Educart CUET UG 2024 English Mock Papers 2024 (Section IA, new NTA syllabus) 9360542237, 9789360542238

Table of contents :
Cover
Title
Contents
CUET (UG) English Theory.pdf
CUET English 2023.pdf
CUET English Solved Paper (18 Aug 2022 S-2).pdf
CUET English Solved Paper (19 July 2022 S-1).pdf
CUET English Mock Test Paper.pdf
CUET English Practice Paper-1.pdf
CUET English Practice Paper-2.pdf
CUET English Practice Paper-3-Question.pdf
CUET English Practice Paper-4-Question.pdf
CUET English Practice Paper-5_Question.pdf
CUET English Practice Paper-6_Question.pdf
CUET English Practice Paper-7_Question.pdf
CUET English Practice Paper-8-Question.pdf
CUET English Practice Paper-9_Question.pdf
CUET English Practice Paper-10-Question.pdf
CUET English Practice Paper-11 (SA).pdf
CUET English Practice Paper-12 (SA).pdf

Citation preview

CONTENTS English (101)

CUET 2024

CUET Official Papers & Mock Papers

1

CUET 2023 Slot 3 Paper (Solved)



8

CUET 2022 Slot 2 Paper (Solved)



16

CUET 2022 Slot 1 Paper (Solved)



25

CUET 2022 Official Mock Test Paper (Solved)



34

Educart Mock Paper - 1 (Solved)



44

Educart Mock Paper - 2 (Solved)



54

Educart Mock Paper - 3 (Self-Assessment)



64

Educart Mock Paper - 4 (Self-Assessment)



71

Educart Mock Paper - 5 (Self-Assessment)



78

Educart Mock Paper - 6 (Self-Assessment)



85

Educart Mock Paper - 7 (Self-Assessment)



92

Educart Mock Paper - 8 (Self-Assessment)



99

Educart Mock Paper - 9 (Self-Assessment)

106

Educart Mock Paper - 10 (Self-Assessment)



113

Educart Mock Paper - 11 (Self-Assessment)



120

Educart Mock Paper - 12 (Self-Assessment)



127

Practice OMR Sheets

134

Focus Points



THEORY READING COMPREHENSIONS Active or good readers are the ones who are able to note the structure, or organisation of the text, and create a mental overview or outline, while also identifying the text’s type. They are able to use their prior knowledge to clarify the meanings of given words and phrases, predict about what might happen next and understand ideas as they encounter them. Passive or poor readers, on the other hand, do not read with a specific purpose in mind. They get stuck on words which confuse them and are not able to use their prior knowledge to understand the text completely. So, it is important for the students to become active readers in order to score well in the language section.

Tips and Tricks Passages can be energy-sapping, informationintensive, and mind-boggling at times! So, it is important to bear a few things in mind while reading questions to sail through smoothly. 1. Emphasize on the main ideas of the passage You just need to understand the main points of the text without worrying about comprehending all the associated examples. While the details in a reading passage are important, don't get carried away with reading examples, illustrations, and so on. Being able to gauge the overall flow and structure will help you analyse and answer the questions. 2. Understand the overall flow of the text Getting a hang of the flow, organisational structure and the central idea of the passage should be your main priority. Do not try to memorise the text as it will only waste your time and confuse you. For factual or specific point questions, you can always re-read the passage. 3. Read the passage first and the questions later It is vital that you read the passage first and then the questions. This will prepare you to focus on the things you need to look for in the passage. Focus only on the questions, and not on a particular part of the passage to answer a question.

4. Vocabulary can be derived from context While having a good vocabulary is always an advantage, do not let it bog you down. It is not necessary to understand the meanings of all the words in the passage as meanings can be derived from the context as well. 5. Do the easy questions (MCQ) first and the tougher ones later Focus on the ones that you can answer easily. Go back to the tricky questions later. If you are struggling with an incomprehensible question in the exam, make sure you have the patience to leave that specific question for the end. 6. The correct option always comes from within the passage The right answer is always based on the information given within the passage. Any of the options that are out of the scope of the passage or one which requires you to know something from your background knowledge is never the correct answer. 7. Read the questions properly A passage may focus on one point for quite a bit of sentences and then change it towards the end with trigger words like 'but' or 'however'. This will usually confuse readers who skim through the passage or rush through it. So, it is always better to read the questions properly.

Discursive/Literary/Narrative Passage A discursive/literary passage is one that has less ambiguity and talks about disconnected topics. These are often based on a person’s opinion which is generally argumentative, persuasive, or interpretative, with open-ended conclusions at times. Students arrive at a conclusion through reasoning and intuition which can be challenging at times, as ideas may not have a logical connection to one another.

Example 1: To understand the various types of questions that can be asked in a Discursive/Literary/

Narrative passage. Read the passage given below: (1) Today I, Rabindranath Tagore, complete eighty years of my life. As I look back on the vast stretch of years that lie behind me and see in clear perspective the history of my early development, I am struck by the change that has taken place both in my own attitude and in the psychology of my countrymen - a change that carries within it a cause of profound tragedy. (2) Our direct contact with the larger world of men was linked up with the contemporary history of the English people whom we came to know in those earlier days. It was mainly through their mighty literature that we

Comprehensions, Grammar and Vocabulary (Theory)

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formed our ideas with regard to these newcomers to our Indian shores. In those days, the type of learning that was served out to us was neither plentiful nor diverse, nor was the spirit of scientific enquiry very much in evidence. Thus, their scope being strictly limited, the educated of those days had recourse to English language and literature. Their days and nights were eloquent with the stately declamations of Burke, with Macaulay’s long-rolling sentences; discussions centered upon Shakespeare’s drama and Byron’s poetry, and above all upon the large-hearted liberalism of nineteenth-century English politics. (3) At the time, though tentative attempts were being made to gain our national independence, at heart we had not lost faith in the generosity of the English race. This belief was so firmly rooted in the sentiments of our leaders as to lead them to hope that the victor would of his own grace pave the path of freedom for the vanquished. This belief was based upon the fact that England at the time provided a shelter to all those who had to flee from persecution in their own country. Political martyrs who had suffered for the honour of their people were accorded unreserved welcome at the hands of the English. (4) I was impressed by this evidence of liberal humanity in the character of the English and thus, I was led to set them on the pedestal of my highest respect. This generosity in their national character had not yet been vitiated by imperialist pride. About this time, as a boy in England, I had the opportunity of listening to the speeches of John Bright, both in and outside parliament. The large-hearted, radical liberalism of those speeches, overflowing all narrow national bounds, had made so deep an impression on my mind that something of it lingers even today, even in these days of graceless disillusionment. (A) Choose the option that best captures the central idea of the passage from the given quotes. ““Jai Hind”

“People are trapped —Netaji Subhash in history and history is trapped in them” Chandra Bose” —James Baldwin (1)

(2)

“A nation’s culture resides in the hearts and in the soul of its people.”

“History is who we are and why we are the way we are.”

—Mahatma Gandhi (3) (a) (1) (c) (3)

Theme-based question This question talks about the central idea of the passage encapsulated within a quote. Students have to understand the broader idea of the passage and choose from a set of quotes that best capture the idea. Look for words which describe the entire passage in such questions.

—David McCullough (4) (b) (2) (d) (4)

(B) What is the tone of the following context: “…a change that carries within it a cause of profound tragedy”? (a) boredom (b) pain and loss (c) tired (d) cheerful

Tone of the Passage

(C) Which of the following is relevant for the title of the passage? (a) Proud to be Independent (b) Crisis of Civilisation (c) Happy Indians (d) The Civilised Englishmen

Inference-based question

(D) Which of the following sentences makes the correct use of “vanquished”, as used in the passage? (a) The soldier successfully vanquished his rivals. (b) He tried to vanquish her fears. (c) Be courageous to vanquish all evils. (d) Vanquish your disease with this medicine.

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This is a commonly tested question with a pretty straightforward answer which requires you to read the entire passage and understand the intention of the writer behind writing it. Try to absorb the emotion depicted in the passage and then answer the question.

This question asks you to think about the passage and see which is the most befitting title for it as a reader. For this, students must grasp the central idea and choose the most appropriate title from the ones given.

Vocabulary-based question

In this, the different connotations of a particular word is asked. Do not worry if you do not know the meaning of the word in such a question. You will have to choose from a set of options, each set having two meanings of the word, with reference to the context.

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

(E) Tagore felt that Englishmen deserved his

highest respect because of .................... . their literature their open-minded humanity their providing refuge to people their modern outlook

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(F) Which word in the passage is closest in

meaning to ‘deep’? (a) perspective (c) tragedy

(b) profound (d) psychology

Fact-based question

This question is also an idea present in the passage. Look for the facts which provide you confirmation of this information in the text.

Vocabulary-based question

It tests the meaning of a particular word. In such questions, do not panic if you do not understand the meaning of the word in the first instance. Use the method of elimination to arrive at the correct answer.

(G) What do you understand from the line, “…

Context-based question

(H) Choose the option that correctly states the

Vocabulary-based question

attempts were being made to gain our national independence, at heart we had not lost faith in the generosity of the English race”? (a) Indians didn’t lose faith in the English (b) English race was selfish (c) Englishmen were full of words (d) Indians were fighting against generosity meaning of ‘liberal humanity’ as implied in the passage: (a) Bondage (b) Freedom of choice (c) Knowledge of humanity and society (d) All of the above

(I) The terms ‘large – hearted’ and ‘radical

liberalism’ are used for: (a) Macaulay (b) John Bright (c) Shakespeare (d) Byron

(J) What is the message conveyed in the last

paragraph of the passage? (a) Lack of generosity in the English people (b) Liberalism of the English (c) Loss of humanity (d) Loss of Indian pride

It tests the understanding of the line in the context of the passage. In such questions, it becomes critical for you to understand what the writer is trying to say in the entire passage rather than skimming through certain portions of it. Sometimes information can be present in a slanting manner using words such as ‘but’ and ‘however’. Read the passage with a calm mind and then decide the meaning of the line from the context. It tests the comprehension of a vocabulary item again which you need to skim out from the passage. Look for the portion of the passage which contains the idea and read the entire sentence to get a deeper understanding of the meaning of the idea ‘liberal humanity’ being conveyed. Then choose the option closest to it while answering such a question.

Fact-based question

This is a direct question about one of the ideas conveyed in the passage. Look for the portion in the passage with the keywords or the synonyms of those keywords mentioned in the question. From there, you will obtain your answer.

Theme-based question

This question is about the message conveyed through the passage and requires a holistic grasp of the ideas conveyed through the passage. Re-read the last paragraph of the passage and choose the option which is the most appropriate in such questions.

Ans. (A) (c) (3)

Explanation: In this passage, the author doesn’t talk about patriotism. So, (a) cannot be the answer. Rabindranath Tagore also doesn’t talk about the history of mankind. Hence, (b) & (d) are also not the answers. The answer here is (c) as in this passage Rabindranath Tagore tells us how Indian culture was influenced by the mannerism and speeches of the White people.

(B) (b) pain and loss

Explanation: In the above passage, the change that Rabindranath Tagore talks about is the change in culture and lifestyle of the Indian people since the arrival of the British. He feels that this change is heartbreaking and is no less than a tragedy. He is not bored or tired. Nor is he cheerful. These lines show his anguish. Hence, (b) is the correct answer.

Comprehensions, Grammar and Vocabulary (Theory)

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(C) (b) Crisis of Civilisation

Explanation: The passage is not about independence (a) or the Indian People (c). In this passage, Rabindranath Tagore expresses his agony over the cultural changes that have come around in Indian culture due to colonial rule. He calls this as no less than a tragedy that the real flavour of Indian civilisation has been lost. Hence, the answer here is (b).

(D) (a) The soldier successfully vanquished his rivals.

Explanation: Vanquish means to defeat. All the sentences given above refer to defeating either the enemy (a), fears (b), evils (c) or disease (d). But in the passage vanquished is used to refer to the defeated side in the war of independence. Hence, (a) is the correct answer.

(E) (b) their open-minded humanity

Explanation: Rabindranath Tagore tells us that whatever the people in those days got to know about the English was through their literature. And whatever we learned from them was thought to be modern. All this and the acceptance of fleeing political leaders from other countries made people think that the British were open minded and hence, deserved the highest respect. So, (b) is the correct answer.

(F) (b) profound

Explanation: Perspective is a point of view or attitude. Tragedy (c) is a mishap, Psychology (d) is mental status. Profound (b) represents intensity or depth of something. Hence, (b) is the correct answer.

(G) (a) Indians didn’t lose faith in the English

Explanation: Tagore earlier in the passage tells us that Indian people had developed a great sense of respect for the English. When the struggle for independence started they couldn’t forget the generosity of the English and with that in heart, Indian leaders thought that the generous nature of the British would win them freedom. Hence, (a) is the right answer.

(H) (b) Freedom of choice Explanation: The term 'liberal humanity' refers to the idea that human beings are free and have rights for themselves. Here, (b) depicts the similar meaning. Hence, (b) is the right answer. (I) (b) John Bright

Explanation: Macaulay, Shakespeare and Byron all were great writers and poets of their time and people enjoyed their writings. In the last paragraph of the passage, Tagore writes that he was greatly influenced by the radical liberalism of the English leaders. Towards the end of the paragraph he writes that he had the opportunity of hearing the speeches of John Bright, both inside and outside the parliament. Hence the answer here is (b).

(J) (b) Liberalism of the English

Explanation: The whole passage is about how the generosity and liberalism of the English fascinated the Indians and even influenced the independence struggle. In the first paragraph Tagore writes about the loss of Indian pride at the hands of the British. In the last paragraph, he writes how their liberalism influenced his own mind and thoughts. Therefore (b) is the answer.

GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY NTA has decided to include Grammar and Vocabulary elements in competition and entrance exams to test students' overall understanding of English concepts. This is also relevant for the upcoming CUET entrance to be held pan - India. As per the guidelines and syllabus given by NTA, the two portions will be covering the following:

Grammar 1. Verbal Ability 2. Rearranging the parts 3. Choosing the correct word

Vocabulary 4. Synonyms and Antonyms 5. Word meanings We will cover each type of topic here for the students to understand how they are applied and what type of MCQs will be asked in Section 1A of the CUET paper on these topics.

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CUET Mock Papers English-1A

1. Verbal Ability (Grammar)

Verbal Ability is defined as the ability to express ideas using words in a coherent and clear manner. The verbal ability sections form the major chunk in the competitive exams require good sentence-forming skills to do well. Verbal ability questions are more confusing than they are tough. The 4 options provided appear so similar that elimination of options usually becomes difficult. The candidate is supposed to have the knowledge of exceptional cases apart from the basics.



For CUET (UG)-2024, we will be explaining, all possible MCQ types in detail that can be asked in the Verbal ability category.

Example 3: Select the option that correctly justifies the authoritative tone of the concluding portion of an angry resident letter by you on the ‘children begging on the streets’ issue. 1. I expect the authorities to take stern action on this issue. 2. I hope my views get passed on to the concerned authority. (a) Option (1) is the authoritative conclusion (b) Option (2) is the authoritative conclusion (c) Option (1) and (2) are both authoritative conclusions (d) None of the two options are authoritative conclusions

Statement Combination (MCQ type) This is a new style of MCQ nowadays asked in various school boards. Here, two statements are given and the student is expected to apply their critical evaluation skills. Understanding the keywords in the sentence and the essence of it, to identify the apt statement and correlation between statements (if any). Focus on the choice of connecting or action words used in the sentence and identify if there is a connection.

Ans: (a)  Option (1) is the authoritative conclusion Explanation: (c) Clearly, option (1) is very authoritative and dominating in tone. It doesn’t feel like a request. However, option (2) is more polite and requesting than option (1). Hence, (a) is the only right answer.

Example 4: In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase. “To add fuel to the fire” (a) To aggravate some matter (b) To increase the simplicity (c) To add more self-doubt (d) Purest form of water

Idioms (MCQ type) Idioms will be asked too and this is a typical example of an expected MCQ. An idiom is a phrase that has a non-literal meaning attached to it, but used to convey something indirectly. It is usually not understandable based on the words within the phrase alone. To answer such MCQs, prior knowledge of having heard of that idiom is very helpful. Example: “Break a leg” which means “good luck, give a good performance”. Figuring out the indirect meaning and identifying the option that has the closest resemblance to that meaning is also a method but slightly difficult.

Ans: (a)  To aggravate some matter Explanation: The idiom 'to add fuel to the fire' means to make an already bad situation worse. ‘Aggravate’ means to catalyse something and ‘matter’ is a generic meaning of ‘a situation’. Other options aren’t related. Therefore, the correct meaning of the given idiom is 'to aggravate some matter'.

Example 5: Which of the following sentences has the correct punctuation marks about C.M.? (a) The bridge was inaugurated by the C.m.. (b) The bridge was inaugurated by the c.m. (c) The bridge was inaugurated, by the C.M.. (d) The bridge was inaugurated by the C.M.

Punctuation (MCQ type) Punctuation is the right use of stops, pauses or/ and various marks; to make the meaning of a sentence or passage clear and correct. These types of MCQs are relatively easy to answer if the basics are clear. In the upcoming CUET (UG)-2024 paper, such MCQs could also be asked.

Ans: (d)  The bridge was inaugurated by the C.M.

Comprehensions, Grammar and Vocabulary (Theory)

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Explanation: Although any sentence should end in a full stop but in this case, we do not use a full stop (.) after abbreviations. Also, ‘C.m.’ is a wrong form of abbreviation and the sentence should start with a capital letter. Hence, (d) is the correct one.

2. Rearranging the parts (Grammar)

As the name suggests, rearranging the parts refers to re-arranging a bunch of phrases to form a complete sentence. Students need to identify the correct order. The topic from which the jumbled lines are picked is miscellaneous and students do not need to have any prior knowledge of the topic to rearrange the lines. Let’s jump on to a simple example below to understand better.

Example 6: Rearrange these lines labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. P: is one of the most widely used indicators Q: of ecosystems and their biodiversity R: for assessing the condition S: The conservation status of plants and animals (a) SPRQ (b) SRQP (c) QRPS (d) PQRS

Rearrangement (MCQ type) This MCQ type may also be asked in the exam. The simple trick to answer this type of question correctly is to first look for a starting line which should be beginning with a capital letter, followed by a line that makes most sense as a follow-up (try fitting in all the other 3 lines with the first line to identify which makes most sense). Carry on until the last line and you will easily come up with the right sequence.

Ans: (a)  SPRQ Explanation: This is a pretty straightforward MCQ type and not much is needed to explain. The order of remaining options (b, c, d) cannot make a meaningful sentence. Thus, (a) is the right answer.

3. Choosing the correct word (Grammar)

Fill-in-the-blank-type questions differ from the other question types, in that they require recollection skills. In ‘Fill in the blanks’ (aka sentence completion), candidates are given an incomplete sentence with one or more words missing and four options. The candidates are required to choose the right option (word/set of words) to fill the gaps and make the sentence whole. For this a student should read the given sentence carefully and understand the crux and logical structure of the sentence. This will enable him/her to determine the kind of word that is required to fill the blank based on the context. Let us understand better from the example given below:

Example 7: Select the word from the given options that you consider most appropriate for the blank space. “Since they are, ............... they do not sweat and whine about their condition.” (a) happy (b) self-contented (c) egoistic (d) cold-hearted

Fill In the Blank (MCQ type) This type of MCQ will definitely be asked in the CUET (UG)-2024 exam as it tests your ability to apply the right use of word(s) within sentences to sum up the mood, trait or behaviour of the subject. The best way to answer these MCQs is to visualise the word(s) that will fit in and identify the closest option to that (or those) word(s).

Ans: (b) self-contented Explanation: The words ‘do not’ suggest that the subject does not make too much of a fuss. This line suggests that the subject is satisfied with its condition. The subject is ‘content’ with what it has. ‘Egoistic’ or ‘cold-hearted’ is a negative outlook and ‘happy’ is too positive to suit the condition. Hence, (b) is the correct answer.

4. Synonyms and Antonyms (Vocabulary)

Antonyms and Synonyms are asked very frequently in most government and entrance exams. These types of questions test your vocabulary acumen and memory. An antonym is a word that has the opposite meaning to a given word. On the other hand, a synonym is a word that has the same meaning as a given word.

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CUET Mock Papers English-1A

Example 8: Select the option that fits with the following: Slouching: straight :: ............ : ............ (a) Transparent : translucent (b) Lazy : agile (c) Forgetful : lively (d) Generous : liberal

Antonym Synonym (MCQ type) These types of MCQs will be asked in either as one word, an underlined word within a sentence or the relationship between two words as given in this particular example. You have to make sure you first identify if the question is asking for a synonym or antonym. Then eliminate the other 3 options one by one and conclude on the closest option.

Ans: (b)  Lazy: agile Explanation: Slouching means to bend at an angle, which is opposite of straight. So the concept used here is that of opposite words. The words lazy and agile are opposite to each other in the same way as slouching and straight are. Hence (b) is the right answer. Also, remember ‘translucent’ in option (a) here means partially transparent (‘opaque’ is the opposite word). That was a tricky option.

5. Word Meanings (Vocabulary)

A robust vocabulary improves all areas of communication — listening, speaking, reading and writing. Vocabulary is critical to a student’s success because it helps students think and learn about the world, expands their knowledge of words and provides unlimited access to new information. So what does it mean to know a word and how should one approach a question demanding the same? “Knowing” a word means : understanding its basic meaning (denotation) and also any evaluative or associated meaning it has (connotation). Let us understand this with the help of an example:

Example 9: Match the words listed in column (A) with their meaning in column (B). Column (A)

Column (A)

A. Disfigured

1. be foolish

B. Witless

2. think deeply

C. Scurried

3. spoil the appearance

D. Contemplating 4. move hurriedly with short steps (a) (b) (c) (d)

A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Match the Following (MCQ type) These are vocabulary questions where purely meaning of words will be tested. Prior knowledge of all words is not necessary as the concept of elimination can be easily applied. Pick the most familiar or easy combination first, then eliminate options which do not provide that combination. Identify another such combination to narrow down to 1-2 options only.

Ans: (c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 Explanation: In this question, ‘scurried’ means to move quickly, which is similar to 4. Next, 'disfigured’ means to mess up the structure, which connects it well to spoil the appearance. Keeping this in mind, the option (c) is the only correct combination.

Comprehensions, Grammar and Vocabulary (Theory)

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NTA CUET (UG) OFFICIAL PAPER (15th June, 2023, Slot-3) SOLVED

ENGLISH Time Allowed: 45 Minutes

Maximum Marks: 200

General Instructions:  For every correct answer, 5 marks will be awarded.  1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.  40 Questions to be attempted out of 50.

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5): Read the following passage and answer the question that follows: Your body is almost two-thirds water, so staying hydrated is important. Teenagers should aim to drink six to eight glasses of water per day, according to the British Nutrition Foundation. That number increases for teens who engage in sports or are especially active. Other good sources of fluid include 100  percent fruit juice and low–fat milk. Sugary and caffeinated drinks should be limited or eliminated from the diet completely as they provide excess sugar and empty calories. According to the Cleveland Clinic, teenagers need at least nine hours of sleep each night to function at their best during the day. It sounds easy enough, but with early school start times, late afternoon practices and hours of homework, getting enough sleep can be a challenge. Set a regular bedtime that allows for nine hours of sleep before you have to get up for school. You should also plan for at least an hour of “quiet time” prior to bedtime. The goal is for all electronics to be turned off for the night s++o that the brain and body relax. Ouiet time may involve listening to soothing music or reading a book.

1. Sports persons need to stay hydrated. They should drink enough: (a) water and 100% fruit juices (b) water, milk, coffee (b) water, juice, tea and coffee (d) sugary and caffeinated drinks as well as enough plain water

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2. Why can’t teenagers get enough sleep? (I) early start at school (II) lot of work at school (III) lot of homework everyday (IV) busy with friends Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (I), (II), (III) and (IV) (b) (I) and (III) only (c) (I), (III) and (IV) only (d) (II), (III) and (IV) only

3. Young people need to do the following in order to get a nine hour sleep: (I) switch off electronics before bedtime. (II) switch off all electronics for the night. (III) find quiet time before bedtime. (IV) find a quiet time & place to sleep.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (II) and (III) only (b) (I), (II), (III) and (IV) (c) (II), (III) and (IV) only (d) (I), (II) and (III) only

4. Choose the heading that best explains the two sections in the text given: (I) Watch your beverage intake (II) Eat right, sleep tight (III) If you don’t snooze, you lose (IV) Making time for friends

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (I) and (III) only (b) (I) and (II) only (c) (II) and (III) only (d) (II) and (IV) only

5. Match List-I with List-II. List-I

List-II

(A)

Modal

(I)

to be eliminated completely

(B)

Adjective

(II)

should be eliminated

(C)

Adverb

(III)

sugary, caffeinated drinks

(D) Passive voice

(IV) electronics to be turned off

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV) (b) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) (c) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) (d) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10): Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow: Conducting an interview should be like painting by numbers if you are properly prepared. Consider the various aspects of the interview that benefit from early preparation. Some of these may seem obvious, but if left until the candidates are at the door, they can have a negative effect on the process. A checklist will help to make sure everything is planned and some of the less obvious considerations remembered. Frequently overlooked is the choice of venue and its layout; this can effect the atmosphere of the interview and how candidates respond. The room can be feet forbidding, formal, relaxed or cosy, depending on how the furniture is arranged and how the interviewers behave towards the candidates. Interviewing can be stressful for candidates and interviewers alike, so take account of this in the timing of the interview behave towards the candidates, developing skills in how to question and supply information to candidates will smooth the flow and help interviewers improve their performance. Of course, question technique, active listening and observation skills benefit managers in other areas of their work, too. The way in which the interview is ended also has an effect on the candidates and may well effect whether the desired candidate decides whether to accept the offer of employment or reject it.

6. Who is the intended audience of the passage? (a) Job applicants (b) Students (c) Teachers (d) Interviewers

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2023

7. According to the passage, which of the

following DOES NOT help in reducing stress during an interview? (a) The behaviour of the interviewer. (b) Timing of the interview. (c) The ability of the interviewer to intimidate the candidate. (d) The ability of the interviewer to convey information to the candidate.

8. Choose a word from the passage that is closest in meaning to the following word “Unwelcome”. (a) formal (b) frequently (c) forbidding (d) venue

9. According to the passage which of the following details is often overlooked while conducting interview? (a) Age of the candidate (b) Candidate’s attire (c) Choice of venue (d) Dietary preference of the candidate

10. Which of the following could be a suitable

title for the passage? (a) How to conduct an Interview (b) How to give an Interview (c) An Introduction to Interviews (d) How to get a Job Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow: Learning the Queen's English is like scrubbing off the bright red varnish from your toenails, the morning after a dance. It takes a long time and there is always a little bit left at the end, a stain or red along the growing edges to remind you of the good time you had. So, you can see that learning came slowly to me. On the other hand, I had plenty of time. I learned your language in an immigration detention centre, in Essex, in the southeastern part of the United Kingdom. Two years, they locked me in there. Time was all I had. But why did I go to all the trouble? It is because of what some of the older girls explained to me to survive, you must look good or talk even better. The plan ones and the silent ones, it seems their paperwork is never in order. You say, they get repatriated. We say, sent home early. The Other Hand is the story of a young woman who flees conflict in her home village in the oilrich region of southern Nigeria. She makes her way to the UK as an illegal immigrant and is detained for a long period of time at an immigrant detention centre near London. When she finally gets out, she seeks out the only two people she knows in England, whom she met on a Nigerian beach during a life-changing event a few years before. Will she be able to find them and if so will they help her? And if not, will she survive in her newly adopted country as an immigrant?

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11. What is meant by ‘Queen’s English’ in the

text given? (I) Good, formal English (II) Fluent, vernacular English (III) English as spoken in the UK (IV) Good formal American English Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (I), (II) and (III) only (b) (I), (II) and (IV) only (c) (I) and (II) only (d) (I) and (III) only

12. ‘The Other Hand’ is the story of Nigerian woman who: (I) lived in a village in Southern Nigeria. (II) was detained in Southern Nigeria. (III) learnt English while in detention. (IV) was an illegal immigrant in the UK. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (I), (II) and (III) only (b) (I), (III) and (IV) only (c) (II) and (III) only (d) (I), (II) and (IV) only

13. Match List-I with List-II. List-I

List-II

(A)

Oil rich region

(I)

To survive in the UK

(B)

Immigration detention centre

(II)

Southern Nigeria

(C)

Speaking good English

(III)

Southeastern part of the UK

(D) Inability to speak good English

(IV) To get repatriated

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) (b) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) (c) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (d) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

14. Learning Queen’s English is described using

a metaphor which is: (a) to learn to survive (b) a stain of red along the greasing edges (c) scrubbing off the bright red varnish from your toenails (d) learning comes slowly

15. What does the author suggest, would have happened if she hadn’t learnt the Queen’s English?

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(a) She would have survived in England. (b) She would have been repatriated. (c) She would have stayed longer in detention. (d) She couldn’t have gone back home easily.

16. Which of the following can be called Gerund? (I) Stop playing. (II) I love to go hunting. (III) Kids are sleeping. (IV) Seeing is believing. (V) They are smoking outside. Choose the correct answer from the option given below: (a) (I), (II) and (III) only (b) (I), (II) and (IV) only (c) (II), (III), (IV) only (d) (I), (II), (III), (IV) only

17. Rearrange the following segments to make

a meaningful sentence: (I) at the progress India has made in the field of nuclear research (II)  the prime minister looked back with satisfaction (III) will have to accept India as a nuclear power (IV)  and asserted that sooner or later the big powers Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (II), (I), (IV), (III) (b) (II), (IV), (I), (III) (c) (II), (III), (IV), (I) (d) (I), (II), (IV), (III)

18. Choose the correct homonym pair: (a) Career-Carrier (b) Birth-Berth (c) Confident-Confidant (d) Eligible-Illegible

19. Choose the sentence that has the correct

preposition in it: (a) They will return with fifteen minutes. (b) The students came onto the classroom. (c) Susheel works on the office every weekend. (d) Radha will not be able to reach within half an hour.

20. Fill in the blanks with appropriate articles. You are ................ gem of ................ person. (a) an, the (b) a, the (c) a, a (d) the, the

21. Choose the part of the following sentence

that contains an error: If a company sends its employees abroad to work for a foreign client, they pays them a daily allowance. (a) If a company (b) Sends its employees abroad (c) To work for a foreign client, they (d) Pays them a daily allowance

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

22. Change the given sentence of active voice into

passive voice. Select the appropriate option. The Prime-Minister was giving the speech. (a) The speech was given by the PrimeMinister. (b) The speech was being given by the Prime-Minister. (c) The speech was been given by the PrimeMinister. (d) The speech had been given by the PrimeMinister. 23. On the passing ............... of his grandfather, I sent him a bouquet of flowers and a condolence card. (a) over (b) into (c) by (d) away

24. Choose the appropriate option to fill in the blank in the given sentence: ................ you please show me the way to station? (I) Could (II) Will (III) Should (IV) Can Choose the correct answer from the option given below: (a) (I) and (IV) only (b) (II) only (c) (III) only (d) (I) only

25. Identify the correct ones:

(I) go-went-gone (II) bring-brought-brought (III) mistake-mistook-mistook (IV) steal-stole-stole (V) take-taken-taken Choose the correct answer from the option given below: (a) (I), (II), (III) only (b) (I), (II), (IV) only (c) (I), (II) only (d) (I), (II), (III), (IV) only

26. Rearrange the jumbled phrases to form a meaningful sentence: (I) devastated the city (II) and flooded many homes (III) when the tornado (IV) it was a beautiful day Choose the correct answer from the option given below: (a) (III), (II), (I), (IV) (b) (IV), (III), (I), (II) (c) (IV), (III), (II), (I) (d) (III), (I), (II), (IV)

27. Identify the sentence that have ‘adjectival phrases’. (I) She dance skilfully. (II) She is a skilful dancer. (III) That was a thoughtful act. (IV) He acted thoughtfully.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (II), (III) only (b) (I), (II), (III) only (c) (II), (III), (IV) only (d) (I), (IV) only

28. Choose the part of the following sentence that contains an error:

Ranjeeta does not usually prefer staying at cottages, but last winters she spent few days in one. (a) Ranjeeta does not usually (b) Prefer staying at cottages (c) But last winters (d) She spent few days into one

29. Rearrange the following parts of a sentence to make a meaningful sentence: (I) can lead to (II) a moment of fun (III) life long scar (IV) and merriment (V) and repentance

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (II), (IV), (V), (I), (III) (b) (II), (I), (III), (IV), (V) (c) (III), (I), (II), (IV), (V) (d) (II), (IV), (I), (III), (V) *30. Match List-I with List-II. List-I

List-II

(A)

Apple of one’s eye

(I)

All of a sudden

(B)

To be all ears

(II)

Not able to hear well

(C)

Out of the blue

(III)

Loved dearly

(D) Hard of hearing

(IV) To be very attentive

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: Options: (a) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) (b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (c) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (d) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

31. From the options given below, select the one closest in meaning to ‘Agile’: (a) Needle (b) Nimble (c) Name sake (d) Weak

*Note: The options are modified in the question to suit the answers as two options were same and the correct answer was not given.

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2023

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32. Match List-I with List-II. List-I

List-II

(A)

Ad interim

(I)

Meanwhile

(B)

Carte blanche

(II)

According to law

(C)

De jure

(III)

Mixture

(D) Pot Pourri

(IV) Full freedom of action

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I) (b) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (c) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) (d) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

33. Out of given options choose a word that can be used as an adjective as well as an adverb. (a) good (b) well (c) hand (d) hardly

34. Choose the word that denotes one that is in a war - like mood: (a) Veteran (c) Belligerent

(b) Virtuoso (d) Bohemian

35. Choose the incorrect homonym pair: (a) Bale-Bail (c) Access-Excess

(b) Caste-Cast (d) Ail-Ale

36. From the given options, choose the one that rightly explains the following idiom: To call a spade a spade (I) To speak rudely (II) To speak directly (III) To speak diplomatically (IV) To speak frankly Choose the correct answer from the option given below: (a) (II) only (b) (II) and (IV) only (c) (II), (III), (IV) only (d) (I), (II), (III) only

(c) She didn’t do that, didn’t she? (d) They will come, will they?

39. Choose the part of the following sentence

that contains an error: The most important feature of our products are that they are all created by hand. (a) The most important feature (b) of our products are that (c) they are all (d) created by hand

*40. Mark the sentences which have ‘adverbs’.

(I) The machine works very well. (II) She is a skillful worker. (III) He seldom visits his parents. (IV) He speaks really well. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (II), (III), (IV) only (b) (I), (III), (IV) only (c) (III), (IV) only (d) (I), (IV) only

41. Pick a word that means the same as ‘readable’: (a) Legible (c) Praise worthy

42. From the given options, select the word that means the opposite of ‘dexterous’. (a) Simple (b) Distant (c) Clumsy (d) Distant

43. Choose the appropriate word to fill in the

blank: It was a challenge to ............... a response from the prisoner. (a) illicit (b) licit (c) elicit (d) ellicit

44. Match List-I with List-II. List-I

List-II

(A)

Cortege

(I)

A poem of lamentation on the death of someone loved and admired.

(B)

Elegy

(II)

A funeral procession comprising a number of mourning.

(C)

Obituary

(III)

An account in the newspaper about the funeral of a deceased.

37. Choose the sentence that has the incorrect

preposition in it: (a) The train is running off time. (b) It has been five years since I have seen my mother. (c) Sheela left for the station an hour ago. (d) Vineet studied till 1 am for his upcoming exam.

38. Choose the correct question tag. (a) He said that, didn’t he? (b) He said that, did he?

(b) Washable (d) Edible

(D) Epitaph

(IV) Words inscribed on the grave/tomb in the memory of the one buried.

*Note: The options are modified in the question to suit the answers as two options were same and the correct answer was not given.

Page 12

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (b) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (c) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) (d) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

45. From the given options, select the word that is opposite in meaning to ‘Excruciating’: (a) Sophisticated (b) Modern (c) Noisy (d) Mild

46. Which of the following sentences uses an article INCORRECTLY? (a) They cannot be trusted even a bit. (b) What is a time of your arrival? (c) He is a strange person. (d) There are no friends in the room.

47. Take your gloves ............... before shaking someone’s hand.

(a) on (c) off

(b) in (d) with

48. Choose the part of the following sentence that contains an error:

It is the quarter to ten by my watch. (a) It is the (b) quarter to ten (c) by my watch (d) No error

49. From the given options, select the one which is opposite in meaning to the given word: empathy (a) original (c) kindness

(b) insensitivity (d) stubbornness

50. Choose the correct question tag for the following sentence:

You are a real piece of work, ............... ? (a) aren’t you? (b) isn’t you? (b) weren’t you? (d) are you?

SOLUTIONS NTA CUET (UG) 2023

1. (a) water and 100% fruit juices Explanation: The passage mentions that staying hydrated is important and recommends sources of fluids for teenagers, especially those who are active.

2. (b) (I) and (III) only Explanation: With early school start times, late afternoon practices and hours of homework, getting enough sleep can be a challenge.

3. (a) (II) and (III) only Explanation: To get a nine-hour sleep, the passage suggests switching off all the electronic gadgets for the night and finding quiet time before bedtime.

4. (b) (I) and (II) only Explanation: These headings encompass both the need for proper hydration (watch your beverage intake and eating right) and the importance of getting adequate sleep (sleep tight) for teenagers.

5. (b) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) Explanation: The phrase "should be eliminated" aligns with the modal "should.”; Adjectives describe nouns, and in this case, the adjectives "sugary" and "caffeinated" are used to describe the noun "drinks"; Adverbs often describe how an action is performed, and in this case, "completely" is used to describe the manner in which something is to be eliminated.

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2023

6. (d) Interviewers Explanation: The passage provides guidance regarding interview preparation and conduct, stressing the significance of thorough planning and a number of factors that interviewers should take into account.

7. (c) The ability of the interviewer to intimidate

the candidate. Explanation: The behaviour and the ability to supply questions to the candidates create an impact on the candidate. The more warm treatment candidates receive, the more stressfree they feel.

8. (c) forbidding Explanation: The passage mentions that the room's layout and furniture arrangement can affect the atmosphere of the interview, making it feel forbidding (unwelcoming) or more relaxed, depending on these factors.

9. (d) Choice of venue Explanation: The passage highlights that the choice of venue and its layout can affect the atmosphere of the interview and how candidates respond, still it is overlooked.

10. (a) How to conduct an Interview Explanation: This title accurately reflects the main theme of the passage, which is about the preparation and conduct of interviews.

Page 13

11. (a) (I), (II) and (III) only Explanation: In the text, "Queen's English" refers to the form of English as spoken in the UK, which is associated with formal, fluent, proper and vernacular English usage.

12. (b) (I), (III) and (IV) only Explanation: The Nigerian woman in "The Other Hand" is an illegal immigrant in the UK, who lived in a village in Southern Nigeria. She learned English in a detention centre, in Essex, in the southern part of the UK.

13. (d) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) Explanation: As per the passage, the woman belonged to the oil-rich region of southern Nigeria. The immigration detention centre was located in southeastern part of UK. In order to survive, one needs to speak good English and the inability to speak good English, one may get repatriated.

14. (c) scrubbing off the bright red varnish from

your toenails Explanation: The metaphor used to describe learning Queen's English in the passage is "scrubbing off the bright red varnish from your toenails."

15. (b) She would have been repatriated. Explanation: In the passage, it is mentioned that "The plain ones and the silent ones, it seems their paperwork is never in order. You say, they get repatriated."

16. (b) (I), (II), (IV) only Explanation: "playing", "hunting" and "seeing" are gerunds because they denote the acts of playing, hunting and seeing, respectively and function as noun.

17. (a) (II), (I), (IV), (III) Explanation: The correct sentence is: (II) The Prime Minister looked back with satisfaction (I) at the progress India has made in the field of nuclear research (IV) and asserted that sooner or later the big powers (III) will have to accept India as a nuclear power.

18. None of the option is correct. As no two words are spelt the same in the given options. (b) Birth-Berth is a homophone. Explanation: Homophones are word that sound the same but have different meanings. Homonym are words that have same spelling and pronunciation but different meanings. "Birth" and "berth" are homophones. "Birth" refers to the process of being born, while "berth" is a fixed bunk on a ship, train, or other means of transport.

19. (d) Radha will not be able to reach within half an hour.

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Explanation: In this sentence, "within" is used correctly to indicate a specific time frame, i.e., half an hour.

20. (c) a, a 21. (c) To work for a foreign client, they Explanation: The subject "they" is not the correct pronoun to refer to "a company." It should be "it" since "a company" is a singular entity.

22. (b)  The speech was being given by the

Prime-Minister. Explanation: In the passive voice, the object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject, and the original subject becomes the agent (performer of the action) with "by" before it.

23. (d) away Explanation: On the ‘passing away of ’ is a common expression to refer to someone's death. The other options are not suitable for this context.

24. (a) (I) and (IV) only Explanation: These two options are both appropriate for making a polite request, while "will" and "should" would not be suitable in this context.

25. (c) (I), (II) only Explanation: The third form of mistake should be mistaken. For steal, the third form should be stolen and for take, it should be taken.

26. (b) (IV), (III), (I), (II) Explanation: The correct sentence is- It was a beautiful day when the tornado devastated the city and flooded many homes.

27. (a) (II), (III) only Explanation: "She is a skilful dancer." "skilful" is an adjectival phrase modifying the noun "dancer." "That was a thoughtful act." "thoughtful" is an adjectival phrase modifying the noun "act."

28. (c) But last winters Explanation: The word "winters" should be "winter" to make the sentence grammatically correct.

29. (d) (II), (IV), (I), (III), (V) Explanation: The correct sentence is: A moment of fun and merriment can lead to a life-long scar and repentance.

30. (b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) Explanation: Apple of one’s eye means someone who is loved dearly, to be all ears means to be very attentive and listen carefully, out of the blue means all of a sudden and hard of hearing means not able to hear well.

31. (b) Nimble Explanation: "Nimble" and "agile" both describe the capacity to move swiftly and effortlessly, and they are frequently used synonymously in a variety of situations.

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

32. (d) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) Explanation: Ad interim is a Latin word which means in the meantime or meanwhile, carte blanche is a French word which means full freedom of action, de jure is also a Latin word meaning by right or according to law, pot pourri is also a French word which means mixture.

33. (b) well Explanation: "hand" is used as a noun, "good" as an adjective, and "hardly" as an adverb. As an adjective and an adverb, "well" can be used.

34. (c) Belligerent Explanation: An individual or thing that is "belligerent" is hostile and prone to fights or acts that resemble war.

35. None of the option is correct. As no two words are spelt the same in the given options.

(c) Access-Excess is an incorrect homophone. Explanation: Homonyms are any two or more words that have the same pronunciation and spelling but distinct meanings. Homophones are any two words that have the same pronunciation but different spelling and meaning. The ability to approach or enter a location is referred to as access. An amount of something that is beyond what is required, allowed, or desired is referred to as excess. They both mean different and are also spelt and pronounced different, hence they are neither homophone nor homonym.

36. (b) (II) and (IV) only Explanation: It means to speak plainly without avoiding unpleasant or embarrassing issues.

37. (a) The train is running off time. Explanation: The correct preposition in this context should be "out of" instead of "off." So the sentence should be: "The train is running out of time." 38. (a) He said that, didn't he? Explanation: The question tag "didn't he" is appropriate in this context to confirm the statement made by "He said that." as if a sentence is affirmative, we add a negative question tag to it and vice-versa.

39. (b) of our products are that Explanation: The subject "feature" is singular, so it should be followed by the singular verb "is," not the plural "are."

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2023

40. (b) (I), (III), (IV) only

Explanation: Adverbs refers to a word or phrase that modifies or qualifies an adjective, verb, or other adverb or a word group, expressing a relation of place, time, circumstance, manner, cause, degree, etc. The words very, seldom and really are adverbs in the given sentences. 41. (a) Legible Explanation: The adjective "legible" is used to characterise something that is simple to read or comprehend, usually in reference to written or printed text. 42. (c) Clumsy Explanation: "Dexterous" describes a person who is skilled and proficient at doing tasks that call for coordination and precision. Conversely, "clumsy" describes someone who is uncoordinated and unskillful.

43. (c) elicit

Explanation: "To elicit" is to get from someone a response, piece of information, or emotional response. 44. (a) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

45. (d) Mild

Explanation: The meaning of excruciating is extremely painful, the word ‘mild’ is not exactly opposite to excruciating but extremely is opposite to mild.

46. (b) What is a time of your arrival? Explanation: The correct sentence should be: "What is the time of your arrival?" 47. (c) off Explanation: "Off" is the right option since it tells you to take off or remove your gloves, which is the proper thing to do before shaking hands. 48. (a) It is the Explanation: The sentence should be corrected to say "It is a quarter to ten" instead of "the quarter to ten." 49. (b) insensitivity Explanation: The capacity to put oneself in another person's shoes, feel and share their emotions, and be sensitive to their feelings and experiences is known as empathy, whereas insensitivity means lack of feelings or empathy for another person. 50. (a) aren't you? Explanation: To make a sentence interrogative, a negative question tag with the same tense of the helping verb is added to an affirmative sentence and vice-versa.

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CUET (UG)-2022 OFFICIAL PAPER (18th August, 2022, Slot-2) SOLVED

ENGLISH Time Allowed: 45 Minutes

Maximum Marks: 200

General Instructions:  For every correct answer, 5 marks will be awarded.  1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.  40 Questions to be attempted out of 50.

Read the passage carefully and answer questions from 1 to 6: It was a dark autumn night. The old banker was pacing from corner to corner of his study, recalling to his mind the party he gave in the autumn fifteen years before. There were many clever people at the party and much interesting conversation. They talked among other things of capital punishment. The guests, among them not a few scholars and journalists, for the most part disapproved of capital punishment. They found it obsolete as a means of punishment, unfitted to a Christian State and immoral. Some of them thought that capital punishment should be replaced universally by life-imprisonment. “I don’t agree with you,” said the host. “I myself have experienced neither capital punishment nor life-imprisonment, but if one may judge a priori, then in my opinion capital punishment is more moral and more humane than imprisonment. Execution kills instantly, lifeimprisonment kills by degrees. Who is the more humane executioner, one who kills you in a few seconds or one who draws the life out of you incessantly, for years?” “They’re both equally immoral,” remarked one of the guests, “because their purpose is the same, to take away life. The State is not God. It has no right to take away that which it cannot give back, if it should so desire.”

1. The

season in which the narrator remembered the party he had given fifteen years ago was: (a) summer (b) spring (c) winter (d) autumn

Page 16

2. Why did the banker feel that capital punishment is more moral than life imprisonment? (a) execution brings an instantaneous end to the life of the offender and prevents prolonged suffering and trauma (b) execution allows the offender to have alast sumptuous meal (c) execution draws the attention of the society of the offender (d) execution allows the offender to pray

3. From the passage it becomes clear that the

discussion and concern was primarily over the validity of: (a) corporal punishment at schools (b) getting marooned in an island (c) capital punishment (d) punishment of any kind

4. Capital punishment is highly debated across

the world because it: (a) takes away the property of the criminal (b) takes the criminal away from his family (c) denies the prisoner all his or her fundamental rights to education (d) denies and takes away from the criminal his or her fundamental right-to live

5. Why did a guest feel that both capital

punishment and life-imprisonment are equally-immoral? (a) Because the Jury is often unfair (b) The media does not allow the jury to pronounce a judgement at place

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

(c) Most democratic governments shelter hardened criminals (d) Because the purpose of both the punishments is to deny the offender the right to live

6. Maths List-I with List-II. List-I

List-II

(A) The banker is

(I)

disapproved of Capital punishment

(B) The party was organised

(II)

the host of the party

(C) Most of the guests who were scholars and journalists

(III) is the pronouncement of a death sentence by a jury for an unaccusable crime

(D) Capital (IV) in an autumn fifteen years ago punishment Choose the CORRECT answer from the options given below: (a) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (III) (b) (A) – (IV), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (I) (c) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV) (d) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I) [Note: Question has been modified to get the answer.] Read the passage carefully and answer questions from 7 to 12: The significance of William Shakespeare “To be or not to be” is one of William Shakespeare’s most well-known quotes. It is part of his famous play Hamlet. Shakespeare is one of the most easily identified poem writers. He is known for his incredible writing style. He expressed this using iambic pentameter which would mean each line has 10 symbols, and they would all go in a pattern. He invented almost 1,700 common English words and phrases that we use today. William Shakespeare was born on April 26, 1564 in the Shakespeare family home on Henley Street, Stratford-upon-Avon. Mary and John Shakespeare were William Shakespeare’s mother and father. He was the third child of eight. However, the first two were daughters who died before he could remember. John Shakespeare sold farm products and wool. Both Mary and John Shakespeare had a high position in the community and had roles in their community. As a kid, William Shakespeare was sent to the highest level of elementary education at a school which was called Petty School. These schools were not like today’s

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022

schools. Instead they were usually held in someone’s house and were taught by a very well educated house wife. The children were also taught good behaviour and a Christian way of life. These were the most important part of the education. He then went to grammar school, where he had to attend school from 6 in the morning to 5 at night. In grammar school he was taught by a private usher. The grammar school used in horn-book and the alphabet as a tool and for the basis of Elizabethan education. William’s life was pretty strict. He had to be polite and do a lot of chores around the house. Shakespeare’s school consisted of five full days and one half day each week. He spent between 40 and 44 weeks of the year at school. That means he spent about 2,000 hours in school each year, which is double the amount of time we spend in school.

7. One of the most well known quotes by William Shakespeare is........... . (a) “to be not to be” (b) “to bee not to be” (c) “to be or not to be” (d) “too be or not to be”

8. From the given options select the one which

is CORRECT according to the passage. “Christian way of life” as mentioned in the passage would mean. (a) Validating the crusades or wars fought in the name of religion (b) Holding the bible as the only source of valid knowledge (c) Leading a moral life and respecting values that protect and promote life and society (d) Watch films made only by Christian filmmakers only

9. From the given options choose the one which

is CORRECT according to the passage. (a) Shakespeare was known only as a great Nordic Lyricist. (b) Shakespeare’s incredible writing style includes the use of iambic pentameter. (c) Shakespeare is a character of a great English Drama. (d) Shakespeare never used the famous iambic pentameter.

10. From the options given below select the one

which is CORRECT according to the passage. “Petty schools” which Shakespeare himself attended were? (a) Schools run by the English Government. (b) Formal Schools run by the rich theatre guilds in England.

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(C) School that were held in someone’s house and were taught by a very well educated housewife. (D) School held in neighbourhood farms and taught by the wives of the English nobels.

11. Match List – I with List – II. List-I

List-II

(A) Hamlet is a

(I)

Home of William Shakespeare

(B) Henley street, Stratfordupon-Avon is the

(II)

Common english words that were invented by William Shakespeare

(C) Private usher

(III)

Taught William Shakespeare in the grammar school

(D) 1,700

(IV) Play written by William Shakespeare Choose the CORRECT answer from the options given below: (a) (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (II) (b) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I) (c) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV) (d) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)

12. From the options given below, select the one

which is CORRECT according to the passage. We can assume while reading the passage that as a child William Shakespeare’s life was not all fun and games because: (a) He had to attend school for over 40 hours every week along with attending to household chores and learning to be polite. (b) He had to attend the English parliament as a child member. (c) He was Queen Elizabeth’s personal assistant as a child. (d) He was the head of Eton. [Note: Question has been modified to get the answer.] Read the passage carefully and answer questions from 13 to 18: The young lift-man in a city office who threw a passenger out of his lift the other morning and was fined for the offence was undoubtedly in the wrong. It was a question of ‘Please’. The complainant entering the lift, said, ‘Top’. The lift-man demanded ‘top-please’ and this concession being refused he not only declined

Page 18

to comply with the instruction but hurled the passenger out of the lift. This, of course, was carrying a comment on manner too far. Discourtesy is not a legal offence, and it does not excuse assault and battery. If a burglar breaks into my house and I knock him down, the law will acquit me, and if I am physically assaulted, it will permit me to retaliate with reasonable violence. It does this because the burglar and my assailant have broken quite definite commands of the law, but no legal system could attempt to legislate against bad manners or could sanction the use of violence against something which it does not itself recognize as a legally punishable offence. And whatever our sympathy with the lift-man, we must admit that the law is reasonable. It would never do if we were at liberty to box people’s ears because we did not like their behaviour, or the tone of their voices, or the scowl on their faces. Our fists would never be idle, and the gutters of the city would run with blood all day. I may be as uncivil as I may please and the law will protect me against violent retaliation. I may be haughty or boorish and there is no penalty to pay except the penalty of being written down an ill-mannered fellow.

13. From the given options select the one which

is true and CORRECT according to the passage. The term “discourtesy” means that we are: (a) lovely, pretty and cute (b) strange and ridiculous (c) sad and unhappy (d) fail to be polite with others by not saying simple courteous words like “please” and “thank you”

14. From the passage it may be concluded that

often we invoke violent reaction from other quiet like the young lift-man in a city office who threw a passenger out of the lift due to our own: (a) bad manners, impolite behaviour (b) patient and kind attitude (c) generosity and decency (d) day dreams

15. The young lift-man in the passage by

throwing the man out of the lift had committed a: (I) Heinous crime worth a capital punishment. (II) Religious sin that only a holy pilgrimage can atone. (III) Grammatical error that cannot be corrected. (IV) An offence provoked by bad manners.

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

Choose the CORRECT answer from the options given below: (a) (I) only (b) (II) only (c) (III) only (d) (IV) only

19. From the given options select the rightly

16. The passage mentions ''This of course, was

20. From the given options select the rightly

carrying a comment on manners too'': What do you think is the CORRECT explanation of this expression? (Choose the correct option) (I) The comment could be heard a mile away from the city office. (II) Loud speakers were used to carry the sound of the commit to far thing places. (III) Placing undue importance on social manners. (IV) Manners are to become our staple food. Choose the CORRECT answer from the options given below: (a) (I) only (b) (II) only (c) (III) only (d) (IV) only

17. From the given select one of the options

which is CORRECT according to the passage and explain the following: Burglary unlike bad-manners is a legal offence because (a) Discourtesy is not a legal offence but burglary is. (b) Bad manners are serious legal offence but burglary is not a crime at all. (c) Democratic societies remit burglary as legal. (d) No sane and well educated adult is ever rude.

18. Match List – I with List – II. List-I (A)

List-II

Man is thrown out of the lift because he

(I)

did not say “please” to the lift-man

(B)

Discourtesy

(II)

is not a legal offence

(C)

Law cannot punish violence

(III)

against rude behaviour

(D) Uncivil, (IV) can provoke impolite violent and rude reaction in behaviour people Choose the CORRECT answer from the options given below: (a) (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (III) (b) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV) (c) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II) (d) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (III), (D) – (I)

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022

spelt word. (a) Pariferal (c) Peripheral

spelt word. (a) Disseminate (c) Disaminate

(b) Perripharal (d) Peryferal

(b) Dicceminate (d) Disiminate

21. From the given options select the rightly spelt word. (a) Opproximately (b) Approximately (c) Aproxemately (d) Aprroxemately

22. From the given options select the rightly spelt word. (a) Centemprary (c) Contemporary

(b) Cantemporary (d) Kontemporary

23. From the given options select the one which can rightly substitute the given expression. The study of Human mind and behaviour is: (a) Sociology (b) Philology (c) Physiology (d) Psychology

24. From the given options select the one which can rightly substitute the given expression.

Handwriting which is difficult or impossible to read is: (a) Illegible (b) Illogical (c) Irrational (d) Edible

25. From the given options select the one which can rightly substitute the given expression.

A book that contains information on various subject. (a) Dictionary (b) Novel (c) Thesaurus (d) Encyclopedia

26. From the given options select the one which can rightly substitute the given expression.

A person interested in the study of coins and medals. (a) Numismatist (b) Numerologist (c) Medallist (d) Idealist

27. From the given options select the one which is similar in meaning to the given word. STRINGENT (a) Semblance (b) Semantics (c) Strict (d) Stringy

28. From the given options select the one which is similar in meaning to the given word. RESCUE (a) Command (b) Help (c) Restrict (d) Hinder

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29. From the given options select the one which is similar in meaning to the given word. CANDID (a) Explore (b) Appeal (c) Shine (d) Frank

30. From the given options select the one which is similar in meaning to the given word. HOMAGE (a) Celebrate (b) Tribute (c) Abide (d) Grateful

31. From the given options select the one that carries the same relation as: Demolish: Construct (a) Courageous: Cowardly (b) Absurd: Ridiculous (c) Submissive: Humble (d) Blemish: Tarnish [Note: Question has been modified to get the answer.]

32. From the given options select the one that carries the same relation as: Deficient: Surplus : : (a) Wrath: Anger (b) Extravagant: Frugal (c) Valiant: Brave (d) Unique: Rare

33. From the given options select the one that carries the same relation as: Provoke: Incite : : (a) Transient: Permanent (b) Eradicate: Eliminate (c) Advance: Deteriorate (d) Abolish: Restore

34. From the given options select the one that carries the same relation as: Commence: Initiate : : (a) Proficient: Incompetent (b) Candid: Sly (c) Curious: Eager (d) Delicious: Tasteless

35. From the given options select the one word which is opposite in meaning to the given word. Alleviate (a) Remove (b) Dissolve (c) Intensify (d) Surprise [Note: Question has been modified to get the answer.]

36. From the given options select the one which is opposite in meaning to the given word. Deception (a) Falsehood (B) Scholarship (c) Monstrous (D) Honesty

Page 20

37. From the given options select the one which is opposite in meaning to the given word. Apprentice (a) Novice (c) Hungry

(B) Expert (D) Naive

38. From the given options select the one which is opposite in meaning to the given word. ‘Translucent’ (a) Smart (B) Intelligent (c) Compassionate (D) Opaque

39. From the given options select the one that rightly explains the given expression. A man of straw (a) a man of no substance (b) man who sells straws (c) a worthy fellow (d) a straw doll

40. From the given options select the one that rightly explains the given expression.

to leave someone in the lurch (a) to argue with someone (b) to desert someone in his difficulties (c) to comfort someone (d) to annoy someone

41. From the given options select the one that rightly explains the given expression

‘at the eleventh hour’ (a) at the vary last moment (b) every now and then (c) before the sun reaches the highest point in the sky (d) late in the evening after the sun has set

42. From the given options select the one that rightly explains the given expression. to get into hot waters (a) to get into trouble (b) to be dishonest (c) to suffer from stomach pain (d) to be confused

43. Rearrange the given jumbled groups of words to make a meaningful sentence. (I) a temple you must (II) take off your shoes (III) at the entrance (IV) whenever you go to

Choose the CORRECT answer from the options given below: (a) (II), (I), (III), (IV) (b) (III), (II), (I), (IV) (c) (I), (IV), (III), (II) (d) (IV), (I), (II), (III)

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

44. Rearrange the given jumbled groups of words to make a meaningful sentence. (I) some of the improvised fabric and garments (II) are displayed in the main pavilion (III) sales in the domestic market (IV) to facilitate export and to improve Choose the CORRECT answer from the options given below: (a) (II), (III), (IV), (I) (b) (I), (III), (IV), (II) (c) (IV), (III), (I), (II) (d) (I), (II), (III), (IV)

45. Rearrange the given jumbled groups of words to make a meaningful sentence. (I) a lot of travel delay (II) and lack of good management (III) on the part of the railways (IV) is caused due to the inefficiency Choose the CORRECT answer from the options given below: (a) (I), (IV), (II), (III) (b) (III), (I), (II), (IV) (c) (IV), (I), (III), (II) (d) (IV), (II), (III), (I)

46. Rearrange the given jumbled groups of words to make a meaningful sentence. (I) a book he will lend (II) you will never get it back (III) if you lend him (IV) it to someone else and Choose the CORRECT answer from the options given below:

(a) (I), (II), (III), (IV) (c) (I), (IV), (II), (III)

(b) (III), (I), (IV), (II) (d) (II), (I), (III), (IV)

47. From the given options, select the Figure

of Speech (Poetic Device) used in the expression. Betty Botter bought some bitter butter (a) Alliteration (b) Simile (c) Oxymoron (d) Pun

48. From the given options, select the Figure

of Speech (Poetic Device) used in the expression. Both wry with laboured ease of loss (a) Personification (b) Oxymoron (c) Simile (d) Pun

49. From the given options, select the Figure

of Speech (Poetic Device) used in the expression. My alarm clock yells at one ‘to get out of my bed’ (a) Pun (b) Simile (c) Personification (d) Oxymoron

50. From the given options, select the Figure

of Speech (Poetic Device) used in the expression. The dust settled like a falling veil. (a) Simile (b) Metaphor (c) Personification (d) Pun

SOLUTIONS CUET (UG) 2022

1. (d) autumn Explanation: In paragraph 1, it is clearly mentioned in the line ‘recalling to his mind the party he gave in the autumn fifteen years before’.

2. (a)  execution brings an instantaneous end

to the life of the offender and prevents prolonged suffering and trauma Explanation: In paragraph 2, the banker said that, ‘Execution kills instantly, life-imprisonment kills by degrees.' These lines denote that the banker felt that capital punishment was more moral than life imprisonment.

3. (d) punishment of any kind Explanation: From the passage it is clear that the discussion and concern was primarily over the validity of ‘punishment of any kind’. The discussion was majorly on capital punishment and life-imprisonment.

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022

4. (d) denies and takes away from the criminal his or her fundamental right-to live

Explanation: Capital punishment is highly debated across the world because for the criminals, it takes away his or her fundamental rights-to live. The sentence ordering that an offender be punished in such a manner is known as a death sentence.

5. (d)  Because

the purpose of both the punishments is to deny the offender the right to live.

Explanation: A guest felt that both capital punishment and life-imprisonment are equally immoral “because their purpose is the same, to take away life. The State is not God. It has no right to take away that which it cannot give back, if it should so desire”.

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6. (a) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (III) Explanation: The correct match is option (a) because the banker is the host of the party, the party was organised in an autumn 15 years ago and most guests disapproved of capital punishment.

7. (c) “to be or not to be” Explanation: In paragraph 1, it is clearly mentioned that “To be or not to be” is one of William Shakespeare’s most well-known quotes.

8. (c) Leading a moral life and respecting values

that protect and promote life and society Explanation: “Christian way of life” as mentioned in the passage would mean, leading a moral life and respecting values that protect and promote life and society.

9. (b)  Shakespeare’s

incredible writing style includes the use of iambic pentameter. Explanation: In paragraph. 1, the correct answer is clearly mentioned by these lines, He is known for his incredible writing style. He expressed this using iambic pentameter which would mean each line has 10 symbols, and they would all go in a pattern.

10. (c) School that were held in someone’s house and were taught by a very well educated housewife. Explanation: “Petty schools” were not like today’s schools. Instead, “Petty schools” which Shakespeare himself attended were schools that were held in someone’s house and were taught by a very well educated housewife.

11. (a) (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (II) Explanation: It is mentioned in the passage that Hamlet is the play written by William Shakespeare, Henley street, Stratford-uponAvon is the home of William Shakespeare and that he invented almost 1,700 common English words and phrases that we use today. Hence, (a) is the right answer.

12. (a)  He had to attend school for over 40

hours every week along with attending to household chores and learning to be polite. Explanation: We can assume while reading the passage that as a child William Shakespeare’s life was not all fun and games because his life was pretty strict. He had to be polite and do a lot of chores around the house. Shakespeare’s school consisted of five full days and one-half day each week. He spent between 40 and 44 weeks of the year at school. That means he spent about 2,000 hours in school each year, which is double the amount of time we spend in school.

13. (d) fail to be polite with others by not saying

simple courteous words like “please” and “thank you”

Page 22

Explanation: Discourtesy means rude and inconsiderate behaviour but according to the passage, the term “discourtesy” means that we fail to be polite with others by not saying simple courteous words like “please” and “thank you”.

14. (a) Bad manners, impolite behaviour Explanation: From the passage it may be concluded that often we invoke violent reactions from others, like the young lift-man in a city office who threw a passenger out of the lift due to our own bad manners, impolite behaviour, as we hurt the other person’s selfrespect. The lift-man just wanted some respect from the passenger.

15. (d) (IV) only Explanation: The young lift-man in the passage by throwing the man out of the lift had committed an offence provoked by bad manners.

16. (c) (III) only Explanation: The passage mentions “This of course, was carrying a comment on manners too”, is ‘placing undue importance on social manners’ because the lift-man just wanted respect from the passenger. The passenger did not say “please” to the lift-man.

17. (a) Discourtesy is not a legal offence but

burglary is. Explanation: According to the passage, burglary, unlike bad-manners, is a legal offence because bad manners are not punishable under law but burglary is a crime.

18. (b) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV) Explanation: The narrator wanted to buy albums from his favourite band. It is mentioned in the second paragraph. "When I was about sixteen years old, I wanted to buy albums of my favourite bands, but I did not have any money".

19. (c) Peripheral Explanation: The correct spelt word is ‘Peripheral’. Peripheral means connected with the outer edge of a particular area or not as important as the main aim, part, etc. of something.

20. (a) Disseminate Explanation: The correct spelt word is ‘Disseminate’. Disseminate means to spread information, knowledge, ideas etc. so that it reaches as many people as possible.

21. (b) Approximately Explanation: The correct spelt word ‘Approximately’. Approximately means about or roughly.

is

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

22. (c) Contemporary Explanation: The correct spelt word is ‘Contemporary’. Contemporary means of the present time or modern.

23. (d) Psychology Explanation: ‘Psychology’ is the scientific study of the mind and behaviour. Psychologists are actively involved in studying and understanding mental processes, brain functions, and behaviour.

24. (a) Illegible Explanation: Handwriting which is difficult or impossible to read is ‘Illegible’. Illegible means it's unreadable. The word illegible (adjective) is often used to describe handwriting, because people tend to have their own styles and sometimes write in a pretty messy way.

25. (d) Encyclopedia Explanation: A book that contains information on various subjects is known as ‘Encyclopedia’. An encyclopedia is a book or set of books in which facts about many different subjects or about one particular subject is arranged for reference, usually in alphabetical order.

26. (a) Numismatist Explanation: A person interested in the study of coins and medals is known as ‘Numismatist’. Numismatist is a person who collects/studies coins/medals.

27. (c) Strict Explanation: Similar meaning of the word STRINGENT is ‘Strict’. Stringent means tight restriction or limitation, very strict (used about a law, rule, etc.)

28. (b) Help Explanation: Similar meaning of the word RESCUE is ‘Help’ Rescue means to save somebody/something from a situation that is dangerous or unpleasant.

29. (d) Frank Explanation: Similar meaning of the word CANDID is ‘Frank’. Candid means very honest or frank in what one says or writes.

30. (b) Tribute Explanation: Similar meaning of the word HOMAGE is ‘Tribute’. Homage means an expression of great respect and honour shown publicly.

31. (a) Courageous: Cowardly Explanation: The word Demolish and Construct are antonyms. If we review the options, the correct antonym words are Courageous: Cowardly.

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022

Courage means bravery, even in the face of difficulty or pain. Coward means a person who has no courage and is afraid in dangerous or unpleasant situations.

32. (b) Extravagant: Frugal Explanation: The words Deficient and Surplus are antonyms. If we review the options, the correct antonym words are Extravagant: Frugal. Extravagant means spending or costing too much money. Frugal means using only as much money or food as is necessary.

33. (b) Eradicate: Eliminate Explanation: The words Provoke and Incite are synonyms. Same, if we review the options, the correct synonym words are Eradicate: Eliminate Eradicate means to destroy or get rid of something completely. Eliminate means to remove somebody/ something that is not wanted or needed.

34. (c) Curious: Eager Explanation: The words Commence and Initiate are synonyms. If we review the options, the correct synonym words are Curious: Eager. Curious means wanting to know or learn something. Eager means strongly wanting to do or have something.

35. (c) Intensify Explanation: The opposite meaning of the word ‘Alleviate’ is Intensify. Alleviate means to make something less strong or bad. Intensify means to become or to make something greater or stronger.

36. (d) Honesty Explanation: The opposite meaning of the word ‘Deception’ is Honest. Deception means making somebody believe or being made to believe something that is not true. Honesty means truthfulness, sincerity, or frankness.

37. (b) Expert Explanation: The opposite meaning of the word ‘Apprentice’ is Expert. Apprentice means a person who works for low pay, in order to learn the skills needed in a particular job. Expert means a person who has a lot of special knowledge or skill.

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38. (d) Opaque Explanation: The opposite meaning of the word ‘Translucent’ is Opaque. Translucent means allowing light to pass through but not transparent. Opaque means that you cannot see through.

39. (a) a man of no substance Explanation: The one that rightly explains the idiom 'a man of straw' is a man of no substance. The idiom 'a man of straw' means someone who has a weak character.

40. (b) to desert someone in his difficulties Explanation: The one that rightly explains the idiom “to leave someone in the lurch’’ is to desert someone in his difficulties. The idiom “to leave someone in the lurch’’ means to leave (someone) without help or protection when it is needed.

41. (a) at the vary last moment Explanation: The one that rightly explains the idiom “at the eleventh hour’’ is at the very last moment. The idiom “at the eleventh hour’’ means the last moment or almost too late.

42. (a) to get into trouble Explanation: The one that rightly explains the idiom “to get into hot waters’’ is to get into trouble. The idiom “to get into hot waters’’ means to be in or get into a difficult situation in which you are in danger of being criticised or punished.

43. (d) (IV), (I), (II), (III)

Explanation: The correct order is (IV) Whenever you go to (I) a temple you must (II) take off your shoes (III) at the entrance.

44. (c) (IV), (III), (I), (II)

Explanation: The correct order is (IV) To facilitate export and to improve (III) sales in the domestic market (I) some of the improvised fabric and garments (II) are displayed in the main pavilion.

45. (a) (I), (IV), (II), (III) Explanation: The correct order is (I) a lot of travel delay (IV) is caused due to the inefficiency (II) and lack of good management (III) on the part of the railways.

Page 24

46. (b) (III), (I), (IV), (II) Explanation: The correct order is (III) if you lend him (I) a book he will lend (IV) it to someone else and (II) you will never get it back.

47. (a) Alliteration Explanation: The Figure of Speech (Poetic Device) used in the expression, Betty Botter bought some bitter butter is ‘Alliteration’. Alliteration is a figure of speech where there is a repetition of either the same word or the sound at the beginning of closely placed words.

48. (b) Oxymoron Explanation: The Figure of Speech (Poetic Device) used in the expression, both wry with laboured ease of loss is ‘Oxymoron’. Oxymoron- is a literary device in which two opposite and contradictory things come together. Here, this phrase means that the poet, like her mother, learned to live with the loss of their loved ones. The poet's mother has learned to live with the pain of her youth, while the poet herself has learned to live with her mother's pain.

49. (c) Personification Explanation: The Figure of Speech (Poetic Device) used in the expression my alarm clock yells at one ‘to get out of my bed’ is ‘Personification’. Personification is a figure of speech that is used to attribute human characteristics to something that is not human. It can also be used to personify an abstract quality. In the given sentence- "My alarm clock yells at me to get out of bed", the alarm clock has been personified. An alarm clock is a nonliving object; it cannot yell at something. This figure of speech has been used to explain the loudness and intensity of the alarm clock.

50. (a) Simile Explanation: The Figure of Speech (Poetic Device) used in the expression, the dust settled like a falling veil is ‘Simile’. A simile is a figure of speech that compares two unlike things using the words “like” or “as.”. Here dust is being compared to falling veil.

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

CUET (UG)-2022 OFFICIAL PAPER (19th July, 2022, Slot-1) SOLVED

ENGLISH Time Allowed: 45 Minutes

Maximum Marks: 200

General Instructions:  For every correct answer, 5 marks will be awarded.  1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.  40 Questions to be attempted out of 50.

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-6) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. When plastic waste is burnt, a complex weave of toxic chemicals is released. Breaking down Poly Vinyl Chloride, (PVC) is used for packaging, toys and coating electrical wires. It produces dioxin—an organ chlorine which belongs lo the family of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPS). A recent Dioxin Assessment Report brought out by the United States Environment Protection Agency (USEPA) says the risk of getting cancer from dioxin is ten times higher than reported by the agency in 1994. Yet the Delhi government is giving the green signal to a gasification project which will convert garbage into energy without removing plastic waste. Former minister, the promoter of this project, says this is not necessary. He claims no air pollution will be caused and that the ash produced can be used as manure. An earlier waste-to-energy project set-up in Timarpur failed. The new one, built with Australian assistance, will cost 200 crore. It will generate 25 megawatts of power and gobble 1,000 tonnes of garbage every day. "Technologies like gasification are a form of incineration," says the central coordinator of this Project. Incineration merely transfers hazardous waste from solid form to air, water and ash. Toxins produced during incineration include acidic gases, heavy metals as well as dioxins and furans. "The 'manure' will be hazardous and a problem to dispose."

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022

1. What is released when plastics are burnt ? (a) power and proteins (b) toxic chemicals (c) fruits (d) vegetables

2. What is PVC ? (a) Polynominals (b) Polyvinyl chloride (c) Polyamine chloride (d) Polyelectricity

3. The full form of USEPA is ...................... . (a) United States Protection Ace (b) United States Environment Agency (c) United States Environment Protection Agency (d) United States Environment Protect Age

4. The risk of getting cancer from Dioxin is: (a) four times higher (b) ten times higher (c) ten times less (d) twenty times less

5. Technologies like gasification are a form of: (a) Curating artifacts (b) Organic farming (c) Incineration (d) Deforestation

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6. Match List - I with List II

7. The passage discusses:

List-I (A)

PVC is used for packaging

List-II (I)

Toys and coating electrical wire

(B)

United States environment protection

(II)

Brought out assessment report agency

(C)

Australian assistance

(III) 200 crore

(D)

Waste-to(IV) at Timarpur energy project set-up failed

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. (a) (A)- (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) (b) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III) (c) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (d) (A)- (III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D) - (II) Directions (Q. Nos. 7-12) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The spiritual training of the boys was a much more difficult matter than their physical and mental training. I relied little on religious books for the training of the spirit. Of course, I believed that every student should be acquainted with the elements of his own religion and have a general knowledge of his own scriptures and therefore I provided for such knowledge as best I could. But that, to my mind, was a part of the intellectual training. Long before I undertook the education of the youngsters of Tolstoy Farm, I had realized that the training of the spirit was a thing by itself. To develop the spirit is to build character and to enable one to work towards a knowledge of God and self-realization. And I held that this was an essential part of the training of the young, and that all training without culture of the spirit was of no use and might be even harmful. I am familiar with the superstition that self realization is possible only in the fourth stage of life, i.e., sannyasa (renunciation). But it is mailer of common knowledge that those who defer preparation for this invaluable experience until the last stage of life attain not selfrealization but old age amounting to a second and pitiable childhood, living as a burden on this earth. I have a full recollection that I held these views even whilst I was teaching though I might not then have expressed them in identical language.

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(a) How to attain brain power (b) Spiritual training of boys (c) Spiritual training of robots (d) How to develop language skills

8. A suitable title for the passage could be: (a) Spiritual Training of Developing Countries (b) Self realisation and Moksha (c) Importance of Spiritual Training (d) Life and Character of a Film maker

9. Training of the spirit means: (a) To build character and to enable one to work towards a knowledge of God and self-realization. (b) Being acquainted with the latest version of T-20 cricket (c) Memorising and reciting hymns (d) Studying only the religious books

10. Self-realisation is possible: (a) at the fourth stage of life (b) while preparing the youth (c) after retirement only (d) at old age.

11. According to the author, which one of the following statements is true? (a) Spiritual training is as difficult as physical and mental training. (b) Mental and physical training is easier than the spiritual training. (c) Mental and physical trainings are as equally difficult as the spiritual training. (d) Spiritual training has no wisdom as does the mental and physical training.

12. Match List - I with List - II. List-I

List-II

(A) Spiritual Training

(I)

was much more difficult than physical training

(B) The narrator relied on religious books

(II)

for the training of the spirit

(C) Youngsters were educated at

(III) Tolstoy Farm

(D) To develop the (IV) to develop and spirit was build character

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

Choose the correct answer from the options given below. (a) (A)- (I), (B)- (II), (C)- (III), (D) - (IV) (b) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) (c) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III) (d) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

15. The narrator had to look for ......................... to

Directions (Q. Nos. 13-18) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

16. The narrator feels that the first job is

Everyone's first job is special. There are a couple of reasons for this: experience is burned in one's memory, it gives you the practice needed to fulfill other positions, and it teaches you about the value of money. Of course we do jobs around the house when we are young, like cleaning dishes, vacuuming, and doing laundry, but working for others for money gives off a different feeling. When I was about sixteen yeas old, I wanted to buy albums of my favourite bands, but I did not have any money. My parents were not the type of people to give money to me out of nowhere, or even for work done at home. I had to find work in order to purchase the music I wanted. So, I enquired as to who could give me work around town. I lived in the town of Wood Way, which was relatively small, with no street lights, and hardly any population. I went to the oldest person I knew in my neighbourhood, Mrs. Hudson. She was over eighty years old, and could not tend her garden anymore. She had flowers, a grass lawn, and some tomato plants. I knocked on her door, building up enough courage to ask her for work. She answered that indeed she needed help in her garden. She did not discuss the amount of money, I would get for the work. The first job supplies you with the value of money, as sweat turned into cash is something no one can take away from you.

13. In the sentence it gives you the practice needed' the word 'practice' most closely means : (a) training (b) an outing (c) confidence (d) freedom

14. The narrator was unable to buy albums at

16 years of age because: (a) He was not permitted to buy anything. (b) He did not find the ones that he wanted. (c) He could not afford to buy it. (d) The albums of his favourite bands were sold.

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022

purchase the music album he/she wanted. (a) paid work (b) unrewarded work (c) weekend work (d) voluntary work important for: (a) everyone (b) only the successful people (c) the Brilliant students (d) only the house wives

17. Match List- I with List- II. List-I

List-II

(A) The first job is special for all

(I)

about who could give him a job

(B) The narrator once did not have money

(II)

to buy music albums

(C) The narrator inquired

(III)

as the experience is burnt in ones memory

(D) Mrs was

Hudson (IV) over 50 years old

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I) (b) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) (c) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II) (d) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

18. The narrator wanted to buy albums: (a) from his favourite band (b) from his neighbour Mrs. Hudson (c) from his school head-master (d) from the most papular Grammy award winner ever

19. Rearrange these parts to write a meaningful sentence:

(I) who is an expert in the art of animation (II) the animator (III) using a blend technology

of

imagination

and

(IV) gives life to a character Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (III), (IV), (II), (I)

(b) (II), (I), (IV), (III)

(c) (III), (II), (IV), (I)

(d) (II), (I), (III), (IV)

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20. Rearrange these parts to write a meaningful sentence: (I) that made it possible for humans (II) Laika the space dog-would always be remembered (III) to take a giant leap in the field of space science (IV) for her short adventure in space Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (II), (IV), (I), (III) (b) (II), (III), (I), (IV) (c) (II), (IV), (III), (I) (d) (II), (I), (III), (VI)

21. Rearrange these parts to write a meaningful sentence: (I) shares with monkeys (II) when any suspicious object is sighted (III) the Indian-giant squirrel (IV) the habit of scolding barking and raising a general alarm Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (III), (I), (II), (IV) (b) (II), (III), (I), (IV) (c) (III), (II), (I), (IV) (d) (III), (I), (IV), (II)

22. Re-arrange

these parts to write a meaningful sentence: (I) is a very precious aspect (II) of human nature and it needs (III) safety to maintain its sublime quality (IV) a peaceful mind Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (IV), (I), (II), (III) (b) (IV), (II), (III), (I) (c) (III), (IV), (II), (I) (d) (III), (II), (IV), (I)

23. From the given options, choose the pair of words which carry the same relationship as Allegory : Fable : : (a) Church : Chapel (b) Monastry : Hospital (c) Park : House (d) Politics : Army

24. From the given options, choose the pair of words which carry the same relationship as Extempore : Rehearse : : (a) Beautiful : Serene (b) Fatigue : Exhaustion (c) Battle: Peace (d) Infant : Child

25. From the given options choose the pair of words that carry the same relationship as Virtue : Morality (I) Sin : Profane (II) Law : Chaos (III) Day : Night (IV) Story : Novel

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Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (II) only (b) (I) only (c) (III) only (d) (IV) only

26. From the given options choose the pair of words that carry the same relationship as Anonymous : Famous (a) Man : Machine (b) Earth : Soil (c) Rose : Jasmine (d) Pistol : Gun

27. From the given option choose the word which will correctly substitute or replace. A short story with a moral. (a) Novel (b) Poetry (c) Drama (d) Parable

28. 'Status - quo' is the one word substitution for: (a) Unchanged position (b) Excellent recitation (c) Unbreakable metal (d) Wailing list

29. From the options given below, choose the one which will correctly replace or substitute: Home sickness (a) Nostalgia (b) Optimism (c) Criticism (d) Pessimism

30. From the options given below, choose the word which will replace : Unacceptably horrible (a) Horrendous (b) Honourable (c) Hourly (d) Hamper

31. From the given options, choose the one with the correct spelling : (a) Beeblical (b) Biblical (c) Beebilical (d) Viblical

32. Identify the correct spelling from the given options: (a) logical (c) liogical

(b) logicall (d) logical

33. Fill in the blank with the correct word. The uprooted trees in the park were a ............... to see (a) cute (b) site (c) sight (d) cight

34. Pick the correct spelling from the options given: (a) glorious (c) glamrious

(b) gleotious (d) gelorious

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

35. Choose the correct meaning from the option

given below that will correctly explain the following expression : Build castles in the air. (a) waste time (b) day dream (c) build houses (d) work hard

36. From the given options choose the correct meaning of the phrase : A Red letter day (a) a dangerous event (b) peaceful occasion (c) a very important occasion (d) a festival holiday

37. From the options given below, choose the correct meaning of the phrase : Sought after (a) Highly paid (b) Pushed by (c) In great demand (d) with great latent heat

38. Choose the correct meaning of phrase: To hit below the belt

42. Math the List-I with List-II. List-I Expression

List-II Figure of Speech

(A) Sing simple sweet song

(I)

oxymoron

(B) Sister Nivedita was like an angel.

(II)

personification

(C) The sinister night was howling.

(III)

simile

(D) The simple complexities made life interesting.

(IV) alliteration

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) (III), (D) - (IV) (b) (A) - (III), (B) (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I) (c) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (d) (A) - (VI), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

43. Match List - I with List - II. Word

Synonym

(a) to punish for a misdeed

(A) Assist

(I)

Parted

(b) to lie with a belt

(B) Separated

(II)

Help

(c) to play with friends

(C) Apprehension

(III)

Request

(D) Appeal

(IV) Fear

(d) to attack unfairly

39. What figure of speech (poetic devices) has been used in the following expression :

The child smiled like a blooming flower. (a) Simile

(b) Irony

(c) Paradox

(d) Oxymoron

40. From the given options, choose the correct

figure of speech that has been used in the following expression.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (b) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) (c) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (d) (A)- (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

44. Match List -1 with List II. Synonym

Word

"Cowards die many times before their death"

(A) Lenient

(I)

danger

(a) Simile

(b) Metaphor

(B) Ornamental

(II)

untimely

(c) Alliteration

(d) Paradox

(C) Premature

(III)

decorative

(D) Peril

(IV) moderate

41. Identity the figure of speech which has been used in the following expression :

The tanned teenager tripped over the steps. (a) Alliteration (b) Paradox (c) Metaphor (d) Personification

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (b) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) (c) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) (d) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

Page 29

45. Match List -I wilh List II. Word

Synonym

(A) General

(I)

Over statement

(B) Hyperbole

(II)

Usual

(C) Impeccable

(III)

Fair

(D) Just

(IV) Faultless

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (V) (b) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (c) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) (d) (A) (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)

46. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as: Confront (a) Tolerate

(b) Face

(c) Injure

(d) Ridicule

(III)

Holy

(D) Appreciate

(IV) Valuable

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (b) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) (c) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) (d) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D)- (III)

48. Find a word from the option given below which means the same as 'Exciting' : (a) unbound (b) labour (c) thrilling (d) cordial

49. The word which means the same an 'denizens' is: (a) Locker-room (c) Inhabitants

(b) Paintings (d) Soil

50. The word from the given options, which is most nearly same in meaning to the word given:

47. Match List - I with List - II. Synonym

(C) Fame

Word

(A) Sacred

(I)

Admire

(B) Precious

(II)

Reputation

COVETOUS (a) Greedy (b) Evaporate (c) Season (d) Audacious weather

SOLUTIONS CUET (UG) 2022

1. (b) toxic chemicals Explanation: As given in the first two lines, ‘when plastic waste is burnt, a complex weave of toxic chemicals is released’.

2. (b) Polyvinyl chloride Explanation: It is given in the passage that PVC is an acronym of ‘Polyvinyl chloride’.

3. (c)  United States Environment Protection Agency Explanation: The full form of USEPA is ‘United States Environment Protection Agency’.

4. (b) ten times higher Explanation: It is given in the passage that the risk of getting cancer from dioxin is ten times higher than reported by the agency in 1994.

5. (c) Incineration Explanation: Technologies like gasification are a form of incineration, as given in the passage.

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6. (c) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) Explanation: The correct match of List - I with List II is option (c) as per the passage.

7. (b) Spiritual training of boys Explanation: The passage discusses ‘the spiritual training of boys and building of their character.

8. (c) Importance of Spiritual Training Explanation: A suitable title for the passage can be ‘Importance of Spiritual Training’. The passage discusses the beauty of spiritualism and the training of the spirit as a thing by itself, i.e. through self-realisation.

9. (a) To build character and to enable one to

work towards a knowledge of God and self-realization. Explanation: Training of the spirit means to build character and to enable one to work towards a knowledge of God and

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

self-realisation. It is not related to T-20 cricket and is a more comprehensive concept than memorising hymns and reading spiritual books.

10. (a) at the fourth stage of life Explanation: It is a superstition that self realization is possible only in the fourth stage of life, i.e., sannyas (renunciation).

11. (b) Mental and physical training is easier than the spiritual training.

Explanation: As given in lines 1-2, the spiritual training of the boys was much more diffiicult matter than their physical and mental training. Thus, mental and physical training is easier than spiritual training.

12. (a) (A)- (I), (B)- (II), (C)- (III), (D) - (IV) Explanation: The correct match of List - I with List II is option (a), as per the passage.

13. (a) training Explanation: In the sentence it gives you ‘the practice needed' the word 'practice’ most closely means ‘training’. It is training that makes us confident for future positions in our career.

14. (c) He could not afford to buy it. Explanation: The narrator was unable to buy albums at 16 years of age because he could not afford it. The narrator had no money to buy albums and so he decided to work somewhere.

15. (a) paid work Explanation: The narrator had to look for paid work to purchase the music album he wanted because he had no money. Thus he decided to get a job.

16. (a) Everyone Explanation: The narrator feels that the first job is important for everyone as the experience is burned in one’s memory. It gives you the practice or training needed to fulfill other positions or jobs, and it teaches you about the value of money.

17. (b) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) Explanation: The correct match of List - I with List II is (b) option, as per the passage.

18. (a) from his favourite band Explanation: The narrator wanted to buy albums from his favourite band. It is mentioned in the second paragraph- “When I was about

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022

sixteen years old, I wanted to buy albums of my favourite bands, but I did not have any money”.

19. (b) (II), (I), (IV), (III) Explanation: The correct order is (II) the animator (I) who is an expert in the art of animation (IV) gives life to a character (III) using a blend of imagination and technology.

20. (a) (II), (IV), (I), (III) Explanation: The correct order is (II) Laika the space dog-would always be remembered (IV) for her short adventure in space (I) that made it possible for humans (III) to take a giant leap in the field of space science.

21. (d) (III), (I), (IV), (II) Explanation: The correct order is (III) the Indian-giant squirrel (I) share with monkeys (IV) the habit of scolding barking and raising a general alarm (II) when any suspicious object is sighted.

22. (a) (IV), (I), (II), (III) Explanation: The correct order is (IV) a peaceful mind (I) is a very precious aspect (II) of human nature and it needs (III) safety to maintain its sublime quality.

23. (a) Church : Chapel Explanation: The words Allegory: Fable carry the same meaning. Same, if we review the options, the correct answer is Church : Chapel, which carries the same meanings. Church is a building where Christians go to pray. Chapel is a small building or room that is used by some Christians as a church or for prayer.

24. (c) Battle : Peace Explanation: The words Extempore : Rehearse have opposite meanings. Same, if we review the options, the correct answer is Battle: Peace, which carries the opposite meanings. Battle means a fight, especially between armies in a war. Peace means a situation or a period of time in which there is no war or violence in a country or area.

25. (b) (I) only Explantion: The words Virtue: Morality are considered to have the same meaning. Same, if we review the options, the correct answer is, Sin: Profane which are considered to have the same meanings.

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26. (a) Man : Machine Explanation: The words Anonymous: Famous carry opposite meanings. If we review the options, the correct answer is Man: Machine, which also carry opposite meanings. Man: Either sex, male or female Machine: A piece of equipment with moving parts that is designed to do a particular job. A machine usually needs electricity, gas, steam, etc. in order to work.

27. (d) Parable Explanation: The word which will correctly substitute or replace is ‘Parable’. Parable is usually a short fictitious story that illustrates a moral attitude or a religious principle.

28. (a) Unchanged position Explanation: 'Status-quo' is the one word substitution for unchanged position. Status - quo means the current situation, the way things are now.

29. (a) Nostalgia Explanation: The one word which correctly replaces or substitutes Homesickness is ‘Nostalgia’. Nostalgia is a sentimentality for the past, typically for a period or place with happy memories. The word nostalgia is a learned formation and it comes from the Greek nostos (nostos), meaning "homecoming".

30. (a) Horrendous Explanation: The word which will replace unacceptably horrible is ‘Horrendous’. The word Horrendous means so bad as to be shocking; extremely unpleasant.

31. (b) Biblical Explanation: The correctly spelt word is ‘Biblical’. Biblical means relating to, or being in accord with the Bible.

32. (a) and (d) NOTE : Spelling given in both options (a) and (d) are the same. Explanation: The word logical means seemingly natural, reasonable or sensible.

33. (c) sight Explanation: The correct word for the sentence is - The uprooted trees in the park were a sight to see. The other options do not make the sentence grammatically correct.

Page 32

34. (a) glorious Explanation: ‘Glorious’.

The

correct

spelt

word

is

Glorious means having or deserving fame or success.

35. (b) day dream Explanation: The meaning of the expression ‘Build castles in the air’ is to daydream. ‘Build castles in the air’ idiom means plans that have very little chance of happening. Impossible and improbable.

36. (c) a very important occasion Note: The number sequence is wrong. Explanation: A Red letter day means a day that is pleasantly noteworthy or memorable. Hence, a very important occasion.

37. (c) in great demand Explanation: The correct meaning of the phrase ‘Sought after’ is to be in great demand. The idiom ‘sought after’ means wanted or desired by many people.

38. (d) to attack unfairly Explanation: the correct meaning of phrase : ‘To hit below the belt’ is to attack unfairly. To hit below the belt phrase means to unfairly target another person's weakness or vulnerability.

39. (a) Simile Explanation: The figure of Speech (Poetic Device) used in the expression, “The child smiled like a blooming flower” is simile. A simile is a figure of speech that compares two unlike things using the words “like” or “as.” Here the child’s smile is being compared to blooming flower.

40. (d) Paradox Explanation: The figure of speech (Poetic Device) used in the expression, "Cowards die many times before their death" is paradox. A paradox is a figure of speech which when heard or read can seem to be completely selfcontradicting. The phrase may be contrary to what is expected in the situation and can lead to a conclusion which is not logically acceptable.

41. (a) Alliteration Explanation: The Figure of Speech (Poetic Device) used in the expression, "The tanned teenager tripped over the steps" is Alliteration.

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

Alliteration is a figure of speech when there is a repetition of either the same word or sound at the beginning of closely placed words.

42. (d) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) Note: In (d) answer, it is written (A) - (VI) which is wrong . It should be (A)- (IV) Explanation: The correct match of List-I with List-II is option (d).

43. (c) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) Explanation: The correct match of List-I with List-II is option (c).

44. (c) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) Explanation: The correct match of List-I with List-II is option (c).

45. (b) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) Explanation: the correct match of List-I with List-II is option (b).

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022

46. (b) Face Explanation: The meaning of Confront is to face, especially to challenge or oppose. Hence, it has a similar meaning to confront.

47. (c) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) Explanation: The correct match of List-I with List-II is option (c).

48. (c) thrilling Explanation: Exciting means causing strong feelings of pleasure and interest. Hence, it has a similar meaning to thrilling.

49. (c) Inhabitants Explanation: Denizens refer to animals, plants, or people that live in or are often found in a particular place. Hence, this means similar to inhabitants.

50. (a) Greedy Explanation: The word covetous means desiring for something extremely. Hence, it has a similar meaning to greedy.

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Section - 1A

CUET (UG)-2022 OFFICIAL MOCK TEST PAPER SOLVED

E NGLI S H Time Allowed: 45 Minutes

Maximum Marks: 200

General Instructions: • For every correct answer, 5 marks will be awarded. • 1 marks will get deducted for each wrong answer. • 40 Questions to be attempted out of 50.

I. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: (1) Human beings crave peace of mind. But it is hard to find an individual who can say that he has attained such a state of mental equilibrium which will allow him to live a life of tranquillity. Peace of mind is a distant dream for all of us. The reason is that people hanker after ideal peace, that is, pure peace-a peace that is free from all kinds of non-peace items. (2) But this kind of absolute peace is not in nature's storehouse. Let us take the analogy of the rose. A rose is a very beautiful flower, but every stem has its thorns. Indeed, thorns are an integral part of the rose plant. A poet has rightly said that thorns serve as security guards for the flower. There must be hard thorns along with soft flowers-that is, there must be non-peace items along with peaceful items. A peaceful mind is a very precious aspect of human nature and it too needs safety to maintain its sublime quality. (3) Studies in psychology show that an untroubled mind very soon becomes stagnant and loses its creativity. For this reason, nature always leads people to

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challenging situations. It is a non-peace item that acts as a challenge for the mind. This guarantees that the creativity of a peaceful mind never comes to an end and is always alive. (4) Let's take the example of two different individuals, one who had all the luxuries of life and the other who lacks worldly comforts. The person with all comforts won't have much to talk about as he would be enjoying his life, on the other hand, the one who had a few years of struggle will emerge as a successful person and will remain active and alive.

1. What is peace of mind?

(a) Feeling happy and excited (b) Attaining mental serenity (c) Achieving one's goals (d) To be free from all tensions and worries

Ans. (b) Attaining mental serenity Explanation: The author says that peace is not (d) to be free from all tensions and worries. It is not just (a) feeling happy or excited or (c) achieving one’s goals. Hence (b) is the right answer.

2. Peace of  mind is difficult to attain because: (a) ideal peace does not exist. (b) peace does not come overnight.

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

(c) peace exists along with a non-peace item. (d) peace comes with calm and stillness. Ans. (a) ideal peace does not exist Explanation: The author says that peace of mind is a distant dream for us because we tend to go after an ‘ideal’ of peace that does not exist. Hence (a) is the right answer.

3. Analogy in para 2 means: (a) Integral (b) Likeness (c) Comfort (d) Luxury

Ans. (b) Likeness Explanation: Analogy refers to comparing one thing to another by using a similar example. Hence (b) likeness is the right answer.

4. An untroubled mind becomes stagnant and inactive because it: (a) has nothing to think and bother about. (b) enjoys the peace and pleasures of life. (c) is satisfied and happy. (d) is stress-free.

Ans. (a) has nothing to think and bother about. Explanation: The author says that the nonpeace items in our life make our minds creative and active when we try to solve them. If there is only peace, we would have nothing to think about. Hence (a) is the right answer.

5. One can develop creative thinking by:

(a) facing odds at a particular stage in life. (b) enjoying an affluent life. (c) facing the struggles and hardships of life. (d) over-thinking and reacting to it.

Ans. (c) facing the struggles and hardships of life. Explanation: The author says that the struggles in our life make us develop creative thinking when we try to solve it. Hence (d) is the right answer.

6. Choose the synonym of the word 'Affluence' given in para 4: (a) Extreme (b) Heavy (c) Royal (d) Opulence

Ans. (d) Opulence Explanation: Affluence means to have great wealth or luxury. Opulence means the same. Hence (d) is the right answer.

7. What serves as a security guard for a peaceful mind? (a) Challenging times (b) Hard thorns (c) Poverty (d) Creativity

Ans. (d) Creativity Explanation: Just like thorns protect a flower, creativity protects our mind from growing inactive. Hence (d) is the right answer.

8. What makes a person intellectual and successful? (a) Way of thinking (b) Problem-free life (c) Tranquility and peace of mind (d) Diffiiculties and hardships

Ans. s (d) Diffiiculties and hardship Explanation: The author says that difficulties and hardships in our life make us work hard to overcome them. This turns us into successful people. Hence (d) is the right answer.

9. What are the non-peace items?

(1) Richness (2) Diffiicult things (3) Rose with its thorns (4) Challenges of life (5) Duties and responsibilities Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below (a) (1), (3), (5) (b) (2), (4), (5) (c) (1), (2), (4) (d) (2), (3), (4)

Ans. (b) (2), (4), (5) Explanation: The non-peace items that the author talks about are challenges, difficulties and responsibilities. These are the things that take our peace away. Hence (b) is the right answer.

10. Choose the antonym of sublime (para 2): (a) debilitating (b) exalting (c) impressive (d) lowest

Ans. (d) lowest Explanation: Sublime refers to qualities or ideas that are considered high, supreme or elevated. Lowest means its opposite. Hence (d) is the right answer.

NTA CUET (UG) Official Mock Test Paper - 2022

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II. Read the passage given below and answer

the questions that follow: (1) Getting a good night's sleep is incredibly essential for health and well-being, according to the National Sleep Foundation. In fact, it's just as important as eating a balanced, nutritious diet and exercising. But millions of people don't get enough, resulting in such problems as daytime sleepiness, poor decisionmaking, interference with learning, an increased risk of heart disease, kidney disease, high blood pressure, diabetes, and stroke. Cognition, concentration, productivity, and performance are all negatively affected by sleep deprivation Not getting enough sleep can be dangerous for yourself and others. When we're tired, our ability to focus on tasks, reflexes, and reaction times decrease. (2) Everyone's individual sleep needs vary. In general, most healthy adults are built for 16 hours of wakefulness and need an average of eight hours of sleep a night. However, some individuals are able to function without sleepiness or drowsiness after as little as six hours of sleep. Others cannot perform at their peak unless they have slept ten hours. And, contrary to common myth, the need for sleep does not decline with age but the ability to sleep for six to eight hours at one time may be reduced. (3) Psychologists and other scientists who study the causes of sleep disorders have shown that such problems can directly or indirectly be tied to abnormalities in the following systems: Physiological systems, brain, and nervous system, cardiovascular system, metabolic functions, immune system (4) Groups that are at particular risk for sleep deprivation include night shift workers, physicians, truck drivers. parents. and teenagers. (5) Stress is the number one cause of shortterm sleeping difficulties, according to sleep experts. Common triggers include school- or job-related pressures, a family or marriage problem, and a serious illness or death in the family. Usually, the sleep problem disappears when the stressful situation passes. (6) Drinking beverages containing caffeine in the afternoon or evening, traveling, especially jet lag. and traveling across several time zones can disrupt sleep. Environmental factors such as a room that's too hot or cold, too noisy or too brightly lit can be a barrier to sound sleep, and having a 24/7 lifestyle can also interrupt regular sleep patterns.

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(7) It is a good idea to talk to a physician or mental health provider about any sleeping problem that recurs or persists for longer than a few weeks.

11. Sleep is important as it helps to maintain: (a) good physical health (b) dream while sleeping (c) balance work and fun time (d) avoid different kinds of diseases Ans. (d) avoid different kinds of diseases Explanation: The author states that adequate sleep is important to prevent health problems. Hence (d) is the right answer.

12. The problems faced due to lack of sleep

include: (1) Daytime sleepiness, poor decisionmaking, interference with learning (2) Abnormalities in physiological systems. brain, and nervous system, cardiovascular system, metabolic functions, immune system (3) Work pressure, family and marriage issues (4) Serious illness or death in the family (5) Cognition, concentration, productivity, and performance Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below (a) (1), (3), (5) (b) (2), (3), (4) (c) (1), (2), (5) (d) (3), (4), (5)

Ans. (c) (1), (2), (5) Explanation: Options (2) and (4) are not problems caused due to inadequate sleep. They are the causes of short-term sleep disorders. Hence (c) is the correct answer.

13. Given below are two statements : Statement I:  Stress is the number one cause of short-term sleeping difficulties. Statement II:  Usually the sleep problem appears when the stressful situation passes. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. Ans. (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Explanation: It is true according to the passage that stress is the primary reason for sleep problems. The problem disappears when the stressful situation passes away. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. Hence (c) is the right answer.

14. How many hours of sleep does an individual require, in general? (a) Ten hours (b) Twelve hours (c) Eight hours (d) Eight to ten hours

Ans. (c) Eight hours Explanation: The passage says that eight hours of sleep and 16 hours of wakefulness is normal for human beings. Hence (c) is the right answer.

15. Name the groups that are at particular

risk for sleep deprivation: (a) Physicians, truck drivers, parents, and teenagers (b) Night shift workers, students, teachers (c) Parents, teenagers, daily wage workers, truck drivers (d) Physicians, night shift workers, truck drivers, parents, and teenagers

Ans. (d)  Physicians, night shift workers, truck drivers, parents and teenagers Explanation: It is given in the passage that physicians, night shift workers, truck drivers, parents and teenagers are particularly at risk of sleep problems. Hence (d) is the right answer.

16. Choose the correct synonym for persists (para 7). (a) to give up everything (b) to discontinue and stop (c) to cease to do (d) to continue in spite of resistance

Ans. (d) to continue in spite of resistance Explanation: To persist means to not give up on something in spite of difficulty. Hence (d) is the right answer.

17. The antonym of deprivation is (para 1): (a) Disadvantage (b) Benefit

(c) Loss (d) Plentiful Ans. (d) Plentiful Explanation: Deprivation refers to the lack of something that is considered a necessity. Hence (d) Plentiful is its antonym.

18. Choose the correct option for the synonyms of Cognition given in paragraph (1):

(a) comprehension. unawareness. reasoning (b) perception, thoughtlessness, insight (c) understanding, thinking, reasoning (d) heedlessness. awareness. comprehension Ans. (c) understanding, thinking, reasoning Explanation: Cognition refers to the process of gaining knowledge through experience and reasoning. Only option (c) has all three words that are synonyms of cognition.

19. Sleep gets disrupted due to many reasons. This includes:

(1) intake of beverages (2) traveling too much (3) 24/7 lifestyle (4) too comfortable and cold room (5) Walking and exercise (6) Good Nutrition (7) Meditation Choose the correct options from those given below: (a) (1), (5), (6), (7) (b) (2), (6), (7) (c) (1), (2), (3), (4) (d) (1), (3), (5), (6) Ans. (c) (1), (2), (3), (4) Explanation: Since (5) Walking and exercise (6) Good nutrition and (7) Meditation do not disrupt sleep, the answer is option (c).

20. What are the ways one can overcome sleep problems?

(a) By eating snacks and heavy food (b) By consuming caffeine

beverages

containing

(c) By remaining stress-free (d) By travelling Ans. (c) By remaining stress free Explanation: Since eating snacks, drinking beverages and travelling does not help overcome sleep problems, option (c) is the right answer.

NTA CUET (UG) Official Mock Test Paper - 2022

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III. Read the passage given below and answer

the questions that follow: (1) Governments have seized on tourism as a way of creating employment and bringing income-preferably foreign exchangeinto troubled economies. For years tourism's capacity to filter wealth through communities has been a major argument in its favour. The tourist spends money on accommodation, food, and souvenirs, bringing income to the suppliers of these goods and services, whose money will, in turn, circulate through the economy. (2) But if the hotels are foreign-owned, local people have little to gain. Nor are they better off if tourists stay among them but come prepared to be self-sufficient. In both cases, tourists are often strongly resented by locals, who see huge increases in prices as the only tangible result of tourism's economic impact. (3) Job creation is another common spinoff from tourism. Governments subsidize tourism projects with the expectation of increasing employment opportunities in the new hotels and restaurants. But such work is frequently poorly paid and is seasonal. Local people may be neither willing to do demeaning unskilled jobs nor highly trained enough to be managers and entrepreneurs; they stand on the sidelines while expatriate staff and migrants fill the vacancies. Social tensions surface all too easily in such situations. (4) Any kind of change brings tensions, and economic development tends to exaggerate the generation gap as the young master new skills and the older generation finds its tradition devalued or rejected. Tourists bring with them very different cultures and ideas, demonstrated by the way they dress and behave, and these may be very attractive to the younger generation. On the beaches and bar strips of Asia, Africa, and the Pacific you can see how readily young people have been lured from their villages by the promise of bright lights and money. (5) A country's culture is often a major attraction, particularly when it can be combined with sun, sea, and sand. In Thailand, as in many countries with a rich heritage, tourists' demands have given a much-needed boost to local arts and crafts; after all, a local economy can only stand so many baskets, pots, and carvings. The phenomenal growth in Arts Festivals, from Edinburgh to Hong Kong, has brought tourists into festival towns and given

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some of their inhabitant's access to global culture. But what of their own culture? The story here is less rosy. (6) In relation to the environment, even the most blinkered tourist is faced with the truism that tourists destroy the very things they have come for. In Kenya, a country that depends heavily on tourism, there is a real danger of 'tourist pollution in the most popular game parks. Animals in the Amboseli Reserve are constantly disturbed by tourist buses, their prey scattered, and their feeding grounds damaged. If the animals disappear. so may tourism.

21. What are the advantages of tourism? (a) Tourism brings employment opportunities, economic growth, and cultural exchange. (b) Tourism does not provide employment for local people. (c) Tourism helps in developing a better environment across the globe. (d) Tourism values traditions. Ans. (a) Tourism brings employment opportunities, economic growth and cultural exchange Explanation: Option (a) covers the main advantages of promoting tourism. The other points are less relevant. Hence, it is the right answer.

22. Given below are two statements: Statement I:  Foreign-owned hotels have a major role to play in benefitting the locals. Statement II:  Locals harbour a grudge against self-sufficient tourists. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. Ans. (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Explanation: According to the extract, foreign hotels do not play a big role in benefitting local populations. But it is true that locals hold a grudge against self-sufficient tourists. Hence (d) is the right answer.

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

23. How

does tourism affect the employment of a country? (a) Tourism can lead to the reduction of poverty and to the promotion of socioeconomic development. (b) Tourism can provide employment to many people and with its increase, cultural handicrafts will automatically be in demand. (c) Tourism creates and generates jobs directly through hotels, restaurants, taxis, and souvenir sales, and indirectly through the supply of goods and services needed by tourism-related businesses. (d) Subsidized tourism projects increase employment opportunities.

Ans. (c)  Tourism creates and generates jobs directly through hotels, restaurants, taxis and souvenir sales, and indirectly through the supply of goods and services needed by tourism-related businesses. Explanation: Option (c) provides the most comprehensive answer out of all the options. Hence (c) is the right answer.

24. What are the negative socio-cultural

impacts of tourism? (a) Intermingling with the people of various cultural groups leads to the loss of the culture of the destination area. (b) The major jobs are taken by the migrants. (c) Encourages urbanisation (d) Local people are side-lined

Ans. (a) Intermingling with the people of different cultural groups leads to loss of culture of the destination area Explanation: While options (b), (c), and (d) are correct in some cases, the fundamental negative impact tourism causes is on the place’s culture. Hence (a) is the right answer.

25. What are the adverse effects of tourism

on the environment? (a) The less the number of people arriving at any location poses threat to various resources. (b) Tourism disrupts animal life by cutting down the forest leading to damaged feeding grounds and scattered prey. (c) The heritage of the place gets negatively affected. (d) Agricultural land is replaced by buildings, roads and garbage disposal, etc.

Ans. (b)  Tourism disrupts animal life by cutting down the forest leading to damaged feeding grounds and scattered prey.

Explanation: It is given in the passage that tourism in animal habitats disrupts their lifestyle, pollutes feeding grounds and scatters prey. Hence (b) is the right answer.

26. Choose the antonym of expatriate (para 3): (a) Emigrant (b) Native (c) Settler (d) Pilgrim

Ans. (b) Native Explanation: An expatriate is a person who lives outside their native country. This makes native the antonym of expatriate. Hence (b) is the right answer.

27. How does tourism boost the economy of a country? (a) By generating foreign exchange (b) By spreading its culture and tradition (c) By encouraging urbanization (d) By having foreign-owned hotels

Ans. (a) By generating foreign exchange Explanation: The fundamental way tourism develops a country’s economy is by bringing in foreign exchange. Hence (a) is the right answer.

28. Given below are two statements : Statement I:  Animals in the Amboseli Reserve are a source of recreation for the people of Kenya. Statement II:  Tourism has disturbed the life of animals. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below (a) Both Statement land Statement II are correct. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. Ans. (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Explanation: Animals in the Amboseli Reserve are a source of recreation for the tourists, and not natives. Tourists disturb the lives of animals there. Hence (d) is the right answer.

29. How can tourism be promoted in a country?

NTA CUET (UG) Official Mock Test Paper - 2022

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(a) By investing time and efforts in building traveling experiences for people brim with tour guides, activities for the children, culinary tours, interactivity for the tourist with the culture of the place, etc. (b) By creating more jobs for the locals and natives (c) By highlighting the culture of the destination and intermingling it with global culture (d) By investing in recreational activities Ans. (a) By investing time and efforts in building traveling experiences for people brim with tour guides, activities for the children, culinary tours, interactivity for the tourist with the culture of the place, etc. Explanation: Option (a) provides the most comprehensive answer to the question. The other options are less relevant. Hence (a) is the right answer.

30. Choose the correct synonym of the word blinkered, given in paragraph 6: (a) Reasonable (b) Resilient (c) Narrow-minded (d) Radical

Ans (c) Narrow-minded Explanation: Blinkers refer to the coverings at the side of horses’ eyes used to reduce their peripheral vision. It also means a narrowminded person or perspective. Hence (c) is the right answer.

31. Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful sentence: In the battle of wits, .................. (1) against an opponent (2) the one who comes prepared (3) may end up losing (4) who is well-read Choose the correct option from those given below: (a) (2), (4), (3), (1) (b) (2), (3), (4), (1) (c) (2), (3), (1), (4) (d) (1), (2), (4, )(3)

Ans. (c) (2), (3), (1), (4) Explanation: This is the version among all the options that reads best. Hence (c) is the right answer.

32. The Girl and her friend .................. (1) full of chocolates (2) when a passerby (3) gave them a box (4) looked pleased

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Choose the correct option from those given below: (a) (4), (2), (3), (1) (b) (3), (2), (4), (1) (c) (4), (2), (1), (3) (d) (3), (2), (1), (4) Ans. (a) (4), (2), (3), (1) Explanation: This is the version among all the options that reads best. Hence (c) is the right answer.

33. His compassion ..................

(1) stood out (2) the bosses at his workplace (3) among his other qualities (4) and impressed Choose the correct option from those given below: (a) (1), (3), (4), (2) (b) (3), (1), (4), (2) (c) (3), (4), (2), (1) (d) (1), (4), (2), (3)

Ans. (a) (1), (3), (4), (2) Explanation: This is the version among all the options that is grammatically correct. Hence (a) is the right answer.

34. One needs to constantly:

(1) and keep striving (2) push his limits (3) in order to (4) succeed in life Choose the correct option from those given below: (a) (4), (1), (3), (2) (b) (2), (3), (4), (1) (c) (4), (3), (2), (1) (d) (2), (1), (3), (4)

Ans. (d) (2), (1), (3), (4) Explanation: This is the version among all the options that is grammatically correct. Hence (d) is the correct answer.

35. The schools that:

(1) children who show (2) merit in sports and extracurricular activities (3) insist on academic performance (4) do injustice to Choose the correct option from those given below: (a) (4), (1), (2), (3) (b) (3), (2), (4), (1) (c) (3), (1), (4), (2) (d) (3), (4), (1), (2)

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

38. Match List I with List II:

Ans. (d) (3), (4), (1), (2) Explanation: Among all the options, this is the only sequence that is grammatically correct. Hence (d) is the right answer.

36. Match List I with List II: List-I

List-II

(A) Busy as a bee

(1)

imagery

(B)

(2)

simile

(C) Lions on the

(3)

personification

(D) Yellow mustard seeds scattered in the yellow sunlight

(4)

metaphor

Dancing leaves of a tree

List-I

List-II

(A) claustrophobia

(1)

hobby of stamp collection

(B) honorary

(2)

fear of closed spaces

(C) debut

(3)

work without pay

(D) philately

(4)

first time ever

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: (a) (A)-(3), (B)-(2), (C)-(1), (D)-(4) (b) (A)-(4), (B)-(1), (C)-(3), (D)-(2) (c) (A)-(1), (B)-(2) (C)-(3), (D)-(4)

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: (a) (A)-(2), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(1) (b) (A)-(1), (B)-(4), (C)-(3), (D)-(2) (c) (A)-(2), (B)-(1), (C)-(4), (D)-(3) (d) (A)-(3), (B)-(2), (C)-(1), (D)-(4) Ans. (a) (A)-(2), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(1) Explanation: (A) is a (2) simile because it uses the word ‘as’ to compare. (B) is (3) personification because it uses the word ‘dance’ for leaves. Hence (a) is the correct option. The other options do not match.

(d) (A)-(2), (B)-(3) (C)-(4), (D)-(1) Ans. (d) (A)-(2), (B)-(3) (C)-(4), (D)-(1) Explanation: Since (A) Claustrophobia means (2) fear of closed spaces and (B) Honorary means (3) Work without pay, option (d) is the correct answer. The other options do not match.

39. Match List I with List II: List-I

List-II

(A) Stitch in time saves nine

(1)

Like-minded people always tend to keep together

(B) Rolling stone gathers no moss

(2)

Instability never leads to success

(C) Birds of a feather flock together

(3)

Timely action is always beneficial

(D) Make hay while the sun shines

(4)

Encash an opportunity at the right time

37. Match List I with List II: List-I

List-II

(A) Charolette Bronte

(1)

Great Expectations

(B)

(2)

Jane Eyre

(C) Salman Rushdie

(3)

Picture of Dorain Gray

(D) Charles Dickens

(4)

Midnight’s Children

Oscar Wilde

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: (a) (A)-(2), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(1) (b) (A)-(1), (B)-(2), (C)-(3) (D)-(4) (c) (A)-(2), (B)-(3) (C)-(1) (D)-(4) (d) (A)-(3), (B)-(4) (C)-(2) (D)-(1) Ans. (a) (A)-(2), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(1) Explanation: Since (A) Charlotte Bronte wrote (2) Jane Eyre and (D) Charles Dickens wrote (1) Great Expectations, we know that option (a) is the correct option. The other options do not match.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: (a) (A)-(3), (B)-(2) (C)-(1) (D)-(4) (b) (A)-(1), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(2) (c) (A)-(2), (B)-(1), (C)-(4), (D)-(3) (d) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(1), (D)-(3) Ans. (a) (A)-(3), (B)-(2) (C)-(1) (D)-(4) Explanation: Since (A) means (3) Timely action is always beneficial and (B) means (2) Instability never leads to success, option (a) is the correct answer. The other options do not match.

NTA CUET (UG) Official Mock Test Paper - 2022

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40. Match List 1 with List II:

43. It is .............. to wear uniform to school.

List-I

List-II

(A) Belief that nothing really exists

(1)

apprentice

(B) Assistant of a professional

(2)

itinerary

(C) List of places one plans to visit in a tour

(3)

atheist

(D) one who doesn't believe in God

(4)

(b) meritorious (c) miscellaneous (d) mandatory Ans. (d) mandatory Explanation: Mandatory means compulsory. It fits perfectly in the context of the sentence. Hence (d) is the correct answer.

44. Which among the following uses the nihilism

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: (a) (A)-(4), (B)-(3), (C)-(2), (D)-(1) (b) (A)-(4), (B)-(1), (C)-(2), (D)-(3) (c) (A)-(1), (B)-(4), (C)-(3) (D)-(2) (d) (A)-(2), (B)-(4), (C)-(3), (D)-(1) Ans. (b) (A)-(4), (B)-(1), (C)-(2), (D)-(3) Explanation: Since (A) means (4) nihilism and (B) means (1) apprentice, option (b) is the correct answer. The other options do not match.

41. Choosing the correct word MEDICINE: CURE (a) Lamp: Table (b) Sun: Warmth (c) Red: Yellow (d) Car: Wheels Ans. (b) Sun: Warmth Explanation: The relation between medicine and cure is cause and effect. Similarly, the effect of the sun is warmth. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

42. Fill in the blank with the correct word from the given words:

He wishes to ................. the doubts of all students with his coherent explanation of the topic. (a) dispel (b) deter (c) depart (d) defy Ans. (a) dispel Explanation: To dispel means to make (something) disappear. It fits the sentence correctly. Hence (a) is the correct answer.

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(a) monetary

word ‘meteoric’ correctly?

(a) The metal twanged with a ‘meteoric’ correctly. (b) The girl’s cry came from a meteoric region. (c) His career saw a meteoric rise in the past few years. (d) We have learned to manage our meteoric tasks. Ans. (c) His career saw a meteoric rise in the past few years. Explanation: Meteoric means something that happens very suddenly. Option (c) is the only sentence which uses the word correctly.

45. Choose the correct use of the word

‘mitigate’ from the given sentences. (a) We have been working with the flood survivors to mitigate their suffering. (b) The savings he accumulated over time are beginning to mitigate. (c) The world is suffering; it may mitigate soon! (d) The show will mitigate the plight of the troops.

Ans. (a) We have been working with the flood survivors to mitigate their suffering. Explanation: To mitigate means to lessen. Option (a) is the only sentence which uses the world correctly.

46. The girl detested the distasteful remarks made about her project. Select the synonym of the underlined word from the given options: (a) Denied (b) Demanded (c) Disclosed (d) Disliked

Ans. (d) Disliked Explanation: To detest someone means to hate or dislike someone. Hence (d) is the correct answer.

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

47. Choose the correct synonym for the word ‘Pertinent’. (a) Perturb (b) Germane (c) Repugnant (d) Irrelevant

Ans. (b) Germane Explanation: To be pertinent means to be relevant. ‘Germane’ has the same meaning. Hence (b) is the correct option.

48. Choose the correct antonym for the word ‘coercive’. (a) Imperative (b) Gentle (c) Opinionated (d) Persistent

Ans. (b) Gentle Explanation: Coercive means something done by force. Gentle means tenderly or with care. Hence (b) is the correct option.

49. Choose the appropriate antonym for the word ‘conspicuous’. (a) Blatant

(b) Important

(c) Concealed

(d) Injudicious

Ans. (c) Concealed Explanation: To be conspicuous means to be highly visible. Concealed means its opposite. Hence (c) is the right answer.

50. Match idiom with its meaning: She was at her wit’s end when she heard the diagnosis given by the doctor (a) Associated (b) Confused and worried (c) Rejoiced (d) Compelled Ans. (b) Confused and worried Explanation: To be at one’s wit’s end means to be desperate and anxious. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

NTA CUET (UG) Official Mock Test Paper - 2022

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Section - 1A

CUET (UG)-2024 MOCK PAPER

1

SOLVED

ENGLISH Time Allowed: 45 Minutes

Maximum Marks: 200

General Instructions: • For every correct answer, 5 marks will be awarded. • 1 mark will get deducted for each wrong answer. • 40 questions to be attempted out of 50.

READING COMPREHENSIONS I. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: (1) The choices we make on a daily basis— wearing a seatbelt, lifting heavy objects correctly or purposely staying out of any dangerous situation—can either ensure our safety or bring about potentially harmful circumstances. (2) You and I need to make a decision that we are going to get our lives in order. Exercising self-control, self-discipline and establishing boundaries and borders in our lives are some of the most important things we can do. A life without discipline is one that’s filled with carelessness. (3) We can think it’s kind of exciting to live life on the edge. We like the image of “Yeah! That’s me! Living on the edge! Woo-hoo!” It’s become a popular way to look at life. But if you see, even highways have lines, which provide margins for our safety while we’re driving. If we go over one side, we’ll go into the ditch. If we cross over the line in the middle, we could get killed. And we like those lines because they help to keep us safe. Sometimes we don’t even realize how lines help to keep us safe. (4) I’m not proud of this, but for the first 20 years of my life at work, I ignored my limits. I felt horrible, physically, most of the time. I used to

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tell myself “I know I have limits and that I’ve reached them, but I’m going to ignore them and see if or how long I can get by with it.” I ran to doctors, trying to make myself feel better through pills, vitamins, natural stuff and anything I could get my hands on. Some of the doctors would tell me, “It’s just stress.” That just made me mad. I thought stress meant you don’t like what you do or can’t handle life, and I love what I do. But I kept pushing myself, travelling, doing speaking engagements and so on— simply exhausting myself. (5) Finally, I understood, I was living an unsustainable life and needed to make some changes in my outlook and lifestyle.

You and I don’t have to be like everyone else or keep up with anyone else. Each of us needs to be exactly the way we are, and we don’t have to apologize for it. We’re not all alike and we need to find a comfort zone in which we can enjoy our lives instead of making ourselves sick with an overload of stress and pressure.

1. The author attempts to ..................... the readers through this write-up. (a) rebuke (b) question (c) offer aid to (d) offer advice to

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

2. The author uses colloquial words such as “yeah” and “Woo-hoo!”. Which of the following is NOT a colloquial word? (a) hooked (b) guy (c) stuff (d) stress

Category Ethical Tourism

Tourism in a destination where ethical issues are the key driver, e.g., social injustice, human rights, animal welfare, or the environment.

Geotourism

Tourism that sustains or enhances the geographical character of a place – its environment, heritage, aesthetics, culture and wellbeing of its residents.

Pro-Poor Tourism

Tourism that results in increased net benefit for the poor people in a destination.

3. What does the author mean when he says, “to get our lives in order”? (a) To resume our lives. (b) To organize our lives. (c) To rebuild our lives. (d) To control our lives.

4. Choose the option that correctly states the

two meanings of ‘outlook’, as used in the passage. (1) A person’s evaluation of life (2) A person’s experiences in life (3) A person’s point of view towards life (4) A person’s regrets in life (5) A person’s general attitude to life (a) (1) and (4) (c) (3) and (5)

(b) (2) and (3) (d) (4) and (5)

5. What is the message conveyed in the last paragraph of the passage? (a) Love what you do. (b) Love yourself to love others. (c) Be the best version of yourself. (d) Be yourself.

II. Read the passage given below and answer

the questions that follow: (1) The UN’s 2017 International Year tells that sustainable tourism is an important tool for development, most importantly in poor communities and countries. Today sustainability – environmental, social, and economic – is increasingly recognised as the benchmark for all tourism business. As noted by the UN World Tourism Organisation, 57% of international tourist arrivals will be in emerging economies, by 2030. The various ‘Tourism Terms’ are defined as follows: Category Ecotourism

Mock Paper 1

Definition Responsible travel to natural areas that conserves the environment, socially and economically sustains the well-beings of local people, and creates knowledge and understanding through interpretation and education of all involved (including staff, travelers, and community residents).

Definition

Responsible Tourism that maximizes the Tourism benefits to local communities, minimizes negative social environmental impacts, and helps local people conserve fragile cultures and habitats or species. Sustainable Tourism

Tourism that leads to the management of all resources in such a way that economic, social and aesthetic needs can be fulfilled while maintaining cultural integrity, essential ecological processes, biological diversity and lifesupport systems.

(2) Based on data collected by a survey by Travel Bureau, the following market profile of an ecotourist was constructed: Age: 35-54 years old, although age varied with activity and other factors such as cost. Gender: 50% female and 50% male, although clear differences based on activity were found. (3) Education: 82% were college graduates, a shift in interest in ecotourism from those who have high levels of education to those with less education was also found, indicating an expansion into mainstream markets. Household composition: No major differences were found between general tourists and experienced ecotourists** (4) Party composition: A majority (60%) of experienced ecotourism respondents stated they prefer to travel as a couple, with only 15% stating they preferred to travel with their families, and 13% preferring to travel alone. (** experienced ecotourists = Tourists that had been on at least one “ecotourism” oriented trip.)

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(5) Trip duration: The largest group of experienced ecotourists- (50%) preferred trips lasting 8-14 days. (6) Expenditure: Experienced ecotourists were willing to spend more than general tourists, the largest group (26%). (7) Important elements of trip: Experienced ecotourists top three responses were: (a) wilderness setting, (b) wildlife viewing, (c) hiking/trekking. (8) Motivations for taking next trip: Experienced ecotourists top two responses were (a) enjoy scenery/nature, (b) new experiences/ places.

6. In the line “……recognised as the benchmark”, the word “benchmark” DOES NOT refer to: (a) a basis for something. (b) the criterion required. (c) the ability to launch something new. (d) a standard point of reference.

7. The World Tourism Organisation of the UN,

in an observation, shared that: (a) emerging economies of the world will gain 57% of their annual profits from International tourists. (b) countries with upcoming economies shall see maximum tourist footfall from all over the world in the next decade. (c) a large number of international tourists in 2030 will be from developing countries. (d) barely any tourist in the next decade shall travel from an economically strong nation to a weak one.

8. Choose the option that lists the correct

answers for the following: (1) Asha Mathew, an NRI, loves animals and wishes to travel to places that safeguard their rights and inculcate awareness of their rights. What kind of tourist is she? (2) Gurdeep Singh from UK is an environmental scientist and has always chosen to travel to places that are examples of a symbiotic relationship between man and nature. What kind of tourist is he? (a) (1) is an ecotourist and (2) is a geotourist (b) (1) is an ethical tourist and (2) is a geotourist (c) (1) is a sustainable tourist and (2) is a pro-poor tourist (d) (1) is a geotourist and (2) is a responsible tourist

9. According to the survey, one of the most

powerful driving forces leading experienced ecotourism to invest in new trips was:

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(a) setting up work stations in new places. (b) the chance to go camping in the wild. (c) competing with other ecotourists as frequent travellers. (d) the opportunity to travel to new places.

10. Choose the option that lists statement that is NOT TRUE: (a) Economically backward countries will benefit from sustainable tourism.

(b) The tourism business currently recognizes sustainability as an important factor. (c) Emerging economies will receive negligible international tourists in the near future. (d) The sustainability factor in tourism is a significant means for development.

III. Read the passage given below and answer

the questions that follow: (1) Evolution has designated vultures to be the ultimate scavengers. Enormous wingspans allow them to circle in the air for hours. Their beaks, while rather horrifying, are weak by bird standards, made to scoop and eat flesh. (2) However unappealing they may seem, vultures serve an important role in the ecological cycle: processing dead bodies of animals. 20 years ago, India had plenty of vultures—flocks so enormous that they darkened the skies. But by 1999, their numbers had dropped due to a mysterious kidney ailment. By 2008, 99.9 per cent of India’s vultures were gone. It was discovered that they had been killed by a drug called diclofenac (a pain reliever along the lines of aspirin and ibuprofen). (3) Indians revere their cows, and when a cow showed signs of pain, they treated it with diclofenac. After the animal died, the vultures would eat the corpse. And though they can boast of perhaps having the world’s most efficient digestive system, vultures cannot digest the drug. (4) India banned the use of diclofenac for veterinary use in 2006, but it’s still widely used. The near extinction of vultures has caused the spread of pathogens in the country, as rats and dogs have moved in to take their place. This would have otherwise been destroyed by the vultures. (5) Vultures need large ranges to scan for food and undisturbed areas to nest. They also need an abundance of prey species since they rely more on chance than their own

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

hunting skills to eat. All of these things have been reduced by human activities. Meanwhile, there is a dramatic increase in secondary poisoning. Vultures feed on carcasses laced with poison, intended to kill jackals or other predatory carnivores or they are poisoned by the lead in animals left behind by their hunters.

11. What does the phrase “moved in to take their place” mean in the given paragraph? (a) Contributed in the task (b) Helped them (c) Replaced them (d) Removed them

12. The author attempts to make the readers ........................ through this write up. (a) concerned

(b) inspired

(c) awakened

(d) aware

13. What’s an interesting fact given in the passage about the vultures? (a) They eat corpse (b) They cannot digest drugs

(c) They are enormous (d) They have weak beaks

14. Choose the option that correctly states the two meanings of “boast” as used in the passage. (1) To brag about oneself (2) To exaggerate (3) To talk very proudly (4) To show off (5) To show pride & arrogance (a) (2) and (3) (b) (1) and (2) (c) (4) and (5) (d) (3) and (1)

15. Select the option that makes the correct use

of “designated” as used in the passage to fill in the blank space. (a) He was ........................ as Prime Minister. (b) Uttarakhand is .................. as land of Gods. (c) Reeta was ........................ as the chief secretary of her club. (d) ................. as the head boy of the school performed his duties with near perfection.

GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY 16. Select the option with the closest meaning to the underlined word: His nostalgia is deep. (a) excitement (b) longing (c) happiness (d) ability

17. Choose the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word: His work is praiseworthy. (a) admirable (b) condemnable (c) commendable (d) creditable

18. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: INEVITABLY (a) Avoidably (c) Distantly

(b) Certainly (d) Unlikely

19. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: FASTEN (a) Detach (c) Affix

(b) Release (d) Loosen

20. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: SCATTER (a) Fling (c) Litter

Mock Paper 1

(b) Spray (d) Gather

21. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer: (1) “It’s raining cats and dogs” is an idiom. (2) It means to rain in a scattered way. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c ) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

22. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer: (1) The character ‘&’ is known as Ampersand. (2) It indicates the word ‘and’. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c ) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

23. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer: (1) The word ‘impeccable’ means to be full of flaws. (2) The word ‘impeccable’ is similar to ‘flawless’. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c ) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

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24. Match the words listed in column (A) with their respective meanings in column (B). Column (A)

Column (B)

(A) Crest

(1) strong will to do something

(B) Downpour

(2) top of a hill/mountain

(C) Solitary

(3) heavy rain

(D) Resolution

(4) singular

(a) (A)-(2), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(1) (b) (A)-(3), (B)-(2), (C)-(4), (D)-(1) (c) (A)-(1), (B)-(2), (C)-(3), (D)-(4) (d) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(1), (D)-(3)

25. Match the words listed in column (A) with their respective meanings in column (B). Column (A)

Column (B)

(A) Contentment (1) a thief (B) Affixed

(2) attached

(C) Blow

(3) to hit hard

(D) Crook

(4) sense of satisfaction

(a) (A)-(1), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(2) (b) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(3), (D)-(2) (c) (A)-(3), (B)-(4), (C)-(2), (D)-(1) (d) (A)-(2), (B)-(3), (C)-(2), (D)-(1)

26. Select the word from the given options, you consider most appropriate for the blank space: There was a time when West Germany was a distinct ............. . (a) policy (b) polity (c) abstract (d) hierarchy

27. Select the word from the given options, you consider most appropriate for the blank space: I was ............ with the film; I had expected it to be better. (a) disappointed (b) disappointing (c) annoying (d) prejudiced

28. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the

sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: P: symbolic of peace, and prosperity Q: The Gupta Empire in India is R: represented through numismatic archaeological S: and literary evidences of multiple kinds The correct sequence should be: (a) QPRS (b) QSRP (c) PSQR (d) RSQP

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29. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: P: the transportation system so that it Q: and not just the affluent section of society R: provides mobility to everyone S: There are many ways to restructure The correct sequence should be: (a) PQRS (b) RQPS (c) SPRQ (d) QRPS

30. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: Once-over (a) To do something quickly (b) To do something elaborately (c) To do something perforce (d) To do something for others

31. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: A bag of bones (a) An extremely fat person (b) An extremely thin person (c) A wealthy person (d) A healthy person

32. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: Muddy the waters (a) To spread dirt around (b) To make a situation easy (c) To make one’s life happy (d) To make the situation complicated

33. Choose the most suitable substitution of the underlined part of the sentence from the given options: He preferred death rather than imprisonment. (a) for (b) to (c) than (d) no improvement

34. Select the correctly punctuated sentence.

(a) My uncle who lives in Agra is a doctor. (b) My uncle, who lives in Agra, is a doctor. (c) My uncle, who lives in Agra is a doctor. (d) My uncle who lives in Agra, is a doctor.

35. Select the correctly punctuated sentence. (a) Ashok's father is a CBI chief. (b) Ashok father is a CBI chief. (c) Ashok's father, is a CBI chief. (d) None of these.

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

36. Fill in the blanks choosing appropriate

articles. ....... Ganga is ....... mighty river. It falls into ....... Bay of Bengal. (a) The, a, the (b) A, the, the (c) The, the, a (d) No article

37. Change the given sentence of active voice into passive voice. Select the appropriate option. Open the door. (a) The door must be opened. (b) The door will be opened. (c) The door is opened. (d) Let the door be opened.

38. In the following question, out of the given

alternatives, choose the one which is the most nearly the same meaning to the underlined word in the sentence. The story is too fantastic to be credible. (a) praiseworthy (b) readable (c) believable (d) false

39. Choose the correct degree of adjective.

(a) She is one of the most prettiest girl in the class. (b) She is the prettiest girl in the class. (c) She is the most prettiest girl in the class. (d) She is one of the pretty girl in the class.

40. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the

sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: P:  The foundations of the prosperity of a state Q: primary health and education but also R: involves the creation of job opportunities S: does not merely rest on The correct sequence should be: (a) PSQR (b) PQRS (c) PRQS (d) PSRQ

41. Choose the word which is most opposite in

meaning of the word underlined as used in the sentence. The thief had very vital information to pass on to the police. (a) crucial (b) inessential (c) indispensable (d) fundamental

42. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. ABANDON (a) Excuse (b) Forsake (c) Urge (d) Risk

Mock Paper 1

43. Choose the most appropriate preposition: I was disappointed ............... not finding the doctor in his seat. (a) on (b) from (c) at (d) over

44. Choose the alternative which best express the meaning of the idiom/phrase. To burn one’s finger means: (a) to have a burning sensation at the tips of one’s fingers (b) to undergo suffering because of one's action (c) he behave as if one is very great (d) to be lucky

45. Complete the following proverb using an appropriate option. Familiarity ..................... contempt. (a) makes (b) breeds (c) generates (d) produces

46. Choose the alternative which best express the meaning of the idiom/phrase. The jewel in the crown (a) someone who has many skills (b) something that one wants (c) the most valuable thing in a group of thing (d) the jewel in the crown of the king

In the questions (47-48) choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer.

47. A garden knife is ..................... used for right pruning. (a) generally (c) systematically

(b) compulsorily (d) daily

48. The lame boy tried to climb up the staircase without ................ help. (a) little (b) any (c) some (d) many

49. In the following question choose the correct form of verb as your answer. I would not mind your ........... there. (a) visit (b) visiting (c) visited (d) not visited

50. Choose the correct question tag for the following sentence: She will help us, ..................... (a) won't she? (b) will she? (c) is she? (d) isn't she?

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SOLUTIONS MOCK PAPER - 1

READING COMPREHENSIONS I. 1. (d) offer advice to Explanation: ‘Rebuke’ (option a) is used to express sharp disapproval while the author doesn’t criticise anyone for their choices. So this isn’t the motive. Neither (option b) 'question' is the answer as the author doesn’t question anybody’s lifestyle. Option (c) cannot be the correct choice as the author here is not trying to help anyone. In this passage, the author, by sharing his own experiences is trying to offer advice to the readers about how they can create a balance in their lives.

2. (d) stress Explanation: Colloquial words are used in informal conversations. (a) ‘hooked’ means to like something so much that you can't resist it. In formal language we use the word addicted to mean the same. (b) ‘guy’ is used for a man or an individual (in informal language). (c) ‘stuff ’ in formal language means some material while in colloquial language it expresses indifference. (d) ‘stress’ has no other meaning except tension so this is the correct answer.

3. (b) To organize our lives. Explanation: If something is in order then it means that it is right or correct. Here in this passage also the author wants the reader to adopt a right outlook or lifestyle. Phrase in option (a) means to start our lives after a break similar to as it was earlier. Phrase in (c) means to start from the ground level and adopt an entirely different outlook. Phrase in (d) means to have a control on everything and anything that goes on in our lives. Phrase in (b) only mean to bring everything back in order.

4. (c) (3) and (5) Explanation: Outlook refers to the way we perceive some situation particularly, life. (1) a person’s evaluation of life and (2) a person’s experiences in life helps to build

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his outlook but still they are not his point of view; neither in (4) a person’s regrets in life predict his outlook. A person might have many regrets in life but still have an optimistic attitude towards life. Only (3) a person’s point of view towards life and (5) a person’s general attitude to life defines his outlook towards life. Hence, (c) is the correct choice.

5. (c) Be the best version of yourself. Explanation: (a) can not be the answer as the author says that he loved what he did but was still under stress. (d) is opted out as the author tried to be his own self but was still frustrated and (b) is also opted out as nowhere in the passage has the author talked about being loved and giving love and affection to others. The passage is all about how to give our best without getting stressed or exhausted so, (c) ‘be the best version of yourself ’ will be the only answer.

II. 6. (c) the ability to launch something new Explanation: Benchmark refers to a standard or referral point for comparison. Hence (a), (b) & (d) indicate the above meaning while (c), is different. Hence, (c) is the answer.

7. (b) countries with upcoming economies

shall see maximum tourist footfall from all over the world in the next decade.

Explanation: In passage there is no mention of annual profits or people specifically from developing countries or economically weaker nations. Hence, (a), (c) & (d) can not be the answer. In the passage, it is clearly stated that “57% of international tourist arrivals will be in emerging economies" implying that most of the tourists will visit emerging economies. Hence, (b) is the answer.

8. (b) (1) is an ethical tourist and (2) is a geotourist

Explanation: Asha Mathew in (1) has ethical issues involving animals as a driving force behind her travels. So, she is an ethical

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

tourist. Whereas, Gurdeep Singh being an environmental scientist looks for heritage, aesthetics and culture as a reason to travel. Hence, he is a geotourist. Therefore (b) is the correct answer.

9. (d) the opportunity to travel to new places. Explanation: Top two choices that act as motivation behind the tourism were to enjoy scenery/ nature and new experiences/ places. Hence, (d) can only be the correct answer.

10. (c) Emerging

economies will receive negligible international tourists in the near future. Explanation: This statement is: (a) true as in passage it is given that major tourist footfall will be in the emerging economies. (b) also true as given in the very first sentence of the passage. (c) in contradiction with the fact given in the passage that 57% of the tourist footfall will be in emerging economies. So, this statement is not true and hence is the answer. (d) also true as this is what the survey is all about.

III. 11. (c) Replaced them. Explanation: ‘Move in’ means to move to a new place so (a) & (b) are not the answers. ‘Take the place’ refers to getting into a place so, (d) is also not the answer. Hence, (c) is the right answer.

12. (d) aware Explanation: The writer shares the reasons for the birds getting extinct. He also tells

his readers about the consequences of the species getting extinct. He doesn’t want to raise (a) concern or inspire (b) or awaken (c) the readers. He just wants to create awareness about how the modern day activities are pushing many species towards extinction. So, (d) is the correct answer.

13. (b) They cannot digest drugs Explanation: (a), (c) & (d) are well known facts. Only (b) is a fact that the author tells the readers so (b) is the right answer.

14. (b) (1) and (2) Explanation: Boast’ in the passage has been used about the digestive system of the vultures. Vultures can't talk; neither the digestive system is something that can be shown off. And here is no sense of pride and arrogance too as both these are related to a person's own belongings. So 3, 4, & 5 are ruled out. The passage says that their digestive system is one of the best in the world but still it can not digest certain drugs. So there is a sense of exaggeration which also involves a bit of bragging. Hence 1 & 2 are the correct meanings. So, answer here is (b).

15. (b) Uttarakhand is ...................... as land of Gods. Explanation: Designated means to appoint someone to a specified office or post which is the sense in options (a), (c) & (d). Other meaning of designated is to officially give a specified status or name to someone or something. In passage also the word has been used to specify the status of vulture as natural scavengers which is also the sense in option (b). Hence, the answer here is (b).

GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY 16. (b) longing Explanation: Nostalgia means longing for something past, a feeling of pleasure mixed with sadness when you think of happy times in the past. (a) Excitement means the feeling of lively and cheerful joy; something that agitates and arouses. (b) Longing means prolonged unfulfilled desire or need. (c) Happiness means emotions experienced when in a state of well-being. (d) Ability means possession of the qualities (esp. mental qualities) required to do something or get something done.)

Mock Paper 1

So, longing is the nearest in meaning to the underlined word nostalgia.

17. (b) condemnable Explanation: praiseworthy means worthy of high praise, commendable, laudable. (a) admirable means estimable deserving of highest admiration. (b) condemnable means bringing deserving severe rebuke or censure.

or

(d) creditable means worthy. So, condemnable is opposite in meaning to the underlined word 'praiseworthy'.

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18. (b) Certainly

Explanation: (a) Inevitably means unavoidable, as is certain to happen. (b) Certainly means definitely, not avoidable. (c) Distantly means far away, not close. (d) Unlikely means not likely to happen. Here, ‘certainly’ is most suitable synonym of ‘Inevitably’.

19. (c) Affix

Explanation: Fasten means to fix or tie something or to close something firmly so that it will not open. (a) Detach means to separate something from something to which it is connected to. (b) Release means to allow something to be free. (c) Affix means to join something to something else. (d) Loosen means to become or make something less tight. Hence, ‘affix’ is the appropriate synonym of ‘fasten’.

20. (d) Gather

Explanation: Scatter means throw or disperse in various direction. (a) Fling means throw or hurl forcefully. (b) Spray means sprinkle, shower, liquid. (c) Litter means waste like paper, cans left lying in open. (d) Gather means assemble or accumulate. Gather is the only suitable antonym of scatter here.

21. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false.

Explanation: It is true that (1) ‘it’s raining cats and dogs’ is an idiom. However, the meaning of it is to rain heavily and not (2) in a scattered way. Hence, (a) is the right answer.

22. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. 23. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false.

Explanation: It is false that (1) the word ‘impeccable’ means to be full of flaws because it means to be in accordance with the highest standard or free of any flaw. However, it is similar to the word (2) flawless. Hence, (b) is the right answer.

24. (a) (A)-(2), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(1) 25. (b) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(3), (D)-(2) 26. (d) hierarchy

Explanation: Here ‘hierarchy’ should be used to express complete sense.

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27. (a) disappointed

Explanation: With respect to the movie, ‘disappointed with’ should be used to express its sense

28. (a) QPRS

Explanation: The correct sentence is: (Q) The Gupta Empire in India is (P) symbolic of peace, and prosperity (R) represented through numismatic archaeological (S) and literary evidences of multiple kinds.

29. (c) SPRQ

Explanation: The correct sentence is: (S) There are many ways to restructure (P) the transportation system so that it (R) provides mobility to everyone (Q) and not just the affluent section of society.

30. (a) To do something quickly

Explanation: Once over (idiom) means to look at and examine something or someone quickly. So, option (a) i.e. ‘To do something quickly’ is correct.

31. (b) An extremely thin person

Explanation: A bag of bones (idiom) means a very thin person or animal, someone who is extremely thin. So, option (b) i.e. ‘An extremely thin person’ is correct.

32. (d) To make the situation complicated Explanation: Muddy the waters (idiom) means make an issue or situation more confused or complicated. So, option (d) is correct.

33. (b) to Explanation: After “prefer” and “preferable” we always place “to”. So, option (b) is correct.

34. (b) My uncle, who lives in Agra, is a doctor. 35. (a) Ashok's father is a CBI chief. 36. (a) The, a, the Explanation: Article "the" is used when we refer to a specific item or noun. Whereas, "a" is used with consonants sounds and something unspecific. The river Ganga is a specific noun hence "the" is used and "a" is used to define the unspecific noun.

37. (d) Let the door be opened. 38. (c) believable Explanation: Option (a) praiseworthy means something which deserves appreciation, option (b) readable means which is interesting to read or which can be read, option (d) false means which is not correct. The word 'believable' means that can be believed which means same as 'credible'.

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

39. (b) She is the prettiest girl in the class. Explanation: The sentences other than option (b) show redundancy. In option (a) and (c) the superlative form "most prettiest" is redundant because "prettiest" itself is already a superlative form of the adjective "pretty." Using both "most" and "prettiest" together is redundant. Option (d) is grammatically incorrect because there is a disagreement in number between the article "one of" and the noun "girl." The phrase "one of" is used to introduce a group or set, and it should be followed by a plural noun to maintain agreement. Hence, option (b) is correct.

40. (a) PSQR Explanation: The correct sentence is: (P) The foundations of the prosperity of a state (S) does not merely rest on (Q) primary health and education but also (R) involves the creation of job opportunities.

41. (b) inessential Explanation: The word "vital" means important. The other options (a), (c) and (d) has the same meaning as "vital". Whereas option (b) is antonym of the word "vital".

42. (b) Forsake Explanation: Option (a) excuse means making an effort to justify, option (c) urge means similar as compulsion, option (d) means to focus on negative desirable consequences, whereas (b) forsake is similar to the meaning of the word "abandon" which means to disown.

43. (c) at Explanation: In the sentence, "at" is the most appropriate preposition because it accurately conveys the point in time or situation that led to the disappointment without implying a different relationship between the disappointment and not finding the doctor. Whereas, using "on," "from," or "over" instead of "at" would alter the meaning of the sentence and sound unsuitable.

45. (b) breeds

Explanation: The phrase has a historical and traditional usage, and its meaning is deeply ingrained in English language and culture. The use of "breeds" in this context is idiomatic and specific to this expression. While "makes," "generates," or "produces" are all verbs that can generally convey the idea of creating or causing something, they do not capture the nuanced meaning and cultural connotations associated with the original expression.

46. (c) the most valuable thing in a group of thing

47. (a) generally

Explanation: The word "generally" is appropriate in this sentence because it conveys the idea that using a garden knife for pruning is a common or typical practice, but it allows for flexibility and acknowledges that there could be exceptions or variations in specific situations. 'Obligation' implies a requirement, 'systematically' might suggest a rigid or fixed procedure, which may not always be the case in gardening, the use of a garden knife for pruning may not be a daily activity hence, "daily' would also be inappropriate.

48. (b) any

Explanation: Option (a), (c) and (d) will not fit with the sentence because 'some' and 'any' are the "general determiners" out of which 'some' is inappropriate. Whereas, many and little are quantifiers and the sentence does not require any quantifier. Hence, option (b) is correct.

49. (b) visiting

Explanation: The use of "visit" in this context is a gerund, which is the -ing form of a verb used as a noun. Subject: "I" Verb phrase: "would not mind" Direct object: "your visit there"

50. (a) won’t she

action

Explanation: The question tags are short phrases added at the end of a statement to turn it into a question. The question tag usually reflects the opposite polarity (positive or negative) of the statement.

Mock Paper 1

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44. (b) to undergo suffering because of one's

2

Section - 1A

CUET (UG)-2024 MOCK PAPER SOLVED

ENGLISH Time Allowed: 45 Minutes

Maximum Marks: 200

General Instructions: Same instructions as given in the Mock Paper 1.

READING COMPREHENSIONS I. Read the passage given below and answer

the questions that follow: (1) Marie was born in 1867 in Warsaw, Poland, where her father was a Professor of Physics. At an early age, she displayed a brilliant mind and a blithe personality. Her great exuberance for learning, prompted her to continue with her studies after high school.

She became disgruntled, however, when she learned that the University of Warsaw was closed for women. Determined to receive a higher education, she defiantly left Poland and in 1891, entered the Sorbonne, a French university, where she earned her master’s degree and doctorate in physics.

Event

Year

Marie was born on the 7th November

1867

Her sisters Bronya and Zosia became ill and Zosia passed away.

1876

Curie’s mother died from grief.

1878

She graduated high school

1883

Left Warsaw for a governess position.

1884

Her sister Bronya graduated medical school.

1891

Marie graduated with a masters degree in Mathematics and first in her class for Physics.

1893

She married Pierre Curie.

1895

Marie Curie was: l The first woman with the degree in Physics. l The first woman to graduate in France. l The first woman to obtain a Nobel Prize. l The first woman to obtain a chair at the Sorbonne. l The first scientist to obtain two Nobel Prizes. (2) Marie was fortunate to have studied at the Sorbonne with some of the greatest scientists of her days, one of whom was Pierre Curie. Marie and Pierre were married

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in 1895 and spent many productive years working together in the physics laboratory. A short time after they discovered radium, Pierre was killed by a horse-drawn wagon

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

in 1906. Marie was stunned by this horrible misfortune and endured heartbreaking anguish. Despondently she recalled their close relationship and the joy that they had shared in scientific research. The fact that she had two young daughters to raise by herself greatly increased her distress. (3) Curie’s feeling of desolation finally began to fade when she was asked to succeed her husband as a physics professor at the Sorbonne. She was the first woman to be given a professorship at the world-famous university. In 1911, she received the Nobel Prize in chemistry for isolating radium. Although Marie Curie eventually suffered a fatal illness from her long exposure to radium, she never became disillusioned about her work. Regardless of the consequences, she had dedicated herself to science and to revealing the mysteries of the physical world.

1. In the line “……..she defiantly left Poland,” the word “defiantly” DOES NOT refer to: (a) Coldly (b) Challenging (c) Resistant (d) Openly

2. Marie ........................ by leaving Poland and travelling to France to enter the Sorbonne. (a) challenged authority (b) showed intelligence (c) got happy (d) was distressed

3. Based on your understanding of the passage,

choose the option that lists the qualities of the professor. (1) Scholar

(2) Distressed

(3) Exuberant

(4) Lethargic

(5) A bad student

(6) Thoughtful

(a) (2) and (4) (c) (1) and (3)

(b) (5) and (6) (d) (3) and (6)

4. Choose the option that lists statements that

is NOT TRUE. (a) Marie was brilliant in her studies. (b) Marie was the first scientist to obtain two Nobel Prizes. (c) Marie succeeded her husband Pierre in Sorbonne University. (d) Marie didn’t reveal much facts and mysteries of the physical world.

5. Maria’s subject of interest was:

(a) to reveal the facts of the physical world. (b) to explore the astronomical objects of the universe.

Mock Paper 2

(c) to study about plant physiology. (d) to study the anatomical structure of organism.

II. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

(1) What is discipline? Is it absolute freedom to do what a person wants? Is freedom regardless of consequences? Does it mean corrective action after a problem occurs or a wrong is done? Is it imposition? Is it abuse? Does it take away freedom? (2) The answer is none of the above. Discipline does not mean that a person takes a belt and beats up kids. That is madness. Discipline is loving firmness. It is direction. It is prevention before a problem arises. It is harnessing and channeling energy for a great performance. Discipline is not something you do to yourself but you do for those you care about. (3) Discipline is an act of love. Sometimes, you have to be unkind to be kind. Not all medicines are sweet, not all surgeries are painless, but we have to take them. We need to learn from nature. We are all familiar with the big animal, the giraffe. A female giraffe gives birth to a baby giraffe standing. All of a sudden, the baby falls on the ground from the cushion of its mother’s womb and sits on the ground. The first thing the mother giraffe does is get behind the baby and give it a hard kick. The baby gets up but sits down again. The mother keeps kicking till the baby gets up on its feet and starts moving. Why? Because she knows that the only chance of survival for the baby in the jungle is to be on its feet. Otherwise, it will be eaten up by wild cats. (4) Children brought up in a loving yet disciplined environment end up respecting their parents more and become lawabiding citizens. The reverse is just as true. Good parents are not afraid of momentary dislike by children to enforce the subject. Allowing a child to eat a box of chocolate could lead to sickness. At the same time, the discipline of eating one or two pieces a day can be an enjoyable experience for a longer time. Our instinct makes us do whatever we want regardless of consequences. Freedom is not procured by the full enjoyment of what is desired but by the controlling of desire.

6. What according to the writer, is not discipline?

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(a) To provide direction to the children. (b) To have lovingly stern behavior with the children. (c) To allow children for disobedience. (d) To follow prevention before problem.

7. Which of the characteristics are apt about the writer in the following context, “Discipline is loving feminist. It is a description. It is prevention before a problem arise”. (1) Impatient (4) Ignorant (2) Clarity in thoughts (5) Determined (3) Abusive (6) Spontaneous (a) (1) and (3) (b) (4) and (5) (c) (2) and (5) (d) (6) and (4)

8. The phrase “law abiding citizens” refers to the children who: (a) are loyal to the nation.

(b) follow the rules laid down for them. (c) have parents that were not moved by momentary dislikes of their kids. (d) help in forming laws.

9. Select the option that makes the correct use

of “enforce”, as used in the passage, to fill in the blank space. (a) The sun was trying to ..................... its way through the curtains. (b) All attempt to ..................... the British commercial regulation were in effectual. (c) You were trying to ..................... me off the bed. (d) He was not ..................... of anything.

10. Choose the option that correctly states the meaning of Channeling, as used in the passage. (a) murring (b) forwarding (c) directing (d) emitting

III. Read the passage given below and answer

with his parents, bullied his classmates and even ill-treated Sammy. He always tried to put Sammy down and belittled him before the other kids in class. But no matter what he did, Sammy’s grades kept getting better and better, whether in studies or in sports. Sammy kept getting accolades from everywhere. On his eighth birthday, Sammy got a beautiful pen as a gift from his parents. He brought it to school so that he could use it to take down the notes of the lectures that the teachers gave in class. When Timmy saw it, he felt jealous. (2) He asked Sammy, “Hey, where did you get that? Did you buy it?” “My parents gave it as a birthday gift to me,” replied Sammy. Timmy was overcome with anger and jealousy. The bad boy that he was, rarely got any presents from his parents. He decided to steal Sammy’s pen. During recess, when everyone had gone out from the class, Timmy opened Sammy’s bag and took out his pen. Then he hid it inside his bag and went out to have his lunch. When Sammy came back and could not find his pen, he informed his class teacher about it. The class teacher ordered the class monitor to check every student’s bag. The missing pen was soon found from Timmy’s bag and the furious teacher asked the errant boy, “Now Timmy, what do you have to say about this?” Timmy was in tears. He had nothing to say. (3) When Sammy saw Timmy cry, he took pity on the boy. The kind boy that he was, Sammy had no ill-feeling against his classmate. He requested his class teacher not to take any action against Timmy, now that his stolen pen was found.

11. Some of the boys were jealous of Sammy because he was:

(a) having a good behavior with everyone. (b) a healthy boy of the class.

the questions that follow:

(c) a mischievous boy of the class.

(1) Once upon a time, there lived a young boy named Sammy. He was good at studies, obedient towards his elders, more hardworking than a lot of other boys in his class and kind to everyone. Grown-ups as well as those younger than Sammy loved him very much. This aroused jealousy in some boys who longed to be as loved as him. A boy named Timmy studied in the same class as Sammy. Unlike Sammy, he was not good at studies and always liked to play during school hours. He misbehaved

(d) a studious boy of the class.

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12. Choose the option that best captures the

central idea of the passage from the given quotes: “Discipline is the bridge “Children learn more between goal and from what you accomplishments”. are than what you —Jim Rohn teach”. 

(1)

—W.E.B. DuBois (2)

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

“Do everything with “Manners cost a good heart, expect nothing but mean nothing in return, and everything”. you will never be —Riley Anne disappointed”. —Helen Berry (3) (a) option (1) (c) option (3)

(4) (b) option (2) (d) option (4)

13. The phrase “ill treated Sammy” refer to the meaning: (a) confused (c) misfortunate

(b) badly behaved (d) killed

14. Select the option that makes the correct use of ‘grades’ as used in the passage, to fill in the blank space. (a) His .............. in class was first. (b) The spices were .............. uniformly. (c) The road was .............. with pit holes. (d) Quim is our age but she jumped into school .............. on academic excellence.

15. Choose the option that correctly states the meaning / s of “aroused” in the passage. (a) Inspire

(b) Kindle

(c) Awaken

(d) Execute

GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY 16. Select the option with the closest meaning to the underlined word:

His truancy is detrimental. (a) loyalty (b) integrity (c) honesty (d) absenteeism

22. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer:

(1) “?” is a character belonging to the category of expressions. (2) A question always ends with a “?” mark.

17. Choose the option that is opposite in

(a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false.

meaning to the underlined word:

(b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false.

His views on the subject are microscopic. (a) broad-based (b) minute (c) precise (d) fine

(c) Both options (1) and (2) are true.

18. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: JUDICIOUS (a) Beautiful (c) Thoughtful

(b) Graceful (d) Plentiful

(b) Decorated (d) Frequented

(b) Release (d) Contain

21. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer:

(1) The opposite of pride is shame. (2) ‘Shame’ is synonymous to self-esteem. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

Mock Paper 2

choose the correct answer:

(2) The plural of furniture is furnitures. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

20. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: SUPPRESS (a) Abolish (c) Quash

23. Read the two sentences given below and (1) The plural of hair is hairs.

19. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: SEQUESTERED (a) Polished (c) Secluded

(d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

24. Match the words listed in column (A) with their respective meanings in column (B). Column (A)

Column (B)

(A) Autobiography (1) the act of suppressing by cruelty (B) Dignitaries

(2) eminent personalities

(C) Oppression

(3) surrounded by

(D) Besieged

(4) real life story of a person written by the person himself

(a) (A)-(2), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(1) (b) (A)-(3), (B)-(2), (C)-(4), (D)-(1) (c) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(1), (D)-(3) (d) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(3), (D)-(1)

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25. Match the words listed in column (A) with their respective meanings in column (B). Column (A)

Column (B)

(A) Emancipation (1) decorated (B) Bedecked

(2) to free

(C) Despised

(3) of the greatest intensity

(D) Profound

(4) to be hated

(a) (A)-(2), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(1) (b) (A)-(3), (B)-(2), (C)-(4), (D)-(1) (c) (A)-(1), (B)-(2), (C)-(3), (D)-(4) (d) (A)-(2), (B)-(1), (C)-(4), (D)-(3)

26. Select the word from the given options, you

consider most appropriate for the blank space: It was a ............ experience. Everybody was shocked. (a) terrified (b) horrified (c) terrifying (d) denouncing

27. Select the word from the given options, you

consider most appropriate for the blank space: The United Nations had ............. 2020 as the International Year of Plant Health. (a) ruled (b) ordered (c) foretold (d) declared

28. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: P: like mine Q: Even to someone with a tin ear R: her singing sounded pretty S: melodious The correct sequence should be: (a) PRQS (b) QPRS (c) QPSR (d) QRPS

29. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: P: the sorry state of affairs in the modern factories Q: The Government of India R: under the British was pro-capitalist S: though it took some half-hearted steps to mitigate The correct sequence should be: (a) PRQS (b) QRSP (c) SPQR (d) QPSR

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30. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: To level with (a) To be honest (b) To be on a plain (c) To cheat someone (d) To take revenge

31. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: Show your hand (a) To tell people about the past (b) To tell people about the future (c) To tell people about them (d) To tell people about your plans

32. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: To pull up (a) To lift heavy weights (b) To check oneself (c) To shorten the distance (d) Too short of destination

33. Choose the most suitable substitution of the underlined part of the sentence from the given options:

If I don't know the meaning of a word, I look it after in the dictionary. (a) look it out (b) look it for (c) look it up (d) no improvement

34. Select the correctly punctuated sentence. (a) Yes; I like to have, some more muffins. (b) Yes, I like to have some more muffins. (c) Yes I like to have some more muffins. (d) None of these.

35. Select the correctly punctuated sentence. (a) She loves to eat 'ice-cream, chocolates sweets and chips'. (b) She loves to eat ice-cream, chocolate's, sweet's and chip's. (c) She loves to eat ice-cream, chocolates, sweets and chips. (d) None of these.

36. Choose the correct question tag for the following sentence: He did a good job yesterday, .............. (a) had he? (b) didn't he? (c) did he? (d) won't he?

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

37. Choose the correct phrasal verb. Let's .......... that old box. We don't need it. (a) throw up (b) throw in (c) throw away (d) none of the above

38. Choose the most appropriate preposition. A steady mind triumphs ........... difficulties. (a) in (b) over (c) at (d) with

39. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase:

Beauty is in the eye of the beholder. (a) The finest things are hard to get. (b) One’s actions whether good or bad determine one’s rewards or punishments. (c) Family ties are stronger than other relationships. (d) What pleases the sight varies from one person to another.

40. Correct the sentence, if necessary: He often comes very lately to the class. (a) He often comes lately to the class (b) He is often coming very lately to the class (c) He often comes very late to the class (d) No improvement

41. Fill in the blanks by choosing appropriate articles.

....... Kashmir is ....... Switzerland of India. (a) No article, the (b) An, the (c) The, the (d) No article

42. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: To turn a deaf ear (a) to be hard of hearing (b) to be indifferent (c) to be attentive (d) to be obstinate

43. From the given options, choose the one that is opposite of the underlined word:

This area is well-known for plentiful rain. (a) poor (b) impoverished (c) scarce (d) miserly

44. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence:

Mock Paper 2

P: was moved inside a small cement enclosure Q: beneath the rail tracks of the toy train. R: with a little cajoling the friendly leopard S: at the corner of his cage The correct sequence should be: (a) RSPQ (b) SRPQ (c) RPSQ (d) SQPR

45. Choose the most appropriate preposition. The teacher has no control .............. the students. (a) on (b) over (c) with (d) at

46. Choose the correct question tag for the following sentence:

Ravi has been demanding a lot more marks, ............... (a) isn't he? (b) hasn't he? (c) is he? (d) has he?

47. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: To draw the line (a) to decide one’s occupation (b) to set limits (c) to prepare for a battle (d) to withdraw from activity

48. Choose the most appropriate preposition. I am angry with him ........... his carelessness. (a) at (b) in (c) for (d) of

49. Fill in the blank by choosing an appropriate article:

Kalidas is ....... Shakespeare of India. (a) an (b) the (c) an (d) no article

50. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: If suddenly you throw a brick at me P: and not a result of deliberate thought Q: and my hand goes up to protect myself R: instinctive action S: it is an automatic The correct sequence should be: (a) PQRS (b) RQSP (c) QSRP (d) SPRQ

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SOLUTIONS MOCK PAPER - 2

READING COMPREHENSIONS I. 1. (d) Openly Explanation: 'Defiantly’ means to do something in a manner that shows resistance. Here the word defiantly is also used in the same context as Marie had to leave Poland as she was denied admission to the university. Hence (a), (b) & (c) cannot be the answer. Here, the answer is (d) openly.

2. (a) challenged authority Explanation: Marie defiantly left Poland and traveled to France to enter Sorbonne. She did so not to (b) show her intelligence. No one is happy leaving their motherland so (c) is not the answer. Marie achieved her dreams at Sorbonne so, she was not distressed (d). Marie left Poland after she was denied admission to the University. This was her challenge to the authority who did so. So, (a) is the right answer.

3. (c) (1) and (3) Explanation: Professor was a scholar (1) as she received two Noble Prizes. This also shows that she was a hard worker. So she wasn’t lethargic (4). In her early childhood, she had a blithe (carefree) personality. So she cannot be thoughtful (6). Her husband’s death could not break her down, though she was distress but later bounced back to be the professor at the university. She was not at all a bad student (5) as she stood first in mathematics in her class at university. Rather she was exuberant (3) in her studies. Hence, the answer here is 1 and 3, i.e., (c).

4. (d) Marie didn’t reveal much facts and

mysteries of the physical world.

Explanation: From the reading of the passage we know that Marie was an exuberant student (a), she received two Nobel Prizes (b), and she was offered her husband’s position of professor at Sorbonne University (c). We also know that she was dedicated to reveal the mysteries of the physical world. So here (d) is the answer.

5. (a) to reveal the facts of the physical world. Explanation: We know that Marie Curie was a Physicist so options (b), (c), & (d) are ruled out. Here (a) is the correct answer.

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II. 6. (c) To allow children for disobedience. Explanation: Providing direction to children is discipline so, (a) is not the answer. The writer insists discipline is loving firmness. So, (b) is also not the answer. It is also mentioned in the passage that discipline means prevention before the problem occurs, so, (d) is not the answer. The writer is trying to establish the fact that discipline cannot be achieved forcefully but lovingly and complete disobedience or freedom is not discipline. So, (c) is the right answer.

7. (c) (2) and (5) Explanation: Developing discipline requires patience so, (a) is not the answer. Writer has a clear opinion about what discipline is and how it can be attained so, (2) is his characteristic. He rules out the use of physical punishment for developing discipline so he himself can’t be abusive (3). The writer is certainly not ignorant (4) as he rightly understands the need of discipline. Discipline is not instinctive so, spontaneous (6) is also not the answer. As the writer says discipline is loving firmness, so determined (5) is correct. Hence, the answer here is (c).

8. (c) have parents that were not moved by

momentary dislikes of their kids.

Explanation: The passage presents the author's view of discipline and how it can be developed as a habit in kids. There is no sense of patriotism involved in this as such. So, (a) is not the answer here. Author also says that kids can be made to follow the rules by means of physical punishment too but then they do not develop the sense of right and wrong. So, (b) is also not the answer. One who forms the law may or may not follow it, so (d) is also not the answer. The author insists that loving firmness is the necessity to inculcate the habit of discipline in early childhood. And kids brought up in such an environment become law abiding citizens. So, (c) is the right answer.

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

9. (b) All attempt to ........ the British commercial

regulation were in effectual. Explanation: ‘Enforce’ in the passage has been used in the sense of imposing someone to follow a course of action. In (a) the sun is compelling its way through the curtains. In (c), also there is use of force. So both these cannot be the answer. In (d) there is a sense of urge so this is also not the answer. However, in (b) it seems that some rules or laws were being imposed, so it is the right answer.

10. (c) directing Explanation: Channeling means to direct toward a particular end or object. But in this passage the word has been used in the sense of diverting the kids energies to make full use of their potential just as a flowing river channelised to control its flow and make full use of its resources. So, here (a), (b) & (d) cannot be the answer. The answer is (c).

III. 11. (a) having a good behavior with everyone. Explanation: When a person is liked by everyone, he arouses jealousy in some. A healthy person may be liked by some. A mischievous boy is liked by none and a studious boy is also liked by some. But, Sammy was an obedient and loving boy. He was kind to everyone. Such a person is loved by everyone and thus he was the reason for jealousy for everyone. Hence, (a) is the correct answer.

12. (d) option (4) Explanation: This passage is about how a child behaves and not about how the behaviour of parents affects the children. So, (a), (b) and (c) is not the answer. The writer tells about how 'nice and kind' Sammy is and also how his good manners helped him to win hearts. So, (d) is the correct answer.

13. (b) badly behaved Explanation: Confused (a) means when someone is not sure about something. (c) misfortunate means to have bad luck. (d) killed means to take away someone’s life. (b) badly behaved refers to the misbehaviour or when someone doesn’t give due respect or shows courtesy towards the other person, ill treated has a similar meaning. Hence, (b) is the answer.

14. (d) Quim is our age but she jumped into

school .............. on academic excellence.

Explanation: Grades in (a) mean to attain a certain position. In (b) it specifies the distribution. In (c) it tells about the quality of the road. In (d) grades is used to mean the marking obtained academically, and this is what is the grade used for in the message.

15. (b) Kindle Explanation: Inspire and awaken are positive emotions but arouse in the passage has been used to show the rise of negative emotion of jealousy. Kindle means to light up the fire. The fire burns everything and so does jealousy. Hence, the answer here is (b).

GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY 16. (d) absenteeism

Explanation: truancy means failure to attend (especially school) (a) Loyality means trueness, faithfulness to commitments or obligations . (b) Integrity means moral soundness. (c) Honesty means the quality of being honest. (d) Absenteeism means habitual absence from work. So, absenteeism is the nearest in meaning to the underlined word truancy.

17. (a) broad-based

Explanation: microscopic means so small as to be invisible without a microscope. (a) broad based means to describe something that will able to many different place, activities etc. (b) minute means a unit of time equal to 60 second or 1/60th of an hour.

Mock Paper 2

So, broad-base is opposite in meaning to the underlined word microscopic.

18. (c) Thoughtful Explanation: Judicious means done with good sense of judgement. (a) Beautiful means pleasant, excellent. (b) Graceful means having or showing grace as elegance (c) Thoughtful means involving or absorbed in thoughts. (d) Plentiful means abundant or in ample amount.

19. (c) Secluded Explanation: Secluded is closest in meaning to sequestered. Sequestered means isolated, concealed. (a) Polished means accomplished and skillful, expert.

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(b) Decorated means adorn, garnish, make something more attractive. (c) Secluded means private, concealed, hidden. (d) Frequented means visited often or habitually.

20. (b) Release Explanation: Suppress means to stop something by using force. (a) Abolish means to end a law or system officially. (b) Release means to allow something to be free. (c) Quash means to stop something by force. (d) Contain means to keep something within limits. Abolish, quash and contain are synonyms of suppress, while release is its antonym.

21. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. Explanation: It is true that (1) the word ‘pride’ is the opposite of shame. However, the word shame is not similar to ‘selfesteem’. It is opposite to it. Hence, (a) is the right answer.

22. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. Explanation: It is true that (2) a question ends with a question mark. However, “?” is not an expression but a punctuation. Hence, (b) is the right answer.

23. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false. Explanation: The plural of both these words is the same as their singular.

24. (c) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(1), (D)-(3) 25. (d) (A)-(2), (B)-(1), (C)-(4), (D)-(3) 26. (c) terrifying 27. (d) declared 28. (b) QPRS Explanation: The correct sentence is: (Q) Even to someone with a tin ear (P) like mine (R) her singing sounded pretty (S) melodious.

29. (b) QRSP Explanation: The correct sentence is: (Q) The Government of India (R) under the British was pro-capitalist (S) though it took some half-hearted steps to mitigate the sorry state of affairs in the modern factories.

30. (a) To be honest

Explanation: To level with (idiom) means to tell someone the truth especially when it may be unpleasant. So, option (a) i.e. ‘To be honest’ is correct.

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31. (d) To tell people about your plans Explanation: Show your hand (idiom) means to allow people to know about intentions that you had previously kept secret. So option (d) i.e., ‘To tell people about your plans’ is correct.

32. (b) To check oneself Explanation: To pull up (idiom) means to suddenly stop what one is doing to come to an often abrupt halt. So, option (b) i.e. ‘To check oneself ’ is correct.

33. (c) look it up Explanation: Look up - search for and find a piece of information in a book or database. So, option (c) is correct.

34. (b) Yes, I like to have some more muffins. 35. (c) She loves to eat ice-cream, chocolates,

sweets and chips.

36. (b) didn't he? Explanation: The question tag "didn't he" is appropriate in this context to confirm the statement made by "He said that." as, if a sentence is affirmative, we add a negative question tag to it and vice-versa.

37. (c) throw away Explanation: Throw in means to include something, throw up means to vomit and throw away means to get rid off. Hence, (c) throw away is the correct answer.

38. (b) over 39. (d) What pleases the sight varies from one person to another.

40. (c) He often comes very late. 41. (a) No article, the 42. (b) to be indifferent Explanation: The meaning of 'to turn a deaf ear' is to refuse to listen or respond to something, i.e., to be indifferent.

43. (c) scarce 44. (a) RSPQ Explanation: The correct sentence is: (R) With a little cajoling the friendly leopard (S) at the corner of his cage (P) was moved inside a small cement enclosure (Q) beneath the rail tracks of the toy train.

45. (b) over CUET Mock Papers English-1A

46. (b) hasn't he? Explanation: To make a sentence interrogative, a negative question tag with the same tense of the helping verb is added to an affirmative sentence and vice-versa.

47. (b) to set limits

Explanation: The meaning of to draw the line is to set the limits.

Mock Paper 2

48. (c) for 49. (b) the 50. (c) QSRP Explanation: The correct sentence is: If suddenly you throw a brick at me (Q) and my hand goes up to protect myself (S) it is an automatic (R) instinctive action (P) and not a result of deliberate thought.

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3

Section - 1A

CUET (UG)-2024 MOCK PAPER SELF-ASSESSMENT

ENGLISH Time Allowed: 45 Minutes

Maximum Marks: 200

General Instructions: Same instructions as given in the Mock Paper 1.

READING COMPREHENSIONS I. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: (1) Of all the inventions of science, solar rickshaw is perhaps the most useful on the practical side of life. It is not just any rickshaw but an optimally designed, pedal-operated, and motor-assisted threewheeler. This zero carbon, urban transport vehicle or ‘pedicab’ was designed and developed by a team of engineers from the Central Mechanical Engineering Research Institute, Durgapur, West Bengal. (2) Like a solar rickshaw, the gorgeous green phone is another wonderful invention of the scientific mind. We all know that mobile phones are must-haves these days. In fact, according to statistics, six out of ten people in this world own a cell phone. So, imagine the energy consumed and the e-waste generated by these devices. With this in mind, many handset manufacturers are going green, while some are even going solar. (3) Samsung, for instance, has unveiled a solarpowered phone - ‘‘Blue Earth’’. It is a touch phone that has a full solar panel on its back which can generate enough power to charge the phone. It is made from recycled plastic from water bottles and has a builtin pedometer to keep a tab on your carbon dioxide emissions. It is also small enough to fit into your pocket.

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(4) Like solar-powered homes, solar cars harness energy from the sun by converting it into electricity. This electricity fuels the battery that runs the car’s motor. Instead of using a battery, some solar cars direct the power straight to an electric motor. Great examples of the latest solar-powered cars are the University of Michigan solar car, the MIT solar car, and the Berkeley solar car. (5) Solar cars use photovoltaic cells to convert sunlight into energy. Photovoltaic cells are the components in solar panels that convert the sun’s energy to electricity. They’re made up of semiconductors, usually silicon that absorb the light. The sun’s energy frees electrons in the semiconductors, creating a flow of electrons. This flow generates electricity that powers the battery and the specialised motor in solar cars. Australia 2%

Spain 1%

France 2%

Rest of the world 14% China 33%

United Kingdom 3% India 5% Italy 5% Germany 10%

United States 13% Japan 12%

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

The History of Solar Power • Crocks used passive solar to heat buildings • 1941: American Russell Ohl invented a (400 BC). silicon solar cell. • Roman improved by using glass to trap heat • 1954: Bell Labs researchers Pearson, in the buildings and greenhouses (100 AD). Chapin, and Fuller reported their discovery of 4.5% efficient silicon solar cells. • 1700: Antoine Lavoisier built a solar heater.

• 1839: French physicist Antoine-Cesar • 1950's: Solar cells developed for satellites. Becquerel observed that shining light on • 1960: Hoffman Electronics achieved 14% an electrode submerged in a conductive efficient PV cells. solution would create an electric current. • 1973: OPEC energy crisis causes US to • 1860: The first solar motor, heated water re-examine use of renewable energy used to drive a steam motor, Augustin sources; federal and state tax credits result Mouchot. in rapid growth for a new solar industry.

1. In the lines “.............. motor-assisted three–

wheeler,” the word “assisted” does not refer to: (a) helped (b) attached (c) associated (d) departed

2. The history of solar power, in an observation,

(c) OPEC energy crisis causes US to re-examine the use of energy source. (d) State tax credit resulted in rapid degradation of a new solar industry.

3. What does the phrase ‘going green’ signify?

didn’t share that: (a) Bell labs reported the discovery of 4.5% effiicient silicon solar cell. (b) Hoffman Electronics achieve 14% effiicient PV cells.

(a) wearing green clothes (b) being eco-friendly (c) visiting a green island (d) a green coloured phone

4. Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists the characteristic of solar equipments. (1) They don’t use solar energy.

(2) They store sun’s energy for future use.

(3) Solar cars harness energy form the sun and converting into electricity.

(4) Solar powered phone gets charged as android phone.

(5) Solar cars do not use photovoltaic cells.

(6) Petrol cars are better inventions than solar cars.

(a) (1) and (2)

(b) (2) and (3)

5. A ‘pedicab’ signify:

(a) two – wheeler car (b) pedal operated, motor assisted three wheeler rickshaw. (c) a simple car (d) vehicle running on petrol

II. Read the passage given below and answer

the questions that follow: (1) Cardamom, the queen of all spices, has a history as old as the human race. It is the dried fruit of a herbaceous perennial plant. Warm humid climate, loamy soil rich in organic matter, distributed rainfall, and special cultivation and processing methods all combine to make Indian cardamom truly unique in aroma, flavour, and size.

Mock Paper 3

(c) (3) and (4)

(d) (5) and (6)

(2) Two types of cardamom are produced in India. The first type is the large one that does not have much significance as it is not traded in the future market. It is cultivated in the Northeastern area of the country. The second type is produced in the Southern states and these are traded in the future market. These are mainly cultivated in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka. As per the future market rules, only the 7 mm quality was traded in exchanges previously. But later, the norms relaxed, and now the 6 mm quality is also traded. (3) The small variety, known for its extraordinary quality throughout the world, is now traded in India’s commodity future exchanges. Traditional auction

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markets also exist for trading in small cardamom in the country. Cardamom is an expensive spice, second only to saffron. It is often adulterated and there are many inferior substitutes of cardamom-related plants, such as Siam cardamom, Nepal cardamom, Winged Java cardamom, etc. However, it is only Elettaria cardamom which is the purest variety of cardamom. Indian cardamom is popular for its two main varieties: Malabar cardamom and Mysore cardamom. The Mysore variety contains levels of cineol and limonene and hence, is more aromatic. (4) India was the world’s largest producer and exporter of cardamom till the 1980s. By the 1990s, Guatemala emerged as the leading producer and exporter of cardamom. The main harvest season of cardamom in India is between August and February. Cardamom reaches yielding stage two years after planting. The primary physical markets of cardamom are Kumily, Vandenmedu, Thekkady, and Puliyarmala in Kerala and Bodynaikkannur and Cumbam in Tamil Nadu. Cardamom auctions also take place in Sakleshpur and Sirsi in Karnataka. (5) North India is the main market for the cardamom produced in the country. Normally, the domestic demand goes up during major festivals such as Diwali, Dussehra, and Eid. Colour, size, and aroma are the major variables that shape cardamom prices in the Indian market. Cardamom price formation in India is also influenced by the output in Guatemala as that country controls the global markets. (6) Kerala is the main producer of cardamom and contributes up to 60% of the total production. Karnataka produces around 25% of the total cardamom production. Ooty is the main producer of cardamom in Tamil Nadu and contributes around 10-15% of the total production. (7) Guatemala produces around 2,200 tons of cardamom every year, while India produces nearly 1,000-2,000 tons yearly. Because of its low quality, cardamom from Guatemala remains available at cheaper rates. Due to this, cardamom of Indian origin fetches $ 3-4 more per kilogram than the ones from Guatemala.

6. Choose the option that best captures the

central idea of the passage from the given quotes:

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(a) Cardamom- our tradition (b) India leads the world in cardamom (c) Cardamom is an extraordinary spice. (d) Cardamom and its aroma are invaluable.

7. Which characteristics of cardamom the

writer wants to convey in the following line: “Cardamom the queen of all spices; has a history as old as the humane race”? (1) outdated (4) no longer used (2) aromatic (5) traditional (3) expensive (6) out of reach Options: (a) (1), (2) and (4) (b) (3), (4) and (5) (c) (2), (3) and (5) (d) (5) and (6)

8. Select the option that makes the correct use

of “inferior”, as used in the passage; to fill in the blank space. (a) This letter is to be printed............... . (b) These pearls are of ................ quality. (c) I am in the ................ region of the state. (d) She is my brother’s ................ .

9. The author attempts to ................ readers about the importance of cardamom. (a) question (b) clarify (c) advice (d) explain

10. Choose the option that correctly states the

meaning of “yield”, as used in the passage. (a) giving way under pressure. (b) to stop the growth. (c) stop refusing to do something. (d) to produce or provide crops, profit or result.

III. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

(1) Have you ever failed at something so, miserably that the thought of attempting to do it again was the last thing on your mind? (2) If your answer is yes, then you should understand that you are not a robot. Unlike robots, we human beings have feelings, emotions, and dreams. We are all meant to grow despite our circumstances and limitations. Flourishing and trying to make our dreams come true feels great when life goes our way. But what happens when it does not? What happens when you fail despite all your hard work? Do you stay down and accept defeat or do you get up again? If you have the tendency to persevere and keep going, then you have what experts call ‘grit’.

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

(3) Falling down or failing is one of the most agonising, embarrassing, and scary human experiences. But it is also one of the most educational, empowering, and essential parts of living a successful and fulfilling life. Did you know that perseverance (grit) is one of the seven qualities that has been described as the key to personal success and betterment in society? The other six are: curiosity, gratitude, optimism, self-control, social intelligence, and zest. Thomas Edison is an example of grit for trying more than 1,000 times to invent the light bulb. If you are reading this with the lights on in your room, you will realise the importance of his success. When asked why he kept going despite hundreds of failures, he merely stated that they had not been failures, they were hundreds of attempts towards creating the light bulb. This statement not only revealed his grit but also his optimism for looking at the bright side. (4) Grit can be learnt to help you become more successful. One of the techniques that helps is mindfulness. Mindfulness is a practice that makes an individual stay in the moment by bringing awareness of his or her experience without judgement. This practice has been used to quieten the noise of fears and doubts. Through this simple practice of mindfulness, individuals have the ability to stop the self-sabotaging downward spiral of hopelessness, despair, and frustration. (5) What did you do to overcome the negative and self-sabotaging feelings of failure? Reflect on what you did, and try to use those same powerful resources to help you today.

11. The reason why you are not a robot is

because: (a) You fail miserably at tasks (b) Failure and success can affect your emotions (c) You work hard (d) You have limitations

12. Choose the option that best captures the

central idea of the passage from the given quotes. “What is the point “Mistakes are the of being alive if you portals of discovery.” don’t at least try —James Joyce to do something remarkable?” —John Green (1)

(2)

“Failure should be our teacher, not our undertaker. Failure is delay, not defeat. It is a temporary detour, not a dead end.”

“A person who never made a mistake never tried anything new.” —Albert Einstein

—Denis Waitley (3)

(4)

(a) Option (1)

(b) Option (2)

(c) Option (3)

(d) Option (4)

13. Which of the following sentences makes the correct use of “grit”, as used in the passage? (a) Get rid of that grit in your shoes. (b) She had a bit of grit in her eye. (c) The road had been covered with grit. (d) Her grit never made her give up.

14. How does mindfulness help? (a) It creates awareness (b) It quietens the noise of fears and doubts (c) It helps one become successful (d) It helps develop focus

15. Choose the option that correctly states the

meaning of ‘social intelligence’ as implied in the passage: (a) Knowing others (b) Knowing oneself and others (c) Knowing oneself (d) Knowing one’s surroundings

GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY 16. Select the option with the closest meaning to the underlined word: His solemnity is celebrated. (a) greed (b) desire (c) trust (d) dignity

17. Choose the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word:

Mock Paper 3

Mohan always had profound respect for Sohan. (a) deep

(b) extreme

(c) sincere

(d) superficial

18. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word:

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ASTONISHMENT (a) Wonder (c) Fright

(b) Composure (d) Expectation

19. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: CONDESCENDING (a) Accusing (c) Creating

(b) Patronising (d) Stimulating

20. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: EMBARK (a) Board (c) Commence

(b) Launch (d) Finish

21. Read the two sentences given below and

choose the correct answer: (1) In the statement ‘Sarah swims quickly’, quickly is an adverb. (2) An adverb is the word that modifies a verb or an adjective. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

22. Read the two sentences given below and

choose the correct answer: (1) An adjective is a word that modifies a noun or a noun phrase. (2) “Terribly” is an adjective. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

23. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer: (1) ‘The cashier counted the money’ is an active voice. (2) ‘The thieves were chased by the dogs’ is an active voice. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

24. Match the words listed in column (A) with their respective meanings in column (B). Column (A)

Column (B)

(a) (A)-(1), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(2) (b) (A)-(3), (B)-(2), (C)-(4), (D)-(1) (c) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(1), (D)-(3) (d) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(3), (D)-(1)

25. Match the words listed in column (A) with their respective meanings in column (B). Column (A)

Column (B)

(A) Scraped

(1) rural region

(B) Beckoning

(2) happy

(C) Countryside

(3) scratched

(D) Glad

(4) signaling

(a) (A)-(1), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(2) (b) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(3), (D)-(2) (c) (A)-(3), (B)-(4), (C)-(1), (D)-(2) (d) (A)-(2), (B)-(3), (C)-(2), (D)-(1)

26. Select the word from the given options, you

consider most appropriate for the blank space: Mahatma Gandhi was a lover of humanity and a .............. believer in the goodness of human nature. (a) staunch (b) powerful (c) cheerful (d) hopeful

27. Select the word from the given options, you

consider most appropriate for the blank space: The Election Commission on Saturday .............. that the Assembly elections in five States will be held from November 12 to December 7. (a) pronounced (b) announced (c) promulgated (d) issued

28. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: P: you can't judge Q: very intelligent, but R: a book by its cover S: He doesn't look The correct sequence should be: (a) SQPR (b) QRSP (c) SQRP

(d) QPSR

29. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the

(A) Ledge

(1) a projecting edge on a mountain

(B) Muster up

(2) reprimand

P: membership and partisanship as well as

(C) Plunge

(3) to gather or bring together

R: Evidence of a crisis in party politics

(D) Upbraiding

(4) to dive

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sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: Q: can be found in the decline in party

S: in the rise of antiparty groups and movements

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

The correct sequence should be: (a) RQPS (b) QRSP (c) RSQP (d) QPSR

30. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: Be out of action (a) To get punishment (b) To get reward (c) To become dysfunctional (d) To become super active

31. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: Learning from the school of hard knocks. (a) Learning things from experience (b) Learning things from others (c) Learning things from environment (d) Learning things through difficult experiences

32. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: Raise some hackles (a) To annoy (b) To make someone happy (c) To do a great task (d) To sit idle

33. Choose the most suitable substitution of the underlined part of given options: When we saw him bus. (a) has run (c) was running

the sentence from the

last, he ran to catch a (b) had run (d) no improvement

34. Select the correctly punctuated sentence.

(a) The twins exchanged looks, and Tess said quietly, “If only we had known before...” (b) The twins exchanged looks, and Tess said quietly, “If only we had known before...?” (c) The twins exchanged looks, and Tess said quietly, “If only we had known before...”! (d) The twins, exchanged looks, and Tess, said quietly, “If only we had known before...”!

35. Select the correctly punctuated sentence. (a) My favourite teacher, who just happens to be my uncle, retired from the university last summer. (b) My favourite teacher who just happens to be my uncle, retired from the university last summer.

Mock Paper 3

(c) My favourite teacher, who just happens to be my uncle retired from the university last summer. (d) My favourite, teacher, who just happens to be my uncle, retired from the university last summer.

36. Fill in the blanks with appropriate articles. French is ............ language of ............ people of England. (a) an, a (b) a, the (c) the, an (d) an, the

37. Fill in the blank with appropriate article. Akshay is ....... open-minded man. (a) a (b) an (c) the (d) none of them

38. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: He was known P: and therefore his arrest Q: surprised everyone who knew him R: on charges of corruption S: to be a honest and kind man The correct sequence should be: (a) SPRQ (b) RQPS (c) PQRS (d) QRPS

39. Choose the most appropriate option to identify

the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: To live in a fool's paradise: (a) to live a life that is dishonest (b) to be happy because you do not accept how bad a situation really is (c) to believe that things you want will happen (d) to enjoy yourself by spending a lot of money

40. Choose the part of the following sentence that contains an error: None of the children has ever sang in public. (a) None of (b) the children (c) has ever sang (d) in public

41. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: All that glitters is not gold. (a) A mistake can be a great teacher. (b) Everything that is attractive on the outside may not be really valuable inside.

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(c) Live within your means (d) It is better to accept the little we have than reject it hoping to get a lot later.

42. Choose the appropriate option to fill in the blank in the given sentence: He is confident of ........... first prize. (a) secured (b) secure (c) security (d) securing

(a) Challenge

(b) Submit

(c) Conform

(d) Adapt

47. Choose the correct question tag for the following sentence:

He speaks English well, ..................

43. Change the given sentence of active voice

into passive voice. Select the appropriate option. I did not trust anybody. (a) Nobody was trusted by me. (b) Nobody had been trusted by me. (c) Nobody would be trusted by me. (d) Nobody has been trusted by me.

44. Choose the appropriate option to fill in the

blank in the given sentence: After having tea, he settled himself ........... his arm chair. (a) on (b) in (c) over (d) into

45. Correct the sentence by changing the

underlined word, if necessary: A large amount of people think that he is innocent. (a) big amount (b) large amounts (c) big amounts (d) large number

46. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word:

COMPLY

(a) don’t he?

(b) does he?

(c) doesn’t he?

(d) did he?

48. From the given options, select the one which is same in meaning to the underlined word:

Due to long lapse of time I could not recognize my old friend. (a) delay

(b) passage

(c) duration

(d) movement

49. From the given options, select the one which is opposite in meaning to the underlined word: I wrote to him as lately as last week. (a) late

(b) recently

(c) early

(d) immediately

50. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: To draw the line (a) to decide one’s occupation (b) to set limits (c) to prepare for a battle (d) to withdraw from activity

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Mock Papers

Page 70

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

Section - 1A

CUET (UG)-2024 MOCK PAPER

4

SELF-ASSESSMENT

ENGLISH Time Allowed: 45 Minutes

Maximum Marks: 200

General Instructions: Same instructions as given in the Mock Paper 1.

READING COMPREHENSIONS

I. Read the passage given below and answer

the questions that follow: (1) Children in India live in diverse circumstances and have equally diverse needs and rights. Along with their need to be educated, healthy, and skillful, they need, and have rights to adequate nutrition, to live in a safe and supportive environment, have opportunities to reach their optimal potential and generally lead healthy, joyful, and fulfilling lives so, that they can become productive and welladjusted citizens of tomorrow. (2) Children in our country face many challenges. Many of them are first generation learners and face a myriad of problems throughout their schooling. Due to the socio-economic and cultural determinants, they may be vulnerable in many ways. Peer pressure and lack of positive role models may prompt them to

make unsafe and unhealthy choices. Anxiety and depression amongst the students, to the point of turning them suicidal, have been a cause for concern in the recent past. (3) Girls are more vulnerable and face discrimination at many levels from being unwelcome since birth to being pulled out of school for a variety of reasons. Dropping out of school, low motivation for academics, and general disinterest in sports and physical activities are some of the problems that need to be addressed. (4) Child malnutrition is rampant in most parts of the country. This has an adverse bearing on their cognitive capacities, learning performance, and physical capacity. India is one among the many countries where child malnutrition is severe. Malnutrition is a major underlying cause of child mortality in India. Trends in various nutritional indicator values and U5 mortality rate from 2000 to 2018 are shown in the figure below:

60% 50% 40% 30% 20% 10% 0% 2000

2005

2010

2018

Prevalence of stunting in children under  ve years (%) Proportion of undernourished in the population (%) Prevalence of wasting in children under  ve years (%) Under- ve mortality rate (%)

Mock Paper 4

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(5) Our children have the right to have a good quality education, skill-building facilities, a safe and supportive environment, positive role models, empowerment, and friendly health services and counselling. Wellinformed and skilled children are likely to make better decisions concerning their careers and relationships, habits, physical and mental health, and also will be successful and an asset to the society. (6) They also need to understand and deal with emerging issues like newly available career choices, pollution, water and energy conservation, global warming, protection of the environment, terrorism, and disasters. Dealing with anxiety and depression, negative peer pressure, violence, and accidents are some other significant issues that impact an individual’s health and also the social, economic, and health indicators of the country. Gender sensitivity, prevention of female infanticide and good parenting are some important social aspects that all children need to understand. Children require guidance and assistance—both covert and overt–from their parents, teachers, peers, and society in general to complete the various tasks of development and deal with such issues.

1. In the line, “............ the problems that need

to be addressed”, the word “ADDRESSED” refers to: (a) be looked into. (b) be rejected. (c) be written address on. (d) be acknowledged.

4. What percentage of children in 2005 didn’t show stunting? (a) 50% (c) 48%

(b) 40% (d) 52%

5. Choose the option that lists statement that

is not true. (a) Child malnutrition is rampant in the country. (b) Peer pressure leads to unhealthy choices of careers. (c) Skilled children are diverted sometimes in careers. (d) Children require guidance or counselling.

II. Read the passage given below and answer

the questions that follow: (1) Reality television is a genre of television programming which, it is claimed, presents unscripted dramatic or humorous situations, documents actual events, and features ordinary people rather than professional actors. It could be described as a form of artificial or ‘heightened’ documentary. Although the genre has existed in some form or another since the early years of television, the current explosion of popularity dates from the year 2000. (2) Reality television covers a wide range of television programming formats, from game or quiz shows that resemble the frantic, often demeaning programmes produced in Japan in the 1980s and 1990s (a modern example is Gaki no Tsukai), to surveillance- or voyeurism-focussed productions such as ‘Big Brother’.

2. How are well-informed children better than other children? (a) They are educated. (b) They are aware of the world. (c) They make qualified choices. (d) They have ample career choices.

3. Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists the inherent qualities of a role model. (1) Believes in God

(2) Always guides others

(3) Promises the well-being of others

(4) Always inspires others

(5) Wastes time

(6) Cracks funny jokes

(a) (1) and (5) (c) (3) and (6)

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(b) (2) and (4) (d) (4) and (2)

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

(3) Critics say that the term ‘reality television’ is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows frequently portray a modified and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put in exotic locations or abnormal situations, sometimes coached to act in certain ways by off-screen handlers. Events on screen are manipulated through editing and other post-production techniques. (4) A part of reality television’s appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in extraordinary situations. For example, on the ABC show, The Bachelor, an eligible male, dates a dozen women simultaneously, travelling on extraordinary dates to scenic locales. Reality television also has the potential to turn its participants into national celebrities, outwardly in talent and performance programmes such as 'Pop Idol', though 'Survivor' and 'Big Brother' participants also reach some degree of celebrityhood. (5) Some commentators have said that the name ‘reality television’ is an inaccurate description for several styles of programmes included in the genre. In competition-based programmes, such as 'Big Brother' and 'Survivor', and other special-living-environment shows like 'The Real World', the producers design the format of the show and control the dayto-day activities and the environment, creating a completely fabricated world in which the competition plays out. Producers specifically select the participants and use carefully designed scenarios, challenges, events and settings to encourage particular behaviour and conflicts. Mark Burnett, creator of Survivor and other reality shows, has agreed with this assessment, and avoids the word ‘reality’ to describe his shows. He has said, “I tell good stories. It really is not reality TV. It really is unscripted drama.”

6. In the line, “................. reality behavior

is an inaccurate description”, the word “inaccurate” DOES NOT refer to: (a) false (b) incorrect (c) perfect (d) fabricated

7. What are the abilities of reality television shows? (a) They make people rich. (b) They change people perception. (c) They change the lives of participants. (d) They increase the popularity of channel.

Mock Paper 4

8. Based on your understanding of the passage,

choose the option that lists the qualities of reality television: (1) It shows ultimate reality. (2) It represents good stories. (3) It presents an inaccurate description about people. (4) It makes common man – the stars of the future generations. (5) It presents manipulated and fabricated scenes. (6) It produces degree of celebrityhood to all the participants. (a) (1) (2) and (3)

(b) (2) (3) and (4)

(c) (3), (4) and (5)

(d) (4), (5) and (6)

9. Which word in the passage means the same as ‘acquiescent’? (a) aroused

(b) obedient

(c) belittled

(d) hard working

10. Choose the option that is NOT TRUE from the given passage: (a) Reality television is a form of heightened documentary.

(b) Reality television provides a big platform to showcase talent. (c) Reality television is a form of unscripted drama. (d) Reality television deteriorates the values of common men.

III. Read the passage given below and answer

the questions that follow: (1) Today I, Rabindranath Tagore, complete eighty years of my life. As I look back on the vast stretch of years that lie behind me and see in clear perspective the history of my early development, I am struck by the change that has taken place both in my own attitude and in the psychology of my countrymen - a change that carries within it a cause of profound tragedy. (2) Our direct contact with the larger world of men was linked up with the contemporary history of the English people, whom we came to know in those earlier days. It was mainly through their mighty literature that we formed our ideas with regard to these newcomers to our Indian shores. In those days, the type of learning that was served out to us was neither plentiful nor diverse, nor was the spirit of scientific enquiry very much in evidence. Thus, their scope being strictly limited, the educated of those days had recourse to English language and literature. Their days and nights were

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eloquent with the stately declamations of Burke, with Macaulay’s long-rolling sentences; discussions centered upon Shakespeare’s drama and Byron’s poetry, and above all upon the large-hearted liberalism of nineteenth-century English politics. (3) At the time, though tentative attempts were being made to gain our national independence, at heart we had not lost faith in the generosity of the English race. This belief was so firmly rooted in the sentiments of our leaders as to lead them to hope that the victor would of his own grace pave the path of freedom for the vanquished. This belief was based upon the fact that England at the time provided a shelter to all those who had to flee from persecution in their own country. Political martyrs who had suffered for the honour of their people were accorded unreserved welcome at the hands of the English. (4) I was impressed by this evidence of liberal humanity in the character of the English and thus, I was led to set them on the pedestal of my highest respect. This generosity in their national character had not yet been vitiated by imperialist pride. About this time, as a boy in England, I had the opportunity of listening to the speeches of John Bright, both in and outside parliament. The large-hearted, radical liberalism of those speeches, overflowing all narrow national bounds, had made so deep an impression on my mind that something of it lingers even today, even in these days of graceless disillusionment.

11. Choose the option that best captures the

central idea of the passage from the given quotes.

“Jai Hind”

“People are trapped —Netaji Subhash in history and history Chandra Bose is trapped in them” —James Baldwin (1)

(2)

“A nation’s culture resides in the hearts and in the soul of its people.”

“History is who we are and why we are the way we are.”

—Mahatma Gandhi (3) (a) Option (1) (c) Option (3)

—David McCullough (4) (b) Option (2) (d) Option (4)

12. Tagore felt that Englishmen deserved his highest respect because of .................... . (a) their literature (b) their open-minded humanity (c) their providing refuge to people (d) their modern outlook

13. Which word in the passage is closest in meaning to ‘deep’? (a) perspective (c) tragedy

(b) profound (d) psychology

14. Choose the option that correctly states the meaning of ‘liberal humanity’ as implied in the passage: (a) Bondage (b) Freedom of choice (c) Knowledge of humanity and society (d) all of the above

15. The terms ‘large – hearted’ and ‘radicalliberalism’ are used for: (a) Macaulay (b) John Bright (c) Shakespeare (d) Byron

GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY 16. Select the option with the closest meaning to the underlined word: The Holocaust was experienced by millions. (a) celebration

(b) destruction

(c) construction

(d) beautiful

17. Choose the option that is opposite in

18. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word:

RAMIFICATION (a) Source

(b) Consequence

(c) Inception

(d) Satisfaction

19. Select the most appropriate synonym of the

meaning to the underlined word:

given word:

We were living in turbulent times.

EFFICIENCY

(a) destructive

(b) unstable

(a) Disability

(b) Capability

(c) calm

(d) stormy

(c) Fluency

(d) Tendency

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CUET Mock Papers English-1A

20. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word:

THWART (a) Allow (c) Oppose

(b) Obstruct (d) Appoint

21. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer: (1) A metaphor is a poetic device. (2) It compares using the words ‘as’ and ‘like’. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

22. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer:

(1) The synonym of the word ‘regret’ is ‘rue’. (2) The synonym of the word ‘diverse’ is ‘manifold’. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

23. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer:

(1) All good things must come to an end is a proverb. (2) Proverbs are insightfully true perceived statements. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

24. Match the words listed in column (A) with their respective meanings in column (B). Column (A)

Column (B)

(A) Musings

(1) old-fashioned

(B) Brooding

(2) serious

(C) Solemn

(3) thoughts

(D) Fogey

(4) thinking seriously

(a) (A)-(3), (B)-(4), (C)-(2), (D)-(1) (b) (A)-(1), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(2) (c) (A)-(2), (B)-(4), (C)-(1), (D)-(3) (d) (A)-(2), (B)-(3), (C)-(2), (D)-(1)

Mock Paper 4

25. Match the words listed in column (A) with their respective meanings in column (B). Column (A)

Column (B)

(A) Enduring

(1) to touch or push gently

(B) Nudge

(2) lasting over a period of time

(C) Incredulously (3) showing no emotion (D) Stolidly

(4) in a manner indicating disbelief

(a) (A)-(2), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(1) (b) (A)-(3), (B)-(2), (C)-(4), (D)-(1) (c) (A)-(2), (B)-(1), (C)-(4), (D)-(3) (d) (A)-(2), (B)-(1), (C)-(4), (D)-(3)

26. Select the word (or group of words) from the given options, you consider most appropriate for the blank space: The victims were fruit vendors and they were going in an auto when they ......... an accident on the way. (a) met with (b) ran into (c) experienced (d) heard

27. Select the word from the given options, you

consider most appropriate for the blank space: Scores of villagers are ............ a sit–in protest against the construction of a new underpass. (a) performing (b) sitting (c) staging (d) standing

28. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the

sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: P: Several years ago, Q: course on climate change at Texas A & M University R: Professor Andrew Dessler created an introductory S: for freshmen and sophomores The correct sequence should be: (a) PRQS (b) QRPS (c) SQRP (d) PQRS

29. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the

sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: P: I realise that solving the climate change problem Q: than solving R: will be harder S: the ozone depletion problem The correct sequence should be: (a) PRQS (b) QRPS (c) SQRP (d) PQRS

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30. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: A man of letters (a) An excellent artist (b) A scholar in literature (c) An outstanding sportsman (d) A known novelist

31. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: Overstep the mark (a) To tell people how successful you are (b) To step into someone else’s areas of expertise (c) To upset someone by doing/saying more than you should (d) To do something in an excited way

32. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: Palsy-Walsy friends (a) Good friends (b) Friends who help each other in difficult situations (c) Friends by choice, and not by chance (d) Unfriendly

33. Choose the most suitable substitution of the underlined part of the sentence from the given options:

She cut a sad figure in her first performance on the stage. (a) made a sorry figure (b) cut a sorry face (c) cut a sorry figure (d) No improvement

34. Select the correctly punctuated sentence. (a) Mary has offered to coach the team this year however, the competition for the job is intense. (b) Mary has offered to coach the team this year; however, the competition for the job is intense. (c) Mary has offered to coach the team this year, however the competition for the job is intense. (d) Mary has offered to coach the team, this year, however; the competition for the job is intense.

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35. Select the correctly punctuated sentence.

At sunset the general having made decision marched forward. (a) At sunset, the general, having made decision marched forward. (b) At sunset the general, having made decision, marched forward. (c) At sunset, the general; having made decision, marched forward. (d) At sunset, the general, having made decision, marched forward

a a a a a

36. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: A death blow (a) to be nearly dead (b) to be deeply afraid of death (c) to beat someone to death (d) an action or event which causes something to end or fail

37. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: The person who can state P: correct than the person who cannot Q: is more likely to be R: his antagonist's point of view S: to the satisfaction of the antagonist The correct sequence should be: (a) RSQP (b) RQPS (c) SPRQ (d) QPRS

38. Choose the correct meaning of the proverb

from the given options. Charity begins at home (a) A mistake can be a great teacher. (b) Provide help first to one's family members and then to others. (c) Do not give a precious thing to someone who cannot value it. (d) Everything that is attractive on the outside may not be really valuable inside.

39. Choose the most appropriate preposition. The principal called ........... the names of the winners. (a) on (b) at (c) out (d) for

40. Fill in the blanks choosing the appropriate

article. ....... camel can go .......long distance without water. (a) An, a (b) A, a (c) The, the (d) no article

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

41. Correct the sentence by changing the underlined word, if necessary.

Chitra's friend speaks English bad, but he is learning quickly. (a) badly, but he is learning quick (b) badly, but he is learning quickly (c) bad, but he is learning quick (d) No improvement

42. Choose the appropriate option to fill in the blank in the given option.

(a) the good understanding (b) a good understanding (c) good an understanding (d) No improvement

46. Choose the correct degree of adjective.

(a) Kalidas is the greatest of all other poets. (b) Kalidas is the greatest of all poets. (c) Kalidas is the greater of all other poets. (d) Kalidas is the greater of all poets.

47. Choose the correct question tag for the

It ........... a holiday, we went on a picnic. (a) be (b) being (c) been (d) none

following sentence. Ravi has been demanding a lot more marks, ............... (a) isn’t he? (b) hasn’t he? (c) isn’t it? (d) No improvement

43. Choose the correct sequence. The time has come

48. Choose the correct question tag for the

P: for future generations to come Q: that the ideal of peace is a distant ideal R: or one which can be postponed S: when man must no longer think The correct sequence should be: (a) PQRS (b) SQRP (c) QRSP (d) RSPQ

44. Choose the most appropriate preposition. I do not agree ........... you on this point. (a) to (b) with (c) in (d) at

following sentence. Your sister cooks well, ............... (a) isn't it? (b) doesn't she? (c) doesn't it? (d) is she?

49. From the given options, select the one which is antonym of the underlined word. Mohan is his steadfast friend. (a) committed (b) unwavering (c) unfaltering (d) unreliable

50. From the given options, select the one which

45. Choose the appropriate option to make the sentence correct, if necessary. You don’t have good understanding of the subject.

is synonym of the underlined word. How beautiful ! This is really something to ponder over. (a) think (b) sing (c) wonder (d) dance

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Mock Papers

Mock Paper 4

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Section - 1A

CUET (UG)-2024 MOCK PAPER

5

SELF-ASSESSMENT

ENGLISH Time Allowed: 45 Minutes

Maximum Marks: 200

General Instructions: Same instructions as given in the Mock Paper 1.

READING COMPREHENSIONS I. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: (1) Necessity is indeed the mother of invention. When areas in and around Leh began to experience water shortages, life didn’t grind to a halt. Why? Because Chewang Norphel, a retired civil engineer in the Jammu and Kashmir Government came up with the idea of artificial glaciers. (2) Ladakh, a cold desert at an altitude of 3,000-3,500 meters above sea level, has a low average annual rainfall rate of 50 mm. Glaciers have always been the only source of water. Agriculture is completely dependent on glacier melt, unlike the rest of river/monsoon-fed India. But over the years, with increasing effects of climate change, rainfall and snowfall patterns have been changing, resulting in severe shortage and drought situations. Given the extreme winter conditions, the window for farming is usually limited to one harvest season. (3) It is located between the natural glacier above and the village below. The one closer to the village and lowest in altitude melts first, providing water during AprilMay, the crucial sowing season. Further,

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layers of ice above melt with the increasing temperature, thus ensuring continuous supply to the fields. Therefore, farmers have been able to manage two crops instead of one. It costs about 1,50,000 and above to create a glacier. (4) Fondly called the glacier man, Mr. Norphel has designed over 15 artificial glaciers in and around Leh since 1987. In recognition of his pioneering effort, he was conferred the Padma Shri by former President Pranab Mukherjee in 2015. (5) There are a few basic steps followed while creating an artificial glacier. River or stream water at higher altitude is diverted to a shaded area of the hill, facing north, where the winter sun is blocked by a ridge or a mountain range. At the start of winter i.e., in November, the diverted water is made to flow on sloping hills facing distribution channels. Stone embankments are built at regular intervals which impede the flow of water, making shallow pools which freeze, forming a cascade of ice along the slope. Ice formation continues for 3-4 months resulting in a large accumulation of ice which is referred to as an ‘artificial glacier’.

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

Meltwater Discharge Sowing Period

Harvest Period

Supplement by Arti cial Glaciers

Critical Phase

1

No Irrigation

be r

be r

ce m De

Oc

to

m

gu

pt e

Au

Se

No ve m

be r

st

ly Ju

ne Ju

M

ay

Water Surplus

be r

Water De cit

Ap ril

Ja nu ar y Fe br ua ry M ar ch

No Irrigation

 

Pipes are hold connecting to a stream of water sourced from higher up the mountains. Pressure created by this difference in heights creates a fountain. This is connected to a tunnel and dome shaped framework.

3

When this water hits the freezing winter air, it forms a core of ice crystals.

4 2

5

The water melts slowly throughout the spring months.

1. In the line ‘…life didn’t grind to a halt’ the word “grind” DOES NOT mean: (a) to gradually stop all together (b) to sharpen something by crushing (c) to slow down (d) to lose momentum

2. Ladakh has been facing water deficit as:

(a) it is a desert (b) recent climate change has resulted in drought (c) Ladakh has no glaciers (d) there is no agricultural activity

3. The glacier melts first: (a) closer to the village (b) at the lowest level (c) neither of these (d) both (a) and (b)

4. Which of the following statements about the process of building an artificial glacier is incorrect?

Mock Paper 5

(a) Glaciers need hot water to form. (b) The beginning of glacier formation can take place in the month of November. (c) Glaciers can be made artificially with the help of river water. (d) River needs to be diverted to form glaciers.

5. When does maximum water collection take place? (a) When water is not used in farms. (b) When there is no rainfall. (c) When there is abundance of rainfall. (d) When there is insufficient water reserve.

II. Read the passage given below and answer

the questions that follow: (1) Researchers around the world are studying the human brain to find out what makes it tick. If nothing else, their findings are great conversation starters and this alone could make you smarter. It is smart to socialise. Experiments have revealed that talking with others exercises your mind. “Short-

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term social interactions lasting just ten minutes boosted participants’ intellectual performance as much as engaging in intellectual activities,” says Oscar Ybarra, a psychologist at the University of Michigan. Ybarra’s research shows that talking can improve our memory and thinking skills which might mean that having a conversation is as helpful as doing a crossword puzzle. (2) Yawning is cool. Researchers Andrew C. Gallup and Gordon G. Gallup Jr. say our brain burns up to 33% of the calories we consume and generate heat. Yawning cools brain cells, thus making them more efficient. The researchers also found that yawning increases blood flow and helps maintain optimum levels of functioning, and they suggest we are biologically hardwired to yawn to stay alert and protect ourselves from danger. Use it or lose it. Scientists at the Queensland Brain Institute (QBI) in Australia, have discovered that brain cells that aren’t stimulated destroy themselves. Neuroscientist Elizabeth Coulson suggests that this self-destruction mechanism is a factor in brain conditions such as strokes and Alzheimer’s disease. Professor Perry Bartlett, director of the QBI, says that understanding this process allows us to devise “new mechanisms for the treatment of diseases, from depression to dementia.”

6. What is the tone of the following context: “Experiments have revealed that talking to others exercises your mind.”? (a) Confident (b) Puzzled (c) Confused (d) Sad

7. What happens to the brain cells that aren’t stimulated? (a) They are used by other cells. (b) They burn themselves. (c) They destroy themselves. (d) They become dormant.

8. Which of the following sentences makes the correct use of “tick”, as used in the passage? (a) Tick the correct option. (b) I heard the clock tick. (c) I need these goods on tick. (d) I wonder if this dish makes you tick.

9. Stress is a self-constructor process. This: (a) is a rare occurrence (b) happens all the time (c) is true and a continuous process (d) is false

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10. Choose the option that correctly states

the meaning of ‘divulge’ as implied in the passage: (a) Findings (b) Studying (c) Revealed (d) Intellectual

III. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

(1) “Who doesn’t know how to cook rice? Cooking rice hardly takes time.” said my father. So, I challenged myself. I switched from news to YouTube and typed, “How to cook rice?” I took one and a half cups of rice. Since I didn’t have access to a rice cooker, I put the rice in a big pot. Firstly, the rice has to be washed to get rid of dust and starch. I thought I won’t be able to drain the rice and that it will fall out of the pot. I observed the chef as I swirled the rice around and used my dexterous hands to drain it, not once, not twice, but three times. I looked down at the sink and saw less than 50 grains that made their way out of the pot. Suffice to say, I was up to the mark. (2) The video stated that the key to perfect rice is equal amounts of rice and water. I have heard that professionals don’t need to measure everything; they just know what the right amount is. But as this was my first time in the kitchen, I decided to experiment by not measuring the water needed for boiling the rice. I wanted the rice to be firm when bitten, just like pasta. I don’t enjoy the texture of mushy rice. It has to have that chutzpah; it has to resist my biting power just for a bit before disintegrating. (3) After what seemed like 10 minutes, all the water disappeared. I went in to give it a good stir. To my surprise, some of the rice got stuck to the pot. I tried to scrape it off but to no avail. At the same time, there was a burning smell coming from it. I quickly turned the stove off. “What have you done to the kitchen?” shouted Mother, while coming towards the kitchen. I managed to ward her off. (4) Finally, when the time came to taste my creation, I was surprised! It wasn’t bad at all. The rice had the desired consistency. Sure, a little more salt would’ve been better, but I just added that while eating. The experience was fairly rewarding and memorable. It taught me a new sense of respect for those who cook food on a regular basis at home or engage in gourmet creations professionally.

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

11. “I switched from news to YouTube …”—

Pick the option in which the meaning of ‘switch(ed)’ is NOT the same as it is in the passage. (a) He switched on the radio to listen to the news while having dinner. (b) “Forget these diet supplements and switch to yoga, if you want a true sense of well-being.” (c) Mom switched to reading fiction recently because she was bored with cook-books. (d) The company will switch the trucks to other routes to bring down city pollution.

12. Based on your understanding of the passage,

choose the option that lists the correct sequence of the process. (1) Use water to wash the rice. (2) Repeat the process three times. (3) Drain the water off. (4) Put rice in a utensil. (5) Swirl the water in and around the rice. (a) (4), (2), (1), (3), (5) (b) (1), (3), (2), (5), (4) (c) (4), (1), (5), (3), (2) (d) (5), (1), (2), (4), (3)

13. The narrator says that he has dexterous

hands. He would have had a problem had it been the opposite. NOT BEING dexterous means, being:

(a) uncomfortable. (b) clumsy. (c) unclear.

(d) clueless.

14. Pick the option showing the CORRECT use of the word ‘chutzpah’.

(a) It is the court’s duty to dispense chutzpah to everyone irrespective of caste or creed. (b) The speaker may not have much of a stage presence, but you’ve got to admit she’s got chutzpah. (c) I could crack the code easily which proved me to be a chutzpah and I was the only one who could do so. (d) After his father’s demise, the daughter took over the family’s chutzpah to save it from disaster.

15. Pick the option that correctly states what

DID NOT happen after the writer checked on the rice. (a) Turning the stove off. (b) Being taken aback at the condition of rice. (c) Forgetting to scrape the stuck rice. (d) Smelling the delicious aroma of cooked rice.

GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY 16. Select the option with the closest meaning to the underlined word:

To be able to decipher something is wonderful. (a) decode

(b) encode

(c) simulate

(d) animate

17. Choose the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word: Amit is a dogmatic person. (a) assertive

(b) amenable

(c) bold

(d) rigid

18. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word:

given word: INDIGENOUS (a) Alien (c) Natural

(b) Innate (d) Primitive

21. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer:

(1) Cost an arm and a leg is a proverb. (2) It means to be too expensive. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

22. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer:

RELUCTANT (a) unwilling

(b) pleased

(c) afraid

(d) steady

19. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word:

(1) The symbol ‘…’ is called single inverted commas. (2) It is used to quote a sentence the exact way it is said. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false.

MOTIVE (a) reason

(b) utility

(c) benefit

(d) chance

Mock Paper 5

20. Select the most appropriate antonym of the

(b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

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23. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer: (1) The word ‘forlorn’ means to be unhappy. (2) The word ‘elated’ is opposite to unhappy. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

24. Match the words listed in column (A) with their respective meanings in column (B). Column (A)

Column (B)

R: glowing like a dark orange that radiates S: the visible range, The correct sequence should be: (a) PQSR (b) QPSR (c) SQRP (d) PRSQ

29. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence:

P: Two people argue about why Venus is warmer Q: to the Sun, so it absorbs more solar energy. The second argues

(A) Shuddered

(1) rich and luxurious

(B) Lavish

(2) extremely beautiful

R: that it's because Venus has a thick, greenhouse-has rich atmosphere

(C) Exquisite

(3) incapable of being corrected

S: than the Earth. The first argues that it's because Venus is closer

(D) Incorrigible

(4) shivered

The correct sequence should be: (a) PSQR (b) QRPS (c) SQRP (d) PQRS

(a) (A)-(1), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(2) (b) (A)-(4), (B)-(1), (C)-(2), (D)-(3) (c) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(1), (D)-(3) (d) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(3), (D)-(1)

25. Match the words listed in column (A) with their respective meanings in column (B). Column (A)

Column (B)

(A) Deliberately

(1) showed

(B) Indicated

(2) shout

(C) Holler

(3) on purpose

(D) Forbidding

(4) threatening

(a) (A)-(3), (B)-(1), (C)-(2), (D)-(4) (b) (A)-(1), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(2) (c) (A)-(2), (B)-(4), (C)-(1), (D)-(2) (d) (A)-(2), (B)-(3), (C)-(2), (D)-(1)

26. Select the word from the given options, you consider most appropriate for the blank space: Three people were arrested and an illegal arms unit was ........... by the police in a raid. (a) revealed (b) searched (c) discovered (d) busted

27. Select the word (or group of words) from the given options, you consider most appropriate for the blank space: The lecture was not very interesting. In fact I ............. in the middle of it. (a) showed off (b) put off (c) dozed off (d) plugged off

28. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: P: The element heats up, Q: eventually reaching high temperatures

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30. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: Open a Pandora’s box (a) To do something that causes a lot of new problems that you did not expect (b) To do something out of compulsion (c) To do something beyond expectation (d) To do something out of the box, that causes awards and ceremonies for you

31. Choose the most appropriate option to

identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: Pull your socks up (a) To get well-dressed for the occasion (b) Improve your work or behaviour (c) To speak in an honest way without hesitation (d) To be in control of an organization, often secretly

32. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: To get under somebody’s skin (a) To deceive someone (b) To admire someone (c) To annoy someone (d) To support someone

33. Choose the most suitable substitution of the underlined part of the sentence from the given options:

Last evening I went to the optician and bought spectacles.

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

(a) a spectacle (b) two spectacles (c) a pair of spectacles (d) no improvement

34. Select the correctly punctuated sentence: “The creator answered yes but by accepting the burden you will show your greatness of heart” is given in following sentence. Find out the correct one: (a) The creator answered “yes but by accepting the burden you will show your greatness of heart.” (b) The creator answered “yes”. But by accepting the burden you will show your greatness of heart. (c) The creator answered, “Yes, but by accepting the burden you will show your greatness of heart.” (d) None of these

35. Select the correctly punctuated sentence:

‘as Caesar loved me I weep for him as he was fortunate I rejoice at it as he was valiant I honour him but as he was ambitious is slew him’ Find out the correct one: (a) As Caesar loved me I weep for him, as he was fortunate, I rejoice at it, as he was, valiant I honour him but as he was ambitious I slew him (b) As Caesar loved me, I weep for him. As he was fortunate I rejoice at it. As he was valiant, I honour him but as he was ambitious, I slew him (c) As Caesar loved me, I weep for him; as he was fortunate, I rejoice at it : as he was valiant, I honour him; but as he was ambitious, I slew him. (d) As Caesar loved me I weep for him; as he was fortunate, I rejoice at it : as he was valiant I honour him but as he was ambitious I slew him

36. From the given options, select the one which is same in meaning to the underlined word. Our talks with the foreign delegation were really productive. (a) growing (b) efficient (c) fruitful (d) lengthy

37. Choose the alternative which best expresses

the meaning of the the idiom/phrase. Actions speak louder than words. (a) It is what we do that matters and not what we say. (b) People can arrive at the same conclusion by different means. (c) Since something better must follow an unpleasant event, be optimistic. (d) Live within your means.

Mock Paper 5

38. Correct the sentence by changing the underlined word, if necessary.

We need a DTP operator with a good knowledge of English. (a) the good knowledge of English (b) good knowledge of an English (c) a good knowledge of the English (d) No improvement

39. Choose the correct degree of adjective. (a) She is the prettiest among all of them. (b) She is prettier of them all. (c) She is more prettier of them all. (d) She is the prettier of them all.

40. Choose the correct alternative to express the meaning of the given phrase/idiom. To be under a cloud (a) to be in the dark (b) to be hidden (c) to be suspicious (d) to be in hopelessness

41. Choose the word which is most opposite in the meaning of the underlined word.

The committee set about making provisional arrangements for the annual conference. (a) unconditional (b) abiding (c) permanent (d) lasting

42. In the following question, out of the given

alternatives, choose the one which is the most nearly the same meaning to the underlined word in the sentence. She has an insatiable love for music. (a) undesirable (b) irreconcilable (c) unchanging (d) unsatisfiable

43. Choose the correct sequence: P: Rules and Regulations Q: he cheerfully R: ignored his demands S: a life of unaccustomed to The correct sequence should be: (a) PQRS (b) QRPS (c) SRPQ (d) QSRP

44. Correct the sentence by changing the underlined word, if necessary.

I am fond of an classical music. (a) a classical music (b) the classical music (c) classical music (d) No improvement

45. Choose the most appropriate preposition. A steady mind triumphs ........... difficulties. (a) in (b) over (c) at (d) with

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46. Choose the most appropriate preposition. Good sleep health. (a) of (c) at

is

necessary

...........

good

(b) for (d) from

49. In the following question choose the correct

47. Fill in the blank with a suitable question tag. Prasad bowls ........... (a) isn't he? (c) doesn’t he?

faster

than

(b) does he? (d) is he?

48. Choose the correct sequence. We saw P: while playing Q: with the boys R: that Ram fell down S: and hurt his leg

The correct sequence should be: (a) RSPQ (b) PQRS (c) RPQS (d) RPSQ

Srinath,

form of verb. The engineers ........... this bridge since last year. (a) have repaired (b) had repaired (c) have been repairing (d) are repairing

50. Fill in the blanks with a suitable question

tag. Everyone can hear me at the back of the room, ................. (a) can’t you? (b) can you? (c) can’t they? (d) are you?

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Mock Papers

Page 84

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

Section - 1A

CUET (UG)-2024 MOCK PAPER

6

SELF-ASSESSMENT

ENGLISH Time Allowed: 45 Minutes

Maximum Marks: 200

General Instructions: Same instructions as given in the Mock Paper 1.

READING COMPREHENSIONS I. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: (1) The Sahara sets a standard for dry land. It’s the world’s largest desert. Relative humidity can drop into the low single digits. There are places where it rains only about once a century. There are people who reach the end of their lives without ever seeing water come from the sky. Yet beneath the Sahara are vast aquifers of fresh water, enough liquid to fill a small sea. It is fossil water, a treasure laid down in prehistoric times, some of it possibly a million years old. Just 6,000 years ago, the Sahara was quite a different place. It was green. Prehistoric rock art in the Sahara shows something surprising: hippopotamuses, who need water year round. (2) We don’t have much evidence of a tropical paradise out there, but we had something perfectly livable, says Jennifer Smith, a geologist at Washington University in St. Louis. At times when the Northern Hemisphere tilts sharply towards the sun and the planet makes its closest approach, the increased blast of sunlight during the North’s summer months can cause the African monsoon (which currently occurs between the Equator and roughly 17°N

Mock Paper 6

latitude) to shift to the North as it did 10,000 years ago, inundating North Africa. (3) Around 5,000 years ago, the monsoon shifted dramatically southward again. The prehistoric inhabitants of the Sahara discovered that their relatively green surroundings were undergoing something worse than a drought (and perhaps they migrated towards the Nile Valley, where Egyptian culture began to flourish at around the same time). (4) As the land dried out and vegetation decreased, the soil lost its ability to hold water when it rained. Fewer clouds formed from evaporation. When it rained, the water washed away and evaporated quickly. There was a kind of runaway drying effect. Around 4,000 years ago, the Sahara became what it is today. No one knows how human-driven climate change may alter the Sahara in the future. It’s something scientists can ponder while sipping bottled fossil water pumped from the underground. “It’s the best water in Egypt, “Robert Giegengack, a University of Pennsylvania geologist, said — clean, refreshing mineral water. If you want to drink something good, try the ancient buried treasure of the Sahara.

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Lat. meander axis of a jet stream

JET STREAM SUBTROPICAL

30

200 mb

Subtropical anticyclone

H

H

Div

20

Development of Sahara Depression

Conv

10

East tropical circulation

850 mb 0

Hydroelectric Generation in Sub-Saharan Africa (2015) Top Hydro Generators in Sub-Sahara Africa Mozambique

Zambia

Ethiopia billion kWh 0

Democratic Republic of the Congo

0-1 1-5

Sudan

5-8 8-10

billion kWh 0

5

10

15

20

>10

1. In the line ‘Prehistoric rock art in the Sahara’ the word “prehistoric” DOES NOT mean: (a) primitive (b) modern (c) ancient (d) pristine

2. Which of the following statements about the

Sahara desert is correct? (a) The inability of soil to hold water. (b) The washing away and fast evaporation of water. (c) The tendency of the soil to absorb all the water. (d) Strong sunlight in the desert.

3. Choose the option that lists the correct

answers for the following: (1) The Sahara was quite a different place. It was green. When was this? (2) The monsoon shifted dramatically southward again. When did this happen? (a) (1) 4000 years ago and (2) 5000 years ago (b) (1) 6000 years ago and (2) 5000 years ago

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(c) (1) 5000 years ago and (2) 6000 years ago (d) (1) 4000 years ago and (2) 6000 years ago

4. Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that best defines 'runaway drying effect'? (1) The inability of soil to hold water. (2) The washing away and the fast evaporation of water. (3) The tendency of the soil to absorb all the water. (4) Strong sunlight in the desert. (a) option (1) (c) option (3)

(b) option (2) (d) option (4)

5. The shortage of water is evident from the

fact that: (a) it never rains (b) some people go through life without experiencing rain (c) people cannot recognise rain (d) people do not know when will it rain

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

II. Read the passage given below and answer

the questions that follow: (1) Swami Vivekananda is known for his inspiring speech at the Parliament of the World’s Religions in Chicago on 11th September 1893, where he introduced Hindu philosophy to the West. But this was not the only contribution of the saint. He revealed the true foundation of India’s unity as a nation. He taught how a nation with such a vast diversity could be bound together by a feeling of humanity and brotherhood. Vivekananda emphasised the drawbacks of Western culture and India’s contribution in overcoming those. (2) Freedom fighter Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose once said: “Swamiji harmonised the East and West, religion and science, past and present. Our countrymen have gained unprecedented self-respect, self-reliance, and self-assertion from his teachings.” Vivekananda was successful in constructing a virtual bridge between the culture of the East and the West. He interpreted the Hindu scriptures, philosophy, and the way of life for the western people. He made them realise that despite poverty and backwardness, India has a great contribution to make to the world’s culture. He played a key role in ending India’s cultural isolation from the rest of the world. (3) He was also associated with the Brahmo Movement led by Keshab Chandra Sen, for some time. He questioned the validity of superstitious customs and discrimination based on caste and religion. During this spiritual crisis, Vivekananda first heard about Sri Ramakrishna from William Hastie, the principal of the Scottish Church College. One day in November 1881, Vivekananda went to the Kali Temple in Dakshineswar where Sri Ramakrishna was staying. He straightaway asked Ramakrishna, “Sir, have you seen God?” Without a moment’s hesitation, Sri Ramakrishna replied: “Yes, I have seen Him. I see Him as clearly as I see you, only in a much deeper sense. Vivekananda was surprised to hear it. Sri Ramakrishna won him over through his pure, unselfish love. Vivekananda started visiting Dakshineshwar frequently and the relationship of ‘master and disciple’ developed between the two.

6. Which of the following sentences makes

the correct use of “bridge”, as used in the passage? (a) Have you seen the ................... on the river Thames? (b) I have a ................... in my teeth.

Mock Paper 6

(c) You should talk to each other and ................... the gap in your relationship. (d) Some sunglasses have a nose ................... for comfort.

7. How was Vivekananda won over? (a) Through sacrifice (b) Through altruistic conduct (c) Through courage (d) Through dedication

8. What crisis did Swami Vivekanand face? (a) Of discrimination (b) Of faith (c) Of following religious practices (d) Of removing superstition

9. Choose the option that correctly states the meaning of ‘self-reliance’ as implied in the passage: (a) independent (b) validity (c) customs (d) unselfish

10. The value of Hindu philosophy is best explained through the example of: (a) Sri Ramakrishna (b) Swami Vivekananda (c) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose (d) Keshab Chandra Sen

III. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

(1) I have often thought, it would be a blessing

if each human being was stricken blind and deaf for a few days at some time during his adult life. Darkness would make him more appreciative of sight, silence would teach him the joy of sound.

(2) Now and then, I have tested my seeing friends to discover what they see. Recently, I asked a friend, who had just returned from a long walk in the woods, what she has observed. "Nothing in particular," she replied. How was it possible, I asked myself, to walk for an hour through the woods and see nothing worthy of note? (3) I, who cannot see, find hundreds of things to interest me through mere touch. I feel the delicate symmetry of a leaf. I pass my hands lovingly about the smooth skin of a silver birch or the rough, shaggy bark of a pine. In spring, I touch the branches of trees hopefully in search of a bud, the first sign of awakening nature after her winter's sleep. Occasionally, if I am fortunate and place my hand gently on a small tree, I feel the happy quiver of a bird in full song.

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(4) At times my heart cries out with longing to see all these things. If I can get so much pleasure from mere touch, how much more beauty must be revealed by sight. I have imagined what I would like to see, if I were

given the use of my eyes, say, just for a few days. I would want to see the people, whose kindness, and gentleness, and companionship has made my life worth living.





11. Pick the options that lists statements that

14. Based on the timeline of Helen Keller, choose the

(a) (3) and (4)

(b) (1) and (3)

option that lists the statements that are TRUE. (1) In 1909, Helen joined the Suffragist Movement, demanding the right to vote for the marginalized. (2) After two years from her birth, Helen lost her sight and hearing. (3) Helen visited blind, deaf and disabled soldiers of World War I in military. (4) In 1964 Helen received Presidential Medal of Freedom, the nation’s highest civilian honor. (a) (2) and (4) (b) (1) and (2) (c) (2) and (3) (d) (3) and (4)

(c) (1) and (2)

(d) (2) and (4)

15. Based on your understanding of the passage

are NOT TRUE according to the passage and the timeline. (1) Despite losing her ability to see and hear, Helen Keller observed things minutely. (2) Anne Sullivan was the one who introduced Helen Keller to Indian Sign Language. (3) Often Helen Keller desired the ability to see and hear. (4) Helen Keller received her first formal education in the year 1887.

12. The word ‘longing’ used in paragraph 4, means same as: (a) wait (c) hungry

(b) desire (d) believe

13. Looking at Helen Kellers’s achievements and works in the year 1904, 1924 and 1943, it can be said that she: (a) Worked for people with disability (b) Acknowledged people with disabilities (c) Encouraged people with disabilities (d) Sympathized with disable people

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and timeline, choose the option that lists the correct timeline of the events in the life of Helen Keller. (1) Helen became a member of the freshmen class at Radcliffe College. (2) With the help of the writer, Helen writes, ‘The story of my life’. (3) Helen and Anne begin their work with the American foundation of Blind. (4) Helen travels overseas and visits 37 nations. (a) (1), (2), (3), (4) (b) (2), (1), (3), (4) (c) (4), (3), (1), (2) (d) (1), (3), (2), (4)

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY 16. Select the option with the closest meaning to the underlined word:

Her dynamic nature impressed everyone. (a) enduring (b) active (c) evolutionary (d) jealous

17. Choose the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word:

Sachin is very fickle in his behaviour. (a) stable (b) capricious (c) mercurial (d) vacillating

18. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: MOTIVE (a) reason (c) benefit

(b) utility (d) chance

19. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: MERCURIAL (a) interchangeable (b) predictable (c) permanent (d) volatile

20. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: REMORSE (a) Empathy (c) Sorrow

24. Match the words listed in column (A) with their respective meanings in column (B). Column (A)

(b) Regret (d) Satisfaction

choose the correct answer: (1) Placate is the synonym of the word ‘pacify’. (2) Mollify is the antonym of the word ‘pacify’. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

22. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer:

(1) Simile is a poetic device used to compare two things together. (2) Simile uses the terms ‘as’ and ‘like’ to make the comparison. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

23. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer:

Column (B)

(A) Extinguished

(1) a heavy dull sound

(B) Thud

(2) to put an end to

(C) Heralding

(3) having much aggressiveness

(D) Fierce

(4) to show a sign

(a) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(3), (D)-(1) (b) (A)-(4), (B)-(1), (C)-(2), (D)-(3) (c) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(1), (D)-(3) (d) (A)-(2), (B)-(1), (C)-(4), (D)-(3)

25. Match the words listed in column (A) with their respective meanings in column (B). Column (A)

21. Read the two sentences given below and

Mock Paper 6

(1) ‘Many’ is used to determine the quantity of things. (2) ‘Many’ is a preposition. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

Column (B)

(A) Invigorating

(1) in a crowded manner

(B) Abound

(2) making one feel healthy and strong

(C) Misty

(3) exist in large numbers

(D) Densely

(4) filled with mist or fog

(a) (A)-(2), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(1) (b) (A)-(1), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(2) (c) (A)-(2), (B)-(4), (C)-(1), (D)-(2) (d) (A)-(2), (B)-(3), (C)-(2), (D)-(1)

26. Select the word from the given options, you consider most appropriate for the blank space: We fail to understand your reasons for ........... the college without completing the degree. (a) attending (b) joining (c) leaving (d) refusing

27. Select the word from the given options, you

consider most appropriate for the blank space: She .............. her energy and started shouting only when she heard the noise of bulldozers and cranes.

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(a) checked (c) maintained

(b) conserved (d) controlled

28. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: P: without any mandate of law Q: The plea filed though the advocate R: online is illegal and S: submitted that the sale of drugs and prescription medicines The correct sequence should be: (a) RQSP (b) QSRP (c) QRSP (d) PRSQ

(a) to avail of (c) to avail myself

(b) to avail myself of (d) No improvement

34. Select the correctly punctuated sentence. (a) He will succeed you, never. (b) He will succeed, you never. (c) He will succeed; you, never. (d) He will succeed : you, never.

35. Select the correctly punctuated sentence. (a) The ganga rises from the Himalayas. (b) The Ganga rises from the Himalayas. (c) The ganga rises from the himalayas. (d) The Ganga rises from the himalayas.

29. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the

36. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the

30. Choose the most appropriate option to

37. Choose the correct question tag for the

sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: P: Humans and machines have co-existed Q: dating back to the invention of R: the potter's wheel in ancient Mesopotamia S: at the physical level for millennia The correct sequence should be: (a) RSPQ (b) PRSQ (c) QRPS (d) PSQR identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: To get under somebody’s skin (a) To deceive someone (b) To admire someone (c) To annoy someone (d) To support someone

31. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: Turn Topsy-Turvy (a) To completely change something (b) To completely evaluate something (c) To enjoy yourself greatly (d) To exhaust yourself completely

32. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: A clarion call (a) A trumpet call (b) An intimidating voice (c) A strong request (d) An urgent order

33. Choose the most suitable substitution of the underlined part of the sentence from the given options: I would like to avail a fifteen days' holiday this summer.

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sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: The principal said that P: those students Q: would not be permitted to enter R: who do not produce S: identity cards The correct sequence should be: (a) RSPQ (b) RPSQ (c) PRSQ (d) SRPQ following sentence: One girl can do it, ............... (a) can she? (b) can't she? (c) can we? (d) No improvement

38. Change the given sentence of active voice

into passive voice. Select the appropriate option. Did he remember the date and time? (a) Are the date and time remembered by him? (b) Was he remembering the date and time remembered? (c) Were the date and time remembered by him? (d) Did the date and time be remembered by him?

39. Choose the most appropriate option to

identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: Absence makes the heart grow fonder: (a) When things seem at their worst, they may just begin to improve. (b) The finest things are hard to get. (c) Everything that is attractive on the outside may not be really valuable inside. (d) Our affection increases when we are parted from our loved ones.

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

40. Choose the appropriate word to fill in the

blank: The mechanic ................ the vehicle since this morning. (a) repaired (b) repairing (c) has been repairing (d) will be repairing

41. Choose the appropriate word to fill in the

blank: He turned ..................... the proposal without thinking. (a) out (b) up (c) down (d) in

42. Fill in the blank with appropriate article.

(c) There are often early indications of future happenings. (d) People can arrive at the same conclusion by different means.

46. From the given options, select the one which is same in meaning to the given word: AMICABLE (a) poisonous (b) friendly (c) discordant (d) hostile

47. From the given options, select the one which is opposite in meaning to the given word: CEASE (a) mount (b) start (c) slacken (d) bend

48. Choose the appropriate word to fill in the

....... oranges are grown in Nagpur. (a) A (b) An (c) The (d) No article

43. Choose the correct question tag for the following sentence: She will not finish the work on time, ............... (a) isn't it? (b) won't she? (c) doesn't she? (d) will she?

blank: I think you will not mind ........... coming in. (a) I (b) mine (c) my (d) me

49. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the

identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: To break the ice (a) to break the news (b) to break a painful silence (c) to start the work (d) to keep cool

sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: They knew him P: to leave work early that day Q: when he permitted them R: to be a hard taskmaster S: and were surprised The correct sequence should be: (a) PQSR (b) RSQP (c) PSQR (d) PQRS

45. Choose the most appropriate option to

50. Choose the most appropriate option to

44. Choose the most appropriate option to

identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: All roads lead to Rome (a) Everything that is attractive on the outside may not be really valuable inside. (b) Information about unpleasant happenings spreads quickly.

identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: Took her heels (a) bent down (b) ran off (c) kicked off her shoes (d) rubbed her heels

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Mock Papers

Mock Paper 6

Page 91

Section - 1A

CUET (UG)-2024 MOCK PAPER

7

SELF-ASSESSMENT

ENGLISH Time Allowed: 45 Minutes

Maximum Marks: 200

General Instructions: Same instructions as given in the Mock Paper 1.

READING COMPREHENSIONS I. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: (1) In India, it began a decade ago when the animated version of Manga called ‘Anime’ began to broadcast. The style of animation had distinct characteristics—a sharply stylised black and white format, minimal dialogue, complex plots and characters, and extended storylines that could run on for months or thousands of pages. 700 Prehistory of Manga 1861 Manga's British Ancestor Arrives in Japan 1874 First Japanese Cartoon Magazine 1895 First Japanese Magazine for Children Published 1902 The 'Father of Manga' Publishes His First Comic Strip 1907 First Children's Manga Magazine Shonen Puck Launches 1931 Manga Pup Debuts and Merits Mickey Mouse 1934 Tank Tankuro and the Rise of Robots 1935 Manga no Kurl, First Magazine Set Up to Train Cartoonists 1946 Debut of the Manga God 1949 Dealing with Defeat 1953 Fighting Females and Girl Heroes 1956 More Manga, More Often 1959 Manga's Punk Rock Movement Takes Root 1966 Sports Manga Takes Off

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(2) Having got hooked on the TV series, many young fans, hungry for more, took to the original comic versions, which was just the tip of the iceberg. Other children began creating Manga art in their free time. The lengthy storylines hooked other youngsters too. One of the youngsters started reading a Manga series on the Buddha and took 13 years to complete it. He finally said that apart from being drawn to it by its storyline, he fell in love with the art form. (3) For publishers, this segment holds promise. Blaft’s best selling Indian title ‘Stupid Guy Goes to India’ was published in March this year and features Yamamastu trying to run a tiny noodle soup stall in a Delhi slum. The book illustrates the range of topics that Manga can tackle. The book sold 6,000 copies without much marketing going into it. Next, Viz. Media, the US subsidiary of Japanese Manga, will launch in India with 75 titles as the publishers feel that the Indian market is ripe for a Manga takeover. As the Indian reader has already been initiated into Manga through the cartoon series, many of the titles that the US subsidiary will be bringing to India have been brought by parallel importers. While all these publishers agree that the Manga comics and books will not be cheap, they are sure of selling them well, as there is a very strong fan base existing here.

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

(4) Not just the publishing world, but also the live stage has been caught by the Manga fever. United by their love for this Japanese art form, Indian Manga lovers have started staging dance and music performances and culinary experience around Manga, as part of the Cool Japan Festival undertaken by the Japanese Consulate and held at a city mall. In all, there were about 300 participants having grown from a handful of people when it started in 2010. This thriving club is part of a pattern across all metro cities with dedicated fan clubs, meetups, and even Manga libraries, that have emerged over the last five years.

1. In the line ‘Having got hooked on the TV series’ the word “hooked” DOES NOT mean (a) indifferent

(b) addicted

(c) glued

(d) habitual

2. ‘Anime’ version of Manga gained popularity in India

(a) as they were cheap (b) due to the style of animation (c) as they were short and ended quickly (d) as they were easily accessible

3. It took the youngster ............... years to complete the Buddha series: (a) twelve

(b) thirteen

(c) fifteen

(d) eleven

4. Choose the option that lists the correct answers for the following :

(1) What was the biggest attraction of the Buddha series? (2) What did the publishers think of this? (a) (1) the colourful depiction and (2) beneficial (b) (1) the story and (2) unprofitable (c) (1) the characters and (2) not worth investing in (d) (1) the story and presentation and (2) good business

5. Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that best defines Manga is: (1) It is an animated movie (2) It's a Japanese art form (3) It is a novel (4) It is an epic (a) option (1)

(b) option (2)

(c) option (3)

(d) option (4)

Mock Paper 7

II. Read the passage given below and answer

the questions that follow: (1) Arteries of the heart blocked by plaque can reduce the flow of blood to the heart, possibly resulting in heart attack or death. Plaque is actually fat and cholesterol that accumulates on the inside of the arteries. The arteries of the heart are small and can be blocked by such accumulations. There is a medical procedure that creates more space in the blocked artery by inserting and inflating a tiny balloon into the blood vessel. It is called coronary balloon angioplasty. Angioplasty means ‘blood vessel repair’. When the balloon is inflated, it compresses the plaque against the wall of the artery, creating more space and improving the flow of blood. (2) Many doctors choose this technique, because it is less invasive than bypass surgery. Yes, both involve entering the body cavity, but in a bypass surgery, the chest must be opened, the ribs must be cut, and the section of the diseased artery must be removed and replaced. To replace it, the patient’s body is opened once again to acquire a healthy section of artery. Usually, this blood vessel is removed from an artery located in the calf of the leg. This means the patient now has two painful incisions that must heal at the same time. There is far more risk in such a bypass surgery than in angioplasty, which involves threading a thin tube, called a catheter, into the circulatory system and working it to the damaged artery. (3) Angioplasty may take between 30 minutes to 3 hours to complete. It begins with a distinctive dye that is injected into the bloodstream. A thin catheter is then inserted into the femoral artery of the leg, near the groin. The doctor monitors the path of the dye using x-rays. He moves the tube through the heart and into the plaque filled artery. He inflates the balloon, creating more space, deflates the balloon, and removes the tube. It is important to note that the plaque has not been removed; it has just been compressed against the sides of the artery. Sometimes, a stent may be implanted, a tiny tube of stainless steel that is expandable when necessary. Its function is to keep the artery open. (4) There is good news and there is bad news. The good news is that the statistics compiled are superb. 90% of all angioplasty procedures are successful. The risk of dying

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during an operation of this type is less than 2%. The risk of heart attack is also small: 3–5%. Yet heart surgeons do not take any risk lightly; therefore, a team of surgeons stands ready to perform bypass surgery if needed. The length of hospitalisation is only three days. The bad news is twofold. First, this procedure treats the condition

but does not eradicate the cause. In 20% of the cases, there is a recurrence of plaque. Second, angioplasty is not recommended for all patients. The surgeons must consider the patient’s age, physical history, how severe the blockage is, and, finally, the degree of damage to the artery before they make their determination.

Stent with Balloon Angioplasty 1

2

Build up of cholesterol partially blocking blood  ow through the artery.

3

Stent with balloon inserted into partially blocked artery. 4

Balloon in ated to expand stent.

Balloon removed from expanded stent.

Number of procedures per, 10,000 population

Rate of any Cardiac Stent Procedure by Sex and Age Group 2009 140

Males

120 100

79

80 62

54

60

42 40 19

20 4 0

1

18 to 44 years

45 to 64 years

6. In the line “…inflating a tiny balloon into the

blood vessel” the word “inflated” DOES NOT mean: (a) swollen (b) punctured (c) filled (d) blown up

7. The passage explains angioplasty as: (a) a tiny balloon (b) a plaque-laden artery (c) blood vessel repair (d) bypass surgery

8. What is the first step in an angioplasty?

(a) Thin catheter being inserted into the femoral artery. (b) A balloon being inflated in the heart. (c) A special dye being injected into the bloodstream. (d) A healthy artery being removed from the calf.

9. Based on your understanding of the passage

what does the author convey by stating that the procedure is less invasive?

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Females 119

65 to 84 years

85 years and older

(1) that it does not enter the body cavity (2) that it causes infection (3) that it results in hospitalisation (4) that it requires a specialist’s opinion. (a) Option (1) (b) Option (2) (c) Option (3) (d) Option (4)

10. Which of the following statements about the procedure being a mixed bag is correct? (a) Statistics reflect good figures (b) High success rate (c) Both positive and negative results (d) Not affordable

III. Read the passage given below and answer

the questions that follow: (1) Research has shown that the human mind can process words at the rate of about 500 per minute, whereas a speaker speaks at the rate of about 150 words a minute. The difference between the two is 350 which is quite large. So, a speaker must make every effort to retain the attention of

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

the audience and the listener should also be careful not to let his/her mind wander. Good communication calls for good listening skills. (2) Listening starts with hearing but goes beyond that. Hearing in other words is necessary but not sufficient for listening. Listening involves hearing with attention. Listening is a process that calls for attention and concentration. While listening, one should be observant. In other words, listening has to do with the ears as well as with the eyes and the mind. It calls for participation and involvement. It is quite often a dialogue rather than a monologue. It is necessary to make it abundantly clear that one is interested in knowing what the other person has to say. (3) Good listening is an art that can be cultivated. A good listener knows the art of getting much more than what the speaker is trying to convey. He/she knows how to prompt, persuade but not to cut-off or interrupt what the other person has to say. At times, the speaker may or may not be coherent, articulate and well-organised in his/her thoughts and expressions. He/she may have it in mind, yet fail to marshal the right words while communicating thoughts. Nevertheless, a good listener puts him/her at ease, helps him/her articulate his/her thoughts. For listening to be effective, it is also necessary that barriers to listening are removed. Such barriers can be both physical and psychological. Physical barriers generally relate to hindrances to proper hearing, whereas psychological barriers are more fundamental and relate to interpretation and evaluation of the speaker and the message.

11. A good listener:

(a) understands the speakers coherence. (b) knows a lot about communication. (c) get much more than what the speaker wants to say. (d) frequently interrupt the speakers.

12. Select the option that makes the correct use

of “barrier”, as used in the passage, to fill in the blank space. (a) Using protection as a psychological ............. during sexual intercourse can be a suggestive measure for birth-control. (b) There are many ............. in our school. (c) He created ........... in our relationship. (d) Brexit, a big .................. in U.K.’s economic growth.

13. A speaker is always:

(a) coherent (b) good actor (c) a good humane (d) a motivator

14. What does the author mean when he says, “ ..... barrier to listening are removed”. (a) to clear out the hindrances of listening. (b) to fabricate listening – speaking relationship. (c) to remove the clarity. (d) to put aside all mishappening.

15. To choose the option that correctly states the meaning of “cultivate”, as used in the passage. (1) to sleep (2) to heal (3) to grow (4) to prosper (5) to move (a) (1) and (2) (b) (3) and (4) (c) (2) and (4) (d) (1) and (3)

GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

16. Select the option with the closest meaning to the underlined word: Under his leadership the company grew in an organic manner. (a) natural (b) speedy (c) unusual (d) disciplined 17. Choose the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word: My boss has been too generous. (a) stingy (b) rough (c) evil (d) hostile 18. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: DIMINUTIVE (a) petite (b) expeditious (c) dangerous (d) fallacious

Mock Paper 7

19. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: ALLURING (a) interesting (b) charming (c) repulsive (d) glamorous 20. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: ABOMINABLE (a) Delightful (b) Hateful (c) Colourful (d) Distasteful

21. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer: (1) Rachit is an obnoxious person. The term ‘obnoxious’ is an adverb. (2) Obnoxious means to be extremely unpleasant.

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(a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

22. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer:

(1) ‘Ought to’ is a conjunction that joins active sentences together. (2) It is used to express a possibility. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

23. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer:

(1) Ballad is a form of poetry. (2) It consists of only 4 lines. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

24. Match the words listed in column (A) with their respective meanings in column (B). Column (A)

Column (B)

The British .............. all over Africa and Asia collapsed in the first half of the twentieth century. (a) hegemony (b) domicile (c) residence (d) inheritance

27. Select the word from the given options, you

consider most appropriate for the blank space: The football match has to be ............ because of the weather. (a) called off (b) continued (c) put off (d) turned off

28. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: P: the urban local body elections Q: Unidentified gunmen R: and injured another during S: shot dead two workers The correct sequence should be: (a) QSRP (b) QPSR (c) QPRS (d) RPSQ

29. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence:

(A) Eminently

(1) baptised

P: The father also

(B) Thralldom

(2) highly

Q: in his quest for justice

(C) Christened

(3) distant

(D) Aloof

(4) bondage

(a) (A)-(2), (B)-(4), (C)-(1), (D)-(3) (b) (A)-(3), (B)-(2), (C)-(4), (D)-(1) (c) (A)-(1), (B)-(2), (C)-(3), (D)-(4) (d) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(1), (D)-(3)

25. Match the words listed in column (A) with their respective meanings in column (B). Column (A)

Column (B)

(A) Apathy

(1) bounce

(B) Ricocheting

(2) detachment

(C) Portly

(3) rigorous

(D) Ascetic

(4) plump

(a) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(3), (D)-(1) (b) (A)-(4), (B)-(1), (C)-(2), (D)-(3) (c) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(1), (D)-(3) (d) (A)-(2), (B)-(1), (C)-(4), (D)-(3)

26. Select the word from the given options, you

consider most appropriate for the blank space:

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R: by the system S: feels let down The correct sequence should be: (a) SQPR (b) PSRQ (c) SQRP (d) PQRS

30. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: Fire in the belly (a) Fear and hatred (b) Powerful ambition (c) Love and dedication (d) Lethargy and indifference

31. Choose the most appropriate option to

identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: A hunky-dory situation (a) There are serious issues among people (b) There are no problems and people are happy (c) There is war and bloodshed all over (d) There is no work, only enjoyment

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

32. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: Give somebody a leg up (a) To pull someone down (b) To deceive and betray someone (c) To help someone for their livelihood (d) To help someone to be successful

33. Choose the most suitable substitution of the underlined part of the sentence from the given options: You should to read the newspapers regularly if you want to be well-informed. (a) ought (b) have to (c) should be (d) No improvement

34. Select the correctly punctuated sentence.

(a) They invoked gods who blessed them. (b) They invoked Gods who blessed them. (c) They invoked Gods who blessed them. (d) They invoked Gods who blessed them

35. Select the correctly punctuated sentence. (a) “Oh no! I forgot. I'll phone her now.” (b) “Oh no, I forgot. I'll phone her now;” (c) “Oh no! I forgot, I'll phone her now?” (d) “Oh no! I forgot? I'll phone her now!”

36. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. To have something up one’s sleeves (a) having a practical plan (b) having an important project (c) having an ambitious plan (d) having a secret plan

37. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. Bad news travels fast (a) Information about unpleasant happenings spreads quickly. (b) Once a decision has been made, it cannot be reversed. (c) Since something better must follow an unpleasant event, be optimistic. (d) One's actions whether good or bad determine one's rewards or punishments.

38. Choose the word which is opposite in meaning of the given word. MAKE (a) liberate (b) break (c) emancipate (d) bind

39. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. PRIORITY (a) urgency (b) protocol (c) preference (d) necessity

Mock Paper 7

40. In the following question choose the correct

form of verb. Lokesh was busy when we...................to see him. (a) go (b) went (c) gone (d) goes

41. Choose the part of the following sentence

that contains an error: If I was knowing why he was absent, I would have informed you. (a) If I was knowing (b) why he was absent (c) I would have informed you (d) No error

42. Choose the most appropriate preposition. I am angry with him ........... his carelessness. (a) at (b) in (c) for (d) of

43. Correct the sentence by choosing the suitable option, if necessary. Man is the mortal (a) The man is mortal. (b) A man is the mortal. (c) Man is mortal. (d) No improvement

44. Choose the correct sequence. I am pure P: and will be happy Q: sooner or later R: a day will come S: when all will be equal The correct sequence should be: (a) QPRS (b) QSRP (c) RQSP (d) RSQP

45. Fill in the blank with a suitable question tag. The Prime Minister has gone to Brazil, .............. (a) has he? (b) hasn’t he? (c) didn’t he? (d) is he?

46. Choose the appropriate option to fill in the blank in the given sentence.

The sun ........... set, nothing could be seen. (a) have (b) has (c) having (d) had

47. Choose the most appropriate conjunction. She did not like the movie, nor I did. (a) nor did I (b) nor I liked it (c) nor I like it (d) No improvement

48. Choose the alternative which best express the meaning of idiom/phrase.

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All roads lead to Rome. (a) Everything that is attractive on the outside may not be really valuable inside. (b) Information about unpleasant happenings spreads quickly. (c) There are often early indications of future happenings. (d) People can arrive at the same conclusion by different means.

49. Choose the part of the following sentence that contains an error:

The company have thousands of customers happy with its service. (a) The company have (b) thousands of customers (c) happy with its service (d) No error

50. Choose the most appropriate preposition. Why were the voters disillusioned ........... the political party is the question? (a) at (b) by (c) in (d) with

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Mock Papers

Page 98

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

8

Section - 1A

CUET (UG)-2024 MOCK PAPER SELF-ASSESSMENT

ENGLISH Time Allowed: 45 Minutes

Maximum Marks: 200

General Instructions: Same instructions as given in the Mock Paper 1.

READING COMPREHENSIONS happiness vary widely both within and among countries. (3) Richer people tend to say that they are happier than poorer people; richer countries tend to have higher average happiness levels; and across time, most countries that have experienced sustained economic growth have seen increasing happiness levels. So evidence suggests that income and life satisfaction tend to go together (which still doesn’t mean they are one and the same). Important life events such as marriage or divorce affect our happiness but have surprisingly little longterm impact.

I. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: (1) Today, life satisfaction and happiness are central research areas in the social sciences, included in mainstream economics. (2) Social scientists often recommend that measures of subjective well-being should augment the usual measures of economic prosperity, such as GDP per capita, data and empirical evidence that might answer these questions. Surveys asking people about life satisfaction and happiness measure subjective well-being with reasonable accuracy. Life satisfaction and

Share of people who say they are happy, 1984 to 2014 (Share of people who say they are 'very happy' or 'rather happy'.)

80%

Sweden Brazil Argentina Germany Zimbabwe India

70%

Russia Georgia

90%

60%

50% 1984



1990

1995

2000

2005

2010

2014

Source: World Value Survey 2014.

Mock Paper 8

Page 99

Findings from the World Value Survey (4) The World Value Survey collects data from a series of representative national surveys covering almost 100 countries, with the earliest estimates dating back to 1981. In these surveys, respondents are asked, “Taking all things together, would you say you are (i) very happy, (ii) rather happy, (iii) not very happy or (iv) not at all happy”. This visualisation plots the share of people answering they are ‘very happy’ or ‘rather happy’. (5) As we can see, in the majority of countries the trend is positive: In 49 of the 69 countries with data from two or more surveys,  the most recent observation is higher than the earliest. In some cases, the improvement has been very large; in Zimbabwe, for example, the share of people who reported being ‘very happy’ or ‘rather happy’ went from 56.4% in 2004 to 82.1% in 2014. (6) However, there is a high possibility of having missed remote places, which may have gone unnoticed, yet may be very high on happiness score in the world.

1. In

the line, “........ have experienced sustained economic growth ........ “, the word “sustained” DOES NOT refer to: (a) assist (b) go through (c) support (d) nearby

2. What does happiness depend on, according to the survey in the passage? (a) financial condition of a person. (b) social condition of a person. (c) locality of a person. (d) complete well-being of person.

3. Based on the understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists the characteristics of being happy: (1) having money. (2) having sustainable resources. (3) social well-being. (4) emotional well-being. (5) complete well-being. (6) moral well-being. (a) (1) and (2) (b) (3) and (4) (c) (1), (2) and (5) (d) (1), (3) and (5)

4. Which country shows a steep rise happiness between 2001 to 2014? (a) Brazil (b) Zimbabwe (c) Germany (d) Sweden

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5. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) Rich countries are happy countries. (b) Developing countries are happier than the rich countries. (c) Economically stable countries account for a happier population. (d) Sustainable resources are important.

II. Read the passage given below and answer

the questions that follow: (1) Politeness has been correctly defined as benevolence in trifles. It is the desire to put people we meet perfectly at ease, and save them from every kind of petty discomfort and annoyance. The limited part of benevolence called politeness requires only an inclination to make people happy while they are in our presence. This can be done without any sacrifice on our part or only with a slight sacrifice of personal comfort. (2) Politeness is said to be one of the important characteristics of a civilised person. It must be implemented in every walk of life. An honest and polite person is polite with everyone—elders, people of lower status, workers, and even children. Not only with humans but we must also be polite with animals. (3) Politeness is a skill. Like any other skill, you can master it with practice. The greatest enemy of politeness is ego. To be a polite person, you have to sacrifice your ego. It is difficult for an egoist to be polite. You have to apply politeness in your thinking, speech, and actions. Actions work more than words. Polite actions will give positive results. In our daily lives, we come across many incidents where people are unnecessarily rude. Politeness will reduce your stress and help you be productive. Apart from immediate benefits, you protect your future as well. Being polite makes you mentally healthy. (4) Different rules of behaviour have to be observed at different places, for example in the street or in the drawing room, at home or at school, in the company of friends or with strangers. We must also consider the great diversity of social etiquette which distinguishes one country from another. (5) Politeness, besides being a duty that we owe to others, is also a valuable possession for ourselves. It costs nothing, and yet may in many cases bring much profit. The great advantage of this excellence of conduct was very clearly expressed by Dr. Johnson, when he said that the difference between a well-bred and an ill-bred man is that one immediately attracts your liking, the other your dislike.

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

6. In which all areas should politeness be inculcated? (a) speech (b) speech, thought and actions (c) only actions (d) only thoughts

7. Which of the following sentences makes the

correct use of ‘trifle’, as used in the passage? (a) We shouldn’t bother him over such trifles. (b) She must not be trifled with. (b) I want to have trifles in dessert (d) We will not waste our life in trifle.

8. What is politeness for us? (1) duty (2) right (3) obligation (4) valuable possession (a) Option (1) only (b) Options (1) and (2) (c) Options (1) and (4) (d) Options (2) and (3)

9. What do you understand from this line,

‘Politeness is said to be one of the important characteristics of a civilised person.’? (a) Politeness is inevitable (b) Being polite is a quality of a civilized person (c) Don’t waste your time with civilized people (d) Try to be civilized

10. Choose the option that correctly states the meaning of ‘well-bred’ as implied in the passage: (a) ill-bred (b) refined (c) excellence (d) profit

III. Read the passage given below and answer

the questions that follow: (1) Cricket is a passion for people around the globe. It is played everywhere from test match arenas to village greens, tropical beaches, and dusty backlots. Cricket is the

Mock Paper 8

world’s second most popular spectator sport after soccer. (2) The origin of cricket can be traced back to the Dark Ages. All research concedes that the game is derived from a very old, popular, and uncomplicated pastime by which one player served up an object, be it a small piece of wood or a ball, and another hit it with a suitably fashioned club. The game of cricket was first recorded in 16th century England, and it was played in grammar schools, farming communities, and everywhere in between. But things really took off when 18th century nobles realised it was a great sport. (3) The oldest surviving set of cricket laws dates to 1744, which was printed on a handkerchief. Naturally, it’s now in the MCC Museum at Lord’s in London. The oldest permanent fixture is the annual Eton vs Harrow match, played since 1805. A young Lord Byron turned out for Harrow in the first match, though history doesn’t record how poetic — or “mad, bad, and dangerous” — his bowling was. (4) The first international match was held in 1877 when Australia beat England in Melbourne. The match was dubbed a ‘Test’, since the gruelling nature of playing over five days was deemed the ultimate test for any side. However, it was Australia’s first win on the English soil — in 1882 at The Oval in London — that led to matches between the two nations being christened as the ‘Ashes’. Following the defeat, newspapers published an obituary mourning “the death of English cricket,” adding that “the body will be cremated and the ashes taken to Australia.” (5) A One Day International (ODI) is a form of limited overs cricket, played between two teams with international status, in which each team faces a fixed number of overs, usually 50. The Cricket World Cup is played in this format. The international one-day game is a late twentieth-century development. The first ODI was played on 5 January, 1971 between Australia and England at the Melbourne Cricket Ground.

Page 101

Year

Winner

2023

Australia

India

2019

England

New Zealand

2015

Australia

New Zealand

2011

India

Sri Lanka

2007

Australia

Sri Lanka

2003

Australia

India

1999

Australia

Pakistan

1996

Sri Lanka

Australia

1992

Pakistan

England

1987

Australia

England

1983

India

West Indies

1979

West Indies

England

1975

West Indies

Australia

11. The oldest set of cricket laws can be found in: (a) at Lords (c) at the Oval

(b) in Melbourne (d) in Sydney

12. How many overs are there in the One Day International (ODI) games? (a) 20 overs (b) 40 overs (c) 50 overs (d) 60 overs

13. India won its first world cup in which of the following years? (a) 1893 (c) 2011

Runner-up

(b) 1983 (d) 2003

14. The matches between Australia and England were titled the ‘Ashes’ followed by:

(a) an obituary in a newspaper read that the ashes of the English cricket would be taken to Australia. (b) ash blowing into the air. (c) another match played on a cremation day. (d) England’s second defeat to Australia.

15. India beat which country to be the winner of the World Cup 2011? (a) Sri Lanka

(b) Australia

(c) Pakistan

(d) New Zealand

GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY 16. Select the option with the closest meaning to the underlined word: She is a patron of art and culture. (a) entrepreneur (b) admirer (c) critique (d) backer

17. Choose the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word: Spring is a time of plenty. (a) ugliness (b) scarcity (c) roughness (d) dryness

18. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: PERSIST (a) Continue (c) Halt

(b) Cease (d) Forget

19. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: COGENT (a) Convincing (c) Ineffective

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20. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word:

TEMPORARY (a) Transitory

(b) Lasting

(c) Interim

(d) Momentary

21. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer:

(1) Othello is a short story written by William Shakespeare. (2) It belongs to the category of tragedy. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

22. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer:

(b) Weak (d) Pathetic

(1) Macbeth is a play written by Jane Austen.

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

(2) It highlights the destruction wrought when ambition goes unchecked by moral constraints. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

27. Select the word from the given options, you

23. Read the two sentences given below and

28. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the

choose the correct answer: (1) The word ‘dissemination’ means to hide information. (2) ‘Circulation’ is a synonym of ‘dissemination’. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

24. Match the words listed in column (A) with their respective meanings in column (B). Column (A)

Column (B)

(A) Fascinating

(1) to talk in foolish way

(B) Devoured

(2) extremely interesting

(C) Drivel

(3) sharply or shortly

(D) Curtly

(4) to eat up greedily or hastily

(a) (A)-(3), (B)-(1), (C)-(2), (D)-(4) (b) (A)-(1), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(2) (c) (A)-(2), (B)-(4), (C)-(1), (D)-(3) (d) (A)-(2), (B)-(3), (C)-(2), (D)-(1)

25. Match the words listed in column (A) with their respective meanings in column (B). Column (A)

Column (B)

(A) Befitted

(1) charity

(B) Alms

(2) die

(C) Wandered

(3) apt

(D) Decay

(4) stroll

(a) (A)-(2), (B)-(4), (C)-(1), (D)-(3) (b) (A)-(3), (B)-(1), (C)-(4), (D)-(2) (c) (A)-(1), (B)-(2), (C)-(3), (D)-(4) (d) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(1), (D)-(3)

26. Select the word from the given options, you consider most appropriate for the blank space: The car was damaged beyond repair in the .................. accident. (a) outrageous (b) ghastly (c) monstrous (d) heinous

Mock Paper 8

consider most appropriate for the blank space: They gave a ................ dinner to celebrate the occasion, which impressed every guest. (a) austere (b) public (c) sumptuous (d) summary sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: The knocking P: were still in the house Q: for some time R: although the echoes of it S: ceased The correct sequence should be: (a) SRPQ (b) SQRP (c) PQSR (d) RSPQ

29. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: The history of mankind is P: and steady progress Q: continuous change R: the history of S: from barbarism to refinement The correct sequence should be: (a) PQRS (b) RQPS (c) QSPR (d) SQRP

30. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: Be over the hill (a) To be on a mountain top (b) To travel in the jungle (c) To be too old to do things (d) To do something in the most complete way

31. Choose the most appropriate option to

identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: Bite your tongue (a) To stop yourself from saying something because it would be better not to (b) To bite off your tongue while eating (c) To feel sorry (d) To ask someone something that you want

32. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase:

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37. Choose the part of the following sentence

Turn a blind eye

that contains an error:

(a) To run away (b) To begin to behave in a more positive manner (c) To change a situation (d) To choose to ignore behaviour that you know is wrong

33. Choose the most suitable substitution of the underlined part of the sentence from the given options: If he had listening to me he would not have got lost. (a) listened me

(b) listened to me

(c) listen me

(d) No improvement

34. Select the correctly punctuated sentence. (a) The conference was attended by delegates from Paris, France; Paris, Texas; London, UK; Stockholm, Sweden; Colombo, Sri Lanka; and Mumbai, India. (b) The conference was attended by delegates from Paris, France, Paris, Texas, London, UK; Stockholm, Sweden, Colombo, Sri Lanka, and Mumbai, India. (c) The conference was attended by delegates from Paris; France; Paris; Texas; London; UK; Stockholm; Sweden; Colombo; Sri Lanka; and Mumbai,; India. (d) The conference was attended by delegates: from Paris, France; Paris, Texas; London, UK; Stockholm, Sweden; Colombo, Sri Lanka; and Mumbai, India.

35. Select the correctly punctuated sentence. (a) It could lead to the kind of good life, both spiritual and material, that was once the privilege of a lucky few: (b) It could lead to the kind of good life, both spiritual and material, that was once the privilege of a lucky few. (c) It, could lead to the kind of good life; both spiritual and material; that was once the privilege of a lucky few: (d) It could lead- to the kind of good life, both spiritual and material- that was once the privilege of a lucky few:

36. Choose the appropriate preposition to fill in the blank:

After having tea, he settled himself ........... his arm chair. (a) on

(b) in

(c) over

(d) into

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There is only one of his novels that are interesting. (a) There is (b) only of his novels (c) that are interesting (d) No error

38. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: Movies made in P: all around the globe Q: Hollywood in America R: by people S: are seen at the same time The correct sequence should be: (a) QSRP (b) QRPS (c) PSRQ (d) QPSR

39. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: P: Q: R: S:

it is a fact that rice is one of the most than almost any other crop yielding a greater return per acre prolific of food crops

The correct sequence should be: (a) SRQP (b) RPSQ (c) QRSP (d) PSRQ

40. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word:

INVALID (a) healthy (c) sound

(b) weak (d) deteriorating

41. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given word:

BARBARIC (a) More civilised and more violent (b) Crude and very deceptive (c) Extremely cruel and violent (d) Uncivilised and very foolish

42. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase:

A match made in heaven (a) a marriage that is solemnized formally (b) a marriage that is unsuccessful (c) a marriage that is likely to be happy and successful (d) a marriage of convenience

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

43. Choose the most appropriate option to identify

the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: A bird in the hand is worth two in the bush. (a) People with similar interests and tastes tend to group. (b) It is better to accept the little we have than reject it hoping to get a lot later. (c) Plans must not be altered at the wrong time. (d) Do not give a precious thing to someone who cannot value it.

44. Choose the appropriate word to fill in the

blank: The old man could not remember where he................his money. (a) deposits (b) is depositing (c) had deposited (d) will deposit

45. Change the given sentence of active voice into

passive voice. Select the appropriate option. The boys were digging a hole in the ground by the boys. (a) A hole had been dug in the ground by the boys. (b) In the ground, the boys dug a hole. (c) A hole in the ground has been dug by the boys. (d) A hole was being dug by the boys in the ground.

46. Choose the appropriate preposition to fill in the blank: Good sleep is necessary ........... good health. (a) of (b) for (c) at (d) from

47. Choose the most suitable substitution of the underlined part of the sentence from the given options: She is certain the right person for the job. (a) She is certain to be (b) She is most certain to be (c) She is certainly (d) No improvement

48. Choose the most suitable substitution of the underlined part of the sentence from the given options:

Last Monday, she took me to the good restaurant. (a) a good restaurant

(b) good restaurant

(c) good a restaurant

(d) No improvement

49. Fill in the blank with appropriate article. She is ............... honour to her profession. (a) the

(b) a

(c) an

(d) no article

50. Choose the most suitable substitution of the underlined part of the sentence from the given options:

Between Ram and his brother, Ram is the stronger and intelligent. (a) Ram is the strongest and the most intelligent (b) Ram is stronger and more intelligent (c) Ram is stronger and intelligent (d) No improvement

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Mock Papers

Mock Paper 8

Page 105

9

Section - 1A

CUET (UG)-2024 MOCK PAPER SELF-ASSESSMENT

ENGLISH Time Allowed: 45 Minutes

Maximum Marks: 200

General Instructions: Same instructions as given in the Mock Paper 1.

READING COMPREHENSIONS I. Read the passage given below and answer

for academic purposes has changed the face of education for everyone associated with it. Let’s look at the data arising out of a recent survey that was done to ascertain the time spent on utilisation of the computer and Internet:

the questions that follow: (1) The present generation is well updated with the use of Internet and computers. The rapid development in computer technology and increase in accessibility of the Internet 70% 60% 50% 40% 30% 20% 10% 0% utilisation of computer for academic activities



everyday

utilisation of computer for personal use 2-3 days a week

(2) At present, many schools and universities have been implementing Internet-based learning, as it supplements the conventional teaching methods. The Internet provides a wide variety of references and information to academics as well as scientific researchers. Students often turn to it to do their academic assignments and projects.

How of ten do you use email? once a week

How of ten do you use the Internet for work? once a month

How of ten do you use the Internet for leisur e? never

and the differences can cause problems. The Net is a tremendous resource, but it must be used carefully and critically.

(3) However, research on the Net is very different from traditional library research,

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CUET Mock Papers English-1A

(4) According to a 2018 Academic Student e-book Experience Survey, conducted by LJ’s research department and sponsored by EBSCO, when reading for pleasure, almost 74% of the respondents said they preferred print books for leisure, whereas, 45% of respondents chose e-books rather than the printed versions, for research or assignments. (5) When asked what e-book features make them a favourite for research, the respondents were clear. Having page numbers to use in citations, topped the list (75%); followed by the ability to resize text to fit a device’s screen (67%); the ability to bookmark pages, highlight text, or take notes for later reference (60%); downloading the entire e-book (57%); and allowing content to be transferred between devices (43%) were the varied responses.

1. Pick the option that lists statements that are

NOT TRUE according to the passage. (1) Internet-based education can only complement familiar methods of education. (2) Net-based learning will replace face-toface education. (3) The resources that the net provides are a danger to the education system. (4) The current times have seen a rise in the convenience of using the Internet for academic purposes. (a) (1) and (2) (b) (3) and (4) (c) (2) and (3) (d) (1) and (4)

2. The word ‘tremendous’, as used in paragraph 3, means the same as: (a) ‘expensive’ (b) ‘renowned’ (c) ‘innovative’ (d) ‘incredible’

3. Arrange the given e-book features preferred

for research from the least favourite to the most favourite, from the following: (1) downloading the entire e-book (2) choosing page numbers in citations (3) highlighting text (4) resizing text to fit screen (a) (1), (3), (4), (2) (b) (3), (2), (1), (4) (c) (2), (4), (3), (1) (d) (4), (1), (2), (3)

4. Based on the given graphical representation

of data in the passage, choose the option that lists the statements that are TRUE with respect to the usage of email. (1) The everyday usage of email is more than the everyday usage of computer for personal use.

Mock Paper 9

(2) About 18% people use email once a week. (3) There are a smaller number of email users using it 2-3 times a week than the ones using it once a month. (4) Less than 5% of people never use the email. (a) (1) and (3) (b) (2) and (4) (c) (1) and (2) (d) (3) and (4)

5. Based on the given graphical chart, pick the

option that lists the area of zero response from respondents. (a) Never using the Internet for work and leisure (b) Daily use of the computer for academic activities (c) Writing and receiving emails once a week (d) Using the Internet for personal tasks once a month

II. Read the passage given below and answer

the questions that follow: (1) It is now being increasingly realised that sports contribute to the physical, psychological and emotional well-being of an individual. Sports play a significant role in healthy social development and interaction. It helps people learn how to set and achieve goals through discipline and hard work. It nurtures the development of decision-making and leadership abilities, while teaching people to manage both success and failure. (2) Sports today, face the pressures of modern society and new challenges. When sports events like Olympic Games, Commonwealth Games, Asian Games or those related to cricket, football, volleyball, tennis, hockey or badminton take place, millions of spectators, viewers on television, the Internet or listeners on radio become intensely engaged, even though only a select few participate. Along with emotions, a large amount of money too rides on the performance of sports persons. (3) Perhaps that is why, in this highly competitive sports environment, we quite often hear about unethical behaviour, which includes doping, abuse of food additives, physical and verbal violence, harassment, sexual abuse and trafficking of young sports persons, discrimination, exploitation, unequal opportunities, unethical sports practices, unfair means, excessive commercialisation and corruption. In this context, ethics occupy a critical place.

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(4) Ethics, morals and values are used interchangeably in everyday language, though these terms are not synonymous. The concept of ethics is technically understood as a branch of philosophy that defines what is good for the individual and society and establishes the nature of obligations, or duties, that people owe themselves and one another. But without going into the complexities of this concept, it is relevant to understand ethics as the practice of making principled choices between right and wrong: a code of conduct that guides human behaviour, norms or laws by which attitudes and actions are determined to be either “right or wrong”. (5) The fundamental problem of ethics is determining what constitutes proper conduct. It is important to figure out an answer because it defines how individuals, professionals in different fields, organisations, associations, federations and corporations choose to interact with one another.

6. “listeners

on radio become intensely engaged…….”Pick the option in which the meaning of ‘engaged’ is NOT the same as it is in the passage. (a) He was pretty engaged in reading books in the free time. (b) Sonia is getting engaged this week. (c) The mother is engaged in her new born baby these days. (d) The school engages the students in various activities during summer.

7. Based on your understanding of the passage,

choose the option that lists the correct sequence of the following descriptions: (1) Determination of the fundamental problem of ethics. (2) The reality of pressure of modern society and new challenges that sports faces today. (3) The interchangeable usage of ethics, morals and values in everyday language. (4) Realisation of the contribution of sport to the physical, psychological and emotional well-being of an individual. (a) (4), (2), (3), (1) (b) (1), (2), (3), (4) (c) (3), (1), (2), (4) (d) (1), (2), (4), (3)

8. According to the passage, the fact that

the sportspersons are using methods like harassing and limiting other candidates’ opportunities, shows that they are: (a) ethical (b) moral (c) unethical (d) righteous

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9. Pick the option showing the CORRECT use of the word ‘dope(ing)’. (a) The singer was bad at the start of the show but the way he ended it was dope. (b) His father recently got to know about his habit of doping. (c) Yesterday, she went to the dope party in the town. (d) The counselor was giving the listeners the dope advices.

10. Pick the option that correctly lists the factors which sports do not contribute to. (1) physical (2) psychological (3) emotional (4) environmental (a) (2) and (3) (b) (1) and (4) (c) (1) and (2) (d) Only (4)

III. Read the passage given below and answer

the questions that follow: (1) Deep in the heart of summer and a dystopian present, if there’s one desire that people share with each other now, it is to escape. If you are lucky enough to be able to take a vacation sometimes - and haven’t yet this year – it's best to get to it while you still can, because tomorrow’s vacation, predictably, is going to be complicated. (2) As we head into the future, artificial intelligence will grow even better at predicting exactly what sort of holidays we’d like, based on our taste, and packaging the whole experience for us. So, expect those decisions to take far less time. Within a couple of decades, we’ll just be telling our digital assistants our travel dates and companions, letting them handle the rest. It won’t all be perfectly predictable though. (3) Climate change will mean that many summer destinations will become less idyllic, leading to tourism switching to new places. The deepening climate crisis will also lead to various regions becoming more dangerous in terms of hurricanes and tsunami risks. Heading further into the future, we are also going to see a few travel experiences disappear because of the damage we are doing to the environment. Visit coral reef and go on a safari as soon as possible - if those are on your bucket list - those plants and animals might not be there for much longer. New experiences will arrive, on the other hand – giant malls in the Middle East are already providing experiences from skiing to diving indoors. (4) Another inevitable prospect is regulation. Most major tourist hubs are already groaning under the influx of thousands of holidaymakers, so expect higher tourist

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

taxes, or even limits on the number of tourists allowed. After all, we live in a time where even Mount Everest is overcrowded with tourists! There’s also likely to be political instability worldwide, of course, but you will have to look beyond travel. AI will keep track of that. Plane travel might not get significantly faster, but airlines will deploy lower- carbon-footprint technology, airport check-ins will turn biometric to more invasive, but more efficient, they’ll claim – and luggage will get smarter and more difficult to lose despite airlines’ best efforts. You will have more stay optionspost Airbnb home-renting experiences, social travel companies and new tools for interfacing between tourists and locals.

11. Author’s suggestion to take a vacation while one still can, is intended to: (a) create awareness environmental changes (b) criticize the readers (c) elope the readers (d) complicit the readers

about

the

12. “…leading to tourism switching to new

places.” Pick the option in which the meaning of ‘switching’ is NOT the same as it is in the passage. (a) The organization is switching the supply of goods to new customers to increase its sales. (b) A couple of farmers are switching from inorganic farming to organic farming in order to reduce soil erosion. (c) Switching off the unnecessary electronic items would save the electricity and lower the expenses. (d) Many UN Women conventions are switching their campaigns from gender equality to gender equity.

13. Based on your understanding of the passage,

choose the option that lists the correct sequence of the information delivered in the passage about the future of tourism. (1) Climate change will affect a lot of summer destinations due to environmental risks. (2) The increase in the number of tourists will expect an increase in the tourist’s taxes and tourism regulations. (3) People desire to escape from their everyday lives and go for a vacation. (4) In future, artificial intelligence will take over the task of predicting, packaging and handling the vacations for people. (5) However, there would be new experiences with coming up of manmade tourist spots. (a) (4), (3), (5), (1), (2) (b) (3), (4), (1), (5), (2) (c) (4), (3), (1), (5), (2) (d) (3), (4), (5), (1), (2)

14. Pick the option showing the CORRECT use of

the word ‘inevitable’: (a) Mistakes are inevitable. (b) It is important to inevitable the burdens of life. (c) He met inevitable to his demise. (d) Shift in the work does not inevitable the success.

15. Pick the option that CORRECTLY lists the

final feelings of the author in association with the future of tourism: (1) Disappoint (2) Acceptance (3) Sad (4) Desire (5) Hopeful (a) (1) and (4) (b) (2) and (3) (c) (1) and (3) (d) (2) and (5)

GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY 16. Select the option with the closest meaning to the underlined word:

She undertook a reconnaissance of the entire issue. (a) re-evaluation

(b) ratification

(c) investigation

(d) regularisation

17. Choose the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word: She is a rather crooked woman. (a) polite

(b) generous

(c) straightforward (d) happy

Mock Paper 9

18. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: PHILANTHROPIST (a) humanitarian

(b) philosopher

(c) humanist

(d) misanthropist

19. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: IMPOVERISHED (a) spendthrift

(b) generous

(c) wealthy

(d) penniless

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20. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word:

BLOATED (a) Swollen (c) Turgid

(b) Deflated (d) Arrogant

21. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer: (1) Onomatopoeia is a poetic device that represents the sound of a thing or activity. (2) ‘Splassshhh’ is onomatopoeia. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

22. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer:

(1) Imperative sentences are the ones that issue an order or make a request. (2) “Will you be available tomorrow?” is an imperative sentence. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

23. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer:

(1) ‘Make hay while the sun shines’ is an idiom. (2) ‘It takes two to tango’ is a proverb. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

24. Match the words listed in column (A) with their respective meanings in column (B). Column (A)

Column (B)

(A) Twitch

(1) madman, insensible

(B) Lunatic

(2) nomad, hippie

(C) Reckon

(3) spasm, jerk

(D) Gypsy

(4) estimate, judge

(a) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(3), (D)-(1) (b) (A)-(3), (B)-(1), (C)-(4), (D)-(2) (c) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(1), (D)-(3) (d) (A)-(2), (B)-(1), (C)-(4), (D)-(3)

25. Match the words listed in column (A) with their respective meanings in column (B).

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Column (A)

Column (B)

(A) Accustomed

(1) quibbler, quarrelsome

(B) Pettifogger

(2) normal, customary

(C) Milksop

(3) pedigree, pureblooded

(D) Thoroughbred (4) coward, crybaby (a) (A)-(2), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(1) (b) (A)-(1), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(2) (c) (A)-(2), (B)-(1), (C)-(4), (D)-(3) (d) (A)-(2), (B)-(3), (C)-(2), (D)-(1)

26. Select the word from the given options, you consider most appropriate for the blank space: My house is insured ................. theft and fire. (a) for (b) against (c) in (d) towards

27. Select the option from the following, you consider most appropriate for the blank space: Years ............... since I saw her last. (a) have passed (b) had passed (c) had been passing (d) have been passing

28. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: The spirit of man P: has slowly and painfully surmounted Q: and his growing intelligence R: all the obstacles that have come in his way S: has faced all kinds of dangers The correct sequence should be: (a) QPSR (b) RPSQ (c) RPQS (d) PRQS

29. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the

sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: After our school boys had won a wellcontested hockey match P: so that they might communicate the news of their victory to the headmaster Q: who is a keen sportsman R: they came to school in high spirits S: and takes a very lively interest in school games The correct sequence should be: (a) QPSR (b) SQPR (c) RPQS (d) RPSQ

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

30. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase:

Yellow journalism (a) Paid storytelling (b) Government reports published on yellow coloured papers (c) Writings in newspapers that try to influence people's opinion by using strong language and false information (d) Journalism which agrees completely with the policies of the governments and capitalists

31. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase:

To be in seventh heaven (a) To fly in the air (b) To be extremely happy (c) To be completely alone (d) To visit a place which is in the list of the seven wonders of the world

32. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase:

A dark horse (a) a black coloured horse (b) a person who wins a race or competition although no one expected him to (c) a person who keeps secrets (d) an ignorant person

33. Choose the most suitable substitution of the underlined part of the sentence from the given options:

He asked for a bank loan also he didn't have sufficient resources, (a) because (b) even if (c) requiring (d) No improvement

34. Select the correctly punctuated sentence. (a) “You see, she can't forget, sir!” (b) “You see, she cant forget, sir.” (c) “You see, she can't forget, sir.” (d) “You see-she can't forget-sir!”

35. Select the correctly punctuated sentence. (a) By Heaven, I've done it at last. (b) By Heaven, I've done it at last! (c) By Heaven; I've done it at last. (d) By Heaven- I've done it at last?

36. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence:

Mock Paper 9

The principal said that: P: those students Q: would not be permitted to enter R: who do not produce S: identity cards The correct sequence should be: (a) RSPQ (b) RPSQ (c) PRSQ (d) RPSQ

37. Choose the most suitable substitution of the underlined part of the sentence from the given options: He became to be strong and reliable. (a) to be strongly and reliably (b) to be strong, reliably (c) strong and reliable (d) No improvement

38. Choose the part of the following sentence

that contains an error: Neither of the two boys is sensible enough to do this job. (a) Neither of the two boys (b) is sensible enough (c) to do this job (d) No error

39. Choose the appropriate preposition to fill in

the blank: There was no agreement ........... the great powers ........... a treaty to ban nuclear weapons. (a) between; about (b) among; on (c) in; for (d) with; about

40. Choose the appropriate word to fill in the blank: God ........... we shall win the match. (a) willing (b) will (c) would (d) should

41. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: P: or just one of you Q: I will not have breathed in vain today R: If I have made all of you S: repent of this career and seek a decent work The correct sequence should be: (a) PRSQ (b) RPSQ (c) SQPR (d) PQRS

42. Fill in the blanks with appropriate articles. Do you know ....... way to .......railway station? (a) the, the (b) an, a (c) a, the (d) were, the

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43. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word:

REMORSE (a) Regret (c) Repetition

(b) Rebuke (d) Punishment

47. Choose the appropriate preposition to fill in

44. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word:

DIMINISH (a) increase (c) introduce

(c) Nothing can go on forever as all things change. (d) A satisfactory conclusion makes up for earlier disappointments.

(b) improve (d) decrease

45. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase:

Cook the books (a) to record false information in the accounts of an organization (b) to do something that spoils someone's plan (c) to tell a story (d) to be very angry

46. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase:

All's well that ends well. (a) Steady progress is better in the long run than inconsistent speed. (b) Everything that is attractive on the outside may not be really valuable inside.

the blank: The thunder was accompanied ........... heavy rains. (a) with (b) by (c) up (d) through

48. Choose the correct question tag for the following sentence: I am innocent, .................. (a) ain't I? (b) isn't I? (c) wasn't I? (d) am I?

49. Choose the correct question tag for the following sentence: She will never give up, .................... (a) will she? (b) won't she? (c) does she? (d) is she?

50. Choose the most suitable substitution of the underlined part of the sentence from the given options: I watch English films occasionally, not frequently. (a) occasional, not frequently (b) occasional, not frequent (c) occasionally, not frequent (d) No improvement

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Mock Papers

Page 112

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

Section - 1A

CUET (UG)-2024 MOCK PAPER

10

SELF-ASSESSMENT

ENGLISH Time Allowed: 45 Minutes

Maximum Marks: 200

General Instructions: Same instructions as given in the Mock Paper 1.

READING COMPREHENSIONS I. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: (1) Dealing with nervousness can sometimes be a difficult thing to do. When you feel nervous, you tend to lose control to some extent. You can start to shake and tremble a bit or you can start to sweat and even get a bit dizzy. It may seem like a bad thing but this feeling that you experience is your body’s way of telling you something. Nervousness is a signal to your mind that you need to get ready. It can sometimes be mixed with the feeling of excitement as well. (2) There are many situations that can cause a person to feel nervous. It can be a situation where you are about to make a speech, appear for an interview or take an exam. All of these things can bring out the feeling of anxiety. It can make you stumble on your words. It can cause you to make a fool out of yourself in public. It can freeze you up. It can even cause you to turn around and go back the path from where you came. (3) However, there are ways and means by which you can learn to control nervousness and use it to your advantage. The first thing you need to do is understand the reason for your nervousness. Most of the times when you get anxious, it means that you aren’t as prepared as you think you should be. Often when it’s our first time doing something that is outside of our

Mock Paper 10

comfort zone, we will feel a bit nervous but after we have done it over and over, we feel more confident about it. In other words, in order to feel less nervous about whatever is causing you to feel that feeling of nervousness, you need more practice. There is a difference between feeling nervous because you aren’t prepared and feeling excited because you’re anxious to show what you can do. (4) We often get nervous because we are afraid of what others might think of us. You don’t have to worry about that because more often than not, people are too concerned with their own selves to focus on your faults. According to a study conducted on Americans, most of the people are afraid of ‘public speaking’. (5) What are you so afraid of? The problem is that we are our own worst critics. American psychologist William James believes, “Human beings by changing the inner attitudes of their minds, can change the outer aspects of their lives.” Visualise yourself doing a great job. Visualise yourself getting the results you want. Visualise receiving praise and appreciation. Visualisation and affirmations have the power of bringing about a positive change in your thought patterns. Nervousness is something that can be dealt with practice as well as realising that

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life is too short to spend too much time worrying. If you want to do a good job,

be prepared, think positive and practice as much as you can.

PUBLIC SPEAKING HEIGHTS BUGS, SNAKES, OTHER ANIMALS DROWNING BLOOD/NEEDLES CLAUSTROPHOBIA FLYING STRANGERS ZOMBIES DARKNESS CLOWNS GHOSTS 0%

5

1. According to the passage, one of the reasons for feeling nervous is the: (a) having an extrovert nature (b) lack of physical strength in a person (c) problem of mood swings (d) lack of mental strength

2. Pick the option that lists the statements that

are NOT TRUE according to the passage. (1) There is only a single situation that can cause a person to feel nervous. (2) The problem that makes us nervous is the fact that we are our own worst critics. (3) Most of the people are afraid of ‘height’ according to a study conducted on Americans. (4) Nervousness is normal and it can happen while any important activity. (a) (1) and (2) (b) (2) and (4) (c) (1) and (3) (d) (3) and (4)

3. The word ‘stumble’, as used in paragraph (2), means the same as: (a) Fall (b) Stammer (c) Skip (d) Misspell

4. “The problem is that we are our own worst critics…..” The idea of being own worst critics, is mainly a reference to (a) self-criticism (b) self-analyses (c) self-confidence (d) self-interrogation

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10

15

20

25

5. Based on the given graphical representation

of data in the passage, choose the option that lists the statements that are TRUE with respect to the fears of the Americans. (1) Heights are the second most feared things for Americans. (2) Claustrophobia is the only phobia that makes it to the list of top fears. (3) 20% of the Americans are afraid of flying. (4) Same per cent of the Americans fear ghosts and drowning. (a) (1) and (4) (b) (1) and (2) (c) (3) and (4) (d) (2) and (4)

II. Read the passage given below and answer

the questions that follow: (1) It is popularly believed that wireless technology was created in the year 1880, when Alexander Graham Bell and Charles Sumner Tainter invented the telephone. In that moment they changed the very course of human civilisation. Today you would be hard-pressed to find an adult (or even a child) who does not have access to mobile technology. (2) Wireless communication is the transfer of information or power between two or more points that are not connected by an electrical conductor. The most common wireless technologies use radio waves. With radio waves, distances can be short,

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

such as a few metres for Bluetooth, or as far as millions of kilometres for deep-space radio communications. It encompasses various types of fixed, mobile, and portable applications, including two-way radios, cellular telephones, personal digital assistants (PDAs), and wireless networking. In fact, all our Wi-Fi devices also emit radio waves. (3) Wireless networks are gaining popularity due to their convenience. This ease of connectivity comes at a price. On-going research has identified that signals from a wireless network are potentially dangerous to humans. The constant proximity to wireless signals can cause headaches, insomnia, cardiac arrest and other health issues. Researchers have established that Wi-Fi network signals predominantly affect the lower half of the human body and can trigger liver and pancreatic cancer. (4) In 2011, the World Health Organisation’s International Agency for Research on Cancer classified wireless radiations from cell phones, baby monitors, tablets, cell towers, radar, Wi-Fi etc. as Class 2B carcinogens. This Class 2B carcinogen classification applies to appliances with an operating frequency ranging from 30 kHz to 300 GHz. This means all this while, as we were scrolling through online entertainment, we have been sitting on a ticking time bomb.

(5) With the rapid growth of mobile phone

devices in the market, technology has developed in such a way that it has ended up creating a horrifying situation for the human body. The normal biological systems of the human body have not developed in any way to adapt to or protect against harmful radio waves. (6) This has led to a rise in serious ailments such as diseases of brain like cancer, brain tumor, Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease and so on. Not to forget the shortterm effects like hormone disruption, loss of concentration, impairment of cognitive function, behavioural problems, attention deficit; and long-term effects like DNA damage, male infertility. (7) For children, the wireless devices have even more grave consequences because they have thinner bony skulls, more aqueous bodies/brains, higher rate of cell turnover and, hence their neural systems are not completely developed. Beyond physical impairments, children are also vulnerable to stunted socio-emotional, cognitive and behavioural development.

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(8) Given the ubiquity of technology in today’s society and the importance of this issue for policy and practice, it is essential to understand the impacts of technology use on the developing brains and bodies of children in the 21st century in order to guide policy delineating safe and effective use. Parents and guardians should be discerning when it comes to guidelines and research, while governments and groups with policy influence should be cautious of prescribing policy without exploring the evidence base in a holistic and thorough manner. (9) International exposure guidelines have been developed to provide protection against established effects from radio frequency fields by the International Commission on Non-Ionizing Radiation Protection (ICNIRP, 1998) and the Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE, 2005). It is up to national authorities to adopt these international standards to protect their citizens against adverse levels of radio wave exposure. They should restrict access to areas where exposure limits may be exceeded. (10) France has banned all wireless devices, including cell phones from all public schools starting September 2018, and California Public Health is actively educating their public regarding risk of harm from wireless radiation. Even in India, several eminent scientists have begun a crusade to caution the Government against the roll-out of 5G technology-based services in the country. (11) We can make smarter choices about the way we use technology by making changes in our everyday usage patterns. For instance, adults carrying cell phones (and other wireless devices) can either turn off the device or convert device to ‘airplane mode’ when servicing or interacting with children and pregnant mothers. (12) Precautionary measures for adults include increasing the distance, duration and frequency of wireless device use; reducing multiple device use; and reducing exposure to high wireless radiation areas. By making minor modifications to our daily routines and habits, we can try and minimise the harmful effects of wireless technology.

6. When the author mentions that the invention

of wireless technology has changed the very course of human civilisation, it means that the invention has

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(a) changed the lifestyle of people (b) changed the science on which technology is created (c) created adverse health issues (d) made humans more cautious and informed beings

7. “We can make smarter choices about the

way we use technology ..................... everyday usage of patterns.” Pick the option in which the meaning of ‘patterns’ is NOT the same as it is in the passage. (a) By the time the police caught up to Sanders, they knew even more about his patterns and practices. (b) Silk scarfs in contrasting shades and embroidered patterns enhance this busy, but feminine look. (c) Over the time, female textile entrepreneurs developed certain patterns in their business plans which made them very rich. (d) The nutrition researchers studied everyday breakfast patterns of the citizens of Washington.

8. Based on your understanding of the passage,

choose the option that lists the correct sequence of the information delivered to the reader about wireless technology. (1) Such as diseases of brain like cancer, brain tumor, Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease and so on. (2) It is up to national authorities to adopt these international standards to protect their citizens against adverse levels of radio wave exposure. (3) Radio waves are the most commonly used wireless technology. (4) We can make smarter choices about the way we use technology by making changes in our everyday usage patterns. (5) The ease of connectivity is very convenient but causes health issues to humans. (6) Wireless technology was invented by Graham Bell and Sumner Tainter in the year 1880. (a) (3), (6), (5), (1), (2), (4) (b) (3), (6), (5), (1), (4), (2) (c) (6), (3), (5), (1), (4), (2) (d) (6), (3), (5), (1), (2), (4)

9. Author says that given the ubiquity of

technology in today’s society, it is essential to understand the impacts of technology on developing brains. ‘Ubiquity’ means, being (a) Somewhere (b) Rare (c) Everywhere (d) Nowhere

10. How can we make smarter choices about the way we use technology?

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(a) By banning it (b) By making changes in our everyday usage patterns (c) By adopting stringent international exposure guidelines (d) By prescribing safe government policies and practices

III . Read the passage given below and answer

the questions that follow: Looking For A New Clarity (1) The Supreme Court, this past month, provided us with a useful reminder about its worth to our constitutional democracy. Its intervention in the imbroglio over government formation in Karnataka was flawless. The hearings conducted in the early hours of the morning may have been theatrical, but the court’s ultimate decision certainly helped avert a subversion of the Constitution. Yet, much as its decision here deserves appreciation, we must be careful not to allow any ascription of credit to veil the deeper wounds that afflict it, for a litany of problems continues to strike at the court’s independence. (2) Three of these are especially salient. The first involves the rejection by the government of the collegium’s recommendation of K.M. Joseph, currently Chief Justice of the Uttarakhand High Court, for elevation to the Supreme Court. The second concerns the need for a systemic mechanism to deal with allegations of corruption in the higher judiciary. The third area of worry concerns the embroiled state of Chief Justice of India, Dipak Misra, his position as the master of the roster, and the critical question of whether such powers ought to be vested in the hands of one individual. Recurring problems: (3) At first glance, these issues might strike us as unique to the times that we live in, as examples of crises that will eventually pass. But, on closer examination, it becomes clearer that these are, in fact, recurring problems left unaddressed for decades. In trying to resolve the issues, therefore, we must ask ourselves how we got here. As A.G. Noorani recently wrote in Frontline magazine (“Crisis in Judiciary,” May 11, 2018): “We have not reached the nadir all of a sudden. The decline was long in process.” (4) In his seminal book, America’s Unwritten Constitution: The Precedents and Principles We Live By, Akhil Reed Amar points to how the written constitution often invites us to heed what’s unwritten, which in turn, he writes, “refers us back in various ways to its written counterpart. Like the Chinese symbols yin and yang, America’s written

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

Constitution and America’s unwritten Constitution form two halves of one whole, with each half gesturing toward the other.”    (Source: The Hindu)

11. According to the passage, the Supreme Court has reminded us of (a) constitutional democracy (b) democracy (c) apartheid (d) none of these

12. The third area of worry concerns

(a) Dipak Misra’s position as the master of the roster. (b) The rejection by the government of the collegium’s recommendation of K.M. Joseph. (c) The need for a systemic mechanism. (d) How to deal with allegations of corruption in the higher judiciary.

13. What did A.G. Noorani recently write in Frontline magazine?

(a) “We have not reached the nadir all of a sudden. The decline was short in process.” (b) “We have not reached the nadir all of a sudden. The decline was long in process.” (c) “We have reached the nadir all of a sudden. The decline was long in process.” (d) “We have not reached the nadir all of a sudden. The rise was long in process.”

14. Who is the writer of the book ‘America’s

Unwritten Constitution: The Precedents and Principles We Live By’? (a) Akhil Reed Amar (b) Akhil Reed (c) Amar Reed Akhil (d) None of these

15. The first problem involves .......................... . (a) the acceptance by the government (b) the rejection by the government (c) the approval by the government (d) none of the above

GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY 16. Select the option with the closest meaning to the underlined word: My daughter is my replica. (a) pride (b) clone (c) love (d) original

17. Choose the option that is opposite in

meaning to the underlined word: He wrote an incisive article on corruption in politics. (a) vague (b) penetrating (c) trenchant (d) precise

18. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: MULTITUDE (a) Scarcity (c) Mass

(b) Minority (d) Radiant

19. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: JADED (a) Restorative (c) Gay

(b) Thrilled (d) Tired

20. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: CRUCIAL (a) Trivial (c) Stable

event

22. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer: (1) Charles Dickens was a great writer of the Victorian Era. (2) One of his great works is ‘Oliver Twist’. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

23. Read the two sentences given below and choose the correct answer: (1) The word ‘panoramic’ means a keyhole view. (2) ‘Extensive’ is the antonym of ‘panoramic’. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

24. Match the words listed in column (A) with their respective meanings in column (B).

(b) Urgent (d) Essential

21. Read the two sentences given below and

choose the correct answer: (1) ‘Rhea didn’t told me that she was going on a vacation’ is a correct sentence.

Mock Paper 10

(2) ‘Abhay will not go to the tomorrow’ is a correct sentence. (a) Option (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) Option (2) is true but (1) is false. (c) Both options (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both options (1) and (2) are false.

Column (A)

Column (B)

(A) Hastened

(1) shaking, trembling

(B) Tottering

(2) hurry, rush

(C) Distraught

(3) thrust, push

(D) Jostling

(4) fraught, distressed

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(a) (A)-(2), (B)-(1), (C)-(4), (D)-(3) (b) (A)-(3), (B)-(2), (C)-(4), (D)-(1) (c) (A)-(1), (B)-(2), (C)-(3), (D)-(4) (d) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(1), (D)-(3)

25. Match the words listed in column (A) with their respective meanings in column (B). Column (A)

Column (B)

(A) Flattery

(1) humility

(B) Modesty

(2) vacant

(C) Deserted

(3) slithering

(D) Crept

(4) fawning

(a) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(3), (D)-(1) (b) (A)-(4), (B)-(1), (C)-(2), (D)-(3) (c) (A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(1), (D)-(3) (d) (A)-(2), (B)-(1), (C)-(4), (D)-(3)

26. Select the word from the given options, you consider most appropriate for the blank space: You have never ............ me about your experiences in America. (a) said (b) told (c) explained (d) spoken

27. Select the word from the given options, you consider most appropriate for the blank space: I always felt hungry .............. I heard the dinner bell. (a) as much as (b) as well as (c) as soon as (d) as close as

28. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: Scientists point out P: of sunspot activity Q: that it is an aftermath that R: has now reached its peak S: of the eleven-year cycle The correct sequence should be: (a) RSPQ (b) PQSR (c) QRPS (d) QSPR

29. Re-arrange the jumbled parts of the

sentence and choose the correct option to identify the right sequence: As the ship streams from San Diego P: as walls of gray water from a distant storm in the North Pacific Q: making the greener among us miserable with sea sickness R: rock and toss the ship S: those of us aboard have a personal demonstration of powerful ocean movement

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The correct sequence should be: (a) PQRS (b) SRPQ (c) SPRQ (d) QSRP

30. Choose the most appropriate option to identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: A show-stopper (a) someone who stops the show (b) someone who organizes the show (c) a performance that is extremely good (d) a fashionable person

31. Choose the most appropriate option to

identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: A jack of all trades (a) a person who has skills in various fields and has the capability to fix almost everything (b) a confident and not very serious young man (c) someone who has hit the jackpot (d) a great businessman

32. Choose the most appropriate option to

identify the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase: Fight tooth and nail (a) to quarrel with someone (b) to attack someone with a lot of force (c) to try hard to prevent something from happening (d) to try very hard to achieve something

33. Choose the most suitable substitution of the underlined part of the sentence from the given options: The couple seemed to love one another very much. (a) every other (b) each (c) each other (d) No improvement

34. Select the correctly punctuated sentence:

what a large melon I think I must buy it what do you ask for it my boy said he (a) What a large melon? I think I must buy it. What do you ask for it? My boy! said he. (b) “What a large melon? I think I must buy it. What do you ask for it, my boy?” said he. (c) “What a large melon! I think I must buy it? What do you ask for it, my boy? said he. (d) “What a large melon! I think I must buy it. What do you ask for it, my boy?” said he.

35. Select the correctly punctuated sentence:

In the old persian stories turan the land of darkness is opposed to iran the land of light (a) In the old Persian stories turan, the land of darkness, is opposed to iran, the land of light.

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

(b) In the old Persian stories. Turan, the land of darkness, is opposed to Iran, the land of light (c) In the old Persian stories, Turan, the land of darkness, is opposed to Iran, the land of light (d) In the old Persian stories Turan, the land of darkness, is opposed to Iran, the land of light

36. In the following question choose the correct form of verb as your answer. Hawk is a ........... bird. (a) hunting (b) hunt (c) hunted (d) none

42. Fill in the blank choosing the appropriate article. She is ....... honour to her profession. (a) the (b) a (c) an (d) no article

43. Choose the most appropriate preposition. He resembles ........... his mother. (a) with (b) in (c) at (d) none of these

44. Choose the correct question tag for the following sentence: She will never give up, .................... (a) won't she? (b) will she? (c) wouldn't she? (d) should she?

37. Choose the word which is opposite in

45. Choose the correct question tag for the

38. Choose the alternative which best expresses

46. In the following question choose the correct

causes

47. Choose the part of the following sentence

meaning of the given word. ARROGANT (a) Simple (b) Timid (c) Civilized (d) Modest

the meaning of the idiom/phrase. A death blow (a) to be nearly dead (b) to be deeply afraid of death (c) to beat someone to death (d) an action or event which something to end or fail

39. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. Coming events cast their shadows before. (a) One's actions whether good or bad determine one's rewards or punishments. (b) People can arrive at the same conclusion by different means. (c) There are often early indications of future happenings. (d) A person with deficiencies finds excuses for his lack of skill.

40. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. REMORSE (a) Regret (b) Rebuke (c) Repetition (d) Punishment

41. Choose the correct degree of adjectives. (a) I'm not as intelligence as he is. (b) I'm not as intelligence as him. (c) I’m not intelligent than he. (d) I’m not intelligent than him.

following sentence: He can drop you at the next stop, ............. (a) will he? (b) can't he? (c) can he? (d) couldn't he?

form of verb as your answer. After I ............ a sound sleep, I felt fresh and rejuvenated. (a) have (b) has (c) having (d) had that contains an error: It was admitted by everybody that those have their ups and down. (a) It was admitted (b) by everybody (c) that those have their ups and downs (d) No error

48. Choose the appropriate option to fill in the blank in the given sentence. Neha is gentle, her sister ............ it. (a) should have done (b) must have done (c) should do (d) None of these

49. Choose the most suitable preposition. I am used ........... such hardships. (a) to (b) at (c) for (d) from

50. Choose the word which is opposite in meaning of the given word. MUNDANE (a) Extraordinary (b) Regular (c) Severe (d) Visionary

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Mock Papers

Mock Paper 10

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Section - 1A

CUET (UG)-2024 MOCK PAPER

11

SELF-ASSESSMENT

ENGLISH Time Allowed: 45 Minutes

Maximum Marks: 200

General Instructions: Same instructions as given in the Mock Paper 1.

READING COMPREHENSIONS

I. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

(1) Quitting smoking is extremely important ― the biggest reason is that smoking affects nearly every organ of your body. But now, you have an even more immediate reason to kick the habit – COVID-19. While the novel Coronavirus can infect anyone, smokers, in particular, are more prone to fall victim to it. It causes extensive damage to various vital organs and systems of the human body. However, the lungs continue to remain one of the most affected organs. In smokers, the lung function is already impaired, which makes it more difficult for the body to fight off the coronaviruses. Also, as per the newspaper reports “the act of smoking involves contact of fingers and lips and sharing of smoking products, which facilitates the transmission of the virus. So, even those who smoke sparingly are at risk of contracting COVID-19”. (2) While it’s crucial that everyone is saved from contracting Covid-19 in the first place, it’s equally important that we do all we can to keep our lungs healthy in order to avoid the worst effects of the pandemic. For smokers, quitting smoking is an important part of this effort. Once you quit smoking, your body begins to repair the damage, and over time, the risk of life-threatening health problems attacking you reduces dramatically.

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(3) However, for best results, this should be done in a safe and effective manner. For this, the World Health Organization (WHO) and the United States Food and Drug Administration (USFDA) have recommended using proven interventions such as Nicotine Replacement Therapy (NRT). To help smokers quit using the Nicotine Replacement Therapy, over-thecounter NRTs are easily available. And in India, Nicotex is one of the biggest brands in this category. (4) Cigarette smoking and Covid-19 may be a deadly combination. In smokers, the abovementioned health problems, coupled with COVID-19, may result in more serious health outcomes. The lung function in smokers is already impaired, and so, as a lung infection, Covid-19 aggressively attacks their lungs, making the situation worse or even resulting in a fatality. (5) As per WHO, “compared to non-smokers, patients who are smokers tend to need more intensive care and ventilation”. Also, fatality rates due to COVID-19 are higher amongst people with chronic respiratory disease. (Source: The Economic Times) (6) A cross-sectional study was conducted to evaluate whether the rate of daily smokers in patients with COVID-19 was different to that in the French population. The participants were COVID-19-infected

CUET Mock Papers English-1A

in- and outpatients in a large French university hospital between February 28, 2020 and March 30, 2020 for outpatients and from March 23, till April 9, 2020 for inpatients. The participants were interviewed on their smoking status, use of cigarette and nicotinic substitutes.

women (40.3%, median age 66 years), with a rate of daily smokers of 4.1% CI95% [2.3 - 6.9] (5.4% of men and 2.2% of women). The outpatient group was composed of 139 patients, median age 44 years: 62 men (44.6%, median age 43 years, and 77 women (55.4 %, median age 44 years). The daily smokers’ rate was 6.1 % CI95% [2.7 - 11.6] (5.1% of men and 6.8 % of women). In the French population, the daily smokers’ rate was 25.4% (28.2% of men and 22.9% of women).

(7) The findings of the study revealed that the inpatient group was composed of 340 patients, median age 66 years: 203 men (59.7%, median age 66 years) and 137

Table 1–Clinical Characteristics and Smoking Habits of COVID-19 Patients Outpatients (N = 139)

Inpatients (N = 343)

Outpatient/inpatient comparison p value

Male (N = 62)

Female (N = 77)

All

Male (N = 203)

Female (N = 137)

All

43 [32-55]

44 [32-54]

44 [32-55]

66 [55-76]

66 [56-79]

66 [55-77]