Everyday Science Quiz Objective X Red EYE Book 1 Narayan Changder Zoology Virus Bacteria Respiration Plant Kingdom Nervous System Genetics Ecology Botany Physics Chemistry Earth Environment

Table of contents :
1 Zoology
2 Virus and Bacteria
3 Respiration
4 Plant Kingdom
5 Nervous System
6 Genetic And Mendel’s Law of Heredity
7 Ecology
8 Circulatory System
9 Skeletal System
10 Botany
11 Endocrine Glands
12 Cell Biology
13 Units, Abbreviations, Inventions & Discoveries
14 Physics
15 Human Physiology & Anatomy
16 Environmental Sciences
17 Energy & Energy Resources
18 Earth Science
19 Computers, Electronics & Communication
20 Chemistry
21 Biological Sciences
22 Branches & Fields of Science
23 Nature of Science
24 Physical Sciences

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Contents 1 Zoology 2 Virus and Bacteria 3 Respiration 4 Plant Kingdom 5 Nervous System 6 Genetic And Mendel’s Law of Heredity 7 Ecology 8 Circulatory System 9 Skeletal System 10 Botany 11 Endocrine Glands 12 Cell Biology 13 Units, Abbreviations, Inventions & Discoveries 14 Physics 15 Human Physiology & Anatomy 16 Environmental Sciences 17 Energy & Energy Resources 18 Earth Science 19 Computers, Electronics & Communication

20 Chemistry 21 Biological Sciences 22 Branches & Fields of Science 23 Nature of Science 24 Physical Sciences

PREFACE TO THE SECOND EDITION It contains more than 1720+ questions from the core area of everyday science. The questions are grouped chapter wise. Keep visiting our website for 99999 more MCQ https://www.gatecseit.in/.

DISCLAIMER The aim of this publication is to supply information taken from sources believed to be valid, reliable and authenticate. The author bear no responsibility for any damage arising from inadvertent omissions, negligence or inaccuracies (typographical or factual) that may have found their way into this booklet. Due care has been taken to ensure that the information provided in this book is/are correct. Author is not responsible for any errors, omissions or damage arising out of using this information.

Chapter 1 Zoology

1. Fishes respire with the help of. A. Lungs B. Book lungs C. * Gills D. None of the above

2. Which one of the following is different from others? A. * Kiwi B. Hen C. Pigeon D. Crow

3. What is metamerism? A. * Identical arrangement of organs in all the segments B. Arrangement of various segments differently C. Two kinds of morphology D. New segments are produced from the base

4. What is the fat of the whale called? A. Fat B. Kelps C. Gelatin D. * Blubber

5. Pliny evolved a system of classification called. A. * Arbitrary B. Natural C. Phylogenetic D. None of the above

6. Sepia or cuttle fish belongs to the phylum. A. Cnidaria B. Acnidaria C. * Mollusca D. Annelida

7. Fledgling is a term used to denote the young one of a. A. * Bird

B. Fox C. Dog D. Man

8. Which one of the following branches of biology deals with the study of birds? A. Paleontology B. Herpetology C. Entomology D. * Ornithology

9. The bird without cloaca is the. A. Duck B. Pigeon C. Parrot D. * None of the above

10. Between 60 and 180 million years ago, there lived on this Earth. The species of life now named dinosaurs. The dinosaurs were. A. Marsupials B. * Cold-blooded reptiles C. Huge mammals

D. Earliest amphibians

11. Parapodia are found in. A. Protozoa B. * Annelida C. Mollusca D. Echinodermata

12. Agents that cause birth defects are. A. Pathogens B. Mutagens C. * Teratogens D. Abortogens

13. Spot the animal which belongs to another phylum. A. Insects B. Spider C. * Sepia D. Prawn

14. Dermal scales are found in. A. * Fish

B. Reptile C. Mammal D. Star fish

15. Division amniota includes. A. Reptiles B. Birds C. Mammals D. * All of the above

16. In sponges food is caught by the cells called. A. Pinacocytes B. Archaeocytes C. * Choanocytes D. Thesocytes

17. One of the following is a parasite Which one is it? A. * Plasmodium B. Paramoecium C. Earthworm D. Fly

18. The bag like, fluid filled structure surrounding the human embryo is called. A. Allantois B. * Amnion C. Chorion D. Yolk sac

19. Most fishes do not sink in water because of the presence of. I. Swim bladders II. Air bladders III. Air sacs IV. Air in spongy bones A. * I and II are correct B. II and III are correct C. III and IV are correct D. I, II, III, and IV are correct

20. Alternation of generation is found in. A. Amoeba B. * Plasmodium C. Paramoecium D. Vorticella

21. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List (Characteristic) I. Wingless insect II. Flightless bird III. Limbless reptile IV. Limbless animal A. Kiwi B. * Silver fish C. Turtle D. Snake E. Fish codes

22. Which of the following animals have a unique method of bringing oxygen directly to the cells. A. Spiders B. Scorpions C. * Insects D. Flatworms

23. The classification of organisms by Linnaeus is termed as. A. Arbitrary B. * Artificial C. Natural

D. Phylogenetic

24. Other than spreading malaria, anopheles mosquitoes are also vector of. A. Dengue fever B. * Filariasis C. Encephalitis D. Yellow fever

25. Kangaroo is one of the animals popularly called as. A. Egg laying B. * Pouched C. Placental D. Volant

26. The antennules are present in. A. Cockroach B. * Crab C. Scorpion D. Spider

27. Which one of the following combinations is not correct? A. Cephalochordat-Amphioxus

B. Uro Chordata-Ascidina C. Hemichordata-Balanoglossus D. * Agnatha-Branchiostoma

28. A fish that helps in controlling population of mosquito is. A. Shark B. Cod C. Mackerel D. * Gambusia

29. Which one of the following reptiles is toothless? A. Crocodile B. Chameleon C. Alligator D. * Turtle

30. Egg laying animals are referred to as. A. Viviparous B. * Oviparous C. Ovoviviparous D. Vegetative

31. Which one of the following belongs to a different phylum? A. Crab B. Millipede C. Insect D. * Earthworm

32. The vertebrate skulls bearing on teeth belongs to. 1. 2. 3. 4.

Bird Salamander Turtle Lamprey

A. 1 and 2 B. * 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 3 and 4

33. The gap between incisors and canine is called. A. * Diastema B. Premolar C. Interphase D. Stoma

34. Scorpion can take. A. Solid food B. * Liquid food C. No food at all D. Dead flesh

35. Two nuclei are found inside the cell in. A. Amoeba B. * Paramoecium C. Plasmodium D. Monocystis

36. Open circulatory system is found in. A. Rat B. Earthworm C. Frog D. * Cockroach

37. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. (A) Diastema (1) Dog (B) Camassial teeth (2) Bat

(C) Patagium (D) Blubber

(3) Dolphin (4) Squirrel

A. A − 1,B − 3,C − 4,D − 2 B. A − 3,B − 1,C − 2,D − 4 C. A − 4,B − 3,C − 1,D − 2 D. * A − 4,B − 1,C − 2,D − 3

38. Enamel covers the. A. * Crown of the tooth B. Dentine on all the sides C. Cementum D. Cementum and partly dentine

39. Which one is out of place in the aquatic protozoans mentioned below? A. Paramoecium B. Amoeba C. * Plasmodium D. Euglena

40. Adaptation for flying is termed. A. Aquatic

B. Volant C. Fossorial D. * Cursorial

41. Heterodont dentition means having. A. Same type of teeth B. Different types of teeth C. * Two sets of teeth D. Only one set of teeth

42. Which one of the following has a true coelom? A. Amoeba B. Ascaris C. Jelly fish D. * Earthworm

43. Which phylum of the following is an acoelomate group? A. Protozoa B. Annelida C. Mollusca D. * Platyhelminthes

44. Centipedes and millipedes belong to which class of the phylum arthropoda? A. Insects B. Crustacea C. * Scorpion D. Spider

45. The symmetry of one of the following is different from that of others. Which one is it? A. Insect B. Frog C. Earthworm D. * Star fish

46. The teeth are placed in sockets of jaw bone in mammals. So the dentition is said to be. A. * Thecodont B. Acrodont C. Pleurodont D. Diphyodont

47. The lower jaw of the frog has.

A. Teeth in sockets B. * No teeth C. Uniform set of teeth D. Different types of teeth

48. Which phylum has animals that show a remarkable phenomenon of regeneration? A. Echinodermata B. * Porifera C. Arthropoda D. Chordata

49. Which one of the following coelenterate is a fresh water organism? A. Obeli B. * Hydra C. Physalia D. Aurelia

50. Which one among the following is a bird? A. * Penguin B. Seal C. Otter

D. Walrus

51. The locomotory organ of a snail is. A. Cilia B. Flagella C. Pseudopodia D. * Foot

52. Which of the following moves the fastest? A. Bath sponge B. Sea anemone C. * Amoeba D. All of above

53. One of the fishes below is viviparous. Which one is it? A. Cod B. * Shark C. Mackerel D. Flying fish

54. Migratory birds go back to their earlier habitat in spring because of. A. Scarcity of food in the regions to which they have migrated

B. Hunting season commencing C. * Breeding instnet with change in climate, and they breed only in their original habitat D. Weather becoming too hot in the regions

55. Binomial Nomenclature means giving. A. Two names B. Real names C. Artificial names D. * One, a generic and another specific name

56. The edible oyster in an animal belonging to the phylum. A. Protozoa B. Nemathelminthes C. * Mollusca D. Echinodermata

57. The only reptiles that have specially adapted jaws to be able to swallow eggs or prey much larger in diameter than themselves are. A. Dragon lizards B. Monitor lizards C. Tortoises

D. * Snakes

58. Epidermal scales are found in. A. Fish B. * Reptile C. Amphibian D. Mammal

59. Having a set of permanent teeth after the fall of infant teeth is called. A. Same type of teeth B. Homodont C. * Diphyodont D. Thecodont

60. Of the following sanguivorous (Blood sucking)is. A. Earthworm B. * Leech C. Nereis D. Ascaris

61. Which of the following is diplomatic animal? A. * Hydra

B. Ascaris C. Rat D. Earthworm

62. A rare and dying species, the Great Indian Bustard is a. A. Carnivorous animal B. Herbivorous animal C. * Bird D. Reptile

63. Which of the following statement/statements is/are true? A. In amphibians and reptiles, bone marrow forms all kinds of blood corpuscles B. In birds the bone marrow forms all kinds of blood corpuscles C. In mammals, bone marrow forms RBCs, blood platelets and granular leucocytes only D. * All of the above

64. Bones are full of air spaces in. A. Amphibia B. Reptiles C. * Aves

D. Pisces

65. Which one of the following is acoelomate? A. Earthworm B. Leech C. * Liver-fluke D. Threadworm

66. The group radiata includes. A. Annelida and Arthropoda B. Protozoa and Porifera C. * Coelenterata and Echinodermata D. Porifera and Annelida

67. The coelenterates show the symmetry called. A. Bilateral B. * Radial C. Biradial D. None of the above

68. Malarial parasite belongs to the phylum. A. Mollusca

B. Annelida C. * Protozoa D. Coelenterata

69. The foetus gets nourishment and oxygen through. A. Implantation B. Uterus C. * Placenta D. Ovary

70. Jet propulsion is illustrated by the animal. A. Flying fish B. * Sepia or cuttlle fish C. Pigeon D. Whale

71. Bilateral symmetry is exhibited by. A. Star fish B. Jelly fish C. Hydra D. * Cockroach

72. What substance does an ant inject into the body when it bites a person? A. Acetic acid B. Lactic acid C. * Formic acid D. Hydrochloric acid

73. Tape worms are intestinal parasites of. A. Amoeba B. Plants C. * Man D. All of the above

74. Precious corals are formed by animals belonging to the phylum. A. * Coelenterata B. Mollusca C. Echinodermata D. Annelida

75. Four pairs of legs are found in. 1. Scorpion 2. Shrimp 3. Spider

4. Bristle tail A. 1, 2 and 3 are correct B. * 1 and 3 are correct C. 3 and 4 are correct D. 2 and 4 are correct

76. Prognathous chin is characteristic of. A. Man B. * Apes C. Tiger D. Cat

77. What is paedogenesis? A. * Larval multiplication B. Asexual reproduction C. Ovum production D. Sperm production

78. The animal which has developed organs for internal fertilization is. A. Fish B. Frog

C. Bird D. * Reptile

79. Palate refers to. A. Floor of the mouth B. * Roof of the mouth C. Sides of the mouth D. Part of the mouth

80. When fishes are kept in an aquarium containing water but no aquatic plants they frequently come to the surface and float in a semivertical position for want of. A. Air B. Oxygen C. * Dissolved oxygen D. Fresh supply of oxygen

81. In mammals, fertilization occurs in. A. Ovary B. * Fallopian tube C. Uterus D. Vagina

82. Corals belong to the phylum. A. Protozoa B. * Coelenterata C. Porifera D. Platyhelminthes

83. Which one of the following has warm blooded animals? A. Pisces B. Reptiles C. Amphibians D. * Mammals

84. Temporary projections of amoeba by which it moves is called. A. Cilia B. Flagella C. * Pseudopodia D. Tentacles

85. The body cavity is a haemocoel in. A. Sponges B. Star fishes

C. * Insects D. Worms

86. What are cold-blooded animals? A. Animals whose body is cold Animals whose body B. Animals who are ferocious C. * temperature varies according to the temperature of atmosphere D. Animals whose body temperature remains constant

87. Which of the following aquatic organisms are totally marine? A. Sponge B. Hydras C. Gastropods D. * Echinoderms

88. Organisms that are similar and can interbreed are said to belong to one. A. Class B. Phylum C. Genus D. * Species

89. The beaks of birds are modified.

A. Skull B. * Jaws C. Teeth D. Nose

90. The floor of the buccal cavity of the frog is supported by. A. Glottis B. Maxilla C. Mandible D. * Hyoid apparatus

91. The mammal that lays eggs is. A. Kangaroo B. * Duck-billed platypus C. Opossum D. Otter

92. Ants are social insects because. A. * They live in colonies B. They live in forests C. They have a language

D. They share food

93. Exoskeleton is found in the phylum. A. * Arthropoda B. Annelida C. Porifera D. Platyhelminthes

94. Pearl is created by animal belonging to phylum. A. Echinodermata B. Annelide C. Arthropoda D. * Mollusca

95. Only one of the following is a real fish. Which one is it? A. * Flying fish B. Star fish C. Cray fish D. Shell fish

96. Which one of the following is a marsupial? A. Camel

B. * Kangaroo C. Rabbit D. Platypus

97. A biologist kept Euglenas in Various experimental conditions. In one of these, the Euglenas lost their stigmas. This situation was. A. pH 7. 5 ∘

B. Constant temperature of 30 c C. Magnesium -free pond water D. * Total darkness

98. Foal is the young one of the. A. Cat B. Lion C. Tiger D. * Horse

99. The phenomenon of natural death is rare in. A. * Protozoa B. Annelida C. Mollusce D. Arthropoda

100. The flat worms belong to the phylum. A. Protozoa B. Porifera C. Coelenterata D. * Platyhelminthes

101. The Binomial Nomenclature was introduced by. A. Robert Hooke B. Robert Brown C. * Linnaeus D. Mendel

102. Which one of the following is a mammal? A. Calotes B. Cobra C. Ostrich D. * Mouse

103. The animal that feed young ones with milk are. A. Fishes

B. Amphibians C. * Mammals D. Birds

104. Bath sponge is obtained from animals of the phylum. A. * Porifera B. Protozoa C. Mollusca D. Echinodermata

105. Setae serve as organs of locomotion in. A. Star fish B. Snail C. * Earthworm D. Sponge

106. The phylum arthropoda is so named because of the presence of. A. Exoskeleton B. Metameric segments C. Many appendages D. * Jointed appendages

107. The largest of the living birds is. A. Cassowary B. Albatross C. Elephants bird D. * Ostrich

108. Which of the following period is called the age of fishes? A. Permian B. * Devonian C. Silurian D. Carboniferous

109. In termites, the cellulose of wood is digested by. A. * Protozoa B. Bacteria C. Protozoans and bacteria D. Cellulose breaking enzyme

110. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I

List II

(A) Gill book (B) Gill basket (C)Lung book (D)Lung-fish

(1) king-crab (2) Diponi (3) Fish and cyclostomes (4) Spider and scorpion (5) Crab

A. A − 1,B − 5,C − 4,D − 2 B. A − 1,B − 3,C − 5,D − 2 C. A − 5,B − 3,C − 4,D − 2 D. * A − 1,B − 3,C − 4,D − 2

111. The number of days the human embryo takes for full development is. A. 180 days B. 220 days C. * 284 days D. 400 days

112. A fish that is devoid of any scales is. A. Carp B. Dog fish C. * Cat fish D. Mullet

113. The terrestrial species of echinodermata are. A. Brittle-star B. Star fish C. Sea-lily D. * None of the above

114. Find the odd one out. A. Guinea worm B. Hookworm C. * Ringworm D. Tapeworm

115. Baldness is seen only in the males because. A. It is male disorder B. It is linked with male Y chromosome C. * It is influenced by male hormone D. Females cover it up with wigs

116. The nutritive substances reach the human embryo by. A. Yolk B. Albumen

C. * Placenta D. Allantois

117. which is the correct order of hierarchy? A. * Phylum, class order, family B. Class, phylum, order, family C. Phylum, order, family, class D. Family, order, phylum, calls

118. Match the following. List (I) (A)Cercaria (B) Sporozoites (C) Bladderworm (D) Threadworm

A. A − 4,B − 5,C − 1,D − 2 B. * A − 3,B − 5,C − 4,D − 1 C. A − 3,B − 5,C − 2,D − 4 D. A − 1,B − 5,C − 4,D − 2

119. Whale reproduces by.

List(II) (1) Nematode (2) Whipworm (3) Trematode (4) Tapeworm (5) Plasmodium

A. Ovipary B. * Vivipary C. Ovovivipary D. Vegetative

120. One of the fishes is out of place. Which one is it? A. Shark B. Mackerel C. Cod D. * Tilapia

121. Chitinous body wall is found in the phylum. A. Protozoa B. Coelenterata C. Chordata D. * Arthropoda

122. The number of legs are more in. A. Cockroach B. Spider C. Centipede

D. * Millipede

123. The bird that lays the largest egg is. A. Albatross B. * Ostrich C. Cuckoo D. Eagle

124. Spicules are found in the animals of the phylum. A. Protozoa B. * Porifera C. Coelenterata D. Annelida

125. The compound eye is found in. A. Echinoderms B. * Insects C. Scorpions D. Spiders

126. What do you mean by the term fauna? A. Plant kingdom

B. * Animal kingdom C. Both plant and animal kingdoms D. A part of plant kingdom

127. One of the sequences give below represents a complete metamorphosis, Which one is it? A. * Egg-adult B. Egg-nymph-adult C. Egg-larva-pupa-adult D. Young one adult

128. The tapeworm has. A. Simple eyes B. Compound eyes C. * No eyes D. Numerous eyes

129. Which of the following shows a taxonomically closely related group? A. Earthworm, ringworm B. Silver fish, cuttlle fish, star C. * Housefly, dragonfly, butterfly D. Sea horse, sea anemone, sea urchin

130. The respiratory tubes in an insect are called. A. * Trachea B. Bronchi C. Siphon D. Tentacle

131. One of the following is an echinoderm, which one is it? A. Jelly fish B. Flying fish C. * Star fish D. Shell fish

Chapter 2 Virus and Bacteria

1. Jaundice is caused by a/an. A. * Virus B. Bacteria C. Fungus D. Animal

2. Smallpox is caused by. A. Bacteria B. Fungus C. * Virus D. Algae

3. Match the following. List (I) (I)Tuberculosis (II)Typhoid (III)Cholera

List(II) (A) Mycobacterium (B) Yersinia pestis (C) Streptococcus

(IV)Plague

(D) Salmonella type (E) Vibrio cholerae

A. I − B,II − D,III − E,IV − C B. * I − A,II − D,III − D,III − E,IV − B C. I − A,II − C,III − E,IV − D D. I − C,II − B,III − E,IV − D

4. The necrotic ring spot disease of stone fruits (cherry, peach, plum, etc. )is caused by. A. A bacterium B. Fungal infection C. Molybdenum deficiency D. * Virus

5. The disease that is caused by viral infection is. A. Typhoid B. Cholera C. * Common cold D. Tetanus

6. The dreaded human disease, Syphilis, is caused by. A. * A bacterium

B. Fungus C. An animal parasite D. Virus

7. What is the role played by non-pathogenic bacteria? A. They cause diseases B. * They do not cause diseases C. They are of no use D. They attack only plants

8. Measles is caused by. A. Bacteria B. Fungus C. * Virus D. Protozoa

9. Which of the following plant diseases is caused by a virus? A. Aster yellows B. Barley yellow dwarf C. Curly top of sugar beets D. * All of the above

10. Pneumonia is a bacterial disease caused by the type of bacteria called. A. Bacilli B. * Cocci C. Sprilli D. Vibriona

11. The virus that infects bacterium is. A. Arbovirus B. Viraemia C. * Bacteriophage D. Baclofen

12. An anaerobic species of the bacterium Clostridium causes a very serious disease in human population. Which of the following diseases is it? A. * Botulism B. Pneumonia C. Tuberculosis D. Typhoid

13. Which of the following diseases is not caused by virus? A. Ranikhet (New Castle )

B. Blue tongue C. * Babesiosis D. Marek, disease

14. Which is regarded as a link between the living and the non-living? A. Amoeba B. * Virus C. Bacteria D. RNA

15. All of the following diseases are caused by virus except. A. Jaundice B. Influenza C. * Typhoid D. Mumps

16. Which of the following plant diseases is caused by bacteria? A. Citrus dieback B. karnal bunt of wheat C. Potato witches, broom D. * Tundu disease of wheat

17. Much of our present-day knowledge in Molecular Genetics has been obtained by using the bacterium E. coli If we were to collect samples of this bacterium where should we look for it? A. * Human intestine B. Refuse dumps C. Soil D. Stagnant water

18. Which of the following is a bacterial disease? A. Early blight of potatoes B. Loose smut of wheat C. Red rot of sugarcane D. * Red stripe of sugarcane

19. Bacterial action changes dead leaves into. A. Algae B. Fungi C. * Humus D. None of the above

20. The nucleus is absent in. A. Algae

B. Fungi C. * Escherichia coli D. Angiosperm

21. Whooping cough is caused by. A. Salmonella B. * Bacillus pertussis C. Variola D. Vibriona

22. The polio virus enters the body through. A. Mosquito bites B. Tick bites C. * Contaminated food and water D. Saliva and secretion from the nose

23. A bacterium divides every minute and takes an hour to fill a cup, How much time will it take to fill half the cup? A. * 15 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 59 minutes D. 60 minutes

24. Which of the following plant diseases is not a bacterial disease? A. Brown rot of potatoes B. Citrus canker C. * Heart rot of beets D. Red stripe of sugarcane

25. The two diseases that most often kill AIDS victims are. 1. 2. 3. 4.

Kaposi’s sarcoma Lymphangioma Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia Systemic Lupus erythromatosus

A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. * 1 and 3 D. 3 and 4

26. The leaf blight of paddy is caused by. A. * Bacteria B. Virus C. Nematodes D. Fungus

27. Which one of the following is a viral disease transmitted to man by the bite rabid animals particularly dogs? A. Cholera B. Plague C. Malaria D. * Rabies

28. Consider the following statements and select your answer from the choice s that follow. I. The patient’s nerves are damaged by polio II. Tetanus is caused by virus A. Both are correct B. II alone is correct C. * I alone is correct D. Both are wrong

29. To which group of organisms do viruses belong? A. Actinomycetes B. Cyanobacteria C. Protozoa D. * None of these

30. AIDS is caused by the organisms which are. A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. * Viruses (HTLV III) D. Protozoa

31. The scientists in list I were awarded Nobel Prize for their outstanding discoveries given in list II. Match the discoveries with the scientists and select the correct answer given below the list. List (I) (A) H. Krebs (B) M. Mitchell (C) W. M Stanley (D) M. Calvin

List (II) (1) Chemiosmotic hypotheses (2) Crystallization hypotheses (3) Citric Acid Cycle (4) C3 Cycle

A. A − 2,B − 3,C − 1,D − 4 B. * A − 3,B − 1,C − 2,D − 4 C. A − 4,B − 3,C − 2,D − 1 D. A − 1,B − 3,C − 4,D − 2

32. What is the bacterial disease in lime fruits? A. Phytophthora B. White rust

C. * Citrus canker D. Smut disease

33. What is responsible for diphtheria and influenza? A. Virus and bacteria respectively B. * Bacteria and virus respectively C. Bacteria D. Water pollution

Chapter 3 Respiration

1. The CO2 from the tissues is brought back to the lungs by. A. Plasma B. Erythrocytes C. * Both plasma and erythrocytes D. Thrombocytes

2. In man, the lungs are absorbed by the blood pigment. A. Haemoerythrin B. Haemocyanin C. * Haemoglobin D. Chlorocruorin

3. The outer surface of the lung is invested by. A. * Parietal pleura B. Visceral pleura C. Sero-mucous pleura D. Pulmonary pleura

4. The total capacity of lungs for accommodation is called. A. Tidal B. Complementary C. Supplementary D. * Vital capacity

5. The muscles that are responsible for the breathing are. A. Voluntary B. * Involuntary C. Cardiac D. Skeletal

6. O2 is required in. A. * Aerobic respiration B. Anaerobic respiration C. Not required in respiration D. None of these

7. In the snails, the aquatic respiration is effected by. A. Gills

B. Lungs C. * Ctenidium D. Air-tubes

8. The chest and abdominal cavities are separated by. A. Bone B. Membrane C. Cartilage D. * Diaphragm

9. In Earthworms and leeches, gaseous exchange takes place through. A. Nostrils B. * Skin C. Gills D. Lungs

10. The membranes that surround the lungs are called. A. Pericardium B. * Pieura C. Mucous membrane D. Mediastinum

11. When there is a decrease in the concentration of oxygen in the blood, the rate of breathing. A. Decreases B. * Increases C. Does not change D. Increases or decreases depending on the density of blood

12. The diaphragm assists respiration in. A. Fishes B. Frog C. * Man D. Birds

13. The respiratory center of the cell is. A. Mitochondria B. Chromosomes C. * Plastids D. Golgi complex

14. Exposure to carbon monoxide (from coal gas) is extremely dangerous and can kill a patient because. A. The compound carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb) it forms with haemoglobin

can gradually clot the blood resulting in circulatory failure B. COHb reduces the ability of blood to transport oxygen by rupturing a vast majority of erythrocytes C. * COHb is stable compound and thus deprives blood of its ability to transport oxygen D. COHb greatly modifies the structure of haemoglobin thus making it lose its affinity for oxygen

15. The inflammation of the respiratory path causes. A. Thrombosis B. * Bronchitis C. Cataract D. Sneezing

16. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (A) Food poisoning (B) Stuff of life (C) Oxyhaemoglobin (D) Glycolysis A. A − 4,B − 2,C − 5,D − 1 B. * A − 2,B − 3,C − 4,D − 1

List II (1) Anaerobic breakdown of glucose (2) Botulinism (3) Proteins (4) Scarlet-red compound

C. A − 4,B − 2,C − 3,D − 2 D. A − 3,B − 4,C − 2,D − 1

17. Breathing through the nose is better because. A. Breathing through the mouth is difficult B. * Nasal passage is longer and the air gets warmed up till it reaches the lungs C. Nose has been made for the purpose of breathing D. None of these

18. Diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract to help. A. * Inspiration B. Expiration C. Digestion D. Absorption

19. The voulum of air moving in and out of lungs during normal breathing is called. A. Residual B. * Tidal air C. Vital copacity D. Supplemental air

20. The final product of anaerobic respiration is. A. Methanol B. Pyruvate C. * Ethanol D. Starch

21. Aquatic mammals breathe through their. A. Gills B. Skin C. * Nostrils D. Tail

22. The rate of breathing is affected by the content of which gas? A. O2 B. * CO2 C. N2 D. A mixture of all these

23. The cellular energy is made available in the form of. A. Calories B. * ATP

C. Meat D. Light

24. What are the respiratory organs for scorpions? A. Gills B. Trachea C. Lungs D. * Book lungs

25. The function of larynx which is placed above the trachea is to. A. * Produce sound B. Absorb O2 C. Sent out CO2 D. Prevent dust

Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom

1. The pollen grains in plants are produced in plants are produced in the. A. * Anther B. Carpel C. Ovary D. Ovule

2. A spore is. A. A commonly used medicine for cultivating bacteria B. A common seaweed found in tropical regions C. * A reproductive unit of plants, protozoa and bacterias D. A pore in the human skin

3. The materialistic tissues are composed of. A. * Mature cells B. Immature cells C. Permanent cells D. None of these

4. The horizontal underground stem of the Curcuma plant is called. A. * Rhizome B. Corm C. Bulb D. Runner

5. Radish is a. A. Bulb B. Corm C. * Modified root D. Tuber

6. The germination of bean seed is said to be epigeal germination because. A. The leaves are born outside the soil B. The roots do not come out of the soil C. * With cotyledons are brought out of the soil D. The roots come out of the soil

7. Double fertilization is a special feature of. A. * Angiosperms

B. Ferns C. Gymnosperms D. Mosses

8. A true fruit develops from the. A. Anther B. Carpel C. * Ovary D. Ovule

9. A grain of wheat is. A. Embryo B. Seed C. Fruit D. * Seed and fruit

10. Hypogeal germination is found in. A. Castor B. Onion C. Bean D. * Bengal gram

11. Dichotomous branching refers to the branching of a plant into. A. Four B. Three C. * Two D. Many branches

12. Pollination means. A. Development of pollen grains in flowering plants B. Germination of pollen grains on the stigma C. Transfer of pollen grains from the stigma of one flower to another flower by wind water insects or some other agency D. * Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same/different plant

13. Plantain is. A. A tree B. An annual herb C. * A perennial herb D. A shrub

14. Which one of the following is not a fruit? A. Coconut

B. * Chilgoza C. Mango D. Wheat grain

15. The red rust of tea is caused by. A. A bacterium B. Fungus C. * Green alga D. Virus

16. Litmus is obtained from. A. An alga B. A bacterium C. A fungus D. * Lichen

17. Some plants flower only once in their lifetime. They are called. A. * Monocarpic B. Monogamous C. Monogenic D. Monomorphic

18. Smallest flowering plant is. A. Raffesia B. Polyalthia C. * Wolffia D. Chlaymydomonas

19. What are the sites of bacteria in leguminous plants for fixing nitrogen? A. Leaves B. * Root nodules C. Root hairs D. Stem

20. Tomato brinjal, potato, tobacco, petunia and night jasmine belong to. A. * The same plant family B. Two plant families C. Three plant families D. Five plant families

21. It has been demonstrated that even mature plant cells, when freed from others, are able to develop into new plants. This phenomenon is called. A. Apogamy

B. Parthenogenesis C. Somatogenesis D. * Totipotency

22. The male part of a flower is called. A. * Androecium B. Calyx C. Thalamus D. Gynoecium

23. Most higher plants are incapable of making use of free atmospheric nitrogen and therefore have to be supplied with costly nitrogenous groups of plants is capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen thus enriching the soil. Identify this group. A. Grasses B. * Legumes C. Sedges D. Orchids

24. Which one of the following bears the smallest seeds? A. Grasses B. Legumes C. * Orchids

D. Sedges

25. All higher plants and animals are diploids i. e they have two sets of chromosomes in their body cells. The such plants can develop even from mature pollen grains (haploids) was first demonstrated by. A. * Guha and Maheshwari B. Johri and Maheshwari C. Skoog and Miller D. F. C Steward

26. Fruits infested with larvae of pests, imported from abroad are more dangerous in Pakistan than in the country of their origin since. A. They will cause afforestation B. They cannot be eliminated in Pakistan C. * Natural predators with prey on them are not available in Pakistan D. They are likely to transmit exotic diseases to the crops in Pakistan

27. The smallest living cell is that of a. A. Bacterium B. Bread mold C. * Mycoplasm D. Virus

28. Which of the following spices is obtained from flower buds? A. * Clove B. Cumin C. Nutmeg D. Coriander

29. Nori has been a favorite Japanese food centuries This is prepared/obtained from. A. A green alga B. * A red alga C. Sea weeds D. Rice starch

30. Seeds can best be preserved in. A. * Cool and dry conditions B. Cool and wet conditions C. Hot and dry conditions D. Hot and wet conditions

31. To which group of plants does the Banyan tree belong? A. * Angiosperms B. Gymnosperms

C. Pteridophytes D. Phaeophyta

32. The plants bearing both male and female flowers is called. A. Bisexual B. Dioecious C. * Monoecious D. Monoecious

33. Earliest classification of plants is attempted by. A. Carl Linnaeus B. * Oswald Tippo C. Theophrastus D. Jussein

34. A tissue primarily concerned with the formation of new cells is called. A. Collenchyma B. * Parenchyma C. Floral organ D. Meristem

35. The fusion of a male gamete with an egg is called.

A. Conjugation B. Copulation C. Syngamy D. * Triple fusion

36. Agar, commonly used as a synthetic growth medium and in bakery is obtained from. A. * Algae B. Mosses C. Cycas D. Pine

37. The food in albuminous seeds is stored in. A. Cotyledons B. * Endosperm C. Testa D. Plumule

38. Some plants develop fruits without fertilization This phenomenon is called. A. Apocarpy B. * Apogamy

C. Parthenocarpy D. Syncarpy

39. In some arctic and alpine regions, the snow appears red, This, red snow, phenomenon is caused by. A. Fluorescence B. Growth of a red -flowered plant C. * Growth of an alga D. Reflection of red light

40. There are twenty chromosomes in a somatic cell of maize. Compare the chromosome numbers given below with the organ of the maize plant. 1. 2. 3. 4.

Endosperm 30 Pollen grains 10 Root 30 Leaf 20

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? A. 1, 2 and 3 B. * 1, 2 and 4 C. 2 and 4 D. Only 4

41. Vivipary is defined as germination. A. During storage

B. * Within the fruit C. With cotyledons coming out of the soil D. With cotyledons remaining inside the soil

42. if in a cell there are multiples of chromosomes than the normal specified number it is termed. A. Aneuploid B. * Polyploid C. Genome D. Diploid

43. Some flowering plants produce allergenic pollen grains. Which of the following is/are such plants? A. Congress grass B. Fat hen (bathu) C. Spiny Amaranth D. * All of the above

44. That potato is a modified stem is explained by the presence of. A. Branches B. Leaves C. Buds

D. * Scale leaves and axillary buds

45. To which of the following families do all pulses belong? A. Cruciferae B. * Leguminosae C. Malvaceae D. Ranunculaceae

46. Flame of the forest refers to. A. A lady with flame in her hands found in the forest B. * A forest full of trees which burst with red flowers during autumn C. A fire always found in some jungles D. The title of a book

47. Leather shoes are often covered by patches of a greenish fluffy mass during the rainy season, if unattended for sometime. This is due to the growth of a. A. Bacterium B. Blue green alga C. Green alga D. * Fungus

48. The unicellular algae which is used in space programme to regulate the

supply of oxygen is. A. Spirogyra B. * Chlorella C. Codium D. Chlamydomonas

49. A herbarium is. A. A collection of herbs dried form B. A garden with a varied collection of herbs C. A garden with a collection of medicinal herbs D. * A center for the preservation of dried specimen of plants

50. A mature living cell without a nucleus is. A. Sieve cell B. * Sieve tube C. Companion cell D. Vessel

51. The part that germinates and grows first in a seed is. A. Plumule B. * Radicle

C. Cotyledons D. Epicotyle

52. The largest sperms among plants are found in. A. Ferns B. * Gymnosperms C. Legumes D. Mosses

53. When xylem has phloem on its two sides the vascular bundle is known as. A. Collateral B. * Bicollateral C. Endarch D. Exarch

54. The stem of water plants usually have. A. * A water developed aerenchyma B. A well developed stomatal system C. A well developed vascular system D. A well developed root system

55. Tunica corpus theory explains the organization of.

A. Root apex B. * Shoot apex C. Floral organs D. None of these

56. Sclerenchymatous sheath is present in vascular bundles of. A. Dicot stem B. * Moncot stem C. Dicot root D. Monocot root

57. Grafting is not possible in monocots because. A. * Monocots lack cambium B. Monocots have scattered vascular bundles C. Monocots have parallel venation D. Monocots are herbaceous

58. The calyptrogen of root apex forms. A. Root hair B. Root nodule C. * Root cap

D. Rhizoids

59. Sulphur shower is. A. Discharge of large quantities of Crous (yellow kesar) pollen grains into the air B. * Discharge of large quantities of Pinus pollen grains into the air forming yellowish clouds. C. Release of a large amount of sulphur particles into the air from factories processing sulphur D. Release of a large amount of sulphur particles into the air near sulphur mines

60. Angiosperms are less adapted to. A. Desert condition B. Fresh water C. * Marine water D. Swamps

61. Which of the following spices is obtained from roots? A. Cinnamon B. Clove C. Turmeric D. * None of the above

62. Red tides have often visited West Coast of Florida resulting in the death of hundreds of million of fish Such tides are caused by. A. Red algae B. * Red dinoflagellates C. Red-coloured industrial effluents D. Red-coloured pigment of blue-green algae

63. When male and female flowers are borne on different plants, the plant is said to be. A. Bisexual B. * Dioecious C. Dichlamydeous D. Monoceious

64. From which part of the plant is turmeric, a commonly used colourant and antiseptic obtained? A. Root B. * Stem C. Fruit D. Flower

65. Polyploid wheat does not normally show an increase in.

A. Size B. Vigour C. * Length of life cycle D. Resistance to disease

66. A plant or plant organ/cell having half the number of chromosomes than a normal body cell is called. A. Aneuploid B. * Haploid C. Haplont D. Monosomic

67. Wheat, barley lemon, orange rye and pearl millet belong to. A. * Two plant families B. Three plant families C. Four plant families D. The same plant family

68. The branch of botany that deals with fungi is known as. A. * Mycology B. Phycology C. Embryology

D. Microbiology

69. Dead wood is obtained from. A. Pteridophytes B. * Gymnosperms C. Angiosperms D. Bryophytes

70. Give the chronological sequence in which the following plant groups originated? I. Angiosperms II. Gymnosperms III. Fungi IV. Fern A. I, II, III, IV B. I, II, IV, III C. * III, IV, II, I D. III, II, I, IV

71. Coleo is the covering of. A. Dicot plumule B. Monocot plumule C. Dicot radicle

D. * Monocot radicle

72. Consider the following statements about pollination. 1. The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to ovules in the same flower or different flowers is called pollination 2. The pollination by wind is called anemophil 3. Pollination by birds is known as omithophily 4. Pollination is a prerequisite for seed and fruit development in all flowering plats 5. Seeds may develop in some water ferns without pollination Which of the above statements are correct? A. 1, 2 and 5 B. 2, 3 and 5 C. * 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 5

73. Taxonomy is a science dealing with the. A. Classification of all living organisms B. Classification of plants C. * Identification nomenclature and classification of all living organisms D. Structure and function of living organisms

74. In dicot root. A. Vascular bundles are scattered and are with cambium

B. Xylem is always enlarged C. * Xylem and phloem are radially arranged D. Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring and have cambium

75. A liverwort is. A. An animal parasite infecting the liver B. * A land plant without differentiating into root, stem, and leaves C. A kind of bacterium infecting the liver D. A plant with its flowers shaped like the human liver

76. Lichen is a symbiotic association between an alga and which one of the following? A. A bacterium B. * Fungus C. Liverwort D. Fern

77. The association between leguminous plants and bacteria is. A. Parasitic B. Saprophytic C. * Symbiotic D. None of the above

78. Which one of the following tissues in plants is responsible for forming various other types of calls? A. Fundamental B. Protective tissues C. * Meristematic tissues D. Conducting tissues

79. The first leaves of the castor seedling are different from other leaves because. A. * They are only the cotyledons B. They do not perform the activities of leaves C. They are not homologous with leaves D. They are differently shaped

80. Sugarcane, sugarbeet sweetpea, chickpea pigeonpea and french bean belong to. A. Two plant families B. * Three plant families C. Four plant families D. The same plant family

81. Which one of the following is a true fruit?

A. Apple B. Cashewnut C. Pineapple D. * Coconut

82. Seeds require for their germination. A. Air B. Water C. Viability D. * All of the above

83. The dry fruit Chilgoza is obtained from. A. Cycas B. Deodar C. Cyprus D. * Pine

84. Epigeal germination is met within the case of. A. Date B. Bengal gram C. Maize

D. * Bean

85. Fat is present in large quantities in the tissue of which of the following. A. Embryo of pea B. * Endosperm of coconut C. Fibres of cotton D. Tuber of potato

86. Insect pollination is known as. A. Hydrophily B. Ornithophily C. Anemophily D. * Entomphily

87. Which of the following cells helps in storing water and food material? A. Nematoblasts B. * Flame cell C. Parenchymatous cell D. None of these

88. Plants are killed in winter by frost. A. * Because of dessication and mechanical damage to the tissues

B. Because no photosynthesis takes place at such low temperature C. Because respiration ceases at such low temperature D. Because there is no transpiration

89. The corn is an underground stem that grows. A. Horizontally B. * Vertically C. Above the soil D. Obliquely

90. The plant that is dispersed with the help of water is. A. Mango B. * Coconut C. Teak D. Paddy

91. Which one of the following plants has the largest flower? A. Chrysanthemum B. * Rafflesia C. Sunflower D. Zinnia

Chapter 5 Nervous System

1. The involuntary muscles are controlled by the. A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum C. * Medulla oblongata D. Pons

2. Conduction of stimulus along the nerve when it gets excited is. A. Chemical B. Thermal C. * Electrical D. Mechanical

3. The number of cranial nerves in frogs is. A. 7 pairs B. 8 pairs C. * 10 pairs D. 12 pairs

4. The hypoglossal nerves are the _____ of the spinal nerves. A. * First pair B. Second pair C. Third pair D. Fourth pair

5. Which one of the following acts as a communication system? A. Blood B. * Nerve C. Lymph D. Enzymes

6. The thermoregulatory centre in the human brain is the. A. Pituitary B. Spinal cord C. Cerebellum D. * Hypothalamus

7. The axon fibre is insulated with. A. * Myelin sheath

B. Sarcolemma C. Protein D. Lipid

8. The external ears of man are intended for. A. Ornaments B. Scattering sound waves C. * Collecting sound waves D. Beauty

9. The number of cranial nerves in man is. A. 8 pairs B. 10 pairs C. * 12 pairs D. 15 pairs

10. What is the colour of the outer portion of the spinal cord? A. Gray B. Brown C. * White D. Yellow

11. We lose consciousness if blood flow to the brain is cut off, for more than. A. 2 sec B. * 5 sec C. 15 to 20 sec D. 5 min

12. The part of the eye behind the lens is filled with. A. Aqueous humor B. * Vitreous humor C. Lymph D. Blood

13. Grey matter consists of. A. A large number of neurons B. * A large number of nerve cell bodies C. A large number of nerve fibres D. Neuroglia

14. Brain and the spinal cord are invested by connective tissue called. A. Arachnoid B. Pleural membrane

C. * Meninges D. None of the above

15. Nissl’s granules inside the nerve cell are made of. A. DNA B. Proteins C. * RNA D. Carbohydrates

16. While swallowing a tablet of chloroquin, one experiences its bitter when it accidentally comes in contact with the. A. Tip of the tongue B. Side of the tongue C. Centre of the tongue D. * Back of the tongue

17. The nerve messages enter the cell through the. A. * Dendrite B. Axon C. Cyton D. Synapse

18. All or none law is observable in. A. Blood B. Lymph C. * Nerve D. Bone

19. The cavities of the brain are filled with. A. Blood B. Lymph C. Water D. * Cerebrospinal fluid

20. The centres for balancing and hearing lie respectively, in the. A. Cochlea and semicircular canals B. * Semicircular canals and cochlea C. Semicircular canals and middle-ear bones D. Cochlea and middle-ear bones

21. Memory is the responsibility of. A. * Cerebrum B. Cerebellum

C. Medulla obongata D. Spinal cord

22. What is the other name for the brain? A. Myelon B. * Encephalon C. Cephalon D. All of the above

23. The proper order of our ear ossicles in. A. * Malleus, Incus, Stapes B. Incus, Malleus, Stapes C. Stapes, Incus, Malleus D. Incus, Stapes, Malleus

24. Which one of the following is poorly developed in a frog? A. * Cerebellum B. Cerebrum C. Optic capsule D. Diencephalon

25. The part of the brain which is responsible for intelligence is.

A. * Cerebrum B. Opthalmic C. Cochlea D. Semicircular canals

26. The iter lies in. A. The second ventricle B. The third ventricle C. * Between third and fourth ventricle D. The fourth ventricle

27. The chemical found at the synapse or nerve junction is. A. Adrenaline B. Enzyme C. * Acetylcholine D. Epinephrine

28. When dust gets into the eye, the part that become inflamed is the. A. Cornea B. Choroid C. * Conjuctiva

D. Sclerotic

29. Eye in an organ that can be called as. A. Phonoreceptor B. Thigmoreceptor C. * Photoreceptor D. Rheoreceptor

30. Optic nerve is. A. Motor nerve B. Mixed nerve C. * Sensory nerve D. None of the above

31. The cerebellum. A. Contains the pons B. Controls the release of melatonin C. * Controls coordination D. Controls the vital function of respiration and circulation

32. Which is the longest cranial nerve in the body? A. Opic

B. Opthalmic C. Mandibular D. * Vagus

33. A pungent odour or the smell of a fine perfume is interpreted in the brain in the. A. Cerebrum B. Cerebral hemispheres C. * Temporal cortex D. Cerebellum

34. The control centers that regulate hunger, water balance and body temperature are located in the. A. Pons B. Medulla oblongata C. Thalamus D. * Hypothalamus

35. The sense organs that perceive senses from the outer world are called. A. Entero receptors B. Proprioceptors C. * Extero receptors

D. Phonoreceptors

36. Which cells make up the insulation of nerve fibre? A. * Schwann cells B. Epinelial cells C. Connective tissue cells D. Columnar cells

37. The transparent part of the eye that is in front is called. A. Retina B. Choroid layer C. * Cornea D. Iris

38. A person will have brown eyes, blue eyes or black eyes depending upon the particular pigments present in the. A. Cornea B. Choroid C. * Iris D. Vitreous body

39. The cortex of human brain normally consists of.

A. Five billion two hundred million cells B. * Nine billion, two hundred million cells C. Six billion, two hundred million cells D. Eight billion, two hundred million cells

40. The grey matter of the brain is so coloured because of the concentration of. A. * Nerve cells B. A pigment C. Nerve fibres D. Melanin

41. Which type of movements occur without participation of brain? A. Cranial reflexes B. Afferent reflexes C. Efferent reflexes D. * Spinal reflexes

42. Olfactory receptors are placed in. A. Brain B. Spinal cord C. * Nasal chamber

D. Cranial nerves

43. Which of the following is the largest part of the human brain? A. Cerebellum B. Midbrain C. * Cerebrum D. Medulla oblongata

44. The cavities inside the brain are called. A. Auricles B. * Ventricles C. Atria D. Vacuoles

45. The medulla oblongata encloses the. A. Optic lobe B. Optic capsule C. Second ventricle D. * Fourth ventricle

46. Myopia is otherwise known as. A. Long sight

B. Night blindness C. * Short sight D. Blindness

47. A person, who met with an accident was partially paralysed and lacked a sense of feeling after treatment. Which part of the nervous system was affected by the accident? A. The left cerebral hemisphere was damaged B. * The spinal cord seemed damaged C. The olfactory lobes seemed to have become defective D. The oculomotor nerve seemed damaged

48. The part of the ear involved in balancing is. A. Utriculus B. Sacculu C. Cochlea D. * Semicircular canals

49. The part of the brain in control of voluntary muscles is. A. Cerebellum B. Medulla oblongata C. Pons

D. * Cerebrum

50. Axon is that part of a nerve cell which appears as a. A. Short branch B. * Long branch C. Granule D. Central body

51. The part of the human brain concerned with sight is the. A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. * Occipital lobe

52. The nerve cells can be stimulated by. A. Mechanical stimuli B. Chemical stimuli C. Electrical stimuli D. * All of the above

53. The tear glands help up in. A. Sobbing

B. Protecting the eye C. Preventing dust D. * Providing a clean moist surface

54. The ramus communications of the spinal nerves. A. Joins the parasympathetic chain B. * Joins the sympathetic chain C. Remains independent D. Joins brachial plexus

55. Cranial nerves except one pair end in sense organs or the head. Which is that pair? A. First pair B. Fourth pair C. Seventh pair D. * Tenth pair

56. The thickened wall of each cerebral hemisphere is called. A. Olfactory wall B. Pallium C. * Corpus striatum D. No thick wall

57. The equilibrium and coordination is looked after by. A. Cerebrum B. Medulla oblongata C. * Cerebellum D. Olfactory lobes

58. The arachnoid membrane cocers the. A. Spinal cord B. Optic lobes C. * Inner surface of dura mater D. Pia mater

59. The olfactory area is concerned with. A. * Smell B. Sight C. Hearing D. Speech

60. Colour vision is made possible by the cells in the retina called. A. Rods

B. * Cones C. Fovbea D. Blind spot

61. Encephalites occur when. A. There is excessive cerebrospinal fluid B. A person suffers a stroke C. The basal ganglia are damaged D. * The meninges of the brain become inflamed

62. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal is. A. Sensory nerve B. Motor nerve C. * Mixed nerve D. None of these

63. Just after a fever, our sense of taste is affected because. A. Taste buds are dead B. * Taste buds are covered C. Fever destroys sense of taste D. The nerves do not function

64. The brain is covered by. A. Meninges B. Bone C. Skin D. * All of the above

65. The rate and force of the heartbeat the secretion of glands of the alimentary tract and the contraction of involuntary muscles are controlled by the. A. Central nervous system B. Spinal nerves C. Caranial nerves D. * Autonomic nervous system

66. Brain receives and sends signals in the form of. A. * Electrical impulses B. Mechanical impulses C. Chemical impulses D. Magnetic impulses

67. Phonoreceptor refers to the perception of. A. Light

B. * Sound C. Touch D. Smell

Chapter 6 Genetic And Mendel’s Law of Heredity

1. Sugar present in the nucleotides is. A. Hexose sugar B. * Pentose sugar C. No sugar D. None of the above

2. Genetic engineering is the most recent and potent technique developed to improve plants animals. This means. A. Modifying the genes of an organism by various mutagenic agents B. * Modifying the genotype of an organism by in vitro manipulations involving the linking of two DNA molecules C. Linking two DNA molecules by in vivo gene manipulations D. Transferring genes from one organism to another through in vivo manipulations

3. Rate of mutation can be increased by. A. Hormones B. I. A. A

C. * Radiation D. Grafting

4. The specialized cell types having extremely long lives extremely long lives with their inability to undergo mitosis and which get replaced following an injury are. 1. 2. 3. 4.

Skeletal muscle cells Cardiac muscles cells Lymphocytes Nerve cells

A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 4 D. * 1, 2 and 4

5. Which is the correct chronological order? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Mendel’s laws of inheritance Darwin’s theory of evolution Blood circulation by Harvey De Vries theory of mutation

A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 4, 2, 3, 1 C. 2, 4, 1, 3 D. * 3, 2, 1, 4

6. Which fungus was of great use in finding out genetic principles? A. Mucor B. * Neurospore C. Agaricus D. Penicillium

7. When tall Red plant is crossed with dwarf white plant, the F2 generation tall red and dwarf white will occur in the ratio of. A. 3:1 B. * 9:1 C. 3:3 D. 1:9

8. An exception to Mendel’s Laws is. A. Purity of gametes B. Dominance C. Independent assortment D. * Linkage

9. The genotypic ratio in the F2 generation in a monohybrid cross will be. A. 3:1 B. * 9:1

C. 3:3 D. 1:9

10. A white woman marries a black man. They have four children-2 sons and 2 daughters What proportion of these children is likely to be black? A. 25% B. 50% C. 100% D. * None

11. Match the following. List I (A) Hargobind Khorana (B) Watson and Crick (C) Gregor Mendel (D) Landsteiner

List II (1) Laws of Heredity (2) Blood groups (3) Working model of synthetic gene (4) Double helix DNA

A. * A − 3,B − 4,C − 1,D − 2 B. A − 1,B − 3,C − 4,D − 2 C. A − 4,B − 2,C − 1,D − 3 D. A − 3,B − 1,C − 4,D − 2

12. Which of the following human disease/s is/are hereditary in nature?

A. Haemophilia B. Phenylketonuria C. Sickle-cell anaemia D. * All of the above

13. Sons of a colour blind woman are always colour blind but not the daughters This suggests that. A. Fewer sex chromosomes are transferred to the daughters B. Sex chromosomes are transferred only from mother to son C. Sex is determined by the mother D. * Sex linked characters find immediate expression in man

14. A pair of chromosomes determines sex in human beings and, therefore these chromosomes are called sex chromosomes What is the name given to the other chromosomes? A. * Autosomes B. Heterosomes C. Polysomes D. Spherosomes

15. Who coined the term gene? A. Mendel B. Hugo De Vries

C. Jacob and Mendel D. * Johannson

16. Two tall plants, each being a hybrid and carrying a recessive factor for dwarfness are crossed What proportion of thier offspring will be dwarf? A. 50% B. * 25% C. 75% D. 100%

17. Mendel chose for his experiments the plant. A. Bean B. * Pea C. Cucumber D. Rose

18. The cell undergoing a reduction division is called. A. Germ cell B. * Meiocyte C. Meiospore D. Oocyte

19. Sex-linked genes are carried by. A. X Chromosomes B. Y Chromosomes C. * Different parts of X and Y chromosomes D. Autosomes

20. The science of heredity was called Genetics by. A. Gregor Mendel B. C. Correns C. H. J Muller D. * W. Bateson

21. What is epistasis? A. * The gene which masks the effect of non-allelic gene B. An undesirable defective gene C. The gene which fails to express itself in the presence of non allelic genes D. All of above

22. That genes control heredity through their control on enzymes synthesis and that one gene controls the synthesis of one enzyme _____ the, one gene one enzyme hypothesis _____ was proposed by. A. * Beadle and Tatum

B. Darwin C. Mendel D. Morgan

23. What is atavism? A. The genes which show numerous phenotypic effects B. * Reappearance of traits after several generation C. Effects of mutation D. Intermediate inheritance of genes

24. Which one of the following Laws of Mendel could be arrived at only by a dihybrid cross. A. Law of dominance B. Law of purity of gametes C. Law of segregation D. * Law of independent assortment

25. A male child is born to parents only when. A. * The genetic composition of the child includes XY combination of ohromosomes B. The genetic composition of the child includes XX combination of chromosomes C. Rh factors of the parents are positive

D. Rh factors of the parents are negative

26. A lot of information about linkage in genetics has been obtained by researches on the organism. A. Oenothera B. Escherichia coli C. Pisum D. * Drosphila

27. Mutation is. A. A factor responsible for plant growth B. A change which affects the offsprings F generation only 2

C. * A change that is inherited D. A change which affects the parents only but is never inherited

28. Mutation could be created by X-rays This was found by. A. * Muller B. Morgan C. Meyer D. Flemming

29. Test cross is a cross between.

A. F generation 1

B. * F hybrid with a recessive parental type 1

C. F with dominant parental type 2

D. F generation 2

30. The theory of jumping genes was propounded by. A. Gregor Johann Medel B. Thomas Hunt Morgan C. * Barbara McClintock D. Watson and Crick

31. During protein synthesis a particular kind of RNA acts as an intermediary between DNA and ribosomes. This is. A. * m-RNA B. r-RNA C. t-RNA D. Cytoplasmic RNA

32. Human skin colour is believed to be controlled by at least. A. * 3 genes B. 4 genes C. 5 genes

D. 6 genes

33. Consider the following discoveries in life sciences. 1. 2. 3. 4.

Principal Nucleus DNA as the genetic material Light essential for the photosynthesis

The correct chronological sequence of these discoveries is. A. 2, 3, 1, 4 B. 1, 2, 4, 3, C. * 4, 2, 1, 3 D. 2, 1, 3, 4

34. In which one of the following is sex determined by environment? A. * Bonnelia B. Honeybee C. Maize D. Papaya

35. External manifestation of characters helps one to identify only the. A. * Phenotype B. Genotype C. Mutation

D. Genes

36. Normal monohybrid cross yields in the F2 generation, a ratio of 3:1 In some cases the ratio is found to be 2:1 Itis due to. A. Mistake in crossing B. Incomplete dominance C. * Lethal genes D. Recessive genes

37. Which of the following human disease/s is/are controlled by heredity? A. * Alkaptonuria B. Leukemia C. Anaemia D. All of the above

38. There are forty -six chromosomes in a normal human body cell. Compare the chromosome numbers given below with the special structure in the human body. 1. 2. 3. 4.

Ovum 23 Sperm 46 Kidney cells 46 Urinary bladder 23

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? A. 1, 2 and 4

B. 2, 3 and 4 C. * 1 and 3 D. 1, 3 and 4

39. A test cross is one which is made to determine the. A. Phenotype B. * Genotype C. Purity D. Resistance

40. The science of improving the hereditary qualities of future generation of mankind is referred to as. A. Genetics B. * Eugenics C. Epigenesis D. Epistasis

41. The molecules responsible for storing the genetic code are. A. * DNA B. RNA C. Proteins D. Chromosomes

42. The number of chromosomes in a normal human body cells is. A. 43 B. 44 C. 45 D. * 46

43. Organisms which have similar external appearance with reference to a particular character are called. A. Analogous B. Homologous C. Phenocopies D. * Phenotypes

44. If a mouse over eight times of its normal size has been produced by introducing human growth hormone gene, the technique involved is called. A. Hybridization B. * Genetic engineering C. Mutation breeding D. Hormonal feeding

45. How many alleles in a given gene are possible?

A. 2 B. 4 C. 3 D. * Any number

46. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I (A) Cell theory (B) Theory of natural selection (C) One gene one enzyme hypothesis (D) Chemiosmotic hypothesis

List II (1) P Mitchell (2) Beadle and Tatum (3) Schleiden and Schwann (4) Darwin

A. A − 2,B − 3,C − 4,D − 1 B. A − 3,B − 4,C − 1,D − 2 C. * A − 3,B − 4,C − 2,D − 1 D. A − 4,B − 1,C − 2,D − 3

47. Which one of the following approaches come under the category of biotechnology? A. * Use of living organisms or substances obtained from B. Modernising the commercial industries to produce products for use in biological research

C. Use of modern technology to investigate biological disorders D. Use of inductrial technology to increase the biosphere

48. The number of chromosomes in Turner’s Syndrome is. A. * 45 B. 43 C. 46 D. 47

49. Linked genes are present in. A. Different chromosomes B. * Same chromosomes C. Sex chromosomes D. Autosomes

50. In genetic engineering, a DNA segment of interest is joined to a small but complete DNA molecule that is capable of replicating itself This DNA molecule is referred to as. A. Plasmid B. Vector C. Cloning vehicle D. * Both b and c

51. Which of the following fungi has been extensively used for genetical studies? A. Bread mold B. Green mold C. * Pink bread mold D. Mushroom

52. Which one of the following represents a true heterozygous arrangement of genes? A. TT RR B. tt rr C. TT rr D. * Tr Rr

53. Mutation may cause. A. Polyploidy B. Chromosomal aberration C. Variation D. * All of the above

54. A gene which fails to express in the presence of non-allelic genes is. A. * Hypostasis

B. Pleotropy C. Aneuploidy D. Mutation

55. A colour blind person commonly has difficulty in seeing. A. All colours B. Red only C. * Red, green and pale tints D. Violet and blue

56. When White flowered F1 plants were crossed to pure red-flowered plants the progeny had all plants which were. A. White flowered B. * Red flowered C. Exhibiting 3 1 ratio of red to white flowered plants D. Exhibiting 1. 1 ration of red to white flowered plants

57. An organism that breeds true for a particular character producing identical gametes is called. A. Hemizygous B. Heterozgous C. Homogamous

D. * Homozygous

58. The International Centre for Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology established by the United Nation Organizations (UNO) is located at. A. * New Delhi B. Paris C. Tokyo D. Washington

59. A normal couple has five children, two of whom suffer from a somewhat uncommon genetic disorder that has, however appeared occasionally in this familial line. What kind of gene is involved in this case? A. Co-dominant B. Completely dominant C. * Completely recessive D. Incompletely dominant

60. The new techniques developed during the last few years have made it possible to produce an intergeneric hybrid between potato and tomato, the pomato through. A. Embryo culture B. Endosperm culture C. Genetic engineering D. * Protoplast culture

61. Mutation cannot be caused by one of the following. A. X-ray B. * Infrared ray C. Ultaviolet ray D. Gamma ray

62. If a boy’s father has haemophilia and his mother has one gene for it, what is the chance that the boy will inherit the disease? A. 100% B. 75% C. * 50% D. 25%

63. Gene, the basic unit of heredity, was first synthesized in the laboratory by. A. * Arthur Kornberg B. Johannson C. Gregor Johann Mendel D. Watson and Crick

64. Genes are arranged in the chromosomes.

A. In clusters B. In binary fashion C. * In linear fashion D. Scattered

65. There are 23 pairs of chromosomes in man, How many types of eggs can woman produce supposing that she is Heterozygous for each of her 23 pairs of chromosomes? A. 23 B. 46 C. 2. 3 million D. * 8. 4 million

66. Hereditary characters are carried to the next generation by. A. * Chromosomes B. Plastids C. Mitchondria D. Ribosomes

67. Eugenics is the application of genetics to improve. A. Crop plants B. Fruit trees

C. Cattle D. * Human beings

68. Successful fusion of somatic cells from man and mouse was first demonstrated by. A. A. Kornberg B. E. C Cocking C. * H. Harris D. R. Sinsheimer

69. In human beings, sex is determined by the sex chromosomes X and Y. What would, then be the genetic constitution of a normal woman? A. XO B. * XX C. XY D. YY

70. Genes control heredity in man and other organisms. This is. A. A bead like structure on the chromosomes B. A protein molecule C. A segment RNA D. * A segment of RNA and DNA

71. Some human disease sare genetically controlled was first established by. A. Gregor Mendel B. * A. E. Garrod C. Watson and Crick D. William Bateson

72. When two organisms are crossed with a view to study only one of their characters it is called. A. Dihybrid B. * Monohybrid C. Polyhybrid D. Back cross

73. Haemophilia is a hereditary disease carried by. A. Females and expressed by females B. * Females and expressed by males C. Males and expressed by females D. Males and expressed by males

74. Match the scientific discoveries in List I with the scientists in List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.

List I (A) DNA structure (B) A B O Blood groups (C) Jumping genes (D) Regulatory genes

List II (1) Jacob and Monod (2) Barbara McClintock (3)Watson and Crick (4) Landsteiner

A. A − 2,B − 3,C − 4,D − 1 B. A − 1,B − 4,C − 3,D − 2 C. * A − 3,B − 4,C − 2,D − 1 D. A − 4,B − 2,C − 1,D − 3

75. Genes are made of. A. Carbohydrates B. Poteins C. Fats D. * Nucleotides

76. Tijo and Levan found out. A. Mutational changes B. Sex-linked genes C. * Number of chromosomes in the human cell D. Chromosomal aberrations

77. Rate of mutation in plants can be increased by. A. More manure B. More pesticides C. * X-ray D. Infrared rays

78. The sex of a child is determined by the. A. * Chromosomes of the father B. Chromosomes of the mother C. Rh factor of the parents D. Blood group of the father

79. In all of the Mendel’s experiments the alleles causing a trait were. A. * Dominant-recessive B. Co-dominant C. Co-recessive D. Incomplete dominant

80. Haploid chromosome number is not seen in. A. * Primary spermatocytes B. Spermatids

C. Sperms D. Spermatids and sperms

81. Body cells infected with virus produce a protein called. A. * Interferon B. Properdin C. Gamma globulin D. Hybridoma

82. Allosomes are chromosomes. A. In separate individuals B. In separate cells C. * Connected with sex D. Not connected with sex

83. What are oncogenes? A. Dominant genes B. * A set of genes which produce cancer C. Genes present in the X chromosomes causing haemophilia D. Recessive genes

84. What makes Mendel’s contribution so impressive is that he described the

basic patterns of inheritance before the mechanism for inheritance was even. A. * Discovered B. Believed C. Found D. Solved

85. Which of the following is normal human (male chromosomal constitution )? A. * 44+XY B. 44+ XXY C. XYY D. None of the above

86. The suggestion that the chromosomes are the carriers of hereditary material was first made by. A. Johannson B. Flemming C. * Sutton and Boveri D. Morgan

87. Who, amongst the following is regarded as the father of genetics? A. Robert Hooke

B. * Gregor Johann Mendel C. Charles Darwin D. Hugo De Vries

88. One inherited haploid set of chromosomes is called. A. * Genome B. Chromomere C. Karyotype D. None of the above

89. What is the chromosomes number in a human ovum? A. 24 B. 46 C. 48 D. * None of the above

90. An inherited characteristic which does not appear in one generation but can appear in the next is called. A. Dominant B. * Recessive C. Homozygous D. Heterozygous

91. A colur blind man is married to a normal visioned woman whose parents also had normal vision What proportion of their Children is likely to be colour blind? A. * 0 percent B. 25 percent C. 50 percent D. 100 percent

92. Which of the following statements is true? A. Colour blindness generally occurs in human males B. Night blindness generally occurs in human males C. Haemophilia generally occurs in human males D. * All of these

93. In a gamete there will be. A. One pair of sex chromosomes B. * Only one sex chromosome C. No sex chromosomes D. Only autosomes

94. Which of the following statements is wrong?

A. Discontinuous variations appear suddenly or accidentally B. Continuous variations are very common and they are caused due to environmental changes C. Mendel is known as the father of genetics D. * Genetics is the study of transmission of characters to the progeny from the parents and it is unrelated to evolution

Chapter 7 Ecology

1. Which one of the following does provide the best estimate of world’s biological diversity? Of about ten million species Of about thirty million living probably alive today, some 20 species some 50 are lost species are lost every day every day, most of them A. * Most of them unknown because no more than half a million have yet been actually identified by scientists B. unknown because no more than one million have been actually identified C. Of about forty-five million living species some 100 are lost every day most of them unknown because on more than 10 million have been actually identified D. Of about seventy-five million living species some 500 are lost every day most of them unknown because no more than 3 million have been actually identified

2. Nektons are those organisms. A. Which cannot be netted B. * Which are independent of tides and waves C. Which have long necks D. None of the above

3. The best example of an ecological community is. A. * A meadow B. An oak tree C. All the people in Lahore D. All the whales on Earth

4. Herbivores are called. A. Secondary consumers B. * Key industry animals C. Tertiary consumers D. Decomposers

5. Autecology deals with ecology of. A. * Single species B. Many species C. Community D. Area

6. Aquatic plants with floating leaves. A. Do not have stomata B. * Have stomata on both surfaces

C. Have stomata on lower surface D. Have stomata only on upper surface

7. Which of the following branches of science is concerned with the study of relationship of plants with their environment? A. Cytology B. * Ecology C. Morphology D. Physiology

8. Xerophytes are plants living in. A. Water B. Forests C. * Deserts D. Sea

9. The aphotic zone means that light is. A. Always present B. Present during day C. * Always absent D. Present during night

10. Light compensation zone refers to. A. Where light is available in plenty B. Where all light energy is used C. Where light is maximum D. * Beyond which light does not penetrate

11. Around the planet Earth, all living organisms form a. A. Biotic community B. Abiotic community C. * Biosphere D. None of the above

12. Green plants produce food by the. A. Holozoic method B. * Holophytic method C. Saprophytic method D. Parasitic method

13. The reaction between living and non-living in an ecosystem is known as. A. * Interaction B. Reaction

C. Communication D. Reversal

14. What are top carnivores? A. Biggest carnivores B. Tigers C. All carnivorous animals D. * Carnivores that are not eaten by any other animals

15. The Red Sea derives its name from the. A. Profuse growth of a red flowered plant B. Red bloom caused by a blue green alga C. Red bloom caused by a red alga D. * Red coloured effluents deposited in it

16. Phytoplanktons in a pond ecosystem are. A. * Autotrophs B. Heterotrophs C. Lithotrophs D. Osmotrophs

17. Primary producers are.

A. * Green plants B. Bacteria C. Protozoa D. Carnivores

18. Plants which are attached to the stones. A. Aerophytes B. Halophytes C. * Lithophytes D. Psammophytes

19. The nutrition in which food is devoured is called. A. * Holozoic B. Holophytic C. Saproprytic D. Parasitic

20. Which of the following is abiotic factor of environment? A. Temperature B. Sunlight C. Rainfall

D. * All of the above

21. A hydrophyte is. A. A marine animal B. * An aquatic animal C. A plant disease D. A rootless plant

22. What do you mean by lentic biota? A. * Plants and animals in lakes and ponds B. Plants and animals in forest C. Plants and animals in sea water D. Desert plants and animals

23. Ecology of a population is known as. A. * Demecology B. Synecology C. Autecology D. Space ecology

24. One way of checking the expansion of the Thar Desert would be. A. By digging canals

B. * Through afforestation C. Through artificial rains D. By constructing water reservoirs

25. Some plants feed upon insects for their nitrogen requirements. They are called insectivorous plants. Which of the following is such a plant? A. * Bladderwort B. Hornwort C. Liverwort D. Spiderwort

26. The energy relationships in an ecosystem can be studied with the help of. A. * Pyramid of energy B. Pyramid of biomass C. Pyramid of numbers D. None of the pyramids

27. Which one of the following strongly threatens biodiversity? A. Fragile ecosystem such as mangroves and wetlands B. Inaccessible habitats in the Himalayas C. * Destruction of natural habitats and vegetation and shifting cultivation D. Creation of biosphere reserves

28. Organisms that eat the excreta of other organisms are called. A. Autotroph B. Hetrotroph C. * Coprophagous D. Saprotroph

29. The most crucial event in nature governing nutrient balance is. A. Primary production B. Secondary production C. * Nutrient cycling D. Gross production

30. Timberline shows. A. A line of trees B. * The limit of the forest C. Annual rings D. Height of trees

31. What are mesophytes? A. Plants associated with organisms

B. Plants growing in water C. Plants growing on rocks D. * Plants growing under normal conditions

32. Biotic factors in an ecosystem are. A. Height and temperature B. Gravity and pressure C. * Living organisms D. Climate and rainfall

33. The mineral substances in the bodies of organisms are released to the environment by. A. Producers B. Consumers C. * Decomposers D. Parasites

34. Organisms, which make their own food are called. A. * Autotrophs B. Heterotrophs C. Saptrotrophs D. Auxotrophs

35. The functional unit in ecology. A. Organism B. Biosphere C. * Ecosystem D. Population

36. Aquaculture is the. A. Water portion of the biosphere B. Loss of water by plants C. * Use of water for farming D. Water content of organisms

37. A simple sequence in which the grass grows a cow eats the grass, a human cats the cow or drinks its milk an example of. A. * Food chain B. Food web C. Food eycla D. Pyramid

38. Population refers to. A. All the human beings living in a particular area

B. * All the animals, including man, living in a particular area C. All the organisms plants as well as animals living in a particular area D. Individuals of a particular species

39. ‘Niche’ refers to. A. Place of living B. Type of food C. * Place of living and type of food D. Food and movement

40. In very hot climate, one is likely to find. A. Organisms capable of hibernation B. * Organisms capable of aestivation C. Coke machines D. Short tailed deer

41. Organisms that live in the deep sea are mainly. A. Herbivores B. Carnivores C. * Detritivores D. None of the above

42. Organisms that take only raw plant products as their food are called. A. * Herbivorous B. Vegetarian C. Carnivorous D. Omnivorous

43. Plankton are. A. Large and sessile B. Small free swimming and sessile C. Large and fast swimming D. * Not capable of negotiating water currents

44. Which are producer organisms? A. Plants B. Animals C. * Organisms that can trap solar energy for photosynthesis D. Both plants and animals

45. An organism eating its own species is called. A. Carnivores B. Detritivore

C. * Cannibal D. Herbivore

46. The flow of energy in ecosystem is. A. * Unidirectional B. Bi-directional C. Multi-directional D. All of the above

47. Agroecologhy relates. A. Crops and productivity B. * Crops and environment C. Crop productivity and physiology D. Crop resistance to climatic changes

48. A small organism depending upon for its livelihood on a bigger organism is called. A. Prey B. Predator C. * Parasite D. Host

49. It is said that the spiders of the Himalayas are native to the highest territory higher than any animal of Earth Spiders are carnivores. Therefore, they must thrive by. A. Becoming herbivorous B. * Eating insects blown up the mountains by winds C. Adapting to the manufacture of organic materials from inorganic substances D. Making daily forays to lower altitudes

50. The part of aquatic medium which has a gradually declining temperature range is called. A. Epilimnion B. Hypolimnion C. * Thermocline D. Aphotic

51. An ecosystem consists of. A. * A living community and its environment B. All the plants and animals of an area C. Carnivores and herbivores of an area D. Producers, consumers and decomposers in a particular locality

52. The two most prevalent ions in the marine habitat are.

A. Na+, Mg++ B. * Na+, CI C. Na+, So. 4 D. K+, Cl-

53. What are halophytes? A. Plants found in fresh water B. * Plants growing in saline C. plants growing in sunlight D. Desert plants

54. Macro consumers are known as. A. Herbivores B. Carnivores C. Benthos D. * Phagotrophs

55. Which one of the following ecosystem is the largest in the world? A. Forests B. Rivers C. Deserts

D. * Oceans

56. The study of ecology with pyramids was invented by. A. Darwin B. * Elton C. Odum D. Joshua

57. A prairie is. A. * A grassland without trees B. A locality in Australia C. An area in South America on the side of River Amazon D. A kind of plant

58. Animals that take only dead flesh as their food are called. A. Herbivorous B. Carnivorous C. Omnivorous D. * Carrion eaters

59. Plants growing in sunlight are called. A. Sciophytes

B. * Hydrophytes C. Xerophytes D. Heliophytes

60. Bacteria utilising radiant energy to prepare food are. A. Chemosynthetic bacteria B. Heterotrophic bacteria C. * Photosynthetic bacteria D. Free living bacteria

Chapter 8 Circulatory System

1. A person with blood group AB is sometimes called a universal recipient because of. A. Lack of antigens B. * Lack of antibodies C. Lack of both antigens and antibodies D. The presence of antibodies

2. Blood from the right ventricle is sent to. A. * Pulmonary artery B. Pulmonary vein C. Vena cava D. Dorsal aorta

3. Phagocytes. A. Control blood pressure B. * Ingest foreign materials in blood C. Give colour to the blood

D. Control osmotic pressure

4. We hear the beating of heart of human beings on the left side because. A. It is a physiological phenomenon B. The left ventricle is toward the left side C. Air is passed only through the left side of the heart D. * The heart is on the left side

5. Clotting of blood is. A. * A chain reaction B. Reversible reaction C. Reflex action D. No reaction

6. Removal of calcium from freshly collected blood. A. Results clotting of blood B. Causes haemolysis of RBCs C. Prevents oxidation of haemoglobin D. * Prevents colotting of blood.

7. The rate of heart beat is accelerated by hormone. A. * Adrenaline

B. Acetycholine C. Thyroxine D. Prolactin

8. The natural defence of our body against foreign germs is formed by. A. Red blood corpuscles B. * White blood corpuscles C. Platelets D. Lymph

9. Monocytes are. A. Red blood corpuscles B. * White blood corpuscles C. Platelets D. Both red and white corpuscles

10. Valves are present inside. A. Arteries B. Capillaries C. * Heart D. Lymph vessels

11. Venous blood has the colour. A. Bright red B. * Purple C. Greenish red D. Blue

12. The rate at which the heart beats per minute in an adult averages. A. 60 B. * 72 C. 84 D. 96

13. Monocytes are formed in. A. Liver B. Spleen C. Bone marrow D. * All of the above

14. Each red corpuscle in man has. A. A single nucleus B. Two nuclei

C. Numerous nuclei D. * No nucleus

15. The erythrocytes originate from the. A. Chondroblasts B. Neuroblasts C. * Haemocytoblasts D. Scleroblasts

16. Which of the following act as soldiers in our body? A. * Leucocytes B. Erythrocytes C. Nerve cells D. Flame cells

17. Pace maker is. A. * Sinoauricular node B. Auriculo-ventricular node C. Bundle of His D. Purkinje fibres

18. Intravascular clotting of blood is known as.

A. Anaemia B. Leucopenia C. * Thrombosis D. Thrombin

19. The naturally occurring anticoagulant in the human blood is. A. Hirudin B. * Heparin C. Fibrinogen D. Serotonin

20. The grouping of blood is based on substance called. A. Antibodies B. * Antigens C. Antitoxin D. Enzymes

21. An obnormality in which heart valves become leaky and narrowed, reducing cardiac function may be due to. A. Atherosclerosis B. Atherosclerosis and smoking C. * Rheumatic fever

D. Coronary occlusion

22. The fluid of the transport system in insects is called. A. Blood B. Lymph C. * Haemolymph D. Endolymph

23. Blood pressure is measured by. A. Auxanometer B. Stethoscope C. * Sphygmomanometer D. Kaleidoscope

24. Very fast heart beat is called. A. Brachy cardia B. * Tachycardia C. Spasm D. Heart attack

25. pH of the blood remains constant due to. A. Absorption

B. Digestion C. * Buffer action D. Perspiration

26. Erythroblastosis foetalis is a disease affecting. A. Nerves B. Muscles C. * Blood corpuscles D. Lymph

27. Fibrinogen is present in. A. Lymph B. Liver C. * Blood plasma D. Pancreas

28. Normal adult human male has. A. 10 gm of haemoglobin/100 gm of blood B. * 14 gm of haemoglobin/100 gm of blood C. 18 gm of haemoglobin/100 gm of blood D. 24 gm of haemoglobin /100 gm of blood

29. Blood does not clot in the absence of Vitamin K because it is. A. An essential component of the clot B. An essential component of the platelets C. * Essential for synthesis of prothrombin D. Essential for synthesis of fibrinogen

30. The metallic part in haemoglobin is. A. Copper B. Molybdenum C. Nickel D. * Iron

31. Blood cancer is otherwise called. A. * Leukemia B. Leucoderma C. Leucopenia D. Erythrocemia

32. Blood clot inside blood vessels is prevented by. A. * Heparin B. Fibrinogen

C. Thrombin D. Prothrombin

33. Eosinophils are stained by. A. Alkaline dyes B. * Acidic dyes C. Neutral dyes D. Vital stains

34. Neutrophils are so called because. A. They do not perform any work B. They remain the same place C. * They are stained by neutral dyes D. They are neutral to enzymes

35. The muscles of the heart are. A. * Striated and involuntary B. Striated and voluntary C. Smooth and involuntary D. Smooth and voluntary

36. Embolus formation takes place inside.

A. Oesophagus B. Lymph vessels C. * Blood vessels D. Twice

37. What is an antigen? A. Toxic substance B. * A kind of protein C. Blood platelets D. Blood corpuscles

38. A man of AB blood group meets with a serious accident and requires blood transfusion Who among the following could donate blood to him? Relation 1 Wife 2 Son 3 Friend 4 Daughter A. Only 2 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 4 D. * 1, 2, 3 and 4

Blood group A AB O B

39. Who among the above relations could donate blood to the man? A. Only 2 B. 2 and 4 C. * 1, 2 and 3 D. 1 and 3

40. The specific gravity of blood is. A. Lower than water B. * Higher than water C. Same as water D. Many times that of water

41. Mark the anticoagulant in leech. A. * Hirudin B. Heparin C. Prothrombin D. Thrombin

42. The heat produced in various parts of the body is distributed evenly by. A. Lymph system

B. * Vascular system C. Nervous D. Alimentary system

43. Blood is. A. Acidic B. * Alkaline C. Neutral D. Like a buffer

44. The hormones are carried to target organs through the. A. * Blood B. Lymph C. Water D. Corpuscles

45. Blood of cockroach is. A. Red B. Leucocytes C. Erythrocytes D. * Thrombocyte

46. The oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix inside the heart. A. In the right auricle B. In the left auricle C. In the ventricle D. * No where

47. Fat persons are less healthy and have a shorter life expectancy because. A. Fat inhibits many important enzymes of energy yielding reactions in the body B. Accumulation of fat around the pericardial membrane interferes with the functional efficiency of the heart C. The high level of cholesterol in the blood interferes with the efficient working of the liver, heart and kidney and so there are greater chances of hypertension, cirrhosis D. * The more weight the body has to carry the greater the strain on the heart and greater the chances of high blood pressure and heart attacks

48. The opening of the aorta is guarded by. A. Tricuspid valve B. Bicuspid valve C. Monocuspid valve D. * Semilunar valve

49. Blood plasma from which fibrinogen is removed is known as. A. * Serum B. Blood concentrat C. Lymph D. Antibody component

50. The study of heart is called. A. Haematology B. * Cardiology C. Pathology D. Nephrology

51. A person which one of following group is considered a universal donor? A. A B. AB C. B D. * O

52. The vein in mammal that originates as capillaries and ends in capillaries is. A. Coronary vein f B. Hepatic vein

C. Renal vein D. * Hepatic portal vine

53. The insects do not have pigments in blood because. A. There is no blood B. * Blood does not have respiratory function Pigments are elsewhere C. Tissues have pigments D. Pigments are elsewhere

54. Which one of the following is essential for blood clotting? A. B R C B. W B C C. * Blood platelets D. Lymph

55. The wall of the heart is made up of. A. Voluntary muscles B. Involuntary muscles C. * Cardiac muscles D. Skeletal

56. The universal recipient belongs to blood group.

A. A B. B C. * AB D. O

57. The most oxygenated blood in the body is found in. A. Pulmonary artery B. * Pulmonary vein C. Carotid artery D. Coronary artery

58. The buffer substance in blood is. A. Calcium carbonate B. Carbondioxide C. * Sodium bicarbonate D. Ammonia

59. Pernicious anaemia results in. A. Loss of whole blood B. Reduction in RBC and plasma C. * Reduction in RBC and moderate increase in plasma

D. Reduction in WBC

60. Oxygen transport is a function of. A. White blood corpuscles B. * Red blood corpuscles C. Blood platelets D. Plasma

61. What is the basic characteristic of antigens? A. They are capable of stimulating the formation of haemoglobin in the blood B. They destroy haemoglobin C. They are capable of defending themselves against attack by anti bodies D. * They are capable of stimulating the formation of antibodies

62. Veins carry blood. A. * Toward the heart B. Away from the heart C. Both to and from the heart D. Only around the heart

63. The average ratio of white blood corpuscles to red blood corpuscles in the adult human is.

A. 1:500 B. * 1:700 C. 1:1000 D. 1:1200

64. In wrong blood transfusion. A. * RBCs of recipient agglutinise B. RBCs of donor agglutinise C. WBCs of donor agglutinise D. WBCs of recipint agglutinise

65. A single heart beat is equal to. A. An auricular diastole and a systole B. A ventricular systole and diastole C. An auricular systoles and ventricular systole D. * An auricular systole, a ventricular systole and a pause

66. The enzyme that is necessary to bring about clotting of blood is. A. Peptidase B. Amylase C. Lipase

D. * Thrombokinase

67. When the right ventricle in the human heart contracts, the blood moves t. A. Aorta B. Brain C. Lungs D. * Pulmonary arteries

68. Blood of a person in group O his in its plasma, antibodies. A. A B. B C. * A and B D. None

69. The release of thromboplastin facilitates the. A. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin B. Stabilization of fibrin C. Coagulation of blood D. * Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

70. What is Rhesus factor? A. A factor found associated with A group blood

B. A factor associated with B group blood C. * RBC containing a particular antigen D. None of the above

71. Human blood has the highest percentage of. A. Eosinophils B. Basophils C. * Neutrophils D. Monocytes

72. Vessels proceeding to the heart are called. A. * Veins B. Arteries C. Capillaries D. Lymph ducts

73. A person belonging to blood group A has in his red corpuscles antigen. A. B B. AB C. None D. * A

74. The haemoglobin pigments in vertebrates are present in. A. Lymph B. Leucocytes C. * Erythrocytes D. Thrombocytes

75. Blood platelets are found in. A. All vertebrates B. All chordates C. * Mammals only D. Birds and mammals

76. The scientist who discovered the blood groups is. A. * Landsteiner B. T. H Morgan C. William Harvey D. Darwin

77. Foramen ovale is present in the. A. Ear B. Eye

C. Brain D. * Embryonic heart

78. The route of circulation in the human heart is. A. * Left auricle-right auricle right ventricle pulmonary veins-left ventricleaorta B. Right auricle-left auricle-right ventricle-pulmonary artery-lungsPulmonary veins -left auricle-aorta C. Right auricle-left auricle-right ventricle-pulmonary artery-lungsPulmonary veins -left auricle left ventricle -aorta D. Right auricle-left auricle-right ventricle-pulmonary artery-lungsPulmonary veins -left auricle-left ventricle-aorta

79. Formation of blood is. A. Histolysis B. Histogenesis C. * Haemopoiesis D. Haemolysis

80. The leucocytes that are stained by alkaline dyes are called. A. Eosinophils B. * Basophils C. Neutrophils

D. Acidophils

81. The vessel whcih supplies blood to the heart is. A. Pulmonary artery B. Pulmonary vein C. Pulmocutaneous artery D. * Coronary artery

82. The blood of cockroach shows certain characteristics except. A. It serves to distribute nutrients directly to every part of the body B. It contains several kinds of corpuscles without haemoglobin C. It collects metabolic wastes D. * It carries oxygen

83. People who live at high altitudes have rosy cheeks because. A. Haemoglobin has an increased binding affinity for oxygen to become deep red in colour B. * Red cell concentration becomes considerably above the average in response to lowered oxygen pressure C. The rate of capillary circulation increases in the skin to make it look pinkish D. All of the above

84. The antibodies that are produced by liver are carried by. A. * Lymph B. Blood C. Nerves D. Muscles

85. Once blood clots at a wound, harmful bacteria are prevented from entering by. A. Antibodies B. Exudation of serum C. * Scab formation D. Antitoxins released by the blood clot

86. Our body can produce specific antibodies to counteract. A. * Antigens B. Poisons C. Foreign tissues D. Germs

87. Which of the following are blood antioagulants? 1. Heparin 2. Potassium fluoride 3. Calcium oxalate

4. Sodium oxalate A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2, 3 and 4 C. * 1 and 4 D. 2 and 3

88. The function of human spleen is. A. To consume foreign bodies, bacteria and dead cells B. Act as a reservoir of blood and RBC C. To produce antibodies D. * All of the above

89. The blood corpuscles that help to build up resistance against disease are. A. All leucocytes B. Moncocytes C. Neutrophils D. * Lymphocytes

90. Haemoglobin remains dissolved in plasma of. A. Rabbit B. Man

C. Frog D. * Earthworm

91. Compared to veins, the arteries have their walls. A. * Thicker B. Thinner C. Same type D. Very much thinner

92. In invertebrates, haemoglobin is present in. A. * Plasma B. Erythrocytes C. Leucocytes D. Thrombocytes

93. Consider the following scheme of the circulation of blood in the mammalian heart. 1. 2. 3. 4.

Left auricle Right auricle Left ventricle Right ventricle

The correct sequence in which blood flows through the mammalian heart is. A. 2, 1, 4, 3

B. 1, 2, 3, 4 C. * 2, 4, 1, 3 D. 4, 3, 2, 1

94. Lymphocy are manufactured by. A. Bone marrow B. Spleen C. Liver D. * Lymph nodes

95. Loss of blood is minimized due to the blood. A. * Clotting B. Receding C. Healing D. Drying up

96. Compared to auricles, ventricles have. A. Thinner walls B. * Thicker walls C. The same size of walls D. No walls

97. The human heart is. A. Neurogenic heart B. * Myogenic heart C. Pulsating heart D. Ampullary heart

98. The function of haemoglobin in human body is to. A. Help excretion B. Provide amino acids for growth C. Provide enzymes and hormones D. * Carry oxygen to various tissues

99. The thrombocytes are associated with. A. * Blood coagulation B. Transport of respiratory gases C. Removal of nitrogen wastes D. All of above

100. Pulse rate is measured in the wrist by observing the jerks of blood in the. A. Veins B. Capillaries

C. * Arteries D. Nerves

101. When does the heart start functioning? A. At birth B. After birth C. * Before birth D. After a week from birth

102. The blood is different from serum in having. A. * Corpuscles and proteins B. Water and plasma C. Corpuscles and plasma D. More salts

103. Wich one of the following statements is not correct regarding RBC? A. Carries oxygem B. Manufactured in bone marrow C. Carries CO2 D. * Contains haemoglobin in the nucleus

104. The blood without corpuscles is called.

A. Bile B. Lymph C. * Plasma D. Blood

105. Blood is formed in the human adult by the. A. Heart B. Spleen C. * Red bone marrow D. Yellow bone marrow

106. If the blood circulation in an afflicted portion of a limb of the body is curtailed so that the tissues in that area die this condition is known as. A. Irreversible fatal limb block B. * Gangrene C. Arterio-venous limb blockade D. All of the above

107. Vessels leaving the heart are known as. A. Veins B. * Arteries C. Capillaries

D. Lymph ducts

108. The amount of blood in a normal man is about. A. * 5. 0 liters B. 2. 5 liters C. 3. 8 liters D. 4. 7 liters

109. The counting of RBC’s con be performed by. A. * Haemocytometer B. Haemoglobinometer C. Clinostat D. Thermometer

110. Venous blood is carried to the lungs for oxygenation by the. A. * Pulmonary arteries B. Pulmonary veins C. Pulmonary arterio-venous shunt D. Right ventricle

111. The pulse wave in the arteries is. A. Slower in children than in adults

B. Dependent on speed of the blood C. * Set up by systole in the ventricles D. Caused by the flow of blood into the heart

112. RH+blood is due to genes which are. A. * Dominant B. Recessive C. Codominant D. Neutral

113. The condition in which there is abnormal decrease of white blood corpuscles is. A. Leukemia B. Leucoderma C. * Leucopenia D. Anaemia

114. Which one of the following statements is wrong about Rhesus (Rh) factor. A. Rh system is different from ABO blood group system B. Everybody is either Rh positive or Rh negative C. * This system of blood factors is inherited along with that of the A B O

D. We inherit some factors from each parent and it may occur that an Rh positive baby is born of an Rh-negative mother

115. The valve between the right auricle and right ventricle is called. A. * Tricuspid B. Bicuspid C. Monocuspid D. Semilunar

116. Which statement is correct? A. All arteries carry oxygenated blood B. All veins carry oxygenated blood C. * All arteries excerpt pulmonary artery carry oxygenated blood D. All veins except pulmonary vein carry oxygenated blood

117. The life span of human red blood corpuscles is. A. Uncertain B. * 120 days C. 180 days D. As long as the individual survives

118. Blood runs evenly in.

A. Arteries B. * Capillaries C. Veins D. Lymph vessels

119. The disease in which blood clotting does not take place is known as. A. Xerophthalmia B. Haemopoeisis C. * Haemophilia D. Haemoerythrin

Chapter 9 Skeletal System

1. In movable joints, the tip of the bones are covered with. A. * Hyaline cartilage B. Calcified cartilage C. Elastic cartilage D. Fibrous cartilage

2. The following bone is not found in man. A. Humerus B. Carpal C. * Astragalus D. Atlas

3. Regeneration of cartilage is brought about by. A. Fibres B. Matrix C. Nerve and blood vessels D. * Perichondrion

4. The adult human skeleton consists of. A. 240 bones B. * 206 bones C. 208 bones D. 214 bones

5. The bone cells are connected with each other by. A. Haversian canal B. * Canaliculi C. Capillaries D. Matrix

6. The matrix of the cartilage is formed of. A. Spongin B. Collagen C. * Chondrin D. Calcium salts

7. Which of the following statements is wrong? A. In mammals, bone of skull and long bones have red marrow

B. In mammals, skull bones and long bones have yellow marrow C. * In long bones of vertebrates (other than mammals) there is yellow and red bone marrow D. Long bone of vertebrates(except mammals) have yellow marrow

8. The longest bone in the human body is the. A. Stirrup B. Backbone C. * Thigh bone D. Gullet

9. The total number of ear bones are. A. 2 B. 4 C. * 6 D. 8

10. The tissue that plays a leading role in the elongation of many bones is. A. Areolar tissue B. * Cartilage C. Spongy bone D. Fibroelastic tissue

11. In an adult human being, the number of vertebrae is. A. 33 B. * 26 C. 36 D. 56

12. While writing one holds the pen by tips of the digits 1, 2 and 3 of the hand supported by the. A. Carpals B. Metacarpals C. * Phalanges D. All of the above

13. The bones are held together by elastic tissues called. A. * Ligaments B. Fibrous tissues C. Fibrin D. Muscular tissues

14. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

List (I) (A) Cartilaginous skeleton (B) Limbless (C)Jawless vertebrate (D) Four chambered hearth

List (II) 1. Crocodile 2. Sea lamprey 3. Skate 4. Caecilian

A. A − 2,B − 4,C − 3,D − 1 B. A − 4,B − 3,C − 2,D − 1 C. A − 1,B − 2,C − 4,D − 3 D. * A − 3,B − 4,C − 2,D − 1

15. The interstitial ground substance of cartilage contains. A. Mucopolysaccharides B. Fat cells C. Fibrous cells D. * Chondromucoids

Chapter 10 Botany

1. Wallace’s line is a line. A. Drawn by Darwin B. Across the mountains C. * Between two zoogeographical areas D. Between different classes of animals

2. The most accepted theory of the origin of Earth is the fiery origin which was propounded by. A. Laplace B. * Chamberlain C. James Jean D. Hovle

3. Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny is the theory of. A. Evolution B. Reduction C. * Recapitulation

D. Darwinism

4. The hypothesis that living matter originated in the past from non-living matter is supported by. A. Fossil records B. * Millcr’s experimcnts C. Pasteur’s experiments D. Spallanzani’s experiments

5. Spontaneous generation signifying the development of living organisms from non-living has been termed. A. Biogenesis B. * Abiogenesis C. Cosmozoic D. Catastrophism

6. Both Sun and Earth are. A. 1 to 2 billion years old B. * 4 to 5 billion years old C. 10 to 12 billion years old D. 100 to 150 billion years old

7. The theory that believes that the first living organism came from another

planet is known as. A. Catastrophic theory B. Special creation theory C. Organic evolution theory D. * Cosmozoic theory

8. Lamarck’s theory of inheritance of acquired characters was challenged by. A. * August Weismann B. Hugo De Vries C. Herbert Spencer D. Carl Linnaeus

9. The oldest era is. A. Palaeozoic B. Mesozoic C. Coenozoic D. * Proterozoic

10. When the Earth was formed it had an atmosphere with. A. Hydrogen Oxygen and Nitrogen B. Water vapours Hydrogen and Oxygen

C. Oxygen Carbondioxide and Nitrogen D. * Water vapours, Ammonia and Methane

11. The germ plasm theory of inheritance was proposed by. A. * Weismann B. Lamarck C. Darwin D. De Vries

12. Life begets life, or biogenesis was stated by. A. Robert Koch B. Miller C. * Louis pasteur D. Lord Lister

13. The biologist who believed in the spontaneous creation of microorganisms was. A. Leuwenhoek B. * Needham C. Spllanzani D. Pasteur

14. Biochemical origin of life was discovered by. A. Haldane B. Muller C. * Oparin D. Darwin

15. The modern synthetic theory of organic evolution is a synthesis of theories proposed by. A. Lamarck and Darwin B. Lamarck and De Vries C. * Darwin and De Vries D. None of the above

16. Charles Darwin was influenced in his work by. A. Wallace B. Lamarck C. * Malthus D. Mendel

17. The Lamarckian theory of organic evolution is usually known as the theory of. A. Natural selection

B. * Inheritance of acquired characters C. Continuity of germ plasm D. Descent with change

18. Palaeontology is the study of. A. Birds B. Bones C. * Fossils D. Primates

19. The most primitive mammals are. A. Carnivorous B. Herbivorous C. Omnivorous D. * Insectivorous

20. Which organism probably arrived first in the world? A. * Algae B. Fungi C. Protozoa D. None of the above

21. Seymouria represents the transitional stage between. A. * Amphibians and reptiles B. Pisces and amphibians C. Reptiles and mammals D. Birds and mammals

22. Winter dormancy is. A. * Hibernation B. Aestivatio C. Papillation D. None of these

23. The theory, which advocates that living beings can arise only from other living beings is termed as. A. * Biogenesis B. Abiogenesis C. Catastrophism D. Cosmozoic

24. Sexual selection theory was propounded by. A. Wallace

B. De Vries C. Lamarck D. * Charles Darwin

25. Darwin’s theory of natural selection involves. A. Over reproduction B. Competition C. Survival of the fittest D. * All of these

26. The organisms that live inside alimentary canal are. A. * Symbionts B. Autotrophs C. Heterotrophs D. Saprotrophs

27. Spontaneous creation of living matter was proposed by. A. Darwin B. * Anaximenes C. Democritus D. Hutchinson

28. The biogenetic law was proposed by. A. Alfred Russel Wallace B. Charles Darwin C. * Ernest von Haeckel D. Lamarck

29. Who among the following has not championed the modern, synthetic theory of organic evolution? A. Julian Huxley B. T. Dobzanski C. G. L. Stebbins D. * De Vries

30. Hugo de Vries based his theory of mutation on observing the organism. A. Drosophila B. Pea plant C. * Oenothera D. Elephant

31. Origin of Species was published by. A. Lamarck

B. Weismann C. De Vries D. * Charles Darwin

32. The theory that cells arise from the pre-existing cells was proposed by. A. Nageli B. * Virchow C. Schleiden D. Muller

33. The vestiges of hind limbs are present in. A. Cobra B. Sea snake C. Krait D. * Python

34. The solenocytes of Platyhelminthe, the nephridium of Annelids and the kidneys of Vertebrates all have a similar function of excretion but differ in origin. They are said to be. A. * Analogous B. Homologous C. Adaptational

D. Vestigeal

35. The limbs of different mammals have evolved from a basic. A. * Pentadactyl plan B. Hexadactyl plan C. Bidactyl base D. Adactyl

36. A firm believer of Special Creation Theory was. A. Darwin B. Lamarck C. * Cuvier D. Linnaeus

37. The ship in which Darwin toured different parts of the world to collect data for his theory is known as HMS. A. Victoria B. * Beagle C. Alexander D. George

38. The golden age of dinosaurs was.

A. Palaeozoic B. Coenozoic C. * Mesozoic D. Proterozoic

39. The various organs of mouthparts used for bitting sucking chewing etc of insects though differ externally and in functions are built on the same basic plan and it is termed. A. Analogy B. * Homology C. Parallel evolution D. Isolation

40. Who considered evolution as due to mutation? A. Charles Darwin B. Lamarck C. * Hugo de Vries D. Wallace

41. Vestigeal organs are those which are. A. Fully formed and functional B. Much reduced but functional

C. * Much reduced and functionles D. Fully formed but functionaless

42. The theory of use and disuse was used to explain evolution by. A. * Lamarck B. Darwin C. De Vries D. Wallace

43. Vestigeal pelvic girdle and bones of hind limbs are characteristics of. A. * Whales B. Dolphins C. Seals D. Sharks

44. The first sign of life made its appearance on the Earth about. A. 1 million years ago B. 500 million years ago C. 1 billion 1000 million years ago D. * 3 billion years ago

45. Darwinism does not explain.

A. Progression B. Retrogression C. Usefulness of all organs D. * Presence of vestigeal organs

46. Animals belonging to different classes of Vertebrates have developed similar adaptational features to a particular type of habitat. This phenomenon in called. A. * Convergent evolution B. Adaptive radiation C. Mimicry D. Parallel evolution

47. In the last stage of chemical evolution. A. Nucleic acids were formed B. Nucleotides were formed C. * Nucleoproteins were formed D. Enzymes were formed

48. Abiogenesis was disproved by. A. * Spllanzani B. Muller

C. Darwin D. Cuvier

Chapter 11 Endocrine Glands

1. Injection of insulin causes. A. Increase in glucose in blood B. * Decrease in glucose in blood C. Increase in blood pressure D. Decrease in blood pressure

2. The hormone that is responsible for secondary sexual characters in the male is. A. Oestrogen B. Progesterone C. * Testosterone D. Prolactin

3. The output of urine is controlled by ADH (Anti Diuretic Hormone ) which is secreted by. A. Anterior lobe of pituitary B. * Posterior lobe of pituitary C. Intermediate lobe of pituitary

D. Thyroid gland

4. Which one of the endocrine glands is often referred to in discussing the AIDS disease? A. Thyroid B. * Thymus C. Pituitary D. Adrenals

5. The hormone insulin is secreted in the Islets of Langerhans of pancreas by the. A. x Cells B. * B Cells C. By the x and B cells D. Either x or B cells

6. The hormone which is popularly called as stress hormone is. A. * Epinephrine B. Cortisone C. Thyroxine D. Insulin

7. The androgens are.

A. * Male hormone B. Female hormone C. Enzymes D. Catalysts

8. Which hormone increases the blood glucose level by the formation of glucose from amino acids? A. * Glucagon B. Insulin C. Antidiuretic hormone D. Oxytocin

9. Which one of the following hormones if is administered, the young tadpoles metamorphise into premature frogs? A. Growth hormone B. Follicular stimulatinng hormone C. * Thyroxine D. Adrenaline

10. Insufficient dietary iodine causes a/an. A. Cretin B. Giant

C. * Enlarged thyroid D. Small thyroid

11. Diabetes is a disease which is. A. Contagious B. * Non-communicable C. Communicable D. Epidemic

12. The hormone secreted when one is frightened is. A. Pituitrin B. Thyroxine C. * Adernaline D. Parathormone

13. Hormones are carried from their place of production by. A. Ducts B. * Blood C. Lymph D. Mucus

14. The hormone that regulates blood pressure is _____ and it is secreted by

_____ A. Insulin pancreas B. Epinephrin, kidneys C. Thyroxine, thyroid D. * Adrenaline, adrenal glands

15. The endocrine glands secrete. A. * Hormones B. Enzymes C. Antibodies D. Neurohumor

16. Cretinism is due to the disorder of the glands. A. Thymus B. Parathyroid C. * Thyroid D. Adrenal

17. Goitre is a disease caused by the insufficient amount of. A. Mercury B. Iron

C. * lodine D. Magnesium

18. In case of a heart attack, a hormone is injected as an emergency measure Which one is it? A. Thyrexine B. Vasopressin C. * Heparin D. Insulin

19. The endocrine glands concerned with calcium metabolism are the. A. Pituitary B. * Parathyroids C. Thymus D. Cortex of suprarenals

20. Diabetes is caused by. A. * Fall in insulin level B. Increase in insulin level C. Eating too much sugar D. Decrease in glucose

21. Oxytocin is called the labour hormone because. A. It gives great strength B. It is found more in workers C. * It causes contraction of uterus D. It reduces energy

22. The blood pressure is controlled by the hormone. A. * Vasopressin B. Oxytocin C. Oestrogen D. Testosterone

23. One of the following is often called the Master Gland Which one is it? A. Thymus B. Islets of langerhans C. * Pituitary D. Thyroid

24. Which of the following is a substance abundantly available in the sea and administered in a certain deficiency disease? A. * lodine B. Iron

C. Vitamin A D. Flourine

25. Maintenance of pregnancy is under the control of. A. Follicular stimulating hormone B. Growth hormone C. Estrogen D. * Progesterone

26. The hormones that contains iodine is. A. Prolactin B. Vasopressin C. * Thyroxine D. Adrenaline

27. Because the cells of Islets of Langerhans are worn out completely, one would expect to find a. A. Low blood glucose level B. Normal blood glucoses level but high urine glucose level C. High blood glucose level but low urine glucose level D. * High blood glucose level and high urine glucose level

28. Somato Tropic Hormone is concerned with. A. * Body growth B. Metamorphosis C. Digestion D. Reproduction

29. Which of the following glands in the human body is popularly called. Adam’s Apple? A. Adrenal B. Liver C. * Thyroid D. Thymus

30. Which one of the endocrine glands disappears after puberty? A. Thyroid B. * Thymus C. Adrenals D. Pituitary

31. Which of the following glands acts both as endocrine and exocrine glands? A. * Pancreas

B. Thyroid C. Pituitary D. Adrenal

32. The expulsion of milk form the breast during suckling is brought about by. A. * Prolactin B. Oxytocin C. Vasopressin D. Estrogen and progesterone

33. Liver is considered as an endocrine gland because it produces. A. Antibodies B. * Bile C. Heparin D. Pigments

34. One of the following is called a feminine hormone. Which one is it? A. * Oestrogen B. Testosterone C. Pituitrin D. Thyroxine

35. Which hormone is secreted by intermediate lobe of pituitary gland? A. Somatotropin B. Thyrotropin C. * Melanocyte stimulating hormone D. Vasopressin

36. What is gastrin? A. * A hormone B. An enzyme C. Lymph D. Venous blood

37. Antidiuretic hormone is concerned with. A. Release of sugar from liver B. Reabsorption of glucose from uriniferous tubules C. * Reabsorption of water from uriniferous tubules D. Constriction of blood vessels in the skin

38. The gland that contains the body’s thermostat is. A. Pineal

B. Pituitary C. Thyroid D. * Hypothalamus

39. The continued growth of the graafian follicle and its correlated rising estrogen output, ultimately bring about a. 1. 2. 3. 4.

Sharp rise in FSH Sharp rise in FSH Sharp rise in LH Sharp fall in LH

A. 1 and 2 are correct B. * 2 and 3 are correct C. 1 and 3 are correct D. 2 and 4 are correct

40. Insulin is concerned with the metabolism of. A. * Sugar B. Fats C. Proteins D. Vitamins

Chapter 12 Cell Biology

1. The amount of DNA present in cell. A. * Increases sharply during the period just before B. Is at constant level during the life of the cell C. Continues to increase during mitosis D. Increases immediately after mitosis is completed

2. Granum is a component of. A. * Chloroplasts B. Golgi apparatus C. Ribosomes D. Starch grains

3. Endoplasmic reticulum is bound by. A. Cellulose B. * Membranes C. Sclerotised layer D. Chitinised wall

4. DNA is found. A. Only in cytoplasm B. Only in nucleus C. * In both cytoplasm D. In hybrid form only

5. Dr. Khorana’s work relates to. A. Synthesis of simple DNA B. Genetic code C. Reduction of mutation D. * Synthesis of RNA from bacterial cell

6. All of the following are constituents of RNA molecule, expect. A. Adenine B. Guanine C. * Thymine D. Uracil

7. Cellular component can be physically separated from each other by. A. * Centrifugation

B. Radioactive tracers C. Microscopy D. Chromatography

8. A particular cell organelle is sometimes referred to as the suicide bag, because it contains certain enzymes (acid hydrolase)that can break down the cell components or even the whole cell. Which one of the following is such an organelle? A. * Lysosome B. Mesosome C. Phagosome D. Ribosome

9. Within the cell, the site of respiration is the. A. Golgi bodies B. Ribosomes C. * Mitochondria D. Nucleus

10. (A) Louis Pasteur (1) DNA (B) Walter Flemming (2) Life begets life (C) Watson and Crick (3) Lysosome

(D) Christian Duve

(4) Mitosis

A. * A − 2,B − 4,C − 1,D − 3 B. A − 3,B − 2,C − 1,D − 4 C. A − 2,B − 1,C − 3,D − 4 D. A − 2,B − 3,C − 1,D − 4

11. Nuclear membrane is absent in. A. * Prokaryotes B. Eukaryotes C. Protozoans D. All of the above

12. The protoplasm of a child is exactly the same as that of its. A. Mother B. Father C. Grandfather D. * Identical twin

13. The smallest size of a cell, which can be seen directly by the eye is. A. One micron B. 10 micron

C. * 100 micron D. 1000 micron

14. The exchange of chromosomal segments between maternal and paternal chromatids during meiosis is known as. A. Pairing B. Chromosomal mutation C. Linkage D. * Crossing over

15. At which stage, mobilisation of materials takes place during mitosis? A. * Interphase B. Prophase C. Metaphase D. Anaphase

16. A prokaryote is. A. A single-celled organism An organism locking B. A hard and stony fruit C. * membrane bound nucleus in its cells D. multicellular organism

17. The cell that lacks a nucleus is. A. Flame cell B. Spermatozoan C. * Red blood corpuscles in man D. White blood corpuscles

18. In human body, the longest cell is. A. Liver cell B. Muscle cell C. Reproductive cell D. * Nerve cell

19. The body cells of both plants and animals divide mitotically to produce identical cells. The stage at which the chromosomes are aligned exactly in the middle of the spindle, each attached to the spindle fibres (microtubule) is called. A. Prophase B. * Metaphase C. Anaphase D. Interphase

20. In complex plants, the formation of spores takes place by. A. Amitosis

B. Mitosis C. * Meiosis D. Plasma membrane

21. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List(I) (A) Cell Theory (B) Theory of Natural Selection (C) One gene on enzyme hypothesis (D) Chemiosmotic hypothesis A. A − 2,B − 3,C − 4,D − 1 B. A − 3,B − 4,C − 1,D − 2 C. * A − 3,B − 4,C − 2,D − 1 D. A − 4,B − 1,C − 2,D − 3

22. The powerhouse of a cell is the. A. Plastid B. Chloroplast C. Golgi apparatus D. * Mitochondrion

List(II) (1)P. Mitchell (2) Beadle and Tatum (3)Schleiden and Schwann (4) C. Darwin

23. The division of nucleus is called. A. * Karyokinesis B. Cytokinesis C. Meiosis D. Crossing over

24. Quantosomes are present in. A. * Thylakoid membrane B. Palisade tissue of mesophy ll C. Spongy tissue of mesophy II D. Mitochondria

25. Lysosomes were discovered by. A. Palade B. Porter C. * Dedave D. De Vries

26. During which period of cell cycle does a centriole become a centrosome? A. Prophase B. Metaphase

C. Anaphase D. * Telophase

27. In the plant cells, golgi complex is scattered in the cytoplasm in the form of small vesicles called. A. Lysosmes B. Oxysomes C. * Dictyosomes D. Ribosomes

28. Meischer discovered. A. RNA B. DNA C. Nucleus D. * Nucleic acids

29. Match the following (A) William Seifriz (B) Flemming and Kollicker (C) Camillo Golgi (D) Porter Palade and Thomson A. A − 4,B − 2,C − 3,D − 1

(1) Golgi bodies (2) Endoplasmic reticulum (3) Plasma membrane (4) Mitochondria

B. A − 2,B − 3,C − 4,D − 1 C. A − 3,B − 2,C − 1,D − 4 D. * A − 3,B − 4,C − 1,D − 2

30. Who first observed the plasma membrane? A. * William Seifriz B. Schwann C. Palade D. None of the above

31. In meiotic prophase, the synapsis of chromosomes occurs at the stage of. A. Leptotene B. * Zygotene C. Pachytene D. Diplotene

32. Cell sap is. A. * A dilute solution of minerals and some organic substances in the vacuole B. A dilute solution of minerals in water absorbed by the plant from the soil C. Exudate from the cell D. None of the above

33. The primary energy for living organisms is. A. * Solar energy B. Chemical energy C. ATP D. Mitochondria

34. A mitochondria possesses a. A. Single membrane B. * Double membrane C. Three layered membrane D. Four layered membrane

35. Chromosomes are principally composed of. A. Proteins B. RNA C. DNA D. * DNA and proteins

36. A crosome in a sperm is secreted by. A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Mitochondria

C. * Golgi bodies D. Centrioles

37. Haploid chromosome number is not seen in. A. * Primary spermatocytes B. Spermatids C. Sperms D. Spermatids and sperms

38. Red pigment is found in. A. Nucleoplasm B. Mitochondria C. Choloroplasts D. * Cell sap in vacuoles of the leaf

39. Vacuoles are bound by a definite membrane in plant cells called. A. Plasma membrane B. * Tonoplast C. Cell wall D. None of the above

40. Chromosomes are concerned with.

A. Respiration B. Assimilation C. Growth of the body D. * Transmission of hereditary characters

41. The spores formed by the zygospore of rhizopus is by. A. Amitosis B. * Meiosis C. Mitosis D. Budding

42. The DNA is a double helix was proposed by. A. De Robertis B. Griffith C. Hershey and chase D. * Watson Crick

43. The electron transport chain is in the. A. Nucleus B. Outer membrane of mitochondria C. * Inner membrane of mitochondria

D. Lysosomes

44. Who was the first scientist to use an instrument for biological studies in 1665? A. * Robert Hooke B. Schwann C. Schleiden D. None of the above

45. The cell theory of Schleiden states that. A. Cells reproduce by mitosis or meiosis B. All cells have nuclei C. * Cells are the ultimate units forming the structure of all plant tissues D. Cells arise only from pre-existing cells

46. Which of the protoplasm of a child is a physical basics of life. A. Nucleus B. Ribosome C. * Protoplasm D. Mitochondria

47. The quality and number of chromosomes remain unchanged in.

A. Meiosis B. Amitosis C. * Mitosis D. All of these

48. The period between two divisions, that is the resting phase of a cell, is referred to as. A. * Interphase B. Prophase C. Metaphase D. Telophase

49. Cell membrane is. A. Permeable B. * Selectively permeable C. Semipermeable D. Impermeable

50. Plant cells can usually be distinguished because only plant cells possess. A. Cell walls and mitochondria B. Golgi bodies and central vacuoles C. * Cell walls and central vacuoles

D. Chromosomes and mitochondria

51. Mitosis actually means. A. Division of cytoplasm only B. Division of nucleus only C. Reduction in number of chromosomes D. * Both nuclear and cytoplasmic division

52. Which of the following is not a constituent of DNA molecule? A. Adenine B. Cytosine C. Thymine D. * Uracil

53. The function of a cell wall is. A. To give definite shape to the cell B. To provide mechanical C. To prevent the cell from desiccation D. * All of the above

54. The cells that make up neurilemma nerve tissue are. A. Epithelial cells

B. Connective tissues C. * Schwann cells D. Erythrocytes

55. The process of the division of somatic cells of an organism is called. A. Cytokinesis B. Karyokinesis C. Meiosis D. * Mitosis

56. Nucleus was first discovered by. A. Porter B. * Robert Brown C. Palade D. None of the above

57. What controls the entry and exit of molecules in a cell? A. Nucleus B. Ribosomes C. DNA D. * Plasma membrane

58. Depending upon their structure and function lysosomes are categorized into. A. Once type only B. Two types C. * Three types D. Four types

59. The theory that all animals and plants are made up of cells and they could arise only from pre-existing cells was propounded by. A. Robert Hooke B. * Matthias Schleiden and Theodore Schwann C. Purkinje D. Leuwenhoek

60. Most plant and animal cells are similar in some respects since they both have in common. A. Cytoplasm and cellulose B. Cytoplasm and contractile C. * Cytoplasm and nucleus D. Membrane and cell wall

61. The DNA bases are.

A. Adenine, cytosine uracil guanine B. * Adenine, cytosine guanine, thymine C. Uracil, adenine, cytosine thymine D. Guanine thymine, uracil, adenine

62. (A) Purkinje (B) Schleiden and Schwann (C) Leuwenhoek (D) Cinchona officinalis

(1) Cell theory (2) Microscope (3) Quinine (4) Protoplasm

A. A − 3,B − 1,C − 4,D − 2 B. * A − 4,B − 1,C − 2,D − 3 C. A − 4,B − 2,C − 1,D − 3 D. A − 1,B − 2,C − 3,D − 4

63. All higher plants and animals, including man, were a single cell in their earliest life history. This cell. the gygote undergoes repeated divisions to produce all the body cells of the organism which are identical to start with. This process of division is called. A. Amitosis B. Cytokmesis C. Meiosis

D. * Mitosis

64. Autophagy is the function of. A. Ribosomes B. * Lysosomes C. Centrosomes D. Mitochondria

65. The cytoplasm of a cell refers to. A. * Protoplasm outside the cell nucleus B. Protoplasm within the cell nucleus C. Protoplasm within and outside the nucleus D. Peripheral within the cell nucleus

66. Reverse transcription was first of all discovered by. A. Watson B. Crick C. * Temin D. Porter

67. The wonder pigment chlorophyll is present in. A. Mitochondria

B. Centrosomes C. * Quantosomes D. Lysosomes

68. The cell that is concerned with excretion and osmoregulation is. A. * Flame cell B. Chromatophores C. Nematoblast D. None of these

69. Who invented the electron microscope? A. * Knoll and Ruska B. Rudolk and Kolliker C. Robert Hooke D. C. P. Swanson

70. The thin layer that forms a common layer for any two adjacent cells is. A. * Middle lamella B. Primary wall C. Secondary wall D. None of the above

71. Which of the following plays a on important part in photosynthesis? A. * Chloroplast B. Centrosome C. Tonoplast D. Nematoblast

72. The use of which of the following devices has given the modern biologist a better insight into the internal structure of cells. A. Computer B. * Electron microscope C. Spectrophotometer D. Ultracentrifuge

73. The first person to observe the bacteria, protozoa and spermatozoa under the microscope was. A. Theodore B. Matthias Schleiden C. Robert Hooke D. * Leuwenhoek

74. The protein synthesis takes place in. A. * Ribosomes

B. Chromosomes C. DNA D. None of these

75. Nucleus was discovered by. A. Robert Brown B. Robert I looke C. Leuwenhoek D. * Fontana

76. For a cell to divide, it is essential that its DNA is replicated so that each daughter cell gets an identical DNA. This replication occurs during. A. Prophase B. Metaphase C. Telophase D. * Interphase

77. The main function of plasma membrane is to. A. Control all cellular activities B. Store cell material C. Maintain the cell shape and size D. * Regulate the flow of material into and outside the wall

78. The pairing of homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis is called. A. Crossing over B. Syngamy C. * Synapsis D. Syngenesis

79. The plasma membrane in animal cell is composed of. A. Cellulose B. Proteins C. * Lipids and proteins D. Fats

80. Waldeyer gave the name. A. Microsome B. * Chromosome C. Ribosome D. Lysosome

81. Which one of the following is not a correct pairing of structure and function?

A. * Golgi complex-Breakdown of complex molecules B. Mitochondria -Producing energy C. Chromosomes-Vehicles of heredity D. Chloroplast-Photosynthesis

Chapter 13 Units, Abbreviations, Inventions & Discoveries

1. For measuring the relative humidity in atmosphere, _____ is used. A. Hygroscope B. * Hygrometer C. Keratometer D. None of these

2. Aeroplane was invented by Wright Brothers in. A. * 1903 B. 1906 C. 1907 D. 1913

3. For hearing and analyzing the sound of heart and lungs, _____ is used. A. Stereoscope B. Telemeter C. * Stethoscope D. Stethometer

4. The unit of electric current is. A. Kelvin B. * Ampere C. Candela D. None of these

5. Which of the following is the unit of distance (usually between planets and stars)? A. Angstorm B. Astronomical unit C. * Light year D. None of these

6. What is meant by RNA? A. * Ribonucleic Acid B. Radiation Nucleic Acid C. Ribonucleic Agency D. Radiation-nucleic Association

7. What is meant by WBC? A. * White Blood Cell

B. World Basketball Company C. White Board Cell D. None of these

8. Manometer is used to measure pressure of. A. Air B. Liquids C. Magnates D. * Gases

9. LPG stands for. A. Liquid per Gram B. Leg Pads and Gloves C. * Liquified Petroleum Gas D. Liquified Pressare Gas

10. Which instrument is used for measuring viscosity? A. * Viscometer B. Viscoscale C. Visco guage D. Commutator

11. Mole is the unit of. A. * Substance B. Current C. Temperature D. Intensity

12. For measuring small sub divisions of scale, which instrument is used? A. Vernier scale B. Vernier guage C. * Vernier caliper D. Vernier meter

13. Daimler invented _____ in 1885. A. Motor AC B. Motor DC C. Nylon D. * Motorcycle

14. For measuring the relative density of milk, _____ is used. A. Milkoscope B. Milkometer

C. * Lactometer D. Glucometer

15. _____ is used to measure degree of sensation of skin. A. Altimeter B. Ammeter C. * Algesimeter D. None of these

16. Goodard invented _____ in 1926. A. Search light B. * Rocket engine C. Rifle D. Bakelite

17. AM means. A. After Marriage B. Arithmetic Memory C. * Amplitude Modulation D. After Memory

18. RAM means.

A. Read After Memory B. * Random Access Memory C. Random Access Memory D. Read After Marriage

19. _____ is used to measure rainfalls. A. Rain-meter B. * Rain-guage C. Salinometer D. Quadrant

20. Metre is the unit of. A. Mass B. * Length C. Balance D. Distance

21. Hydrometer is used to determine relative density of. A. Water B. Milk C. * Liquids

D. Gasoline

22. Roentgen discovered _____ in 1895. A. Insulin B. Neutron C. Proton D. * X-rays

23. _____ is used for spectrum analysis. A. Spectruant B. Spectrometer C. Spectro guage D. * Spectroscope

24. _____ is used to measure potential difference between two points. A. Telemeter B. Anemometer C. Salinometer D. * Voltmeter

25. CNG stands for. A. Chloro N’itro Gas

B. * Compressed Natural Gas C. Compressed Nitrogen Gasoline D. Complete New Gas

26. The unit of time is. A. Gram B. Ton C. * Kilogram D. Volume

27. Coulomb is the unit of. A. Electric resistance B. * Electric charge C. Electric conductance D. Electric capacitance

28. Schonbein discovered _____ ozone in. A. 1822 B. 1844 C. * 1840 D. 1848

29. What is meant by VHF? A. Very Hot Frequency B. Very Hot Force C. Very Heavy Frequency D. * Very High Force

30. Which is the unit of power? A. * Watt B. Newton C. Kelvin D. Joule

31. Which of the following is used to measure small distances or angles? A. Anglometer B. * Micrometer C. Micro guage D. None of these

32. ROM means. A. Read On Memory B. Read Only Modulation

C. * Read Only Memory D. Radiation Only Mean

33. CAD stands for. A. * Computer Aided Design B. Community Aided Design C. Complete Aid Data D. Complete After Design

34. _____ is used to measure temperature. A. * Thermometer B. Thermoscope C. Pyrometer D. Sextant

35. SOS means. A. Sample Of Statues B. Series Of Schools C. Save Our State D. * Save Our Souls

36. The inventor of telephone is.

A. Dupont B. Morse C. * Graham Bell D. Galileo

37. The unit of time is. A. Year B. Hour C. Minute D. * Second

38. Who invented Galvanometer in 1820? A. Geiger B. * Sweigger C. Larson D. Sturgeon

39. The international system of units is based on _____ fundamental units. A. * 7 B. 4 C. 3

D. 5

40. Seismograph is used to record intensity and source of. A. Thunderstorm B. * Earthquakes C. Pulse D. Heart beat

41. Calculus was discovered in 1670 by. A. Harvey B. Judson C. * Newton D. Thomson

42. Barometer is used to measure. A. Atmospheric condition B. * Atmospheric pressure C. Temperature D. Atmospheric speed

43. Chronometer is a clock used to measure longitude of vessel over. A. * Sea

B. Land C. Earth D. All of these

44. Who invented penicillin in 1829? A. Alexander Swinton B. * Alexander Fleming C. Stanley D. Pascal

45. ECG means. A. Electric Cell Gas B. * Electro Cardiogram C. Electro Colouring Gas D. Electro Cardio Gas

46. Which of the following is used to measure velocity of wind? A. Altimeter B. Skinmometer C. Ammeter D. * Anemometer

47. Television was invented by Baird in. A. * 1923 B. 1925 C. 1926 D. 1928

48. Which of the following is used to compare magnetic moments and fields? A. * Magnetometer B. Magnetoscope C. Magnets D. Magnet guage

49. Radio was invented by Marconi in. A. 1898 B. 1901 C. * 1895 D. 1892

50. Newton is the unit of. A. Pressure B. * Force

C. Power D. Stress

Chapter 14 Physics

1. While in orbit, all occupants of a spacecraft become. A. Emotional B. Static C. * Weightless D. Very heavy

2. The relationship between volume and temperature is given by. A. * Charl’s Law B. Ohm Law C. Pressure Law D. Gas Law

3. Which theory is based on the idea that gases consist of atoms or molecules moving rapidly rapidly in all directions? A. Pressure law B. Universal gas law C. * Kinetic theory of gases

D. Kinetic theory of energy

4. Some solids do not melt when heated under normal conditions, instead they change directly from the solid to the gaseous state. This phenomenon is called. A. External pressure B. Atmospheric pressure C. Oxidation D. * Sublimation

5. The angular of a rotating object is the angle through which it moves per unit. A. Length B. Area C. Density D. * Time

6. Give the formula of ordinary water. A. * H2 O B. O2 H C. H4 O D. HO 2

7. _____ is a unit of power. A. Pound B. Joule C. Coloumb D. * Horse power

8. _____ is a turning force, the rotational analogue of normal force in linear motion. A. Inertia B. * Torque C. Angular acceleration D. Momentum

9. _____ is defined as the emission of alpha, particles beta particles or gamma rays by disintegration of nuclei of certain unstable elements. A. Quark B. * Radioactivity C. Fusion D. Radiation

10. The inter-atomic or inter-molecular forces that hold togcther the atoms or molecules within a solid is called. A. Condensation

B. Gravity C. Adhesion D. * Cohesion

11. Conduction is the flow of heat through a. A. Gas B. Metal C. Body D. * Solid

12. _____ are more likely to be affected by lightning due to closeness with charges in the clouds. A. Schools B. Hospitals C. Small cottages D. * Tall buildings

13. The nuclear firebox is smaller than an average. A. Hours B. Farm house C. * Living room D. Baby room

14. Heat spreads through liquids and gases mainly by. A. Conduction B. Radiation C. * Convection D. Conversion

15. There are _____ basic products of a nuclear reprocessing plant. A. 5 B. 4 C. 2 D. * 3

16. Angular displacement is angle on a circle traversed by an object and is shown by. A. * Q B. A C. D D. A. D

17. _____ is defined as the ability to do work. A. * Energy

B. Motion C. Power D. Direction

18. _____ is not a conductor of heat. A. Wood B. Cloth C. Water D. * Vacuum

19. In a body that moves in a circular path around a central point, the force that acts away from the centre is called. A. * Centrifugal force B. Rotational force C. Moving force D. Attracting force

20. Reflection in all types of mirrors is governed by _____ principal laws. A. * 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

21. Substances can be broken down into molecules and molecules can be broken down into. A. Smaller cells B. Electrons C. Protons D. * Atoms

22. _____ is mainly due to salts of calcium particularly the soluble bicarbonates fromed by the action of rain water and carbon dioxide from air on limestone. A. Freshness of air B. Hardness of air C. Freshness of water D. * Hardness of water

23. Pure _____ have precise melting and boiling points, fixed temperatures at which they change from one state to another. A. * Substances B. Solids C. Metals D. Mixtures

24. What is called an abbreviation for the name of an element consisting of first letter or first two letters of its name? A. Isotope B. Atomic number C. * Symbol D. Property

25. When two substances are mixed together and they react with each other chemically then a _____ is formed. A. Molecule B. Mass C. * Compound D. Isotope

26. In a body that moves in a circular path around a central point the force that acts toward the centre and keeps the body at a constant distance from the centre is called. A. Objectional force B. Circular force C. Centrifugal force D. * Centripetal force

27. When a pure _____ is heated its temperature rises unit it is at its melting point an additional quantity of heat causes it to melt.

A. Metal B. Mineral C. * Solid D. Gas

28. The neutron is the particle with no electric charge, whereas the proton has a. A. Triple positive charge B. Double positive charge C. * Single positive charge D. No positive charge

29. The matter in all three phases (solid, liquid, and gas)is composed of tiny particles, called _____ which are continuously in motion. A. * Molecules B. Atoms C. Nuclei D. Electrons

30. Name the instrument to measure the temperature of an object. A. Barometer B. * Thermometer

C. Celsiusmeter D. Kelvinmeter

31. The action which changes the state of rest or uniform motion of a body is called. A. * Force B. Motion C. Retardation D. Momentum

32. In 1662, Robert Boyle experimented with the relationship between pressure and. A. Gas B. Energy C. Liquid D. * Volume

33. During winter season when snow falls, _____ is spread on the roads, that lowers the freezing point and thus snow does not make ice on the road and the road remains open for safe traffic. A. Topaz B. Clay C. Sugar

D. * Salt

34. How much the nucleus of an atom is smaller than that of the atom? A. 2, 000 times B. * 10, 00 times C. 1, 000 times D. 5, 000 times

35. _____ of light is a change in direction that a ray of light undergoes when it posses from a transparent medium of one density into another medium of a different density. A. Defraction B. Reflection C. * Refraction D. Depression

36. Ohm is the SI unit of electrical. A. Conductivity B. * Resistance C. Hardness D. Flow

37. In how many modes, heat transfer can take place?

A. 2 B. 4 C. * 3 D. 5

38. Hardness of a material depends on attraction between molecules or atoms of the. A. * Material B. Elastic bodies C. Mineral D. Substance

39. Current electricity is the continuous flow of charges usually electrons or ions, through a. A. Capacitor B. Battery C. * Conductor D. Prism

40. Nuclear energy is produced when the _____ of atoms change either by splitting apart or joining together. A. Protons B. Electrons

C. Neutrons D. * Nuclei

41. Dry ice has a temperature of. ∘

A. -76 c ∘

B. -89 c ∘

C. * -79 c ∘

D. -82 c

42. The _____ colour of the sky results from a phenomenon called scattering. A. Red B. White C. * Blue D. Yellow

43. Metals conduct heat well because of their. A. * Atomic structure B. Size C. Nature D. Volume

44. There are _____ physical states of matter.

A. * 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5

45. Which bomb was dropped on Nagasaki on August 9, 1945? A. Atomic bomb B. * Plutonium bomb C. Radon bomb D. Hydrogen bomb

46. Which coloured surface absorbs all light? A. Grey B. Blue C. * Perfectly black D. White

47. Which is the softest material? A. Gypsum B. Graphite C. Topaz

D. * Talc

48. A _____ is defined as a device for applying or transmitting mechanical power. A. Lever B. Pulley C. * Machine D. Gravity

49. Mohs is the unit of hardness of a. A. Resistance B. Material C. * Solid D. Water

50. _____ energy consists of moving waves of _____ pressure in medium such as air water or metal. A. Chemical B. Physical C. * Sound D. Radiant

51. A rainbow is always an are of a.

A. Line B. Perpendicular C. Right angle D. * Circle

52. Physics deals with properties of matter forces and energy and their various. A. * Interactions B. Properties C. Relation D. None of these

53. _____ is the chemical decomposition that some substances undergo when an electric current passes through them. A. Electroplating B. Hydrolysis C. Photoelectric D. * Electrolysis

54. The temperature at which a solid melts into a liquid is called the _____ point of that solid. A. Freezing B. * Melting

C. Boiling D. Condensation

55. When radioactivity was discovered by Marie Curie? A. * 1898 B. 1896 C. 1902 D. 1904

56. Name the hardest material which is widely used in industry for grinding and drilling. A. Silver B. * Diamond C. Gold D. Quartz

57. Which animal has no sweat glands? A. Cat B. * Dog C. Rat D. Monkey

58. Potential energy is due to the _____ of an object. A. Direction B. Power C. * Position D. Motion

59. Capillary Action is caused by the surface tension of the. A. * Liquid B. Solid C. Water D. Gas

60. Sound waves with frequencies lower than the lowest limits of human hearing are called. A. Echosonic waves B. * Infrasonic waves C. Supersonic waves D. None of these

61. A prism is a triangular block of glass or. A. * Plastic B. Wood

C. Iron D. Silver

62. Velocity of a particle is defined as the rate of change of displacement with. A. Direction B. Speed C. Acceleration D. * Time

∘

63. Water expands from 4 c to. ∘

A. 2 c ∘

B. 5 c ∘

C. * 0 c ∘

D. -4 c

64. A liquid becomes a gas or vapour by increasing the. A. Velocity B. Acceleration C. Speed D. * Temperature-evaporation

65. The ultrasonic waves are inaudible to. A. Animals B. Insects C. * Humans D. Reptiles

66. In solids and liquids the molecules move relatively _____ and interact with each other strongly. A. Fastly B. More fastly C. * Slowly D. More slowly

67. The weight of a body is the downward force exerted by an object resulting from it being acted on by the force of. A. * Gravity B. Molecules C. Work D. Atoms

68. Pressure is defined as the force per unit. A. * Area

B. Volume C. Length D. Density

69. All the objects in the world are formed by various combinations of. A. Atoms B. Molecules C. Substances D. * Elements

70. Which electricity can be produced by rubbing an insulating material such as a polyethylene rod with a dry cloth? A. Electromagnetic B. * Static C. Materialistic D. Condensed

71. _____ is defined as the force acting on a material divided by area over which the force is applied. A. Elasticity B. * Stress C. Half life

D. Strength

72. Conduction and convection of heat is possible only with the movement of molecules and. A. * Atoms B. Fluids C. Gases D. Electrons

73. Name the branch of physics which deals with the ways in which object behave when they are acted on by forces. A. Mechanics B. * Dynamics C. Kinematics D. Thermodynamics

74. A thermostat is a device used in refrigerators and air conditioners to maintain a constant. A. * Temperature B. Heat C. Volume D. Nature

75. _____ solids do not have crystalline structure. A. Regular B. Dimensional C. True D. * Amorphous

76. Resistance is the property of a _____ that causes it to resist the flow of electric current. A. * Substance B. Current C. Energy D. Power

77. The pressure o the air around us is known as. A. Simple pressure B. Double pressure C. Vacuum pressure D. * Atmospheric

78. _____ is done when a force makes an object move. A. * Work B. Distance

C. Negative work D. Power

79. _____ in liquids is produced the inter-molecular forces between the liquid molecules in the surface. A. Spherical tension B. Cohesion C. * Surface tension D. Molecular tension

80. Light travels at different velocities in mediums of different. A. Speeds B. * Densities C. Directions D. Surfaces

81. Who was the first to formulate the law of gravitation? A. Kepler B. * Newton C. Einstein D. Charles

82. Density of an object is the mass of object per unit. A. Area B. * Volume C. Length D. Work

83. Graham law states that the rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its. A. Pressure B. * Density C. Volume D. All of these

84. The vapours above a liquid have a pressure called. A. * Vapour pressure B. Gaseous pressure C. Liquid pressure D. Absolute pressure

85. When a _____ is heated up, the kinetic energy of its atoms or molecules increases. A. Gas

B. Liquid C. * Solid D. Matter

86. Matter that has gained or lost some electric charge has. A. Kinetic energy B. * Electric energy C. Vibrational energy D. Electrostatic energy

87. Red, blue and green are considered to be the. A. Secondary colours B. * Primary colours C. Beautiful colours D. Natural colours

88. Which cell gradually uses up the chemical fuel it contains and cannot be recharged? A. Dry cell B. * Primary cell C. Secondary cell D. Electrical cell

89. Some washing powders contain _____ compounds called optical brightness that makes fabrics appear brighter and cleaner. A. phosphorescence B. * Fluorescence C. Luminescence D. All of these

90. _____ is the smallest particle that can represent a particular chemical element. A. Electron B. * Atom C. Nuclei D. Cell

91. True solids have definite. A. Shape B. * Crystalline structure C. Nature D. Volume

92. Most lasers in use today are _____ lasers.

A. Simple B. Light C. Tube D. * Gas

93. Name the from of energy that is possessed by all material things. A. Condensation B. * Heat C. Cold D. Wavelength

94. Artificial radioactivity can be induced by bombarding a nucleus with high velocity. A. Protons B. Electrons C. * Neutrons D. Nuclei

95. There are _____ types of mirrors. A. 2 B. * 3 C. 4

D. 5

96. Name the basic theory that explains that energy is not continuous but is composed of indivisible quanta. A. Visible theory B. Invisible theory C. Simple theory D. * Quantum theory

97. The hydrogen atom has _____ protons in its nucleus. A. No B. Two C. Three D. * One

98. _____ is defined as quantity of matter in an object. A. Energy B. Solution C. * Mass D. Density

99. A substance in which all the atoms have the same atomic number is called.

A. Solid B. * Element C. Atomic mass D. Plasma

100. What is formed when two substances are mixed together and they do not react chemically. A. Isotope B. * Mixture C. Energy D. Solution

Chapter 15 Human Physiology & Anatomy

1. What is the average diameter of an adult eyeball? A. 3. 5 cm B. * 2. 5 cm C. 2. 0 cm D. 3. 0 cm

2. Which is the largest part of the brain? A. * Cerebrum B. Frontal Lobe C. Occipetal Lobe D. Parietal Lobe

3. Which system protects the delicate organs and tissues of the body? A. Nervous system B. Productive system C. Digestive system D. * Skeletal system

4. How many bones a human skeletal system contains? A. 216 B. 210 C. 208 D. * 206

5. Minerals and non-living matter make up _____ of a bone’s mass. A. Three-fourth B. One-fourth C. One-third D. * Two-third

6. The brain weighs about _____ grams in an adult. A. 1000 B. 1200 C. 1500 D. * 1300

7. The esophagus is a short tube between the lower pharynx (throat) and the. A. * Stomach

B. Heart C. Liver D. Kidney

8. _____can be damaged by sharp objects like matches, toothpicks, hairpins and nails etc. A. * Hearing B. Ear C. Eardrum D. Cochlea

9. An adult mouth contains_____ teeth. A. 20 B. 34 C. 30 D. * 32

10. The living matter of bones includes bone cells, blood vessels and _____. A. Flesh B. Tissues C. * Nerves D. Genes

11. In the inner ear is a chamber called the. A. Eardrum B. Ear membrane C. * Cochlea D. Eustachian tube

12. Of what kind, the drug penicillin is? A. Anesthetic B. Antipyretic C. Analgesic D. * Antibiotic

13. Muscles make up _____ percent of the human body’s mass. A. * 40 to 50 B. 50 to 70 C. 50 to 60 D. 50 to 65

14. _____ is like the film in a camera. A. Image

B. Sclera C. * Retina D. Cornea

15. Bone is one of the hardest_____ in the body. A. Parts B. * Tissues C. Hormones D. Muscles

16. A strain is a _____ injury which is caused by over exerting a muscle. A. Tissue B. * Muscle C. Bone D. Blood

17. Which one of the following is used to break down food and release energy. A. Chlorine B. Carbon dioxide C. * Oxygen D. Fresh air

18. Which part of the tooth gives sensation of hot or cold? A. Artery B. * Nerve C. Vein D. Lymph duct

19. Major veins have valves while arteries have _____ valves. A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. * No

20. How many parts an ear have? A. 2 B. * 3 C. 4 D. 5

21. Most absorption occurs in the long narrow, small. A. Stomach

B. Mouth C. Gall bladder D. * Intestine

22. Lungs heart, liver and brain are. A. Hard tissues B. * Soft tissues C. Moderate tissues D. None of these

23. The long deep sleep of animals is called. A. Migration B. * Hibernation C. Estivation D. None of these

24. The muscles of the heart are called. A. Smooth muscles B. Voluntary muscles C. * Cardiac muscles D. Striated muscles

25. Each kidney weighs about _____ grams. A. 80 B. 100 C. 120 D. * 140

26. The liver lies adjacent to the. A. Kidney B. Gall Bladder C. Lungs D. * Stomach

27. No image is formed on. A. * Blind spot B. Conjunctiva C. Cornea D. Sclera

28. Name the region where two bones meet. A. Ligament B. * Joint

C. Muscle D. None of these

29. About _____ blood filtration units, or nephrons, are packed into each kidney. A. 2 million B. Half million C. * 1 million D. 3 million

30. Name the longest and strongest bone in the body. A. Shin B. Tibia C. * Thigh D. Fibula

31. There are _____ types of bone tissues. A. * 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

32. Arteries carry blood in a direction away from the. A. Liver B. Lungs C. * Heart D. Gall bladder

33. Arteries have thick elastic _____. A. Cells B. * Walls C. Hormones D. Blood

34. Which bones are called long bones? A. Hip and leg B. Arm and brain C. * Leg and arm D. Hip and arm

35. Which is the outermost tissues of skin? A. * Epidermis B. Dermis

C. Subcutaneous tissue D. None of these

36. Human ear can detect from 30 to _____ vibrations per second. A. 300 B. 10, 000 C. 15, 000 D. * 20, 000

37. Which is 2nd largest brain part? A. Occipetal Lobe B. * Cerebellum C. Temporal Lobe D. Pons Varolii

38. The skeleton can be divided into _____ sections. A. * 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

39. The filtered blood is brought by the renal artery and removed by renal

veins. A. Bladder B. * Kidneys C. Gall bladder D. Liver

40. The filtered blood is brought by the renal artery and removed by renal minute. A. 15 to 20 B. 20 to 30 C. * 12 to 25 D. 25 to 35

41. The crusting and softening of food in the mouth is called. A. Saliva B. Absorption C. * Mastication D. None of these

42. The eyeball has _____ layers. A. 2 B. * 3

C. 4 D. 5

43. Medulla is the _____ part of the brain. A. Third largest B. Strongest C. * Smallest D. Softest

44. Name the process by which the body takes in oxygen and releases carbon dioxide. A. Breathing B. Inhalation C. Exhalation D. * Respiration

45. Where does the absorption of water and salts take place? A. Small intestine B. * Largo intestine C. Kidney D. Bladder

46. The weight of liver is about. A. * 2 kg B. 1 kg C. 3 kg D. 4 kg

47. The retina of eye and film of camera are sensitive to. A. Liquid B. Sound C. Airy dust D. * Light

48. Animals eat, sleep hunt and exercise at certain times of. A. The season B. The life C. The year D. * The day

49. Eye movements are made possible by _____ muscles. A. * 6 B. 4

C. 2 D. 3

50. Which system includes the heart, the blood and three types of blood vessels? A. Digestive system B. * Circulatory system C. Excretory system D. Respiratory system

51. An adult person’s skin weighs about_____ kilograms. A. 2. 5 B. 3. 5 C. * 2. 7 D. 3. 2

52. Intense pain is a symptom of. A. Blood strain B. Bone strain C. * Muscle strain D. Flesh strain

53. The minerals that harden bone contain the following elements. A. Carbon B. * Calcium C. Manganese D. Zinc

54. Animals that are active during the day are called_____ animals. A. * Diurnal B. Nocturnal C. Seasonal D. None of these

55. Blood in the veins contains a great deal of _____ that has been gathered from all the body cells. A. * Carbon dioxide B. Oxygen C. Supher D. Poison

56. The skeleton stores calcium and. A. * Phosphorus B. Potassium

C. Zinc D. Manganese

57. Skin has _____ layers of tissues. A. 2 B. * 3 C. 4 D. 5

58. Within the inner ear are three semicircular canals. These canals are filled with _____that shifts with movements. A. Air B. * Fluid C. Wax D. Dust

59. Each lung contains about _____ million air sacs. A. * 150 B. 200 C. 250 D. 300

60. The skin of an adult person is approximately _____ square feet. A. 16 B. 17 C. 18 D. * 19

Chapter 16 Environmental Sciences

1. Two million sea bird and over 100, 000 marine mammals die each year because of the poisoning of. A. * Sea water B. Soil C. Temperature D. Atmosphere

2. The major damage done to ozone has been attributed to. A. Carbon dioxide B. * Chlorofluoro-carbons C. Chlorine D. Sulphur

3. The solar constant is the encrgy that crosses each square metre at the top of the atmosphere per. A. * Second B. Minute C. Hour

D. Day

4. About _____ of carbon dioxide come from burning of fossil fuel (coal, gas, petroleum). A. 40% B. 60% C. * 80% D. 75%

5. _____comprises only 2 PPM (parts per million)of atmosphere but it is 30 times more effective than carbon dioxide in warming action. A. * Methane B. Chlorofluoro. . . carbons C. Sulphur D. Nitrous oxide

6. Decomposes are bacteria and fungi which degrade _____ organic matter. A. * Dead B. In C. Active D. Dormant

7. _____gases present in the air are more dangerous. They can travel over

thousands of kilometers and cause damage to vegetation, animals and human beings over a vast area. A. Natural B. Pure C. * Toxic D. Exhaust

8. Which gas quickly destroys ozone? A. Helium B. * Chlorine C. Carbon-dioxide D. Fluorine

9. Clean drinkable water is called. A. * Potable water B. Unpotable water C. Natural water D. Pure water

10. Visible light and radio waves penetrate to Earth’s. A. Water B. Gravity

C. * Surface D. Atmosphere

11. A substance which causes damage to life and ecosystem is called. A. * Pollutant B. Manure C. Garbage D. Dust particle

12. Producers are plants, which produce food through the process of. A. Polymerization B. Radiation C. Classification D. * Photosynthesis

13. The depletion of ozone has been called the. A. Ozone surface B. * Ozone hole C. Ozone layer D. Ozone destruction

14. When did the British atmosphere scientists surveying in Antarctica

announce a more than 40 percent decrease in the atmospheric ozone? A. * 1984 B. 1981 C. 1997 D. 1974

15. Much of sun’s radiation is either reflected or absorbed by. A. Dust B. Gravity C. Water D. * Atmosphere

16. _____ can make up 4 percent of the atmosphere by volume percent by weight. A. Helium B. * Water vapours C. Methane D. Ozone

17. Chlorofluoro-carbons are very stable and when they reach _____ kilomtres altitude (where the concentration of ozone is supposed to be highest), they are subjected to intense ultraviolet radiation from the sun. A. * 25

B. 28 C. 30 D. 32

18. Trout, Salmon and other types of fish are very sensitive to change in. A. * pH B. Gravity C. Atmospheric pressure D. Temperature

19. The components of an ecosystem are classified into _____ categories. A. 3 B. * 2 C. 4 D. 5

20. Ozone is a derivative of. A. Carbon dioxide B. Hydrogen C. Argon D. * Oxygen

21. What is the average temperature of the surface of the Earth? ∘

A. 24 c ∘

B. 16 c ∘

C. * 14 c ∘

D. 8 c

22. Most greenhouse models say that the temperature on the surface of the Earth would increase by at least_____ over the next century. ∘

A. 4-6 c ∘

B. * 3-5 c ∘

C. 5-10 c ∘

D. 3-9 c

23. Most ultraviolet radiation is absorbed by the _____ layer in the stratosphere. A. Gravitational B. * Ozone C. Gaseous D. Dust

24. The study of the inter-relationships of living organisms with each other and their environment is called.

A. * Ecology B. Polymerization C. Genetics D. Anthropology

25. The ozone layer is a naturally occurring ozone found in the stratosphere, situated between _____ kilometers above the Earth’s surface. A. 16-26 B. * 10-16 C. 20-28 D. 05-10

26. Over _____ % of India’s rivers are over polluted and 90% of child death toll is due to water pollution. A. 40 B. 55 C. * 66 D. 60

27. Chlorofluoro-carbon gases were introduced about _____ years ago. A. 25 B. 40

C. 50 D. * 60

28. Much of the solar radiation that reaches the surface of the Earth is absorbed in the. A. * Ground B. Water C. Metals D. Rocks

29. _____ of the population of the world is devoid of clean drinking water, in spite of abundance of water on the Earth. A. One third B. * Two third C. One fourth D. Three fourth

30. Ozone is a/an _____ gas. A. Pure B. Impure C. * Unstable D. Stable

31. There has been an increase in amount of _____ in the last two and half centuries. A. Nitrogen B. * Carbon dioxide C. Methane D. Sulphur

32. Name the global phenomenon in which there is a gradual increase in the temperature of the Earth as a result of pollutants and certain gases in the atmosphere of the Earth. A. Ecosystem B. Solar radiation C. Ozone depletion D. * Greenhouse effect

33. For the control of global warming Kyoto Conference was held in Dec 1997, in which _____ countries participated. A. 165 B. * 159 C. 155 D. 150

34. The composition of the atmosphere is relatively constant up to about

_____ kilomtres above the Earth’s surface. A. 32 B. 36 C. 46 D. * 48

35. Acid rain is a direct result of. A. * Air pollution B. Water pollution C. Dust D. Atmospheric pressure

36. The temperature of Arctic region is supported to rise on the average by 8 C more than present by the year. ∘

A. 2050 B. 2030 C. 2020 D. * 2010

37. _____ in the air combine with rain water to from nitric acid and sulfuric acid. A. Water vapours

B. Gases C. Dust particles D. * Pollutants

38. Acid rain concentrates _____ in water and soil. A. Oxygen B. Dust C. * Metals D. Purity

39. Currently carbon dioxide alone is responsible for _____ of the global warming phenomena. A. 25% B. 44% C. 50% D. * 57%

40. Pure rainwater is slightly acid It has a pH of about. A. 5. 5 B. 5. 6 C. 5. 4 D. * 5. 8

41. Water and carbon dioxide in air from an acid called. A. Carbolic acid B. Carbon acid C. * Carbonic acid D. None of these

42. Which is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere? A. Oxygen B. Carbon dioxide C. * Nitrogen D. Hydrogen

43. About how many people die every day because of contaminated water? A. 5, 000 B. 15, 000 C. 10, 000 D. * 25, 000

44. When was Earth Summit held in Brazil in which a treaty was signed to control the production of greenhouse gases? A. June 1994

B. June 1990 C. * June 1992 D. June 1991

45. During 1980s, _____ million tons of solid wastes was dumped into oceans. About 80% of it came through rivers. A. 168 B. * 172 C. 185 D. 190

46. How many layers, atmosphere has? A. 3 B. 4 C. * 5 D. 6

47. Ecosystem is the major structural and functional unit of. A. Biology B. * Ecology C. Taxanomy D. Genetics

48. Between 1946 and _____ a huge amount of radioactive wastes was dumped in the Northern Atlantic and Pacific Ocean as a result of military testing and reprocessing plants. A. 1992 B. * 1982 C. 1974 D. 1965

49. Which wastes come from atomic explosions and nuclear power plants? A. Industrial wastes B. Power wastes C. Ocean wastes D. * Radioactive wastes

50. When did USA and 22 other nations sign an agreement to reduce consumption of Chlorofluoro carbons? A. 1982 B. 1977 C. 1985 D. * 1987

Chapter 17 Energy & Energy Resources

1. Petroleum is deposited in. A. Coal B. * Rocks C. Water D. Non-living organisms

2. Uranium-_____ is used in a nuclear reaction to give energy. A. * 235 B. 435 C. 335 D. 135

3. _____ in Pakistan is got at Dandot Balkasar and Baluchistan. A. Petroleum B. Coal C. Gas D. * Oil

4. Coal is a _____ fuel. A. Organic B. Natural C. Ancient D. * Fossil

5. Lave, gases and hot water given off as a result of volcanic activity or natural hot springs and geysers are sources of. A. Solar energy B. Nuclear energy C. * Geothermal energy D. Hydroelectric

6. Air, water, food, forests, land, fish and wild life are _____ resources. A. Natural B. Renewable C. Particular D. * All of these

7. France, Saudi Arabia, Japan, and some European countries are using _____ to heart buildings, water and to power cars and communication system.

A. Natural gas B. * Solar energy C. Hydroelectric D. Nuclear energy power

8. Horse power is a unit of. A. * Power B. Work C. Energy D. Length

9. Electricity is a _____ source of energy. A. Basic B. Primary C. Intermediate D. * Secondary

10. The sources of energy which are commonly used particularly for power generation are called_____ sources of energy. A. Non-conventional B. * Conventional C. Non-sustainable

D. Sustainable

11. When was gas discovered at Sun? A. 1948 B. 1951 C. 1954 D. * 1952

12. Pakistan gas contains 70-_____ methane. A. 95% B. * 90% C. 85% D. 80%

13. The raw material for hydrocarbons and plastics is. A. * Gas B. Oil C. Rocks D. Water

14. Pakistan uses oil for its _____ power production. A. 60%

B. 50% C. * 40% D. 20%

15. Which is the major oil production country? A. Egypt B. pakistan C. Afghanistan D. * Russia

16. Karachi Nuclear Power plant (KANUPP)produces about _____ percent of power. A. 1. 27 B. 2. 27 C. * 0. 27 D. 0. 54

17. Pakistan has two nuclear power plants, one at Karachi and the other at. A. Rawalpindi B. Dhodak C. Taxilla D. * Chashma

18. Falling water in hilly areas is used as a source of mechanical energy to rotate turbines to generate. A. Oil B. * Electricity C. Petroleum D. Gas

19. British thermal unit is the amount of heat necessary to raise the temperature of one pound of water through one degree. A. * Fahrenheit B. Centigrade C. Temperature D. Celsing

20. Gas is used for _____ of power generation in Pakistan. A. 58% B. 64% C. * 48% D. 40%

21. Fossil fuel, hydel power and nuclear energy are major sources of energy while wind power, tidal power, solar energy and geothermal energy are

_____ sources. A. Intermediate B. * Minor C. Common D. Particular

22. What is produced by using energy of coal, gas, nuclear fission, sunlight and energy of flowing water? A. * Electricity B. Fuel C. Manure D. None of these

23. In pakistan where is coal fueled power station? A. * Lakhra (Sindh) B. Jehlum C. Attock D. Dhodak

24. A 100-watt bulb lit for one hour uses _____ watts of electricity. A. 60 B. * 100

C. 50 D. 200

25. Coal is used for about 30% of world’s power production and about _____ of pakistan’s power production. A. 30% B. 40% C. * 10% D. 50%

26. The hydroelectric power generation is only about _____ percent in Pakistan. A. 23% B. * 13% C. 33% D. None of these

27. The hydroelectric power generation is only about _____ in Pakistan. A. * 13% B. 15% C. 10% D. 8%

28. Chief direct sources of energy are, oil, coal, wood and gas. There are also the _____ sources of energy. A. Pre-mature B. Basic C. * Primary D. Natural

29. Ancient organic matter also gave _____ along with petroleum and coal. A. Ashes B. Manure C. * Gas D. All of these

30. Megawatt is amount of energy equal to _____ kilowatts. A. 100 B. 10 C. * 1000 D. 10, 000

Chapter 18 Earth Science

∘

∘

1. Sea water freezes below 28. 6 F(-1. 9 C)whereas fresh water freezes at. ∘

A. 34 F ∘

B. 33 F ∘

C. * 32 F ∘

D. 30 F

2. Metamorphic rocks are classified into _____ main types. A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. * 2

3. A branch of science which deals with the study of the Earth’s crust is called. A. * Geology B. Climatology C. Morphology

D. Histology

4. The axis of the Earth is inclined at an angle of _____ degree relative to the plane of the orbit of the Earth. A. 25 B. * 23 C. 24 /12 D. 26 /14

5. There are _____ main strata (layers) of the atmosphere. A. 2 B. * 4 C. 6 D. 5

6. There are _____ types of sedimentary rocks. A. 2 B. * 3 C. 4 D. 5

7. The important ozone layer is found in.

A. lonosphere B. Exosphere C. * Stratosphere D. Troposphere

8. Variation in Earth’s magnetic field causes changes in the _____ smaller duration or longer duration. A. Atmosphere B. * Weather C. Clouds D. Water

9. Sedimentary rocks are common and cover about _____ percent of the total land area. A. 45 B. 50 C. 60 D. * 75

10. About 200 million years ago, virtually all the Earth’s dry land was contained in the original super continent. What is it called? A. Pangaea B. Lauresia

C. Gondwana D. * None of these

11. The Earth has _____ main structural components. A. 2 B. * 4 C. 3 D. 6

12. Who is known as the Father of Geology? A. James Hutton B. Alfred Wegener C. Charles Lyell D. * Philon

13. Equator is a/an _____ line around the Earth midway between the poles. It is 0-degree latitude. A. Complete B. Half C. Geological D. * Imaginary

14. The outer core is believed to be completely. A. Gaseous B. Solid C. Covered D. * Melted metals

15. Usually _____ of the mass of an iceberg is under the surface of water. A. 2/10 B. 4/10 C. 6/10 D. * 9/10

16. Carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere is necessary for. A. Human beings B. * plants C. Reptiles D. Insects

17. icebergs have caused ships to sink, the most famous example being the Titanic which sank in _____ after hitting a relatively small iceberg. A. * 1912 B. 1910

C. 1914 D. 1916

18. By which scale, the severity of an Earthquake is measured? A. Fischer Scale B. Index scale C. Absolute scale D. * Richter scale

19. Name the outer rigid layer of the Earth from which the plates are made. A. Thermosphere B. Stratosphere C. * Lithosphere D. lonosphere

20. Greenwich (England) is at _____ degree longitude. A. 45 B. 145 C. * Zero D. 90

21. _____ rocks are the most common types on the surface of the Earth.

A. Metamorphic B. lgneous C. * Sedimentary D. Organic

22. Life not possible on the Earth without the presence of. A. Weather B. Clouds C. * Atmosphere D. Dust

23. The hemisphere of Earth facing the Sun has day time while the hemisphere facing away from the Sun has. A. Summer B. Winter C. * Night D. Morning

24. Which of the following units of the geological, clock is the longest? A. * Eons B. Epoctis C. Eros

D. Epochs

25. The most destructive waves in the ocean are _____ caused by underwater Earthquakes, landslides, volcanic eruption, or by hurricanes. A. Tidal waves B. * Tsunamis C. Ocean current D. El-Nino

26. How much Earth’s surface is covered by water? A. 75 B. * 70 C. 80 D. 65

27. _____ are also called tropical cyclones or typhoons. A. * Hurricanes B. Tornadoes C. Thunders D. Currents

28. El-Nino is a _____ weather phenomenon.

A. Regional B. * Global C. Continental D. None of these

29. At a depth of between about 1650 and _____ feet, a sound channel exists where sound waves can be tapped and also along which sound waves can travel for large distances. A. 2000 B. * 5000 C. 2500 D. 3300

30. A continental shelf is a submerged, gently sloping ledge that surrounds the edge of a. A. * Continent B. Region C. Country D. Sea

31. _____ rocks are formed when molten magma cools and solidifies. A. Metamorphic B. Elastic

C. * lgneous D. Chemical

32. Ocean waves are produced due to movement of. A. Dust particles B. Animals remains C. * Water molecules D. Rocks

33. Our atmosphere has a protective role against dangerous ultraviolet radiation, solar x-rays and other high energy radiation coming from. A. * Space B. Sun C. Moon D. Other planets

34. The density of the Earth is _____ times of water. A. * 5. 5 B. 6. 5 C. 7. 5 D. 4. 5

35. More the 75 percent of the water in the oceans has a temperature of less than. ∘

A. 40 F ∘

B. 35 F ∘

C. 42 F ∘

D. * 41 F

36. Nearly _____ million years ago, the land masses of the Earth were concentrated into one super continent called Pangaea. A. 500 B. * 200 C. 100 D. 400

37. The continental shelf constitutes _____ percent of the total area of the sea floor. A. 8 to9 B. * 7 to 8 C. 10 to 12 D. 6 to 7

38. Name the major gas in the atmosphere of the Earth. A. * Nitrogen

B. Oxygen C. Hydrogen D. Argon

39. Which cololour penetrates in water farther than other colours? A. Yellow B. * Blue C. Red D. Black

40. The chemical composition of the Earth’s crust is dominated by _____ elements which together make up more than 99 percent by weight and volume of the crust. A. 4 B. 6 C. * 8 D. 9

41. Severe storms like hurricanes and tornadoes account for about _____ percent of the huge damage caused annually by natural disasters. A. 30 B. * 20 C. 35

D. 25

42. How many cloud shapes are present in atmosphere? A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. * 2

43. The ocean’s surface currents are created and driven by the _____ on the Earth’s surface. A. Pollution B. Lights C. * Winds D. Noise

44. Ozone is concentrated in the stratosphere, between 44 and _____ above the Earth. A. 49 B. 46 C. 52 D. * 56

45. What is the mouth of a volcano called?

A. * Vent B. Crater C. Plug D. Cone

46. Latitude is the distance on the surface of the Earth measured in degree north and south of the equator. The equator is at zero degree while the poles are at _____ degree. A. 30 B. * 90 C. 45 D. 60

47. The course of a river can be divided into _____ sections. A. * 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6

48. icebergs in sea last for less than _____ months. A. 2 B. 4

C. * 3 D. 5

49. Tropic of Capricorn is an imaginary line _____ degree south of equator. A. * 23 B. 25 C. 23 D. 20

50. The top layer of the oceanic crust has an average thickness of. A. * 808 meters B. 1000 meters C. 950 meters D. 700 meters

51. Today, the area of ice-covered land has reduced to _____ million square kilometers. A. 15. 6 B. * 15. 5 C. 15. 7 D. 15. 2

52. Hurricanes can be _____ at radar screens and satellite pictures. A. Recorded B. * Recognized C. Seen D. None of these

53. Asthenosphere is the region of the Earth’s mantle extending from about 60 to _____ miles below the surface, in which plastic movements can take place. A. 450 B. 455 C. 445 D. * 435

54. Which of the following is not an example of igneous rocks? A. * Aqueous rocks B. Plutonic rocks C. Alkali rocks D. Silicon rocks

55. The temperature increases rapidly with depth in outer _____ kilometers of the Earth.

A. 209 B. 220 C. 125 D. * 201

56. There are _____ broad categories of rocks. A. * 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5

57. A meander is a wide loop or bend in a. A. Stream B. Ocean C. Lake D. * River

58. Minerals that are commercially valuable are known as. A. Crystals B. * Ore minerals C. Organic minerals

D. Inorganic minerals

59. The slow movement of continents from one part of the globe to another through long periods of geological time is called. A. Magnetic field B. Tectonic plate C. Continental crust D. * Continental drift

60. Seasonal variations on the Earth take place due to motion of _____ in its orbit. A. Sun B. Moon C. * Earth D. Solar System

61. Exosphere layer consists only of scattered atoms of oxygen, hydrogen and. A. Neon B. Carbon dioxide C. Argon D. * Helium

62. A needle of the compass points _____ because the Earth’s magnetic field is dipolar. A. * North B. West C. Downward D. South

63. Which day is the longest day in the Northern Hemisphere and shortest day in the Southern Hemisphere? A. June 22 B. * June 21 C. Jan 21 D. Sep 22

64. The rocks immediately below the Earth’s surface contain over _____ million cubic miles of water, about 40 time as much as in all rivers, lakes and marshes in the world. A. * 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

65. The crust extends down to about _____ miles and consists of rocks with a density of less than 188 pounds per cubic foot.

A. 40 B. 35 C. * 25 D. 30

66. Name the instrument, which detects the waves of an Earthquake. A. Cardiograph B. * Seismograph C. Spectrograph D. Holograph

67. There are _____ million tons of gold in the sea. A. * 10 B. 5 C. 20 D. 15

68. Tornadoes travel up to _____ miles (322 km). A. 220 B. * 200 C. 240

D. 210

69. The mass of the Earth is. A. 5. 87×10 Tons 21

B. 5. 847×10 Tons 21

C. * 5. 972×10 Tons 21

D. 5. 974×10 Tons 22

70. The Mariana Trench the World’s deepest point is more than _____ feet below the sea level in some parts about 23, 000 feet below the mean depth of the ocean floor. A. * 36, 000 B. 34, 000 C. 32, 000 D. 30, 000

71. Which of the following units of the geological, clock is the shortest? A. Ages B. Eras C. Epochs D. * Periods

72. Who showed first that the Earth is a giant magnet?

A. William Gilbert B. * Alfred Wegener C. R. a Dally D. Gerardus Mercaton

73. _____ are formed of masses of water droplets and ice crystals. A. Storms B. Hurricanes C. * Clouds D. El-Ninos

74. As the Earth moves round the sun, the Northern Hemisphere and shortest day in the Southern Hemisphere? A. * 6 B. 9 C. 3 D. 4

75. Knot is a unit of _____ over sea or a ship. A. Velocity B. Acceleration C. Length

D. * Speed

76. The equatorial diameter of the Earth is 12756. 274 km and polar diameter of the Earth is. A. 12711. 506 km B. 12731. 505 km C. * 12713. 505 km D. 12713. 506

77. A geyser is a hot spring in which underground water is heated by geothermal activity and periodically boils. In _____, there are many geysers. A. Indonesia B. Egypt C. * Iceland D. U. K

78. The troposphere is the _____ layer which contains about 75 percent of the total mass of the atmosphere. A. * Lowest B. 2nd lowest C. Middle D. Upper

79. A mineral is a naturally formed inorganic substance with a fixed _____ composition. A. Natural B. * Physical C. Organic D. Chemical

80. It is believed that Earth’s magnetic field is used by _____ for their long distance migration. A. Reptiles B. Animals C. * Birds D. Insects

81. There are _____ measures of the severity of an Earthquake. A. * 2 B. 4 C. 3 D. 1

82. Tropic of Cancer is an imaginary line 23 equator.

degree _____ of the

A. East B. * North C. West D. South

83. The two most abundant elements in the sea water are sodium and. A. Oxygen B. Sulphur C. * Chlorine D. Carbon dioxide

84. Centrifugal force pushes the matter away from the center of axis of the rotation Many of other planets are also compressed like that. The most prominent is. A. Venus B. Mercury C. Pluto D. * Saturn

85. The canyon has a maximum depth of about_____ feet (1. 6 kilometres) from the plateau top to the Colorado River. A. 5480 B. * 5280

C. 5380 D. 5180

86. The composition of the atmosphere is constant up to about _____ km above the Earth’s surface with the exception of ozone and water vapours. A. 44 B. * 48 C. 46 D. 50

87. The largest ocean is. A. Atlantic B. Indian C. Arctic D. * Pacific

88. _____ is the shortest day in the Northern Hemisphere and longest day in the Southern Hemisphere. A. Sep 21 B. Oct 24 C. Dec 22 D. * Dec 21

89. Between about 48 and 306 kilometers above the surface is the A. * lonosphere B. Troposphere C. Thermosphere D. Stratosphere

90. Tides are characterized by rise and fall of the water level in the. A. Lakes B. Rivers C. Streams D. * Oceans

91. In how many climatic zones, our Earth is divided? A. * 5 B. 3 C. 2 D. 4

92. The outer core is a mixture of melted iron and. A. Rocks B. * Nickel

C. Silicon D. Cobalt

93. Most of the rivers start as small. A. Lakes B. Deltas C. * Streams D. Meanders

94. The geographical location of a _____ is given by its latitude and the longitude. A. Region B. Country C. Continent D. * City

95. The force of flowing rivers usually cut _____ shaped valleys in the mountain regions. A. L B. S C. T D. * V

96. Tides occur every _____ and their timing and position depend on the Earth’s rotation on its axis related to the position of the moon. A. Night B. Year C. * Day D. Week

97. Upon which the density of water depends? A. * Temperature B. Light C. Dust D. Atmosphere

98. The equatorial circumference of the Earth is 40075. 02 km and polar circumference is. A. 40007. 68 km B. * 40007. 86 km C. 40007. 58 km D. 40006. 68 km

99. _____ rocks are formed by the alteration of pre-existing rocks by great heat or pressure.

A. Metamorphic B. Alkali C. * Silicon D. Organic

100. There are more than _____ submerged, usually extinct, volcanoes in the world. A. 200 B. 1000 C. 1500 D. * 2000

101. _____ is a mass of ice produced by accumulation and compression of snow which moves slowly downhill or seaward under its own weight. A. * Glacier B. Mountain C. Delta D. Volcano

102. Wind speeds in tornadoes may reach _____ miles per hour. A. 330 B. 280

C. 300 D. * 380

103. Which of the following is an important physical property of mineral? A. Cleavage B. Specific gravity C. Hardness D. * All the above

104. Minerals are very important as they are basic units of the. A. Salts B. Crystals C. * Rocks D. Blocks

105. The highest Richter magnitude ever recorded was 8. 9 in _____ in 1933 approximately as powerful as a 100- megaton explosion. A. Turkey B. Indonesia C. * Japan D. U. k

Chapter 19 Computers, Electronics & Communication

1. When was IBM personal Computer launched? A. 1975 B. 1977 C. 1974 D. * 1979

2. Binary system employed in computers use only two digits. A. 1 and 2 B. 0 and 10 C. * 0 and 1 D. 1 and 10

3. A printer receives information from computer and prints it on a. A. Control unit B. Disk C. Copy D. * Paper

4. A kilo byte is a group of _____ bytes. A. 2024 B. * 1024 C. 24 D. 124

5. Name the smallest unit of memory. A. Phase B. Maze C. * Bit D. Byte

6. Which is the main unit of any computing system? A. Keyboard B. * CPU C. Cursor D. Modem

7. The first floppy disk was developed by IBM in. A. 1968

B. 1970 C. * 1972 D. 1974

8. Macro computers have _____ CPU (central processing units). A. No B. 1 C. * Many D. 2

9. Brain virus was the first virusdeveloped by two _____ brothers. A. * Pakistan B. Japanese C. American D. German

10. Which of the following is not an examples of software? A. Floppy disks B. Hard discs C. Magnetic tapes D. * All of these

11. A floppy disk is a circular piece of mylar or other plastic like material coated with. A. Silicon B. Iron sulphide C. Nickel oxide D. * Iron oxide

12. The bacteria are_____ that do not explicitly damage any file. A. Networks B. Systems C. * Programmes D. Information

13. _____ computers are large sized computers, also called main frame computers. A. Laptop B. Super C. Analog D. * Macro

14. All computers use _____ to hold certain start up programmes to start disk drives, and load operating systems into memory.

A. * ROM B. RAM C. Both ROM and RAM D. None of these

15. In _____ programming programming are written as lists of instructions, which the computer obeys in sequence. A. Preferential B. Internal C. * Procedural D. Instructional

16. Which of the following is an essential part of a pocket calculator? A. Number keys B. Display panel C. Command keys D. * All of these

17. The time needed to access data from disk is called. A. More time B. Warm time C. * Access time

D. Set time

18. What is a hybrid computer? A. * Combination of analogue and B. Pure analogue computer C. Pure digital computer D. None these

19. A giga byte is a group of 1024. A. Bits B. Kilo kilo bytes C. Kilo bytes D. * Mega bytes

20. Physical components of a computer including all peripheral devices are called. A. * Hardware B. Mathematics C. Lograthm D. Mechanics

21. The writing of instructions in a language for control of computer is called.

A. Application B. * Programming C. Software D. Word-processing

22. A number indicating a specific location of memory is called. A. * Address B. Location C. Area D. Specified region

23. Complete structure of instructions is called. A. Robot B. Command C. Compiler D. * System

24. Which programming is based on definition of functions? A. Basic B. Educational C. * Functional

D. Processing

25. Nibble is smaller than byte, it is a group of _____ bits. A. 10 B. 6 C. * 4 D. 3

26. Monochrome is a _____ colour. A. Bi B. * Single C. Tri D. Mega

27. Very big computers used for complex scientific calculations are. A. Digital computers B. Special computers C. * Super computers D. Super main frame

28. An instruction given to Computer in direct mode is called. A. Database

B. Forward C. Search D. * Command

29. Semiconductors used in electronic devices are doped to change their electronic devices are doped to change their electrical. A. Qualities B. Programmes C. Substances D. * Properties

30. The _____ of a Computer is measured in terms of its processing speed, memory capacity and back-up size. A. Accuracy B. Time C. Language D. * Power

31. A byte is a unit for measurement for computer memory capacity. It is a group of _____ bits. A. * 8 B. 4 C. 6

D. 10

32. A machine languages is the most fundamental programming languages which is directly understood by the. A. System software B. * Microprocessor C. Word processor D. Computer

33. High level symbolic languages are_____ generation. A. Fifth B. Fourth C. * Third D. None of these

34. A network virus is known as. A. Disease B. * Worm C. System D. Dormancy

35. What is 4 GL?

A. Four graphic lights B. Four gates locomotives C. * Fourth generation languages D. None of these

36. ROM and RAM are commonly used terms in computers. What are these? A. * Memories B. Input devices C. Output devices D. Peripherals

37. Laptops are the smallest computers, also called the. A. * Portable computers B. Small computers C. Dwarf computers D. Mini computers

38. FORTRAN is a high level language used for _____ purposes. A. * Scientific B. Educational C. Trade

D. Instructional

39. What is meant by tallying? A. * Method of counting B. Method of copying C. Method of matching D. Method of remembering

40. Which memory can be read or written? A. ROM B. * RAM C. Both ROM and RAM D. None of these

41. The functions of the analogue computer is only to. A. Copy B. Imitate C. Compare D. * All of these

42. Which is the oldest storage medium? A. Audio tape

B. * Magnetic tape C. Floppy disk D. Hard disk

43. Which computers are used in small business applications and for home computing? A. Pocket computers B. Macro computers C. * microcomputers D. Portable computers

44. Which computer has a memory and solve problems by counting precisely, adding, subtracting multiplying, diving and comparing? A. Quality computer B. Analogue computer C. Hybrid computer D. * Digital computer

45. A tera byte is a group of _____ giga bytes. A. * 1024 B. 2041 C. 10024

D. 124

46. Low level symbolic languages are called _____ generation languages. A. * Second B. Third C. Fourth D. None of these

47. Function keys are the keys on the keyboard marked as F1 to. A. F9 B. F10 C. * F12 D. F16

48. There are _____ application softwares. A. * 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

49. Which of the following can be used as a printer in word processing? A. Laser printer

B. Dot matrix printer C. Daisy wheel printer D. * All of these

50. With respect to hardware generations, programming languages have _____ generations. A. 4 B. * 5 C. 3 D. 2

51. There are _____ types of memories. A. * 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

52. There are _____ types of monitors. A. 2 B. * 3 C. 4 D. 5

53. _____ controls time and sequence of the operation of the computers or organizes the processing. A. * Control unit B. Electronic clock C. Programme counter D. Control device

54. The millennium bug is named. A. Yo k B. * Y2 k C. Y4 k D. Y2 k2

55. Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)performs actual _____ of date, which includes addition, subtraction, multiplication and division. A. Organizing B. * Processing C. Programming D. All of these

56. The velocity at which an object will continue its circular motion around the Earth in an orbit called the.

A. Object velocity B. * Orbital velocity C. Circular velocity D. Continuing velocity

57. _____ worlds on production of suitable electromagnetic signals that can be transmitted, received and converted back to the original pattern. A. Tape recorder B. Radar C. * TV D. Transistor

58. A blinking undercore (dot)seen on monitor is called. A. Star B. * Cursor C. Light D. None of these

59. A database is information or date on a disk or tape, where database are used? A. Hospitals B. Police headquarters

C. Libraries D. * All of these

60. Name the simplest calculator that has been used for thousands of years. A. Acabus B. * Abacus C. Stonehenge D. None of these

61. Registers store _____ results and date awaiting processing. A. * Intermediate B. Basic C. Primary D. Pre-mature

62. Date stored for long long term retention in called. A. Retrieve B. * Archive C. Access D. Backing

63. A programming language is a special notation in which insertions for

controlling computer are. A. Made B. * Written C. Noted D. All of these

64. Which programme assembles photos, text and audio onto web pages that appear on Computer screen? A. COBOL B. * Browser C. ALGOL D. SNOBAL

65. For word processing, what input device must be used? A. Joystick B. * Keyboard C. Modem D. Mouse

66. A mega byte is group of 1024. A. * Kilo bytes B. Kilo bits

C. Bits D. Bytes

67. Radio is based on the principle that electrical signals can travel without a wire, So it is also called. A. * Wireless B. Electronic signal C. Speedometer D. Transmitor

68. Which of the following is an example of special purpose analogue computer? A. Planimeters B. Scale models C. Slide rule D. * All of these

69. Special purpose softwares are developed for special situations like rules and regulations to prepare payroll which differ from. A. Computer to Computer B. Network to network C. System to system D. * Company to company

70. Which of the following is not an input device of a computers? A. * Compiler B. Mouse C. Light pen D. Keyboard

71. The programmes and date or the instruction are called the _____ of the system. A. Physics B. * Software C. Mechanics D. Electronics

72. A small area of memory for temporary storage of date is called. A. Bug B. Bios C. Temporary D. * Buffer

73. The number code used by computer is called. A. Logarithmic

B. * Binary system C. Decimal D. Mathematical system

74. The general term for the production and processing of electric signals that convey information is called. A. * Electronics B. Electrolysis C. Searching D. Mechanics

75. The memory of the computer is measured in bytes. How many bytes make a megabyte? A. 1, 046, 576 B. 1, 048, 376 C. 1, 058, 576 D. * 1, 048, 576

76. The web refers to all those interconnected data sources you get there via the. A. Computer B. DOS C. * Internet

D. Microprocessor

77. A programme is a sequence of _____ to be performed. A. Information B. Programmes C. * Instructions D. Works

78. Which input device is used for playing computer games? A. Keyboard B. Mouse C. * Joystick D. Keypad

79. A copy of virus can _____ a number of programmes. A. Beautify B. Store C. Erase D. * Damage

80. _____ can be defined as the machines which can do calculation or process data with high accuracy and great speed.

A. Calculator B. Abacus C. * Computer D. All of these

81. _____ programming is for end user programmes, such as word processing packages. A. * Application B. Software C. System D. Electronic

82. A TV like device called _____ is used to display result on a screen. A. Modem B. CPU C. printer D. * Monitor

83. Memory Unit (MU), also called main storage is an integral physical part which contains date stored in unique locations identified by. A. computer B. Mouse

C. * An address D. Cursor

84. In the field of business, internet will work as world wide _____ in the near future. A. * Manager B. Boss C. Companion D. Subordinate

85. Which is the most widely used programming language in schools, colleges and universities? A. PASCAL B. FORTRAN C. DOS D. * BASIC

86. An integrated circuit is a group of electronics parts joined together in a protective ease. It is also called as. A. Byte B. * Chip C. Bit D. Silicon

87. _____ is an alphabet, numeric, punctuation marks etc. A. Word B. Data C. * Character D. Storage

88. On the net, which Computers are linked together via telephone lines and fibre-optic cable? A. * Servers B. Mega Computers C. Super Computers D. Special purpose Computer

89. Hard disk is fixed disk which has a great capacity of storing date normally calculated in _____ A. Tera bytes B. * Mega bytes C. Kilo bytes D. Bytes

90. There are _____ major types of computers.

A. * 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

91. All machine languages are considered as _____ generation of programming languages. A. Second B. Third C. * First D. No

92. Which device links computers over telephone lines? A. Monitor B. CPU C. Printer D. * Modem

93. Electronic mail (E. . . mail) is the information directed to specific users, screens or held in computer mail box for access by users who type in. A. * Codes B. computers

C. Papers D. Systems

94. Which of the following was discovered by Germans during World WarTwo? A. * Magnetic Tape B. Keypad C. Floppy disc D. Hard disc

95. The common _____ words are used as instructions in third generation. A. * English B. French C. Latin D. Greek

96. Which computer is used in medium sized organizations and laboratories? A. Macro B. * Mini C. Pocket D. Calculating

97. _____ satellites are the most important of satellites. A. * Communication B. Scientific research C. Navigation D. Weather

98. COBOL is a language for_____ applications. A. Commerce B. Trade C. Scientific D. * Business

99. A chip is made from a very thin flake of an elemental called. A. Aluminum B. Iron C. Copper D. * Silicon

100. The internet is like the _____ system, which ties callers around the world together via web of data-transmission lines. A. Micro B. * Phone

C. Mechanical D. Intelligence

Chapter 20 Chemistry

1. The experimental relationship between a reaction rate and the concentration of the reactions is known as. A. * Rate law B. Law of reaction C. Rate of reaction D. Order of reaction

2. Oxidation reaction is that in which _____ is added to an element or compound. A. * Oxygen B. Nitrogen C. Carbon dioxide D. Hydrogen

3. How many known natural silicates are in the world? A. 700+ B. 750+ C. * 800+

D. 600+

4. Which is used in closed spacies to kill bacteria and other micro-organisms? A. Insecticides B. Rodenticides C. * Fumigants D. Pesticides

5. The phenomenon of cooling and sudden expansion of gases is called. A. Charl’s effect B. Boyl’s effect C. Compton’s effect D. * Joule Thomson effect

6. _____ fertilizers contain all the major ingredients required for the growth of plants. A. * Complete B. Incomplete C. Direct D. Indirect

7. Saturated hydrocarbons are called.

A. Alkynes B. * Alkanes C. Alkenes D. Alicyclic hydrocarbons

8. Ordinary _____ is made by adding sand, sand ash (sodium oxide) and limestone (Calcium oxide). A. Ceramic B. Cinnabar C. * Glass D. Quartz

9. Which gas is used in preparing soft drinks? A. * Carbon dioxide B. Ammonia C. Nitrogen D. Hydrogen sulphide

10. For the lat _____ years chemistry has been essential to the development of mankind. A. * 4000 B. 3000

C. 2000 D. 4500

11. Bronze has been in use since 3500 B. C Currently bronze contains about 75 percent copper and 25 percent. A. Zinc B. * Tin C. Led D. Iron

12. Which water does not readily from lather with soap and causes curdling of soap? A. Simple water B. Natural water C. Heavy water D. * Hard water

13. When animals and plants die, bacteria release nitrogen from their dead bodies in the form of. A. Carbon dioxide B. Hydrogen sulphide C. * Ammonia D. Oxygen

14. Any organism which is harmful or destructive for human beings, crops or useful plants is called. A. Insect B. * Pest C. Reptile D. Mammal

15. 18-carat gold is three-fourth gold and one-forth other metals Pure gold is. A. 22 carats B. * 21 carats C. 20 carats D. 19 carats

16. The number of protons is called. A. Atomic weight B. Atomic mass C. * Atomic number D. Atomic density

17. Elements which do not react with other elements have their outermost shell.

A. * Completely filled B. Completely empty C. Complex shaped D. Half filled

18. In about _____ John Dalton realized that all matter is composed of relatively few elements. A. 1850 B. 1820 C. 1840 D. * 1800

19. Organic compouds are widely distributed in nature in various forms Name the most abundant organic compound in the world. A. Methane B. Glucose C. Alcohol D. * Cellulose

20. _____ are widely used in electric supply industry. A. Ceramic tiles B. Synthetic ceramics

C. Raw ceramics D. * Ceramic insulators

21. There are _____ alkali metals. A. 4 B. * 6 C. 2 D. 5

22. Name the phenomenon in which the same number and types of atoms may join together in different molecular arrangements. A. * Isomerism B. Chemical reaction C. Chemical bonding D. Oxidation

23. Which is the most purest form of iron? A. Stainless steel B. * Wrought iron C. Cast iron D. Pig iron

24. Which metal is used in fluorescent tubes, ammunition and thermometers? A. * Mercury B. Zinc C. Cadmium D. Beryllium

25. Which gas makes up approximately 78 percent by volume of the Earth’s atmosphere? A. Hydrogen B. Carbon dioxide C. * Nitrogen D. Oxygen

26. Since _____ synthetic diamonds have been made industrially. A. * 1955 B. 1965 C. 1975 D. 1945

27. The building blocks of proteins are called. A. * Amino acids B. Monosaccharids

C. Lipids D. Carbonylic acids

28. A solution is a. A. * Hymogeneous mixture B. Heterogeneous mixture C. Non-homogeneous mixture D. Normal mixture

29. Name the first element of the periodic table. A. Oxygen B. Krypton C. * Hydrogen D. Radon

30. Nitrogen, phosphorous and potassium are. A. Simple nutrients B. Micro nutrients C. Secondary nutrients D. * Macro nutrients

31. The process in which a solid turns to a vapour without passing through an

intermediate liquid state is. A. Allotropy B. * Sublimation C. Carbon dating D. Alkaline dating

32. Which gas is used in fire extinguishers? A. Helium B. Nitrogen C. Nitrogen dioxide D. * Carbon dioxide

33. _____ are found in the form of liquids or solids. A. Polythenes B. Nylons C. * Silicones D. Polyurethanes

34. Dead plant material, animal dung, manure rock phosphate and chile saltpeter are. A. Phosphate fertilizers B. Artificial fertilizers

C. * Natural fertilizers D. Direct fertilizers

35. Properties of gases and liquids are. A. * Isomeric B. Anisotropic C. Isomorphic D. Isotropic

36. Atoms unite together to form molecules and compounds by means of. A. Chemical ores B. * Chemical bonds C. Chemical ions D. Electrical bonds

37. Which metal is very abundant throughout the Earth’s crust and the most commonly used structural metal? A. Steel B. Copper C. * Iron D. Silver

38. Merbicides are used against. A. Fungi B. * Weeds C. Mites D. Worms

39. Most of the familiar products around us depend on the _____ industry. A. Physical B. * Chemical C. Modern D. Civilized

40. Which theory says that all matter is composed of atoms which give characteristic properties to matter? A. Radioactive theory B. * Atomic theory C. Combustion theory D. Metallic theory

41. Who proved that burning is the chemical combination of the combustible material with then oxygen of the air? A. Mendeleev

B. Dobereiner C. * Antoine Lavoisier D. Joseph Priestly

42. Lakium is present in the largest amount in a human body Name the element which is present in the smallest amount. A. Iodine B. Zinc C. Glyline D. * Manganese

43. There are _____ kinds of chemical bonds. A. 2 B. * 3 C. 4 D. 5

44. Ozone is found in its highest concentration at a height of _____ kilometers. A. 19 B. 24 C. 27

D. * 30

45. Which element can be found pure in nature in three forms as diamonds as graphite and as amorphous carbon? A. Aluminium B. Zinc C. Boron D. * Carbon

46. Ceramics is a _____ word which means potter’s clay. A. Latin B. * Greek C. English D. French

47. Which metal is used in making electrodes for dry batteries and crucibles for melting metals? A. Mercury B. * Graphite C. Diamond D. Cadmium

48. Name a naturally occurring radioactive gas.

A. Ammonia B. Nitrogen oxide C. Helium D. * Radon

49. Which gas makes about 23 percent by weight and 21 percent by volume of the atmosphere? A. * Oxygen B. Hydrogen C. Carbon monoxide D. Nitrogen

50. Which gas is used in refrigerators? A. Dry ice B. Ammonia C. * Feron D. Ethane

51. Which metal is highly malleable ductile? A. * Gold B. Sodium C. Copper

D. Iron

52. An atom can be divided into _____ smaller particles. A. * 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5

53. Nitrogen makes up about _____ percent of animals and vegetable proteins. A. 18 B. * 16 C. 20 D. 24

54. Chlorine is a poisonous greenish yellow gas with a pungent odour but it has lot of uses, Where it is not used? A. Purification of water B. Preparation of war gases C. * Preparation of soaps D. Preparation of Insecticides

55. Carbon makes up less than _____ percent of the Earth’s crust.

A. 0. 3 B. 0. 06 C. * 0. 03 D. 0. 003

56. Copper, silver and gold are called _____ metals. A. Hard B. Pure C. Natural D. * Coinage

57. Which gas was first discovered on the Sun and later on the Earth? A. * Helium B. Carbon dioxide C. Nitrogen D. Hydrogen

58. S. I unit of heat is. A. * Joule B. Calorie C. British thermal unit

D. Kilowatt hour

59. Urea contains nitrogen. A. 52% B. * 46% C. 48% D. 56%

60. During the 18th and 19th century, scientists continued preparing lists of elements based on their. A. Nature B. * Properties C. Shape D. Volume

61. The electrons in each element are characterized by _____ different quantum numbers. A. 5 B. 6 C. 3 D. * 4

62. Hydrogen is only the _____ most common element.

A. * 9th B. 2th C. 7th D. 4th

63. Who developed the periodic table without knowing about the parts of the atoms? A. Joseph Priestly B. John Dalton C. * Mendeleev D. Lavoisier

64. Which gas is used by the green plants in the process of photosynthesis to synthesize sugar or energy rich organic compounds? A. Oxygen B. * Carbon dioxide C. Argon D. Hydrogen

65. The path that on electron makes around a nucleus is called. A. Orbital B. * Orbit

C. Sphere D. Circle

66. Which water is similar to ordinary water and also uses in atomic reactors? A. Fresh water B. Purified water C. * Heavy water D. Natural water

67. Name the element which has maximum number of naturally occurring isotopes. A. Hydrogen B. Iron C. Mercury D. * Tin

68. The composition of the Sun can determined by analyzing its spectrum. The spectrum of the Sun is. A. Line spectrum B. * Continuous spectrum C. Dark spectrum D. Band spectrum

69. Which food contains small amounts of caffeine? A. Coffee B. Soft drinks C. Tea D. * All of these

70. _____ is a hard dark grey non-metallic element abundant in the crust of the Earth. A. Graphite B. Calcium C. Phosphorus D. * Silicon

71. _____ is a complex chain of processes in Which carbon compounds circulate among air, water living organisms and minerals. A. * Carbon cycle B. Nitrogen cycle C. Hydrogen cycle D. Life cycle

72. Minerals that are commercially valuable are known as. A. Simple minerals

B. Commercial minerals C. Organic minerals D. * Ore minerals

73. Decomposition of water into oxygen and Hydrogen is a/an _____ reaction. A. Exothermic B. Chemical C. Hydro-oxidation D. * Endothermic

74. Which of the following is not an alloy? A. Brass B. * Aluminium C. Bronze D. German silver

75. Which metal is used in making paint pigments soaps, skin ointments, cosmetics and various plastics? A. Magnesium B. Radium C. Calcium

D. * Zinc

76. The process of shaping a piece of wet clay on a potter’s wheel is called. A. Claying B. Firing C. * Throwing D. Heating

77. The mixture of two or more metals, combined in order to produce a material with more useful properties than any of the components individually is called. A. * Alloy B. Substance C. Amalgam D. None of these

78. _____ is a synthetic polymer made from coal, water limestone or other similar basic raw materials. A. Thermopore B. * Plastic C. Steel D. Polymer

79. Of 109 known elements, _____ are metals. A. 102 B. 88 C. 94 D. * 86

80. Usually chemical reactions take place in. A. * Solutions B. Mixture form C. Very high pressure D. Gaseous phase

Chapter 21 Biological Sciences

1. Jelly fish is like. A. A chair B. * An umbrella C. A star D. A moon

2. Both DNA and RNA are made up of repeated units called. A. * Nucleotides B. Amino acids C. Nucleic acids D. Microtubules

3. Indus dolphin is found only in. A. China B. India C. Kashmir D. * Pakistan

4. Estrogen, progesterone testosterone cortisol hydrocortisone and corticosterone are some _____ hormones. A. Basic B. Primary C. * Steroid D. Secondary

5. A man weighing about 70 kilograms contain about _____ litres of blood. A. 10 B. 8 C. 3 D. * 5

6. Plants use energy to synthesize sugar and starch through the process of. A. Reproduction B. * photosynthesis C. Metabolism D. Growth

7. The name ‘gene’ was introduced by Johannsen in. A. 1914

B. 1920 C. 1917 D. * 1909

8. Angiosperms or flowering plants have _____ species which are described. A. * 250, 000 B. 350, 000 C. 150, 000 D. 100, 000

9. The basic use of all scientific information is to improve the quality of our. A. Ethics B. Bodies C. Character D. * Lives

10. Invertebrates are the animals which do not have. A. Legs B. * A back-bone C. Red blood D. Mouth

11. About 19% of total water of Earth is in. A. * The oceans B. The soil C. The rivers

12. Name the ability to resist infectious diseases. A. Biopsy B. Healing C. Vaccintion D. * Immunity

13. Penguin the flight less bird, is found in. A. Australia B. * Antarctica C. New Zealand D. South America

14. The shrinkage of protoplasm due to exosmosis of water from the cell is known as. A. Taxonomy B. Physiology

C. Osmolysis D. * Ecology

15. The kind of blood circular system which does not permit whole blood to come in direct contact with cell is known as. A. Open blood circular system B. Empty blood circular system C. * Dosed blood circular system D. Full blood circular system

16. All the eggs before the start of cell division are composed of. A. 100 cells B. 1000 cells C. Two cells D. * One cells

17. A process in which micro-organisms in the absence of oxygen breakdown carbohydrates into various organic compounds is called A. Guttation B. Fermentation C. Photosynthesis D. * Respiration

18. A variety of organisms which always produce offspring indentical to the parent is called a. A. * True breeding variety B. False breeding variety C. Special breeding variety D. Constant breeding variety

19. Felis domesticus is the botanical name of. A. Monkey B. Rat C. Lion D. * Cat

20. Name the post-mortem examination. A. * Autopsy B. Biopsy C. Osmolysis D. Metaphase

21. Silverfish and termite are. A. Birds

B. * Insects C. Mollusk D. Fish

22. Which vitamin is important for bone development? A. Vitamin B B. * Vitamin D C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin E

23. All proteins are made of. A. Genes B. Molecules C. Cells D. * Amino acids

24. _____ are used in getting fermented food and drinks. A. Viruses B. * Bacterias C. Vaccines D. Insulines

25. Which vitamin promotes good eyesight and is helpful in night vision? A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin B2 C. Vitamin B3 D. * Vitamin A

26. The weight of blue whale is upto. A. * 180 tons B. 150 tons C. 100 tons D. 200 tons

27. In which process ripe pollen is transferred from the anther to the stigma of a flower? A. * Pollination B. Fertilization C. Transpiration D. Expiration

28. Where lives an amoeba? A. Streams

B. * Fresh waters C. Cakes D. Salt water

29. Name the mean of making an individual immune to an infectious disease, such as smallpox, by injecting a vaccine. A. Inoculation B. Metabolism C. * Vaccination D. Catabolism

30. About how many hormones are steroids, some are proteins and others have different nature? A. * 50% B. 60% C. 70% D. 40%

31. Proteins are considered to be the most common large molecules in. A. Plants B. Human bodies C. * Living organisms

D. Non-living things

32. The estimated number of genes in a human cell is 100, 000 and the number of nucleotide pairs in human DNA is. A. 2 billion B. 4 billion C. 1 billion D. * 3 billion

33. Plant kingdom consists of more than _____ species. A. * 50. 000 B. 10, 000 C. 100, 000 D. 80, 000

34. A man performing heavy manual work may use as many as _____ kilocalories a day. A. 3500 B. * 3600 C. 3400 D. 2500

35. Apes have no_____ as against monkeys.

A. * Tail B. Lungs C. Wings D. Feet

36. Snow leopard jaguar are. A. * Mammals B. Reptiles C. Birds D. Fish

37. Most plants cease to grow at the temperature below. ∘

A. 10 c ∘

B. * 6 c ∘

C. 0 c ∘

D. 2 c

38. Milk has _____ prominent proteins. A. 5 B. * 2 C. 4

D. 3

39. All the _____ are included in kingdom animalia. A. Human beings B. Plants C. Insects D. * Animals

40. About _____ percent of the plasma is water. A. 70 B. 80 C. * 90 D. 95

41. _____ are highly specialized proteins that control the chemical reactions in all living cells. A. Antibodies B. Myoglobin C. * Enzymes D. Hemoglobin

42. The basic or fundamental unit of ecology is known as ecological system or.

A. * Ecosystem B. Biosystem C. Biomas D. Cyclic system

43. _____ may be killed by heat, sound waves, or chemical treatment. A. * Viruses B. Diseases C. Bacterios D. Insects

44. The energy for the movement of cilia is provided by. A. * ATP B. ADP C. DNA D. RNA

45. Which vitamin helps in healing of wounds and mending fractures? A. Vitamin K B. Vitamin B C. * Vitamin C

D. Vitamin B2

46. Name the organism that lives by taking nourishment from another living organism, giving no benefit in return. A. Epiphyte B. Saprophyte C. * Parasite D. Scavenger

47. Numerous useful bacteria do many beneficial jobs for. A. Insects B. Plants C. Birds D. * Humans

48. Which is the largest mammal? A. Walrus B. * Blue whale C. Killer whale D. Seal (sea lion)

49. Most of the changes in materials are physical or.

A. Permanent B. Compound C. * Chemical D. Hard

50. Ringworm, athlete’s foot, dandruff, and mycoses are. A. Viral diseases B. Bacterial diseases C. * Fungal diseases D. Diseases of protozoa

51. All the biochemical energy related reactions in living body or cell are collectively called. A. AMP B. ATP C. Catabolism D. * Metabolism

52. Of the dry protoplasm, inorganic matter is. A. 25% B. 50% C. * 10%

D. 90%

53. Server disturbance of blood glow to the brain may cause a. A. Blood clotting B. Nervous breakdown C. Heart failure D. * Stroke

54. The fungi have on _____ and thus cannot photosynthesize. A. Leaves B. * Chlorophyll C. cells D. Internal system

55. There are more than _____ million species of living organisms which have been discovered. A. 1/2 B. 1 C. * 2 D. 3

56. The cell consists of a nucleus, which is surrounded by a jelly-like substance called the.

A. Capsule B. Silicon C. * Cytoplasm D. Nucleus pack

57. Gases involved in respiration are. A. Nitrogen and chlorine B. * Oxygen and Carbon dioxide C. Hydrogen and oxygen D. Carbon dioxide and hydrogen

58. The structure of DNA was elaborated by Watson and Crick in. A. 1963 B. 1956 C. * 1953 D. 1951

59. Pteridophytes were much more abundant at least _____ million years ago in the Pennsylvanian period than they are today. A. 400 B. 200 C. 100

D. * 300

60. In multicellular animals, much of digestion occurs in digestive tract but. A. Inside the cells B. * Outside the cells C. Within the cells D. Inside the nucleus

61. The parasite that remains on the surface of the body of locust is called. A. Pseudoparasite B. Dormant parasite C. * Extoparasite D. Endoparasite

62. The branch of biology that deals with the classification and naming of living things is called. A. * Taxonomy B. Physiology C. Embryology D. Ecology

63. About _____ different species of animals have been discovered

A. 0. 50 million B. 1. 50 million C. 2 million D. * 1 million

64. Starfish and jellyfish live in. A. Rivers B. * Shallow coastal waters C. Fresh water D. Sea water

65. The basic building unit of all animals and plants is. A. * Cell B. Protein C. Phylum D. plasma

66. Only difference between a fat and oil is. A. Boiling point B. * Melting point C. Freezing point

D. All of these

67. _____ require water to complete their life cycles. A. Pteridophytes B. * Bryophytes C. Fungi D. Amphibian

68. There are _____ chromosomes in human body cells. A. 45 B. * 46 C. 44 D. 47

69. Which is determined by the presence or absence of certain antigens on red blood cells and certain antibodies in the serum? A. AH factor B. Immune system C. * Blood group D. Co-enzyme

70. The substances on which the enzymes act are called.

A. Cholesterol B. * Substrates C. Nicotines D. Xylins

71. First antibiotic, penicillin was discovered by Alexander Fleming in. A. 1932 B. 1934 C. * 1928 D. 1924

72. Fossil evidence indicate that the earliest terrestrial vertebrates ware primitive. A. Mammals B. Aves C. * Amphibians D. Reptiles

73. A _____ may be defined as the fundamental unit of heredity, fromed as a sequence of bases in a DNA chain. A. Cell division B. * Gene

C. Embryo D. Cilia

74. Anatomy is the study of. A. Plants B. Fossils C. External organs D. * Internal organs

75. All amino acids contain just _____ elements. A. * 4 B. 2 C. 5 D. 3

76. Antibodies are key elements in the body’s _____ system. A. Blood B. * Immune C. Hormone D. Nervous

77. The binomial modern system of classification of plants and animals was

introduced by Linnaeus (1707-1778). How was a _____ naturalist. A. English B. Polish C. Spanish D. * Swedish

78. All the plants and animals are composed of. A. Genes B. * Cells C. Hormones D. Enzymes

79. The packages of the enzymes surrounded by membrane and appear as granules under light microscope are called. A. Ribosomes B. * Lysosomes C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Golgi apparatus

80. The total pregnancy in human female is usually about nine months or. A. 250 days B. 260 days

C. 300 days D. * 280 days

81. Reaction to stimulus is called. A. Frequency B. Disturbance C. Impulse D. * Response

82. The solar radiation shorter than 390 millimicron is the. A. * Ultraviolet light B. Ultrared light C. Visible light D. Infra-red light

83. There are more than _____ species of mosses. A. 6000 B. 8000 C. 7000 D. * 9000

84. Pines are the common examples of.

A. Bryophytes B. Pteridophytes C. * Gymnosperms D. Angiosperms

85. _____ is any of several organic substances present in very small amounts in the blood and producing specific effects in the body. A. Cell B. * Hormone C. Gland D. Hemoglobin

86. The outer most boundary in most of the plant cells is. A. cell membrane B. * Cell wall C. Nuclear wall D. Nuclear membrane

87. The colour of the eye id due to the amount of brown pigment present in the. A. * Iris B. Retina

C. Pupil D. Eyeball

88. The quantity of DNA in an egg and a sperm cell of a species is. A. Double B. Different C. Half D. * Same

89. Each nucleotide of DNA is made up of nitrogenous base, a phosphate group and give carbon sugar called. A. Hexose B. Ribose C. * Deoxyribose D. Oxyribose

90. The hormone insulin controls the way in which the body uses. A. Protein B. Blood C. Sugar D. * Glucose

91. Which is required for making flesh and repairing damages? A. * Protein B. Food C. Calories D. Fats

92. The most primitive Multicellular are the sponges and the. A. Echninoderms B. Arthropods C. * Corals D. Coelentrates

93. It is not advisable to sleep under trees during. A. * Night B. Day C. Noon D. Morning

94. A special type of blood protein known as fibrinogen helps in. A. Blood supply B. * Blood clotting

C. Blood transport D. Blood infusion

95. Human body contains about 3 to 4 gm of. A. Chlorine B. * Iron C. Copper D. Manganese

96. Bio means. A. Death B. Matter C. * Life D. Evolution

97. Name the smallest blood particles which play a crucial role in blood clotting. A. Red blood cells B. * Platelets C. White blood cells D. Plasma

98. _____ works with phosphorous in building and maintaining bones and teeth. A. Sodium B. Zinc C. Manganese D. * Calcium

99. Isoenzymes are different forms of _____ with slight changes in molecular structure. A. Chemical B. Protein C. * Enzyme D. Molecule

Chapter 22 Branches & Fields of Science

1. Name the study of atmospheric phenomena for weather forecasting. A. Metallurgy B. * Meteorology C. Mineralogy D. Phrometallurgy

2. Mycology is the branch of botany which involves study of. A. Fish B. Nematode worms C. Mammals D. * Fungi

3. The study of creation of the universe is called. A. * Cosmogony B. Universal science C. Creaverse D. Universal creation

4. What is called the science of eye, sense of sight and lenses and mirrors? A. Ornithology B. Osteopathy C. Ophthalmology D. * Optics

5. The study of man, his body mind, culture, evolution etc is called. A. Toxicology B. Taxidermy C. Xenobioties D. * Authorpology

6. The science of diseases of living organisms is called. A. Pedagogy B. * Pathology C. Penology D. Philately

7. Name the science which deals with inheritance of characters and variation. A. Genealogy

B. * Genetics C. Geomicrobiology D. Genetic counseling

8. The technique of growing trees in small pots by entremely reducing their size is called. A. Voodooism B. Reducing technology C. * Bonsai D. Biohydrometallurgy

9. The study of tissues and cells of various organs of body is called. A. * Histology B. Histography C. Histopathology D. Tissuepathology

10. The science which deals with influence of stars on human fate and destiny is called. A. Astronomy B. Anatomy C. * Astrology

D. Nature

11. _____deals with structure and structural relationship of various body organs or parts. A. * Anatomy B. Biology C. Gynaccology D. Geochemistry

12. What is called the science of study of normal functions and life processes of the body? A. Physiography B. Photomicrography C. * Physiology D. Palcobotany

13. The branch of biology which involves study of microscopic organisms is called. A. * Microbiology B. Micropaleontology C. Molecular biology D. Micro-organisms

14. The technology based on utilization of living organisms particularly micro-organisms or their products in industrial operation or production is called. A. Bionics B. Inner-techonlogy C. * Biotechnology D. Micro-technology

15. Bionergeties is the study of energy production in. A. Human bodies B. * Living things (bodies) C. Plants D. Organisms

16. Entomology is the study of. A. Reptiles B. * Insects C. Snakes D. Liguids

17. What is called the art of reading the hand and interpreting the fortune by lines on human palm? A. * Palmistry

B. Philology C. Etlymology D. Lexicography

18. Botany is the scientific study of. A. Cells B. Organisms C. Human bodies D. * Plants

19. Name the study of atmospheric phenomena for weather forecasting. A. Oncology B. Carcinology C. * Pharmacology D. Obstetrics

20. The science of air navigation or air travel is called. A. Acoustics B. * Aeronautics C. Astrology D. Astronomy

21. The politics of a country as determined by its geographical features is called. A. Geographics B. Geodesy C. Imnology D. * Geolitics

22. What is called the science of growing plants without soil in water containing salts? A. Hydropathy B. Hydrography C. Hydrophonics D. * Hydroponics

23. Name the scientific cultivation of fruit, vegetables, flowers and shrubs. A. Flowiculture B. * Horticulture C. Tissueculture D. Pisciculture

24. Name the science of getting exact copies of desired living organisms, organs, genes or molecules.

A. Bio-technology B. * Cloning C. Genisis D. Molecular biology

25. Vital statistics (in human population) of births, mortality and diseases showing status of communities is called. A. Agronomy B. * Demography C. Electrometallurgy D. Dermatology

26. Name the science of nature, functions and phenomena of human mind and human behaviour. A. * Psychology B. Neurology C. Physiography D. Ostespathy

27. What is called the science of dealing with possibility of life on planets other than the Earth? A. Phonctics B. * Exobiology

C. Holography D. Genetic Engineering

28. The science which deals with deals with history or characteristics of the Earth, its strata, relationships and changes is called. A. Genophysics B. Geochemistry C. * Geology D. Holography

29. Gastronomy is the art and science of. A. * Good eating B. Use of Sun bath for treatment C. Kidney and disease D. Gases and their effects

30. The art of making pottery and the study of material used in pottery, tiles or other structures is called. A. Special pottery B. Materialistic pottery C. * Ceramics D. Cosmogony

31. Aerodynamics in the branch of _____ which deals with motion and mechanical effects of air or gases. A. Mathematics B. Astronomy C. Chemistry D. * Physics

32. Cosmology is the study of the. A. Sky B. Cosmos C. Moss D. * Universe

33. What is called the scientific of motion and pressure of fluids? A. Cryogenics B. Hydrostatics C. * Hydrodynamics D. Fluid biology

34. Biology is the study of. A. * Living things

B. Human behaviour C. Human structure D. None of these

35. Scientific study of human races is called. A. * Ethmography B. Ethonology C. Engenics D. Ethnopology

36. Scientific study of Earthquakes is called. A. * Seismology B. Serimology C. Topography D. Topology

37. The study of behaviour of electrons their production and use of movement of electrons for useful technology is called. A. * Electronics B. Electrography C. Electrostatics D. Electromagnetism

38. The study of X. rays and their use in medical sciences or diagnostics is called. A. Thermodynamics B. Electrostatics C. * Radiology D. Numismatics

39. Name the scientific study of living organisms, their environment and mutual interaction. A. Nematolog B. * Ecology C. Helminthology D. Gerontology

40. The study of chemical substances and chemical reactions of living bodies and cells is called. A. Biology B. Bionics C. Chemistry D. * Biochemistry

Chapter 23 Nature of Science

1. Name the physician, who for the first time used opium, as an anesthesia during surgery. A. Ibn-al-Haitham B. * Al-Razi C. Ibn-e-Sina D. Ibn-e-Baitar

2. Which award was given to Dr. Qadeer by Govt. of Pakistan? A. Sitara-i-Imtiaz B. * Hilal-i-Imtiaz C. Tamgha-i-Imtiaz D. Pride of Performance

3. Dr. Abdul Salam died in _____. A. * 1997 B. 1996 C. 1995

D. 1998

4. Einstein is considered to be the greatest scientist of the_____century. A. 17ht B. * 20ht C. 18th D. 19th

5. The designing manufacturing or putting to practical use of engines or machinery of any type, including electrical or electronic, or designing or construction of public works, such as roads, railways, sewers, bridges, harbours, ete:and construction of military fortifications is called: A. * Designing B. Dyanmics C. Engineering D. Architecture

6. The application of science, especially to industrial or commercial objectives is called: A. * Technology B. Radiation C. Electronics D. programming

7. When was Yaqoob Kindi born in Basra? A. 790 B. * 800 C. 785 D. 815

8. Galileo did experiments on falling bodies and proved that all bodies, light or heavy full at the same. A. * Velocity B. Speed C. Acceleration D. Level

9. The influenza pandemic of 1957 caused_____deaths in USA only. A. 10, 000 B. 12, 000 C. * 8, 000 D. 14, 000

10. Who analyzed the motion of bodies in space and time? A. * Newton

B. Galileo C. Copernicus D. F. H Crick

11. In Einstein’s famous equation E = mc , E is energy, m is mass and c is the? 2

A. Current B. Charge C. Computer D. * Speed of light

12. Encyclopedia Botanica by Ad-Dinawari in _____ thick volumes was compiled in the 9th century. A. * 6 B. 9 C. 3 D. 12

13. When Ibn Ibn-e-Sina died? A. 1039 B. * 1037 C. 1043

D. 1045

14. In which book, Aristotle put forward arguments that Earth was a round sphere rather than a flat plate? A. Our Planet B. * On the Heavens C. The Universe D. World’s Geographical Theory

15. Dr. Salam was awarded Nobel Prize in _____ for his theory of subatomic “N”particles and unification of forces. A. 1977 B. 1981 C. * 1979 D. 1980

16. Gegor Mendel is called the father of: A. Biology B. Biophysics C. * Genetics D. Anatomy

17. Abu Ali Ibn-e-Sina was born in 980 in Afshana near Bukhara which is

now _____ A. Tajikistan B. Turkey C. * Uzbekistan D. Iran

18. Zia-ud-Din Ibn-e-Baitar was very famous _____and pharmacopist of middle ages. A. * Botanist B. Scholar C. Scientist D. Mathematician

19. Ibn-al-Haitham was the first scientist to elaborate _____ laws of reflection of light. A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. * 2

20. Newton gave_____laws in Physics. A. 4

B. 2 C. * 3 D. 5

21. When polish, Nicholas Copernicus proposed the idea that the Sun was stationary at the centre and Earth and the planets move in circular orbits around the sun. A. 1524 B. 1522 C. 1516 D. * 1514

22. Where was Abdul Malik Asmai born in 741? A. * Basra B. Mosal C. Bukhara D. Samarqand

23. Dr. abdul Qadeer Khan obtained his Ph. D degree from University of Leaven in. A. Germany B. Italy C. * Belgium

D. U. K

24. Now with the revolution in surgery and medicine, which disease is eradicated from the world? A. Malaria B. Plague C. Typhoid D. * Smallpox

25. Ibn-al-Haitham was born in_____ in 1965. A. Baghdad B. Isphahan C. Gazni D. * Basra

26. Galileo’s famous book” Two New Sciences” led to genesis of modern; A. Geology B. Chemistry C. * Physics D. Economics

27. Where was Omar-Khayyam born in 1044?

A. Baghdad B. * Nishapur C. Balkh D. Bukhara

28. _____is defined as learning or study concerned with demonstrable truths or observable phenomena and characterized by the systematic application of scientific method. A. Biology B. * Science C. Chemistry D. Physice

29. Albert Einstein was a _____ Jewish scientist. A. English B. * German C. American D. Dutch

30. Yaqoob Kindi’s most important work was on reflection of. A. * Light B. Voice

C. Atmosphere D. Water

31. When was Khawarizmi died? A. * 850 B. 855 C. 845 D. 840

32. James D. Watson and F. H. Crick proposed the double standard model of the nucleic acid DNA in. A. 1964 B. * 1953 C. 1948 D. 1956

33. Scientific developments and inventions have made the pace of life very. A. * Fast B. Slow C. Static D. Funny

34. Who gave the of hereditary and gave two laws of inheritance. A. * Gegor Mendel B. Charles Darwin C. Alexander Fleming D. Chadwich

35. The Black Death (plague) of _____century wiped out one-third of the whole population of the world. A. * 14th B. 15th C. 16th D. 17th

36. Caliph al-Ma’mun, who acceded to power in _____ founded an academy called the House of Wisdom (Bait-ul-Hikmah). A. 816 B. 817 C. * 813 D. 808

37. Arab numerals also included zero which was very important discovery by the. A. Greeks

B. Egyptians C. Persians D. * Arabs

38. Name the famous book of Ibn-e-Sina, in which he discussed human physiology and medicine. A. * Al-Qanun B. Al-Masudi C. New Renaissance D. Tadhkira

39. Dr. Abdul Qadeer Khan got his M. Sc form _____ where he was appointed as a research officer. A. U. K B. * Netherlands C. France D. Germany

40. Nasir-ud-Din Tusi (1201-1275 A. D)was born in Tusi _____ A. Syria B. * Iran C. Iraq

D. Turkey

41. Al. . . Beruni was born in. A. * Afghanistan B. Iraq C. Iran D. Uzbekistan

42. Nasir-ud-Din Tusi, a famous Muslim philosopher, scientist and mathematician, was a _____ of Halaku Khan. A. Son B. Son0in-Law C. Scholar D. * Minister

43. Where was Dr. Abdul Salam born in 1926? A. * Jhang B. Rawalpindi C. Sialkot D. Jhelum

44. Muhammad-bin-Musa Khawarizmi was born in _____ in Khawarizim.

A. 760 B. 750 C. * 780 D. 770

45. Omar Khayyam introduced the Jalali Calendar which was in error of one day in _____ years (the Gregorian calendar has an error of one day in 3330 years). A. 3350 B. 3660 C. * 3770 D. 3700

46. AL-Beruni, one of the most famous scientists of the Islamic world wrote more then_____ books on different subjects. A. 50 B. 75 C. 100 D. * 150

47. Aristotle said that the Earth was at the_____of the universe. A. Corner B. Top

C. * Centre D. Nowhere

48. When Aristotle recorded his ideas about the universe, matter and living organisms? A. * 340 B C B. 360 B C C. 320 B C D. 380 B C

49. During the_____ century A. D, much progress was made in Chemistry and finding the nature of substances. A. 6th B. 7th C. 9th D. * 8th

50. In the year_____, Italian scientist Galileo and German scientist Johannes Kepler started observing the night sky through a telescope. A. 1617 B. * 1609 C. 1604 D. 1615

51. Who wrote the famous book”Firdous-ul-Hikma”? A. Yaqoob Kindi B. Abdul Malik Asmai C. * Ali Bin Tibri D. Omar Khayyam

52. Under the caliph Ma’mun, the circumference of the _____was measured in 9th century, which was astonishingly accurate. A. Moon B. * Earth C. Sun D. North Pole

53. Dr. Abdul Qadeer Khan was born on 1th April, 1936 at _____ in India. A. Agra B. Calcutta C. Madras D. * Bhopal

54. Ibn-al-Haitham described the function of human _____ in his book. A. Ear

B. Head C. * Eye D. Heart

55. The father of Chemistry_____ prepared a large number of important chemicals like hydroelectric acid, nitric acid and white lead. A. Nasir-ud-Din Tusi B. * Jabir Bin Hayan C. Ali Tibri D. Abul Wafa

56. Dr. Salam got his higher education from _____ where he performed research in field of theoretical physics. A. Netherlands B. Italy C. Belgium D. * England

57. The great plague, which started in 542 A. D was responsible for 10, 000, 000 deaths in _____years. A. 100 B. 75 C. 40

D. * 50

58. Al-Beruni was born in 973 and died in. A. 1045 B. 1055 C. * 1048 D. 1058

59. Musa Khawarizimi introduced the method of counting based on numerals and the decimals system used all over the. A. Iran B. Arab world C. Muslim world D. * world

60. Before_____, science was mainly based on ideas proposed by Greek philosopher Aristotle. A. 1580 B. 1600 C. 1618 D. * 1609

61. The discovery of penicillin by Alexander Fleming in _____revolutionized

the treatment of infections and infectious diseases. A. 1924 B. * 1927 C. 1929 D. 1922

62. Al-Razi was not only the greatest physician of Islam but also one of the greatest physician of. A. 7th century B. 8th century C. 9th century D. * All times

Chapter 24 Physical Sciences

1. The period of rotation of Neptune is 16. 1 hours and that of revolution around the Sun is. A. 162. 4 years B. * 164. 8 years C. 165. 9 years D. 168 years

2. There are _____ rocky planets in our Solar System. A. 3 B. 2 C. 5 D. * 4

3. Uranus has _____ moons (satellites). A. * 15 B. 18 C. 16

D. 12

4. After Sun, the nearest star proxima Centauri is at a distance of about _____ million kilometers from the Earth. A. 20 B. 60 C. 50 D. * 40

5. _____ is visible with naked eye shortly after the sunset or shortly before the sunset. A. * Mercury B. Mars C. Uranus D. Venus

6. The temperature (at cloud top) of Uranus is. ∘

A. * -200 c ∘

B. -185 c ∘

C. -215 c ∘

D. -195 c

7. Earth is the _____ planet from the sun.

A. 2nd B. * 3rd C. 4th D. 5th

8. Which is the nearest star to our sun? A. vega B. * Proxima Centauri C. Alpha Scorpii D. Beta orionis

9. Light year is defined as the distance travelled by light in one year. This unit is used to measure distances between the galaxies How much is one light year approximately equal to? A. Five million B. One million km C. * Ten million km D. One hundred million km

10. Milky Way is a spiral galaxy about-parsecs across? A. 10, 000 B. * 30, 000

C. 50, 000 D. 55, 000

11. There are _____ gaseous planets in our Solar System. A. None B. 2 C. 3 D. * 4

12. In the beginning, the temperature of the universe was _____ million degree centigrade. A. * 100, 000 B. 50, 000 C. 200, 000 D. 10, 000

13. The average surface temperature of Mars is. ∘

A. -40 c ∘

B. * -50 c ∘

C. -45 c ∘

D. -55 c

14. When did Edmund Halley calculate the orbit of Halley’s comet? A. 1750 B. * 1705 C. 1710 D. 1715

15. Mercury has an abundance of _____ and other metals. A. Gas B. Coal C. * Iron D. Carbon

16. It is accepted that most the planets in the Solar System have or had, rotation period of about _____hours. A. 24 B. 8 C. 12 D. * 10

17. _____ is called a twin of Uranus due to their similarity of size, mass and composition. A. Jupiter

B. Pluto C. Saturn D. * Neptune

18. The surface temperature of Venus is. ∘

A. 400 c ∘

B. 450 c ∘

C. 435 c ∘

D. * 462 c

19. The visible surface of the Sun is called. A. Thermosphere B. Mesosphere C. * Photosphere D. Stratosphere

20. The brightest planet is. A. * Venus B. Mercury C. Earth D. Ncptune

21. There are only 0 (zero) to _____ lunar eclipses per year. A. 2 B. 5 C. * 3 D. 6

22. Red shift experiments have shown that the universe is expanding Who first provided evidence for the expansion of the universe? A. * Edwin P Hubbel B. Henry Russcl C. George Gamow D. William Huggins

23. Planets are visible only because they reflect. A. Gravity B. Radiation C. Moonlight D. * Sunlight

24. The relationship between the tides (in the oceans ) and the moon was explained with lsaac Newton’s theory of gravitation in. A. 1689

B. 1655 C. 1692 D. * 1687

25. The time of the big ben is taken as time. A. Twelve B. Six C. One D. * Zero

26. What is the distance of the moon from the earth? A. * 385, 000 km B. 375, 000 km C. 380, 000 km D. 360, 000 km

27. At the time of occurrence of the total solar eclipse, what is the phase of the moon? A. Waning globous B. Quarter moon C. * New moon D. First moon

28. The diameter of Uranus is. A. 52, 300 km B. * 51, 300 km C. 53, 300 km D. 54, 200 km

29. Black hole is a hypothetical region in space having tremendously high gravitational pull. Which one of the following also refers to black holes? A. Collapsing object of very high density B. * Holes occurring in heavenly bodies C. Black spots on the Sun D. Craters on the moon

30. The average distance of Saturn from the Sun is. A. 1422 × 10 km 5

B. 1426 × 10 km 6

C. * 1427 × 10 km 6

D. 1425 × 10 km 6

31. Neptune was discovered in. A. * 1848

B. 1821 C. 1845 D. 1844

32. Name the gas which was discovered on the Sun about 130 years ago during eclipse-watching. A. Argon B. Nitrogen C. Hydrogen D. * Helium

33. Jupiter has _____ moons. A. 15 B. 18 C. * 16 D. 14

34. Saturn has _____ moons (satellites). A. * 23 B. 22 C. 18 D. 20

35. Early imprints of life on Earth have been discovered in rocks, _____ billion years old. A. * 3. 8 B. 2 C. 2. 8 D. 3. 5

36. Flares are fairly short lived outbursts of energy These were discovered by Carrington in. A. 1858 B. * 1859 C. 1848 D. 1850

37. How many moons Mars have? A. None B. * 2 C. 3 D. 4

38. The visible cloud layer of the Jupiter is composed of frozen crystals of.

A. Argon B. Hydrogen C. * Ammonia D. Nitrogen

39. When was famous Halley’s comet first seen? A. 1531 B. 1607 C. 1682 D. * 1456

40. Scientists have known since _____ that the universe is expanding. A. 1890 B. 1930 C. 1910 D. * 1920

41. The mass of Sun is _____ times of mass of Earth. A. 332, 220 B. * 333, 400 C. 323, 440

D. 323, 400

42. Which planet of our Solar System is called Morning Star? A. * Venus B. Jupiter C. Mercury D. Mars

43. The second brightest planet in the Sky, which can be seen with naked eye is. A. * Jupiter B. Mars C. Venus D. Neptune

44. While seen from the moon, the Earth appears as _____ planet with a dynamic layer of white clouds in its atmosphere. A. Black B. Grey C. Red D. * Blue

45. The average temperature of Pluto is estimated to be.

∘

A. -325 F ∘

B. -355 F ∘

C. -360 F ∘

D. * -370 F

46. Jupiter. s atmosphere is observed to be consisted hydrogen and. A. Carbon dioxide B. Oxygen C. Neon D. * Helium

47. Mars, also called Red Planet, is covered with. A. Red water B. Red atmosphere C. Red clouds D. * Red dust

48. Which gas is dominant in the atmosphere of Venus? A. Nitrogen B. * Garbon dioxide C. Helium

D. Oxygen

49. Pluto’s rotation period is 6. 4 days while period along the orbit is _____ years. A. 274. 8 B. 299. 7 C. * 248. 4 D. 256. 2

50. Which planet is nearly of the same size as that of the Earth? A. Mercury B. Neptune C. Mars D. * Venue

51. Patches on the surface of the Sun are called Sun spots, these spots look. A. Brigh B. * Dark C. colourless D. Black

52. The planets perform _____types of motions.

A. 4 B. 3 C. * 2 D. 5

53. _____ is the fastest planet in rotation. A. Pluto B. Mars C. Venus D. * Jupiter

54. A black hole is defined as an object whose matter has become so condensed that its gravitational field is strong enough to prevent light_____ from it. A. Entering B. Expanding C. * Escaping D. Deviating

55. The orbits of the planet are _____ and lie roughly in the same plane. A. Circular B. Square

C. * Elliptical D. Rectangular

56. The Moon orbits around the Earth once every. A. 25. 6 days B. 24. 7 days C. * 27. 3 days D. 28. 3 days

57. Atmosphere of Venus is moving. A. Slowly B. Very slowly C. * Rapidly D. Very rapidly

58. The collection of dust, gas and stars measuring thousands of parsecs across. A. * Galaxy B. Milky Way C. Black Hole D. Solar System

59. The average temperature on the surface of the Earth is. ∘

A. 35 c ∘

B. 25 c ∘

C. 20 c ∘

D. * 15 c

60. About how much energy is radiated per square meter of sun’s surface into space? A. * 64 million watts B. 62 million watts C. 64 million watts D. 62 million watts

61. There is no _____ around the Mercury. A. Dust B. * Atmosphere C. Light D. Space

62. The diameter of Saturn is. A. 111, 600 kms B. 120, 400 kms

C. 116, 400 kms D. * 120, 600 kms

63. _____ is used to measure the speed of an aircraft relative to the speed of sound. A. Telemeter B. Speedometer C. Altimeter D. * Machmeter

64. About how many miles above the surface of the Earth, the Hubble Space Telescope is orbiting? A. 280 miles B. * 380 miles C. 300 miles D. 200 miles

65. Who was the pioneer of modern astronomy? A. Robert Wilson B. Arno Penzias C. * Edwin P Hubble

66. When did space shuttle Challenger exploded in which seven astronauts

died? A. * January 28, 1986 B. December 28, 1986 C. February 28, 1986 D. January 28, 1985

67. The farthest away planet to the Sun is. A. * Pluto B. Neptune C. Uranus D. Jupiter

68. The Sun is a _____ star of the galaxy. A. Large sized B. Small sized C. * Medium sized D. Very huge sized

69. The lightest planet of the Solar System is. A. Jupiter B. Neptune

C. Uranus D. * Saturn

70. There are more than _____ billions in galaxy. A. 100 B. 500 C. * 200 D. 1000

71. Due to absence of air, the Sky is always black and full of. A. Light B. Dust C. * Star D. Density

72. There is a change of _____ on the Mars. A. * Weathers B. Clouds C. Atmospheres D. Lights

73. The temperature of Saturn at cloud top is.

∘

A. -16 c ∘

B. * -182 c ∘

C. -145 c ∘

D. -175 c

74. What does NASA stand for? A. Nuclear Atlantic Supervisory B. * National Aeronautics and Speed Administration C. National Agency for Space Administration D. None of these

75. Neptune has _____ moons. A. 6 B. 4 C. * 8 D. 2

76. Astronomical unit is a bigger unit of distance and it is used to measure distance between the heavenly bodies of the Solar System One astronomical unit is equal to how much km in whole numbers? A. * 150 million km B. 205 million km

C. 50 million km D. One million km

77. Mars atmosphere is principally composed of. A. Helium B. Nitrogen C. Argon D. * Carbon dioxide

78. Name the physical state in which most of the matter of the universe is conserved. A. Solid B. * Plasma C. Liquid D. Gas

79. The average distance of Mercury from the Sun is _____ kilometers. A. 56.9 × 10

5

B. * 57.9 × 10

6

C. 57.8 × 10

6

D. 56.9 × 10

8

80. The Sun rises on the North pole on the 21st March and this Pole remains in light till which date? A. 22 nd June B. 20th August C. 20th December D. * 23rd September

81. Name the closest planet to the sun. A. Earth B. * Mercury C. Mars D. Venus

82. Uranus completes its rotation in 17. 2 hours and trip in its orbit in. A. 80 years B. 82 years C. * 84 years D. 78 years

83. The average temperature of Jupiter is. ∘

A. * 130 c ∘

B. 140 c

∘

C. 150 c ∘

D. 120 c

84. The surface layer of the Earth the crust, has an average thickness of_____km over the continental area. A. 20 B. * 32 C. 30 D. 42

85. What is the shape of our Milky Way galaxy? A. * Rectangular B. Spiral C. Irregular D. Elliptic

86. Venus rotates from east to west opposite to most other planets and completes one trip in. A. * 243 days B. 250 days C. 263 days D. 242 days

87. The diameter of Neptune is. A. 48200 km B. 52200 km C. 54100 km D. * 49100 km

88. Name the famous comet which visited Earth in 1986. A. Ncujmin 1 B. Crommelin C. Pons-brooks D. * Halley

89. Visible light coming from the Sun is composed of _____ colors. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. * 7

90. The period of is its rotation is 24. 6 hours while period of revolution around the Sun is _____ days. A. 680

B. 655 C. 692 D. * 687

91. The atmosphere of the Venus is extremely thick and the atmospheric pressure of gases is _____ times more as compared with that of the Earth. A. 75 B. * 90 C. 85 D. 92

92. The diameter of Pluto is. A. 2200 kms B. * 2300 kms C. 2100 kms D. 2400 kms

93. After how much time, a total solar eclipse passes over a particular spot on the Earth? A. * 360 years after B. 260 years after C. 200 years after

D. 240 years after

94. The distance of Jupiter from Sun is. A. 778. 3 ×10 km 5

B. 777. 8 ×10 km 5

C. * 778. 3 ×10 km 6

D. 776. 6 ×10 km 6

95. Up till now, _____satellites (moons) of the planets have been discovered. A. 69 B. * 67 C. 59 D. 58

96. The temperature at the core is very high about. ∘

A. 4500 c ∘

B. 5600 c ∘

C. * 5000 c ∘

D. 5300 c

97. Hwo many stars are present in our Milky Way galaxy? A. 10

2

B. 10

6

C. * 10

11

D. 10

33

98. The first spaceship to land on Moon was Soviet Union’s Sputnik-1 in. A. July 1964 B. * Oct 1957 C. Ang 1969 D. Sept 1959

99. Who invented the infrared telescope? A. George Gamow B. David Allan C. * Frank Low D. David Gregory

100. How much time the light takes to reach from the Sun to the Earth? A. 6 minutes and 45 seconds B. 7 minutes and 20 seconds C. * 8 minutes and 15 seconds D. 9 minutes 15 seconds

101. The center of the Earth is called _____ and is composed of highly dense liquid. A. * Core B. Crust C. Mantle D. Magnetic field

102. One parsec is equal to 3. 26 light year. All the stars are more than one parsec distance from the _____. A. Moon B. * Earth C. Sun D. Orbit

103. Radio telescope is different from optical telescope. Who was the first to build a radio telescope? A. Karl jansky B. * Van de Hurst C. John Flamsteed D. Bernard Lovell

104. The Earth completes its rotation along its axis in _____ hours and one trip along its orbit in 365 days, 6 hours 9 minutes and 9. 54 seconds.

A. 22. 9 B. * 23. 9 C. 23. 5 D. 23. 8

105. Which planet has maximum number of moons? A. Jupiter B. Mars C. Mercury D. * Saturn

106. Meteorites are classified into _____ groups. A. 3 B. * 2 C. 4 D. 6

107. The Sun revolves around the nucleus of the galaxy once in _____ years This duration is also called the cosmic year. A. 250 million B. * 225 million C. 325 million

D. 425 million

108. The last discovered planet was. A. Uranus B. Jupiter C. Neptune D. * Pluto

109. The smallest planet of our Solar System is? A. Earth B. Mars C. * Pluto D. Venus

110. Light is scattered by molecules of air, dust particles and water vaporous present in the _____ this scattering is inversely proportional to wavelength of light. A. * Atmoshpere B. clouds C. Liquid D. Dust

111. Name the unit of length equal to the average distance between the Earth

and sun. A. Aeronautical unit B. Small unit C. * Astronomical unit D. Parsec

112. The sun has nearly _____ times the diameter of the Earth A. * 109 B. 105 C. 100 D. 113

113. Our _____ is in the Milky Way galaxy. A. Earth B. Moon C. Sun D. * Solar System

114. The moons of Jupiter were discovered by Galileo in. A. 1620 B. * 1610

C. 1630 D. 1645

115. Mars is usually visible to naked eye as a bright_____ spot in the sky. A. Blue B. Yellow C. Violet D. * Red

116. What is the approximate age of the sun? A. * 6. 4 billion years B. 6. 2 billion years C. 6. 3 billion years D. 6. 4 billion years

117. The volume of Jupiter is _____ times the volume of Earth. A. 1319 B. * 1317 C. 1312 D. 1305

118. Lunar eclipses occur only at.

A. First quarter B. New moon C. * Full moon D. Last quarter

119. _____has on moon. A. Mars B. Uranus C. * Mercury D. Pluto

120. Moon orbits the Sun once in about _____ days (with the Earth). A. 365. 25 B. * 355. 25 C. 345. 25 D. 375. 25

121. Sky looks blue due to scattering of. A. Size B. Density C. Atmosphere

D. * Temperature

122. Asteroids are also called minor planets of the Solar System There are about _____ asteroids. A. * 40, 000 B. 45, 000 C. 42, 000 D. 35, 000

123. Which is the largest planet of our Solar System is? A. * Jupiter B. Saturn C. Uranus D. Neptune

124. The diameter of Mercury is. A. 4, 560 kms B. 4, 550 kms C. * 4, 878 kms D. 4, 800 kms

125. Clouds around the Jupiter are present in about _____ layers.

A. * 3 B. 6 C. 4 D. 2

126. The atmosphere of Saturn contains a major amount of methane and lesser amount of. A. Argon B. Hydrogen C. * Ammonia D. Carbon dioxide

127. There are millions of galaxies in the universe, A group of galaxies is called galactic cluster What is the name of a small cluster to which our Milky Way belongs to? A. Large group B. Small group C. Zero group D. * Local group

128. _____ was the first planet to be discovered with the help of a telescope. A. Jupiter B. Saturn

C. Neptune D. * Uranus

129. The temperature of Neptune at cloud top is. ∘

A. -220 c ∘

B. 205 c ∘

C. * -200 c ∘

D. 207 c

130. Mercury completes its period of one revolution around the Sun in _____ days (of the Earth). A. * 87. 969 B. 88. 969 C. 89. 696 D. 86. 969

131. The distance of the Uranus from the Sun is. A. 2670 × 10 km 6

B. 2880 × 10 km 6

C. 2770 × 10 km 6

D. * 2870 × 10 km 6

132. It is possible to see that stars vary in colour. These colour differences reflect differences in. A. Size B. Density C. Atmosphere D. * Temperature

133. Name the most widely accepted theory about the origin of the universe. A. Expansion theory B. * Big Bang theory C. Explosion theory D. Gravitational theory

134. The mean equatorial diameter of Moon is _____ km. A. * 3776 km B. 3476 km C. 3420 km D. 3576 km

135. The Sun is undergoing rotatory motion and a round is completed in about a. A. Year

B. Day C. Hour D. * Month

136. One of the major reasons besides explorations to send man to Mars is to look for _____ on it. A. Changes B. * Life C. Caves D. Streams

137. The orbit of the Earth is. A. * Ellipse B. rectangular C. Circular D. Square

138. The diameter of the planet (Mars)is. A. 6887 kms B. 6778 kms C. * 6787 kms D. 6877 kms

139. Pluto has a moon named Charon which discovered in. A. * 1978 B. 1982 C. 1930 D. 1945

140. There are _____ broad classes of galaxies. A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. * 4

141. Which is the densest planet of our Solar System? A. Pluto B. Mercury C. * Earth D. Saturn

142. Parsec is a unit of _____ equal to the distance at which the mean radius of the Earth’s orbit subtends an angle of one second of are. A. Light

B. * Length C. Distance D. Radius