, then what is the code for ‘mind in festival’ ? (1) zg bo dl (2) dl zg sv (3) zg nj wr (4) bo sv zg (5) sv wr bo Directions (103–107) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V (Preliminary) 04.10.2015)

In a certain code language, ‘paint your house red’ is written as ‘ri fm ew cu’ ‘gate of red colour’ is written as ‘lb ew op sa’ ‘house of your choice’ is written as ‘sa cu ri nk’ ‘gate with red paint’ is written ‘gy op ew fm’ (All codes are two letter codes only) 103. What is the code for ‘red’ in the given code language ? (1) Other than those given as options (2) sa (3) gy (4) ew (5) fm 104. What may be the possible code for ‘gate crash’ in the given code language ? (1) jx op (2) ri op (3) lb jx (4) op lb (5) jx ri 105. In the given code language, what does the code ‘cu’ stand for ? (1) paint (2) either ‘of’ or ‘colour’ (3) choice (4) with (5) either ‘house’ or ‘your’ 106. What is the code for ‘paint’ in the given code language ? (1) gy (2) fm (3) sa (4) op (5) ri 107. If ‘colour with canvas’ is coded as ‘hv lb gy’ in the given code language, then what is the code for ‘canvas of choice’?

CODING / DECODING (1) hv nk ew (2) ri sa nk (3) nk hv sa (4) sa ew hv (5) sa ri hv Directions (108–112) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V (Preliminary.) 04.10.2015)

In a certain code language, ‘committee to review papers’ is written as ‘es fr re pt’ ‘review meeting in morning’ is written as ‘ch ba mo fr’ ‘meeting to appoint members’ is written as ‘re dv ch gi’ ‘appoint chairman in review’ is written as ‘mo gi fr yu’ (All the codes are two letter codes only) 108. What is the code for ‘morning’ in the given code language? (1) mo (2) yu (3) ch (4) Other than those given as options (5) ba 109. In the given code language, what does the code ‘pt’ stands for? (1) appoint (2) either ‘papers’ or ‘committee’ (3) morning (4) review (5) either ‘for’ or ‘members’ 110. What is the code for ‘review call’ in the given code language? (1) dv lq

(2) lq gi

(3) lq fr

(4) gi es

(5) fr dv 111. What is the code for ‘to’ in the given code language? (1) mo (3) gi

(2) fr (4) re

(5) dv 112. If ‘appoint new members’ is coded as ‘dv wz gi’ in the given code language, then what is the code for ‘new chairman meeting’? (1) ch wz yu (2) yu mo wz (3) fr es wz (4) ch yu fr (5) wz ch es Directions (113–117) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V (Preliminary) 10.10.2015 Ist Sitting)

In a certain code language, ‘offer prayers to god’ is written as ‘bi gv oc st’ ‘prayers for school assembly’ is written as ‘tm oc da pu’ ‘school offer special education’ is written as ‘nh mk tm gv’ ‘assembly must to school’ is written as ‘da st rx tm’ (All the codes are two letter codes only) 113. What is the code for ‘must’ in the given code language ? (1) da (2) Other than those given as options (3) rx (4) tm (5) st 114. What is the code for ‘education’ in the given code language? (1) Either ‘mk’ or ‘nh’ (2) Either ‘tm’ or ‘gv’ (3) mk (4) nh (5) tm 115. If ‘school to home’ is coded as ‘aj tm st’ in the given code language, then how ‘home for god’ will be coded ? (1) pu gv aj (2) bi aj oc (3) da bi st (4) aj bi pu (5) bi mk rx 116. What may be the possible code for ‘school must offer training’ in the given code language ? (1) rx gv mk tm (2) tm rk rx gv (3) oc gv rx tm (4) st gv oc bi (5) gv da nh pu 117. What does the code ‘da’ stand for in the given code language? (1) school (2) to (3) prayers (4) Other than those given as options (5) assembly Directions (118–122) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V (Preliminary) 10.10.2015)

In a certain code language, ‘always follow your passion’ is written as ‘ke ag mo jp’. ‘great passion for music’ is written as ‘mo bu sc nd’. ‘music always on mind’ is written as ‘fi sc ag lw’. ‘follow music on twitter’ is written as ‘ty jp fi sc’. (All codes are two-letter codes only)

BPRE–59

118. What is the code for ‘follow’ in the given code language (1) ke (2) jp (3) Other than those given as options (4) fi (5) sc 119. What is the code for ‘mind’ in the given code language ? (1) bu (3) lw (5) ty

(2) ag (4) ke

120. In the given code language, what does the code ‘nd’ stand for ? (1) either ‘for’ or ‘great’ (2) music (3) mind (4) always (5) either ‘music’ or ‘on’ 121. If ‘music always help’ is coded as ‘ag hr sc’ in the given code language, then what is the code for ‘help your twitter’? (1) ke ty bu

(2) hr tw ag

(3) hr ke sc

(4) ty ke hr

(5) bu ty hr 122. What may be the possible code for ‘divine passion’ in the given code language? (1) mo ag (2) bu mo (3) xy ag (4) xy bu (5) mo xy Directions (123–127) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS RRBs Officer Scale–I & II CWE 13.09.2015)

In a certain code language, ‘challenges for rural education’ is written as ‘vx pr bt ze’ ‘find measures for problems’ is written as ‘ws dl ze ho’ ‘experts find challenges difficult’ is written as ‘bt ka mu dl’ ‘education difficult in villages’ is written as ‘xq cg pr ka’ (All codes are two letter codes only) 123. If ‘experts find solutions’ is written as ‘dl ny mu’ in the given code language, then what will ‘rural solutions difficult’ be coded as ? (1) ny vs ka (2) ny pr dl (3) ka mu ny (4) Other than those given as options (5) vx ka xq

CODING / DECODING 124. What is the code for ‘villages’ in the given code language ? (1) ws (2) mu (3) either ‘xq’ or ‘cg’ (4) Other than those given as options (5) either ‘pr’ or ‘ze’ 125. What will be the code for ‘find education’ in the given code language ? (1) ka pr (2) pr dl (3) ze ka (4) dl ws (5) Other than those given as options 126. What is the code for ‘challenges’ in the given code language ? (1) cr (2) Other than those given as options (3) ka (4) ze (5) bt 127. In the given code language, what does the code ‘ho’ stand for ? (1) either ‘measures’ or ‘problems’ (2) either ‘for’ or ‘experts’ (3) rural (4) find (5) difficult 128. In a certain code, PARTICLE is written as USBQFMDJ and GENERATE is written as FOFHFUBS, how is DOCUMENT written in that code? (1) VDEPUONF (2) VDPENFUQ (3) VDPEUOFN (4) PEUVDNOF (5) OFNVDUEP (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V Main Exam. 31.10.2015)

Directions (129-133) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V Main Exam. 31.10.2015)

In a certain code language, ‘capital cities are crowded’ is written as ‘ju sh pi be’ ‘crowded cities create chaos’ is written as ‘sh be nt ro’ ‘huge industries create capital’ is written as ‘db ju nt ka’ ‘industries are huge chaos’ is written as ‘ka pi ro db’ (All the codes are two letter codes) 129. What is the code for ‘create’ in the given code language? (1) sh (2) db (3) nt (4) ro (5) pi

130. What does ‘ro’ stand for in the given code language? (1) chaos (2) capital (3) huge (4) create (5) are 131. What does ‘ka’ stand for in the given code language? (1) either ‘cities’ or ‘crowded’ (2) cities (3) create (4) either ‘huge’ or ‘industries’ (5) chaos 132. Which of the following possibly means ‘crowded metro cities’ in the given code language? (1) sh be ju (2) sh be ka (3) sh ka nt (4) ka nt pi (5) sh un be 133. What is the code for ‘capital’ in the given code language? (1) pi (2) ju (3) sh (4) be (5) db 134. In a certain code HEALING is written as BFIKHOJ. How is BEDTIME written in that code? (1) EFCSJNF (2) EFCSFNJ (3) EFCUFNS (4) CFESFNJ (5) FEUCNSF (IBPS Specialist Officer (Marketing) CWE 01.02.2016)

Directions (135–139) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS Specialist Officer (Marketing) CWE 01.02.2016)

In a certain code language, ‘urban people prefer cars’ is written as ‘ve fm ab eg’ ‘profit for urban areas’ is written as ‘ab ep zi so’ ‘people demand for hike’ is written as ‘zi qr cd we’ ‘hike in profit margin’ is written as ‘al nj ep cd’ (All codes are two letter codes only) 135. What will be the possible code for ‘urban food demand’ in the given code language? (1) qr ab nj (2) qr cr ab (3) nj qr cd (4) qr al nj (5) zi ve nj 136. What is the code for ‘areas’ in the given code language? (1) ab (2) zi (3) ep (4) qr (5) so

BPRE–60

137. What does the code ‘nj’ stand for in the given code language? (1) Either ‘hike’ or ‘people’ (2) Either ‘in’ or ‘margin’ (3) profit (4) hike (5) demand 138. In the given code language, if ‘small’ is coded as ‘wy’, then how will ‘prefer small cars’ be coded as? (1) wy eg ab (2) fm ve wy (3) eg wy fm (4) ab eg fm (5) ab wy eg 139. What will be the code for ‘hike’ in the given code language? (1) cd (2) zi (3) Other than those given as options (4) qr (5) nj Directions (140–144) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS Specialist Officer (IT) CWE 14.02.2016)

In a certain code language, ‘gloves are found there’ is written as ‘vg xa ze co’ ‘two pairs of gloves’ is written as ‘sh yc ti xa’ ‘found two new friends’ is written as ‘wd vg nu sh’ ‘all packets are new’ is written as ‘om co nu qk’ (All codes are two letter codes only) 140. What does the code ‘ti’ stand for in the given code language? (1) either ‘two’ or ‘new’ (2) are (3) gloves (4) either ‘of’ or ‘pairs’ (5) two 141. What will be the code for ‘found’ in the given code language ? (1) ze (2) wd (3) sh (4) yc (5) vg 142. What is the code for ‘are’ the given code language ? (1) ze (2) co (3) qk (4) om (5) ti 143. What will be the possible code for ‘new writer gloves’ in the given code language ? (1) xa nu dy (2) xa dy vg (3) ze xa wd (4) ze sh om (5) nu ti xa

CODING / DECODING 144. In the given code language, if ‘blue’ is coded as ‘af’, then how will ‘all blue packets’ be coded as ? (1) nu vg af (2) co qk om (3) af om qk (4) om af co (5) af co nu 145. In a certain code language, ‘PLOTS’ is written as ‘NJSRQ’, ‘SNACK’ is coded as ‘QLEAI’, how is FUDGE written in that code? (1) DSHEC

(2) DWHKJ

(3) DWHEG

(4) DWHEC

(5) DWHKG (SIDBI Officer Online Exam.24.02.2016)

Directions (146–150) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (SIDBI Officer Online Exam.24.02.2016)

In a certain code language, ‘robots can become lawyers’ is written is ‘ju ac th eg’. ‘all doctors can check’ is written as ‘bd np ju mo’ ‘many doctors and lawyers’ is written as ‘np rt qs ac’ ‘machine check of robots’ is written as ‘eg ik ux bd’ (Note : All codes are two letter codes only) 146. What does the code ‘ac’ stand for in the given code language? (1) robots (2) many (3) lawyers (4) become (5) of 147. If ‘how and many’ is written as ‘qs ws rt’ then what will be the code for ‘how can’? (1) np qs (2) rt ju (3) qs rt (4) ws ju (5) bd ws 148. What is the code for ‘machine’ in the given code language? (1) rt (2) Either ‘eg’ or ‘rt’ (3) bd (4) eg (5) Either ‘ik’ or ‘ux’ 149. What is the code for ‘robots’ in the given code language? (1) ux (2) eg (3) ju (4) Either ‘eg’ or ‘ju’ (5) Either ‘ju’ or ‘ac’

150. What may be the possible code for ‘will become doctor’ in the given code language? (1) th zi np (2) zi ac bd (3) np th ux (4) zi np bd (5) bd ju ux 151. In a certain code language ‘TOASTER’ is written as ‘VQCRRCP’ and ‘RODENTS’ is written as ‘TQFDLRQ’. How will ‘PHANTOM’ be written in that code language? (1) RJCMVQO (2) NFYORMK (3) RJCMRMK (4) NFYOVQO (5) Other than those given as options (United Bank of India PGDBF Manipal Exam,07.08.2016)

Directions (152–157) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (United Bank of India PGDBF Manipal Exam,07.08.2016)

In a certain code language, ‘space shuttle launch tomorrow’ is written as ‘va ki lo na’ ‘launch the space programme’ is written as ‘dc na bk ki’ ‘tomorrow at the station’ is written as ‘ep dc mj va’ ‘follow the station directives’ is written as ‘pa dc su ep’ (All the codes are two letter codes only) 152. What does the code ‘bk’ stand for in the given code language? (1) launch (2) space (3) the (4) programme (5) Either ‘space’ or ‘launch’ 153. What will be the code for ‘space launch station’ in the given code language? (1) ep na ki (2) ki pa lo (3) ep dc ki (4) na su va (5) mj va bk 154. What is the code for ‘tomorrow’ in the given code language? (1) ki (2) mj (3) va (4) dc (5) Either ‘va’ or ‘lo’ 155. In the given language if ‘rocket’ is coded ‘pw’, then how will ‘at the rocket station’ be coded as? (1) bk lo pw na (2) pw mj ep dc (3) su pa ki pw (4) dc pw va bk (5) pw ep su va

BPRE–61

156. What will be the possible code for ‘missiles launch tomorrow’ in the given code language? (1) ki va pa (2) na su mj (3) na lo ki (4) ki dc ep (5) va na rt 157. As per the given information the code for which of the following words cannot be known definitely? (1) Only ‘launch’ (2) Only ‘space’ (3) Only ‘programme’ (4) Both ‘space’ and ‘launch’ (5) Both ‘station’ and ‘shuttle’ Directions (158–162) : Study the the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (Bank of Maharashtra PO Exam, 26.10.2016)

In a certain code language : ‘solving major political issues’ is written as ‘za ke uc pi’ ‘some issues rather important’ is written as ‘nt ah za mh’ ‘important political intervention required’ is written as ‘cv nt pi wb’ ‘solving rather than raising’ is written as ‘sr mh rd uc’ 158. What is the code for ‘major’ in the given code language ? (1) nt (2) za (3) uc (4) pi (5) ke 159. Which of the following may represent ‘some important deals’ in the given code language ? (1) nt mh vl (2) ah nt mh (3) nt pi ah (4) nt ds ah (5) nt za ah 160. What does the code ‘mh’ stand for in the given code language ? (1) raising (2) rather (3) than (4) solving (5) intervention 161. ‘wb kp cv’ could be code for which of the following in the given code language ? (1) required useful intervention (2) issues required intervention (3) required major raising (4) same intervention required (5) raising intervention intentionally 162. What is the code for ‘political’ in the given code language ? (1) wb (2) cv (3) pi (4) za (5) nt

CODING / DECODING 163. In a certain code language, ‘send the tests’ is coded as ‘al vx se’ and ‘all tests solved’ is coded as ‘se pg nb’. How will ‘tests’ be coded as in the given code language? (Note-all codes are two letter codes only) (1) nb (2) vx (3) Either ‘nb’ or ‘pg’ (4) se (5) Either ‘al’ or ‘pg’ (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Pre.) Exam, 14.11.2016 (Shift-II))

164. In a certain code language, ‘give me call’ is coded as ‘jo kl mx’ and ‘call for me’ is coded as ‘mx jo st’. How will ‘for’ be coded as in the given code language? (Note : all codes are two letter codes only) (1) Either ‘mx’ or ‘jo’ (2) Either ‘jo’ or ‘kj’ (3) kj (4) mx (5) st (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Pre.) Exam, 14.11.2016 (Shift-III))

Directions (165–168) : Read the given information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Main) Exam, 18.11.2016

In a certain code language, ‘enjoy your trip immensly’ is written as ‘U s j 16 F o k p 25 J n n f o t m 25 z p v 18” ‘economic journey has a good feeling’ is written as ‘B k p v s o f 2 5 G f f m j o 7 H p p 4 I b 19 F d p o p n j 3.’ ‘People like to travel abroad’ is written as U s b w f 1 2 Q f p q m 5 B c s p b 4 U 1 5 M j l 5’ 165. Which among the following is the code for ‘wish you a happy journey’ ? (1) k p v s o f 25 20 21 x j t 8 B I b q q 25 (2) I b q q 25 B X j t 8 Z p 21 K p v s o f 25 (3) B k p u s p f 26 I b q q 25 x j t 82 p 21 (4) v h r 8 x n 21 I n t q m d 25 G z 0 0 25 B (5) None of these 166. What will be the code for ‘make an economic trip’ ? (1) ssj21 zm Lyj5 Dbnmnh3 (2) Usj16 B14 Nbj5 Fdpopj3 (3) B14 Usj16 Nb15 Fdpopnj3 (4) Fdpopnj3 B14 Nbl5 Utj16 (5) None of these

167. Which among the following is the code of ‘Ljo4 Hp4 Bm12 J19 U15’ ? (1) God is kind of all (2) God makes all kind. (3) God is kind to all (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 168. Which among the following is the code for ‘keep smiling always’ ? (1) Bmxbz24 Lff16 Tmjnj07 (2) Lff16 Bmxbz22 Tnjm07 (3) Tnjmj07 Bmxbz19 Lff16 (4) Tnjnj07 Bnxbz24 Lff17 (5) None of these Directions (169–173) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (Indian Bank PO (Pre.) Exam, 21.01.2017 (Ist Sitting))

In a certain code language, ‘plot for all persons’ is written as ‘fn bo dl sw’ ‘find the hidden plot’ is written as ‘dl et ga nu’ ‘try and find out’ is written as ‘ga yc mp zh’ ‘for the lock out’ is written as ‘nu mp fn rv’ (All codes are two-letter codes only) 169. If ‘try the key’ is coded as ‘nu ka yc’ in the given code language, then how will ‘key and lock’ be coded as? (1) ka bo zh (2) zh ga ka (3) Other than those given as options (4) bo rv ga (5) rv zh ka 170. In the given code language, what does the code ‘sw’ stand for? (1) Either ‘for’ or ‘find’ (2) Either ‘persons’ or ‘all’ (3) hidden (4) for (5) plot 171. Which of the following may represent the code for ‘find friends’ in the given code language? (1) bo ga (2) fn ga (3) ga cl (4) et bo (5) cl et 172. What is the code for ‘for hidden plot’ in the given code language? (1) et fn dl (2) fn dl bo (3) ga bo fn (4) mp rv et (5) dl et ga 173. What is the code for ‘out’ in the given code language? (1) fn (2) nu (3) rv (4) mp (5) Other than those given as options

BPRE–62

Directions (174–176) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (Indian Bank PO (Pre.) Exam, 21.01.2017 (2nd Sitting))

‘make your own food’ is coded as ‘ri fu ja tu’ ‘way for your bus’ is coded as ‘cp wy ri md’. ‘make way for bus’ is coded as ‘fu wy md cp’ ‘own food no way’ is coded as ‘md ne tu ja’ (All the codes are two letter codes only) 174. How is ‘bus’ coded in the given code language ? (1) cp (2) wy (3) ‘cp’ or ‘wy’ (4) fu (5) md 175. If ‘our own food’ is coded as ‘ja su tu’, then which of the following could be the possible code for ‘make our way’ ? (1) md tu su (2) fu su cp (3) md su ri (4) su fu md (5) Other than those given as options 176. What does the code ‘no’ stand for in the given code language ? (1) wy (2) md (3) ja (4) tu (5) ne Directions (177–181) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS RRBs Officers CWE (Prelim Exam) 09.09.2017 Ist Sitting)

In a certain code language, ‘cheque cleared from bank’ is written as ‘ru dg te ac’ ‘went to bank yesterday’ is written as ‘mx vl ib ru’ ‘yesterday received new cheque’ is written as ‘oj dg vl hp’ ‘new deposit from account’ is written as ‘sf hp nz te’ (All codes are two letter codes only) 177. In the given code language, what does the code ‘mx’ stand for? (1) cleared (2) either ‘bank’ or ‘new’ (3) either ‘to’ or ‘went’ (4) yesterday (5) bank

CODING / DECODING 178. Which of the following may represent the code for ‘dishonoured cheque’ in the given code language? (1) eq ac (2) dg eq (3) ac oj (4) oj ru (5) ru dg 179. What is the code for ‘cleared yesterday’ in the given code language? (1) ac dg (2) dg ru (3) ib vl (4) ru ib (5) vl ac 180. If ‘deposit received cash’ is coded as ‘oj yi sf’ in the given code language, then how will ‘new cash account’ be coded as? (1) yi nz hp (2) hp ib nz (3) dg hp vl (4) ib dg vl (5) nz yi dg 181. What is the code for ‘bank’ in the given code language? (1) vl (2) ac (3) oj (4) ru (5) hp Directions (182–186) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS RRBs Officers CWE (Prelim Exam) 09.09.2017 IInd Sitting)

In a certain code language, ‘expecting five times profit’ is written as ‘vb yh nu ji’ ‘profit increases every year’ is written as ‘de lo ji km’ ‘every business expecting boom’ is written as ‘sz km wa yh’ ‘boom required this year’ is written as ‘pg cq lo sz’ (All codes are two letter codes only) 182. In the given code language, what does the code ‘km’ stand for? (1) every (2) business (3) boom (4) increases (5) year 183. In the given code language, what does the code ‘de yh’ stand for? (1) increases this (2) increases boom (3) boom profit (4) this expecting (5) expecting increases 184. Which of the following may represent the code for ‘boom market’ in the given code language? (1) lo km (2) oj sz (3) yh oj (4) km yh (5) sz lo

185. What is the code for ‘required’ in the given code language? (1) sz (2) either ‘sz’ or ‘lo’ (3) wa (4) either ‘pg’ or ‘cq’ (5) nu 186. If ‘five year profit’ is coded as ‘lo ji nu’ in the given code language, then ‘times for business’ may be coded as? (1) sz rj vb (2) wa nu rj (3) xl vb wa (4) xa wa cq (5) vb cq wa Directions (187–191) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS RRBs Officers CWE (Prelim Exam) 10.09.2017)

In a certain code language, ‘chat requires more patience’ is written as ‘ zi mx ub cv’ ‘patience in every situation’ is written as ‘wp ko dl mx’ ‘every chat saved online’ is written as ‘ub dl ha tg’ ‘situation saved from crisis’ is written as ‘tg rq se ko’ (All codes are two letter codes only) 187. If ‘more chat saved’ is coded as ‘ub zi tg’ in the given code language, then ‘requires every possibility’ may be coded as ? (1) qt cv dl (2) dl qt ko (3) cv dl mx (4) ko ur qt (5) mx ur cv 188. What is the code for ‘crisis’ in the given code language ? (1) tg (2) ha (3) either ‘se’ or ‘rq’ (4) ko (5) either ‘ko’ or ‘zi’ 189. Which of the following may represent the code for ‘no patience’ in the given code language ? (1) cv wp (2) mx bj (3) bj zi (4) wp mx (5) mx se 190. In the given code language, what does the code ‘ko’ stand for ? (1) in (2) more (3) from (4) situation (5) every 191. In the given code language, what does the code ‘ha wp’ stand for ? (1) chat in (2) online from (3) every chat (4) from every (5) in online

BPRE–63

Directions (192–196) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE-VII (Prelim Exam) 14.10.2017)

In a certain code language, “with all caring friends” is written as “bs up ck lq” “all the time dancing” is written as “av tn lq og”. “friends dancing and singing” is written as “tn dz up ry” “caring and loving people” is written as “dz xn bz eh” (Note : All the codes are two letter codes only) 192. How may “all singing song” be coded as in the given code language? (1) ry sf lq (2) ry bs up (3) av lq ry (4) sf tn ry (5) ry lq eh 193. What is the code for “time” in the given code language? (1) Either ‘lq’ or ‘tn’ (2) up (3) tn (4) Either ‘av’ or ‘og’ (5) Either ‘xn’ or lq’ 194. If “people dancing together” is codes as “tn gi xn”, then how will “loving friends together” be coded as in the given code language ? (1) av dz up (2) eh gi dz (3) gi up lq (4) eh dz up (5) gi up eh 195. What does the code ‘ck’ stand for in the given code language ? (1) friends (2) all (3) with (4) singing (5) caring 196. What does ‘bs dz’ stand for in the given code language? (1) and with (2) and caring (3) caring with (4) with the (5) and the Directions (197–201) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : In a certain code language, (IBPS SO (IT Officer) CWE (Prelim Exam) 30.12.2017)

‘give me your number’ is coded as ‘tm ct ar bp’ ‘highest number in English’ is coded as ‘bp dg sk mi’

CODING / DECODING ‘test your English skills’ is coded as ‘tm fo ve dg’ ‘skills in pencil sketches’ is coded as ‘nu ve ky sk’ (Note : All codes are two letter codes only) 197. What is the code for ‘English’ in the given code language? (1) dg (2) tm (3) nu (4) ky (5) ve 198. What does the code ‘ct stand for in the given code language? (1) test (2) Either ‘give’ or ‘me’ (3) Either ‘your’ or ‘number’ (4) number (5) highest 199. What may be the possible code for ‘your hidden skills’ in the given code language? (1) mi tm fo (2) ve fo tm (3) ve rb sk (4) ve rb tm (5) rb tm ky 200. If in the given code language, ‘colour of pencil’ is coded as ‘nu xg hf’, what will be the code for ‘number of sketches’? (1) bp xg ve (2) hf fo xg (3) fo tm hf (4) ky tm nu (5) Cannot be determined 201. What does the code ‘fo’ stand for in the given code language? (1) None of the given options (2) your (3) test (4) skills (5) English Directions (202–204) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS SO (Law Officer) CWE (Prelim Exam) 31.12.2017)

In a certain code language, ‘deposited cheque today’ is coded as ‘fx tb jw’ ‘today open locker’ is coded as ‘tb qs ka’ ‘branch open tomorrow’ is coded as ‘ka dm rc’ ‘withdraw money tomorrow’ is coded as ‘rc yb gp’ (Note : All the codes are two letter codes only) 202. What does the code ‘rc ka’ stand for in the given code language? (1) open tomorrow (2) branch cheque (3) branch tomorrow (4) many cheque (5) open cheque

203. What may be the possible code for ‘cheque deposited in branch’ in the given code language ? (1) dm tb rc gp (2) jw ka qs fx (3) tb rc jw dm (4) dm fx jw ve (5) fx rc ka jw 204. In the given code language, if ‘withdraw from’ is coded as ‘gp km’, then how will ‘money from bank’ be possibly coded as in the given code language? (1) uh yb rc (2) dm km yb (3) uh ka yb (4) yb km uh (5) km tb rc Directions (205–208) : Study the the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IDBI Bank PO Exam 29.04.2018)

In a certain code ‘here is tunnel she stop’ is written as ‘isa kin ha ti la’, ‘he goes through tunnel’ is written as ‘nit ti pi sit’, ‘she goes here often’ is written as ‘sit la tin isa’ and ‘tunnel is far through here’ is written as ‘ha nit la ti fa’ 205. Which of the following is the code for ‘tunnel’ ? (1) nit (2) ti (3) la (4) na (5) None of these 206. What does code ‘sit’ stand for? (1) tunnel (2) through (3) he (4) Cannot be determined (5) goes 207. ‘he is often’ can be coded as __________. (1) sa pi la (2) fa tin ha (3) pi ha tin (4) kin tip sit (5) None of these 208. Which of the following is the code for ‘goes far stop here’? (1) sit la fa kin (2) la fa pi tin (3) ha kin sit nit (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these Directions (209–213) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE-VII (Prelim Exam) 15.10.2017)

In a certain code, ‘detail event year this’ is written as ‘bi gv oc st’

BPRE–64

‘event revised of awaited’ is written as ‘tm oc da pu’ ‘of detail results first’ is written as ‘nh mk tm gv’ ‘awaited great year of’ is written as ‘da st rx tm’ (All codes are two letter codes only) 209. In the given code language, what does the code ‘mk’ stand for? (1) either ‘detail’ or ‘year’ (2) this (3) of (4) Either ‘first’ or ‘results’ (5) great 210. What is the code for ‘awaited’ in the given code language? (1) da (2) rx (3) st (4) tm (5) Other than those given as options 211. What is the code for ‘event’ in the given code language? (1) nh (2) gv (3) oc (4) pu (5) rx 212. What may be the possible code for ‘awaited revised’ in the given code language? (1) ve be (2) da nh (3) nh ve (4) bi da (5) pu da 213. If ‘of year home’ is written as ‘aj tm st’ in the given code language, then what is the code for ‘home revised this’ ? (1) aj gv nh (2) pu aj bi (3) nh bi pu (4) bi da aj (5) aj oc pu 214. In a certain code language, CLIMATE is coded as JMDNFUB and BROUGHT is coded as PSCVUIH. How is FACTORY coded as per the given code language? (1) DBGSZSP (2) DBGUZSP (3) BBEUXTQ (4) GBDUPSZ (5) BBESQTX (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Prelim Exam) 11.08.2018)

Directions (215–219) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : In a certain code language : ‘you have other choices’ is coded as ‘lo se ca pr’ ‘they have old options’ is coded as ‘tu bd pr nk’ ‘manager wants old choices’ is coded as ‘af lo bd gi’

CODING / DECODING ‘employees wants new options’ is coded as ‘nk gi hm jv’ (Note : all the given codes are two letter codes only) (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Prelim Exam) 11.08.2018)

215. What is the code for ‘options’ in the given code language? (1) bd (2) nk (3) pr (4) tu (5) gi 216. What will be the possible code for ‘you are manager’ in the given code language? (1) af se wq (2) ca se af (3) se af jv (4) pr jv wq (5) jv ca lo 217. What is the code for ‘new’ in the given code language? (1) gi (2) se (3) Either ‘ca’ or ‘af’ (4) Either ‘hm’ or ‘jv’ (5) nk 218. What is the code for ‘have’ in the given code language? (1) lo (2) Either ‘se’ or ‘ca’ (3) pr (4) Either ‘nk’ or ‘se’ (5) ca 219. What does the code ‘tu’ stand for in the given code language? (1) have (3) options (3) old (4) wants (5) they Directions (220–224) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : In a certain code language, ‘confused about meeting friends’ is written as ‘de cv mo st’ ‘friends asked over phone’ is written as ‘ji mo np bq’ ‘phone call about meeting’ is written as ‘st zr de ji’ ‘confused people over think’ is written as ‘np ha cv fu’ (All codes are two letter codes only) (Indian Bank PO Exam, 06.10.2018)

220. If in the given code language, ‘think noble’ is coded as ‘ha wy’ then ‘noble people call’ will be coded as_____________. (1) zr wy fu (2) wy np cv (3) cv fu de (4) de ji np (5) fu de wy

221. In the given code language, what does the code ‘st’ stand for? (1) friends (2) either ‘meeting’ or ‘about’ (3) confused (4) phone (5) either ‘friends’ or ‘over’ 222. What is the code for ‘asked’ in the given code language? (1) np (2) ji (3) bq (4) mo (5) de 223. Which of the following may represent the code for ‘friends buy phone’ in the given code language? (1) mo ji zr (2) np pz zr (3) cv pz ha (4) pz ji mo (5) ji cv pz 224. What is the code for ‘confused’ in the given code language? (1) de (2) mo (3) np (4) fu (5) cv Directions (225-229) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: In a certain code language, ‘place satellite in orbit’ is written as ‘jo ki la si’ ‘orbit moon in circle’ is written as ‘bp la mi jo’ ‘circle earth through satellite’ is written as ‘si dv tu bp’ ‘moon navigation gone through’ is written as ‘js mi dv hm’ (All the codes are two letter codes only) (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Prelim Exam) 21.10.2018)

225. What is the possible code for ‘place through committee’ in the given code language? (1) mi ki hm (2) kl dv jo (3) to dv tu (4) ty dv ki (5) dv mi ki 226. What is the code for ‘satellite’ in the given code language? (1) la (2) ki (3) si (4) bp (5) jo 227. What is the code for ‘earth’ in the given code language? (1) mi (2) si (2) dv (4) bp (5) tu 228. What does the code ‘hm’ stand for in the given code language? (1) earth

BPRE–65

(2) Either ‘navigation’ or ‘gone’ (3) Either ‘moon’ or ‘through’ (4) through (5) moon 229. Which of the following may stand for ‘jo wk la’ in the given code language? (1) launch in orbit (2) orbit the moon (3) orbit in circle (4) satellite in navigation (5) orbit moon closely Directions (230–234) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: In alphabetical series A - Z letter except vowels is assigned a different number from 1-6 (for example -B is coded as 1, C-2..... H-6) and again those numbers get repeated (for example - J-1, K-2...... and so on). Also each vowel is coded with different letters - p, q, r, s and t respectively. As per the code language, ECONOMIC ROW is written as “@2s5s4r@ &s&” and WE WIN is written as “q6 &r&”. Besides the above example, following operations are to be applied for coding the words given in the questions below. (i) If first letter is consonant and last letter is vowel then the codes of both of them will be interchanged. (ii) If both first and last letters are vowels then they are to be coded as $. (iii) If the first letter of a word is vowel and the last letter is consonant then both are to be coded as @. (iv) If both first and last letters are consonants then they are to be coded as &. (If the word does not satisfy the conditions given above then the letters of that word are to be coded as per the directions given above). (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Main Exam) 18.11.2018)

230. What is the code for “IMAGE”? (1) &p54& (2) $4p5$ (3) rp54q (4) s612r (5) None of these 231. What is the code for “ROAR”? (1) 2sp2 (2) $ps$ (3) &s5$ (4) &sp& (5) None of these

CODING / DECODING 232. What is the code for “OASIS”? (1) sp3r3 (2) &p3r& (3) sp&r5 (4) @p3r@ (5) None of these 233. What is the code for “INSURANCE”? (1) &53t2p52& (2) r53t2p52q (3) $53t2p52$ (4) @53t2p52@ (5) None of these 234. What can be the word for “&p6q2&”? (1) Reader (2) Rotten (3) Papers (4) Pokers (5) Reality 235. How is “home” written in a certain code language? Statement I: “go to home” is written as tsa la da “and” on the home” is written as “ni da ka” Statement II: “way to market” is written as “sh ma pi” and “way to home” is written as “da pi ma” (1) Data in either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question (2) Data in only statement II is sufficient to answer the question (3) Data in only statement I is sufficient to answer the question (4) Data in statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to answer the question (5) Data in statement I and statement II together are sufficient to answer the question (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Main Exam) 18.11.2018)

Directions (236-240): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : In a certain code language., “Every human has virtues” is written as “&a18 ?u23 +v11 @i45” “Honesty is the best policy” is written as “>h10 /o55 # e73 =s19/ o55” “Ethical moral society” is written as “$o19 *t39 $o3” “Dynamism and values of culture“ is written as” h10 $o19 (2) @i45 $o13 (3) ?u23 $o19 (4) ?u23 $o13 (5) &a18 *t39 237. What is the code for “Best Culture”? (1) >h10 h10 $o19 (3) #e73 $o13 (4) >h10 $o13 (5) = s19 *t39 240. What is the code for “Every Dynamism”? (1) @i45 *f29 (2) ?u23 h10 Moral ⇒ $o13 240. (3) Every ⇒ +v11 Dynamism ⇒ &y49 241. (3) P E O P L E R H S T O G +2 +3 +4 +4 +3 +2 U S I E N U S P E A K S +2 +3 +4 +4 +3 +2 Therefore, U H G S Q F S E C O N D +2 +3 +4 +4 +3 +2 (242-246) :

E $

P A P E R S Condition (iv) is applicable 235. (1) From statement I go

to

on

the

home

sa

home From statement II

ni

da

way to market

sh

ma pi

way to

da

home

virtues @i45 best policy #e73 /o55

Dynamism and values of culture &y 49 h10 society $o19

la

da ka

pi ma

BPRE–90

for

dance

prize

awarded

vb

dr

cs

for

the

best

choreographer

lt

vb

ua

mq

the

prize

ph

ez

medal

awarded

on

cs

yn

kl

distribution fj

ph

held lt

distribution

ez

CODING / DECODING 242. (3) best ⇒ mq prize ⇒ ph Now, choreographer ⇒ ua for ⇒ vb 243. (1) dance ⇒ dr The code for ‘show’ may be ‘xw’. 244. (2) awarded ⇒ cs 245. (5) lt ⇒ the 246. (4) medal ⇒ yn distribution ⇒ ez yesterday ⇒ og Now, yesterday ⇒ og held ⇒ fj on ⇒ kl (247–251) : ● The code for each word consists of three elements : a symbol, a letter and a number. ● There are two types of symbols : $ and %. The symbol denotes number of letters in the given word. If the number of letters is even, symbol $ has been used and if the number of letters is odd, symbol % has been used. ● The letter in the code is based on the opposite letter of the second letter from the right end. ● The number in the code is the position number of the third letter from the left end. Earth : (i) Number of letters : 5 (Odd) ⇒ % (ii) Second letter from the right end ⇒ t Its opposite letter is G. (iii) Third letter from the left end ⇒ r Its position number is 18. Thus, code for Earth is % G18. The codes for the other words are as follows : Laughs ⇒ $S21 With ⇒ $G20 Flowers ⇒ %I15

Become What

You

(252–256) :

$Z1 %L21 %E12

Reach

Your

Own Stars

$F21 %D14 %I1

247. (2) Wisdom : (i) Number of letters = 6 (Even) ⇒ $ (ii) Second letter from the right end = O Its opposite letter is L. (iii) Third letter from the left end ⇒ S = 19 Therefore, Wisdom ⇒ $L19 248. (4) $Z1 ⇒ What

went

for

picnic

rm

ub

az

enjoyed

yesterday qc

picnic

with

friends

dv

rm

fh

nk

Believe

$N3

%X1

249. (1) Imagination : (i) Number of letters = 11 (Odd) ⇒ % (ii) Second letter from the right end ⇒ O Its opposite letter is L. (iii) Third letter from the left end ⇒ a ⇒ 1 Therefore, Imagination ⇒ %L1 250. (3) % ⇒ Odd number of letters I ⇒ Its opposite letter is R. 3⇒C Therefore, %I3 ⇒ Victory 251. (1) Dreams : (i) Number of letters = 6 (Even) ⇒ $ (ii) Second letter from the right end ⇒ m Its opposite letter is N. (iii) Third letter from the right end ⇒ e = 5 Humanity : (i) Number of letters = 8 (Even) ⇒ $ (ii) Second letter from the right end ⇒ t Its opposite letter is G. (iii) Third letter from the left end ⇒ m = 13 Therefore, Dreams ⇒ $N5 Humanity ⇒ $G13

yesterday

friends

tl

xe

met

for

wj

tl

met together

movie there io

252. (1) nk ⇒ enjoyed/with 253. (2) went ⇒ ub movie ⇒ io Now, friends ⇒ dv there ⇒ wj 254. (3) together ⇒ xe for ⇒ qc The code for ‘dinner’ may be ‘vi’. 255. (4) met ⇒ tl 256. (5) rm ⇒ picnic ‘ef’ may stand for ‘in’.

BPRE–91

az

dv

qc

CODING / DECODING (257–261) :

(267–271) :

the

box

is

filled

jr

sm

aq

eb

Live Live

only

one

filled

can

eb

il

kw

vc

can

is

only

brown

sm

vc

po

il

the

board

is

box

sm

dh

aq

jr

257. (3) dh ⇒ board 258. (3) filled ⇒ eb 259. (3) il ⇒ can/only 260. (5) one ⇒ kw brown ⇒ po

Like

A

Good

constructed high

A

King

Last

King

jx

ve

gl

fu

rise

in

the

sky

mo

gl

ba

hy

constructed

in

recent

years

dn

cz

ve

ba

over

the

past

years

rl

dn

ps

mo

mu

pe

ka

su

ka

pe

ke

na

da ku

ke

ra

mu

su

267. (4) Good Day ⇒ da ku The code for ‘Was’ may be ‘pa’. 268. (5) Good ⇒ da/ku King ⇒ ke 268. (3) A ⇒ su Day ⇒ da What ⇒ de Now, What ⇒ de Good ⇒ ku King ⇒ ra 270. (1) na ⇒ Be 271. (2) ka ⇒ Live (272 – 276) : pay

charge

government function

building

ra

pe

Today

Day

officers

rise

frame

tax

13

60

33 11

army

50

protect

policy

85

tax

72

84 60

tax

15 60

84 17

public

pay

police

protect

public

85

84 20

officers

execute function

13

33 23

politicians frame policy protect

country

272. (1) 84 ⇒ public 50 ⇒ frame 12 ⇒ country 273. (4) 11 ⇒ government 38 ⇒ charge 84 ⇒ public 274. (5) politicians ⇒ 18 pay ⇒ 72 officers ⇒ 33 275. (2) army ⇒ 15 protect ⇒ 85 police ⇒ 20 276. (3) government ⇒ 11 officers ⇒ 33 pay ⇒ 72

BPRE–92

38 72

public

army

262. (4) constructed ⇒ ve 263. (4) sky ⇒ hy The code for ‘blue’ may be ‘gx’. 264. (2) recent ⇒ cz rise ⇒ gl 265. (3) ba ⇒ in 266. (5) years ⇒ dn high ⇒ fu over ⇒ ps Now, the ⇒ mo past ⇒ rl building ⇒ jx

Last

Like

Like

Be

is ⇒ sm The code for ‘blue’ may be ‘ng’. 261. (5) the ⇒ aq/jr (262–266) :

Today

50 17

18

15

85

12

CODING / DECODING 277. (3)

3

H O U S

6

4

2

8

E S

L U A W I W

9 +4 NV

F T D L H F Condition (iv) is applicable. 278. (1)

5 K

2 L

1 G

4 D

3

NV +4 NV +4

7

F

The code has been generated on the following pattern : Consonant + 4 ⇒ Code Vowel ⇒ Next Vowel (NV) as code Therefore,

K

Condition (iv) is applicable. 279. (4)

3

9

2

6

4

8

A

B

L

T

D

A

D E C I

D E

H I G O H I +4 NV +4

Condition (ii) is applicable. 280. (5)

NV

2

7

9

6

5

4

D

R

B

T

K

D

+4 NV

SBI PO EXAMS

Condition (iii) is applicable. 281. (2)

7

2

5

6

(1–6) : a lw a ys crea te n ew id ea s

3

8

ideeaass a n d id

cre ate though ts

A L K T F A Condition (ii) is applicable. (282–284) : B:A+B ●A ●A | B : A – B ●A $ B : A × B ●A @ B : A ÷ B 282. (2) (S|C) $ 100 @ C ⇒ (S – C) × 100 ÷ C 283. (1) MA @ CA $ 100

n ew

and

tfa

thho u g h ts and

insights

gi m a

ri

m a jo b a ki

b etter solution s

sha g i

ri

ri

to

tfa

tfa

1. (3) The code for ‘ideas’ is ‘gi’ 2. (4) The code ‘fa’ stands for ‘and’ 3. (2) fa ⇒ and lo ⇒ may be code for innovate ba ⇒ create 4. (2) The code for ‘new’ is ‘ri’ 5. (4) insights ⇒ jo always ⇒ sha better ⇒ ki/to

MA × 100 CA 284. (5) (P 2 | P 1) @ P 1 $ 100

6. (1) The code for ‘thoughts’ is ‘ma’ (7–11) :

⇒

⇒

n ethw

ba

economics

bP2 – P1g × 100

is

not

money

ka

la

ho

ga

P1

285. (4) L O C A T E

demand

and

supply

economics

mo

ta

pa

ka

money

makes

only

part

zi

la

ne

ki

economics

zi

mo

ka

ta

P U G E X I +4 NV +4 NV

demand

makes supply

+4 NV

7. (5) The code for ‘money’ is ‘la’.

BPRE–93

CODING / DECODING 20. (3) we ⇒ 2 skip ⇒ & this ⇒ $ 21. (1) skip ⇒ & 22. (2) can ⇒ 4 skip ⇒ & that part ⇒ 3 9

8. (5) The code for ‘supply’ is either ‘mo’ or ‘ta’ 9. (1) demand ⇒ ‘mo’ or ‘ta’ only ⇒ ‘ne’ or ‘ki’ The code for ‘more’ may be ‘xi’ 10. (2) and ⇒ pa money ⇒ la The code for ‘work’ may be ‘tu’ 11. (4) The code for ‘makes’ is ‘zi’ 12. (4) I N S T E A D

HMRUFBE –1 –1 –1 +1 +1 +1 +1

(23-24) :

(I) she likes apples

pic

sip

dip

(II) parrot

dip

pic

tif

tif

sip

dip

likes apples lots

(III) she likes

parrots

nit

23. (3) The code for ‘parrot’ is ‘tif’ 24. (2) (I) she likes apples (II) parrot likes apples lot

OGQBTFE

pic sip dip dip pic tif nit

The code for ‘parrot’ may be ’tif’ or ’nit’.

–1 –1 –1 +1 +1 +1 +1

(I) she

likes apples parrots

(II) she likes

pic sip dip tif sip dip

The code for parrot is ‘tif’. Thus, statement (II) is not necessary. (25–28) :

Therefore,

CNTCMFT –1 –1 –1 +1 +1 +1 +1

no

no

game played

rules

ro

sa

bi

ka

now

ka

za

bi

te

no

rules

given

ro

fo

ce

ka

now

we

were

given

ge

te

fo

li

13. (2) now ⇒ te 14. (4) game ⇒ bi 15. (1) ce ⇒ why 16. (3) rules ⇒ ro 17. (2) fo ⇒ given 18. (5) we ⇒ ‘ge’ or ‘li’ played ⇒ za simple ⇒ sa can we we that skip

create

lend to

part

that part

& 4 2 $

&

2

9 3 3

5 &

9

loans

more opportunity

banks for

vi

so

tk vi

all

loans

la hi

py

tk

rn

so

mn

dr

py

py

so

fd

py

tk

rn

so

25. (5) The code for ‘lend’ is either ‘tk’ or ‘vi’. 26. (3) Either ‘hi’ or ‘fd’ is the code of ‘for’. 27. (1) create more opportunity ⇒ la mn dr to ⇒ rn apply for ⇒ hi fd, loans ⇒ so 28. (4) banks ⇒ py (29–32) : all

banks

lend

loans

lend to

loans

all

create more opportunity

apply banks for

skip this

19. (5) that ⇒ 3 or 9

loans

banks

skip

was

lend

apply

why

(18-22) :

banks

banks

(13-18) : simple game

all

loans

vi

so

tk vi la hi

mn

dr

py

so

29. (5) The code for ‘lend’ is either ‘tk’ or ‘vi’. 30. (3) Either ‘hi’ or ‘fd’ is the code of ‘for’. 31. (1) create more opportunity ⇒ la mn dr to ⇒ rn apply for ⇒ hi fd loans ⇒ so 32. (4) banks ⇒ py

BPRE–94

py fd

CODING / DECODING (33–37) :

good

time

invest

to

money

only

work

buy

good

buy

stuff

bo

nj

kw

sy

ta

ge

mr

money

ta

fp

mr

ux

only

kw

and

and

sy time

bo

rd

fp

46. (4) shouted ⇒ bu ate ⇒ sh The code for ‘and’ may be ‘gy’. 47. (1) carrot ⇒ vg (48–52) : economic

growth

growth developing

33. (3) to ⇒ nj 34. (1) buy good ⇒ kw bo 35. (4) only ⇒ fp time ⇒ sy and money ⇒ ta mr 36. (2) stuff ⇒ rd 37. (5) invest ⇒ ge time ⇒ sy to ⇒ nj work ⇒ ux

conditions

kids is

teaching kids

down

ho je

ms bp kx cn dr

trend

bp

risk ⇒ zy

kj

te hy

tough

dp

op

cs mb

cs

re

mb gr

huge efforts

like

gi te ku ho

developing ⇒ ho

dp

huge

task required

economic conditions agenda

te

risk ⇒ zy Therefore, economic ⇒ ms

teaching

is

heart

country

cn fa ms

48. (4) slows ⇒ fa

(38–42) : efforts required in

developing

of

down

slows

hy kj

re

ba

down ⇒ cn 49. (3) conditions ⇒ bp of country ⇒ ku gi 50. (5) growth ⇒ te The code for ‘improve’ may be ‘cs’. 51. (2) kx ⇒ like/trend 52. (1) agenda ⇒ je 53. (4)

job

38. (2) kj ⇒ required/efforts 39. (4) teaching ⇒ dp

requires

expertise in

expertise

la nu si

area

li bo

la

40. (1) kids ⇒ cs/mb

requires

41. (5) in ⇒ te task ⇒ ba 42. (3) tough ⇒ op heart ⇒ gr The code for ‘quite’ may be ‘uc’.

rescue bugs carrot

shouted for all ate

the all

rescue

pr

co

54. (4) out of order

ja bi gf

order of court

st gf ja

out in court

dc st bi

ly bu

bugs

ke

mt co

rx

carrots

vg

rx ke

sh

for pretty Cinderella

inspection

si dm bo

inspection ⇒ dm

(43–47) : Cinderella

area

ly

pr

vg

The code for ‘order’ is either ‘ja’ or ‘gf’. 55. (5)

as

economic growth

43. (3) pr ⇒ Cinderella/for 44. (2) the ⇒ mt pretty ⇒ as

growth is

registered

registered

expected expected

qi number

Thus, the code for ‘economic’ is ‘jo’.

45. (5) bugs ⇒ either ‘ke’ or ‘rx’

BPRE–95

ve jo qi lo mn

lo ve pr

CODING / DECODING 56. (3) C R Y S T A L

E U C X Z H T +2 +3 +4

60. (4) i n s u r a n c e ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ $ 5 3 w 2 c 5 2 $ Condition (ii) is applicable. (61–65) : (i) T

+5 +6

h e → @ h 08 e e t i n g → l e 48

M

+7 +8

Therefore,

F I G M E N T

H L K R K U B +2

a

d

journed→$

a

b

ruptly→#

(ii) S

i

nce→%

i 24

I

n

dia→%

n 24

g

a

ined→–

I

n

ternet→#

(iii) S

c

ientists→&

h

a

ve→*

d

i

b

a

cteria→#

(iv) C

u

rrent→l

d 80

b 63

+3 +4 +5 +6 +7

a 35 n 63 c 99

+8

a 15

(57–60) :

1

2

3

4

5

6

B

C D

F

G

H

J

K

L

M N

P

Q R

S

T

W

X

Z

Y

V

A, E, I, O, U ⇒ g, w, q, c, k e g

l 3

e g

c 2

t 4

i k

o q

s t a r t 3 4 c 2 4

n 5

l 3

n e 5 g

i k

v 5

e g

w 6

u

n

d

e

r

p

r

o

c

e

s

s

w

5

3

g

2

6

2

q

2

g

3

3

57. (4) g l o b a ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ & 3 q 1 c Condition (iv) is applicable. 58. (1) t i t l e ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ g k 4 3 4 Condition (i) is applicable. 59. (3) a d v i s e ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ @ 3 5 k 3 g Condition (iii) is applicable.

l ↓ &

r ↓ @

s c o v er e d → @

a 63 u 48

e

c

onomic→#

s

c

enario→#

f

i

ne→*

i 99

c 63 c 63

i 15

61. (3) gained ⇒ – a 35 62. (5) Since ⇒ % i 24 meeting ⇒ l e 48 fine ⇒ * i 15 63. (2) & c 99 ⇒ scientists @ i 99 ⇒ discovered # n 63 ⇒ internet @ h o 8 ⇒ the 64. (1) economic ⇒ # c 63 internet ⇒ # n 63 65. (5) current ⇒ l u 48 (66–68) : The code has been generated by taking the immediate next letter of the first letter and writing the number of letters in the word. Entire ⇒ F6 Money ⇒ N5 Board ⇒ C5 Perfect ⇒ Q7 Sleeve ⇒ T6

BPRE–96

CODING / DECODING Washing ⇒ X7 World ⇒ X5 Stories ⇒ T7 Moving ⇒ N6 Partly ⇒ Q6 Falls ⇒ G5 Objects ⇒ P7 66. (1) Radio +1↓ S5 67. (3) Rising +1↓ S6 +1↓ Normal +1↓ O6 68. (5) They +1↓ U4 Forward +1↓ G7 T –1↓ S Number of letters ⇒ 5 South or Stone

(69-72) :

(73–77) : (D + F + N + S) – (E + E + E)

⇒ (4 + 6 + 14 + 19) – (5 + 5 + 5) ⇒ 43 – 15 = 28 (F + F + C + T) – (E + E)

⇒ (6 + 6 + 3 + 20) – (5 + 5) ⇒ 35 – 10 = 25 73. (4) (S + P + C + L) – (E + I + A) = (19 + 16 + 3 + 12) – (5 + 9 + 1) = 50 – 15 = 35 ⇒ D 74. (1) (C + L + G + Y) – (E + O + O) = (3 + 12 + 7 + 25) – ( 5 + 15 + 15) = 47 – 35 = 12 ⇒ A 75. (5) (C + N + M + Y) – ( E + O + O) = (3 + 14 + 13 + 25) – ( 5 + 15 + 15) = 55 – 35 = 20 ⇒ E 76. (3) (Q + T + N) – (E + U + A + I + O) = (17 + 20 + 14) – (5 + 21 + 1 + 9 + 15) = 51 – 51 = 0 ⇒ C 77. (1) (N + T + N + L) – (A + I + O + A) = (14 + 20 + 14 + 12) – (1 + 9 + 15 + 1) = 60 – 26 = 34 ⇒ A

RBI GRADE–B/NABARD GRADE–A OFFICER EXAMS (1–6) : Weapons hidden in town ¾® white black yellow red Ready weapons for attack ¾® hidden

roam

around

the

hills

mu

pa

jl

ko

hills

on

left

side

el

rf

pa

nt

left

to

roam

alone

jl

dg

el

hv

for

grey

indigo red green

own safety ¾® silver grey

violet white

own town under attack ¾® violet blue indigo black

1. (3) ready ⇒ green 2. (1) silver ⇒ safety 3. (5) black ⇒ town; ‘pink’ may be code for ‘risk’. yellow ⇒ in 4. (2) attack ⇒ indigo 5. (1) hidden ⇒ white; weapons ⇒ red ‘orange’ may be code for ‘all’. 6. (4) own ⇒ violet demand and supply market ¾® pa ni de re

alone

for

the

journey

bx

ko

oy

dg

Market needs more demand ¾® de ja ni fe

(7–12) : Supply demand is 69. (4) hills ⇒ pa 70. (3) for ⇒ oy alone ⇒ dg discovery ⇒ sz Now, discovery ⇒ sz to ⇒ hv journey ⇒ bx 71. (1) el ⇒ left ko ⇒ the 72. (2) side ⇒ rf/nt

related ¾® le de re ab

More related to economics ¾® ka ha ab ja

7. (5) The code for ‘economics’ is either ‘ka’ or ‘ha’. 8. (2)

re

ab

ni

supply related market 9. (4) more ⇒ ja 10. (1) market ⇒ ni needs ⇒ fe more ⇒ ja The code for ‘customers’ may be ‘sa’.

BPRE–97

CODING / DECODING 11. (2) needs ⇒ fe 12. (1) demand ⇒ de needs ⇒ fe supply ⇒ re (13–17) :

23. (1) ab ⇒ honour 24. (3) fq mz vh

economy

receiving

very

very

essence of

fast

money

of

banks in industry

fast

va

economy

su gy

in banks

bt ks

jo ni pa

pa

lo

ks bt

su

13. (3) su ⇒ of 14. (1) It is clear that the code for ‘essence’ is ‘lo’. 15. (4) essence ⇒ lo of ⇒ su money ⇒ gy 16. (5) economy ⇒ ‘jo’ or ‘pa’ in ⇒ ‘bt’ or ‘ks’ industry ⇒ dm 17. (1) fast ⇒ va (18-20) :

work

is

is

work

work

for

for

important today

money

tx

there

now

ne

joy

only

oj

only

joy

oj

ne

zu

ht

yd

an

yd

fq

army

worth defense

defense by army

25. (5) received highest ⇒ jo la rainfall ⇒ oa Therefore, rainfull ⇒ oa for ⇒ pb The code for agriculture may be ‘zs’. (26–30) :

jo

va

dm

dc

8

2

9

how

art

thou

9

5

8

thou

art

good

5

8

good

and

1

26. 27. 28. 29.

ka ka

mu

un

ft

ne

ft

ds

un

18. (1) money ⇒ ds 19. (3) money ⇒ ds is ⇒ ka important today ⇒ tx zu 20. (5) now there ⇒ ht mu is ⇒ ka work ⇒ ne (21–25) :

7 3

thy

thou bad

(5) (2) (3) (1)

The possible code for ‘thy’ is ‘1’, ‘3’ or ‘7’. thou ⇒ 8 how ⇒ 2 thou ⇒ 8 good ⇒ 5 The code for ‘no’ may be ‘0’.

30. (3) F

U

$

%

K

I

E

L

#

L

T

E

Therefore,

L

I

F

E

6

★

$

#

(31–35) :

jo

gi

la

sn

highest

civilian

award

received

tn

la

pb

jo

received

for

highest

bravery

dc

ab

sn

tn

bravery

award

an

honour

fq

mz

dc

yd

an

army

worth

defense

economy

work

related

oj

mv

bx

st

bx

oj

dy

employment

today

pk

employment

for

only

el

pk

fd

growth

related

el

dy

gm

work

21. (2) for ⇒ pb civilian ⇒ gi The code for ‘nights’ may be ‘kr’. 22. (4) Civilian ⇒ gi bravery ⇒ tn for ⇒ pb award ⇒ sn The code for ‘army cannot be definitely known.

and

and

is

growth

today

31. (4) related ⇒ mv people ⇒ xd only ⇒ fd Now, people ⇒ xd for ⇒ zn The code for ‘decision’ may be ‘kz’.

BPRE–98

zn mv

CODING / DECODING 32. (3) pk ⇒ employment 33. (1) economy ⇒ st is ⇒ gm The code for ‘boosting’ may be ‘rc’. 34. (2) and work

(45–49) :

⇒ oj bx

work today also important ⇒ qr en oj dy

economics

rt

is important today

qv

ai

nl dm

zu

rt

oy

to know is

study

study

hard

prepare

medium

ai

mj sp

sp

oy tk nl

mj

36. (4) mj ⇒ prepare 37. (3) medium ⇒ tk economics ⇒ ai 38. (1) economics

is

contacts

added

qv ai

important today

nl

dm

early

after

creation

require

to know

economics

contacts

early

35. (5) growth ⇒ el today ⇒ dy (36–40) : prepare

updated

morning

creation

require

updated

tp

rj uk

important

information now

de

45. (1) contacts ⇒ uk 46. (5) morning ⇒ cr require ⇒ de The code for ‘freshness’ may be ‘zq’. 47. (2) early ⇒ tp after ⇒ rj symptoms ⇒ by Therefore, by ⇒ symptoms ra ⇒ added vs ⇒ expertise 48. (4) information ⇒ at/gw 49. (3) updated ⇒ bt creation ⇒ mb 50. (4) C H A R I T

Thus, the code for ‘today’ is ‘qv’. study ⇒ oy 39. (5) hard ⇒ zu 40. (2)

is

distance

to

hd lh dm

fg

work

fertilizer products

organic

waste

disposal of

H

S

A

C

T

O

B

G

T

X

I

S

T

O

+1

li

gs

da

few

available

fo

pz

nb

gs

into

fertilizer

nb

cr

pt

mk

hu

mk

waste

X

H R

Y

Q

N

Therefore,

techniques

farming

Y

–1

D

T farming

R

+1

nl ba

The code for ‘know’ would be ‘rt’. The code for ‘distance’ would be ‘ba’. The code for ‘only’ may be ‘ez’ (41-44) : few organic

D

F

material ⇒ cr

sp

I

cr

Li

(51–55) :

yu

41. (4) few ⇒ gs waste ⇒ mk 42. (2) organic ⇒ cr 43. (3) waste ⇒ mk techniques ⇒ da Therefore the code for ‘managment’ is ‘ ax’ Now, farming ⇒ li fertilizer ⇒ nb management ⇒ ax 44. (1) available ⇒ fo/pz

BPRE–99

R

Y

Q

N

–1 J

I

T

mb ra

X

tp

at gw bt

–1

B

cr uk

mb vs de

expertise

+1

and more

bt

friends

make

life

easy

gk

nj

om

wp

good

to

have

friends

ew

ir

nj

uc

good

form

for

life

zy

gk

ir

th

easy

form

of

bonding

ls

th

fv

om

CODING / DECODING friends ⇒ nj make ⇒ wp life ⇒ gk easy ⇒ om good ⇒ ir to have ⇒ ew uc form ⇒ th for ⇒ zy of bonding ⇒ ls fv 51. (1) gk ⇒ life 52. (5) friends ⇒ nj of ⇒ ls/fv have

years

for

zy

hb

uc

53. (2) several

years

hb ad

Now, to ⇒ ew several ⇒ ad 54. (4) good ⇒ ir 55. (3) bonding ⇒ ls/fv form ⇒ th The code for ‘promote’ may be ‘yi’

way

for

your

bus

cp

wy

ri

md

make

way

for

bus

fu

wy

md

cp

own

food

no

way

md

ne

tu

ja

61. (3) bus ⇒ cp/wy 62. (3) own food ⇒ tu ja our ⇒ su Now, make ⇒ fu our ⇒ su way ⇒ md 63. (5) no ⇒ ne (64–68) :

payment bank got license (56–90) :

ak

sm

license

applied

to

authorities

li

tc

sm

zh

yet dj

to

receive

ge

work

result

hard

tg

za

kp

trial

win

smart

fu

lo

cx

result

out

election

mn

dw

za

bring

policy

politics

wd

pk

by

work

smart

policy

tg

lo

wd

voters

jq

mn

gt

ap

dj

payment tc

vb

list bank

receive

new

status

ge

nr

ak

fo

56. (1) payment ⇒ dj status ⇒ nr deleted ⇒ kw bank ⇒ ak account ⇒ yx Now, deleted new account ⇒ kw fo yx 57. (3) tc ⇒ to ap ⇒ got 58. (5) license ⇒ sm The code for ‘renewed’ may be ‘oq’. 59. (2) applies ⇒ zh/li 60. (4) license ⇒ sm got ⇒ ap new status ⇒ nr fo

(61–63) :

make

your

ri

fu

own food ja

tu

out

smart

election

list

jq

lo

dw

voters

smart

win

lo

fu

gt

bring democracy election 64. (5) voters ⇒ gt win ⇒ fu election ⇒ dw 65. (3) lo ⇒ smart jq ⇒ list gt ⇒ voters 66. (1) smart ⇒ lo voters ⇒ gt hard ⇒ kp democracy ⇒ ri 67. (4) work ⇒ tg 68. (2) bring ⇒ pk politics ⇒ by out ⇒ mn trial ⇒ cx

BPRE–100

pk

dw ri

CODING / DECODING C

INSURANCE EXAMS 1. (3) The common letters in VIBRANT and RENT are RNT. Therefore, RNT ⇒ w s p Now, E ⇒ m T⇒p A⇒f h and g may be codes for X and L. 2. (4)

C R A F T ⇒ q w x n g

your trip customised good

make

trip be

interesting

customised

trip always good me

happy

de la

pa

ni

ha ni

ta

de

ta

ka

ni

fa

ka ro

pa na

6. (3) The code far ‘always’ is ‘fa’. 7. (1) pa ⇒ make ni ⇒ trip de ⇒ your ha ⇒ be 8. (4) good ⇒ ka trip ⇒ ni

always ⇒ fa interesting ⇒ la 9. (2) The code for ‘make’ is ‘pa’. 10. (5) ‘ta’ represents ‘customised’.

D

M

–1

O

–1

Therefore, J

L

I

–1

K

–1

12. (4)

F

R

A

M

+1

Q

E

B

L

D

O

A

L

C

+1

K

E

–1

B

–1

M A S T E R ⇒ bn p q v x SE COND ⇒abjnow Now, MATR⇒pqvx COND⇒ajow In the code for NORTH, there would be two letters each from the codes for MATR and COND while one letter would be different. Therefore, NORTH ⇒ amvwx (6–10) : your

P

–1

SCO PE ⇒hslmp P ⇒ h or m UR ⇒ je/ja/ea E ⇒ s/l/p Therefore, IMPURE ⇒ s a j m r g 4. (4) COLUMN ⇒ a i o q r w BIRTH ⇒ g m t v x The letters L and N are common in COLUMN and LENGTH. Similarly, the letters T and H are common in BIRTH and LENGTH. Thus, in the code for LENGTH, there would be two letters each from the codes for COLUMN and BIRTH while two letters would be different. Therefore, LENGTH ⇒ kmn rvw 5. (3)

B

–1 –1

N

FA T H ER ⇒ px q w k n Therefore, C ⇒ g The code for SCRIPT ⇒ lnq g v f 3. (2) D E C O U R ⇒ j p s l e a

make

E

11. (2)

K

–1

P

J

B

Therefore, P

R

–1 Q

(13-16) :

I

D

+1 O

he

E

–1

J

needs

D

C

some

help

tu

some

le

needs medicine and some

know now

now

and where

13. (2) da ⇒ medicine tu ⇒ some ja ⇒ he 14. (4) le ⇒ needs 15. (5) he ⇒ ja know ⇒ pa where ⇒ ‘jo’ or ‘ze’

tu

si

go

jo ze

si

ki

16. (3) help ⇒ gi 17. (1) now ⇒ gi medicine ⇒ da help ⇒ gi The code of ‘could’ may be ‘pi’.

4

5

1

come to college

7

3

0

college

5

college the

was fun

Clearly, ‘7’ stands for ‘college’. 19. (3) M = 13; 13 – 4 = 9 E = 05; 05 – 4 = 1 K = 11; 11 – 4 = 7 L = 12; 12 – 4 = 8 F = 06; 06 – 4 = 2 J = 10; 10 – 4 = 6 Therefore, I = 09; 09 – 4 = 5 G = 07; 07 – 4 = 3 H = 08; 08 – 4 = 4 E = 05; 05 – 4 = 1 D = 04; 04 – 4 = 0

BPRE–101

da

ki

1

was in

le

tu pa gi

7

the

ja

help

4

18. (3) in

gi

7 9

CODING / DECODING 20. (4) P

28. (2) his ⇒ me experiences ⇒ li The code for ‘working’ may be ‘kj’. (29–32) :

A R E N T

↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ B D F G J K C H I L D R E N

↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓

smart

M O X Q U F G J Therefore, R E P R I N T

coaching

summer

mo

in summer

classes

ph rd

es na

for students

jt

gk

mo

↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓

F G B F X J K 21. (4) The word has been divided into two equal halves. Then, the letters of each part have been written in reverse order.

S U B S T I

T U T I O N

coaching smart

for

badminton

classes

na

students

managed well

29.

(5) na ⇒ for/students

30.

(1) summer ⇒ mo

jt

es

cz gk

bt

ph xl

(4) badminton ⇒ bt classes ⇒ gk 32. (3) well ⇒ cz/xl (33–38) :

31.

I T S B U S Similarly,

N O I T U T

D I S T R I

B U T I O N

I R T S I D

N O I T U B

22. (2) 1 2 13 12 1 3 1 21 3 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ A B M L A C A U C 1 5 20 ↓ ↓ ↓ A E T 12 13 2 1 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ L M B A 1 21 3 21 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ A U C U 23. (3) The letters have been written in the reverse order in the code. KINDLE ⇒ ELDNIK Therefore, EXOTIC ⇒ CITOXE 24. (3) A ⇒ 1 = 1 × 2 – 1 B⇒3=2×2–1 E⇒9=5×2–1 T ⇒ 39 = 20 × 2 – 1 B E A T ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ 3 9 1 39 (25—28) : shared

his

Valuable

valuable

contribution of

experiences are his

shared

experiences

contribution of

teacher

teacher

success

sa

dy

li

ha

ro

li

sa

ps

night

cheek

black

two

kind

study

cap

two

lab

night

cheek

work

actor cap

stage

task study

stage

39

35

36

97

lie

92

56

25

84

cap

35

16

56

35

77

36

83

56

47

night kind

glass

33. (3) 47 ⇒ glass 34. (1) cap ⇒ 56 black ⇒ 97 two ⇒ 84 35. (2) 84 ⇒ two 25 ⇒ lie 92 ⇒ study/kind 36. (4) task, night, cheek, black, stage, two, cap, lie, lab and glass. 38. (3) M I C R O

W I D E S

me ha

kt

dy

me

ro

task

kt

cn

Therefore, S T A I N S

25. (3) dy ⇒ teacher 26. (1) contribution ⇒ ha/kt 27. (4) sa ⇒ valuable

70 83

39

84

42 70

92

37. (5) lie ⇒ 25 stage ⇒ 70 Sum = 25 + 70 = 95 two ⇒ 84 cap ⇒ 56 Sum = 84 + 56 = 140 Required ratio = =

+1 –1 +1 –1 +1

N

+1 –1 +1 –1 +1 +1 –1 +1 –1 +1 –1

X

T

95 140

19 = 19 : 28 28

H D Q P

H E D T

S

B H O R

❐❐❐

BPRE–102

CODING / DECODING

MODEL EXERCISES 1. If CIGARETTE is coded as GICERAETT, then DIRECTION will be coded as (1) IRDCTIONE (2) NOIETCRID (3) RIDTCENOI (4) NORTECDII (5) None of these 2. If DELHI can be coded as CCIDD. How would you code BOMBAY? (1) AMJXVS (2) MJXVSU (3) AJMTVT (4) WXYZAX (5) None of these 3. In a certain code, PROSE is written as PPOQE. How would LIGHT be written in that code? (1) LIGFT (2) LGGHT (3) LGGFT (4) JIEHR (5) None of these 4. If Z = 52 and ACT is equal to 48, then BAT will be equal to (1) 39 (2) 41 (3) 44 (4) 46 (5) None of these 5. BRIDGE is written as EULGJH in a certain code. How will FRUIT be written in that code? (1) IUXLW (2) IVLXW (3) IUWXL (4) IUXVT (5) None of these 6. ENGLAND is written as 1234526 and FRANCE as 785291. How will GREECE be written in this coding scheme? (1) 381191 (2) 381911 (3) 394132 (4) 562134 (5) None of these 7. If table is called chair, chair is called cot, cot is called pot and Pot is called filter. Where does a person sit? (1) Chair (2) Cot (3) Pot (4) Filter (5) None of these Directions (8-13) : Read the following and answer these questions : In a certain code language, 481 means sky is blue. 246 means sea is deep and 698 means sea looks blue. 8. What number is the code for ‘sky’? (1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 1 (4) 9 (5) None of these 9. What number is the code for ‘is’? (1) 8 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 2 (5) None of these

10. What number is the code for ‘looks’? (1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 9 (5) None of these 11. What number is the code for ‘sea’? (1) 2 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 4 (5) None of these 12. What number is the code for ‘blue’? (1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 1 (4) 9 (5) None of these 13. What number is the code for ‘deep’? (1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 1 (5) None of these 14. In a certain code, a number 13479 is written as AQFJL and 2568 is written as DMPN. How is 396824 written in that code? (1) QLPNMJ (2) QLPNMF (3) QLPMNF (4) QLPNDF (5) None of these 15. In a certain code, CALANDER is written as CLANAEDR. How is CIRCULAR written in that code? (1) ICCRLURA (2) CRIUCALR (3) CRIUCLRA (4) CARIUCLR (5) None of these 16. In a certain code, RATIONAL is written as RTANIOLA. How would TRIBAL be written in that code? (1) TRIALB (2) TIRALB (3) TIRLBA (4) TIRABL (5) None of these 17. In a certain code, CHAIR is written as EGCHT. How is AUDIT written in that code? (1) CTFHV (2) CSFHV (3) BTFHV (4) CTEHV (5) None of these 18. In a certain code, CERTAIN is coded as XVIGZRM. How is MUNDANE coded in that language? (1) NFMWZMV (2) VMZWMFN (3) NFMWZMX (4) NFMXZMV (5) None of these Directions (19-23) : In a defence message, GET AWAY, FIRE BACKWARDS, MOVE SLOW is coded as BEN CDCI, QHOE PCTL DCOXU, ZMWE VFMD.

BPRE–103

Based on this coding scheme, spot the codes for the words given in Questions. 19. OVER (1) MWOE (2) MWZO (3) MWEO (4) MWED (5) None of these 20. DEADLY (1) XECXEI (2) XENXFI (3) XECXEI (4) XECXFI (5) None of these 21. REWARD (1) OEDNXE (2) OTDCOX (3) OEDCOX (4) OEDCOU (5) None of these 22. GREAT (1) BOENC (2) BOEQN (3) BOECN (4) BOEHC (5) None of these 23. If SMOOTH is coded as 135579, ROUGH as 975531 and HARD as 9498, then SOFT will be coded as (1) 1527 (2) 1347 (3) 4998 (4) 8949 (5) None of these Directions (24-25) : In a secret way of writing, INDIA HAS WON FIRST GOLD MEDAL is written as JEZJU OUV SEF PJDVB REQZ ITZUQ. Bearing the method in mind, pick up the code from the answer choices for each given word. 24. FOOT (1) PEEB (2) SEEZ (3) BEEB (4) CEEA (5) None of these 25. DIESEL (1) ZJTVTQ (2) ZJEVTQ (3) BZTETV (4) ZJTQVT (5) None of these 26. If the code of ABCDEF is ZYXWVU, then what is the code for PASS? (1) KZHH (2) KHZZ (3) KMHH (4) WZHH (5) None of these 27. In a certain code, CAT is written as SATC and DEAR is written as SEARD. How would SING be written in that code? (1) GNISS (2) SINGS (3) SGNIS (4) BGINS (5) None of these

CODING / DECODING 28. In a certain code language, 134 means Good and Tasty, 478 means see good pictures and 729 means pictures are faint. Which of the following numerical symbols stands for see? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 7 (4) 8 (5) None of these 29. If BRIDGE is written as EULGJH in a certain code, how will FRUIT be written in that code? (1) IUXLW (2) IVLXW (3) IUWXL (4) IUXVT (5) None of these 30. In a certain code, EASE is written as GUCG. How is CUT written in that code? (1) UWE (2) VWE (3) EWU (4) CWF (5) None of these 31. In the following sequence or instructions, 1 stands for Run, 2 stands for Stop, 3 stands for Go, 4 stands for Sit and 5 stands for Wait. If the sequence is continued, which instruction will come next? 44545345314531245 453453 (1) Wait (2) Sit (3) Stop (4) Run (5) None of these 32. In a certain code language, ROAD is written as URDG. How is SWAN written in that code? (1) UXDQ (2) VZCQ (3) VZCP (4) VZDQ (5) None of these 33. PROMISE is coded as 1234567. What should be the code for MISER? (1) 45672 (2) 43672 (3) 76543 (4) 14572 (5) None of these Directions (34-36) : If EFGHIJK is the coded letter representing VUTSRQP, then choose the right code for the words given in the capital letters from the answer choices (1), (2), (3) and (4). 34. HIGH (1) STRS (2) SRTS (3) RSTR (4) RJHR (5) None of these 35. ZERO (1) BUHN (2) AVIM (3) AVIL (4) AVTI (5) None of these

36. GROUP (1) TILFK (3) TILEL (2) TILGH (4) TILHG (5) None of these 37. If NOR is coded as 236, then how should REST be coded in the same code language? (1) 61967 (2) 51958 (3) 61978 (4) 61858 (5) None of these 38. If ‘light’ is called ‘morning’, ‘morning’ is called ‘dark’ ‘dark’ is called ‘night’, ‘night is called ‘sunshine’ and ‘sunshine’ is called ‘dusk’, when do we sleep? (1) Dusk (2) Dark (3) Night (4) Sunshine (5) None of these 39. If A + B = C, D – C = A and E – B – C, then what does D + F stands for? Provide your answer in letter terms as well as in number terms. (1) J & 10 (2) A & 1 (3) C & 3 (4) Q & 17 (5) None of these 40. In a certain code language, ‘3a, 2b, 7c’ means ‘Truth is Eternal’, ‘7c, 9a, 8b, 3a’ means ‘Enmity is not Eternal’ and ‘9a, 4d, 2b, 8b’ means Truth does not perish’. Which of the following means ‘Enmity’ in that language? (1) 3a (2) 7c (3) 8b (4) 9a (5) None of these 41. In a certain code language, ‘po ki top ma’ means ‘Usha is playing cards’, ‘kop ja ki ma’ means Asha is playing tennis’, ‘ki top sop ho’ means ‘they are playing football’ and ‘po sur kop’ means ‘cards and tennis’. Which word in that language means Asha’? (1) ja (2) ma (3) kop (4) top (5) None of these 42. If VICTORY is coded as YLFWRUB, then how can SUCCESS be coded? (1) VXEEIVV (2) VXFFHVV (3) VYEEHVV (4) None of these (5) None of these 43. If in a certain language, TRIANGLE is coded SQHZMFKD, then which word would be coded as DWZLOKD?

BPRE–104

(1) EXAMPLE (2) DISMISS (3) FIGMENT (4) DISJOIN (5) None of these 44. In a certain code language, ‘nee muk pic’ means ‘grave and concern’, ‘ill dic so’ means ‘every body else’ and ‘tur muk so’ means ‘body and soul’. Which of the following would mean ‘every concern’? (1) dic pic (2) pic nee (3) ill nee (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 45. If ACELDNRA stands for CALENDAR, what does LEGIBIEL stands for? (1) LIEGIBLE (2) ELIGIBLE (3) BIGEELIC (4) BCIGEELI (5) None of these 46. In a certain code ROAD is written as URDG. How is SWAN written in that code? (1) UXDQ (2) VZDQ (3) VXDQ (4) VZCQ (5) None of these 47. If table is called chair, chair is called cot, cot is called pot and pot is called filter, where does a person sit? (1) Pot (2) Cot (3) Chair (4) Filter (5) None of these 48. In a certain code, ‘OVER’ is written as ‘$#%* and VIST is written as ‘#+×–. How is SORE written in that code? (1) ×$*% (2) %×$* (3) ×*$% (4) *$*× % (5) None of these 49. In a certain code language, ‘ne ri so’ means ‘good rainy day’, ‘si ne po’ means ‘day is wonderful’ and ‘ri jo’ means ‘good boy’. Which of the following means ‘rainy’ in the code? (1) ne (2) si (3) ri (4) so (5) None of these 50. In a certain code, ‘PEAK’ is written as ‘3512’ and DINE is written as ‘6895’. How is KIND written in that code? (1) 2396 (2) 2896 (3) 2986 (4) 2596 (5) None of these 51. In a certain code, ‘TERMINAL’ is written as SDQLJOBM, How is CREDIBLE written in that code?

CODING / DECODING (1) BQDCJCMF (2) BQDCHAKD (3) DSFEJCMF (4) DSFEHAKD (5) None of these 52. In a certain code, TEACHER’ is written as VGCEJGT. How is CHILDREN written in that code? (1) EJKNEGTP (2) EGKNFITP (3) EJKNFGTO (4) EJKNFTGP (5) None of these 53. In a certain code, ‘BASIC’ is written as ‘DDULE’. How is ‘LEADER’ written in that code? (1) NHCGGU (2) OHDGHU (3) NGCFGT (4) OGDFHT (5) None of these 54. As ‘COUNSEL is to ‘BITIRAK’ so also ‘GUIDANCE’ is to (1) FOHYZJBB (2) HOHYBJBA (3) FPHZZKAB (4) FORHYZJBB (5) None of these 55. If in a certain language, NEOMAN is coded as OGRQFT, which word will be coded as ZKCLUP ? (1) YIZHPJ (2) XIAJSN (3) YJBKTO (4) YIAQKJ (5) None of these 56. The letters L, M, N, O,P Q, R, S and T in their order are substituted by nine integers 1 to 9 in that order. 4 is assigned to P. The difference between P and T is 5. The difference between N and T is 3. What is the integer assigned to N ? (1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 7 (5) None of these 57. In a coded writing, ‘come at once father very ill’ is written as ‘XLNV ZG LMXY UYGSVI EVIB ROO’. What is the corresponding code for ‘mother’? (1) NOGSVI (2) NOTSVI (3) NLGSVI (4) NLGSTI (5) None of these 58. If ‘CONSTABLE’ is coded as 91, what will be the code number for ‘STABLE’? (1) 97 (2) 59 (3) 79 (4) 75 (5) None of these 59. If 3, 1, 11, 5 represents CAKE; 6, 1, 9 12 is FAIL, what represents FIRST ? (1) 9, 18, 6, 19, 20 (2) 6, 18, 9, 19, 20 (3) 6, 9, 18, 19, 20

(4) 18, 19, 20, 9, 6 (5) None of these 60. If 7, 15, 15, 4 is GOOD and 2, 5, 20, 20, 5, 18 is BETTER, what numbers represent BEST? (1) 2, 5, 19, 20 (2) 2, 19, 4, 20 (3) 2, 4, 19, 20 (4) 2, 5, 20, 19 (5) None of these Directions (61–65) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : In a certain code language, ‘more money in market’ is written as ‘zo li aa to’ ‘share in market profit’ is written as ‘vo to je li’ ‘making more profit now’ is written as ‘su je zo ka’ ‘now the market gains’ is written as ‘do li yo su’ 61. What is the code for ‘the share gains money’ in the given code language ? (1) to zo yo do (2) to li su do (3) aa do vo yo (4) yo do ka aa (5) vo je li aa 62. What is the code for ‘making’ in the given code language ? (1) ka (2) su (3) li (4) Either ‘je’ or ‘zo’ (5) Either ‘su’ or ‘ka’ 63. Which of the following may represent ‘loss in share market’ in the given code language ? (1) li je vo to

(2) su li ka vo

(3) vo li zo aa (4) am li vo to (5) do li vo to 64. What does the code ‘yo’ stand for in the given code language ? (1) now (2) the (3) gains

(4) market

(5) Either ‘the’ or ‘gains’ 65. What is the code for ‘now more profit’ in the given code language ? (1) je ka li (2) je su zo (3) to je su (4) zo aa do (5) yo su zo

BPRE–105

Directions (66–70) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : In a certain code language, ‘economy and wealth balance’ is written as ‘gh mk ru st’ ‘wealth of nations depleting’ is written as ‘tl zm ak gh’ ‘taxes balance nations better’ is written as ‘dj ru zm pn’ ‘better to revive economy’ is written as ‘br ht dj st’ (All codes are two letter codes only) 66. What does the code ‘tl’ stand for in the given code language? (1) and (2) Either ‘of’ or ‘depleting’ (3) Either ‘nations’ or ‘taxes’ (4) to (5) taxes 67. Which of the following may possibly represent ‘revive now’ in the given code language? (1) zm ht (2) bt zm (3) ht co (4) br ht (5) br dj 68. What is the code for ‘economy’ in the given code language? (1) mk (2) Either ‘mk’ or ‘ru’ (3) gh (4) dj (5) st 69. What is the code for ‘balance’ in the given code language? (1) st (2) gh (3) ak (4) ru (5) zm 70. Which of the following may represent ‘better generate wealth’ in the given code language? (1) fs gh dj (2) dj mk gh (3) gh pn st (4) gh fs mk (5) xs dj ak 71. In a certain code language, ‘PLOTS’ is written as ‘NJSRQ’, ‘SNACK’ is coded as ‘QLEAI’, how is FUDGE written in that code? (1) DSHEC

(2) DWHKJ

(3) DWHEG

(4) DWHEC

(5) DWHKG Directions (72–76) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : In a certain code language, ‘robots can become lawyers’ is written is ‘ju ac th eg’.

CODING / DECODING ‘all doctors can check’ is written as ‘bd np ju mo’ ‘many doctors and lawyers’ is written as ‘np rt qs ac’ ‘machine check of robots’ is written as ‘eg ik ux bd’ (Note : All codes are two letter codes only) 72. What does the code ‘ac’ stand for in the given code language? (1) robots (2) many (3) lawyers (4) become (5) of 73. If ‘how and many’ is written as ‘qs ws rt’ then what will be the code for ‘how can’? (1) np qs (2) rt ju (3) qs rt (4) ws ju (5) bd ws 74. What is the code for ‘machine’ in the given code language? (1) rt (2) Either ‘eg’ or ‘rt’ (3) bd (4) eg (5) Either ‘ik’ or ‘ux’ 75. What is the code for ‘robots’ in the given code language? (1) ux (2) eg (3) ju (4) Either ‘eg’ or ‘ju’ (5) Either ‘ju’ or ‘ac’ 76. What may be the possible code for ‘will become doctor’ in the given code language? (1) th zi np (2) zi ac bd (3) np th ux (4) zi np bd (5) bd ju ux 77. In a certain code language, “oka peru”, means “fine cloth”, “meta lisa” means “clear water” and “dona lisa peru” means “fine clear weather”. What is the code for the word “weather” in that language? (1) meta (2) oka (3) dona (4) lisa (5) peru Directions (78–79): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: In a certain code language “Live Free Die Well” is written as “bg ph su md”

“Right To Free Life” is written as “va su oh ke” “To Live Make Home” is written as “tl ke ph rn” “Make Your Life Well” is written as “bg ri oh tl” (All the codes are two lettered code only) 78. What is the code for “free life”? (1) bg tl (2) su oh (3) ph ri (4) va ke (5) rn md 79. What does the code “rn ph” stands for ? (1) Home live (2) Well make (3) Your home (4) Life right (5) Make free Directions (80–84) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : In a certain code language, “stay close to moral values” is written as “cap tap map rap lap” “the way to go college” is written as “xip rap lol tip dap” “college gate stay close” is written as “tap nap xip map” “go the moral college” is written as “dap lap xip lol” “stay close go away” is written as “ tap dap zip map” 80. What is code for “the moral college”? (1) lap zip rap (2) zip tip cap (3) zip lol lap (4) tap rap map (5) lap xip lol 81. What does the code “lap zip rap” stand for? (1) moral college stay (2) gate away to (3) college moral value (4) to away moral (5) close the gate 82. What is the code for “stay moral” if the code for “close” is “tap”? (1) map lap (2) tap map (3) lap rap (4) rao lap (5) tap xip 83. What are the code and word for “tip to lap college”? (1) moral rap close zip (2) stay go away the

BPRE–106

(3) way rap moral xip (4) close cap college xip (5) None of these 84. Which of the following may represent “you go to college”? (1) map dap xip rip (2) jap xip dap rap (3) dap xip tap rap (4) rap xip tap map (5) rap xip dap lol Directions (85–86) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : Seven alphabet are arranged from bottom to top in eight boxes numbered 1 to 8. The lowermost box is numbered 1, the box just above it is numbered 2 and so on till the topmost box is numbered 8. T is in an odd numbered box and B is in an even numbered box. The word NET is arranged from bottom to top but not serially. The word LATE is arranged from top to bottom but not serially. The word NANO is arranged from top to bottom but not serially. The word NO is arranged serially from top to bottom. One N is exactly between E and O. There is only one box above the alphabet L. B is exactly between alphabet T and E. 85. What is code for BEAT ? (1) 5341 (2) 4365 (3) 3546 (4) 4563 (5) 4152 86. What does the number group “235764” denote ? (1) BALENO (2) BEATEN (3) NETBAN (4) NETLAB (5) LENTAB Directions (87 - 91): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : In a certain code language, “army protects country” is written as “12 15 85” “politicians frame policy” is written as “50 1 18” “officers execute function” is written as “13 33 23” “police protect public” is written as “ 85 8 20” “public pay tax” is written as “7 8 60” “tax protects policy” sis written as “85 60 1” “frame public army” is written as “50 15 8”

CODING / DECODING “fovernment function tax” is written as “13 60 11” “officers charge pay” is written as “38 7 33” 87. What can be the code for “government officers pay”? (1) 18 – 12 – 33 (2) 11 – 85 – 60 (3) 23 – 13 – 60 (4) 11 – 33 – 7 (5) 18 – 20 – 1 88. What can be the code for “army protects police”? (1) 7 – 38 – 11 (2) 50 – 8 – 12 (3) 15 – 85 – 20 (4) 33 – 13 – 18 (5) 11 – 85 – 12 89. What can be the code for “politicians pay officers”? (1) 38 – 12 – 8 (2) 1 – 33 – 18 (3) 11 – 60 – 13 (4) 15 – 20 – 1 (5) 18 – 7 – 33 90. What can be the words for “11 38 8”? (1) Police frame tax (2) Government charge public (3) Politicians protect tax (4) Officers pay public (5) Army frame charge 91. What can be the words for “8 50 12”? (1) Policy charge police (2) Army execute tax (3) Public frame country (4) Government protect public (5) Police pay Government Directions (92–96) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : The following table represents some words and their codes. The codes are assigned on the basis of some pattern based on addition and subtraction.

Word OFFENCE DEFENCE Code 40 16 Columns P, Q, A, X and Y show some numerical values which form the codes for the words asked. You have to mark the appropriate column as your answer.

P Q A X Y 52 44 29 61 26 45 20 22 9 50 89 28 25 66 44 76 87 8 35 40 6 57 84 31 37 92. What is the code for “VOWEL”? (1) P (2) Q (3) A (4) X (5) Y 93. What is the code for “OXYGEN”? (1) P (2) Q (3) A (4) X (5) Y 94. What is the code for “BIOLOGY”? (1) P (2) Q (3) A (4) X (5) Y 95. What is the code for “AWARDS”? (1) X (2) Q (3) A (4) P (5) Y 96. What is the code for “CHARITY”? (1) P (2) Q (3) A (4) X (5) Y Directions (97 – 101) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : In a certain code language “wealth support yoga” is written as “50 12 9” “health is wealth” is written as “10 7 12” “yoga helps improvement” is written as “15 23 9” “teacher helps wealth” is written as “15 16 12” “teachers are guides” is written as “20 16 11” “wealth is support” is written as “50 12 10” “yoga guides balance” is written as “20 1 9” “happy is health” is written as “7 100 10” “bliss brings happy” is written as “100 25 5” “teachers are bliss” is written as “11 16 25” 97. What is the code for “Yoga is wealth”? (1) 15 50 1 (2) 9 10 12

BPRE–107

(3) 5 25 100 (4) 7 25 100 (5) 9 50 15 98. What is the code for “Happy health is bliss”? (1) 50 9 12 7 (2) 5 7 25 20 (3) 100 23 11 16 (4) 100 7 10 25 (5) 9 15 50 100 99. The code “50 5 1” stands for : (1) Improvement are bliss (2) Teacher is help (3) Support bring balance (4) Happy helps yoga (5) Guide is happy 100. The code “9 1 7” stands for (1) Guide support wealth (2) Wealth helps health (3) Bliss is teacher (4) Guide are happy (5) Yoga balance health 101. What is the resultant of “bliss + support + help + is + happy”? (1) 110 (2) 150 (3) 143 (4) 200 (5) 86

SHORT ANSWERS 1.(3) 5.(1) 9.(3) 13.(2) 17.(1) 21.(3) 25.(1) 29.(1) 33.(1) 37.(3) 41.(1) 45.(2) 49.(4) 53.(1) 57.(3) 61.(3) 65.(2) 69.(4) 73.(4) 77.(3) 81.(4) 85.(2) 89.(5) 93.(1) 97.(2) 101.(4)

2.(1) 6.(1) 10.(4) 14.(4) 18.(1) 22.(3) 26.(1) 30.(2) 34.(2) 38.(4) 42.(2) 46.(2) 50.(2) 54.(1) 58.(2) 62.(1) 66.(2) 70.(1) 74.(5) 78.(2) 82.(1) 86.(4) 90.(2) 94.(3) 98.(4)

3.(3) 7.(2) 11.(3) 15.(2) 19.(3) 23.(1) 27.(2) 31.(4) 35.(3) 39.(1) 43.(1) 47.(2) 51.(1) 55.(1) 59.(3) 63.(4) 67.(3) 71.(1) 75.(2) 79.(1) 83.(3) 87.(4) 91.(3) 95.(4) 99.(3)

4.(4) 8.(3) 12.(1) 16.(3) 20.(4) 24.(1) 28.(4) 32.(4) 36.(1) 40.(3) 44.(4) 48.(1) 52.(4) 56.(1) 60.(1) 64.(5) 68.(5) 72.(3) 76.(1) 80.(5) 84.(2) 88. (3) 92.(5) 96.(3) 100.(5)

CODING / DECODING

EXPLANATIONS 1. (3) CIG is coded as GIC, ARE is coded as ERA and TTE is coded as ETT. Therefore, DIRECTION is coded as RIDTCENOI. 2. (1) Each successive letter of the word DELHI is moved one, two, three, four, five steps backward in alphabetical or der. Hence, BOMBAY will be coded as AMJXVS. 3. (3) Second and fourth letters of the word PROSE are moved two steps in backward direction in alphabetical order. Hence, LIGHT can be coded as LGGFT.

P ¯ P

R

O ¯ O

–2 ¯

P

S

E ¯ Q E

–2 ¯

Then

L ¯ L

I

G H T ¯ –2¯ ¯ G F T

–2 ¯

G

4. (4) The alphabetical position of each letter is doubled. ACT =1 × 2 + 3 × 2 + 20 × 2 = 48 BAT = 2×2+ 1 × 2+ 20 × 2 = 46 5. (1) Each letter of the word is moved three steps in forward direction in alphabetical order. Therefore, FRUIT will be coded as IUXLW. R → 8, E → 1, 6. (1) Codes for G → 3, C → 9, E → 1. Hence, GREECE will be coded as 381191. 7. (2) A person sits on chair, here, chair is cot. So, the person sits on cot.

(8–13) :

4

8

1 ¾®

sky is blue

2

4

6 ¾®

sea is deep

6

9

8 ¾®

sea looks blue

8. (3) Code for Sky = 1 9. (3) Code for Is = 4 10. (4) Code for Looks = 9 11. (3) Code for Sea = 6 12. (1) Code for Blue = 8 13. (2) Code for Deep = 2 14. (4) 396824 will be coded as QLPNDF. 15. (2) Keeping first and last letter as fixed, rest two adjacent letters are reversed. Hence, CIRCULAR will be coded as CRIUCALR. 16. (3) R A T I O N A L — R T A N I O L A 12345678— 132 64587 Hence, TRIBAL will be coded as TIRLBA. 17. (1) First, third and fifth letters move two steps in forward direction, whereas second and fourth letters move one step in backward direction in alphabetical order.

18. (1) C is third from beginning, X is third from last, E is fifth from beginning & V is fifth from the last and so on. Hence, MUNDANE will be coded as NFMWZMV. 19. (3) Code for O → M, V→W, E→ E, R → O. Hence, the code of OVER is MWEO. 20. (4) Codes for D → X, E → E, A → C, D → X,L → F, Y → I. Hence, the code for DEADLY will be XECXFI. 21. (3) REWARD will be coded as OEDCOX. 22. (3) Codes for G→ B, R→ O, E→ E, A → C and T → N. Hence, GREAT will be coded as BOECN. 23. (1) According to question, code for SOFT will be 1527. 24. (1) Codes for F→ P, O → E, T→ B. Hence, code for FOOT will be PEEB. 25. (1) Code for DIESEL is ZJTVTQ. 26. (1) A is first alphabet and Z is last alphabet, B is second from start and Y is second last and so on. Hence, word PASS will be coded as KZHH, 27. (2) Letter S is placed in the beginning for each coding, then first letter is placed at last place, keeping all other letters as it. In the same way, SING will be coded as SINGS. 28. (4) On comparing all the three sentences, we get good = 4, pictures = 7 and see = 8. Hence, see stands for 8. 29. (1) Each letter of the word BRIDGE is moved three steps in forward direction in the alphabetical order. Hence, FRUIT will be coded as IUXLW. 30. (2) The 1st and 4th letters are interchanged. Then, second and third letters are interchanged. After this, each letter is moved two steps in forward direction. Hence, CUT will be coded as VWE. 31. (4) The sequence proceeds as below 4, 45, 453, 4531, 45312, 45, 453, 4531 Hence, the next instruction will be run. 32. (4) Each letter of the word ROAD moves three steps in forward direction in alphabetical order. 33. (1) Codes for P → 1, R→ 2, O → 3, M → 4, I → 5, S →6 and E→ 7. Hence, code for MISER will be 45672. 34. (2) HIGH will be coded as SRTS. 35. (3) ZERO will be coded as AVIL. 36. (1) GROUP will be coded as TILFK. 37. (3) Difference between alphabetical position of N and O is 1 as it is between 2 and 3 and that of 0 & R is 3 as it is between 3 and 6. Hence, REST will be coded as 61978. 38. (4) We sleep in the night. Night is called Sunshine. Hence, we sleep in Sunshine. 39. (1) D’s position in alphabetical order = 4, F’s position = 6. Hence, D + F = 10 which is the position of J. 40. (3) Comparing all the statements “Enmity” will be coded as 8b. 41. (1) ‘Asha’ is coded as ‘ja’, 42. (2) Each letter is coded three steps forward in alphabetical order. Hence, SUCCESS will be coded as VXFFHVV. 43. (1) Each letter of the alphabet moves one step backward inthe alphabetical order.

BPRE–108

CODING / DECODING B

44. (4) nee muk pic ® grave and concern ill

dic

so ® every body else

tur muk so ® body concern ® nee/pic every ® ill/dic

and soul

L

46. (2) R O A D +3 +3 +3 +3 U R D G Similarly,

G

M

I

N

A

L

B B B B B B B B

51. (1) −1 −1 −1 −1 +1 +1 +1 +1 S D Q L J O B M D

I

B

L

E

B B B B B B B B

−1 −1 −1 −1 +1 +1 +1 +1 D

T

E

A

C C

J H

C E

M

F

R

B B B B B B B

52. (4) +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 V G C E J G T C

H

I

L

D

R

E

N

B B B B B B B B

+2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 E

J

K

E

R

C

G

G

U

I

A

N

C

D

E

O

H

Y

Z

J

B

B

55. (1) The pattern is

47. (2) A person sits on a chair. Since, ‘chair’ is called ‘cot’. Our answer is ‘cot’. 48. (1) O V E R → $ # % * V I S T→# + × – ∴S O R E→× $ * % 49. (4) ne ri so → good rainy day ..(i) si ne po → day is wonderful (ii) ri jo → good boy ...............(iii) From (i) and (ii), day → ne From (i) and (iii), good → ri ∴ rainy → so 50. (2) P E A K → 3 5 1 2 D I N E →68 9 5 ∴K→2 I →8 N→9 D→6

Q

H

U

F

V Z D Q

B

D

B B B B B B B B

S W A N

E

A

–1 −6 −1 −5 −1 −4 −1 −3

+3 +3 +3 +3

R

C

54. (1) The pattern is C–1=B O–6=I U–1=T N–5=I S–1=R E–4=A L–1=K

E L I G I B L E

C

E

N

L E G I B I E L

R

I

B B B B B B

C A L EN D A R

E

S

+2 +3 +2 +3 +2 +3

45. (2) A C E L D N R A

T

A

B B B B B

53. (1) +2 +3 +2 +3 +2 D D U L E

N

F

T

G

P

N +1

E

O

M

A

N

B +2 B +3 B +4 B +5 B +6 B O

G

Z –1

K –2

Y

R

C –3

I

Q

Z

L –4

F

U –5

H

T

P –6

P

J

either

Y –1

Z

I –2

K

Z –3

H –4

C

P –5

L

J –6

U

P

56. (1) P is 4 T – P = 5 = 9 – 4 = 5, so T = 9 T – N = 3 = 9 – 6 =3, so N = 6 → XLNV 57. (3) come → ZG at → LMXY once → UYGSVI father → EVIB very → ROO ill → NLGSVI mother (in Reverse order) 58. (2) The alphabetical position of letters is as follows C=3 S = 19 O = 15 T = 20 N = 14 A=1 S = 19 B=2 T = 20 L = 12

BPRE–109

CODING / DECODING 68. (5) economy ⇒ st

E =5 59

A=1

69. (4) balance ⇒ ru 70. (1) better ⇒ dj

B=2 L = 12

wealth ⇒ gh The code for ‘generate’ may be ‘fs’.

E=5 91

71. (1) P L O T S

N J S R Q

59. (3) Letters are coded according to their place in English alphabet. So, first → 6, 9, 18, 19, 20 60. (1) Letters are coded according to their place in English alphabet. So, BEST → 2, 5, 19, 20 (61–65) :

–2 –2 +4 –2 –2

S N A C K more

money in market

zo li

aa

to

Q L E A I –2 –2

share in market profit

vo to je

li

+4 –2

making

more profit

now

su je

–2

zo ka Similarly,

now the

market gains

do li yo su

F U D G E

D S H E C –2

61. (3) the gains ⇒ do yo share ⇒ vo money ⇒ aa 62. (1) making ⇒ ka 63. (4) in ⇒ to share ⇒ vo

–2 +4 –2 –2 (72–76) :

market ⇒ li The code for ‘loss’ may be ‘am’. 64. (5) yo ⇒ ‘the’ or ‘gains’ 65. (2) now ⇒ su more ⇒ zo profit ⇒ je (66–70) : economy

and wealth

wealth

of

taxes better

nations

balance nations to

revive

robots

all doctors

balance

gh

mk

ru

st

depleting

tl

zm

ak

gh

better

dj

ru

zm

pn

economy

br

ht

dj

st

66. (2) tl ⇒ of/depleting 67. (3) The code for ‘revive’ is ‘br’ or ‘ht’. The code for ‘now’ may be ‘co’

can

become can

lawyers

check

ju ac th eg bd

np

ju mo

many doctors and lawyers

np rt qs ac

machine

eg

check of

robots

72. (3) ac ⇒ lawyers 73. (4) and many ⇒ rt qs how ⇒ ws how can ⇒ ws ju 74. (5) machine ⇒ ik/ux 75. (2) robots ⇒ eg 76. (1) become ⇒ th doctors ⇒ np The code for ‘will’ may be ‘zi’.

BPRE–110

ik ux bd

CODING / DECODING 77. (3) oka

80. (5) the ⇒ lol moral ⇒ lap college ⇒ xip 81. (4) lap ⇒ moral zip ⇒ away rap ⇒ to 82. (1) stay ⇒ map moral ⇒ lap 83. (3) tip ⇒ way to ⇒ rap lap ⇒ moral college ⇒ xip 84. (2) go ⇒ dap to ⇒ rap college ⇒ xip

peru

fine

cloth

meta

lisa

clear

water

dona

lisa

peru

fine

clear

weather

The code for “you” may be “jap”. (85–86) :

(78–79) : Live

Free

Die

Well

bg

ph

su

md

Right

To

Free

Life

va

su

oh

ke

To

Live

Make

Home

tl

ke

ph

rn

Make

Your

Life

Well

bg

ri

oh

tl

78. (2) Free ⇒ su Life ⇒ oh 79. (1) rn ⇒ Home ph ⇒ Live (80–84) :

stay

close

cap

tap

the

way

xip

college tap go dap

to

moral

map

rap

to

rap

go

gate nap the lap

stay xip moral xip

N L A T B E N 0

85. (2) B

E

A

T

4 86. (4) 2

3 3

6 5

5 7 6

4

N

E

T

L

B

values lap

college tip

lol

8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

dap

close map college lol

stay

close

go

away

tap

dap

zip

map

A

(87-91) :

Army

Protects

Country

12

15

85

Politicians

Frame

Policy

50

1

18

Officers

Execute

Function

13

33

23

Police

Protects

Public

85

8

20

Public

Pay

Tax

7

8

60

Tax

Protects

Policy

85

60

1

Frame

Public

Army

50

15

8

Tax

13

60

11

Pay

38

7

33

Government Function Officers

BPRE–111

Charge

CODING / DECODING 87. (4) Government ⇒ 11 Officers ⇒ 33 ⇒7 Pay 88. (3) Army ⇒ 15 Protects ⇒ 85 Police ⇒ 20 89. (5) Politicians ⇒ 18 pay ⇒7 Officers ⇒ 33 90. (2) 11 ⇒ Government 38 ⇒ Charge 8 ⇒ Public 91. (3) 8 ⇒ Public 50 ⇒ Frame 12 ⇒ Country (92–96) : Rule–1 : When a word begins with a Vowel, the code can be generated by taking the sum of place values of the letters at the odd numbered positions in the word. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 O F F E N C E Required sum = O + F + N + E = 15 + 6 + 14 + 5 = 40 Rule–2 : When a word begins with a consonant, the code can be generated by taking the difference of the resultants obtained in the following manner : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 D E F E N C E Sum of place values of odd numbered letters =D+F+N+E = 4 + 6 + 14 + 5 = 29 Sum of place values of even numbered letters =E+E+C = 5 + 5 + 3 = 13 Required difference = 29 – 13 = 16 92. (5) 1 2 3 4 5 V O W E L (V + W + L) – (O + E) ⇒ (22 + 23 + 12) – (15 + 5) ⇒ 57 – 20 = 37 (Y) 93. (1) 1 2 3 4 5 6 O X Y G E N Required sum = O + Y + E = 15 + 25 + 5 = 45 (P) 94. (3) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 B I O L O G Y (B + O + O + Y) – (I + L + G) ⇒ (2 + 15 + 15 + 25) – (9 + 12 + 7) ⇒ 57 – 28 = 29 (A) 95. (4) 1 2 3 4 5 6 A W A R D S Required sum = A + A + D = 1 + 1 + 4 = 6 (P)

96. (3) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 C H A R I T Y (C + A + I + Y) – (H + R + T)

⇒ (3 + 1 + 9 + 25) – (8 + 18 + 20) ⇒ 38 – 46 = – 8 (A) (Ignore the sign) (97 – 101) :

yoga

support

wealth health

is

wealth

yoga

helps

improvement

15

9

10

7

12

15

23

9

15

16

12

16

teacher

helps

teacher

are

guides

20

is

support

50

wealth

12

11 10

12

wealth

yoga

guides balance

happy bliss

is

health

brings happy

teachers are

bliss

1

20 7

9

100 10

100 11 16

25 5 25

97. (2) yoga ⇒ 9 is ⇒ 10 wealth ⇒ 12 98. (4) happy ⇒ 100 health ⇒ 7 is ⇒ 10 bliss ⇒ 25 99. (3) 50 ⇒ support 5 ⇒ brings 1 ⇒ balance 100. (5) 9 ⇒ yoga 1 ⇒ balance 7 ⇒ health 101. (4) bliss + support + help + is happy

⇒ 25 + 50 + 15 + 10 + 100 ⇒ 200

BPRE–112

ppp

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP

6

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP

QUESTIONS FROM 1999 TO 2010 ARE AVAILABLE ONLINE NATIONALISED BANKS & IBPS PO/MT/SO EXAMS Directions (50–51) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow : (Corporation Bank PO Exam. 16.01.2011)

If ‘A × B’ means ‘A is son of B’. If ‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’. If ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is wife of B’. If ‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’. 1. What will come in the place of the question mark, to establish that Q is mother of N in the expression : ‘ N + O – P ? Q’ (1) + (2) × (3) – (4) ÷ (5) Either (1) or (2) 2. Which of the following relations are true based upon the relations given in the equation : ‘S ÷ T × V – W ÷ Y’ ? (1) T is brother of Y (2) S is daughter-in-law of W (3) S is daughter-in-law of Y (4) Y is daughter of V (5) None is true 3. If ‘B × C’ means ‘B is the daughter of C’, ‘B + C’ means ‘B is the husband of C’ and ‘B – C’ means ‘B is the sister of C’, then what does ‘M + N – P × Q’ mean ? (1) M is the brother-in-law of Q (2) M is the uncle of Q (3) M is the son-in-law of Q (4) Q is the mother-in-law of M (5) None of these (Punjab & Sind Bank PO Exam. 23.01.2011)

Directions (4–6) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow : (Bank Of Baroda PO Exam. 13.03.2011)

If If If If

‘A × B’ means ‘A is father of B’. ‘A + B’ means ‘A is wife of B’. ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is daughter ‘of B’. ‘A – B’ means ‘A is son of B’. 4. How is L related to Q in the expression ‘L ÷ M × Q – P ÷ Q’ ? (1) Granddaughter (2) Niece

(3) Daughter-in-law (4) Daughter (5) Cannot be determined 5. What will come in the place of the question mark, to establish that Q is the nephew of T in the expression : ‘Q ? R ÷ S × T ? (1) + (2) × (3) – (4) ÷ (5) Either – or ÷ 6. Which of the following relations are true based upon the relations given in the equation : ‘A – B × C + D – E’? (1) C is mother of A (2) E is wife of B (3) D is brother of A (4) E is mother-in-law of C (5) None is true 7. D said, “A’s father is the only brother of my sister’s son.” How is A’s father related to D ? (1) Cousin (2) Nephew (3) Aunt (4) Data Inadequate (5) None of these (Punjab & Sind Bank PO Exam. 23.01.2011)

8. B is the father of Q. B has only two children. Q is the brother of R. R is daughter of P. A is the granddaughter of P. S is the father A. How is S related to Q ? (1) Son (2) Son-in-law (3) Brother (4) Brother-in-law (5) None of these (IDBI Bank Officer Exam.16.09.2012)

9. If ‘B × C’ means ‘B is the daughter of C’, ‘B + C’ means ‘B is the husband of C’ and ‘B – C’ means ‘B is the sister of C’, then what does ‘M + N – P × Q’ mean ? (1) M is the brother-in-law of Q (2) M is the uncle of Q (3) M is the son-in-law of Q (4) Q is the mother-in-law of M (5) None of these (Corporation Bank SO (Marketing) Exam, 22.02.2014)

BPRE–113

Directions (10–12) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (BOB Manipal School of Banking Officer Online Exam, 14.08.2014)

A is the brother of B. L is the sister of Q. K is the son of B and L. M is the sister of K. 10. How A is related to L ? (1) Father (2) Brother (3) Nephew (4) Brother–in–law (5) Cannot be determined 11. How Q is related to M ? (1) Uncle (2) Aunt (3) Sister (4) Brother (5) Cannot be determined 12. M is son of P. P is mother of G. G is father of L. L is son of Q. How is L related to M ? (1) Uncle (2) Brother (3) Nephew (4) Son (5) Cannot be determined Directions (13–14) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : J is mother of P. P is brother of K. K is mother of V. Q is brother of V. G is father of Q. S is father of P. 13. Which of the following statements is/are true on the basis of given information ? (1) K is wife of G. (2) K is daughter of S. (3) G is father of V. (4) S is husband J. (5) All are true 14. Who among the following is grandmother of V ? (1) S (2) P (3) J (4) K (5) G Directions (15–16) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IDBI Bank Officer Exam, 22.08.2014)

A is brother of B. G is brother of H. A is married to sister of G. Q is son of A. B is son of K. H is daughter of M. M is wife of T.

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 15. How is Q related to G ? (1) Nephew (2) Paternal Uncle (3) Maternal Uncle (4) Brother (5) Son 16. How is T related to A ? (1) Father (2) Father-in-law (3) Brother-in-law (4) Brother (5) Cannot be determined. Directions (17–21) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (SIDBI Officer Exam, 03.09.2014)

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’. ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is wife of Q’. ‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’. ‘P % Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’. ‘P & Q’ means ‘P is husband of Q’. 17. Which of the following means A is mother-in-law of D ? (1) A + M % L + D (2) B $ A @ D % K & Q (3) A @ T + N % D $ L (4) A + H % M $ K % D (5) None of these 18. In the expression ‘K & R @ T $ D & M @ S % G’ who among the following is father-in-law of M ? (1) R (2) T (3) K (4) S (5) G 19. Which of the following means H is mother of L ? (1) T & H @ N + L % D (2) K % H + R % L $ N (3) H + J % N & L @ T (4) L $ R % H @ T & V (5) None of these 20. In the expression ‘K % R $ T & D @ H + S’ how S is related to D? (1) Brother (2) Uncle (3) Cousin (4) Son-in-law (5) None of these 21. In the expression ‘S + D $ P % H & V @ T’, how P is related to T ? (1) Grandmother (2) Uncle (3) Mother (4) Father (5) Grandfather Directions (22–24) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (SIDBI Officer Exam, 03.09.2014)

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’. ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is son of Q’. ‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’. ‘P % Q’ means ‘P is wife of Q’ P & Q’ means ‘P is husband of Q’.

22. In the expression ‘M + K $ T @ N’ how is M related to N ? (1) Sister (2) Cousin (3) Brother (4) Paternal Uncle (5) None of these 23. Which of the following expressions represents the relation ‘V is mother of D’ ? (1) V % Q $ R @ D (2) V % Q @ R $ D (3) D + T @ J $ V (4) V @ F $ D % M (5) None of these 24. In the expression ‘E + H @ K $ B’ how is B related to E ? (1) Brother (2) Sister (3) Cousin (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these Directions (25-26): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS RRBs Officer Scale-I CWE, 06.09.2014)

H has two sons A and Y. A is married to M. M is the mother of P. N is daughter-in-law of H. S is motherin-law of H. 25. Who among the following is the uncle of P ? (1) H (2) A (3) Y (4) M (5) None of these 26. Who among the following is the wife of Y ? (1) N (2) H (3) P (4) S (5) M Directions (27–29) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (Bank of Baroda Junior Management Grade/Scale-I Exam, 18.04.2015)

P @ Q means P is father of Q. P + Q means P is husband of Q. P $ Q means P is brother of Q. P % Q means P is mother of Q. P & Q means P is sister of Q. 27. How is B related to E in this expression : ‘A @ B % C & D + E’ ? (1) Grandmother (2) Granddaughter (3) Mother–in–law (4) Aunt (5) Daughter–in–law

BPRE–114

28. What should come in place of the question mark (?) to establish that C is the aunt of E in the following expression ? A%B+C&D?E (1) $ (2) & (3) + (4) Either + or & (5) Either @ or % 29. Which among the following options is true if the expression ‘A + B & C @ D % E $ F’ is definitely true ? (1) E is the sister–in–law of A. (2) F is daughter–in–law of C. (3) B is the aunt of D. (4) A is the uncle of E. (5) C is the uncle of A. Directions (30–32) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS RRBs Officer Scale–I & II CWE 12.09.2015)

S is the sister of B. K is the brother of B. ● K is the son of L. L is married to Y. Y is the daughter of J. ● Y has only one daughter. J is married to C. ● K is the brother of D. D is married to T. 30. If P is the brother of C, then how is J related to P? (1) Brother (2) Cousin (3) Sister (4) Uncle (5) Cannot be determined 31. How is T related to S? (1) Brother–in–law (2) Cousin (3) Sister–in–law (4) Sister (5) Brother 32. If Z is the daughter of T, then how is B related to Z? (1) Uncle (2) Father (3) Aunt (4) Cannot be determined (5) Mother Directions (33–34) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : ●

(IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V (Preliminary) 03.10.2015)

R is married to U. U is the mother of L. L is the sister of D. U has only one daughter. D is married to J. K is the son of J. F is the mother of J.

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 33. How is D related to F ? (1) Cannot be determined (2) Daughter (3) Daughter-in-law (4) Son-in-law (5) Son 34. How is R related to K ? (1) Cannot be determined (2) Grandfather (3) Grandmother (4) Father (5) Uncle Directions (35–39) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V (Preliminary) 03.10.2015)

Ten persons — J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S — are sitting around a circular table facing the centre with equal distances between each other (but not necessarily in the same order). Each one of them is also related to M in some way or the other. Only two persons sit between Q and L. M sits second to the left of Q. Only three persons sit between L and M’s sister. M’s son sits second to the right of M’s sister. Only one person sits between M’s son and S. J sits to the immediate right of R. R is neither the son nor the mother of M. S is an immediate neighbour of M’s mother. Only three persons sit between M’s mother and M’s brother. M’s daughter sits second to the left of M’s brother. M’s father is not an immediate neighbour of M. M’s wife sits third to the right of K. L is to the right of Q. Only four persons sits between M and M’s father. 35. Who sits second to the right R ? (1) M’s brother (2) M (3) R (4) N (5) M’s daughter 36. How many persons sit between K and L, when counted from the left of K ? (1) Six (2) One (3) None (2) Two (5) Four 37. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the given information ? (1) R sits second to the right of M’s wife.

K is the brother of J. J has only one daughter. J is the mother of L. L is the sister of T. B is the father of T. T is married to R. 40. How is J related to R ? (1) Cannot be determined (2) Sister-in-law (3) Mother (4) Aunt (5) Mother-in-law 41. How is T related to K ? (1) Niece (2) Cannot be determined (3) Nephew (4) Son (5) Daughter Directions (42–46) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :

Only three persons sit between N’s wife and L. N’s son sits second to the right of N’s father. Only two persons sit between N’s father and N’s daughter. 42. Who amongst the following is the son of J ? (1) M (2) P (3) K (4) O (5) Q 43. How many persons sit between N and K, when counted from the left of K ? (1) Five (2) One (3) Four (4) None (5) Three 44. Who sits to the immediate right of Q ? (1) N’s sister (2) N (3) N’s wife (4) K (5) J 45. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the given information ? (1) All the given options are true (2) P sits to the immediate left of J. (3) N’s mother sits to the immediate left of N. (4) M is the mother-in-law of Q. (5) N is an immediate neighbour of his father. 46. How is J related to K ? (1) Sister (2) Uncle (3) Father (4) Sister-in-law (5) Daughter Directions (47–48) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

(IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V (Preliminary) 04.10.2015)

(IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V (Preliminary.) 04.10.2015)

Eight persons, J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting around a circular table facing the centre with equal distances between each other (but not necessarily in the same order). Each one of them is also related to N in some way or the other. K sits third to the left of N. Only one person sits between N and Q. N’s sister sits to the immediate right of Q. Only two persons sit between N’s sister and N’s mother. J sits to the immediate right of N’s mother. P sits to the immediate right of M. N’s brother sits third to the right of P. N’s wife sits second to the left of N’s brother.

D is the father of A. D is married to P. P is the mother of J. P has only one daughter. J is married to U. U is the son of L.

(2) K is an immediate neighbour of R. (3) M sits second to the left of L (4) All the given options are true. (5) S is the daughter of L. 38. How is K related to R ? (1) Son-in-law (2) Uncle (3) Brother (4) Niece (5) Daughter 39. Who amongst the following is the wife of M ? (1) J (2) L (3) O (4) Q (5) N Directions (40–41) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V (Preliminary) 04.10.2015)

BPRE–115

47. How is J related to L? (1) Daughter (2) Granddaughter (3) Cannot be determined (4) Niece (5) Daughter–in–law 48. How is A related to U? (1) Cannot be determined (2) Brother–in–law (3) Brother (4) Sister (5) Sister–in–law

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP Directions (49-50) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V (Preliminary) 10.10.2015 Ist Sitting)

U is the mother of D. S is the sister of D. L is the father of S. L has only one daughter. M is the daughter of S. P is the daughter of D. 49. If R is married to S, then how is R related to U ? (1) Grandson (2) Nephew (3) Son-in-law (4) Uncle (5) Cannot be determined 50. How is S related to P ? (1) Aunt (2) Sister (3) Mother (4) Niece (5) Grandmother Directions (51–52) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

Only three persons sit between M and N’s husband. A sits second to the right of N’s husband. N’s mother sits to the immediate right of C. C is not the husband of N. N’s daughter sits third to the right of P. D sits to the immediate left of N’s brother. 53. How many persons sit between P and N, when counted from the left of N? (1) One (3) Two (5) Three

54. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the given information? (1) A is the son of D. (2) C is an immediate neighbour of D.

(IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V (Preliminary) 10.10.2015)

Q is the sister of T. T is the mother of D. T has only one son. D is the brother of J. J is married to M. Y is the daughter of M. 51. How is J related to Q ? (1) Son (2) Cannot be determined (3) Daughter (4) Niece (5) Nephew 52. How is Y related to T ? (1) Daughter (2) Daughter-in-law (3) Cannot be determined (4) Niece (5) Granddaughter Directions (53–56) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

(3) D sits third to the left of B. (4) All the given options are true. (5) A sits second to the right of N’s husband. 55. Who sits to the immediate left of P? (1) B

(2) M

(3) N’s sister

(4) N’s husband

(5) A 56. Who amongst the following is the son of N ? (1) P

(2) B

(3) D (5) O

(4) C

57. How is B related to A ? (1) Grandmother

(IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V

(2) Son-in-law

(Preliminary) 10.10.2015)

(3) Grandson

Eight persons — A, B, C, D, M, N, O and P — are sitting around a circular table facing the centre with equal distances between each other (but not necessarily in the same order). Each one of them is also related to N in some way or the other. Only three persons sit between B and N. Only one persons sits between N and P. N’s father sits to the immediate right of P. N’s sister sits third to the right of N’s father. Only one person sits between N’s sister and N’s son. M sits third to the left of N’s son.

(2) Five (4) None

(4) Uncle (5) Wife Directions (58–59) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS RRBs Officer Scale–I & II CWE 13.09.2015) ● ● ● ●

K is the brother of J. J is the mother of Y. Y is the sister of T. T is married to Q. S is the father of J. S has only one daughter. S is married to R. K is the brother of D. U is the father-in-law of D.

BPRE–116

58. How is D related to Y ? (1) Cannot be determined (2) Mother (3) Uncle (4) Father (5) Aunt 59. If Y is married to P, then how is S related to P ? (1) Cannot be determined (2) Sister (3) Brother-in-law (4) Sister-in-law (5) None of these 60. If U is the father of C, then how is D related to C ? (1) Cousin (2) Husband (3) Wife (4) Cannot be determined (5) Brother 61. R is sister of M. M is brother of H. D is mother of K. K is brother of M. How is R related to D ? (1) Daughter (2) Mother (3) Other than those given as options (4) Sister (5) Data Inadequate (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V Main Exam. 31.10.2015)

62. Pointing to a woman, Mr. Suresh said, she is the daughter of my grandfather’s only daughter. How is Suresh related to the woman? (1) Cousin (2) Brother (3) Other than those given as options (4) Uncle (5) Cannot be determined (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V Main Exam. 31.10.2015)

Directions (63-64) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V Main Exam. 31.10.2015)

J is the father of T. P is the brother of J. L is the mother of V. V is the brother of T. T is mother of S. T is the daughter–in–law of W. 63. How is J related to S? (1) Uncle (2) Brother (3) Grand–father (4) Cousin (5) Father 64. How is W related to P? (1) Son (2) Cannot be determined

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP (3) Grandson (4) Aunt (5) Uncle Directions (65–67) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (SIDBI Officer Online Exam.24.02.2016)

M is the father of G. P is the wife of G. M is married to C. L is sibling of G. S is the father–in–law of L. K is the only child of S. 65. How is G related to K? (1) Cousin (2) Father (3) Cannot be determined (4) Brother–in–law (5) Nephew 66. If K is the mother of R, then how is L related to R? (1) Father (2) Son–in–law (3) Brother–in–law (4) Son (5) Cannot be determined 67. How is C related to P? (1) Mother (2) Mother–in–law (3) Sister–in–law (4) Grandmother (5) Niece Directions (68–71) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (United Bank of India PGDBF Manipal Exam,07.08.2016)

‘A × B’ means ‘A is the son of B’. ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’. ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’. ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the father of B’. 68. In the epxpression ‘S × T ÷ V × W ÷ Y’, how T is related to Y? (1) Daughter (2) Mother (3) Daughter – in – law (4) Aunt (5) Granddaughter 69. In the expression ‘P ÷ Q × R – T’, how P is related to T? (1) Sister – in – law (2) Aunt (3) Sister (4) Mother (5) Daughter 70. Which of the following expressions establishes that K is the grandson of D? (1) K – P × S + D ÷ N (2) K + P ÷ S – D × N (3) S – P + N + D ÷ K (4) K × P ÷ S × D – N (5) Other than those given as options

71. In the expression ‘H – R × C + T ÷ W × M’, how C is related to W? (1) Niece (2) Cousin (3) Daughter (4) Mother (5) Cannot be determined Directions (72–74) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Pre Exam), 16.10.2016 (First Sitting))

T is the daughter of P. P is the father of L. L is the only son of A. B is the daughter-in-law of A. W is the son of B. 72. How is P related to B ? (1) Father-in-law (2) Borther (3) Son-in-law (4) Father (5) Brother-in-law 73. If Y is the husband of T, how is L related to Y ? (1) Brother (2) Nephew (3) Son-in-law (4) Son (5) Brother-in-law 74. How is A related to W ? (1) Grandfather (2) Grandson (3) Granddaughter (4) Grandmother (5) Uncle Directions (75–77) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE-VI (Pre Exam), 16.10.2016 (Second Sitting)) ● ● ● ●

75.

76.

77.

D is daughter of N. E is wife of N. G is sister of D. C is married to G. N has no son. K is mother of E. Q is only daughter of C. How Q is related to D? (1) Daughter (2) Cousin (3) Niece (4) Sister-in-law (5) Cannot be determined How N is related to K? (1) Brother-in-law (2) Cousin (3) Brother (4) Sister (5) Son-in-law How many daughters does N have? (1) Two (2) Three (3) One (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

BPRE–117

Directions (78–80) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS Bank PO/MT (Pre.) Exam, 23.10.2016)

A is the mother of B. B is the sister of C. D is the son of C. E is the brother of D. F is the mother of E. G is the granddaughter of A. H has only two children- B and C. 78. How is F related to H? (1) Son-in-law (2) Daughter-in-law (3) Father-in-law (4) Granddaughter (5) Niece 79. How is C related to E? (1) Father (2) Son (3) Mother (4) Cousin (5) Grandfather 80. Who is mother of G? (1) C (2) B (3) F (3) Either B or F (5) Either C or F Directions (81–83) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (Bank of Maharashtra PO Exam, 26.10.2016)

A%B means A is brother of B A$B means A is husband of B A@B means A is the sister of B A#B means A is mother of B As per the given expression N@P%T#M$K#J@H 81. How is H related to M ? (1) Either ‘brother’ or ‘sister’ (2) Father (3) Either ‘nephew’ or ‘ niece’ (4) Either ‘son’ or ‘daughter’ (5) Uncle 82. How is K related to T ? (1) Daughter-in-law (2) Sister (3) Daughter (4) Mother (5) Niece 83. How is P related to M ? (1) Brother (2) Father-in-law (3) Father (4) Uncle (5) Nephew Directions (133–86) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Pre.) Exam, 14.11.2016 (Shift-I))

S is the husband of D. A is the brother of D. A is the only son of B. D is the sister of Q. R is married to Q. M is the father of R. N is the daughter of Q.

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 84. If V is the grandfather of N, then how is B related to R? (1) Uncle (2) Mother-in-law (3) Grandmother (4) Aunt (5) Father-in-law 85. How is S related to Q? (1) Father (2) Grandfather (3) Brother-in-law (4) Uncle (5) Nephew 86. How is D related to N? (1) Mother (2) Sister-in-law (3) Cousin (4) Mother-in-law (5) Aunt Directions (87–89) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Pre.) Exam, 14.11.2016 (Shift-II))

L is the only child of K. R is married to L. S is the sister of R. S is the only daughter of B. J, the father of B has only two children. Q is the daughter of J. 87. How is J related to S? (1) Grandfather (2) Brother-in-law (3) Uncle (4) Cousin (5) Father-in-law 88. If J has only one daughter, then how is B related to L? (1) Nephew (2) Niece (3) Father-in-law (4) Brother (5) Mother-in-law 89. How is Q related to R? (1) Daughter-in-law (2) Grandmother (3) Niece (4) Aunt (5) Mother-in-law Directions (90–92) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Pre.) Exam, 14.11.2016 (Shift-III))

K and M are the children of G. G is married to R. S is the sister of G. A is the only son of R. P is the son of K.

90. How is M related to P? (1) Father (2) Uncle (3) Aunt (4) Grandmother (5) Brother-in-law 91. How is S related to R? (1) Sister-in-law (2) Daughter-in-law (3) Niece (4) Daughter (5) Granddaughter 92. If S does not have any sister, then how is G related to P? (1) Uncle (2) Grandfather (3) Father-in-law (4) Aunt (5) Grandmother 93. If Neha says, Anuradha’s father Ramesh is the only son of my Father-in-law Mahesh, then how Bindu, who is sister of Anuradha is related to Mahesh ? (1) Daughter (2) Wife (3) Daughter-in-law (4) Niece (5) None of these (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Main) Exam, 18.11.2016

Directions (94–96) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (Indian Bank PO (Pre.) Exam, 21.01.2017 (Ist Sitting))

Q is the brother of P. K is the mother of P. Q is married to C. C is the daughter-in-law of L. P is the mother of N. N is the sister of V. 94. How is K related to C? (1) Sister (2) Daughter-in-law (3) Mother (4) Daughter (5) Mother-in-law 95. How is L related to N? (1) Grandfather (2) Uncle (3) Grandson (4) Son (5) Son-in-law 96. If N has only one brother as sibling, how is V related to Q? (1) Father (2) Nephew (3) Uncle (4) Son (5) Brother

BPRE–118

Directions (97–99) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (Indian Bank PO (Pre.) Exam, 21.01.2017 (2nd Sitting))

L is the mother of P. P is married to Q, who is the father of D. E is the brother of D. M is the father of X, who is the sister of P. X is married to Y, who have a daughter B and a son A. 97. How is M related to D ? (1) Grandmother (2) Grandfather (3) Uncle (4) Father (5) Other than those given as options 98. How is A related to E ? (1) Sister (2) Nephew (3) Cousin (4) Uncle (5) Other than those given as options 99. How is Y related to L ? (1) Son-in-law (2) Nephew (3) Brother (4) Uncle (5) Other than those given as options Directions (100–102) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE-VII (Prelim Exam) 14.10.2017)

D is the father of only F and E. D has only one son. E is married to G. G is the son-in-taw of M. H is the only son of G. K and J are the children of E. L is married to K. 100. How is M related to J? (1) Grandmother (2) Aunt

(3) Mother

(4) Niece

(5) Granddaughter

101. How is H related to L? (1) Brother (2) Brother-in-law (3) Son-in-law (4) Nephew (5) Uncle 102. How is F related to K? (1) Grandfather (2) Either ‘brother’ or ‘sister’ (3) Aunt (4) Either ‘nephew’ or ‘niece’ (5) Uncle

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP Directions (103–106) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

Directions (110–111) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

(IBPS SO (Law Officer) CWE (Prelim Exam) 31.12.2017)

(IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE-VII (Prelim Exam) 15.10.2017)

Z is married to Y. Z is the father of F. F is married to E. T is the mother of E. P, the sister of E is the only daughter of S and is unmarried. S has only two children. J is the brother-in-law of E. 103. How is J related to Y? (1) Brother (2) Nephew (3) Son (4) Uncle (5) Father 104. If T is the daughter of X, then how is P related to X? (1) Niece (2) Granddaughter (3) Either ‘sister’ or ‘sister-in-law’ (4) Grandmother (5) Either ‘daughter’ or ‘aunt’ 105. If J is the grandson of M, then how is M related to Y? (1) Cannot be determined (2) Mother-in-law (3) Father (4) Mother (5) Father-in-law 106. How is S related to F? (1) Grandfather (2) Brother-in-law (3) Brother (4) Father-in-law (5) Uncle Directions (107–109) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

R is the sister of Q. M is the father of R. V is the son of Q. C is the maternal grandfather of V. M does not have married daughter. 110. How is R related to V? (1) Uncle (2) Aunt (3) Mother (4) Cannot be determined (5) Nephew 111. If B is married to Q, then how is B related to M? (1) Grandson (2) Son-in-law (3) Son (4) Daughter-in-law (5) Cannot be determined Directions (112-113) : In the following questions, the symbols #, &, @, * , $, % and © are used with the following meanings as illustrated below. Study the following information and answer the given questions : M # N means M is the son of N. M @ N means M is the daugther of N. M © N means M is the father of N. M $ N means M is brother of N. M * N means M is the husband of N. M & N means M is the daughterin-law of N. M % N means M is the wife of N

(IDBI Bank PO Exam 29.04.2018)

P and B are the only children of G. B is married to K, the only daughter of H and V. S is the only son of B. J is the grandfather of S. J has only one son. P is unmarried. 107. How is S related to G? (1) Grandson (2) Son (3) Nephew (4) Brother (5) Uncle 108. How is P related to J? (1) Brother (2) Son (3) Daughter (4) Niece (5) Nephew 109. If X is the brother-in-law of B, how is X related to H? (1) Father-in-law (2) Son (3) Cousin (4) Nephew (5) Uncle

(IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Main Exam) 26.11.2017)

112. If D & B % S © G % E © Q $ D then how is S related to D as there are only three generations? (1) Grandfather (2) Son-in-law (3) Daughter (4) Daughter-in-law (5) Grandson 113. If G & B * S @ W © F % O © Z, then how is Z related to S in the given arrangement? (1) Son (2) Sister (3) Cousin (4) Niece or Nephew (5) Daughter

BPRE–119

Directions (114–116) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : F is the husband of G. K is the mother-in-law of G. H is the father of F. M is the mother of H. P is the mother of K and B. (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Prelim Exam) 18.08.2018)

114. If Y is the father of H then how is Y related to M? (1) Mother (2) Father (3) Sister (4) Brother (5) Husband 115. How is P related to F? (1) Grandfather (2) Aunt (3) Mother (4) Grandmother (5) Wife 116. How is B related to H? (1) Sister (2) Brother (3) Can’t be determined (4) Husband (5) Wife Directions (117–119) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : B is married to D. P is the brother of B. R is the father-in-law of D. Q is the mother of R and G. K is the only daughter-in-law of Q. M is the only daughter of K. 117. If K has no brother-in-law, then how is G related to P? (1) Uncle (2) Grandmother (3) Sister (4) Father-in-law (5) Aunt 118. How is Q related to M? (1) Grandmother (2) Mother-in-law (3) Sister-in-law (4) None of those given as options (5) Aunt 119. How is B related to G? (1) Daughter-in-law (2) Nephew (3) Either ‘son-in-law’ or ‘daughter-in-law’ (4) Either ‘son’ or ‘daughter’ (5) Grandson

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP Directions (120–121) : In these questions, four sentences are given. Decide which sentence(s) is/are correct with regard to grammar, meaning and usage and select your answer accordingly. (Indian Bank PO Online Prelim Exam 06.10.2018)

120. (1) The newly introduced flights between the two cities have been so designed allowing them to serve the business and leisure travellers alike. (2) All are correct. (3) New flights introduced between the two cities are designed to cater to business and leisure travellers alike. (4) The design of the newly introduced flights is such that they cater to business and leisure travellers alike. (5) The newly introduced flights have been designed in such a way so as to cater to business and leisure travellers alike. 121. (1) The Prime Minister has instructed the Ministries to submit a detailed note on the projects and programmes undertaken by them. (2) Ministries have been instructed by the Prime Minister to submit a detailed note on the projects and programmes undertaken by them. (3) The instructions to submit a detailed note on the projects and programmes undertaken have been given by the Prime Minister to the ministries. (4) A detailed note on the projects and programmes undertaken has to be submitted by the ministries as per the instructions of the Prime Minister. (5) All are correct. Directions (122–124) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : J is the father of S. J has only one child. D is sister-in-law of S. K is the only sibling of D. D is unmarried. M is mother of K. H is grandson of M. L is sister of H. (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Prelim Exam) 14.10.2018)

122. How is L related to D? (1) Mother (2) Sister-in-law (3) Daughter (4) Niece (5) Aunt 123. If T is grandfather of L then how is K related to T? (1) Son-in-law (2) Niece (3) Nephew (4) Daughter-in-law (5) Cannot be determined 124. How is J related to H? (1) Father (2) Father-in-law (3) Brother (4) Grandfather (5) Uncle Directions (125–126) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: R is the sister of Q. M is the father of R. V is the son of Q. C is the maternal grandfather of V. M does not have married daughter. (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Prelim Exam) 21.10.2018)

125. How is R related to V? (1) Uncle (2) Aunt (3) Mother (4) Cannot be determined (5) Nephew 126. If B is married to Q, then how is B related to M? (1) Grandson (2) Son-in-law (3) Son (4) Daughter-in-law (5) Cannot be determined Directions (127–129) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. A % B means A is brother of B A $ B means A is husband of B A @ B means A is sister of B A # B means A is mother of B As per the given symbols N@P%T#M$K#J@H (Canara Bank PO Exam, 23.12.2018)

127. How is H related to M ? (1) Either ‘brother’ or ‘sister’ (2) Father

BPRE–120

(3) Either ‘nephew’ or ‘niece’ (4) Either ‘son’ or ‘daughter’ (5) Uncle 128. How is K related to T ? (1) Daughter-in-law (2) Sister (3) Daughter (4) Mother (5) Niece 129. How is P related to M ? (1) Brother (2) Father-in-law (3) Father (4) Uncle (5) Nephew 130. Arjit said, pointing towards a picture, “That picture is of sister of grandson of father of my maternal uncle”. How is lady in the picture related to Arjit? (1) Father’s sister (2) Mother’s sister (3) Cousin (maternal brother) (4) Cousin (maternal sister) (5) None of these IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Prelim Exam) 17.08.2019

Directions (131–132) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Prelim) Exam, 12.10.2019

There are eight family members namely P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W. There are three married couples in the family. P is married to V. V is the father of R. R is the sister of U. T is the niece of U. Q is the father of T. S is the brother-in-law of P. U is the husband of W. 131. How is V related to W? (1) Mother-in-law (2) Father-in-law (3) Daughter-in-law (4) Sister-in-law (5) Cannot be determined 132. How many male members are there in the family? (1) Two (2) One (3) Three (4) Four (5) None of these

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 133. A is married to B. A is the daughter of R. J is the daughter-in-law of R. G is the son of J. How is G related to B? (1) Nephew (2) Grandson (3) Brother-in-law (4) Son-in-law (5) Brother IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Prelim) Exam, 19.10.2019

Directions (134–136) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS SO Prelim Exam, 28.12.2019)

Q is the father of B. Q is married to G. B is the brother of S. M is the only daughter of G. F is the only daughter of R and M. Only one of the children of Q is married. X is the only aunt of F. 134. How is Q related to R? (1) Daughter (2) Son-in-law (3) Brother-in-law (4) Father (5) Father-in-law 135. If A is a grandchild of G, then how is A related to S? (1) Sister (2) Niece (3) Nephew (4) Aunt (5) Brother 136. How is X related to M? (1) Brother (2) Daughter-in-law (3) Brother-in-law (4) Sister-in-law (5) Sister 137. There are six persons in a family namely A, B, C, D, E and F, all of them are related to each other in some or the other way. B is the only daughter of C. E is the sister-in-law of B, but is not married to F. F is the son of A. A has three children. C is the wife of A. How is D related to B? (1) Sister (2) Sister-in-law (3) Brother (4) Mother (5) Father (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE Prelim Exam, 13.09.2020)

138. Raksha is daughter of Reena. Reena is mother-in-law of Roma who is wife of Rakshit. Roshan is father of Rakshit and Ritik. How is Roma related to Raksha? (1) Cousin (2) Mother-in-law (3) Niece (4) Sister-in-law (5) Aunt (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE Prelim Exam, 03.10.2020)

Directions (139–143) : In the following questions some symbols are used with the following meaning as illustrated below : (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE Prelim Exam, 31.12.2020) ●

X © Y ⇒ X is the parent of Y.

●

X & Y ⇒ X is the son-in-law of Y.

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X ! Y ⇒ X is the brother of Y.

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X : Y ⇒ X is the paternal grandfather of Y.

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X > Y ⇒ X is the mother of Y.

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X ^ Y ⇒ X is the sister of Y.

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X @ Y ⇒ X is the child of Y.

●

X + Y ⇒ X is the niece or nephew of Y.

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X * Y ⇒ X is the husband of Y.

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X ? Y ⇒ X is the daughter of Y.

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X # Y ⇒ X is the son of Y.

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X = Y ⇒ X is the mother-in-law of Y.

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X $ Y ⇒ X is the father of Y.

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X % Y ⇒ X is the wife of Y.

A family consists of eight members - E, J, K, L, Q, W, X and Y – with four male members and four female members. Consider the following statements and answer the questions given below : ● W ? E = J $ L ● L + Y + Q ! E ● X ^ Y # K © W ● W belongs to the second generation and is unmarried. 139. How is J related to Y ? (1) Brother-in-law (2) Brother (3) Son (4) Sister-in-law (5) Father-in-law

BPRE–121

140. How is W related to L ? (1) Nephew (2) Niece (3) Aunt (4) Daughter (5) Cousin 141. How is X related to Q ? (1) Son-in-law (2) Father-in-law (3) Mother-in-law (4) Nephew (5) Niece 142. How is K related to L ? (1) Maternal aunt (2) Paternal uncle (3) Cousin (4) Grandfather (5) Granddaughter 143. How is Y related to E ? (1) Cousin (2) Son (3) Niece (4) Nephew (5) Sister-in-law Directions (144 –148) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE Prelim Exam, 07.08.2021)

Q is the son of D. P is the son of M. W is the mother-in-law of Y. P is the son-in-law of Z. T is the mother of J. Y is the father of U. T is the daughter-in-law of B. Y has only one son and only one daughter. U is the daughter of T. T is the sister of D. D is married to P. B is the grandfather of J. 144. Who among the following do/ does not belong to the third generation ? I. J II. T III. Q IV. M V. U (1) Only I (2) Only IV (3) Only II and IV (4) Only IV and V (5) Only I, II and IV 145. How is W related to T? (1) Mother-in-law (2) Maternal Uncle (3) Brother-in-law (4) Son (5) Mother

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 146. If M is the wife of R, how R is related to Q? (1) Paternal grandfather (2) Maternal grandfather (3) Paternal uncle (4) Maternal uncle (5) Cousin brother 147. How is D related to Y ? (1) Sister (2) Niece (3) Daughter-in-law (4) Sister-in-law (5) Aunt 148. How is U related to Z? (1) Great granddaughter (2) Granddaughter (3) Daughter-in-law (4) Daughter (5) Sister-in-law Directions (149–153) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE Prelim Exam, 04.12.2021)

There are nine members in a family viz., A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and J. There are four married couples in the family and each married couple has at least one child. J is not the son of B. There are two sons-in-law in the family. B is mother-in-law of C. F is the son-in-law of D. A and H are blood related and belong to the second generation. F and B are not blood related but belong to the second generation. E is the eldest grandchild in the family. H is blood related to G. B does not have blood relation with anyone in the family except E who is a female. D has one daughter and one son. G is the grandmother of E. A is aunt of E. 149. Who among the following is NOT a female member in the family ? (1) G (2) D (3) A (4) B (5) E 150. How is J related to B’s spouse ? (1) Brother-in-law (2) Son-in-law (3) Father-in-law (4) Nephew (5) Grandson 151. How is E related to A ? (1) Niece (2) Daughter (3) Son (4) Nephew (5) Cousin 152. How is G related to A ? (1) Great grandmother (2) Grandmother (3) Mother (4) Maternal aunt (5) Paternal aunt

153. How is J related to E ? (1) Maternal uncle (2) Paternal aunt (3) Son-in-law (4) Brother-in-law (5) Cousin brother

SBI PO EXAMS Directions (1–4) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (SBI Management Executive Exam, 19.09.2014)

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’. ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’. ‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is husband of Q’. ‘P % Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’. ‘P & Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’. 1. Which of the following indicates that ‘D is niece of A’\ (1) A + M % R $ D @ V (2) B & D $ H + A % T (3) A $ F % W @ D % M (4) A + K & D @ L $ Q (5) None of these 2. What will come in the place of question - mark (?) in the expression ‘A + B @ C & D ? E’ if it indicates that ‘C is father - in law of E’? (1) & (2) % (3) $ (4) + (5) @ 3. Which of the following can be the correct conclusion drawn from the expression ‘A % B @ C + D $ E % F’ ? (1) D is daughter of (2) C is paternal uncle of F (3) A is father of C and E (4) A has two daughters and only one son. (5) None of these 4. Which of the following can be the correct conclusion drawn from the expression \ ‘B % C @ D + E & F’ ? (1) E is sister of C and D (2) C is aunt of E (3) D is daughter of B (4) B has two daughters (5) B is grandmother of F. Directions (5–7) : Study the following information carefully and the questions given below : (SBI Associates PO Online Exam, 29.11.2014)

M is the mother of B. A is the husband of M. N is the only brother of B. C is married to N. Q is the only child of C. N does not have any sister. J is the father of A.

BPRE–122

5. If A does not have any grandson, then how is Q related to B? (1) Cannot be determined (2) Sister–in–law (3) Daughter–in–law (4) Niece (5) Nephew 6. How is A related to C ? (1) Uncle (2) Cannot be determined (3) Husband (4) Nephew (5) Brother–in–law 7. How is B related to J ? (1) Father (2) Nephew (3) Brother–in–law (4) Brother (5) Grandson Directions (8–10) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (SBI Associates PO Online Exam, 30.11.2014)

A and Y are brothers of K. Y is the son of P and S. P is the daughter of X. M is the father in law of S. Q is the son of X. 8. If J is brother of X, then how is J related to Q ? (1) Uncle (2) Nephew (3) Cannot be determined (4) Brother-in-law (5) Son-in-law 9. How is Y related to M ? (1) Nephew (2) Father (3) Brother-in-law (4) Grandson (5) Brother 10. How is K related to Q ? (1) Cannot be determined (2) Niece (3) Daughter (4) Nephew (5) Son-in-law Directions (11–14) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (SBI Management Executive Exam. 19.09.2014)

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’. ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’. ‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is husband of Q’. ‘P % Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’. ‘P & Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’. 11. Which of the following indicates that ‘D is niece of A’\ (1) A + M % R $ D @ V (2) B & D $ H + A % T (3) A $ F % W @ D % M (4) A + K & D @ L $ Q (5) None of these

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 12. What will come in the place of question - mark (?) in the expression ‘A + B @ C $ D ? E’ if it indicates that ‘C is father - in law of E’? (1) & (2) % (3) $ (4) + (5) @ 13. Which of the following can be the correct conclusion drawn from the expression ‘A % B @ C + D $ E % F’ ? (1) D is daughter of (2) C is paternal uncle of F (3) A is father of C and E (4) A has two daughters and only one son. (5) None of these 14. Which of the following can be the correct conclusion drawn from the expression \ ‘B % C @ D + E & F’ ? (1) E is sister of C and D (2) C is aunt of E (3) D is daughter of B (4) B has two daughters (5) B is grandmother of F. Directions (15–17) : Study the following information carefully and the questions given below : (SBI Associates PO Online Exam. 29.11.2014)

M is the mother of B. A is the husband of M. N is the only brother of B. C is married to N. Q is the only child of C. N does not have any sister. J is the father of A. 15. If A does not have any grandson, then how is Q related to B ? (1) Cannot be determined (2) Sister–in–law (3) Daughter–in–law (4) Niece (5) Nephew 16. How is A related to C ? (1) Uncle (2) Cannot be determined (3) Father–in–law (4) Nephew (5) Brother–in–law 17. How is B related to J ? (1) Father (2) Nephew (3) Brother–in–law (4) Brother (5) Grandson Directions (18–20) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (SBI Associates PO Online Exam. 30.11.2014)

A and Y are brothers of K. Y is the son of P and S. P is the daughter of X. M is the father in law of S. Q is the son of X. 18. If J is brother of X, then how is J related to Q ? (1) Uncle (2) Nephew (3) Cannot be determined (4) Brother-in-law (5) Son-in-law 19. How is Y related to M ? (1) Nephew (2) Father (3) Brother-in-law (4) Grandson (5) Brother 20. How is K related to Q ? (1) Cannot be determined (2) Niece (3) Daughter (4) Nephew (5) Son-in-law Directions (21–23) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (SBI PO Phase–I (Preliminary) Online Exam. 20.06.2015)

S is the daughter of U. V has only two children– S and Y. Y is married to D. P is the brother of B. V has only two daughters. J is the mother of U. J is married to L. P is married to S. V is the son of T. 21. Who among the following is the sister–in–law of B ? (1) Y (2) S (3) U (4) J (5) T 22. Who among the following is the father of U ? (1) J (2) T (3) V (4) L (5) None of these 23. How is V related to P ? (1) Father–in–law (2) Mother–in–law (3) Father (4) Mother (5) Brother Directions (24–26) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (SBI PO Phase–I (Preliminary) Online Exam. 21.06.2015)

J is the sister of T. T is married to D. D is the father of R. M is the son of H. T is the motherin-law of H. D has only one son and no daughter. J is married to B. L is the daughter of B.

BPRE–123

24. How is L related to T ? (1) Niece (2) Sister (3) Cannot be determined (4) Daughter (5) Mother 25. How is M related to D ? (1) Nephew (2) Uncle (3) Brother (4) Son (5) Grandson 26. How is J related to R ? (1) Sister (2) Aunt (3) Mother-in-law (4)Mother (5) Cannot be determined Directions (27 – 30) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (SBI PO Phase–I (Preliminary) Online Exam. 27.06.2015)

T is the sister of D. D is married to P. P is the son of M. ● T is the mother of J. Y is the father of U. ● Y has only one son and only one daughter. ● U is the daughter of T. Q is the son of D. 27. How is P related to T ? (1) Brother (2) Cannot be determined (3) Brother-in-law (4) Cousin brother (5) Uncle 28. How is J related to D ? (1) Son (2) Niece (3) Son-in-law (4) Nephew (5) Daughter ●

29. How is Q related to M ? (1) Son-in-law (2) Grandson (3) Nephew (4) Son (5) Cannot be determined 30. Introducing a boy, a girl said, “He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle.” How is the boy related to the girl ? (1) Brother (2) Uncle (3) Nephew (4) Son-in-law (5) Brother-in-law (SBI Assistant Manager (System) Exam, 17.01.2016)

Directions (31–33) : Study the following information and answer the questions given below : (SBI PO Online (Pre.) Exam, 02.07.2016 (Ist Shift))

Q is the sister of M. P is wife of M. P has only one son R. S is mother of P. S is married to T. T has only one son and only one daughter

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 31. If P is sister of J, how is J related to M? (1) Sister–in–law (2) Cannot be determined (3) Brother (4) Brother–in–law (5) Uncle 32. As per the given information, how is M related to S? (1) Son (2) Son–in–law (3) Niece (4) Nephew (5) Daughter–in–law 33. As per the given information, how is R related to Q? (1) Nephew (2) Cannot be determined (3) Uncle (4) Niece (5) Aunt 34. N is the sister of T. T is the only son of Y. Y is the mother of K. J is the daughter of K. J is the sister of M. D is married to K. If X is the wife of M, how D is related to X? (1) Father (2) Father–in–law (3) Mother (4) Mother–in–law (5) Cannot be determined (SBI PO Online (Pre.) Exam, 02.07.2016 (IInd Shift))

Directions (35–37) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (SBI PO Phase-I (Pre.) Online Exam, 03.07.2016 (Ist Shift))

D is the mother of S. S is the sister of T. T is the mother of R. R is the only son of J. J is the father of U. U is married to K. 35. How is J related to D? (1) Brother–in –law (2) Son–in–law (3) Grandson (4) Son (5) Nephew 36. If R is the father of X, then how is K related to X? (1) Father (2) Aunt (3) Uncle (4) Father–in–law (5) Mother 37. How is S related to R? (1) Sister–in–law (2) Mother–in–law (3) Grandmother (4) Aunt (5) Mother

Directions (38–40) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (SBI PO Phase-I (Pre.) Online Exam, 03.07.2016 (IInd Shift))

L is the sister of D. D is the mother of U. U is married to T. T is the only son of Z. Z is the son of R. R is the husband of Q. 38. If Z is the father of X, then how is X related to U? (1) Brother (2) Sister-in-law (3) Cousin (4) Brother-in-law (5) Sister 39. How is U related to L? (1) Son-in-law (2) Daughter (3) Daughter-in-law (4) Niece (5) Nephew 40. How is Q related to T? (1) Sister-in-law (2) Mother-in-law (3) Grandmother (4) Mother (5) Aunt Directions (41–43) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (SBI PO Online (Preliminary) Exam, 10.07.2016)

S is the mother of D. K is the brother of D. K is the only son of M. M is the son of U. U is the husband of T. T is the mother of Y. 41. If D is married to X, then how is X related to M? (1) Son–in–law (2) Daughter–in–law (3) Son (4) Niece (5) Daughter 42. How is T related to K? (1) Mother (2) Aunt (3) Granddaughter (4) Grandmother (5) Mother–in–law 43. How is S related to Y? (1) Sister (2) Cousin (3) Mother–in–law (4) Niece (5) Sister-in-law 44. V is the brother of M and N. P is the mother of N. R is the father of V. Which of the following alternatives cannot be said to be definitely true? (1) R is the brother of M (2) R is the husband of P

BPRE–124

(3) V is the son of P (4) P is the mother of V (5) M is either son or daughter of R (SBI PO Online Main Exam, 31.07.2016)

45. S is the only son of V. V is married to R. M is the daughter of R. R is the grandmother of A. How is S definitely related to A? (1) Uncle (2) Cannot be determined (3) Father (4) Grandfather (5) Cousin (SBI PO Online (Preliminary) Online Exam. 06.05.2017)

46. C is the mother-in-law of Z. Z is the only child of P. P is the grandfather of S. S is the niece of T. If C has only one daughter, how is T definitely related to Z? (1) Daughter-in-law (2) Brother-in-law (3) Sister (4) Cannot be determined (5) Sister-in-law (SBI PO Online (Preliminary) Online Exam. 06.05.2017)

47. Q is the daughter of A. J is the brother of Q. J is the son of R. J is the father of S. If it is given that A is mother of Q, then what is the relation of R with respect to S? (1) Father (2) Mother-in-law (3) Mother (4) Father-in-law (5) Grandfather (SBI PO Online (Preliminary) Exam, 07.05.2017)

Directions (48–49) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : Ten persons P, Q. R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Z are there in a family of three generations. There are three married couples. S is the sister-in-law of R but not married to P. P is the son of V. W is the brother of T. Z is the father-in-law of Q. U is the mother of X and married to the brother of R. Q has only one sister, who is unmarried. X has no sibling. Z has only one grandson and no girl child. T is the youngest person of the family. (SBI PO Phase-II (Main) Exam 05.08.2018)

48. What is the ratio of male members to female members of the family respectively? (1) 5:4 (2) 1:1 (3) 3:2 (4) 2:3 (5) None of these

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 49. How is S related to T? (1) Mother (2) Father (3) Uncle (4) Aunt (5) Grandmother 50. P is the brother of Q and R. S is R’s mother. T is P’s father. Which of the following statements cannot be definitely true? (1) T is Q’s father (2) S is P’s mother (3) P is S’s son (4) Q is T’s son (5) None of these SBI PO (Prelim Exam), 08.07.2018 (Shift-I))

Directions (51–52) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : Q is the mother of G. M is the father of Q. The only sibling of M is the father of W. J is the only sister-inlaw of M. R is the mother-in-law of J. R does not have any grandson. SBI PO (Prelim Exam), 08.07.2018 (Shift-II))

51. If K is the only uncle of Q, then how is K related to W? (1) Father-in-law (2) Uncle (3) Grandfather (4) Brother-in-law (5) Father 52. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the given information? I. Q is the daughter-in-law of R. II. W is the aunt of G. III. J is the mother-in-law of Q. (1) Both I and III (2) Both I and II (3) Both II and III (4) Only II (5) Only III Directions (53–55) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : U is the daughter-in-law of J. J is the father of only L and P. R is the niece of P. P’s spouse has no sibling. M is the grandfather of R. T is the only child of M. SBI PO Prelim Exam, 09.06.2019

53. How is U related to R? (1) Mother (2) Sister-in-law (3) Sister (4) Mother-in-law (5) Aunt 54. If J has only one son, then how is T related to L? (1) Husband (2) Wife

(3) Brother:in-law (4) Brother (5) Sister-in-law 55. How is J related to T ? (1) Brother (2) Father-in-law (3) Uncle (4) Grandfather (5) Grandson Directions (56–60) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : There are nine members A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in a family. There are 4 couples and each couple has at least one child. ● G is the grandmother of E who calls A as aunt. ● I is not the son of B and there are two son in laws in the family. ● B is the mother in law of C and F is the son in law of D. ● A and H are blood related and belong to 2nd generation whereas F and B are not blood related but belong to 2nd generation. ● E is the eldest grandchild in the family and H is blood related to G. ● B does not have blood relation with anyone in the family except E who is a female. ● D has one daughter and one son. SBI PO Main Exam, 20.07.2019

56. How is B related to G? (1) Daughter (2) Mother–in–law (3) Sister–in–law (4) Aunt (5) Daughter–in–law 57. How is I related to E? (1) Maternal uncle (2) Paternal aunt (3) Son–in–law (4) Cousin brother (5) Brother–in–law 58. How is G related to A? (1) Great grand mother (2) Grand mother (3) Mother (4) Maternal aunt (5) Paternal aunt 59. How is E related to A? (1) Niece (2) Son (3) Nephew (4) Daughter (5) Cousin 60. How is I related to B’s spouse? (1) Brother–in–law (2) Nephew (3) Father–in–law (4) Son–in–law (5) Grandson

BPRE–125

RBI GRADE–B/ NABARD GRADE–A OFFICER EXAMS Directions (1-5) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. (RBI Grade-B Officer’s Exam. 18.12.2011)

Eight family members A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. ● F, the wife of D is sitting third to right of C. ● A is the son of H. A is sitting second to left of D. D is not an immediate neighbour of either F or C. No male is an immediate neighbour of D. ● G sits second to left of D’s son. Only two persons sit between H and A’s brother. Neither C nor D is the brother of A. ● D’s son and the wife of D’s son are immediate neighbours of each other. ● F is the mother of H. F is not an immediate neighbour of B and G. ● G is the sister of E. 1. Who amongst the following is D’s son ? (1) E (2) G (3) A (4) B (5) Cannot be determined 2. Who sits second to the left of G ? (1) A’s brother (2) G’s mother (3) D (4) B’s father (5) A’s aunt 3. How many people sit between A and his brother ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Four 4. Who amongst the following sits exactly between H and F ? (1) D’s wife (2) D’s son (3) C (4) B (5) A 5. Who amongst the following is the brother of A ? (1) E (2) G (3) A (4) B (5) Cannot be determined 6. Based on the given arrangement, how is A related to D ? (1) Grandfather (2) Son (3) Grandson (4) Daughter-in-law (5) Cannot be determined

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 7.

8.

9.

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (1) B (2) C (3) H (4) G (5) F Which of the following statements regarding H is definitely correct? (1) H is a male (2) H is the cousin of C (3) Both the immediate neighbours of H are males (4) H is the daughter-in-law of D (5) H is the father of A Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows : A is the brother of B. B is the sister of T. T is the mother of P. If it is provided that R is the grandfather of P, how would T be related to R ? (1) Daughter (2) Granddaughter (3) Sister (4) Wife (5) Daughter or Daughter-in-law (RBI Grade-B Officer’s Exam. 18.12.2011)

Directions (10-14) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (RBI Officer Grade ‘B’ Phase-I Exam, 03.08.2014)

‘P © Q’ means ‘Q is the brother of P’. ‘P # Q’ means ‘P is the daughter of Q’. ‘P = Q’ means ‘Q is the sister of P’. ‘P £ Q’ means ‘P is the son of Q’. ‘P ★ Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’. ‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is the mother of Q’. 10. What does the expression ‘P @ R = S © T £ V’ ? (1) V is the husband of P (2) R is the son of V (3) R is the daughter of V (4) V is the wife of P (5) None of these 11. Which of the following indicates that ‘C is the paternal uncle of D’? (1) C £ V # N @ L © D (2) C £ V £ L @ N © D (3) D £ L £ N @ V © C (4) D £ N # V @ L © C (5) None of these

12. Which of the following can be the correct conclusion drawn from the expression ‘L = M # N © P ★ Q’ ? (1) Q is the grandson of M (2) L is the uncle of N (3) N is the uncle of Q (4) Q is the niece of N (5) None of these 13. Which of the following can be correct conclusion drawn from the expression ‘Q £ N @ S © M = P’ ? (1) S is the brother of P (2) N has two sons and two daughters (3) S is the sister of Q (4) P is the sister of Q (5) None of these 14. Which of the following indicates that ‘Q is the daughter of N’ ? (1) Q ★ P # C @ N @ V (2) N ★ P # C @ Q @ V (3) M @ N # R ★ Q (4) M © Q = V # N (5) None of these Directions (15–16) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (Nabard Officer Grade ‘A’ Online Exam. 01.03.2015)

T is the mother of L. L has only one brother, Q. Q is the son of Z. V is the only child of Q. M is the son-in-law of Q. Q is the brother of A. 15. Which of the following is/are required to establish that L is the uncle of V ? (1) Z has only one daughter (2) L is married to B (3) T is the mother of both L and A (4) No extra information is required as the relation can be established from the given information. (5) T has only four children. 16. Which of the following statements is true based on the given relationships ? (1) M is the grandson of Z (2) L is the aunt of M. (3) None of the given options is true (4) A is the son of T (5) V is the granddaughter of Z. 17. P is the only sister of M and N. B is the brother-in-law of M. None of the sons of W are married. W is the mother of N. W is married to Y. V, the wife of T has a daughter, W.

BPRE–126

How is B related to T? (1) Grandson (2) Grandson in-law (3) Granddaughter (4) Nephew (5) Son-in-law (RBI Officer Grade ‘B’ Phase-I Exam, 04.09.2016 (Shift-I))

18. T is the father of M and P. P is the only daughter of V. M is married to N. A and B are children of M. How is V related to B ? (1) Grandmother (2) Uncle (3) Aunt (4) Sister (5) Grandfather (RBI Officer Grade ‘B’ Phase-I Exam, 04.09.2016 (Shift-II))

Directions (19–23) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (RBI Officer Grade ‘B’ Phase-I Exam 17.06.2017)

Seven people — P, Q, R, S, T, U and V — are related to each other in some or the other way. Each person is of a different age, but not necessarily in the same order. (Note : It is assumed that the husband is older than the wife.) T is older than V but younger than U. P is the mother of Q. R is the sister-in-law of P. R is unmarried. T is the daughter-in-law of S. S is the eldest member of the family. U is the father of only R and V. U does not have any sibling. V does not have any son. R is older than V. The third eldest member of the family is 54-years old. The youngest member of the family is 4 years old. 19. If in the given arrangement, Q + V = 31, then what is the possible age of R? (1) 27 (2) 56 (3) 23 (4) 59 (5) 30 20. If P is 24 years old, what will be the sum of ages of P and T? (1) 28 (2) 78 (3) 64 (4) 49 (5) 75 21. How is T related to Q? (1) Grandmother (2) Granddaughter (3) Aunt (4) Mother-in-law (5) Mother

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 22. If M is married to S, then how is S related to R? (1) Grandmother (2) Granddaughter (3) Grandfather (4) Uncle (5) Cannot be determined 23. Who amongst the following is/are younger than V? (1) Both P and U (2) Only Q (3) Only P (4) Both P and Q (5) No one Directions (24–27) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : M and B are the children of R. Y is married to B. G is the father of Y. B has only one son. K is the only nephew of M. X is the grandfather of K. V is the only daughter of X. A is the daughter of V. (RBI Officers in Grade ‘B’ Phase-I Exam. 16.08.2018) 24. How is R related to A? (1) Cannot be determined (2) Father-in-law (3) Grandmother (4) Mother-in-law (5) Aunt 25. How is Y related to V? (1) Cousin (2) Sister-in-law (3) Brother-in-law (4) Nephew (5) Aunt 26. If F is married to G, then how is F related to B? (1) Sister-in-law (2) Mother (3) Aunt (4) Grandmother (5) Mother-in-law 27. If J is married to V, then how is J related to K? (1) Cannot be determined (2) Father-in-law (3) Father (4) Uncle (5) Grandfather Directions (28–32) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (RBI Officers Grade ‘B’ Phase-I Exam. 06.03.2021) There are seven members –A, B, C, D, E, F and G – in a family. There are only three female members and

three married couples. One couple has no child. Each member of the family spent different amounts in a month. F is the aunt of A and she spent the highest amount. The amount spent by E is just less than that spent by A’s uncle, who spent the fourth highest amount. C spent Rs. 4500, the second highest amount. B is the only son of G, who spent the third highest amount. A is not a female and he spent an amount just less than D’s husband. C is the father of two children of different genders and one of them is D. E’s mother -in-law spent the third highest amount. 28. How is E related to B ? (1) Son (2) Sister-in-law (3) Mother-in-law (4) Father (5) Brother-in-law 29. Who among the following did spend less amount than B ? (1) Only E and A (2) Only A and D (3) E, A and D (4) Only A (5) Only E and D 30. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one does not belong to that group ? (1) B (2) D (3) E (4) C (5) F 31. How is G related to A ? (1) Paternal grandfather (2) Maternal grandfather (3) Maternal uncle (4) Paternal uncle (5) Father 32. How is A related to F ? (1) Nephew (2) Son (3) Brother-in-law (4) Uncle (5) Husband Directions (33–37) : In the following questions, some symbols are used with the certain meanings as illustrated below. (RBI Officers Grade ‘B’ Phase-I Exam. 06.03.2021) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : ● X @ Y - X is the child of Y. ● X © Y - X is the parents of Y ● X & Y - X is the son-in-law of Y. ● X ! Y - X is the brother of Y.

BPRE–127

X = Y - X is the cousin of Y. X $ Y - X is father of Y. ● X % Y - X is the wife of Y. ● X > Y - X is the mother of Y. ● X ^ Y- X is the sister of Y. ● X + Y- X is the niece or nephew of Y. ● X * Y- X is the husband of Y. ● X ? Y - X is the daughter of Y. ● X # Y - X is the son of Y. (33–35) : G & Y * M > D ! H ? Y ● M has only one daughter. 33. How is G related to M’s only daughter ? (1) Brother-in-law (2) Father (3) Uncle (4) Husband (5) Brother 34. How is D related to Y ? (1) Son (2) Father (3) Brother (4) Uncle (5) Cousin 35. If T is the father of G, how H is related to T ? (1) Son-in-law (2) Daughter-in-law (3) Daughter (4) Cousin (5) Cannot be determined (36–37) : P ? T $ W + H > F 36. How is W related to H ? (1) Daughter (2) Sister-in-law (3) Nephew (4) Niece (5) Cannot be determined 37. How is T related to F ? (1) Father (2) Aunt (3) Uncle (4) Sister (5) Brother ● ●

INSURANCE EXAMS Directions (1–5) : Read the following information to answer the given questions : (United India Insurance AAO Exam.03.06.2012)

(i) A, B, C, D, E and F are six family members. (ii) There is one Doctor, one Lawyer, one Engineer, two Students and one Housewife. (iii) There are two married couples in the family. (iv) F, who is a Doctor, is father of E. (v) A is a Student and her husband is not a Lawyer.

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP (vi) B is grandmother of D and is a Housewife. (vii) C is father-in-law of A and is an Engineer. (viii) D is sister of E. 1. How is E related to B ? (1) Grand-daughter (2) Grand-son (3) Grand-daughter or Grandson (4) Son-in-law 2. Which of the following is one of the pairs of married couples ? (1) F A (2) F B (3) C F (4) F D 3. Who is Doctor ? (1) D (2) E (3) A’s husband (4) C’s wife 4. How many female members are there in the family ? (1) Two (2) Two or Three (3) Three (4) Three or Four 5. Which of the following statements is definitely true ? (1) F is the grandmother of D. (2) F is the father of the Lawyer. (3) B is the mother of the Student. (4) D is the sister of the Lawyer. Directions (6–10) : Read the following information to answer the given questions : (United India Insurance AAO Exam.03.06.2012)

(i) A, B, C, D, E and F are six family members. (ii) There is one Doctor, one Lawyer, one Engineer, two Students and one Housewife. (iii) There are two married couples in the family. (iv) F, who is a Doctor, is father of E. (v) A is a Student and her husband is not a Lawyer. (vi) B is grandmother of D and is a Housewife. (vii) C is father-in-law of A and is an Engineer. (viii) D is sister of E. 6. How is E related to B ? (1) Grand-daughter (2) Grand-son (3) Grand-daughter or Grandson (4) Son-in-law 7. Which of the following is one of the pairs of married couples ? (1) F A (2) F B (3) C F (4) F D

8. Who is Doctor ? (1) D (2) E (3) A’s husband (4) C’s wife 9. How many female members are there in the family ? (1) Two (2) Two or Three (3) Three (4) Three or Four 10. Which of the following statements is definitely true ? (1) F is the grandmother of D. (2) F is the father of the Lawyer. (3) B is the mother of the Student. (4) D is the sister of the Lawyer. Directions (11–14) : Following questions are based on the information given below : (United India Insurance AO Exam. 26.05.2013)

(1) (2) (3) (4) 11.

‘P × Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’. ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’. ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’. ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’. In the expression B + D × M ÷ N, how is M related to B ? (1) Granddaughter (2) Son (3) Grandson (4) Granddaughter or Grandson (5) None of these 12. Which of the following represents ‘J is son of F’ ? (1) J ÷ R – T × F (3) J + R – T × F (3) J ÷ M – N × F (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 13. Which of the following represents ‘R is niece of M’ ? (1) M ÷ K × T – R (2) M – J + R – N (3) R – M × T ÷ W (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 14. H is the father of J. J is the brother of L. N is the wife of L. K is the son of N. L and J are children of H. P is the wife of H. K and Z are grandchildren of P. Who is the uncle of K ? (1) J (2) H (3) Z (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these (LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (AAO) Exam. 12.05.2013)

BPRE–128

15.

Vinod introduces Vishal as the son of the only brother of his father’s wife. How is Vinod related to Vishal ? (1) Cousin (2) Brother (3) Son (4) Uncle (NICL (GIC) AO Exam, 08.09.2013)

16. A’s son B is married with C whose sister D is married to E the brother of B. How D is related to A? (1) Sister (2) Daughter-in-law (3) Sister-in-law (4) Cousin (NICL (GIC) AO (Finance) Exam, 15.12.2013)

17. ‘D’ is mother-in-law of ‘M’ who is sister-in-law of ‘A’. ‘P’is father of ‘Q’ the only brother of ‘A’. How is ‘D’ related to ‘A’? (1) Mother-in law (2) Aunt (3) Mother (4) Wife 18. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of her uncle. The boy is girl’s (1) Uncle (2) Nephew (3) Brother (4) Son (NICL (GIC) AO Exam, 15.12.2013)

Directions (19–21) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (NIACL Administrative Officer (AO) Exam, 10.01.2015)

A @ B means A is father of B; A + B means A is son of B; A $ B means A is daughter of B; A % B means A is mother of B; A & B means A is husband of B. 19. Which among the following options is true if the expression ‘P + Q % R $ S + T & W’ is definitely true ? (1) Q is the only daughter of T. (2) P is the grandson of S. (3) R is the granddaughter of W. (4) T is the father–in–law of P. (5) W is the grandmother of Q. 20. How is V related to P in the expression ‘P & S % T @ U + V’ ? (1) Grandmother (2) Daughter–in–law (3) Grandson (4) Wife (5) Daughter

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 21. What should come in place of the question mark, to establish that P is the mother–in–law of T in the expression ? P%Q+R@S?T (1) @ (2) either & or % (3) $ (4) & (5) + Directions (22-24) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

26. What will come in the place of the question mark, if it is provided that M is the grandmother of F in the expression : ‘F * R < S ? M’ ? (1) > (2) < (3) + (4) * (5) Cannot be determined Directions (27–28) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

(NIACL Administrative Officer (AO) Online Exam, 11.01.2015)

(LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (AAO) Online Exam. 22.03.2015)

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’ ‘A + B’ means ‘A is husband of B’ ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is mother of B’ ‘A % B’ means ‘A is father of B’ ‘A & B’ means ‘A is son of B’ 22. How is Q related to T in the expression ‘P & Q % R + S $ T ? (1) Grandfather (2) Uncle (3) Father (4) Brother (5) Cousin 23. Which among the following options is true if the expression ‘P % Q + R $ S $ T & V’ is definitley true ? (1) S is grandmother of T. (2) V is daughter-in-law of R (3) V is husband of S. (4) P is Great Grandfather of S (5) R is Great Grandmother of T. 24. What should come in the place of the question mark (?) to establish ‘R is the husband of T’ in the expression ‘P + Q $ R % S ? T ? (1) @ (2) & (3) % (4) Either @ or & (5) $ Directions (25-26) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

B is the father of W and T. R is the son of W. R is the only brother of C. M is the mother of C. M is the daughter-in-law of Z. Z has only one daughter and only one son. 27. Which of the following is definitely true based upon the given relationships? (1) None of the given options is definitely true. (2) W is the son-in-law of Z. (3) W has only one daughter. (4) T is the aunt of C. (5) T is married to M. 28. Which of the following is/are required to establish that C is the daughter of M? (1) No extra information is required as the relation can be established from the given information. (2) Z is the mother of T. (3) M has only one son. (4) R is the grandson of B. (5) T is unmarried Directions (29–30) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

(NIACL Administrative Officer (AO) Online Exam, 12.01.2015)

‘A * B’ means A is the son of B. ‘A + B’ means A is the father of B. ‘A> B’ means A is the daughter of B. ‘A < B’ means A is the wife B. 25. Which of the following pairs of people represents first cousins with regard to the relations given in the expressions, if it is provided that A is the sister of J : ‘L > V < J + P’ and ‘S * A < D + F < E + K’. (1) LP (2) SP (3) SK (4) SF (5) Cannot be determined

(LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (AAO) Online Exam. 05.03.2016)

A is the mother of both U and T. T is the sister of J. J is the son of M. P is married to U. U is the daughter-inlaw of K. 29. How is P related to M ? (1) Son-in-law (2) Nephew (3) Son (4) Cannot be determined (5) Cousin 30. If R is the husband of K, then how is K related to P ? (1) Cannot be determined (2) Mother-in-law (3) Grandmother (4) Sister-in-law (5) Mother

BPRE–129

Directions (31–32) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (AAO) Online Exam. 06.03.2016)

L has only two daughters- U and P. P is married to K. K is the father of S. S is the son-in-law of Y. U is married to Q. 31. If Z is the daughter-in-law of P, then how is Z related to S? (1) Mother (2) Mother-in-law (3) Sister (4) Niece (5) Wife 32. How is Q related to L? (1) Brother-in-law (2) Brother (3) Son-in-law (4) Nephew

(5) Son

Directions (33–34) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (UIICL A.O. Exam 12.06.2016)

33.

If P is the sister of K, then how is K related to S ? (1) Grandmother (2) Daughter (3) Grandson (4) Granddaughter

(5) Daughter-in-law How is T related to B ? (1) Father-in-law (2) Niece (3) Daughter (4) Son-in-law (5) Daughter-in-law 35. A is wife of B. D is brother of A. P and Q are the children of E, who is wife of D. How is B related to Q ? (1) Father (2) Grandmother (3) Uncle (4) Father-in-law (5) Cousin

34.

(NICL A.O. Exam 05.06.2017)

Directions (36-38) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : There are seven members, four men and three women in a family. They are A, B, C, D, E, F and G. B is an Athlete and father of E. F is the paternal grandfather of E and is a Boxer. C, who is a wrestler, is daughter-in-law of D. G is E’s uncle and is an Advocate. There is one Architect, one Journalist and one Pilot in the family. C is not E’s mother. D is not married to B. There are three married couples in the family. (NICL A.O. Exam 05.06.2017)

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 36. If F is the grandfather of a Pilot, what is his daughter-in-law’s profession ? (1) Journalist (2) Boxer (3) Advocate (4) Cannot be determined (5) Wrestler 37. If D is the Pilot and the Journalist is not a female, then what is E’s profession ? (1) Architect (2) Journalist (3) Boxer (4) Wrestler (5) Athlete 38. If the Pilot does not have any child, then who is the Pilot ? (1) A (2) C (3) E (4) Either A or B (5) Either B or C Directions (39–40) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : (GIC Officer Online Exam 15.05.2017)

K is the mother of M. M is the brother of D. D is the daughter of R. S is the mother of N and R. N is the mother of Q. 39. How is Q related to R? (1) Either son or daughter (2) Grandson (3) Daughter-in-law (4) Son-in-law (5) Either nephew or niece 40. How is M related to S? (1) Grandson (2) Uncle (3) Nephew (4) Father (5) Son 41. P is the daughter of Q. P and S are the only two children of R. S is married to V. R has only two daughters. W is the mother of Q. T is married to P. W is married to X. R is the son of Y. How is S related to W? (1) Son-in-law (2) Daughter-in-law (3) Mother (4) Granddaughter (5) Son (LIC AAO Main Exam, 28.06.2019)

SHORT ANSWERS

NATIONALISED BANKS & IBPS PO/MT/SO EXAMS 1. (2) 5. (3) 9. (3) 13. (5)

2. (3) 6. (5) 10. (4) 14. (3)

3. (3) 7. (2) 11. (5) 15. (1)

4. (1) 8. (4) 12. (3) 16. (2)

17. (1) 21. (5) 25. (3) 29. (3) 33. (4) 37. (5) 41. (3) 45. (2) 49. (3) 53. (1) 57. (3) 61. (1) 65. (4) 69. (1) 73. (5) 77. (1) 81. (4) 85. (3) 89. (4) 93. (5) 97. (2) 101. (2) 105. (1) 109. (2) 113. (4) 117. (5) 121. (5) 125. (2) 129. (4) 133. (1) 137. (3) 141. (5) 145. (5) 149. (2) 153. (5)

18. (3) 22. (3) 26. (1) 30. (5) 34. (2) 38. (4) 42. (5) 46. (4) 50. (1) 54. (5) 58. (3) 62. (5) 66. (1) 70. (4) 74. (4) 78. (2) 82. (1) 86. (5) 90. (3) 94. (5) 98. (3) 102. (5) 106. (4) 110. (2) 114. (5) 118. (1) 122. (4) 126. (4) 130. (4) 134. (5) 138. (4) 142. (4) 146. (1) 150. (4)

19. (2) 23. (1) 27. (3) 31. (3) 35. (2) 39. (1) 43. (3) 47. (5) 51. (4) 55. (4) 59. (5) 63. (3) 67. (2) 71. (3) 75. (3) 79. (1) 83. (4) 87. (1) 91. (1) 95. (1) 99. (1) 103. (3) 107. (1) 111. (4) 115. (4) 119. (2) 123. (5) 127. (4) 131. (2) 135. (3) 139. (1) 143. (2) 147. (4) 151. (1)

20. (4) 24. (3) 28. (5) 32. (1) 36. (3) 40. (5) 44. (1) 48. (2) 52. (5) 56. (2) 60. (2) 64. (2) 68. (3) 72. (1) 76. (5) 80. (3) 84. (2) 88. (3) 92. (2) 96. (2) 100. (1) 104. (2) 108. (3) 112. (1) 116. (3) 120. (2) 124. (4) 128. (1) 132. (4) 136. (4) 140. (3) 144. (3) 148. (2) 152. (3)

SBI PO EXAMS 1. (4) 5. (4) 9. (4) 13. (2) 17. (5) 21. (2) 25. (5) 29. (2) 33. (1) 37. (4) 41. (1) 45. (2) 49. (4) 53. (5) 57. (4)

2. (3) 6. (3) 10. (1) 14. (5) 18. (1) 22. (4) 26. (2) 30. (1) 34. (2) 38. (2) 42. (4) 46. (2) 50. (4) 54. (1) 58. (3)

3. (2) 7. (5) 11. (4) 15. (4) 19. (4) 23. (1) 27. (3) 31. (4) 35. (2) 39. (4) 43. (5) 47. (5) 51. (5) 55. (2) 59. (1)

4. (5) 8. (1) 12. (3) 16. (3) 20. (1) 24. (1) 28. (4) 32. (2) 36. (3) 40. (3) 44. (1) 48. (4) 52. (4) 56. (5) 60. (2)

RBI GRADE–B/ NABARD GRADE–A OFFICER EXAMS BPRE–130

1. (4) 5. (1) 9. (5) 13. (4) 17. (2) 21. (1) 25. (2) 29. (4) 33. (2) 37. (3)

2. (2) 6. (3) 10. (1) 14. (2) 18. (1) 22. (3) 26. (5) 30. (3) 34. (3)

3. (2) 7. (1) 11. (3) 15. (1) 19. (5) 23. (4) 27. (4) 31. (4) 35. (4)

4. (5) 8. (3) 12. (5) 16. (5) 20. (2) 24. (3) 28. (3) 32. (4) 36. (1)

INSURANCE EXAMS 1. (2) 5. (2) 9. (3) 13. (2) 17. (3) 21. (4) 25. (2) 29. (1) 33. (3) 37. (2) 41. (4)

2. (1) 6. (2) 10. (2) 14. (1) 18. (3) 22. (1) 26. (4) 30. (5) 34. (5) 38. (3)

3. (3) 7. (1) 11. (3) 15. (1) 19. (3) 23. (3) 27. (4) 31. (5) 35. (3) 39. (5)

4. (3) 8. (3) 12. (5) 16. (2) 20. (2) 24. (4) 28. (3) 32. (3) 36. (4) 40. (1)

EXPLANATIONS

NATIONALISED BANKS & IBPS PO/MT/SO EXAMS 1. (2) N + O → N is daughter of O. O – P → O is father of P. P × Q → P is son of Q. Thus, Q is mother of N. 2. (3) S ÷ T → S is wife of T. T × V → T is son of V. V – W → V is father of W. W + Y → W is daughter of Y. T is son of Y. S is sister-in-law of W. S is daughter-in-law of Y. Y is wife of V. 3. (3) M + N ⇒ M is the husband of N. N – P ⇒ N is the sister of P. P × Q ⇒ P is the daughter of Q. Deductions N and P are daughter of Q. P is sister-in-law of M. M is son-in-law of Q. 4. (1) L ÷ M → L is daughter of M. M × O → M is father of O. O – P → O is son of P. P ÷ Q → P is daughter of Q. P is wife of M. P is mother of L and O. Therefore, L is granddaughters of Q.

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 5. (3) Q – R → Q is son of R. R ÷ S → R is daughter of S. S × T → S is father of T. R is sister of T. Therefore, Q is nephew of T. 6. (5) A – B → A is son of B. B × C → B is father of C. C + D → C is wife of D. D – E → D is son of E. B is father of A and C. A is brother of C. A is brother-in-law of D. C is sister of A The sex of E is not known. 7. (2) D’s sister’s son means nephew of D. A’s father is also nephew of D. 8. (4) Q is son of B. R is the sister of Q. P is the mother Q and R. S is the husband of R. S is the brother-in-law of Q. 9. (3) M+N⇒M is the husband of N. N – P ⇒ N is the sister of P. P × Q ⇒ P is the daughter of Q. Deductions N and P are daughter of Q. P is sister-in-law of M. M is son-in-law of Q. (10–12) : B and L are couple. A is brother of B. Therefore, A is brother–in–law of L. L is mother of K and M. L is sister of Q. The gender of Q is not known. 10. (4) A is brother of B. B is husband of L. Therefore, A is brother–in–law of L. 11. (5) L is sister of Q. L is mother of M. The gender of Q is not known. Therefore, Q is maternal uncle or aunt of M. 12. (3) P is mother of G and M. M is brother of G. L is son of G. Therefore, L is nephew of M. 13. (5) All the statements are true. 14. (3) J is mother of K. K is mother of V. So, J is grandmother of V.

(15-16) : A is husband of H. A is brother-in-law of G. Q is son of A and H. T is husband of M. T is father of G and H. 15. (1) Q is son of H and H is mother of Q. G is brother of H. So, Q is nephew of G. 16. (2) T is father of H. H is wife of A. So, T is father-in-law of A. 17. (1) Option (1) A + M ⇒ A is wife of M. M % L ⇒ M is father of L. L + D ⇒ L is wife of D. L is daughter of A and M. L is wife of D. So, A is mother-in-law of D. Option (2) B $ A ⇒ B is brother of A. A @ D ⇒ A is mother of D. D % K ⇒ D is father of K. K & Q ⇒ K is husband of Q. A is mother of D. Option (3) A @ T ⇒ A is mother of T. T + N ⇒ T is wife of N. N % D ⇒ N is father of D. D $ L ⇒ D is brother of L. T is mother of D and L. So, A is grandmother of D. Option (4) A + H ⇒ A is wife of H. H % M ⇒ H is father of M. M $ K ⇒ M is brother of K. K % D ⇒ K is father of D. So, A is grandmother of D. 18. (3) K & R ⇒ K is husband of R. R @ T ⇒ R is mother of T. T $ D ⇒ T is brother of D. D & M ⇒ D is husband of M. M @ S ⇒ M is mother of S. S % G ⇒ S is father of G. So, K is father-in-law of M. 19. (2) Option (1) T & H ⇒ T is husband of H. H @ N ⇒ H is mother of N. N + L ⇒ N is wife of L. L % D ⇒ L is father of D. L is husband of N. So, H is mother-in-law of L. Option (2) K % H ⇒ K is father of H. H + R ⇒ H is wife of R.

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20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

R % L ⇒ R is father of L. L $ N ⇒ L is brother of N. H is mother of L and N. Option (3) H + J ⇒ H is wife of J. J % N ⇒ J is father of N. N & L ⇒ N is husband of L. L @ T ⇒ L is mother of T. So, H is mother-in-law of L. Option (4) L $ R ⇒ L is brother of R. R % H ⇒ R is father of H. H @ T ⇒ H is mother of T. T & V ⇒ T is husband of V. So, H is niece of L. (4) K % R ⇒ K is father of R. R $ T ⇒ R is brother of T. T & D ⇒ T is husband of D. D @ H ⇒ D is mother of H. H + S ⇒ H is wife of S. So, S is son-in-law of D and T. (5) S + D ⇒ S is wife of D. D $ P ⇒ D is brother of P. P % H ⇒ P is father of H. H & V ⇒ H is husband of V. V @ T ⇒ V is mother of T. P is grandfather of T. (3) M + K ⇒ M is son of K. K $ T ⇒ K is father of T. T @ N ⇒ T sister of N. So, M is brother of N. (1) Option (1) V % Q ⇒ V is wife of Q. Q $ R ⇒ Q is father of R. R @ D ⇒ R is sister of D. V is mother of D and R. Option (2) V % Q ⇒ V is wife of Q. Q @ R ⇒ Q is sister of R. R $ D ⇒ R is father of D. Q is a male, so he cannot be sister of R. Option (3) D + T ⇒ D is son of T. T @ J ⇒ T is sister of J. J $ V ⇒ J is father of V. So, V is cousin of D. Option (4) V @ F ⇒ V is sister of F. F $ D ⇒ F is father of D. D % M ⇒ D is wife of M. So, V is paternal aunt of D. (3) E + H ⇒ E is son of H. H @ K ⇒ H is sister of K. K $ B ⇒ K is father of B. Hence, B is cousin of E.

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP (25-26) : A is the husband of M. A is the father of P. N is the wife of Y. S is grandmother of Y and A. 25. (3) Y is the uncle of P. 26. (1) N is the wife of Y. 27. (3) A @ B ⇒ A is father of B. B % C ⇒ B is mother of C. C & D ⇒ C is sister of D. D + E ⇒ D is husband of E. D is the son of B. B is mother–in–law of E. 28. (5) A % B ⇒ A is mother of B. B + C ⇒ B is father of C. C & D ⇒ C is sister of D. If D is father or mother of E, then C would be aunt of E. D @ E ⇒ D is father of E. D % E ⇒ D is mother of E. 29. (3) A + B ⇒ A is husband of B. B & C ⇒ B is sister of C. C @ D ⇒ C is father of D. D % E ⇒ D is mother of E. E $ F ⇒ E is brother of F. D is daughter of C. B is sister of C. So, B is aunt of D. 30. (5) J is married to C. There is no information about the gender of either J or C. Therefore, J is either brother–in– law of P. 31. (3) S is the sister of D. T is the wife of D. Therefore, T is the sister–in–law of S. 32. (1) D is the father of Z. B is the brother of D. Therefore, B is the uncle of Z. (33–34) : U is the mother of L and D. R is the father of L and D. D is the husband of J. K is the son of D and J. F is the mother-in-law of D. 33. (4) F is the mother of J. J is the wife of D. Therefore, D is the son-in-law of F. 34. (2) D is the father of K. R is the father of D. Therefore, R is the grandfather of K.

(35–39) : M's sister S

M J

M's motherQ

M's wife M's R brother

M's son L M's father

K M's daughter

35. (2) M sits second to the right of R. 36. (3) L is an immediate neighbour of K. 37. (5) R sits to the immediate left of M’s wife. K is an immediate neighbour of L. M sits second to the left of Q. S is daughter of L. 38. (4) K is niece of R. 39. (1) J is the wife of M. (40–41) : J is the sister of K. L is the daughter of J and B T is the son of J and B. T is the husband of R. 40. (5) R is the wife of T. J is the mother of T. Therefore, J is the mother-in-law of R. 41. (3) K is the brother of J. T is the son of J. J is the mother of T. Therefore, T is nephew of K. (42–46) : N’s brother K N’s son N’s father Q O

45. (2) N’s mother P sits second to the right of N. M is sister of Q. N is an immediate neighbour of L (N’s sister) and M (N’s daughter). 46. (4) J is the wife of N. K is the brother of N. Therefore, J is the sister-in-law of K. (47–48) : D is the father of A and J. P is the wife of D. J is the wife of U. J is the sister of A. A is the son of D and P. J is the daughter–in–law of L. 47. (5) J is the wife of U. U is the son of L. Therefore, J is the daughter–in– law of L. 48. (2) A is the brother of J. J is the wife of U. Therefore, A is brother–in–law of U. (49-50) : U is the mother of D and S. L is the father of D and S. U is the wife of L. D is the son of L and U. S is the mother of M. D is the father of P. 49. (3) S is the daughter L and U. Therefore, S is the wife of R. Thus, R is the son-in-law of U. 50. (1) P is the daughter of D. S is the sister of D. Therefore, S is the aunt of P. (51–52) : J is the daughter of T.

L N’s sister

J N’s wife N

P N’s mother M N’s daughter

42. (5) J is the wife of N. Q is the son of J and N. 43. (3) Four persons - O, J, P and M - sit between K and N when counted from the left of K. 44. (1) N’s sister L sits to the immediate right of Q.

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T is the mother of D and J. J is the wife of M. Y is the daughter of J and M. 51. (4) J is the daughter of T. Q is the sister of T. Therefore, J is the niece of Q. 52. (5) Y is the daughter of J. J is the daughter of T. Therefore, Y is the granddaughter of T.

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP (53–54) :

N’s Husband D

N’s son B

N’s Mother O

C N’s Sister

P N’s Brother A N’s Father

N

M N’s Daughter

53. (1) When counted from the left of N, only one person sits between P and N.

63. (3) T is the daughter of J. T is the mother of S. Therefore, J is the grand father of S. 64. (2) T is the daughter – in – law of W. P is the brother of J. J is the father of T. P is the uncle of T. The sex of W is not known. (65–67) : C is the wife of M. M is the father of G and L. C is the mother of G and L. L is married to K. 65. (4) G is the brother of L.

54. (5) A is the father-in-law of D. C is an immediate neighbour of O and M.

66.

D sits to the immediate right of B. 55. (4) N’s husband D sits to the immediate left of P.

67.

56. (2) B is the son of N. 57. (3) B is the son of N. A is the father of N. Therefore, B is the grandson of A. (58-61) : J is the mother of T and Y. S is husband of R. D and K are sons of S. 58. (3) D is the brother of J. J is the mother of Y. Therefore, D is the maternal uncle of Y. 59. (5) Y is married to P. P is the husband of Y. S is the grandfather of Y. Therefore, S is the grandfatherin-law of P. 60. (2) D is a male. Therefore, C is the wife of D. D is the husband of C. 61. (1) K is brother of H, M and R. D is mother of H, M and R. R is daughter of D. 62. (5) Only daughter of Suresh’s grandfather means aunt or mother of Suresh. Therefore, Suresh is either brother or cousin or that woman. (63-64) : T is the daughter of J and L. V is the son of J and L. J is the husband of L.

68.

69.

70.

K is married to L. Therefore, G is the brother–in– law of K. (1) K is the mother of R. Then, K is the wife of L. Therefore, L is the father of R. (2) P is the wife of G. C is the mother of G. Therefore, C is the mother–in– law of P. (3) S × T → S is the son of T. T ÷ V → T is the wife of V. V × W → V is the son of W. W ÷ Y → W is the wife of Y. T is the wife of V and V is the son of Y. Therefore, T is the daughter in– law of Y. (1) P ÷ Q → P is the wife of Q. Q × R → Q is the son of R. R – T → R is the father of T. Q is the brother of T. Q is the husband of P. Therefore, P is the sister–in–law of T. (4) Option (1) K – P → K is the father of P. P × S → P is the son of S. S + D → S is the daughter of D. D ÷ N → D is the wife of N. S is the daughter of D. K is the husband of S. Therefore, K is the son–in–law of D. Option (2) K + P → K is the daughter of P. Thus, K cannot be a grandson.

BPRE–133

Option (3) S – P → P is the father of P. P + N → P is the daughter of N. N + D → N is the daughter of D. D ÷ K → D is the wife of K. Therefore, K is the husband of D. Option (4) K × P → K is the son of P. P ÷ S → P is the wife of S. S × D → S is the son of D. D – N → D is the father of N. S is the father of K. D is the father of S. Therefore, K is the grandson of D. 71. (3) H – R → H is the father of R. R × C → R is the son of C. C + T → C is the daughter of T. T ÷ W → T is the wife of W. W × M → W is the son of M. Therefore, C is the daughter of W. (72–74) : P is the father of L and T. A is the mother of L and T. A is the wife of P. B is the wife of L. W is the son of L and B. 72. (1) P is the father of L. B is the wife of L. Thereofore, P is the father-in-law of B. 73. (5) T is the sister of L. Therefore, L is the brother-in-law of Y. 74. (4) A is the Grandmother of W. (75–77) : N is the father of D and G. E is the mother of D and G. C is the husband of G. E is the daughter of K. C is the father of Q. 75. (3) Q is the daughter of C and G. D is the sister of G. Therefore, Q is the niece of D. 76. (5) E is the wife of N. K is the mother of E. Therefore, N is the son-in-law of K. 77. (1) N has two daughters — D and G. (78–80) : B is the daughter of A. C is the son of A. F is the wife of C. D and E are sons of C and F. H is the husband of A.

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 78. (2) F is the wife of C. C is the son of A and H. Therefore, F is the daughter-inlaw of H. 79. (1) C is the father of E. 80. (3) G is the granddaughter of A and H. B and C are children of A and H. G is the daughter of B or C. F is the wife of C. Therefore, either B or F is the mother of G. (81–83) : N @ P ⇒ N is the sister of P. P % T ⇒ P is the brother of T. T # M ⇒ T is the mother of M. M $ K ⇒ M is the husband of K. K # J ⇒ K is the mother of J.

(87–89) : S is the sister of R. R is the brother of S. R is the husband of L. J is the father of B and Q. Q is the sister of B. 87. (1) J is the father of B. S is the daughter of B. Therefore, J is the grandfather of S. 88. (3) J is the father of B and Q. Q is the only daughter of J. Therefore, B is the son of J. R is the husband of L. R is the son of B. Therefore, B is the father–in–law of L.

J @ H ⇒ J is the sister of H. 81. (4) K is the mother of J and H. M is the father of J and H. The gender of H is not known. Therefore, H is either son or daughter of M. 82. (1) T is the mother of M. M is the husband of K. Therefore, K is the daughter-inlaw of T. 83. (4) P is the brother of T. T is the mother of M. Therefore, P is the maternal uncle of M. (84–86) : S is the husband of D. D is the sister of A. D is the daughter of B. Q is the daughter of B. R is the husband of Q. N is the daughter of Q and R. 84. (2) N is the daughter of Q and R. R is the son of M. M is the paternal grandfather of N. Therefore, V is the maternal grandfather of N. Q is the wife of R. Q is the daughter of B. B is the mother of Q. Therefore, B is the mother–in– law of R. 85. (3) S is the husband of D. D is the sister of Q. Therefore, S is the brother–in– law of Q. 86. (5) N is the daughter of Q. D is the sister of Q. Therefore, D is the aunt of N.

89. (4) R is the son of B. Q is the sister of B. Therefore, Q is the aunt of R. (90–92) : A is the son of G and R. K and M are daughters of G and R. S is the sister–in–law of R. 90. (3) K and M are sisters. P is the son of K. Therefore, M is the aunt of P. 91. (1) G is married to R. S is sister of G. Therefore, S is the sister–in–law of R. 92. (2) If S has no sister, then G is brother of S. G is married to R. R is the wife of G. G is the father of K and M. P is the son of K. Therefore, G is the grandfather of K. 93. (5) Ramesh is the son and Neha is the daughter-in-law of Mahesh. Anuradha and Bindu are daughters of Ramesh and Neha. Therefore, Bindu is the grand daughter of Mahesh. The family tree will be as follows : Mahesh Father-in-law

Only son

Ramesh

Spouse

Neha

Father Anuradha Sister

Bindu

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(94–96) : Q is the brother of P. K is the mother of P and Q. C is the wife of Q. L is the father of P and Q. P is the daughter of K and L. N is the daughter of P. 94. (5) C is the wife of Q. K is the mother of Q. Therefore, K is the mother-in-law of C. 95. (1) L is the father of P. P is the mother of N. Therefore, L is the grandfather of N. 96. (2) N has only one brother as sibling. Therefore, V is the brother of N. P is the mother of N and V. Q is the brother of P. Therefore, V is the nephew of Q. (97–99) : P is the wife of Q. E is the son of P and Q. L is the mother-in-law of Q and Y. M is the father of P and X. M is the husband of L. X is the wife of Y. B is the daughter of X and Y. A is the son of X and Y. 97. (2) M is the father of P. P is the mother of D. Therefore, M is the maternal grandfather of D. 98. (3) A is the son of X and Y. E is the son of P and Q. P and X are the sisters. Therefore, A is the Cousin of E. 99. (1) Y is the husband of X. L is the mother of X. Therefore, Y is the son-in-law of L. (100–102) : D is the father of only F and E. E is married to G and G is the son-in-law of M. Therefore, E is the wife of G. E is the daughter of D and M. E is the sister of F. F is the son of D and M. D is the husband of M. M is the mother of E and F. H is the only son of E and G. K and J are daughters of E and G. L is married to K. L is the husband of K.

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 100. (1) J is the daughter of E and G. M is the mother of E. E is the mother of J. Therefore, M is the grandmother (maternal) of J. 101. (2) H is the brother of J and K. K is the wife of L. Therefore, H is the brother-inlaw of L. 102. (5) F is the brother of E. E is the mother of K. Therefore, F is the maternal uncle of K. (103–106) : Z is the husband Y. Z is father-in-law of E. Y is mother of F. Y is mother-in-law of E. T is mother-in-law of F. P is the daughter of S and T. E is the husband of F. S is father-in-law of F. J is the son of Z and Y J is the brother of F. 103. (3) J is the son of Z and Y. 104. (2) P is the daughter of S and T. T is the daughter of X. Therefore, P is the grand daughter of X. 105. (1) J is the son of Z and Y. J is the grandson of M. The gender of M is not given. Again, it is not clear whether J is paternal or maternal grandson of M. Therefore, it cannot be deter mined, how is M related to Y. 106. (4) S is father-in-law of F. (107–109) : B is the husband of K. B is the brother of P. J is the father of B and P. G is the mother of B and P. P is the daughter of J and G. 107. (1) G is the mother of B. S is the son of B. Therefore, S is grandson of G. 108. (3) P is the daughter of J. 109. (2) B is the husband of K. K is the daughter of H and V. Therefore, X is the son of H. (110–111) : R is the sister of Q. M is the father of Q and R. V is the son of Q. V is the grandson (maternal) of C. M does not have married daughter. Therefore, Q is the son of M.

110. (2) R is the sister of Q. Q is the father of V. Therefore, R is the aunt of V. 111. (4) If B is married to Q, B would be wife of Q. M is the father of Q. Therefore, B is the daughter-inlaw of M. 112. (1) D & B D is the daughter-in-law of B. B is the wife of S. B%S SG S is the father of G. G%E G is the wife of E. E is the father of Q. E Q Q$D Q is the brother of D. G is the mother of D and Q. S is the father of G. Therefore, S is grandfather of D. G is the daugh113. (4) G & B ter-in-law of B. B is the husband of B*S S. S is the daughter of S@W W. W©F W is the father of F. F%O F is the wife of O. O is the father of Z. O©Z F is the sister of S and mother of Z. The gender of Z is not known. Therefore, Z is either nephew or niece of S. (114–116) : H is husband of K. M is mother-in-law of K. P is mother of K and B. 114. (5) M is mother of H. If Y is father of H, Y is husband of M. 115. (4) K is mother of F. P is mother of K. Therefore, P is grandmother (maternal) of F. 116. (3) B is sibling of K. K is mother of F. H is father of F. The gender of B is not known. (117–119) : R is the father-in-law of D. R is the father of B and P. Q is the mother of R and G. K is the only daughter-in-law of Q.

BPRE–135

Therefore, K is the wife of R. K is the mother of B, M and P. M is the only daughter of K. B and P are sons of K and R. D is the wife of B. 117. (5) K is the wife of R. Q is the mother of R and G. K has no brother-in-law. Therefore, G is sister-in-law of K. R is father of B, M and P. G is the sister of R. Therefore, G is the aunt of P. 118. (1) M is the daughter of R. R is the son of Q. Q is the mother of R. Therefore, Q is the grandmother of M. 119. (2) B is the son of R. G is the sister of R. Therefore, B is the nephew of G. 120. (2) All are correct 121. (5) All are correct (122–124) : J is the father of S. S is the only child of J. M is mother of D and K. H and L are children of K. S is married to K. 122. (4) L is daughter of K and S. D is sister of K. Therefore, L is niece of D. 123. (5) The gender of K is not known. If T is paternal grandfather of L, K is son of T. If T is maternal grandfather of L, K is daughter of T. 124. (4) S is the only child of J. S is married to K. J is the father of S. H is son of K and S. Therefore, J is grandfather of H. (125-126) : M is the father of Q and R. R is unmarried daughter of M. V is son of Q. Q is father of V. C is father-in-law of Q. 125. (2) R is aunt of V. 126. (4) Q is son of M. B is wife of Q. Therefore, B is daughter-in-law of M.

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 135. (3) A is grandchild of G. S is son of G. It is given that only one of the children of G and Q is married. M is daughter of G and Q. M is wife of R. Again, F is the only daughter of M and R. Therefore, A is the son of M and R and nephew of S. 136. (4) F is daughter of M and R. X is the only aunt of F. Therefore, X is the sister-in-law of M. 137. (3) A has three children. F is the son of A and C. B is only daughter of A and C. E is sister-in-law of B and F. Therefore, D is son of A and C. D is the husband of E. Thus, D is brother of B. 138. (4) Roma is wife of Rakshit. Reena is mother of Raksha and Rakshit. Therefore, Roma is sister-in-law of Raksha.

(139–143) :

140. (3) W is the sister of X is the mother of L. Therefore, W is the aunt of L. 141. (5) X is the daughter of E. E the is mother of X. Q is the brother of E.

Therefore, X is niece of Q. 142. (4) K is father of X. X is mother of L. Therefore, K is grandfather of L. 143. (2) Y is son of E and K.

Brother

C

Wife-Husband

K

Da

ug

n So

h te

r

Q

Husband-Wife

Daughter

J

X

Y

W

L

(i) W ? E : W is daughter of E. E = J : E is the mother-in-law of J. J $ L : J is the father of L. (ii) L + Y : L is the niece or nephew of Y. Y + Q : Y is the niece or nephew of Q. Q ! E : Q is brother of E. (iii) X ^ Y : X is sister of Y. Y # K : Y is the son of K. K © W : K is the parent of W. 139. (1) J is husband of X. Y is brother of X. Therefore, J is brotherin-law of Y.

(144–148) :

J

144. (3) J, U and Q belong to the third generation. 145. (5) W is the mother of T and D. 146. (1) Q is the son of D and P. P is the son of M. If M is the wife of R, R would be father of P and paternal grandfather of Q.

BPRE–136

Wife–Husband

P

Son

u Da U

M

Z

Son

te r ug h Da D

ug h T

gh

te r

Husband–Wife

S on

Y

Wife–Husband

te r

W

Da

B Son

(127–129) : N is sister of P. N@P P%T P is brother of T. T is mother of M. T#M M$K M is husband of K. K is mother of J. K#J J is sister of H. J@H 127. (4) K is mother of J and H. M is the father of J and H. The gender of H is not known. Therefore, H is either son or daughter of M. 128. (1) T is mother of M. K is wife of M. Therefore, K is daughter-in-law of T. 129. (4) P is brother of T. T is mother of M. Therefore, P is maternal uncle of M. 130. (4) Father of Arjits’s maternal uncle means maternal grandfather of Arjit. Grandson of Arjit’s maternal grandfather means cousin (maternal brother) of Arjit. Sister of cousion (maternal brother) of Arjit means cousin (maternal sister) of Arjit. (131–132) : ● P is wife of V. R is daughter of P and V. U is son of P and V. ● T is daughter of Q and niece of U. ● W is wife of U. ● S is brother of V. 131. (2) V is father of U. U is the husband of W. Therefore, V is the father-in-law of W. 132. (4) Male members are : V, U, Q and S. 133. (1) A is wife of B. B is son-in-law of R. G is son of J. J is daughter-in-law of R. Therefore, G is nephew of B. (134 – 136) : l Q is the husband G. l B and S are sons of Q and G. l M is the only daughter of Q and G. l R is the husband of M. l F is the only daughter of R and M. l X is the only aunt of F. 134. (5) Q is father of M. M is wife of R. Therefore, Q is the father-in-law of R.

Q 147. (4) D and T are sisters. Y is the husband of T. Therefore, D is the sister-in-law of Y. 148. (2) U is daughter of Y and T. T is the daughter of W and Z. Therefore, U is granddaughter of Z.

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP (149–153) :

(8–10) :

Wife–Husband

th er

n

n so X

3. (2) A % B ⇒ A is mother of B. B @ C ⇒ B is sister of C. C + D ⇒ C is brother of D. D $ E ⇒ D is husband of E. E % F ⇒ E is mother of F. D is son of A. C is brother of D, the father of F. A is mother of B, C and D. A has one daughter and two sons. 4. (5) B % C ⇒ B is mother of C. C @ D ⇒ C is sister of D. D + E ⇒ D is brother of E. E & F ⇒ E is father of F. E is brother of C and D. C is sister of E. D is son of B. (5–7) :

B

hushand

N

brother wife Q

child

5. (4) A is grandfather of Q. Q is granddaughter of A. B is the brother of N. N is the father of Q. Therefore, Q is niece of B. 6. (3) A is Husband of C. 7. (5) B is grandson of J.

BPRE–137

father-inlaw M M

son

F

Q M

an sb hu

d

8. (1) X is the mother of Q. J is the brother of X. Therefore, J is the maternal uncle of Q. 9. (4) P is the daughter of M. Y is the son of P. Therefore, Y is the grandson of M. 10. (1) K is the child of P. P is the mother of K. Q is the brother of P. The gender of K is not known. Therefore, K is either nephew or niece of Q. 11. (4) Option (1) A + M ⇒ A is brother of M. M % R ⇒ M is mother of R. R $ D ⇒ R is husband of D. D @ V ⇒ D is sister of V. Therefore, A is brother of mother - in- law of D. Option (2) B & D ⇒ B is father of D. D $ H ⇒ D is husband of H. H + A ⇒ H is brother of A. A % T ⇒ A is mother of T. D is a male.

mother M

S

M

er

C

SBI PO EXAMS

Father

son

husband

ug ht

Wife–Husband

A is the sister of H. Therefore, E is the niece of A. 152. (3) G is the mother of A. 153. (5) J is the son of F and A. E is the daughter of H and B. A is the sister of H. Therefore, J is the cousin brother of E.

A

P

F

149. (2) Female members in the family : G, A, B and E. 150. (4) B is the wife of H. J is the son of F and A. A is the sister of H. Therefore, J is the nephew of H. 151. (1) E is the daughter of H and B.

J

Y M

B

da

E

M/F brother

M A

Husband–Wife

H

J

1. (4) Option (1) A + M ⇒ A is brother of M. M % R ⇒ M is mother of R. R $ D ⇒ R is husband of D. D @ V ⇒ D is sister of V. Therefore, A is brother of mother - in- law of D. Option (2) B & D ⇒ B is father of D. D $ H ⇒ D is husband of H. H + A ⇒ H is brother of A. A % T ⇒ A is mother of T. D is a male. Option (3) A $ F ⇒ A is husband of F. F % W ⇒ F is mother of W. W @ D ⇒ W is sister of D. D % M ⇒ D is mothe of M. A is father of D. Option (4) A + K ⇒ A is brother of K. K $ D ⇒ K is father of D. D @ L ⇒ D is sister of L. L $ Q ⇒ L is husband of Q. So, D is niece of A. 2. (3) A + B ⇒ A is brother of B. B @ C ⇒ B is sister of C. C & D ⇒ C is father of D. D $ E ⇒ D is husband of E. So, C is father-in-law of E.

K

br o

So

A

Daughter

Husband–Wife Son

F

D

r Da

ug hte

G

Option (3) A $ F ⇒ A is husband of F. F % W ⇒ F is mother of W. W @ D ⇒ W is sister of D.

C

D % M ⇒ D is mothe of M. A is father of D. Option (4) A + K ⇒ A is brother of K. K $ D ⇒ K is father of D. D @ L ⇒ D is sister of L. L $ Q ⇒ L is husband of Q. So, D is niece of A.

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 12. (3) A + B ⇒ A is brother of B. B @ C ⇒ B is sister of C. C & D ⇒ C is father of D. D $ E ⇒ D is husband of E. So, C is father-in-law of E. 13. (2) A % B ⇒ A is mother of B. B @ C ⇒ B is sister of C. C + D ⇒ C is brother of D. D $ E ⇒ D is husband of E. E % F ⇒ E is mother of F. D is son of A. C is brother of D, the father of F. A is mother of B, C and D. A has one daughter and two sons. 14. (5) B % C ⇒ B is mother of C. C @ D ⇒ C is sister of D. D + E ⇒ D is brother of E. E & F ⇒ E is father of F. E is brother of C and D. C is sister of E. D is son of B. (15–17) : A is the father of B and N. B is the son of A and M. C is the wife of N. J is grandfather of B and N. J is father–in–law of M. A is father–in–law of C. M is mother–in–law of C. A is grandfather of Q. M is grandmother of Q. 15. (4) A is grandfather of Q. Q is granddaughter of A. B is the brother of N. N is the father of Q. Therefore, Q is niece of B. 16. (3) A is father–in–law of C. 17. (5) B is grandson of J. (18-20) : P is the sister of Q. Q is the brother of P. P is the mother of Y, A and K. P is the wife of S. M is the father of P and Q. X is the mother of P and Q. 18. (1) X is the mother of Q. J is the brother of X. Therefore, J is the maternal uncle of Q. 19. (4) P is the daughter of M. Y is the son of P. Therefore, Y is the grandson of M.

20. (1) K is the child of P. P is the mother of K. Q is the brother of P. The gender of K is not known. Therefore, K is either nephew or niece of Q. (21–23) : S is the daughter of U and V. Y is also daughter of U and V. Y is the wife of D. P is the husband of S. S is the sister–in–law of B. V is the husband of U. L is the husband of J. L is the father of U. 21. (2) S is the sister–in–law of B. 22. (4) L is the father of U. 23. (1) P is the husband of S. V is the father of S. Therefore, V is the father–in–law of P. (24–26) : T is wife of D. T is mother of R. J is wife of B. H is wife of R. L is the daughter of B and J. 24. (1) J is the mother of L. T is the sister J. Therefore, L is the niece of T. 25. (5) M is the son of H and R. R is the son of D. Therefore, M is the grandson of D. 26. (2) J is the sister of T. T is mother of R. Therefore, J is the anut of R. (27 – 29) : D is sister of T. D is wife of P. Y is husband of T. J is the son of T and Y. U is the daughter of T and Y. 27. (3) P is the husband of D. T is the sister of D. Therefore, P is the brother-in-law of T. 28. (4) J is the son of T and Y. D is the sister of T. Therefore, J is the nephew of D. 29. (2) Q is the son of D and P. P is the son of M. Therefore, Q is the grandson of M. 30. (1) Father of girl’s uncle means grandfather of the girl. Daughter of girl’s grandfather means aunt of the girl. The boy is the son of girl’s aunt. Therefore, the boy is cousin brother of that girl.

BPRE–138

(31-33) : M is the husband of P. P is the sister-in-law of Q. R is the son of M and P. S is the mother-in-law of M. T is the husband of S. P is the only daughter of S and T. 31. (4) P is the only daughter of S and T. Therefore, J is the brother of P. M is the husband of P. Thus, J is the brother–in–law of M. 32. (2) M is the son–in–law of S. 33. (1) R is the only son of M and P. Q is the sister of M. M is the father of R. Therefore, R is nephew of Q. 34. (2) Y is the mother of K, N and T. K is the daughter of Y. K is the mother of J and M. D is the father of J and M. X is the wife of M. Therefore, D is the father–in–law of X. (35–37) : S and T are daughters of D. T is the wife of J. T is the mother of R and U. U is the daughter of J and T. U is the wife of K. 35. (2) T is the daughter of D. J is the Husband of T. Therefore, J is the son–in–law of D. 36. (3) R is the brother of U. U is the wife of K. Therefore, K is the uncle of X. 37. (4) S is the sister of T. R is the son of T. Therefore, S is the aunt of R. (38–45) : U is the wife of T. Z is the son of Q and R. Q is the mother of Z. 38. (2) Z is the father of T. T is the husband of U. T is the only son of Z. Therefore, X is the daughter of Z. Thus, X is the sister–in–law of U. 39. (4) U is the daughter of D. L is the sister of D. Therefore, U is the niece of L. 40. (3) T is the son of Z. Z is the son of Q and R. Q is the mother of Z. Therefore, Q is the grandmother of T.

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP ● ●

Male members : Z, R, P and W Female members : V, U, Q, S, T and X. Husband–Wife

(Male) Z

V (Female) So n

n So

53. (5) U is the wife of P. R is the niece of P. Therefore, U is aunt of R. 54. (1) If J has only one son, L is daughter of J. T is husband of L. 55. (2) J is father-in-law of T. (56–60) : Wife–Husband

er ht

W

U

ug

Son

T

Daughter X

S is the unmarried sister of Q. 48. (4) Male members = 4 Female members = 6 Required ratio = 4 : 6 = 2 : 3 49. (4) Q is the mother of T. S is the sister of Q. Therefore, S is the aunt of T. 50. (4) S is mother of P, Q and R. T is father of P, Q and R. S is wife of T. P is son of S and T. The gender of Q is not known. (51–52) : M is the father of Q. J is the only sister-in-law of M. J is the mother of W. R is the mother of M. 51. (5) Q is the daughter of M. If K is the only uncle of Q, then K is the father of W. 52. (4) Q is the granddaughter of R. R is mother of M and that of father or W. R has no any grandson. Therefore, W is granddaughter of R. Q is the cousin of W and mother of G. Thus, W is the aunt of G. J is the wife of M’s brother. Q is the daughter of M. Therefore, J is the aunt of Q. (53–55) : ● J is the father of only L and P. ● R is the niece of P. ● R is the daughter of L. ● M is the grandfather of R. ● Therefore, M is father-in-law of L. ● T and L are couple. ● U is the wife of P.

BPRE–139

ter

Da ug h

Wife

D

n

Wife Q

G

P

So

R

Da

(41–43) : S is the mother of D and K. D is the daughter of M and S. M is the husband of S. U is the father of M and Y. 41. (1) D is the daughter of M and S. Therefore, X would be the son– in–law of M. 42. (4) T is the mother of M and Y. K is the only son of M. Therefore, T is the grandmother of K. 43. (5) S is the wife of M. M is the brother of Y. Therefore, S is the sister–in–law of Y. 44.(1) V is the brother of M and N. P is the mother of M, N and V. R is the father of M, N and V. P is the wife of R. R is the husband of P. M is either son or daughter of R. 45. (2) R is the wife of V. M is the daughter of R and V. S is the only son of R and V. R is the grandmother of A. Therefore, S is either father or maternal uncle of A. 46. (2) C is the mother-in-law of Z. C has only one daughter. Therefore, Z is the son-in-law of C. Z is the son of P. P is the grandfather of S. S is the niece of T. Therefore, S is the daughter of Z. P has only one child Z. Therefore, T is the son of C. Thus, T is the brother-in-law of Z. 47. (5) J is the son of A and R. J is father of S. A is mother of J and Q. R is the husband of A. Therefore, R is the grandfather of S. (48–49) : ● Z is the father-in-law of Q and Z has no girl child. P is the son of V. Thus, V is the mother of P and R. Z is the father of P and R. ● U is the mother of X and is married to P. ● S is the sister-in-law of R. Q has only one unmarried sister. Therefore, Q is the wife of R. ● W is the brother of T. T is the youngest in the family. W is the son of Q and R. T is the daughter of Q and R. ● Z has only one grandson. Therefore X is daughter of P and U.

Husband–Wife

Husband–Wife

A

F Son I

H

B Daughter Wife–Husband E

C

56. (5) B is daughter–in–law of D and G. 57. (4) I is cousin brother of E. 58. (3) G is mother of A. 59. (1) E is niece of A. 60. (2) I is son of A. H is husband of B. A is sister of H. I is nephew of H.

RBI GRADE–B/ NABARD GRADE–A OFFICER EXAMS 1. (4) B is the son of D 2. (2) H is mother of A, E and G. H sits second to left of G. 3. (2) One person sits between A and his brother E. 4. (5) A sits exactly between H and F. 5. (1) E is the brother of A. 6. (3) A is grandson of D. 7. (1) Except B, all others are females. 8. (3) H is a female. H is sister-in-law of C. H is daughter of D. H is mother of A. 9. (5) T is the mother of P. R is grandfather of P. Therefore, T is either daughter or daughter-in-law of R. 10. (1) P @ R → P is the mother of R. R = S → S is the sister of R. S © T → T is the brother of S. T £ V → T is the son of V. V is the husband of P. T is the brother of R and S. R is child of P and V. The sex of R is not known.

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 11. (3) Option (1) C £ V → C is the son of V. V # N → V is the daughter of N. N @ L → N is the mother of L. L © D → D is the brother of L. N is the mother of D, L and V. D is the brother of V. So, C is the nephew of D. D is maternal uncle of C. Option (2) C £ V → C is the son of V. V £ L → V is the son of L. L @ N → L is the mother of N. N © D → D is the brother of N. L is the mother of D, N and V. D is paternal uncle of C. C is the nephew of D. Option (3) D £ L → D is the son of L. L £ N → L is the son of N. N @ V → N is the mother of V. V © C → C is the brother of V. N is grandmother of D. N is mother of C, L and V. C is the paternal uncle of D. Option (4) D £ N → D is the son of N. N # V → N is the daughter of V. V @ L → V is the mother of L. L © C → C is the brother of L. V is the mother of C, L and N. N is the sister of C and L. So, C is the maternal uncle of D. 12. (5)L = M → M is the sister of L. M # N → M is daughter of N. N © P → P is the brother of N. P ★ Q → P is the father of Q. P is the uncle of L and M. Q is the cousin of L and M. L is the child of N. N is either uncle or aunt of Q. Q is either niece or nephew of N. 13. (4) Q £ N → Q is the son of N. N @ S → N is the mother of S. S © M → M is the brother S. M = P → P is the sister of M. M and Q are two sons of N. P is the daughter of N. The sex of S in not known. P is the sister of M, Q and S. 14. (2) Option (1) Q ★ P → Q is the father P. P # C → P is the daughter C. C @ N → C is the mother of N. N @ V → N is the mother of V. Q is a male.

Option (2) W is the mother of M, N and P. B is the husband of P. T is the father of W. B is the son–in–law of W and Y. Therefore, B is the grandson–in– law of T. 18. (1) P is the daughter of T and V. V is the mother of M and P. M is the husband of N. V is the grandmother of B. (19–23) : • U>T>V • P is the mother of Q. Therefore, P is a female. • R is the unmarried sister-in-law of P. Therefore, R is the sister of husband of P. • U is the father of only R and V. Therefore, V is the father of Q. P is the wife of V. • R is older than V. • V does not have any son. It means Q is the daughter of P and V. S>U>T>R>V>P>Q

↓

↓

54 years 4 years 19. (5) Q + V = 31 ⇒ V = 31 – 4 = 27 years The age of R is more than 27 years but less than 54 years. 20. (2) P + T = 24 + 54 = 78 years 21. (1) T is the daughter -in-law of S. Therefore, T is the wife of U. U is the grandfather of Q. Thus, T is the grandmother of Q.

22. (3) S is the eldest member of the family. Therefore, M is the wife of S. R is the daughter of U. U is the son of M and S. Therefore, S is the grandfather of R. 23. (4) P and Q are younger than V. (24–27) : V is the only daughter of X. X is the grandfather of K. K is the son of B and Y. Thus, M and B are sons of X. R is the mother of B, M and V. X is the father of B, M and V. B is the husband Y. G is the father–in–law of B. A is granddaughter of X and R. 24. (3) A is the daughter of V. V is the daughter of R and X. R is the mother of V. Therefore, R is grandmother of A. 25. (2) Y is the wife of B. V is the sister of B. Therefore, Y is sister–in–law of V. 26. (5) If F is married to G, F would be mother of Y. Y is the wife of B. Therefore, F would be mother– in–law of B. 27. (4) K is the son of B and Y. V is the sister of B. If J is married to V, then J would be uncle of K.

(28–32) :

In the term of amount spent : F>C>G>B>E>A>D

Rs. 4500

BPRE–140

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 28. (5) E is the husband of D. B is the brother of D. Therefore, E is the brother-in-law of B. 29. (3) E, A and D spent amount less than that of B. 30. (4) Except C, the other four belong to the second generation. 31. (2) A is the son of D and E. D is the daughter of G and C. G is the father of D. Therefore, G is maternal grandfather of A. 32. (1) A is the son of D and E. D is the sister of B. F is the wife of B. So, A is the nephew of F. (33–37) : ● G & Y : G is son-in-law of Y. ● Y * M : Y is the husband of M. ● M > D : M is the mother of D. ● D ! H : D is the brother of H. ● H ? Y : H is the daughter of Y. Y

M

H

G

D

33. (4) M’s only daughter is H. G is husband of H. 34. (1) D is the son of Y and M. 35. (2) H is daughter-in-law of T. (36–37) : ● P ? T : P is the daughter of T. ● T $ W : T is the father of W. ● W + H : W is the niece or nephew of H. ● H > F : H is the mother of F. T is the father of P and W. 36. (5) The gender of W is not known. 37. (3) T is the uncle of F.

INSURANCE EXAMS (1–5) : Member Sex Profession Relationship A Female Student Wife of F B Female Housewife Grandmother of D and E; Wife of C C Male Engineer Father-in-law of A; Husband of B D Female Lawyer Sister of E; Daughter of A and F E Male Student Brother of D F Male Doctor Father of E and D; Husband of A

1. (2) E is grandson of B. 2. (1) Married Couples : BC and FA. 3. (3) F, husband of A, is a doctor. 4. (3) A, B and D are female members. 5. (2) F is father of D and D is a lawyer. B is Grandmother of E. (6–10) : Member Sex Profession Relationship A Female Student Wife of F B Female Housewife Grandmother of D and E; Wife of C C Male Engineer Father -in-law of A; Husband of B D Female Lawyer Sister of E; Daughter of A and F E Male Student Brother of D F Male Doctor Father of E and D; Husband of A

6. (2) E is grandson of B. 7. (1) Married Couples : BC and FA. 8. (3) F, husband of A, is a doctor. 9. (3) A, B and D are female members. 10. (2) F is father of D and D is a lawyer. B is Grandmother of E. 11. (3) B + D means B is mother of D. D × M means D is father of M. M ÷ N means M is bother of N. Therefore, M is grandson of B. 12. (5) Option (1) J ÷ R means J is brother of R R – T means R is sister of T. T × F means T is father of F. Therefore, J is uncle of F. Option (2) J + R means J is mother of R. J is a female. Option (3) J ÷ M means J is brother of M. M – N means M is sister of N. N × F means N is father of F. Therefore, J is uncle of F. 13. (2) Option (1) M ÷ K means M is brother of K. K × T means K is father of T. T – R means T is sister of R. The sex of R is not clear. R is either nephew or niece of M. Option (2) M – J means M is sister of J. J + R means J is mother of R. R – N means R is sister of N. Therefore, R is niece of M 14. (1) P is the mother of J and L. K is the son of L and N. J is the brother of L. Therefore, J is the uncle of K.

BPRE–141

15. (1) Only brother of Vinod’s father’s wife means the maternal uncle of Vinod. Vishal is the son of Vinod’s maternal uncle. So, Vinod is cousin of Vishal. 16. (2) D is the wife of B. So, D is the daughter-in-law of A. 17. (3) M is sister-in-law of A. P is the only brother of A. So, M is the wife of P. Therefore, D is mother of A and P. 18. (3) The father of girl’s uncle means the Grandfather of the girl. Daughter of the girl’s grandfather is the aunt of the girl. Thus, the boy is the brother of that girl. 19. (3) P + Q ⇒ P is the son of Q. Q % R ⇒ Q is the mother of R. R $ S ⇒ R is the daughter of S. S + T ⇒ S is the son of T. T & W ⇒ T is the husband of W. Q is the mother of P and R. S is the husband of Q. S is the father of P and R. T is the father–in–law of Q. W is the mother of S. P is the mother–in–law of Q. R is the grandfather of T and W. 20. (2) P & S ⇒ P is the husband of S. S % T ⇒ S is the mother of T. T @ U ⇒ T is the father of U. U + V ⇒ U is the son of V. V is the wife of T. T is the son of P. Therefore, V is the daughter–in– law of P. 21. (4) P % Q ⇒ P is the mother of Q. Q + R ⇒ Q is the son of R. R @ S ⇒ R is the father of S. S & T ⇒ S is the husband of T. R is the father Q and S. P is the mother of Q and S. Therefore, P is the mother–in–law of T. 22. (1) P & Q ⇒ P is son of Q. Q % R ⇒ Q is father of R. R + S ⇒R is husband of S. S $ T ⇒ S is mother of T. R is father of T. So, Q is grandfather of T. 23. (3) P % Q ⇒ P is father of Q. Q + R ⇒ Q is husband of R. R $ S ⇒ R is mother of S. S $ T ⇒ S is mother of T. T & V ⇒ T is son of V. S is mother of T. V is son-in-law of R. P is Grandfather of S. R is Grandmother of T.

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 24. (4) Father Daughter

Husband P

+

Q

$

R

%

Mother

S

&

T

Son

25. (2) L > V ⇒ L is daughter of V. V < J ⇒ V is wife of J. J + P ⇒ J is father of P. V is mother of L and P. S * A ⇒ S is son of A. A < D ⇒ A is wife of D. D + F ⇒ D is father of F. F < E ⇒ F is wife of E. E + K ⇒ E is father of K. D is father of S and F. F is daughter of A and D. F is mother of K. A is sister of J. J is father of L and P. A is mother of S and F. So, S and P are first cousins. 26. (4) F * R ⇒ F is son of R. R < S ⇒ R is wife of S. S * M ⇒ S is son of M. Therefore, M may be grandmother of F. (27–28) : M is the mother of C and R. W is the husband of M. Z is the mother of W and T. Z is the wife of B. W is the son of B and Z. T is the daughter of B and Z. 27. (4) W is the son of the Z. R is the son of W. R is the only brother of C. So, C may be brother or sister of R. T is the sister of W. C is the child of W. Therefore, T is the aunt of C. W is married to M. 28. (3) R is the son of M and W. C is also the child of M and W. If M has only one son (R), then C would be the daughter of M. (29–30) : A is the mother of J, T and U. M is the father of J, T and U. M is the husband of A. T and U are daughters of A and M. J is the son of A and M. 29. (1) P is the husband of U. U is the daughter of A and M. Therefore, P is the son-in-law of M.

30. (5) P is the son of K. If R is the husband of K, then K is the mother of P. (31-32) : P and U are daughters of L. K is the husband of P. S is the son of K and P. Q is the husband of U.

33.

(3) S is the mother of J. J is the father of K and P. K is the son of J and T. Therefore, K is the grandson of S.

34.

(5) T is the wife of J. B is the father of J. Therefore, T is the daughter-inlaw of B.

31. (5) P is the mother of S. Therefore, S is the husband of Z, i.e. Z is the wife of S. 32. (3) U is the daughter of L. Q is the husband of U.

35.

(3) B is the husband of A. D is the brother of A. D is the brother-in-law of B. D is the husband of E.

Therefore, Q is the son-in-law of (33–34) : B is the husband of S. J is the son of B and S.

P and Q are the children of D and E. Therefore, B is the uncle of Q.

J is the husband of T. (36–38) : Member

Sex

A

Female

Profession

B

Male

Athlete Wrestler

Relationship Wife of B;

C

Female

D

Female

E F

Male Male

Boxer

G

Male

Advocate

Father of E; Son of F and D; Husband of A; Wife of G; Daughter-in-law of F and D Wife of F; Mother of B and G; Son of B and A; Father of B and G; Husband of D; Husband of C;

The three married couples are :

(i) B and A (ii) G and C (iii) F and D 36. (4) F is the paternal grandfather of E. If E is Pilot, then the other daughter-in-law of F would be Architect or Journalist. 37. (2) If D is Pilot, and the Journalist is not a female, then E would be a Journalist and A would be an Architect. 38. (3) B and G are the sons of F and D. E is son of A and B. G and C have no child. G is an Advocate and C is a Wrestler. Therefore, E is a Pilot. 39. (5) N is the sister of R. N is the mother of Q. The gender of Q is not known. Therefore, Q is either nephew or niece of R. 40. (1) M is the son of R. R is the son of S. Therefore, M is the grandson of S. 41. (4) S is daughter of R and Q. W is mother of Q. Q is mother of S. Therefore, S is granddaughter of W. ❐❐❐

BPRE–142

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP

MODEL EXERCISES 1. Anil, introducing a girl in a party, said, ‘She is the wife of the grandson of my mother’. How is Anil related to the girl? (1) Father (2) Grandfather (3) Husband (4) Father-in-law (5) None of these 2. Pointing to a photograph, Arun said “she is the mother of my brother’s son’s wife’s daughter”. How is Arun related to the lady? (1) Cousin (2) Daughter-in-law (3) Uncle (4) Sister (5) None of these Directins (3-6) : In a family of six, C is the sister of F, B is the brother of E’s husband, D is the father of A and grandfather of F. There are two fathers and three brothers in the family. 3. How is D related to B? (1) Father (2) Mother (3) Brother (4) Indeterminate (5) None of these 4. Who is C’s mother? (1) E (2) B (3) F (4) D (5) None of these 5. Which of the following are not siblings? (1) A & B, A & C (2) B & A, C & F (3) C & F (4) A & C (5) None of these 6. If F is married to an outsider G, how is B related to G ? (1) Uncle (2) Aunt (3) Sister in law (4) Son (5) None of these Directions (7-10) : Study the following information carefully to answer these questions. Adhir Mishra has three children— Urmila, Raghu and Sumit. Sumit married Roma, the eldest daughter of Mr and Mrs Mohan. The Mohans married their youngest daughter to the eldest son of Mr and Mrs Sharma and they

had two children—Sandeep and Shaifali. The Mohan have two more children—Roshan and Bimla, both elder to Sheila. Sohan and Shivendar are sons of Sumit and Roma. Leela is the daughter of Sandeep. 7. How is Mrs Mohan related to Sumit? (1) Aunt (2) Mother-in-law (3) Mother (4) Sister-in-law (5) None of these 8. What is the surname of Sohan? (1) Sharma (2) Mohan (3) Mishra (4) Raghu (5) None of these 9. What is the surname of Leela? (1) Sharma (2) Mohan (3) Mishra (4) Sohan (5) None of these 10. How is Shivendar related to Roma’s father? (1) Son-in-law (2) Cousin (3) Son (4) Grandson (5) None of these Directions (11-13) : Read the following information to answer these questions. (i) A × B means A is the brother of B. (ii) A + B means A is the mother of B. (iii) A ÷ B means A is the son of B. (iv) A–B means A is the husband of B. 11. Which of the following would mean M is the father of N? (1) M ÷ N + O (2) M × O – N (3) M + O ÷ N (4) M – O + N (5) None of these 12. Which of the following is definitely true, if N is the son of M ? (1) M + N × O (2) M + N – O (3) N ÷ M (4) All the three are true (5) None of these 13. Which of the following would mean M is the aunt of N? (1) M × O ÷ N (2) N + O × M (3) N ÷ M + O (4) All of these (5) None of these

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14. X told Y, “Though I am the son of your father, you are not my brother.” How is X related to Y? (1) Sister (2) Son (3) Daughter (4) None of these (5) All of these Directions (15-17) : Study the following information to answer the questions. A family consists of seven members P, Q, R, S, T, U and V. While one of them is a student, die other six follow different professions of Architect, Lawyer, Professor, Manager, Doctor and Engineer. There are two married couples in the family. P and U are Architect and Doctor respectively. S, the father of Q and the grandfather of V, is an Engineer. No lady in the family is an Engineer or a Lawyer. V, who is a Student, is the grandson of T. 15. Which of the following is one of the married couples? (1) QR (2) QU (3) PR (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these 16. How is R related to V? (1) Mother (2) Aunt (3) Sister (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these 17. What is T’s profession? (1) Professor (2) Manager (3) Professor or Manager (4) Doctor (5) None of these Directions (18-22) : Study the following information carefully to answer these questions. There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F. C is the sister of F. B is the brother of E’s husband. D is the father of A and grandfather of F. There are two fathers, three brothers and a mother in the group. 18. Who is the mother? (1) A (2) B (3) D (4) E (5) None of these 19. Who is E’s husband? (1) B (2) C (3) A (4) F (5) None of these

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 20. How many male members are there in the group ? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (5) None of these 21. How is F related to E? (1) Uncle (2) Husband (3) Son (4) Daughter (5) None of these 22. Which of the following is a group of brothers? (1) ABF (2) ABD (3) BFC (4) BDF (5) None of these Directions (23-26) : Read the following information to answer these questions. • In a family of six persons, A, B, C, D, E and F, there are two married couples. • D is grandmother of A and mother of B. • C is the wife of B and mother of F. • F is the granddaughter of E. 23. What is C to A? (1) Grandmother (2) Mother (3) Cannot be determined (4) Wife (5) None of these 24. How many male members are there in the family? (1) Three (2) Four (3) Cannot be determined (4) Two (5) None of these 25. Which of the following is true ? (1) A is the sister of F (2) D has two grandsons (3) B has two daughters (4) None of these (5) All of these 26. Who among the following is one of the couples? (1) DE (2) EB (3) Cannot be determined (4) CB (5) None of these Directions (27-29) : Study the information given below to answer these questions. • There is a family of 5 persons A, B, C, D and E.

• They are working as a doctor, a teacher, a trader, a lawyer and a farmer. • B, an unmarried teacher, is the daughter of A. • E, a lawyer, is the brother of C. • C is the husband of the only married couple in the family. • A, a fanner, is a father of two sons and an unmarried daughter. ˆ Daughter-in-law of A is a doctor. 27. Which of the following is a group of female members in the family? (1) D and E (2) B and D (3) A, C and E (4) B and C (5) None of these 28. Which of the following is the married couple? (1) C and D (2) A and B (3) A and D (4) B and D (5) None of these 29. Which of the following is a group of male members in the family? (1) B and D (2) A, B and C (3) A, C and E (4) A, C and D (5) None of these 30. A boy goes to see a film and finds a man who is his relative. The man is the husband of the sister of his mother. How is the man related to the boy? (1) Brother (2) Nephew (3) Uncle (4) Husband (5) None of these 31. Rahul’s mother is the only daughter of Monika’s father. How is Monika’s husband related to Rahul? (1) Uncle (2) Father (3) Grandfather (4) Brother (5) None of these Directions (32-36) : Study the following information to answer these questions. There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F, C is the sister of F, B is the brother of E’s husband. D is the father of A and grandfather of F. There are two fathers, three brothers and a mother in the group. 32. Who is the mother? (1) A (2) D (3) B (4) E (5) None of these 33. Who is E’s husband? (1) B (2) A (3) C (4) F (5) None of these

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34. How many male members are there in the group? (1) One (2) Three (3) Two (4) Four (5) None of these 35. How is F related to E? (1) Uncle (2) Son (3) Husband (4) Daughter (5) None of these 36. Which of the following is a group of brothers? (1) ABF (2) BFC (3) ABD (4) BDF (5) None of these Directions (37-39) : Study the information below to answer these questions. Seeta, Rajinder and Surinder are children of Mr and Mrs Aggarwal. Renu, Raja and Sunil are children of Mrs and Mr Malhotra. Sunil and Seeta are a married couple and Ashok and Sanjay are their children. Geeta and Rakesh are children of Mr and Mrs Gupta. Geeta is married to Surinder and has three children named Rita, Sonu and Raju. 37. How is Rajinder related to Ashok? (1) Father in-law (2) Brother-in-law (3) Cousin (4) Maternal Uncle (5) None of these 38. What is Sanjay’s surname? (1) Gupta (2) Malhotra (3) Aggarwal (4) Surinder (5) None of these 39. Renu is Sanjay’s (1) Sister-in-law (2) Sister (3) Cousin (4) Aunty (5) None of these 40. When Anuj saw Manish, he recalled, “He is the son of the father of my daughter’s mother.” Who is Manish to Anuj? (1) Brother (2) Brother-in-law (3) Cousin (4) Uncle (5) None of these 41. Saroj is mother-in-law of Vani who is sister-in-law of Deepak. Rajesh is father of Ramesh, the only brother of Deepak. How is Saroj related to Deepak ? (1) Wife (2) Aunt (3) Mother-in-law (4) Mother (5) None of these

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 42. Mohan is the son of Arun’s father’s sister. Prakash is the son of Reva who is the mother of Vikas and grandmother of Arun. Pranab is the father of Neela and the grandfather of Mohan. Reva is the wife of Pranab. How is the wife of Vikas related to Neela? (1) Sister (2) Sister-in-law (3) Niece (4) Brother (5) None of these 43. Ajay is the brother of Vijay. Mili is the sister of Ajay. Sanjay is the brother of Rahul and Mehul is the daughter of Vijay. Who is Sanjay’s uncle? (1) Data inadequate (2) Mehul (3) Rahul (4) Ajay (5) None of these 44. Ravi is the son of Aman’s father’s sister. Sahil is the son of Divya who is the mother of Gaurav and grandmother of Aman. Ashok is the father of Tanya and grandfather of Ravi. Divya is the wife of Ashok. How is Gaurav’s wife related to Tanya? (1) Sister (2) Niece (3) Sister-in-law (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these 45. Introducing Rajesh, Neha said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather”. How is Neha related to Rajesh? (1) Sister (2) Daughter (3) Mother (4) Nice (5) None of these 46. Deepak said to Nitin, “That boy playing with the football is the younger of the two brothers of the daughter of my father’s wife.” How is the boy playing football related to Deepak? (1) Cousin (2) Brother (3) Son (4) Brother-in-law (5) None of these 47. Amit is the son of Rahul. Sarika, Rahul’s sister, has a son Sonu and a daughter Rita. Raja is the maternal uncle of Sonu. What is the relationship of Raja with Rita? (1) Maternal Uncle: (2) Brother (3) Uncle (4) Can’t be determined (5) None of these

48. Ramakrishna said, “This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother.” How is Ramakrishna related to the girl? (1) Father (2) Father-in-law (3) Grandfather (4) Daughter-in-law (5) None of these 49. Showing a photograph to a friend, Ravi says, “She is the granddaughter of the elder brother of my father.” How is this girl related to Ravi ? (1) Niece (2) Sister (3) Aunt (4) Sister-in-law (5) None of these 50. I. P × Q means P is the brother of Q. II. P + Q means P is the father of Q. III. P–Q means P is the sister of Q. Which of the following represents X is the uncle of M? (1) X + Y – M (2) X × Y + M (3) X + Y × M (4) X – Y + M (5) None of these 51. Varun is the brother of Meghna and Nikhil. Prerna is the mother of Nikhil. Rakesh is the father of Varun. Which of the given statements cannot be said to be definitely true? (1) Rakesh is the brother of Meghna (2) Rakesh is the husband of Prerna (3) Varun is the son of Prerna (4) Prerna is the mother of Varun (5) None of these 52. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of 4 adults and 3 children, two of whom, F and G are girls, A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to one of the brothers and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child. Who is C? (1) G’s father (2)F’s father (3) E’s daughter (4) A’s son (5) None of these 53. Pointing to Abhishek, Seema said, “His father is the only son of my grandfather.” How is Seema related to Abhishek ? (1) Sister (2) Mother (3) Niece (4) Daughter (5) None of these

BPRE–145

54. Kartik is the father of Heena, Uma is the mother of Tanya. The sister of Heena and Tanya is Neha. Which of the following statements is definitely not true? (1) Uma is the mother of Neha (2) Heena is the sister of Neha (3) Uma has three daughters (4) Tanya is the son of Kartik (5) None of these 55. M, N, O and P are all distinct individuals. M is the daughter of N. N is the son of O and O is the father of P. If B is the son of N and B has one brother, D, then which of the following statements is/are true? I. M is the sister of D. II. D and B are brothers. III. O is the grandfather of D. (1) I only (2) 1 and III only (3) III only (4) All of these (5) None of these 56. Pointing out to the man on the stage, Madhu said that he is the brother of the daughter of the wife of my husband. How is the man on the stage related to Madhu? (1) Son (2) Husband (3) Cousin (4) Nephew (5) None of these 57. X introduces Y saying, “He is the husband of the grand daughter of the father of my father.” How is Y related to X? (1) Brother (2) Son (3) Brother-in-law (4) Son-in-law (5) None of these 58. While going to his office, Tejveer meets Rakesh who is related to Tajveer because Tajveer is Deepak’s father who is married to Garima. Garima is the daughter of Rakesh. Garima has a daughter named Isha. How is Tejveer related to Isha? (1) Uncle (2) Father-in-law (3) Grandfather (4) Grandmother (5) None of these

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 59. Pointing to a lady in a photograph, Dev said, “This woman is my sister’s father’s son-in-law’s wife.” How is Dev related to the woman? (1) Wife (2) Sister (3) Mother (4) Can’t say (5) None of these Directions (60-62) : Study the information below to answer the questions. ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’, ‘E’, ‘F’ and ‘G’ are seven members of a family. There are two married couples among them, belonging to two different generations. Each member of the family has a different choice of food ie, Chinese, Continental, Rajasthani, Punjabi, South Indian, Gujarati and Marathi. The grandfather in the family likes Gujarati food. None of the ladies likes Continental or Rajasthani food. ‘D’ is the son of ‘A’ and ‘A’ likes Chinese food. ‘G’ is ‘C’s daughter-in-law and ‘C’ likes South Indian meals. ‘B’ is the grandfather of ‘F’ and ‘F’ likes Punjabi food. ‘C is the mother of ‘E’ and ‘E’ likes Continental food. 60. Which particular food is liked by ‘D? (1) Rajasthani (2) Gujarati (3) Marathi (4) Continental (5) None of these 61. Which is the food combination of the two married women? (1) Punjabi and Marathi (2) South Indian and Punjabi (3) Marathi and South Indian (4) Rajasthani and South Indian (5) None of these 62. How is ‘F’ related to ‘E’? (1) Sister (2) Daughter (3) Aunt (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these 63. Pointing towards a person in a photograph, Monika said, “He is the son of the father of my sister’s brother.” How is that person related to Monika? (1) Cousin (2) Mother (3) Father (4) None of these (5) All of these

64. Akash’s grandmother is married to Nirmal’s brother. Sahil’s mother is the granddaughter-in-law of Nirmal’s father-in-law. What is Akash to Sahil? (1) Cousin (2) Uncle (3) Nephew (4) Brother (5) None of these 65. Ankit is the grandson of Mohan whose brother is married to the grandmother of Ankush. How is Ankush related to Ankit? (1) Uncle (2) Nephew (3) Cousin (4) Brother (5) None of these 66. Raja is the son of Varun’s father’s sister. Sameer is the son of Ganga who is the mother of Jai and the grandmother of Varun. Nitin is the father of Varsha and the grandfather of Raja. Ganga is the wife of Nitin. How is Raja related to Ganga? (1) Son (2) Grandson (3) Nephew (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these Directions (67–69) : Read the following information to answer these questions. I. P, Q, R, S, T and U are the six members of a family. II. There is one Doctor, one Advocate, one Engineer, one Teacher, one Student and one Housewife among them. III. There are two married couples in the family. IV. U, who is an Advocate, is father of P. V. Q is a Teacher and is mother of R. VI. S is grandmother of R and is a Housewife. VII. T is the father of U and is a Doctor. VIII. R is the brother of P. 67. Which of the following statements is definitely true ? (1) U is father of the Engineer (2) P is the Engineer (3) T is father of the Teacher (4) R is brother of the Student (5) None of these

BPRE–146

68. How many female members are there in the family ? (1) Three only (2) Two or three (3) Two only (4) Three or four (5) None of these 69. How is P related to S ? (1) Either granddaughter or grandson (2) Grandmother (3) Grandson (4) Granddaughter (5) None of these Directions (70–72) : Read the following information to answer these questions. In a family, there are 10 members. G and N are a married couple while K is the husband of X. In this family, there are four housewives and four working husbands while other members are non-working. The husband in the last generation is a doctor and the husband of S is a teacher. L is a married woman but her husband is not P. Q and K are associated with the profession of engineer and accountant but K is not an accountant. P is the brother of T and both have a sister O. N is the daughter of L and X is the mother of P. 70. The family consists of how many generations ? (1) 6 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 2 (5) None of these 71. Who is the husband of S ? (1) T (2) K (3) L (4) P (5) None of these 72. Which of the following statements is not true ? (1) Husband of X is an engineer. (2) Second generation members are S, P, T and 0. (3) The number of female members in the family is 5. (4) The accountant and his wife belong to the 4th generation. (5) None of these Directions (73–75) : Read the following information to answer these questions : Six members of a family G, H, I, J, K and L are Accountant, Clerk, Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer, but not in the same order.

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP I. Doctor is the grandfather of L who is an Accountant. II. Clerk J is married to G. III. I, who is a Jeweller, is married to the Lawyer. IV. H is the mother of L and K. V. There are two married couples in the family. 73. What is the profession of K ? (1) Doctor (2) Clerk (3) Engineer (4) Accountant (5) None of these 74. How many male members are there in the family ? (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 75. How is G related to K ? (1) Wife (2) Father (3) Grandmother (4) Grandfather (5) None of these Directions (76–78) : Read the following information to answer these questions : There are six children playing football namely G, H, I, J, K and L. G and K are brothers. L is the only sister of K. I is the only son of G’s uncle. H and J are the daughters of the brother of I’s father. 76. How is J related to G ? (1) Sister (2) Niece (3) Cousin (4) Uncle (5) None of these 77. How is I related to L ? (1) Cousin (2) Son (3) Uncle (4) Brother (5) None of these 78. How many male players are there ? (1) One (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five (5) None of these 79. How is the son-in-law of my wife’s only sister related to my wife’s brother ? (1) Cousin (2) Nephew (3) Uncle (4) Son-in-law (5) None of these 80. ‘B’, the son of ‘A’, was wedded to C whose sister ‘D’ was married to ‘E’. If E is the brother of ‘B’, how is D’ related to ‘A’ ?

(1) Sister (2) Daughter (3) Daughter-in-law (4) Cousin (5) None of these 81. Krishna is the mother-in-law of Bindu who is the sister-in-law of Ahsaan. Dharmender is the father of Sandeep, the only brother of Ahsaan. How is Krishna related to Ahsaan? (1) Wife (2) Aunt (3) Mother-in-law (4) Mother (5) None of these Directions (82–84) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below ‘A × B’ means ‘A is father of B’ ‘A + B’ means ‘A is wife of B’ ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’. ‘A – B’ means ‘A is son of B’. 82. How is L related to Q in the expression ‘L ÷ M × O – P ÷ Q’ ? (1) Daughter-in-law (2) Aunt (3) Granddaughter (4) Sister (5) Cannot be determined 83. What should come in the place of question - mark (?) to establish that Q is nephew of T in the expression ‘Q ? R ÷ S × T’ ? (1) – (2) + (3) Either ‘–’ or ‘÷’ (4) × (5) ÷ 84. Which among the following options is true if the expression ‘A – B × C + D – E’ is definitely true ? (1) C is the brother of A (2) D is the father of A (3) E is the brother of B (4) C is daughter-in-law of E (5) E is father-in-law of C. Directions (85–87) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : M is the father of G. P is the wife of G. M is married to C. L is sibling of G. S is the father–in–law of L. K is the only child of S.

BPRE–147

85. How is G related to K? (1) Cousin

(2) Father

(3) Cannot be determined (4) Brother–in–law (5) Nephew 86. If K is the mother of R, then how is L related to R? (1) Father (2) Son–in–law (3) Brother–in–law (4) Son (5) Cannot be determined 87. How is C related to P? (1) Mother (2) Mother–in–law (3) Sister–in–law (4) Grandmother (5) Niece Directions (88-89) : Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions : ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’. ‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is the wife of Q’. ‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is the son of Q.’ ‘P % Q’ means ‘P is the mother of Q’. 88. What is the relation between ‘J and A’ in the expression ‘A@F$M%J+T’ ? (1) J is the mother-in-law of A (2) A is the aunt of J (3) J is the sister-in-law of A (4) A is the husband of J (5) None of these 89. What will come in the place of question–mark, if it is provided that ‘J is the daughter-in-law of T’ in the expression ‘J%B ? K$T’? (1) @ (2) % (3) + (4) $ (5) % or + Directions (90–92) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : P @ Q means P is father of Q. P + Q means P is husband of Q. P $ Q means P is brother of Q. P % Q means P is mother of Q. P & Q means P is sister of Q. 90. How is B related to E in this expression : ‘A @ B % C & D + E’ ? (1) Grandmother (2) Granddaughter (3) Mother–in–law (4) Aunt (5) Daughter–in–law

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 91. What should come in place of the question mark (?) to establish that C is the aunt of E in the following expression ? A%B+C&D?E (1) $ (2) & (3) + (4) Either + or & (5) Either @ or % 92. Which among the following options is true if the expression ‘A + B & C @ D % E $ F’ is definitely true ? (1) E is the sister–in–law of A. (2) F is daughter–in–law of C. (3) B is the aunt of D. (4) A is the uncle of E. (5) C is the uncle of A. 93. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows : If ‘A × B’ means ‘A is father of B’ If ‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’. If ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’ If ‘A – B’ means ‘A is sister of B’. What will come in the place of the question mark, to establish that P is the son-in-law of S in the expression : ‘P × Q + R – T?S (1) + (2) × (3) – (4) ÷ (5) Either + or ÷ Directions (94–98) : Read the information carefully and answer the following questions : If A + B means A is the father of B If A × B means A is the sister of B If A $ B means A is the wife of B If A % B means A is the mother of B If A ÷ B means A is the son of B 94. What should come in place of the question mark (?) to establish that J is the brother of T in the expression ? J÷P%H?T%L (1) × (2) ÷ (3) $ (4) Either ÷ or × (5) Either + or ÷ 95. Which among the given expressions indicate that M is the daughter of D ? (1) L % R $ D + T × M (2) L + R $ D + M × T (3) L % R % D + T ÷ M (4) D + L $ R + M × T (5) L $ D ÷ R % M ÷ T

96. Which among the following options is true if the expression ‘I + T % J × L ÷ K’ is definitely true ? (1) L is the daughter of T (2) K is the son-in-law of I (3) I is the grandmother of L (4) T is the father of J (5) J is the brother of L 97. Which among the following expressions is true if Y is the son of X is definitely false ? (1) W % L × T × Y ÷ X (2) W + L × T × Y ÷ X (3) X + L × T × Y ÷ W (4) W $ X + L + Y + T (5) W % X + T × Y ÷ L 98. What should come in place of the question mark (?) to establish that T is the sister-in-law of Q in the expression ? R%T×P?Q+V (1) ÷ (2) % (3) × (4) $ (5) Either $ or × 99. Pointing to a woman Nirmal said, “She is the daughter of my wife’s grandfather’s only child”. How is the woman related to Nirmal ? (1) Wife (2) Sister-in-law (3) Sister (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these 100. E is the son of A. D is the son of B. E is married to C. C is B’s daughter. How is D related to E? (1) Father-in-law (2) Cannot be determined (3) Uncle (4) Brother-in law (5) Daughter Direction (101–105): In the following questions, some symbols are used with the following meanings as illustrated below : X+Y X is the niece or nephew of Y where X is opposite to Y X is the husband of Y X*Y where X is second to the left of Y X#Y X is the son of Y where X is immediate left of Y X is the son-in-law of X&Y Y where X is immediate right of Y

BPRE–148

X^Y

X is the maternal aunt of Y where X is second to the right of Y X is the mother of Y X>Y where X is second to the left of Y X?Y X is the daughter of Y where X is second to the left of Y X is the brother of Y X!Y where X is immediate right of Y X$Y X is father of Y where X is third to the right of Y X is the wife of Y where X%Y X is immediate left of Y X is the child of Y X@Y where X is second to the right of Y X=Y X is the cousin of Y where X is third to the right of Y X is the parent of Y X©Y where X is third to the left of Y. X÷Y X is the father in law of Y where X is immediate right of Y Study the Conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer. Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true Give answer (5) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true There are 8 family members sitting around a round table facing the centre. Consider the following coding: D?M*Z©B+G!M÷Q$C# B^X 101. Statement: With respect to D and Z Conclusions : I. D is sitting second to the right of Z II. D is the daughter of Z 102. Statement: With respect to M and C Conclusions : I. C is the grandson of M II. M is sitting opposite to C

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 103. Statement: With respect to X and B Conclusions : I. X is sitting second to the left of B II. B is the niece of X 104. Statement: With respect to G and Q Conclusions : I. G and Q are blood related II. Q is sitting second to the right of G 105. Statement: With respect to X and M Conclusions : I. X is sitting third to the right of M II. X is the granddaughter of M, if there is only one grandson in the family 106. Reena is the mother-in-law of Roma who is wife of Rakshit. Rakshit whose father is Roshan, is the father of Ritik. Raksha is the daughter of Reena. How is Raksha related to Roma? (1) Cousin sister (2) Mother in law (3) Niece (4) Sister in law (5) Aunt Directions (107–111) : In the following questions, some symbols have been used with the following meanings as illustrated below : ● X ! Y → X is the brother of Y and X is to the immediate right of Y. ● X $ Y → X is father of Y and X is an second to the left of Y. ● X % Y → X is the wife of Y and X is an immediate neighbour of Y (either or sides). ● X @ Y → X is the child of Y and X is second to the right of Y. ● X = Y → X is the cousin of Y and X is third to the right of Y. ● X © Y → X is the parent of Y and X is third to the left of Y. ● X + Y → X is the niece or nephew of Y and X is opposite to Y. ● X * Y → X is the husband of Y and X is second to the left of Y. ● X # Y → X is the son of Y and X is to the immediate left of Y. ● X & Y → X is the son-in-law of Y and X is to the immediate right of Y.

X ^ Y → X is the sister of Y and X is to the immediate left of Y. ● X > Y → X is the mother of Y and X is second left of Y. 107. If C @ M * Q ^ G > Z are in a circular seating arrangement and C is facing the centre, who among the following is second to the left of Q? (1) Q’s Sister (2) Q’s Mother (3) Q’s Husband (4) Q’s Brother in law (5) Q’s Daughter 108. If J * G > K & F > D are in a circular seating arrangement and D is facing away from the centre, who among the following is third to the right of G? (1) G’s Daughter in law (2) G’s Son (3) G’s Husband (4) G’s Sister (5) G’s Daughter 109. If S % M ! Z $ K = B are in a circular seating arrangement and all are facing the centre, who among the following is sitting with S? (1) S’s Brother in law (2) S’s Nephew or Niece (3) S’s Husband (4) S’s Son (5) Either 1 or 2 110. If J ^ B > N # D © G are in a circular seating arrangement and all are facing the centre, who among the following is sitting third to the right of J? (1) J’s Brother (2) J’s Nephew (3) J’s Father (4) J’s Sister (5) J’s Niece 111. If R $ Z & K > C ^ J are in a circular seating arrangement and all are facing the centre, who among the following is sitting second to the right of J? (1) J’s Brother in law (2) J’s father in law (3) J’s Mother ●

(4) J’s Niece (5) J’s Husband

BPRE–149

Directions (112–116) : In the following questions, some symbols are used with the following meanings as illustrated below : X ! Y → X is the brother of Y where X is to the immediate right of Y ● X $ Y → X is father of Y where X is second to the left of Y ● X % Y → X is the wife of Y where X is to the immediate left neighbour of Y ● X @ Y → X is the child of Y where X is second to the right of Y ● X = Y → X is the cousin of Y where X is third to the right of Y ● X © Y → X is the parent of Y where X is third to the left of Y ● X + Y → X is the niece or nephew of Y where X is opposite to Y ● X * Y → X is the husband of Y where X is second to the left of Y ● X # Y → X is the son of Y where X is immediate left of Y ● X & Y→ X is the son-in-law of Y where X is to the immediate right of Y ● X ^ Y → X is the sister of Y where X is to the immediate left of Y ● X > Y → X is the mother of Y where X is second to the left of Y ● X ? Y → X is the daughter of Y where X is second to the left of Y (112–114) : Statement : ●

M*T©H!B>D%F@Q*Z 112. Who among the following is facing away from the centre in the arrangement? (1) F’s mother (2) H’s sister (3) T’s husband (4) D’s father-in-law (5) B’s mother 113. Who is sitting second to the right of D in the arrangement? (1) D’s mother (2) D’s uncle (3) D’s Son (4) D’s Grandfather (5) D’s son-in-law 114. Who among the following is sitting third to the right of T in the given arrangement? (1) T’s daughter-in-law (2) T’s grandson (3) T’s Son (4) T’s husband (5) T’s brother-in-law

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP (115–116) : Statement : K$L!G>Q?B#U*T 115. Who among the following is facing away from the centre? (1) Q’s grandmother (2) L’s grandfather (3) G’s Uncle (4) K’s wife (5) G’s husband 116. Who among the followingt is sitting second to the right of K in the arrangement? (1) K’s daughter (2) K’s granddaughter (3) K’s son (4) K’s son-in-law (5) K’s nephew 117. Mr. X the father K travels from north to south 5 km to reach Bus stand where he meets his daughter in law D. T the husband of D travels from D’s house towards east 8 km where he meets his brother B and T takes right 4 km to reach his uncle P’s house which is located near Maitri Mall. If Q the wife of P is maternal aunt of B, then which male child of the family stays near bus stand related to B? (1) Son (2) Uncle (3) Cousin (4) Nephew (5) Brother Directions (118 – 122): Consider the following relationships and answer the questions given below : T is the sister of D. D is married to P. P is the son of M. B is the grandfather of J. T is the mother of J. Y is the father of U. Y has only one son and only one daughter. U is the daughter of T. Q is the son of D. P is the son in law of Z. W is the mother in law of Y. T is the daughter in law of B. 118. How is U related to D ? (1) Daughter (2) Mother (3) Son in law (4) Cousin (5) Niece 119. How is Z related to J ? (1) Father in law

(2) Aunt (3) Mother (4) Grandfather (5) Uncle 120. How is D related to Y ? (1) Cousin sister (2) Nephew (3) Sister (4) Sister-in-law (5) Brother 121. How is Q related to T ? (1) Paternal uncle (2) Maternal aunt (3) Nephew (4) Brother (5) Sister 122. How is W related to T ? (1) Mother in law (2) Maternal uncle (3) Brother in law (4) Son (5) Mother Directions (123–127) : In the following questions, some symbols are used with the following meanings as illustrated below : ● X&Y X is the son-in-law of Y where X is to the immediate right of Y. X is sister of Y where ● X ^ Y X is to the immediate left of Y ● X!Y X is brother of Y where X is to the immediate right of Y ● X$Y X is father of Y where X is second to the left of Y X is the wife of Y ● X % Y where X is an immediate neighbour of Y (either or sides) ● X @ Y X is the child of Y where X is second to the right of Y X is the cousin of Y ● X = Y where X is third to the right of Y ● X © Y X is the parent of Y where X is third to the left of Y X is the niece or neph● X+Y ew of Y where X is opposite Y ● X * Y X is the husband of Y where X is second to the left of Y ● X#Y X is son of Y where X is to the immediate left of Y ● X?Y X is mother of Y where X is to the immediate left of Y Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true

BPRE–150

Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true Give answer (5) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true 123. Statement : M © Z @ T ! H $ B and only one person is facing away from the centre Conclusions : I. M is second to the right of H II. T is maternal uncle to B 124. Statement : G % M $ K @ G ^ P © Q and only one person is facing away from the centre Conclusions : I. M is an immediate neighbour of both Q and G II. G is aunt of Q 125. Statement : X @ M $ P @ K % M ! Z and only one person is facing away from the centre Conclusions : I. X is sitting exactly between Z and K II. X is either nephew or niece of K 126. Statement : G $ L & T * Q ? D and all the persons are facing the centre Conclusions : I. Q is second to the right of T II. L is son–in–law of Q 127. Statement : E & F ! T @ M % G and all are facing the centre Conclusions : I. F is second to the left of M II. G is father of T Directions (128–132) : In the following questions, some symbols are used with the following meanings as illustrated below : ● X $ Y → X is father of Y where X is second to the left of Y ● X % Y → X is the wife of Y where X is immediate neighbour of Y (either side) ● X + Y → X is the niece or nephew of Y where X is opposite to Y. ● X * Y → X is husband of Y where X is second to the left of Y ● X # Y → X is the son of Y where X is to the immediate left of Y ● X & Y → X is the son-in-law of Y where X is to the immediate right of Y ● X ^ Y → X is the sister of Y where X is to the immediate left of Y

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP X ! Y → X is the brother of Y where X is to the immediate right of Y ● X = Y → X is the cousin of Y where X is third to the right of Y ● X @ Y → X is the child of Y where X is second to the right of Y ● X © Y → X is the parent of Y where X is third to the left of Y 128. If H ! T $ L @ B © D in a circular seating arrangement is true and all are facing the centre, who among the following are sitting together? (1) H and L’s father (2) H and L’s mother (3) L and D (4) L’s father and D’s mother (5) H and D 129. If K ^ L + J ! X % I © Y in a circular seating arrangement is true and all are facing the centre, how K is related to the person who is sitting to the immediate left of Y? (1) Father (2) Mother (3) Niece (4) Uncle (5) Brother 130. If F © D % J @ H ! B % F in a linear seating arrangement is true and all are facing the north, how F is related to the person at right end of the line? (1) Father–in–law (2) Uncle (3) Husband (4) Nephew (5) Mother 131. If P @ L ! O * N = M in a linear seating arrangement is true and all are facing the north, how O is related to the person at right end of the line? (1) Mother (2) Nephew (3) Uncle (4) Brother–in–law (5) Aunt 132. If Q * Z ^ L @ T @ M in a linear seating arrangement is true and all are facing the EAST, how Z is related to the person at middle of the line? (1) Cousin (2) Grand daughter (3) Son in law (4) Daughter (5) Son ●

Directions (133 – 137) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: There are 11 members in a family. There are 4 couples and each couple has at least one child. L is the wife of J. B is the daughter of X. K is the son of V Q is the wife of T.G is niece of V. T is the maternal grandfather of K who is husband of D. J is the brother of V. V is the daughter of Q. X is the son in law of Q. L is not blood related with anyone in the family except G. B is paternal aunt of W. 133. How is J related to K? (1) Father (2) Grandson (3) Mother-in-law (4) Grandmother (5) Uncle 134. How is B related D? (1) Brother (2) Nephew (3) Aunty (4) Sister-in-law (5) Grandmother 135. How is Q related to L? (1) Co sister (2) Brother in law (3) Father (4) Mother in law (5) Paternal aunt 136. How is X related to W? (1) Maternal uncle (2) Grandfather (3) Maternal uncle (4) Nephew (5) Brother-in-law 137. How is G related to B? (1) Cousin (2) Sister (3) Brother (4) Nephew (5) Brother-in-law 138. A family consists of six members. B is the son of C but C is not the mother of B. A and C are a married couple. E is the brother of C. D is the daughter of A. F is the brother of B. How many children does A have? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (5) Either three or four Directions (139–143) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : Vijay is the son of Suman. Rajesh is the son-in-law of Prakash. Ritu is

BPRE–151

the sister of Suman. Suman is married to Rajesh. Sundar has only one son and only one daughter. Malathi is the daughter of Ritu. Kamala is the mother-in-law of Sundar. Ritu is the daughter-in-law of Raghu. Rajesh is the son of Manju. Raghu is the grandfather of Karan. Ritu is the mother of Karan. Sundar is the father of Malathi. 139. How is Vijay related to Ritu? (1) Son (2) Brother (3) Nephew (4) Uncle (5) Father 140. How is Prakash related to Rajesh? (1) Father (2) Brother (3) Uncle (4) Father-in-law (5) Brother-in-law 141. How is Malathi related to Suman? (1) Aunt (2) Niece (3) Sister (4) Mother-in-law (5) Daughter 142. How is Sundar related to Suman? (1) Brother-in-law (2) Father-in-law (3) Uncle (4) Son (5) Son-in-law 143. How is Raghu related to Karan? (1) Father-in-law (2) Son-in-law (3) Brother (4) Nephew (5) Grandfather Direction (144 – 148) : In the following questions, some symbols are used with the following meanings as illustrated below. Read the following instructions carefully and answer the questions given below : ● X © Y : X is the parent of Y. ● X & Y : X is the son-in-law of Y. ● X ! Y : X is the brother of Y. ● X : Y : X is the paternal grandfather of Y. ● X > Y : X is the mother of Y. ● X ^ Y : X is the sister of Y. ● X @ Y : X is the child of Y. ● X + Y : X is the niece or nephew of Y. ● X * Y : X is the husband of Y. ● X ? Y : X is the daughter of Y. ● X # Y : X is the son of Y. ● X = Y : X is the mother-in-law of Y.

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP There are nine family members. Six are male members and three are female members. P?A*E©F+H!A→W$R# F^U#G 149. How is P related to R? (1) Father (2) Grandfather (3) Mother (4) Grandmother (5) Aunt 150. How is A related to G? (1) Maternal uncle (2) Father-in-law (3) Cousin brother (4) Nephew (5) Sister-in-law 151. How is F related to H? (1) Daughter-in-law (2) Son-in-law (3) Sister-in-law (4) Nephew (5) Niece 152. How is W related to P? (1) Sister (2) Brother (3) Nephew (4) Brother-in-law (5) Grandson 153. How is E related to H? (1) Grandson (2) Granddaughter (3) Sister-in-law (4) Daughter-in-law (5) Daughter

69.(1) 73.(3) 77.(1) 81.(4) 85.(4) 89.(4) 93.(5) 97.(4) 101.(2) 105.(5) 109.(5) 113.(4) 117.(4) 121.(3) 125.(4) 129.(3) 133.(5) 137.(1) 141.(2) 145.(3) 149.(5) 153.(3)

70.(3) 74.(4) 78.(2) 82.(3) 86.(1) 90.(3) 94.(1) 98.(4) 102.(5) 106.(4) 110.(2) 114.(3) 118.(5) 122.(5) 126.(5) 130.(1) 134.(4) 138.(3) 142.(1) 146.(5) 150.(2)

71.(4) 75.(4) 79.(4) 83.(1) 87.(2) 91.(5) 95.(2) 99.(4) 103.(1) 107.(3) 111.(3) 115.(1) 119.(4) 123.(1) 127.(5) 131.(3) 135.(4) 139.(3) 143.(5) 147.(3) 151.(5)

72.(4) 76.(3) 80.(3) 84.(4) 88.(3) 92.(3) 96.(2) 100.(4) 104.(4) 108.(3) 112.(4) 116.(3) 120.(4) 124.(5) 128.(4) 132.(4) 136.(2) 140.(4) 144.(4) 148.(4) 152.(4)

EXPLANATIONS 1. (4) The grandson of Anil’s mother is son of Anil and wife of Anil’s son is daughter in law of Anil, thus Anil is father-in-law of girl. 2. (2) Lady is daughter-in-law of Arun. (3-6) :

SHORT ANSWERS

B

1.(4) 5.(4)

2.(2) 6.(1)

3.(1) 7.(2)

4.(1) 8.(3)

9.(1) 13.(5)

10.(4) 14.(4)

11.(4) 15.(4)

12.(4) 16.(4)

17.(3) 21.(3)

18.(4) 22.(1)

19.(3) 23.(2)

20.(4) 24.(3)

25.(4) 29.(3)

26.(1) 30.(3)

27.(2) 31.(2)

28.(1) 32.(4)

33.(2)

34.(4)

35.(2)

36.(1)

37.(4) 41.(4)

38.(2) 42.(2)

39.(4) 43.(1)

40.(2) 44.(3)

45.(1) 49.(1)

46.(2) 50.(2)

47.(1) 51.(1)

48.(2) 52.(4)

53.(1) 57.(3)

54.(4) 58.(3)

55.(4) 59.(2)

56.(1) 60.(1)

61.(3) 65.(3)

62.(4) 66.(2)

63.(4) 67.(1)

64.(1) 68.(2)

BPRE–152

C F

Sister

M

Grand father M Father M F D A

M/F

Father E F

Husband

●

Brother

X $ Y : X is the father of Y. X % Y : X is the wife of Y. There are eight members in a family and male and female members are equal in number. Statement : X ^ Y # K © W ? E = J$L+Y+Q!E W is one of the unmarried members in the family. 144. How is W related to J? (1) Niece (2) Nephew (3) Aunt (4) Sister-in-law (5) Daughter 145. How is L related to K? (1) Son-in-law (2) Daughter-in-law (3) Granddaughter (4) Son (5) Nephew 146. How is Q related to X? (1) Father (2) Mother (3) Paternal aunt (4) Mother-in-law (5) Maternal uncle 147. If T is W’s son, then how is Y related to T’s father? (1) Nephew (2) Niece (3) Brother-in-law (4) Son-in-law (5) Brother 148. If L is the grandchild of H, then how is X related to H’s husband? (1) Sister (2) Brother (3) Father-in-law (4) Daughter-in-law (5) Aunt Directions (149 – 153) : In the following questions, some symbols are used with the meanings as illustrated below: X + Y : X is the niece or nephew of Y X * Y : X is the husband of Y X # Y : X is the son of Y X & Y : X is son-in-law of Y X ^ Y : X is the maternal aunt of Y X > Y : X is the mother of Y X → Y : X is father in law of Y X ? Y : X is the daughter of Y X ! Y : X is the brother of Y X $ Y : X is the father of Y X % Y : X is the wife of Y X @ Y : X is the child of Y X = Y : X is the cousin of Y X © Y : X is the parent of Y ●

On the basis of information given in the question, we conclude that A and E are married couplex and parents of F & C. D is the father of A and B and grandfather of F & C. 3. (1) D is the father of B. 4. (1) E is the wife of A and mother of C. 5. (4) Clearly, A and C are not sibling. 6. (1) B is the uncle of F, hence he will be uncle of the spouse of B.

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP (7-10) : On the basis of information given in the question, we can draw the following family tree Adhin Mishra married Mr & Mrs Mohan Urmila Raghu Sumit Sons Sohan

Roma Roshan Bimla Shiela (Eldest) (youngest) married Shivendar

Eldest son of Mr Shrama Sandeep

Shaifali

23. (2) C is the mother of A. 24. (3) Sex of A is not known. Hence, number of male members cannot be determined. 25. (4) Again, since sex of A is not known, hence none of the statements is correct. 26. (1) DE is one of the couples. (27-29) :

Leela (Daughter)

7. (2) Mrs Mohan is Sumit’s motherin-law. 8. (3) Surname of Sohan is Mishra because Sohan is son of Sumit and Sumit is son of Mishra. 9. (1) Surname of Leela is Sharma because Leela is grand daughter of Mr sharma. 10. (4) Shivendar is grandson of Roma’s father(Mr Mohan). 11. (4) M– O =M is the husband of O. O + N = O is the mother of N. From these two, we conclude that M is the father of N. 12. (4) M + N × O = M is the mother of N and N is the brother of O ⇒ N is son of M. M + N – O ⇒ N is the son of M. N ÷M ⇒ N is the son of M. Hence, all the three statements deliver the same conclusion. So, all the three are true. 13. (5) M × O ÷ N = M is brother of O and O is the son of N, hence this statement is not true. N + O × M = N is the mother of O and O is the brother of M. ⇒ N is the mother of M. N ÷ M + O = N is the son of M and M is mother of O = M is mother of N. Hence, none of the statements concludes M is the aunt of N. 14. (4) X is son of Y’s father and Y is not brother of X, it means that Y is sister of X. Hence, X has to be brother of Y. (15-17) :

15. (4) Data are inadequate to answer the question. 16. (4) On the basis of information given in the question, we can not establish relationship of R & V. 17. (3) T may be s professor or a manager. (18-22) : On the basis of information given in the question, we can draw the family tree as below Ist generation D (Male) IInd gerneration B Brother A ⇔ E (Male) (Male) (Female) Sister IIIrd generation C (Female)

20. (4) There are four male members in the group, 21. (3) F is the son of E. 22. (1) ABF is the group of brothers. (23-26) : On the basis of information given in the question, the following family tree is prepared. Wife

Mother

Father G.F G.S

B M

G. Father

th Fa

A M/F

er

Wife

C

F Mother

BPRE–153

E M G.Daughter

f

F (Male)

From the above chart it is clear that A and E are married couple. D is the grandfather of C and F and father of A and B. 18. (4) E, wife of A is the mother in the family. 19. (3) A is the husband of E.

F D

m

(Male, Farmer) A

F

F

Daughter

Son

Wife D (Female, Doctor) E (Male,Lawyer)

C Male, Trader)

B Female, Teacher)

27. (2) Band D are a group of female mumbers in the family 28. (1) C and D are the married couple in the family. 29. (3) A, C and E are a group of male members in the family. 30. (3) The Sister of one’s mother is one’s maternal aunt. Hence, the man is the husband of the boy’s maternal aunt. 31. (2) Monika’s father’s only daughter is Monika. So, Monika is the mother of Rahul. Monika’s husband is the father of Rahul. (32-36) : D B

A

E

C

F

D and A are fathers. A, B and F are brothers. 32. (4) E is the mother. 33. (2) A is E’s husband. 34. (4) There are four male members D, A, B and F. 35. (2) F is the son of E. 36. (1) A, B and F are brothers. 37. (4) Rajinder is the brother of Seeta and Ashok is the son of Seeta.

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP Hence, Rajinder is the maternal uncle of Ashok. 38. (2) Sunil is the son of Mr. and Mrs. Malhotra. Sanjay is the son of Sunil. Hence, Sanjay’s surname is Malhotra. 39. (4) Renu is the sister of Sunil and Sanjay is the son of Sunil, so, Renu is the aunty of Sanjay. 40. (2) Daughter’s mother means wife. Father of wife means father-in-law. Son of Father -in-law means brother-in-law. So, Manish is brother-in-law of Anuj. 41. (4)

According to figure, Gourav’s wife is Tanya’s sister in law.

Father Deepak

M =

Father

Br

51. (1)

Wife

o th

er

Daughter Nitin

47. (1) Rahul

sister

Sarika Brother Raja

Ritu

Father-in-law

Reva (Wife)

Neela

From the above chart, it is clear that Vikas is the brother of Neela. Therefore, wife of Vikas will be sister-in-law of Neela. Ajay

Vijay

Mili

Elder Brother

Friend

Ravi

Niece

Grand daughter

50. (2) Check by options,

Nikhil

O N

Sister

P

Rahul M

The data given is inadequate to find the solution. 44. (3)

Sahil

Uma

Tanya is the daughter of Kartik. According to question, though sex of Heena and Tanya is not given, but option (4) is the most correct answer. 55. (4) I. M is the sister of D. II. D and B are brothers. III. O is the grandfather of D.

Mehul

Divya

= Female

Tanya

Option (2) =

Sanjay

= Male

G

Heena

Father

43. (1)

D = B

C

49. (1)

Mohan

Arun

Brother

Wife = Grandson

Son

Son

A

Kartik

Daughter

Prakash

Nikhil

So, C is A’s son. Option (4). 53. (1) Grandfater’s only son is father so the father of Abhishek and Seema is same. Hence, Seema is the sister of Abhishek. 54. (4)

Ramakrishna

Vikash

=

Engineer Doctor

Mother

Son

Megha

F

42. (2)

Son

Varun

48. (2)

Vani

Pranab (Husband)

Prerna

It is clear that Rakesh is the father of Megha. So, statement (1) cannot be definitely true. 52. (4) Draw the family diagram E

Daughter

Son Sonu

Wife

Sister in-law

Rakesh Brother

Deepak

Mother

Mother in-law

Uncle

46. (2)

Saroj

Ramesh

Y = Father

45. (1) Rajesh’s brother’s father is Rajesh’s father. The only son of grandfather is father. So, Neha is the sister of Rajesh.

Maternal u ncle Wife

Rajesh

Brother = X

Ashok

Gaurav

Father = X

M

Y

Tanya

Not possible as father cannot be a sister. Option (2)

BPRE–154

B

D

So, all three statements are true. 56. (1) Madhu’s husband daughter is her daughter and brother of her daughter is her son. 57. (3) Granddaughter of father of my father is my sister. So, Y is the brother-in-law of X.

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 58. (3)

(67-69) : Tejveer

Rakesh

Garima

Deepak Isha

So, Tejveer is the grandfather of Isha. 59. (2) Dev’s sister’s father is Dev’s father. His father’s son in low’s wife is his sister. So, that woman is Dev’s sister. (60-62) :

B Gujrati E Continental

Male Female Married Couple

C South Indian A Chinese D Rajasthani

G Marathi F Punjabi

60. (1) D likes Rajasthani food. 61. (3) Two married women are G and C and their choice of food is Marathi and South Indian. 62. (4) As the sex of F in not known, so the relationship cannot be established. 63. (4) Father of Monika’s sister’s brother is Monika’s father. So, the son of Monika’s father is her brother. 64. (1) Sahil is the grandson of Nirmal. Akash is the grandson of Nirmal’s brother. So, Akash is cousin of Sahil. 65. (3) Ankit is the grandson of Mohan. Ankush is the grandson of Mohan’s brother. So, Ankush is the cousin of Ankit. 66. (2)

Nitin

Varsha

Ganga

Sameer

Jai

Raja

Varun is the son of Sameer or Jai. Raja is the grandson of Ganga.

Person

Sex

Profession

P

M/F

Q

Female

R

Male

S

Female

T

Male

Engineer/Student Child of Q and U; Grandchild of T and S Teacher Mother of P and R; Wife of U; Daughter-in-law of T and S Engineer/Student Son of Q and U; Grandson of T and S; Brother of P Housewife Grandmother of P and R; Mother of U; Wife of T; Mother-in-law of Q. Doctor Father of U; Father-in-law of Q; Husband of S; Grandfather of P and R.

U

Male

Advocate

Relationship

Father of P and R; Husband of Q.

Married Couples; Q and U; S and T. 67. (1) Either P or R is an Engineer. U is father of P and R. T is the father-in-law of the Teacher, Q. 68. (2) The sex of P is not known. Therefore, there are two or three female members in the family. 69. (1) P is either granddaughter or grandson of S. (70-72) : Husband Wife K–Engineer X P–Teacher S

Q–Accountant L G–Doctor N P is the brother of T. O is the sister of P and T. K is the father of O, P and T. X is the mother of O, P and T. L is the mother of N. 70. (3) The family consists of four generations. 71. (4) P is the husband of S. 72. (4) The Accountant Q and his wife L belong to the third generation.

(73-75) : Member

Sex

Profession

Relationship

G

Male

Doctor

H

Female

Lawyer

I

Male

Jeweller

J

Female

Clerk

K

M/F

Engineer

L

M/F

Accountant

Husband of J; father of I; Grandfather of K and L Mother of K and L; Wife of I; Daughter-in-law of G and J Father of K and L; Son of G and J; Husband of H Wife of G; Mother of I; Grandmother of K and L Child of H and I; Grandchild of G and J Child of H and I; Grandchild of G and J

73. (3) K is an Engineer. 74. (4) The sex of K and L is not known. 75. (4) G is the Grandfather of K. (76–78) : G and K are brothers. L is the sister of G and K. I is the cousin of G, K and L. H and J are cousins of I as well as G, K and L. Male Members : G, K and I Female Members : H, J and L 76. (3) J is the cousin of G. 77. (1) I is the cousin of L.

BPRE–155

78. (2) There are three male players: G, K and I. 79. (4) Son-in-law of my wife’s sister would be also son-in-law of my wife’s brother. 80. (3) B is the brother of E. B and E are sons of A. D is the wife of E. Therefore, D is the daughter-inlaw of A. 81. (4) Bindu is the sister-in-law of Ahsaan. Bindu is the wife Sandeep. Krishna is the mother of Ahsaan and Sandeep.

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 82. (3) L ÷ M ⇒ L is daughter of M. M × O ⇒ M is father of O. O – P ⇒ O is son of P. P ÷ Q ⇒ P is daughter of Q. P is mother of L. Therefore, L is granddaughter of Q. 83. (1) R ÷ S ⇒ R is daughter of S. S × T ⇒ S is father of T. If Q is the son of R, then Q would be nephew of T. Therefore, Q – R ⇒ Q is son of R. 84. (4) A – B ⇒ A is son of B. B × C ⇒ B is father of C. C + D ⇒ C is wife of D. D – E ⇒ D is son of E. A is brother of C. D is husband of C. B is father-in-law of D. A is brother-in-law of D. C is daughter-in-law of E. The gender of E is not known. (85–87) : C is the wife of M. M is the father of G and L. C is the mother of G and L. L is married to K. 85. (4) G is the brother of L. K is married to L. Therefore, G is the brother–in– law of K. 86. (1) K is the mother of R. Then, K is the wife of L. Therefore, L is the father of R. 87. (2) P is the wife of G. C is the mother of G. Therefore, C is the mother–in– law of P. 88. (3) A @ F ⇒ A is wife of F. F $ M ⇒ F is son of M. M % J ⇒ M is mother of J. J + T ⇒ J is the sister of T. F is the husband of A. J is the sister of F. So, J is the sister-inlaw of A. 89. (4) J % B ⇒ J is the mother of B. B $ K ⇒ B is the son of K. K $ T ⇒ K is the son of T. Therefore, J is dauther-in-law of T. 90. (3) A @ B ⇒ A is father of B. B % C ⇒ B is mother of C. C & D ⇒ C is sister of D. D + E ⇒ D is husband of E. D is the son of B. B is mother–in–law of E. 91. (5) A % B ⇒ A is mother of B. B + C ⇒ B is father of C. C & D ⇒ C is sister of D. If D is father or mother of E, then C would be aunt of E. D @ E ⇒ D is father of E. D % E ⇒ D is mother of E.

92. (3) A + B ⇒ A is husband of B. B & C ⇒ B is sister of C. C @ D ⇒ C is father of D. D % E ⇒ D is mother of E. E $ F ⇒ E is brother of F. D is daughter of C. B is sister of C. So, B is aunt of D. 93. (5) P × Q means P is father of Q. Q + R means Q is daughter of R. R – T means R is sister of T. It is clear that P is husband of R. If we establish that T is either son or daughter of S, then P would be the son-in-law of S. T + S means T is daughter of S . T ÷ S means T is son of S. 94. (1) J ÷ P ⇒ J is the son of P. P % H ⇒ P is the mother of H. H × T ⇒ H is the sister of T. Therefore, P is the mother of J, H and T. J is the brother of T. 95. (2) Option (1) L % R ⇒ L is the mother of R. R $ D ⇒ R is the wife of D. D + T ⇒ D is the father of T. T × M ⇒ T is the sister of M. The gender of M is not known. M is either son or daughter of D. Option (2) L + R ⇒ L is the father of R. R $ D ⇒ R is the wife of D. D + M ⇒ D is the father of M. M × T ⇒ M is the sister of T. It is clear that M is the daughter of D. Option (3) L % R ⇒ L is the mother of R. R % D ⇒ R is the mother of D. D + T ⇒ D is the father of T. T ÷ M ⇒ T is son of M. D is husband of M. Option (4) D + L ⇒ D is the father of L. L $ R ⇒ L is the wife of R. R + M ⇒ R is the father of M. M × T ⇒ M is the sister of T. M is the granddaughter of D. Option (5) L $ D ⇒ L is the wife of D. D ÷ R ⇒ D is the son of R. R % M ⇒ R is the mother of M. M ÷ T ⇒ M is the son of T. M is the brother of D. 96. (2) I + T ⇒ I is the father of T. T % J ⇒ T is the mother of J. J × L ⇒ J is the sister of L. L ÷ K ⇒ L is the son of K. L is the son of K and hence Option (1) is incorrect. T is the wife of K. So, K is the son-in-law of I.

BPRE–156

I is the grandfather of L and hence Option (3) is incorrect. T is the mother of J and hence Option (4) is incorrect. J is the sister of L and hence Option (5) is incorrect. 97. (4) Option (1) W % L ⇒ W is the mother of L. L × T ⇒ L is the sister of T. T × Y ⇒ T is the sister of Y. Y ÷ X ⇒ Y is the son of X. Option (2) W + L ⇒ W is the father of L. L × T ⇒ L is the sister of T. T × Y ⇒ T is the sister of Y. Y ÷ X ⇒ Y is the son of X. Option (3) X + L ⇒ X is the father of L. L × T ⇒ L is the sister of T. T × Y ⇒ T is the sister of Y. Y ÷ W ⇒ Y is the son of W. X is the father of L, T and Y. Y is the son of X. Option (4) W $ X ⇒ W is the wife of X. X + L ⇒ X is the father of L. L + Y ⇒ L is the father of Y. Y + T ⇒ Y is the father of T. So, Y is the grandson of X. Option (5) W % X ⇒ W is the mother of X. X + T ⇒ X is the father of T. T × Y ⇒ T is the sister of Y. Y ÷ L ⇒ Y is the son of L. So, Y is the son of X and L. 98. (4) R % T ⇒ R is the mother of T. T × P ⇒ T is the sister of P. P $ Q ⇒ P is the wife of Q. So, T is the sister-in-law of Q. 99. (4) Only child of Nirmal’s wife’s grandfather means father or mother of Nirmal’s wife. Daughter of Nirmal’s wife’s father or mother means Nirmal’s wife or sister of Nirmal’s wife. 100. (4) E is husband of C. C is daughter of B. D is son of B. D is brother of C. Therefore, D is brother–in–law of E. (101–105) : D?M D is daughter of M. M*Z M is husband of Z. Z©B Z is the parent (Mother) of B. B+G B is the niece or nephew of G. G is brother of M. G!M M÷Q M is the father-in-law of Q. Q$C Q is father of C. C is son of B. C#B

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP B X.

X

B is the maternal aunt of

Z X

G

M

C

B

Q D

101. (2) D is sitting fourth to the left or right (opposite) of Z. D is daughter of M and Z. 102. (5) C is son of B and Q. Q is son-in-law of M. Therefore, C is maternal grandson of M. 103. (1) B is maternal aunt of X. 104. (4) G is brother of M. M is father-in-law of Q. Q is sitting second to the left of G. 105. (5) Both the Conclusions are true. 106. (4) Roma is wife of Rakshit. Rakshit is son of Reena and Roshan. Raksha is daughter of Reena and Roshan. Raksha is sister-in-law of Roma. 107. (3) C @ M C is the child of M. M is the husband of M*Q Q. Q ^G Q is sister of G. G>Z G is mother of Z. M is second to the left of G. M is the husband of Q.

G Q

M

Z

D

F

G

C

108. (3) J * G J is the husband of G. G>K G is mother of K. K is the son-in-law of K&F F. F>D F is mother of D. J is third to the right of G. J is the husband of G.

J

K

109. (5) S % M S is the wife of M. M!Z M is brother of Z. Z$K Z is father of K. K=B K is cousin of B. Z or K is sitting with S.

(112–114) : M is the husband of M*T T. T is the parent of H. T©H H!B H is brother of B. B is mother of D. B>D D%F D is the wife of F. F@Q F is the child of Q. Q*Z Q is the husband of Z. T is the mother of H. F is the son of Q and Z. Q is the father-in-law of D.

B Z

H

D

T

K/S

B

Q

F M M

Z/S

110. (2) J ^ B J is sister of B. B is mother of N. B>N N#D N is the son of D. DG D is the parent of G. N is sitting third to the right of J. J is the aunt of N. N is the nephew of J.

G B

N

J

D

111. (3) R $ Z R is the father of Z. Z is the son-in-law of Z&K K. K>C K is mother of C. C^J C is the sister of J. K is sitting second the right of J. K is the mother of C and J.

Z

T B

Q

U K

C

J

112. (4) Q is facing away from the centre. Q is the father-in-law of D 113. (4) M is sitting second to the right of D. B is the mother of D. B is the daughter of M. Therefore, M is grandfather of D. 114. (3) H is sitting third to the right of T. H is the son of T. (115–116) : K is father of L. K$L L!G L is brother of G. G>Q G is mother of Q. Q is the daughter of Q?B B B#U B is the son of U. U*T U is the husband of T. Q is the daughter of B and G. B is the son of U and T. T is the mother of B.

R

BPRE–157

L

K

G

115. (1) T is facing away from the centre. T is grandmother of Q. 116. (3) L is sitting second to the right of K. L is son of K.

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP 117. (4) X 5 km. 8 km.

Bus Stand D

B T 4 km.

Father

Sister

X

B

P

Maitri Mall

125. (4) X @ M X is the child of M. M$P M is the father of P. P is the child of K. P@K K%M K is the wife of M. M is brother of Z. M!Z X is the child of K. K is the mother of X. Z

129. (3)

Y

Husband

M K

T

(Father) (Mother) (Brother) I X J

L

K (Sister) J

Y

X

K

I

P

D

Son

Daughter–in–law

118. (5) T is sister of D. U is daughter of T. D is wife of P. Therefore, U is niece of D. 119. (4) B is grandfather of J. T is mother of J. Y is husband of T. Z is father of T and husband of W. Therefore, Z is grandfather of J. 120. (4) D is sister of T. Y is husband of T. Therefore, D is sister-in-law of Y. 121. (3) Q is son of D. Q is nephew of T. 122. (5) W is mother of T. M is the parent 123. (1) M © Z of Z. Z@T Z is the child of T. T!H T is brother of H. H$B H is father of B. T is paternal uncle of B.

X K 126. (5) G $ L G is the father of L. L&T L is the son-in-law of T. T is husband of Q. T*Q Q?D Q is mother of D. L is the son–in–law of Q and T. L

F (Father)

Sister (Brother) B H (Mother)

(Daughter) D (Wife)

F Q

B

J (Son) (Husband)

H

D

G D 127. (5) E & F E is the son-inlaw of F. F!T F is the brother of T. T@M T is the child of M. M%G M is the wife of G. T is the child of G and M. G is the father of T.

F is father–in–law of J. 131. (3)

(Father) (Brother) L O (Husband)

N (Wife)

P M

O

L

N

P

G

Z

T

T

M

M

M is second to the right of H. 124. (5) G % M G is wife of M. M$K M is father of K. K is the child of G. K@G G is the sister of P. G^P P©Q P is parent of Q. G is the aunt of Q.

O is uncle of P. 132. (4) M

T

E

F 128. (4) (Brother) (Father) H T

B (Mother)

Q (Husband)

Z (Wife)

(Sister)

M L (Child)

K

D (Child)

Q

D

T Q

P

L

Z M

J

T

H

B

L

K is the niece of J. 130. (1)

G

B, T

H

BPRE–158

L Z is the daughter of T.

L

BLOOD RELATIONSHIP

(144–148) : H ^ Y : X is the sister of Y. Y # K : Y is the son of K. K © W : K is the parent of W. W ? E : W is the daughter of E. E = J : E is the mother-in-law of J. J $ L : J is the father of L. L + Y : L is the niece or nephew of Y. Y + Q : Y is the niece or nephew of Q. Q ! E : Q is the brother of E.

147. (3) W is sister of Y. Therefore, Y is brother-in-law of T’s father. 148. (4) L is granddaughter of H. H is the paternal grandmother of L. Therefore, X is daughter-in-law of H’s husband. (149 – 153) : ● P ? A : P is the daughter of A. ● A * E : A is the husband of E.

Da ug ht er

n So

Suman

139. (3) Ritu is sister of Suman. Suman is mother of Vijay. Vijay is son of Suman. Therefore, Vijay is nephew of Ritu. 140. (4) Prakash is father of Suman. Suman is wife of Rajesh. Therefore, Prakash is father–in–law of Rajesh. 141. (2) Malathi is daughter of Ritu. Ritu is sister of Suman. Therefore, Malathi is niece of Suman. 142. (1) Sundar is husband of Ritu. Ritu is sister of Suman. Therefore, Sundar is brother–in–law of Suman. 143. (5) Raghu is father of Sundar. Sundar is father of Karan. Therefore, Raghu is grandfather of Karan. ●E

© F : E is the parent of F. (E is the mother of F). ● F + H : F is niece or nephew of H. ● H ! A : H is the brother of A. ●A W : A is the father -in-law of W. ● W $ R : W is the father of R. ● R # F : R is the son of F. ● F ^ U : F is the maternal aunt of U. ● U # G : U is the son of G.

Brother

H

Da Husband-Wife

P

Son

L

G

U

E

Sister

r te gh

Daughter

W

144. (4) X is the wife of J. W is the sister of X. Therefore, W is the sister-in-law of J. 145. (3) K is father of X. X is mother of L. L is daughter of X. K is the maternal grandfather of L. L is granddaughter of K. 146. (5) Q is brother of E. E is mother of X. Therefore. Q is maternal uncle of X.

Husband-Wife

A

F

Wife-Husband

W

Son

Y

Rajesh

Vijay

Malathi

ug ht er

Da ugh ter X

Wife – Husband Son

Son

Father

Ritu

er ht

K

Manju

u Da

er ht ug Son

Husband-Wife

Wife-Husband

Karan

Prakash

ug Da

E

Husband – Wife

Sundar

Da

J

Brother

Wife – Husband

Kamala

er ht ug Da

Q

Raghu

Son

(139–143) :

Mother

133. (5) J is the brother of V. K is the son of V. Therefore, J is the uncle of K. 134. (4) K is husband of D. B is daughter of X. Q is wife of T. X is son-in-law of Q. T is maternal grandfather of K. Therefore, B is sister-in-law of D. 135. (4) Q is the wife of T. L is the wife of J. J is the son of Q Therefore, Q is the mother-inlaw of L. 136. (2) B is paternal aunt of W. B is daughter of X. X is father of B. Therefore, X is grandfather of W. 137. (1) G is niece of V. V is daughter of Q. X is son-in-law of Q. B is daughter of X. Therefore, G is cousin of B. 138. (3) C is the father of B, D and F. C is the husband of A. Therefore, A has three children.

R

149. (5) P is sister of F. F is mother of R. Therefore, P is aunt of R. 150. (2) A is father of P. P is wife of G. Therefore, A is father-in-law of G. 151. (5) F is daughter of A. H is brother of A. Therefore, F is niece of H. 152. (4) W is husband of F. P is sister of F. Therefore, W is brother-in-law of P. 153. (3) E is wife of A. H is brother of A. Therefore, E is sister-in-law of H. ppp

BPRE–159

SYMBOLS & NOTATIONS

7

SYMBOLS & NOTATIONS

QUESTIONS FROM 1999 TO 2010 ARE AVAILABLE ONLINE NATIONALISED BANKS & IBPS PO/MT/SO EXAMS Directions (1-5) : In the following questions, the symbols @, #, %, $ and © are used with the following meaning as illustrated below : (Punjab & Sind Bank PO Exam. 23.01.2011)

‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’. ‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither equal to nor smaller than Q’. ‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’. ‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’. ‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’. Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly. 1. Statements : R @ D, D © W, B $ W Conclusions : I. W # R II. B © D III. W $ R (1) None is true (2) Only I is true (3) Only III is true (4) Only either I or III is true (5) All are true 2. Statements : H $ V, V % M, K © M Conclusions : I. K © V II. M @ H III. H © K (1) Only I and III are true (2) Only II and III are true (3) Only I and II are true (4) All are true (5) None of these

3. Statements : K # T, T $ B, B @ F Conclusions : I. F $ T II. K # B III. T $ F (1) None is true (2) Only I is true (3) Only I and II are true (4) Only II and III are true (5) All are true 4. Statements: Z # F, R @ F, D © R Conclusions : I. Z # R II. F # D III. D © Z (1) None is true (2) Only I is true (3) Only III is true (4) Only either I or III is true (5) All are true 5. Statements : M © R, R % D, D @ N Conclusions : I. M © N II. N $ R III. M © D (1) Only I and II are true (2) Only II and III are true (3) Only I and III are true (4) All are true (5) None of these Directions (6–10) : In the following questions, the symbols @, $, #, © and % are used with the following meaning as illustrated below : (IBPS Specialist Officer CWE Exam. 11.03.2012)

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q.’ ‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.’ ‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.’ ‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q.’

BPRE–160

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.’ Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the four conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly. 6. Statements : R # J, J $ D, D @ K, K % T Conclusions : I. T # D II. T @ D III. R # K IV. J $ T (1) Only either I or II is true (2) Only III is true (3) Only III and IV are true (4) Only either I or II and III are true (5) None of these 7. Statements : T % R, R $ M, M @ D, D © H Conclusions : I. D % R II. H # R III. T © M IV. T % D (1) Only I is true (2) Only I and IV are true (3) Only I and II are true (4) Only II and IV are true (5) None of these 8. Statements : M @ B, B # N, N $ R, R © K Conclusions : I. K # B II. R © B III. M $ R IV. N © M (1) Only I and III are true (2) Only I and II are true (3) Only II and IV are true (4) Only II, III and IV are true (5) None of these 9. Statements : F # H, H @ M, M © E, E $ J Conclusions : I. J © M II. E # H III. M © F IV. F # E

SYMBOLS & NOTATIONS (1) Only I and II are true (2) Only II and III are true (3) Only I, II and III are true (4) Only II, III and IV are true (5) None of these 10. Statements : D % A, A @ B, B © K, K % M Conclusions : I. B $ D II. K # A III. M # B IV. A © M (1) Only I, II and IV are true (2) Only I, II and III are true (3) Only II, III and IV are true (4) Only I, III and IV are true (5) All I, II, III and IV are true 11. Which of the following symbols should be placed in blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that both ‘W > R’ as well as ‘E > S’ definitely hold true? W__ E __ A __ R __ S (1) >, =, >, > (2) >, >, =, > (3) , =, > (4) , > (5) >, , = (IBPS RRBs Officer Scale–I & II CWE 12.09.2015)

12. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that both ‘A > I’ as well as ‘V > T’ definitely hold true ? A_V_I_C_T (1) >, =, (2) >, , = (3) >, >, >, = (4) , > (5) >, S>T Conclusions : I. P > T II. T < Q 19. Statement : LP Conclusions : I. O < M II. P < N 20. Statement : A > B, B > C = D < E Conclusions : I. C < A II. D < B 21. Statement : H > J =K, K > L, L > T, T < V, Conclusions : I. K > T II. L < H 22. Statement : A < B = C, D > C = E Conclusions : I. E > A II. A < D 23. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark in the given expression in

SYMBOLS & NOTATIONS order to make the expressions ‘J > M’ as well as ‘N < K’ definitely true? J>K?L=M>N (2) < (1) < (4) = (3) > (5) > (UCO Bank PO Exam. 30.01.2011)

24. In which of the following expressions will the expressions ‘D > B’ as well as ‘C > F’ be definitely true ? (1) A > B > C > D = F (2) A < B < C = D > F (3) A < B < C < D > F (4) A < B > C = D > F (5) None of these (UCO Bank PO Exam. 30.01.2011)

25. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark in the given expression in order to make the expressions ‘I > L’ as well as ‘M > K’ definitely true? I>J>K?L (2) < (3) < (4) = (5) Either < or < (Bank Of Baroda PO Exam. 13.03.2011)

26. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that ‘S > P’ definitely holds true but ‘S = P’ does not hold true? P ___ Q ___ R ___ S (2) , >, > (3) >, C (1) A > C (3) D > B (4) A > D (5) None is true 28. If the expressions ‘E < J < H > Z’, ‘H < Y’ and ‘E > F’ are true, which of the following conclusions will be definitely false? (1) F < Y (2) Y > E (2) F < H (4) J < Y (5) All are true

29. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark in the given expression in order to make the expressions ‘K < H’ as well as ‘M > J’ definitely true? H>I=J ? K (3) < (4) Either < or < (5) = 30. In which of the following expressions will the expression ‘P > S’ be definitely false ? (1) P > Q > R = S (2) S < R < Q < P (3) R = P > Q > S (4) S > Q > R < P (5) S < Q < R < P 31. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that ‘N < K’ definitely holds true ? K ___ L ___ M ___ N (2) (4) >, >, < (3) >, =, < (5) None of these Directions (32–36) : In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. (Indian Overseas Bank PO Exam. 22.05.2011)

Mark answer (1) if only conclusion I follows. Mark answer (2) if only conclusion II follows. Mark answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows. Mark answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows. Mark answer (5) if both conclusions I and II follow. 32. Statements : A > B = C; B < D < E Conclusions : I. D > A II. E > C 33. Statements : L > U > K; Z < U < R Conclusions : I. L > Z II. K < R 34. Statements : YR>I Conclusions : I. J > I II. Y < R

BPRE–162

35. Statements : V > K > M = N; M > S; T < K Conclusions : I. T < N II. V = S 36. Statements : F< X < A; R < X < E Conclusions : I. F < E II. R < F Directions (37-41) : In these questions, relationships between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. (IBPS RRBs Office Assistant CWE Exam. 09.09.2012)

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows. Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows. Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II follow. 37. Statements : G < F = L < J; J < K = H Conclusions : I. H = G II. G < H 38. Statements : P U > V > W; X < Y = W > Z Conclusions : I. Z > U II. W < T 40. Statements : K < L < M < N; M < O < P Conclusions : I. P > K II. N > O 41. Statements : B < A < C; A > D < E Conclusions : I. B < E II. C > E Directions (42–46) : In each of these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements . The statements are followed by two conclusions. (IDBI Bank Officer Exam.16.09.2012)

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true.

SYMBOLS & NOTATIONS Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true. Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II is true. Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I or II is true. Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II are true. 42. Statements : E=AF=C Conclusions : I. E < B II. C < D 43. Statements : P > T = U ≤ W; Q ≥ R ≥ W Conclusions : I. T = R II. U < R 44. Statements : P > T = U ≤ W; Q ≥ R ≥ W Conclusions : I. P ≥ R II. U > Q 45. Statements : R≥S>W=X;Y≤R=P Conclusions : I. P > X II. Y ≤ X 46. Statements : C = D ≥ E < F; G < I ≤ C Conclusions : I. D > G II. E < I Directions (47-48) : In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. (IBPS Specialist Officer CWE Exam.17.03.2013)

Mark answer (1)

If Only conclusion I follows. (2) Only conclusion II follows. (3) Either conclusion I or II follows. (4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows. (5) Both conclusions I and II follow. 47. Statement : E < F < G = H > S Conclusions : I. G > S II. F < H 48. Statement : P < Q < W = L Conclusions : I. L > P II. Q < L Directions (49-53) % In these questions relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. (Indian Overseas Bank PO Online Exam, 01.09.2013)

Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true. Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true. Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true. Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true. Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II are true. (59-50) : Statements : R > T < M = Z; C > T > B 49. Conclusions I. Z > C II. B < Z 50. Conclusions I. B < C II. R > C (51-52) : Statements : P > Q > T; Q < R; T > A 51. Conclusions : I. A < Q II. A < P 52. Conclusions : I. T < P II. R > A 53. Statements : P > T = U < W; Q>R>W Conclusions I. T = R II. U < R Directions (54–58) : In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. (BOB Manipal School of Banking Officer Online Exam, 14.08.2014)

Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true. Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true. Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true. Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true. Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II are true. (54–55) : Statements R=QM=E;I R II. E < Z 55. Conclusions I. Q < E II. M > Z 56. Statements PM;R M II. F < M (57–58) : Statements V>M=T>X;RS 57. Conclusions I. R < V II. S < X 58. Conclusions I. X < R II. V > S Directions (59–64) : In these questions, relationships between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. (IDBI Bank Officer Exam, 22.08.2014)

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows. Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows. Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II follow. (199–200) : Statements : F>A I 60. Conclusions : I. I < H II. H > N 61. Statements : FK Conclusions : I. E > F II. M > U 62. Statements : SU>T T II. D < O (63–64) : Statements : N>J=M;S>B>R O II. S > R 64. Conclusions : I. N = M II. N > M Directions (65-69) : In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. (SIDBI Officer Exam, 03.09.2014)

SYMBOLS & NOTATIONS Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true. Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true. Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true. Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true. Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II are true. 65. Statements : S = T < A = N > D; B E II. C = Z (68-69) : Statements : T > R = E < Q < L; CZ 68. Conclusions : I. R > C II. L > Z 69. Conclusions : I. L > C II. Z < T Directions (70–74) : In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. (IBPS RRBs Officer Scale-I CWE, 06.09.2014)

Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true. Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true. Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true. Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true. Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II are true. 70. Statement PE Conclusions I. K < L II. P < E (71-72): Statements P>R=A D (73-74) : Statements C > R > A = S < H; R < P < Q 73. Conclusions I. C > S II. P < C 74. Conclusions I. H < R II. R < Q Directions (75–80) : In these question relationships between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by four Conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. Study the statements and Conclusions carefully and select the correct answer : (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE-IV 18.10.2014)

75. Statement : Y>R>S=T H > T < C; Y>T>N Conclusions : I. H > Y II. S > C III. C = Y IV. C > N (1) Only Conclusions I and IV are true. (2) Only Conclusion III is true. (3) Only Conclusions II and IV are true. (4) Only Conclusion IV is true. (5) Only Conclusions I and II are true. 77. Statement : K>H Y II. L < A III. H < A IV. K > R

BPRE–164

(1) Only Conclusions I, II and III are true. (2) Only Conclusions II and IV are true. (3) None of the Conclusion is true (4) Only Conclusions II and III are true. (5) Only Conclusions II, III and IV are true. 78. Statements : D > M > U > E; NJ Conclusions : I. D > E II. E < J III. M > N IV. D > J (1) Only Conclusions I, II and III are true. (2) Only Conclusions II, III and IV are true. (3) Only Conclusions I, III and IV are true. (4) None of the Conclusions is true. (5) All the Conclusions I, II, III and IV are true. 79. Statement : P>L=U>CS Conclusions : I. P > C II. K < L III. S < U IV. C < L (1) Only Conclusions I and II are true. (2) Only Conclusions III and IV are true. (3) Only Conclusions I and IV are true. (4) Only Conclusions I, II and IV are true. (5) Only Conclusions II, III and IV are true. 80. Statements : K > G = M < T; U U IV. G < U (1) Only Conclusions I and III are true. (2) Only Conclusions III and IV are true.

SYMBOLS & NOTATIONS (3) Only Conclusions I, III and IV are true. (4) Only Conclusions III and IV are true. (5) Only Conclusions II and III are true. Directions (81–86) : In these questions, relationship between different elements has been shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and decide which of the following conclusions is definitely true ? (Bank of Baroda Junior Management Grade/Scale-I Exam, 18.04.2015)

Give answer (1) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (2) if both Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true Give answer (3) if only Conclusion II is true Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true Give answer (5) if only Conclusion I is true (81-82) : Statement : M>O>L>T=E>D 81. Conclusions : I. D < O II. M > E 82. Conclusions : I. T < O II. T = O 83. Statement : BD 87. Conclusions : I. D < O II. M > E 88. Conclusions : I. T < O II. T = O 89. Statement : BK=H>N>AM>T Conclusions : I. K > T II. R > M 95. Statements : S R; L > Q 96. Conclusions : I. P > S II. I > R 97. Conclusions : I. L < R II. E > Q (98–99) : Statements : G > R > E = A < T < S; D S 99. Conclusions : I. J > E II. J = E

SYMBOLS & NOTATIONS 100. Statements : A>B>C S; C > A 101. Conclusions I. L > K II. P < S 102. Conclusions I. C > P II. P = C 103. Statements J>U>N=K M > N; K E > D; Q>N D II. A < D (108–109) : Statements P < U = N < C > H > S; K > C 108. Conclusions I. P < C II. U > H 109. Conclusions I. K > U II. U = K

111. Conclusions : I. A > F II. R < K 112. Conclusions : I. Y > K II. F < Y (113-114) : Statements : BS; D>C C II. E = C 114. Conclusions : I. D > B II. E > S 115. Statement : A>B>CS>M I Directions (111-115) : In each of the following questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Study the Conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer. (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V (Preliminary) 10.10.2015 Ist Sitting)

Give answer (1) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true. Give answer (2) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (3) if only Conclusion I is true. Give answer (4) if only Conclusion II it true Give answer (5) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true (111-112) : Statements : FK; Y>E

BPRE–166

Give answer (1) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true Give answer (2) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (3) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true Give answer (4) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (5) if only Conclusion II is true (116–117) : Statements C < R < E < A = M; Y>E

%

116. Conclusions : I.

M>R

II. Y > A 117. Conclusions : I. C = Y II. C < Y (118–120) : Statements % B < L < A = M > E > S; L>W>J 118. Conclusions : I. L < S II. E > W

SYMBOLS & NOTATIONS 119. Conclusions : I. J < M II. J = M 120. Statement % C>H>O>K=E D II. E < C Directions (121–123) : In each of the following questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Study the Conclusion(s) based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer. (IBPS RRBs Officer Scale–I & II CWE 13.09.2015)

Give answer (1) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true Give answer (2) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true Give answer (3) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (4) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (5) if only Conclusion II is true 121. Statements : S < P < U > N; U > B; L < S Conclusions : I. B > P II. L < U 122. Statements : A > G > O > N < Y; O > S > R Conclusions : I. R < A II. Y > S 123. Statements : M > O > C > K = E < D; J > C; O < Z Conclusions : I. J > E II. K < Z 124. Which of the given expression is definitely true if the expression ‘Q > U < I < E = T > S’ is definitely true ? (2) U < T (1) Q > T (3) E > S (4) E > Q (5) I > S (IBPS RRBs Officer Scale–I & II CWE 13.09.2015)

Directions (125-129) : In each of the following questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statement. These statements are

followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Read both the statements and select the appropriate answer. (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE–V Main Exam. 31.10.2015)

Give answer (1) if both the Conclusions I and II are true Give answer (2) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (3) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true Give answer (4) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (5) if only Conclusion II is true (125-126) : Statements % V > M = T > X; R < T > S 125. Conclusions : I. R < V II. S < X 126. Conclusions : I. X < R II. V > S 127. Statements % P < E < R > F; E > M; R < T Conclusions : I. T > M II. F < M 128. Statements % R = Q < I > M = E; I < Z Conclusions : I. Q < E II. M > Z 129. Statements % N = D < H > R; V > H < J Conclusions : I. V > D II. R < J Directions (130-134) : In each of the following questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in statements. The statements are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Study the Conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer : (IBPS Specialist Officer (IT) CWE 14.02.2016)

Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (2) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (3) if only Conclusion II is true Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true Give answer (5) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true

BPRE–167

130. Statements L < Q < R = S; R > H > P Conclusions I. P < S II. L < P 131. Statements W > A = S > U < K; U > Y Conclusions I. K > W II. Y < W 132. Statements Y < U < W > S; M > W > D Conclusions I. Y < M II. S < D (133–134) : Statements S < P = Q < J; Q < Y; P < L 133. Conclusions I. J > L II. S < J 134. Conclusions I. Y > S II. S = Y Directons (135–140) : In each of the following questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Study the Conclusions based on the given statements and mark the appropriate answer : (SIDBI Officer Online Exam.24.02.2016)

Give answer (1) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true Give answer (2) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (3) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true Give answer (4) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (5) if only Conclusion II is true 135. Statements AS Conclusions I. A < S II. A = S (136–137) : Statements C > R < E = T; R < Y; U > E 136. Conclusions I. C > Y II. U > Y 137. Conclusions I. U > R II. T < U

SYMBOLS & NOTATIONS (138–139) : Statements P > R = B < S; CZ 138. Conclusions I. Z = P II. S < Z 139. Conclusions I. C < S II. C = S 140. Statements D < Q < N > W; Q > P Conclusions I. P = D II. N > P Directions (141–144) : In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer. (Bank of Baroda Exam, 25.09.2016)

Give answer (1) if only concluson I is true Give answer (2) if both conclusion I and II are true Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II is true Give answer (4) if only conclusion II is true Give answer (5) if neither conclusion I nor II is true (141–142) : Statements : G < A < M = E > S; Q > E < O; D D II. M < O 143. Statements : A < B = C < D < E > F; XZ Conclusions : I. A > Z II. X < F 144. Statements : L = A < M > P; A > J = S < R Conclusions : I. M > J II. R > L

145. Which of the following expressions will be definitely false if the given expressions ‘D < I < F = C > U > L’; ‘T > C’ are definitely true? (1) L < F (2) D < T (4) C < D (3) C > I (5) T > L (Bank of Baroda Exam, 25.09.2016)

146. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark (?) in the given expression in order to make the expressions ‘V > Y’ as well as ‘I < L’ definitely true? L>E=V?I>N=G>Y (1) < (2) Either ‘>’ or ‘=’ (3) Either ‘=’ or ‘ (5) < (Bank of Baroda Exam, 25.09.2016)

Directions (147–151) : In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statement. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer. (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Pre Exam), 16.10.2016 (First Sitting))

Give answer (1) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (2) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true Give answer (3) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (4) if only Conclusion II is true Give answer (5) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true (147-148) : Statements L < A = M < P; A < C < T; M>O>R 147. Conclusions I. O < P II. C > L 148. Conclusions I. T < M II. A > R 149. Statements D > U = S > T; O = P < S Conclusions I. D > P II. P = D (150–151) : Statements T > I > L > E: I < N < B; N>S>D

BPRE–168

150. I. II. 151. I. II.

Conclusions N>E T E > R; L > Q 152. Conclusions : I. P > S II. I > R 153. Conclusions : I. L < R II. E > Q (154–155) : Statements: G > R < E = A < T < S; D < A < J 154. Conclusions : I. T > D II. R > S 155. Conclusions : I. J > R II. J = R 156. Statements : A>B>C R II. N > F (158–159) : Statements : Q < U = E > N; R > A > E; T Q (160–161) : Statements : R < A > C > E; A > N > T; C R II. T < E Directions (162–166) : In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statement(s). The statement(s) are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Study the Conclusions based on the given statement(s) and select the appropriate answer. (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Pre.) Exam, 14.11.2016 (Shift-I))

Give answer (1) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (2) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true Give answer (3) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (4) if both Conclusions I and II are true Give answer (5) if only Conclusion II is true 162. Statements : P < E < T < R; T > K

Conclusions : I. K > P II. R > K 163. Statements : X < W; A > C > H = W Conclusions : I. C > X II. A > W 164. Statements : J W Directions (167–171) : In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statement(s). The statement(s) are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer. (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Pre.) Exam, 14.11.2016 (Shift-II))

Give answer (1) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true Give answer (2) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (3) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true Give answer (4) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (5) if only Conclusion II is true (167–168) : Statements : M < A > N; E < A < G 167. Conclusions : I. M < E II. G > N 168. Conclusions : I. N < E II. G > M (169–170) : Statements : L > Y > A < R; P < A 169. Conclusions : I. P < L II. R > P 170. Conclusions : I. L > P II. A > R

BPRE–169

171. Statements : W>Q=U>I C Directions (172–176) : In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statement(s). The statement(s) are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Study the Conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer. (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Pre.) Exam, 14.11.2016 (Shift-III))

Give answer (1) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true Give answer (2) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (3) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true Give answer (4) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (5) if only Conclusion II is true 172. Statements : T = V < R < B; T < D Conclusions : I. D > R II. B < T (173–174) : Statements : R < O > E; Y > O > C 173. Conclusions : I. Y > R II. E < C 174. Conclusions : I. Y = E II. Y > E 175. Statement : P > R = S > Q; M < R Conclusions : I. M < P II. Q < M 176. Statements : HI>N=C>R Conclusions : I. C < H II. M > R Directions (177–179) : In the following questions, the symbols ≠, , % and @ are used with the following meaning : (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Main) Exam, 18.11.2016

P ≠ Q means ‘P is neither greater nor equal to Q’. ● P  Q means ‘P is neither equal to nor smaller than Q’.

●

SYMBOLS & NOTATIONS P % Q means ‘P is neither smaller nor greater than Q’. ● P $ Q means ‘P is not smaller than Q’. ● P @ Q means ‘P is not greater than Q’. 177. Statements : Z ≠ F, R @ F, D © R Conclusions : I. Z ≠ R II. F ≠ D III. D % Z (1) Only Conclusions I and III are true. (2) Only Conclusions II and III are true. (3) Only Conclusions I is true. (4) All are true (5) None of these 178. Statements : R @ D; D © W; B $ W Conclusion : I. W ≠ R II. B © D III. W $ R (1) Only Conclusions I, II and III are true. (2) Only Conclusions I and III are true. (3) None is true. (4) Only Conclusions II and III are true. (5) None of these 179. Statements : H $ V, V % M, K © M Conclusions : I. K © V II. M @ H III. H © K (1) Only Conclusions II and III are true. (2) Only Conclusions I and II are true. (3) Only Conclusion II is true. (4) All are true (5) None of these Directions (180–184) : In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Read the Conclusions based on the statements and select the appropriate answer : ●

(Indian Bank PO (Pre.) Exam, 21.01.2017 (Ist Sitting))

Give answer (1) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (2) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true

Give answer (3) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true Give answer (4) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (5) if only Conclusion II is true (180–181) : Statements: T > R > A > C < K; N < E < C > S > D 180. Conclusions : I. S > A II. K < E 181. Conclusions : I. D < T II. N < R 182. Statements : S = L < U = M; Z > R>C=M Conclusions : I. Z > S II. S = Z (183–184) : Statements : Y < E < L = O > W; S > P > L > I < T 183. Conclusions : I. E < P II. I > E 184. Conclusions : I. Y < T II. S > W 185. Which of the following expressions will be definitely false if the given expression ‘J > N > U = Y < R < B < O < F’ is definitely true ? (1) F > B (3) U > B (5) U < F

(2) Y < N (4) Y < J

(Indian Bank PO (Pre.) Exam, 21.01.2017 (2nd Sitting))

186. In which of the given expressions does the expression S < H and T < I definitely hold true ? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

S S S S S

> < < <
= < >

T, T, T, T, T,

P P P P P

> > < <
=

H, H, H, H, H,

H H H H H

I K>X T < A; E < T ; R > D = T Conclusions : I. E < A II. R > S 189. Statement % R < A > B; C > A; F < B Conclusions : I. C > R II. F < A 190. Statement % L>K>XC>DE Conclusions : I. A > E II. A E Directions (192–194) : In each of the following questions, a statement is given followed by two sets of conclusions numbered I and II. These statements show relationship between different elements. You have to assume the statement to be true and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the information given in the statement. (IBPS SO (Agriculture) Exam, 29.01.2017)

Give answer (1) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (2) if only Conclusions I is true Give answer (3) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true

SYMBOLS & NOTATIONS Give answer (4) if only Conclusion II is true Give answer (5) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true (192–193) : Statements : D < W > U > I; Y < U; Y > O 192. Conclusions : II. O > U I. I < D 193. Conclusions : I. O < W II. I < Y 194. Statements : N > E = R < X; W < R; S > X Conclusions : I. S > N II. W < N 195. In which of the following expressions does the expression ‘H > F’ hold definitely true? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

E>F>R>B= C>H N>H>A=CF H>R>M=PF F D; X < R < Z 199. Conclusions : I.

P N; Z > A = U Conclusions : I. R > N

II. G < Z

Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true

207. Conclusions :

Give answer (3) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true

208. Statements :

Give answer (4) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (5) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true 201. Statements :

II. T > L

(202–203) : Statements : P < I = N < K > S; X > K < Y II. P = Y

203. Conclusions : II. S < X

204. Statements : F > W = S < C; Y < W Conclusions : I. C > Y

II. F > C

205. Statements : K=ME Conclusions : I. A < E

Conclusions : I. W > K

II. E > U

209. Statements : Conclusions :

II. Z > K

BPRE–171

II. L > Z

210. Statements : R>B>F>T>N=W Conclusions : I. F > W

202. Conclusions :

I. I < S

W > A = L > E; K < L < U

I. J > L

Conclusions :

I. P < Y

II. U = N

J > X > E = Z; L > E

A < N = K > L; N < O = T I. O > A

I. U > N

II. R < T

Directions (211–215) : In each of the following questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements is followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Study the Conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer. (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Prelim Exam) 16.09.2017)

Give answer (1) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true Give answer (2) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true

SYMBOLS & NOTATIONS Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (4) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (5) if only Conclusion II is true 211. Statements : D > C < G > H; B > C Conclusions : I. H > B II B < D 212. Statements : NA Conclusions : I. C > A II. N < D (213–214) : Statements : S = T < R < A > Y; Z > P = R 213. Conclusions : I. Z > Y II. S < Z 214. Conclusions : I. P < A II. P = A 215. Statements : P > A > C = E; K < C < U Conclusions : I. E < U

II. P > K

Directions (216–217) : In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer. (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE-VII (Prelim Exam) 14.10.2017)

Give answer (1) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true Give answer (2) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (4) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true Give answer (5) if only Conclusion II is true 216. Statements B < O = L < D; P > C > A = L Conclusions I. P = B II. B < P 217. Statements P > O < L < E; S < O > A = K Conclusions I. E < S II. K < P

Directions (218–222) : In each of the following questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Study the Conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer. (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE (Main Exam) 05.11.2017)

Give answer (1) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (2) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true Give answer (3) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true Give answer (4) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (5) if only Conlcusion II is ture (218–219) : Statements : T > R > A > C < K; ND 218. Conclusions : I. S > A II. K < E 219. Conclusions : I. D < T II. N < R 220. Statements : S = L < U = M; Z > R > C = M Conclusions : I. Z > S II. S = Z (221–222) : Statements : Y < E < = O > W; S>P>L>I E 222. Conclusions : II. S > Ww. I. Y < T Directions (223–227) : In each of the following questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer. (IBPS SO (IT Officer) CWE (Prelim Exam) 30.12.2017)

Give answer (1) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true Give answer (2) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (3) if only Conclusion I is true

BPRE–172

Give answer (4) if only Conclusion II is true Give answer (5) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true 223. Statement : P>R>O=S S II. O < Q 224. Statement : RC E I. C < V 226. Statements : C < D < L < F > G; K > L > M Conclusions : I. C < M II. K > G 227. Statements : J < L < P < E; K > P > M Conclusions : I. M > E II. J < K Directions (228–230) : In each of the following questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Study the Conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer. (IBPS SO (Law Officer) CWE (Prelim Exam) 31.12.2017)

Give answer (1) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (2) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (3) if only Conlcusion II is ture Give answer (4) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true Give answer (5) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true 228. Statements : B < O > C > Z; Conclusions : I. C < V 229. Statements : G > O < A < L; Conclusions : I. L > S

T>O Z SM=E II. E < G

SYMBOLS & NOTATIONS 230. Statements : H < A = F < T; J = A > L > E Conclusions : I. E > H II. L < T 231. What should come in place of δ and # respectively in the expression R > O > U > M δ Y; G > U # F < E that the expression E > Y definitely holds true? (1) >, = (3) >, < (5) >,
,
M > A < Y < G; Q>A>D>U>Z 232. Conclusions : I. M > U II. M = U 233. Conclusions : I. S > Q II. Z < G (234–235) : Statements : L W Directions (236–240) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below : (IDBI Bank PO Exam 29.04.2018)

R 4 3 % M@ K E F 5 A # J N 1 8 U ©D B P 6 I W 7 δ Q * Z

236. If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be fourth to the left of ninth from the left end? (1) E

(2) K

(3) M

(4) 3

(5) None of these 237. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be seventh to the right of eighteenth from the right end? (1) J

(2) #

(3) U

(4) N

(5) None of these 238. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter? (1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three 239. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so they form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (1) J A 1

(2) 3 R %

(3) 8 © 1

(4) # N A

(5) δ W Q 240. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a letter but not immediately preceded by a symbol? (1) None

(2) One

(3) Two (4) More than three (5) Three Directions (241–245) : In each of the following questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer. (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE-VII (Prelim Exam) 15.10.2017) & (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Prelim Exam) 21.10.2018)

BPRE–173

Give answer (1) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (2) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true Give answer (3) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true Give answer (4) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (5) if only Conclusion II is true (241–242) : Statements L > I = N > P; I > R > K; N N II. I < Z (243–244) : Statements S > A = N > D; A > L > E; M M II. A = M 245. Statements : P > V > R < E < Y; G>E>N Conclusions I. P > N II. V > Y Directions (246–249) : In each of the following questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Study the Conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer. IBPS RRBs OFFICER CWE (PRELIM EXAM), 11.02.2018

Give answer (1) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true Give answer (2) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (3) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (4) if only Conclusion II is true Give answer (5) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true (246–247) : Statements : F > I < J < N; Z < I > T = C

SYMBOLS & NOTATIONS 246. Conclusions : I. II. 247. I.

N J > K = M 248. Conclusions : I. G > J II. G < F 249. Conclusions : I. K > S II. E < F Directions (250–254) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: There is a 5 × 5 matrix which can produce signals which in turn help in illumination of some bulbs. The rows of the matrix are denoted by @, %, &, £ and ¥ from bottom to top in the same order and the columns are denoted by A, B, C, D and E from left to right. ¥ row contains numbers which are consecutive multiples of ‘9’ starting from ‘36’ £ row contains numbers which are consecutive multiples of ‘13’ & row contains numbers which are consecutive multiples of ‘8’ starting from ‘32’ % row contains numbers which are consecutive multiples of ‘7’ @ row contains numbers which are consecutive multiples of ‘11’ Note: If the starting number of a multiple is not given; then start the row from the same number. Example: If a row contains numbers which are consecutive multiples of ‘3’, then the row might be as follows:

3

6

9 12 15

The matrix helps in producing signals which is a string of numbers. There are four bulbs – P, Q, R and S. Based on the outcomes of the string one of the bulb blinks. Conditions for blink: I. If outcome of the string is below 80, the bulb Q blinks.

II. If outcome of the string is between 90 and 100, the bulb S blinks. III. If outcome of the string is between 101 and 120, then bulb P blinks. IV. If outcome of the string is between 121 and 200, the bulb R blinks. V. If none of the above condition follows, no bulb blinks. Four outcomes of the string: I. If all the numbers of the string are even numbers then, outcome is obtained by multiplying unit digits of all the two digit numbers. II. If a prime number is followed by another prime number then, outcome is obtained by sum of all the two digits numbers. III. If a prime number is preceded by a perfect square then, outcome is obtained by multiplying tenth place digits of all the numbers. IV.If there is only one prime number in the string, then outcome is obtained by addition of remaining numbers leaving the prime number (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE (Main Exam) 18.11.2018)

250. If the string is %B £D, @A &C, then which of the following bulb blinks? (1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S (5) None of these 251. If string is @A £A, ¥B, &D. then which of the following bulb blinks? (1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S (5) None of these 252. If string is ¥E @D, %B £B, then which of the following bulb blinks? (1) Q (2) R (3) S (4) P (5) None of these 253. If string is &E ¥D, £A @A, then which of the following bulb blinks? (1) P (2) Q

BPRE–174

(3) S

(4) R

(5) None of these 254. If string is @E &D, £E £A, then which of the following bulb blinks? (1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S (5) None of these Directions (255–257) : In each of the following questions, relationship between different elements has been shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Study the Conclusions and decide which of the Conclusions is definitely true. Give answer (1) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (2) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (3) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true Give answer (4) if only Conclusion II is true Give answer (5) if neither Conclusons I nor Conclusion II is true (Canara Bank PO Exam, 23.12.2018)

255. Statements W > V < T < P > Q; T > K > J > N; K > Z > H = D Conclusions : I. D < P II. T > D 256. Statements H < B < E < V; E = H > K > N; N N 257. Statements R > K < N > J = H; K < D < T = W; L > F > H = P Conclusions : I. N > P II. K < W Directions (258–262) : In each of the following questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Study the Conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.

SYMBOLS & NOTATIONS Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true Give answer (5) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true (IBPS Specialist Officer CWE (Prelim Exam) 31.01.2019)

258. Statements : W > U > P = J < K < Q < V; S>U>T Conclusions : I. P < V II. V > T 259. Statements : D > F > E = J > K < C < B; E D II. H > G 261. Statements : K = F < G < D < E > M; W > K; E > X Conclusions : I. G < X II. M > F 262. Statements : Q = S < N < P < R > M; W > Q; R > X Conclusions : I. W > P II. R > Q Directions (263–267) : In the following questions, relationships between different elements are given in different statements. The statements are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Choose the correct answer accordingly : Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true

Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true Give answer (5) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE Prelim Exam, 17.08.2019)

263. Statements : P = E; Q > P; V < Q Conclusions :

Conclusions : I. G < C II. H = A 269. Statements : M Z II. Y = Z

I. A > C

271. Statements :

II. A = C (265-266) : Statements : M > A > B = Q < P < J < Y; Z>A>X 265. Conclusions : I. B < Y

D < E = F > G > H; K > F Conclusions : I. D < H II. K > G 272. Statements : R > I = N > P; Y > R > K;

II. X > J 266. Conclusions : I. Z = Q II. Z > Q 267. Statements : G < R = A < S; T < R Conclusions : I. G < S II. S > T Directions (268–272) : In the following questions, relationships between different elements are given in the different statements. The statements are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Choose the correct answer accordingly. Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true Give answer (5) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE Prelim Exam, 12.10.2019)

268. Statements : F < G < D; D < H > C; F=C M > D Conclusions : I.

W>D

II. J > T

SYMBOLS & NOTATIONS 274. Statements : (1) B < D < E (2) D = F > G (3) A = B > C Conclusions : I. C < G II. F > A 275. Statements : (1) Y < T = W (2) D = Y > G (3) X > M < D Conclusions : I. X = Y is a possibility II. D < W is not possible 276. Statements : (1) D = M > Y (2) B < D < E (3) N = B > X Conclusions : I. X > Y II. M > N Directions (277–281) : In these questions, certain relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Study the Conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer: Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true Give answer (5) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true (IBPS RRBs Officer Scale-I CWE Main Exam, 13.10.2019)

277. Statements : K > U > D < R = M < B; X=A>K Conclusions : I. X > D II. R > A 278. Statements : L = A > Q > B = V > X; P>B=R Conclusions : I. P > L II. R > X

279. Statements : Y > H < E = Q < L = K; H>B=M Conclusions : I. M < Q II. B < Q 280. Statements : P < X > Q = D > H > Z; C>X=M Conclusions : I. M > H II. C > H 281. Statements : B < A < T = E > D > F; Y=X>T Conclusions : I. Y > D II. X < F Directions (282–285) : In each of the questions below are shown relationship between different elements in the statements followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Study the Conclusions based on the select appropriate answer. Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true Given answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true Give answer (5) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true (Indian Bank Specialist Officer SO Exam, 08.03.2020)

282. Statements : T > R > U > V; M > P = T; U < Q Conclusions : I. R < M II. Q < T 283. Statements : J > A = N > F; R < Y < N Conclusions : I. J > Y II. J = Y 284. Statements : P>M>D>S;DB

BPRE–176

Conclusions : I. P > R II. B < D 285. Statements : A = U < S; G > S > T Conclusions : I. A < T II. G >U Directions (286–290) : In each of the following questions, certain relationships between different elements are shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Read the Conclusions carefully and decide which of the Conclusions is/are definitely true. Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true Given answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true Give answer (5) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE Prelim Exam, 13.09.2020)

286. Statements : C > A = T; S < E = T Conclusions : I. A > E II. C > S 287. Statements : F < U < N; D > H < U = B Conclusions : I. H < N II. H = N (288–289) : Statements : GO>W>I G II. W < N 290. Statements : R>M>T Q II. Q > M

SYMBOLS & NOTATIONS Directions (291–295) : In each of the following questions, certain relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Read the Conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer. Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true. Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true. Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true Give answer (5) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE Prelim Exam, 03.10.2020)

291. Statements : A>B=C; Q=P>S>B=D>Y Conclusions : I. Q > B II. Y < C 292. Statements : W > K = B; NT=D>H>M Conclusions : I. B > D II. T < M 293. Statements : P < D < U = G > B; Y P 294. Statements : T>J L; D > Q = M; Q>R>V Conclusions : I. L < M II. G > V Directions (296–300) : In the following questions, the symbols @, +, ©, % and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below :

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’. ‘A + B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’. ‘A © B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’. ‘A % B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’. ‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’. Now in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions numbered I and II is/are definitely true ? Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true. Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true. Give answer (3) if both the Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true Give answer (4) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true Give answer (5) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true (IBPS RRBs Officer CWE Prelim Exam, 31.12.2020)

296. Statements : M + H; K % M; G # H Conclusions : I. H # K II. M © G 297. Statements : E @ F; D % E; T © F Conclusions : I. D % F II. T © E 298. Statements : T # Y; Y % L; G © L Conclusions : I. L + T II. G © T 299. Statements : G + U; L @ U; M © G Conclusions : I. M # U II. M + U 300. Statements : Z + U; P © W; W @ U Conclusions : I. Z + W II. P % U

BPRE–177

SBI PO EXAMS 1. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark in the given expression in order to make the expressions ‘A > D’ as well as ‘F ≥ C’ definitely true ? A>B≥C?D≤E=F (1) > (2) < (4) = (3) < (5) Either = or > (SBI Associate Banks PO Exam. 07.08.2011)

2. In which of the following expressions will the expressions ‘R < P’ as well as ‘S > Q’ be definitely true ? (1) P > Q = R < T < S (2) S > T > R > Q < P (3) Q > R < T > P > S (4} S > T > R > Q > P (5) None of these (SBI Associate Banks PO Exam. 07.08.2011)

Directions (3–7) : Read each statement carefully and answer the following questions : (SBI Probationary Officer Exam 28.04.2013)

3. Which of the following expressions will be true if the expression R > O = A > S < T is definitely true ? (1) O > T (2) S < R (3) T > A (4) S = O (5) T < R 4. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark (?) in the given expression in order to make the expressions ‘P > A’ as well as ‘T < L’ definitely true ? P > L ? A> N = T (2) > (1) < (3) < (4) > (5) Either < or < 5. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expressions ‘B > N’ as well as ‘D < L’ definitely true ? B___L___O___N___D (1) =, =, >, > (2) >, >, =, > (3) >, , =, =, > (5) >, =, >, >

SYMBOLS & NOTATIONS 6. Which of the following should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expression ‘A < P’ definitely false ? ___ < ___ < ___ > ___ (1) L, N, P, A (2) L, A, P, N (3) A, L, P, N (4) N, A, P, L (5) P, N, A, L 7. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order: from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expression ‘F > N’ and ‘U > D’ definitely false ? F___O___U___N____D (1) (5) >, >, =, < Directions (8–13) : In each of the following questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer. (SBI Associates PO Online Exam. 29.11.2014)

(8–9) : Statements : A < B < C = D; K > J > C 8. Conclusion I : C < K Conclusion II : B < D (1) Only Conclusion I is true (2) Only Conclusion II is true (3) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true (4) Either Conclusion I or II is true (5) Both Conclusions I and II are true 9. Conclusion I : A > J Conclusion II : K > B (1) Only Conclusion I is true (2) Only Conclusion II is true (3) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true (4) Either Conclusion I or II is true (5) Both Conclusions I and II are true

(10–11) : Statements : B>L>A>N N Conclusion II : L < K (1) Only Conclusion I is true (2) Only Conclusion II is true (3) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true (4) Either Conclusion I or II is true (5) Both Conclusions I and II are true 11. Conclusion I : L > N Conlusion II : L = N (1) Either Conclusion I or II is true (2) Only Conclusion II is true (3) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true (4) Only Conclusion I is true (5) Only Conclusions I is true (12–13) : Statements : A>B>C S; L > I; T < Z 19. Conclusions I. I < O II. Z > S 20. Conclusions I. Z > I II. S < I 21. Statements GU>P O 22. Statements A > L < P < B; P > M Conclusions I. B > M II. A > M (23–24) : Statements I > M = P > R; B < P > A 23. Conclusions I. A < I II. I = A 24. Conclusions I. A < R II. B < I Direction (25-29) : In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. (SBI Probationary Officer Online Exam, 21.06.2014)

Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true. Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true. Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true. Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true. Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.

25. Statements : B > C = D > X; E < X; Z > D Conclusions : I. B > E II. Z > B 26. Statements : E>F>G O; T > M < P Conclusions : I. T > K II. P > O (28-29) : Statements : B > O = K > L; D > K > S 28. Conclusions : I. O < D II. S < L 29. Conclusions : I. L > D II. B > S Directions (30–34) : In these questions, relationships between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. (SBI Probationary Officer Online Exam, 28.06.2014)

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows. Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows. Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II follow. 30. Statements : A>B=CX>W R II. N < P 33. Statements : T>M=BF>R Conclusions : I. M > R II. F < T 34. Statements : O=P T = U > V; W < X; T < X < Y Conclusions : I. S > X II. Y > S 38. Statements : T > U > V; W > V; P < V Conclusions : I. P < T II. W < T 39. Statements : A > B < M = Z; N > B > Q Conclusions : I. Z > N II. Q < Z 40. Statements : L > M > O; M < N; O > F Conclusions : I. F < M II. F < L Directions (41–46) : In each of the following questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer. (SBI Associates PO Online Exam, 29.11.2014)

(41–42) : Statements : A < B < C = D; K > J > C 41. Conclusion I : C < K Conclusion II : B < D (1) Only Conclusion I is true (2) Only Conclusion II is true

SYMBOLS & NOTATIONS (3) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true (4) Either Conclusion I or II is true (5) Both Conclusions I and II are true 42. Conclusion I : A > J Conclusion II : K > B (1) Only Conclusion I is true (2) Only Conclusion II is true (3) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true (4) Either Conclusion I or II is true (5) Both Conclusions I and II are true (43–44) : Statements : B>L>A>N N Conclusion II : L < K (1) Only Conclusion I is true (2) Only Conclusion II is true (3) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true (4) Either Conclusion I or II is true (5) Both Conclusions I and II are true 44. Conclusion I : L > N Conlusion II : L = N (1) Either Conclusion I or II is true (2) Only Conclusion II is true (3) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true (4) Only Conclusion I is true (5) Only Conclusions I is true (45–46) : Statements : A>B>CS 47. Conclusions : I. A > S II. B < K (1) Either Conclusion I or II is true (2) Both Conclusions I and II are true (3) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true (4) Only Conclusion II is true (5) Only Conclusion I is true 48. Conclusions : I. B < N II. S < N (1) Either Conclusion I or II is true (2) Both Conclusions I and II are true (3) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true (4) Only Conclusion II is true (5) Only Conclusion I is true (49-50) : Statement : K>L=M>N=O