COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers [First Edition] 9789354669125

Table of contents :
Front Cover
Half Title Page
Title Page
Copyright
Preface
Acknowledgements
Only at Brihaspathi
Contents
Question Papers and Explanatory Answers
1. COMEDK 2013
2. COMEDK 2012
3. COMEDK 2011
4. COMEDK 2010
5. COMEDK 2009
6. COMEDK 2008
7. COMEDK 2007
8. COMEDK 2006
9. COMEDK 2005
10. COMEDK 2004
Back Cover

Citation preview

COMEDK Dental

Buster

Previous Years Solved Papers

COMEDK Dental

Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

The other titles in the series • AIIMS Dental Buster — Previous Years Solved Papers (2001–2012) • KCET Dental Buster — Previous Years Solved Papers (2003–2013) • AIPG Dental Buster — Previous Years Solved Papers (2001–2013) • APPG Dental Buster — Previous Years Solved Papers (2009–2013) • Dental Buster (3 Volumes) — A to Z Synopsis for MDS Entrance Exams • Last Minute Review for MDS Entrance — Your Friend at the End

COMEDK Dental

Buster Previous Years Solved Papers Jeevitha Murugesh

MDS

Coordinator, Bengaluru Branch Brihaspathi Academy Editor-in-Chief

Narendranatha Reddy P

MDS

Founder-Director Brihaspathi Academy Bengaluru

CBS Publishers & Distributors Pvt Ltd New Delhi • Bengaluru • Chennai • Kochi • Mumbai • Pune Hyderabad • Kolkata • Nagpur • Patna • Vijayawada

Disclaimer Science and technology are constantly changing fields. New research and experience broaden the scope of information and knowledge. The authors have tried their best in giving information available to them while preparing the material for this book. Although, all efforts have been made to ensure optimum accuracy of the material, yet it is quite possible some errors might have been left uncorrected. The publisher, the printer and the authors will not be held responsible for any inadvertent errors, omissions or inaccuracies. eISBN: xxxx Copyright © Authors and Publisher First eBook Edition: 2024 All rights reserved. No part of this eBook may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, or any information storage and retrieval system without permission, in writing, from the authors and the publisher. Published by Satish Kumar Jain and produced by Varun Jain for CBS Publishers & Distributors Pvt. Ltd. Corporate Office: 204 FIE, Industrial Area, Patparganj, New Delhi-110092 Ph: +91-11-49344934; Fax: +91-11-49344935; Website: www.cbspd.com; www.eduport-global.com; E-mail: [email protected] Head Office: CBS PLAZA, 4819/XI Prahlad Street, 24 Ansari Road, Daryaganj, New Delhi-110002, India. Ph: +91-11-23289259, 23266861, 23266867; Fax: 011-23243014; Website: www.cbspd.com; E-mail: [email protected]; [email protected].

Branches Bengaluru: Seema House 2975, 17th Cross, K.R. Road, Banasankari 2nd Stage, Bengaluru - 560070, Kamataka Ph: +91-80-26771678/79; Fax: +91-80-26771680; E-mail: [email protected] Chennai: No.7, Subbaraya Street Shenoy Nagar Chennai - 600030, Tamil Nadu Ph: +91-44-26680620, 26681266; E-mail: [email protected] Kochi: 36/14 Kalluvilakam, Lissie Hospital Road, Kochi - 682018, Kerala Ph: +91-484-4059061-65; Fax: +91-484-4059065; E-mail: [email protected] Mumbai: 83-C, 1st floor, Dr. E. Moses Road, Worli, Mumbai - 400018, Maharashtra Ph: +91-22-24902340 - 41; Fax: +91-22-24902342; E-mail: [email protected] Kolkata: No. 6/B, Ground Floor, Rameswar Shaw Road, Kolkata - 700014 Ph: +91-33-22891126 - 28; E-mail: [email protected]

Representatives Hyderabad Pune Nagpur Manipal Vijayawada Patna

to the parents and past and present students of Brihaspathi Academy

Preface

R

ecently the competition for COMEDK Dental entrance examination has increased more than ever. Over the years MCQs have become tougher and confusing to answer correctly. No matter a share of new questions appears every year. The importance of diligent reading from standard textbooks is very important. But it is tough to deny that every year we see a bunch of questions from the previous years’ question papers. The students, therefore, must be thorough with these questions before they attempt to solve new questions. This book presents a collection of originally appeared questions of COMEDK Dental from the year 2004–2013. The answers carry short crisp explanations in the form of tables, charts and points wherever necessary. This book is designed to aid in revision of the previous question papers. An endeavour has been made to provide 100% textbook references so that the student feels confident about each answer. Best efforts have been put into make the book student-friendly. If this goal is achieved, then it gives us an immense pleasure as this book will contribute to the success of many who are aspiring to get a MDS seat. This series is followed by: • • • • • •

AIIMS (Dental) Buster — Previous Years Solved Papers (2001–2012) KCET (Dental) Buster — Previous Years Solved Papers (2003–2013) AIPG (Dental) Buster — Previous Years Solved Papers (2001–2013) APPG (Dental) Buster — Previous Years Solved Papers (2009–2013) Dental Buster (3 Volumes) — A to Z Synopsis for MDS Entrance Exams Last Minute Review for MDS Entrance — Your Friend at the End

In this addition, we have subjected the book to meticulous proofreading in order to ensure minimal/no errors. However, any suggestions to improve the book are always welcome. Wishing You All the Best for the Examinations! Jeevitha Murugesh MDS Coordinator, Bengaluru Branch Brihaspathi Academy [email protected]

Narendranatha Reddy P MDS Editor-in-Chief Founder, Director and Chief Mentor Brihaspathi Academy Bengaluru, Hyderabad, Tirupathi, Chennai [email protected]

Acknowledgements

W

e are deeply indebted to Mr YN Arjuna, Senior Director— Publishing, Mr SK Jain, Chairman and Managing Director, CBS Publishers & Distributors, and their dedicated editorial/production teams for their magnificent support in bringing this book to its current shape. We continue to be thankful to our family members, friends, well-wishers, contributors and above all the students of Brihaspathi Academy for their continuous support. Jeevitha Murugesh Narendranatha Reddy P

Only at Brihaspathi The • • • • • • •

Dashboard Your profile Login name and last login details Inspirational/motivational pictures Notice board Displays all the available courses and its features Free tests Links to discussion forum, online payment mode, etc.

An Unique Online Test Platform that meets World Class Standards • Start from any question you wish • Mark your questions for later review • Change the answer innumerable times before you submit • Color-coded tabs for easy identification • Descending time • Warning pop up 10 minutes before you lapse the test time • Test submit warning message • Chapterwise analysis • All India level real time ranking • Read the explanatory answers as you finish test analysis • Mark the questions in the order of difficulty for last minute revision • Add your own points/notes right after the question itself • Submit your feedback on particular question.

x

COMEDK Dental Buster : Previous Years Solved Papers

Online Test Platform

Chapterwise Analysis

Only at Brihaspathi

Rankwise Analysis

Explanatory Answers and in-built Note Pad

xi

Discussion Forum

Experience in Live Free at www.brihaspathionline.com Courses Available

• Classroom Coaching — Bengaluru, Hyderabad, Tirupathi, Chennai. • Postal/Correspondence Courses — Online test series with/without study materials. • Foundation MDS Courses — Start working for your MDS goal right from 1st BDS. Enrolling for Brihaspathi is very easy. Pay online through Credit/Debit card, Net Banking, etc. India’s first coaching center with online payment facilities.

All India Help Line: +91 97422 32037

Contents Preface

vii

QUESTION PAPERS AND EXPLANATORY ANSWERS

1. COMEDK 2013

1

2. COMEDK 2012

25

3. COMEDK 2011

49

4. COMEDK 2010

72

5. COMEDK 2009

98

6. COMEDK 2008

123

7. COMEDK 2007

153

8. COMEDK 2006

182

9. COMEDK 2005

209

10. COMEDK 2004

240

COMEDK Dental

Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

Subjectwise MCQ Distribution TOTAL NUMBER OF MCQs APPEARED SUBJECT 2004

2005

2006

2007

2008

2009

2010

2011

2012

2013

Anatomy

6

7

15

6

6

4

5

5

9

7

Physiology

11

10

6

5

8

8

8

4

4

5

Biochemistry

6

6

4

4

8

5

3

4

4

7

General Pathology

1

8

3

3

5

16

9

4

5

5

Microbiology

9

4

10

5

7

5

6

5

8

4

Pharmacology

6

4

7

10

8

8

8

9

7

5

General Medicine

7

6

6

20

12

2

4

15

19

4

General Surgery

5

3

4

7

3

3

5

3

2

2

Dental Materials

8

18

12

17

13

17

14

8

15

11

DADH

7

11

6

13

10

15

12

7

3

7

Oral Pathology & Oral Medicine

20

29

23

22

19

16

22

32

22

21

Radiology

4

5

6

6

5

8

8

8

3

10

Orthodontics

12

10

12

15

12

15

9

7

12

13

Pedodontics

2

6

7

5

9

6

11

18

12

8

Community Dentistry

12

16

13

11

14

14

13

11

14

12

Prosthodontics

10

9

13

8

8

7

13

6

11

10

Periodontics

5

9

13

10

9

12

11

15

12

11

Cons & Endo

12

7

10

6

14

10

10

11

7

24

Oral Surgery

7

12

12

7

10

9

9

6

11

14

COMEDK Dental Buster : Previous Years Solved Papers

xvi

COMEDK Dental

Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

1 COMEDK 2013 4. Which of the following muscle is not a derivative of second pharyngeal arch? A. Buccinator muscle B. Stapedius C. Platysma D. Anterior belly of digastric

NOTE: COMEDK 2013 question paper has section A (151 MCQs) and section B (29 MCQs). Section A is of randomised MCQs while section B is case-based MCQs

SECTION A

5. Maxillary sinus is described as a four sided pyramid containing base, apex, roof and floor. The apex of maxillary sinus extends A. Laterally into zygomatic process of maxilla B. Medially into zygomatic process of maxilla C. Laterally into lateral nasal wall D. Superiorly into floor of orbit

HUMAN ANATOMY 1. The process of recess formation in maxillary sinus is most frequently seen with A. Zygomatic process B. Frontal process C. Alveolar process D. Palatine process 2. Following are the branches of external carotid artery except A. Facial artery B. Lingual artery C. Occipital artery D. Middle meningeal artery

6. Glossopharyngeal nerve passes through A. Foramen ovale B. Jugular foramen C. Foramen rotundum D. Foramen spinosum 7. All the following cranial nerves transmit taste sensation to the brain except A. Facial nerve B. Glossopharyngeal nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Hypoglossal nerve

3. Neural tube formation occurs on A. 18 to 23 days post fertilization and is the second stage of craniofacial development B. 28 to 38 days post fertilization and is the third stage of craniofacial development C. 42 to 55 days post fertilization and is the fourth stage of craniofacial development D. 17 th day post fertilization and is the first stage of craniofacial development

PHYSIOLOGY 8. The second heart sound is produced due to A. Closure of semilunar valves B. Closure of atrio-ventricular valves C. Ventricular filling D. Opening of semilunar valves 1

COMEDK 2013

2

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

9. Activation of which one of the following coagulation factor is not essential for hemostasis A. XII B. XIII C. IX D. X

15. A patient with hereditary fructose intolerance is deficient in which of the following enzyme A. Aldolase B B. Fructokinase C. Triokinase D. All of the above

10. Which one of the following is indicative of cardiac tamponade? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Wide pulse pressure C. Kussmaul’s sign D. Forceful apical impulse

16. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of the allosteric enzyme? A. They are multienzyme complexes B. Follow Michaelis – Menten kinetics C. Presence of Modular site D. Give sigmoid shaped curve

11. Following are the changes during accommodation except A. Constriction of pupil B. Dilatation of pupil C. Convergence of eye ball D. Increase in the anterior curvature of lens 12. Small packets of acetylcholine released randomly from the nerve cell membrane at rest produces A. End plate potential B. Miniature end plate potential C. Action potential D. Inhibitory post synaptic potential

BIOCHEMISTRY 13. The amino acid required for the synthesis of haem is A. Glutamine B. Glutamic acid C. Glycine D. Lysine 14. In a DNA molecule adenine always forms a link age with A. Guanine B. Cytosine C. Thymine D. Uracil

17. The mineral having sparing action on Vitamin E A. Chromium B. Iron C. Iodine D. Selenium 18. In prolonged starvation the main energy source of brain is A. Glucose B. Ketone bodies C. Fructose D. Fatty acids 19. The antibacterial substances present in tears which acts by splitting cell wall component is A. Penicillin B. Lysozyme C. Beta lysine D. Lactoperoxidase

GENERAL PATHOLOGY 20. The protein found in the amyloid deposits in senile systemic amyloidosis is A. AL protein B. A2 microglobulin C. A-amyloid protein D. Transthyretin

21. Multiple myeloma has been seen commonly after exposure to A. Radioactive isotopes B. Gold C. Asbestos D. Organic dyes 22. Which of these is NOT an oncogenic virus? A. Human papillomavirus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Epstein-Barr virus D. Hepatitis B virus 23. Removal of parathyroid gland produces the following changes except A. Decline plasma calcium level B. Decreases in plasma phosphate level C. Neuromuscular hyperexcitability D. Hypocalcemic tetany 24. Serum alkaline phosphatase level is elevated is A. Paget’s disease B. Infantile cortical hyperostosis C. Cleidocranial dysplasia D. Pierre robin syndrome

MICROBIOLOGY 25. The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the A. Scanning microscope B. Inverted microscope C. Dark ground microscope D. Electron microscope 26. The tissue and pus aspirate to be collected for diagnosis of Gas gangrene. It should ideally be transported using A. Buffered Glycerol saline B. Todd – Hewitt broth C. Robertson’ Cooked Meat Medium D. Hanks Balanced salt solution

27. A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 year old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of a capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is A. India ink preparation B. Methanamine silver stain C. Ziehl – Neilsen stain D. Phyte-ferraco stain 28. The efficacy of the moist heat sterilization technique commonly used to sterilize laboratory ware and culture media is tested by using A. Clostridium tetani spores B. T-Even-Bacteriophages C. Bacillus stearothermophilus spores D. Brown’s tubes

PHARMACOLOGY 29. Toxic optic neuropathy can be caused by all of the following except A. Ethambutol B. Ethylene glycol C. Ciprofloxacin D. Tetracycline 30. Patients with severe allergic reactions such as anaphylaxis requires therapy with A. Glucocorticoids B. Antihistamines C. Epinephrine D. Morphine 31. Following antimicrobials are termed as type I calcimimetics that mimic the stimulatory effect of calcium on the calcium sensing receptor to inhibit PTH secretion by the parathyroid gland except A. B. C. D.

Streptomycin Hamycin Neomycin Gentamycin

COMEDK 2013

3

COMEDK 2013

COMEDK 2013

4

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

32. Ligand for peroxisome proliferation activating receptor (PPAR) a group of nuclear hormone receptors that are involved in the regulation of genes related to glucose and lipid metabolism is A. Repaglinide B. Voglibose C. Exanatide D. Rosiglitazone 33. Pigmentation of the permanent teeth may develop if tetracyclines are given between the ages of A. 5 and 7 years B. 0.2 and 5 years C. 6 and 10 years D. 10 and 12 years

GENERAL MEDICINE 34. An individual has a fasting blood glucose concentration of 115 mg/dL on three occasions. What is your conclusion A. He is normal B. He is diabetic C. He has impaired glucose tolerance D. He needs further evaluation by other biochemical tests 35. The feature of lower motor neuron lesion is A. Hypertonia B. Hyperactive stretch reflex C. Muscular atrophy D. Abnormal plantar extensor reflex (Babinski’s sign) 36. The danger of transmitting infections to the dental team or to the other patient particularly has a threat of A. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) B. Hepatitis – B C. Tuberculosis D. All of the above

37. Normal cerebrospinal fluid glucose levels are seen in A. Pyogenic meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Fungal meningitis D. Tuberculous meningitis

GENERAL SURGERY 38. Secondary haemorrhage occurs within A. 0-24 hrs B. 48–72 hrs C. 1–2 weeks D. During surgery 39. Edge of tuberculous ulcer is A. Sloping B. Undermined C. Punched out D. Everted

DENTAL MATERIALS 40. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion of metal used for metal ceramic restoration range form A. 11.5–12.5 10– 6/°C B. 10.5–11.5 10– 6/°C C. 13.5–14.5 10– 6/°C D. 16.5–17.5 10– 6/°C 41. Identify the material used in maxillofacial prosthesis A. Polyurethane elastomers B. Polycarbonate C. Autopolymerizing acrylic resin D. Polyvinyl chloride 42. What is incorporated in porcelain during firing? A. Argon B. Helium C. Hydrogen D. Oxygen 43. The most successful materials for soft liner applications have been A. Impression plaster

B. Ethyl methacrylate C. Waxes D. Irreversible hydrocolloids 44. Hardness of fully cementum is A. Less than dentin B. More than dentin C. Equal dentin D. None of the above

mineralized

45. The volumetric shrinkage exhibited by heat polymerized denture resin polymerized mass is A. 0.07 % B. 0.7 % C. 7 % D. 70 % 46. The cement filling materials which has the most severe injurious effect on pulp is A. Copper cement B. Zinc oxyphosphate cement C. Silicate cement D. Calcium hydroxide 47. During casting procedures creation of a “Hot Spot” means A. The presence of reservoir resulting in delayed solidification of metal B. Sprue former is attached at right angle creating a localized lingering of molten metal after casting has solidified C. The length of sprue is too long resulting in ready flow of molten metal D. Use of too high temperature resulting in localized disintegration of metal 48. Which of the following is not a mouth temperature wax? A. Adaptol B. Korrecta type I C. HL physiologic paste D. Lowa wax

49. Tissue conditioning materials are A. Elastomers B. Elastopolymers C. Polymers D. Impression plaster 50. The most successful materials for soft liner applications have been A. Impression plaster B. Silicone rubbers C. Waxes D. Irreversible hydrocolloids

DADH 51. Protein making up the bulk of keratohyaline granules is stratum granulosum of keratinized epithelium is A. Involucrin B. Vinculin C. Filaggrin D. Nectin 52. The cells of the enamel organ which differentiate into future ameloblasts are A. Cells of inner enamel epithelium B. Cells of outer enamel epithelium C. Cells of stellate reticulum D. Cells of stratum intermedium 53. The embrasure in the following areas are continuous A. Labial and lingual B. Lingual and occlusal C. Incisal and occlusal D. Labial and Occlusal 54. The hard palate is covered by A. Non-keratinized mucosa B. Keratinized mucosa C. Orthokeratinized mucosa D. Para keratinized mucosa 55. Mesiolingual developmental groove is seen is A. Mandibular first premolar B. Mandibular second premolar C. Maxillary first premolar D. Maxillary second premolar

COMEDK 2013

5

COMEDK 2013

COMEDK 2013

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

6

56. Maxillary sinus is lined by which type of epithelium A. Pseudostratified, ciliated columnar mucus secreting epithelium B. Pseudostratified, ciliated columnar serous secreting epithelium C. Stratified, ciliated columnar mucus secreting epithelium D. Stratified, ciliated cuboidal serous secreting epithelium 57. Ameloblastic cells are ectodermal in origin which lay down A. B. C. D.

Enamel Dentine Cement Pulp cavity

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE 58. In a pericoronal abcess related to distoangular impacted third molar, the infection may spread to A. B. C. D.

Sub masseteric space Buccal space Sublingual space Sub mental space

59. A salivary gland tumour which histologically shows a double layer of epithelial cells based on a reactive lymphoid stroma is A. B. C. D.

Pleomorphic adenoma Mucoepidermoid carcinoma Acinic cell tumour Warthin tumour

60. Commonest tumor of parotid salivary gland is A. B. C. D.

Pleomorphic adenoma Warthin tumor Acinic cell carcinoma Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

61. A 13 year old boy presents with a large mixed lytic and blastic mass in the metaphyseal region of the lower end of femur. The most likely diagnosis is A. Ewing’s sarcoma B. Osteosarcoma C. Chondrosarcoma D. Giant cell tumour 62. Odontalgia that is occasionally typical in hypertensive patients is a results of A. Headache radiating to the teeth B. Nervous tension and worry C. Hyperaemia of pulp resulting from increased blood pressure D. Abnormal stimulation of the sympathetic nerves system 63. This condition is due to a defect in the normal keratinization of the oral mucosa A. Erythema multiforme B. White sponge nevus C. Incontinenta pigmenti D. Systemic sclerosis 64. A 25 year old male comes with a complaint of throbbing pain in the upper part of the check or entire side of face, heavy feeling in the face, which exacerbates on bending down and with associated pyrexia. The most probable diagnosis is A. Acute dento alveolar abscess in relation to upper first molar B. Irreversible pulpitis is relation to upper 2nd molar C. Acute maxillary sinusitis D. Acute periodontal abscess in relation to upper 1st molar 65. Which of the following causes exogenous pigmentation? A. Haemoglobin B. Chromogenic bacteria C. Melanin D. Hemosiderin

66. Following factors delay the wound healing except A. Vitamin C deficiency B. Infection C. Anemia D. Immobilization

73. Intra oral pleomorphic adenoma usually occurs A. Buccal mucosa B. Upper lip C. Floor of the mouth D. Palate

67. SjÖgren’s Syndrome affects A. Exocrine glands B. Paracrine glands C. Endocrine glands D. Autocrine glands

74. Implantation cyst is formed due to A. Persistence of epithelial cells after wound healing B. Excessive wound contraction C. Bursting open of wound D. All of the above

68. The granulomatous tissue that is responsible for destruction of articular surfaces of TMJ in rheumatoid arthritis is known as A. Pannus B. Pulse granuloma C. Baker’s cyst D. Immune granuloma 69. Multiple osteoma, odontomas, supernumerary teeth and impacted teeth are seen in A. Mc Cune-Albright syndrome B. Mazabraud’s syndrome C. Gardener’s syndrome D. Down’s syndrome 70. Trench mouth is caused by A. Fusiform bacillus B. Borelli vincenti C. Both A and B D. None of the above 71. Fibroma combined with glandular tissue is A. Neurofibroma B. Fibroadenoma C. Fibrolipoma D. Fibromyoma 72. Enlargement of crown at the expense of root is called A. Microdontia B. Dens evaginatus C. Taurodontism D. Dens invaginatus

ORAL RADIOLOGY 75. According to Misch Bone Density Classification D2 is A. > 1250 HOUNSFIELD UNITS B. 350–850 HOUNSFIELD UNITS C. 850–1250 HOUNSFIELD UNITS D. 150–350 HOUNSFIELD UNITS 76. To view the zygomatic arches, the following projection is very commonly used A. Lateral cephalometric projection B. Lateral oblique view of mandible C. Underexposed submentovertex view D. Overexposed submentovertex view 77. Localized view of parathyroid in hyperparathyroidism is done best with A. X ray neck B. USG neck C. I 131 scan D. Technetium 99 labelled sestamibi scan 78. Which radiographic technique is employed to correctly determine the buccal or palatal placement of impacted maxillary canine? A. SLOB or Clark’s Rule B. Paralleling technique C. Bisecting angle technique D. Right angle technique

COMEDK 2013

7

COMEDK 2013

COMEDK 2013

8

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

79. In a patient with unerupted and impacted maxillary canine the following radiographic techniques A. IOPA and PNS view B. Maxillary anterior occlusal view and IOPA C. Bitewing and occlusal view D. IOPA and occlusal view 80. Functional disorders of salivary glands are best imaged using A. Intraoral and extraoral radiographs B. Scintigraphy and sialography C. Computed tomography D. MRI 81. During an attempted extraction of upper posterior teeth, to determine the position of the roots displaced into antrum, ideal radiograph would be, A. Bitewing radiography of maxillary posteriors B. IOPA of mandibular posterior teeth C. Upper oblique occlusal radiograph D. Lateral oblique view of mandibular posterior 82. Carotid atheromas may appear radiographically as A. Nodular radio-opaque mass B. Double vertical radio-opaque lines within the neck C. Both of the above D. None of the above 83. The classic triad of single or multiple areas of ‘punched-out’ bone destruction in the skull, unilateral or bilateral exopthalmus and diabetes insipidus is seen in A. Letterer-siwe disease B. Eosinophilic granuloma C. Langerhans cell histiocytosis D. Hand-Schuller-Christian disease 84. Main objective of increasing the focal spot to film distance in paralleling technique is to A. Reduce the radiation dosage only B. Reduce the image magnification and increase sharpness and resolution

C. Reduce the image magnification and reduce sharpness and resolution D. Reduce the magnification and distortion

ORTHODONTICS 85. The choice of retention for lower incisor following orthodontic correction is A. Clip on retainer B. Spring retainer C. Tooth positioned D. Bonded canine to canine retainer 86. Which one of the following is not a feature of long standing mouth breathing habit? A. Adenoid facies B. Large nose C. Upper anterior labial gingivitis D. Frequent occurrence of tonsillitis, allergic rhinitis and otitis media 87. Adjunctive orthodontics refers to A. Corrective orthodontics in mild to moderate dental skeletal disharmony B. Mild-moderative orthodontic corrections in patients with periodontal and/or restorative needs C. Moderate-severe malocclusions which requires a combination of orthodontics and orthognathic surgery D. Orthodontics in patients with TMJ dysfunction 88. The medial confluence of stress lines on the medial surface of the ramus that represents the facial growth of surface of the mandible is known as A. Xi point B. Pm Point C. Me point D. Eva point 89. In adults seeking orthodontic treatment which esthetic appliances the following may be choices except A. Lingual orthodontics B. Ceramic brackets

C. Clear aligner therapy D. Titanium brackets 90. As a general rule in borderline crowding cases of a broad facial type A. An expansion treatment should be carried out B. Extraction therapy should be considered C. No treatment required D. Only surgical treatment required 91. Vertical malocclusions include A. Lateral deep bite B. Complex deep bite C. Gingivally supported deep bite D. Gingivally supported open bite 92. Bruxism is ________ during sleep A. Walking B. Enuresis C. Grinding of teeth D. Apnoeic episodes 93. Following the premature loss of a deciduous tooth, space closure A. Occurs predominantly from the anterior in the maxillary arch and predomi-nantly from the posterior in the mandibular arch B. Is more rapid 6 months after the loss of the tooth C. Occurs more rapidly in the maxillary arch than in the mandibular arch D. Inversely proportional to the time the deciduous tooth has been missing 94. The orthodontic diagnosis focuses on A. Full smile B. Emotional smile C. Social smile D. Gummy smile only 95. Andreason appliance is also known as A. Activator B. Bionator C. Oral screen D. Lip bumper

PEDODONTICS 96. Child of an overprotective over indulgent mother A. Shy, submissive behavior B. Evasive and dawdling behavior C. Demanding and aggressive behavior D. Stoic behavior 97. Beginning of adolescent growth in boys is with A. Pubic hair growth B. Feminine fat distribution C. Facial hair on chin and lip D. Facial hair on upper lip only 98. Learning disability is otherwise called as A. Infantile psychosis B. Minimal brain dysfunction C. Childhood schizophrenia D. Attention deficit disorder 99. Who gave the term ECC (Early Childhood Caries)? A. Davies B. Moss C. Winter D. Dilley 100. Universally used method of behavior management in pediatric dentistry for both cooperative and uncooperative children is A. Voice control B. Behavior shaping C. Implosion therapy D. Communication

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY 101. The lactobacillus count test to assess caries activity was given by A. Synder B. Jay C. Hadley D. Edelstein

COMEDK 2013

9

COMEDK 2013

COMEDK 2013

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

10

102. The strength of association between suspected cause and effect in a cohort study is measured by A. Attributable risk B. Odds ratio C. Biological risk D. Relative risk

108. Dentist participation in the delta planners paid 90th percentile where as non participating dentists are paid A. 15th percentile B. 30th percentile C. 100th percentile D. 50th percentile

103. Prevalence of disease is A. Rate B. Ratio C. Proportion D. Deviation

109. The technique used for defluoridation is ______ technique A. Knutson’s B. Brudevold’s C. Nalgonda D. Nalanda

104. The Alma-Ata declaration on ‘primary health care’ was made in the year A. 1980 B. 1978 C. 1982 D. 1977

110. The range of level of fluoride secreted by the glands into the mouth is A. 0.004–0.005 ppm B. 0.006–0.007 ppm C. 0.007–0.05 ppm D. 0.007–0.08 ppm

105. When a dentist says “I cannot fix your teeth if you do not open your mouth wide.” He is employing A. Problem ownership B. Voice control C. Tolerance D. Flexibility 106. Colour code used for segregation of infected human anatomical waste is A. Yellow B. Red C. Black D. Green 107. Specificity can be calculated as A.

True Positive True Positive + False Negative

True Positive B. True Positive + False Positive False Positive C. True Positive + True Negative D.

True Negative True Negative + False Positive

111. The assessment or measurement of the quality of care and the implementation of any necessary changes to either maintain or improve the quality of care rendered is A. Quality assessment B. Quality assurance C. Quality planning D. Guidelines 112. Soil, seed and sower is one of the principles of health education. In this principle, seed is A. Mind of the participant B. Health educator C. Health education D. Transmitting media

PROSTHODONTICS 113. The mandibular labial frenum is a fibrous band that can be influenced by A. Incisivus B. Orbicularis oris C. Caninus and incisivus D. Incisivus and orbicularis oris

114. Which of the following statement is False? A. The term ‘pear shaped’ pad was coined by craddock B. Mucosa overlying pear shaped pad is stippled C. Retromolar pad lies posterior to pear shaped pad D. Mucosa overlying pear shaped pad is not stippled 115. Rough surface of elastomeric impression results from A. Inadequate mixing B. Air bubbles C. Too rapid polymerization D. Incomplete polymerization caused by premature removal from mouth 116. The retromolar pad must be covered by the denture base because it aids in A. Retention only B. Retention and support C. Stability only D. Stability and support

PERIODONTICS 117. Approximate length of junctional epithelium is A. One mm B. Two mm C. Three mm D. Four mm 118. Following is not a mucogingival surgery to increase zone of attached gingiva A. Gingival autograft B. Connective tissue graft C. Laterally displaced flap D. Apically displaced flap 119. The most reliable index for the determining the presence of active periodontal disease is A. Halitosis B. Bleeding on probing C. Pocket formation D. Gingival formation

11

120. Interleukin – I (IL-I) gene cluster is responsible for A. Dental caries B. Periodontal diseases C. Supernumerary teeth D. Peg laterals 121. What are the cells that produce PGE2 in the Periodontium? A. Macrophages B. Fibroblasts C. Neutrophils D. A and B 122. The free gingival graft is placed on A. On the periosteum B. Bone C. Gingival D. Periodontal pocket 123. In tarnow’s technique, the method described for denuded surface is A. Semilunar coronally repositioned flap B. Split thickness coronally repositioned flap C. Free soft tissue autograft D. Subepithelial connective flap 124. Ideal thickness of a free gingival graft obtained from the palate is A. 0.5–1 mm B. 1–1.5 mm C. 1.5–2.0 mm D. 2.0–2.5 mm 125. The Lorothidol added in Non Eugenol paste has the function of A. Bacteriostatic B. Fungicide C. Accelerator D. Preservative 126. Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is A. Eosin stain B. Haemotoxin stain C. Ninhydrin stain D. Blue stain

COMEDK 2013

COMEDK 2013

COMEDK 2013

12

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

127. The following drugs induce gingival enlargement except A. Dilantin Sodium B. Cyclosporine C. Nifedepine D. Amoxicillin

CONS AND ENDO 128. Chronic hyper plastic pulpitis is a type of A. Acute irreversible pulpitis B. Chronic irreversible pulpitis C. Acute reversible pulpitis D. Chronic reversible pulpitis 129. The sugar implicated in the aetiology of dental caries is A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Maltose D. Sucrose 130. The most common site of dentin hypersensitivity is A. Incisal B. Cervical C. Proximal D. Occlusal 131. Pulp vitality test in a tooth with primary periodontal lesion will reveal pulp to be A. Vital B. Non-vital C. May be vital or non vital D. None of the above 132. Critical pH of saliva below this pH, the inorganic material of the tooth may dissolve in caries. The critical pH value is A. 6.5 B. 5.5 C. 7.5 D. 6.0 133. Direct pulp capping has a favourable prognosis if the exposure is around A. 1 mm B. 1.5 mm

C. 0.5 mm D. 2 mm 134. Demineralization of enamel occurs in the pH range of A. B. C. D.

4.0 to 4.5 5.0 to 5.5 6.0 to 6.5 7.0 to 7.5

135. According to Weine’s classification of root canal configuration a single canal from pulp chamber to apex can be A. B. C. D.

Type IV Type II Type III Type I

136. Glass ionomer cement is used as a barrier over gutta percha filling before bleaching an endodontically treated discolored tooth A. To prevent bleaching agent from dissolving the gutta-percha B. To prevent percolation of the bleaching agent into the apical area C. To prevent contamination of the bleaching agent D. To prevent discoloration of tooth from obturating materials 137. Apical third root fracture in a vital tooth are treated by A. Pulpotomy B. Periapical surgery and removal of the fragment C. Relieve from occlusion and observe D. Pulpectomy 138. In root canal treatment, the canal orifices are located by A. B. C. D.

Endodontic excavator DG–16 Endodontic explorer C+ file H–file

139. The commonly used root canal irrigant, which was used for irrigation wounds during world war I by Dakin is A. Saline B. Hydrogen peroxide C. Buffered sodium hypochlorite D. Distilled water 140. Normal intra pulpal pressure is A. 10 mm Hg B. 5 mm Hg C. 7 mm Hg D. 15 mm Hg 141. An ideal location to attach a sprue for a posterior cast restoration is A. Central fossa B. Cusp tips C. Marginal ridge D. Contact point

ORAL SURGERY An 18 years old male patient reported with chief complaint and swelling in the right lower jaw and mild difficulty in opening mouth since a week. A general examination revealed fever and increased pulse rate 142. Intra-oral examination showed signs of inflammation around the gingiva of partially impacted impacted third molar tender on palpation with opposing tooth impinging The most likely diagnosis is A. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis B. Localized aggressive periodontitis C. Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis D. Pericoronitis 143. What is microbial etiology of this condition is? A. Klebsiella B. E.Coli C. Streptococci and anaerobic bacteria D. Actinomycosis

13

144. What would be the ideal management of this case? A. Antibiotics and analgesics B. Removal of partially impacted lower molar immediately C. Irrigation, antibiotics and analgesics D. Hospitialization, irrigation, antibiotics and analgesics and immediate removal of opposing teeth 145. The ideal surgical management of this condition once the signs and symptoms subside would be A. Operculectomy B. Delaying the removal of teeth to next episode C. Removal of tooth under local anaesthesia D. No treatment 146. Battle sign in head injury indicated fracture of A. Orbital plate B. Base of skull C. Maxilla D. Mandible 147. A surgical obturator has to be inserted A. One day prior to the surgery B. On the day of the surgery C. 14 days after the surgery D. 30 days after the surgery 148. Oroantral fistula is most commonly caused by the manipulation of maxillary A. Canine B. First molar C. Second molar D. First premolar 149. Chemical cauterization for odontogenic keratocyst is done by A. 10 % Ethanol B. Hydrogen peroxide C. Carnoys solution D. 10 % formalin

COMEDK 2013

COMEDK 2013

COMEDK 2013

14

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

150. A nasal antrosomy following CaldwellLuc procedure is created A. Above the inferior turbinate B. Beneath the superior turbinate C. Above the superior turbinate D. Beneath the inferior turbinate 151. The most frequent direction in which the articular disc gets displaced is A. Anterior and lateral direction B. Posterior and lateral direction C. Anterior and medial direction D. Posterior and medial direction

CASE SCENARIO Q. 152–155 A 20 year old patient reports with multiple swellings of the jaws. Clinical examination reveals multiple hard swellings involving the jaws and intraorally several missing teeth are noticed. Panoramic radiograph reveals multiple radioopaque lesions in the maxilla and the mandible with multiple impacted teeth and supernumerary teeth, indicative of gardener’s syndrome. 152. The above mentioned condition is A. Inherited autosomal dominant disease B. Autosomal recessive disorder C. X-linked disease D. A syndrome of unknown cause 153. One of the following is also a manifestation in the above mentioned condition A. Cafe au-lait pigmentation of the skin B. Multiple epidermoid or sebaceous cyst of the skin C. Basal cell carcinoma of the skin D. Peri oral dermatitis 154. One of the following manifestations in Gardener’s syndrome has a risk of malignant transformation A. Multiple polyposis of large intestine B. Osteomas of the jaws C. Desmoids tumors of the skin D. Epidermal and trichilemmal cysts

155. Multiple impacted teeth as seen in Gardener’s syndrome may also is seen in one of the following A. Tricho-dento-osseous syndrome B. Hereditary intestinal polyposis C. Cowden’s syndrome D. Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome Q. 156–158 A 10 yr old child comes to you with exarticulation of 11 156. This condtion is called as A. Avulsion B. Intrusion C. Fracture with enemas D. Dilacerations 157. Treatment of choice for the above condition is A. Extraction B. Replantation C. Re-vascularisation D. Composite restoration 158. Choice of transport medium is A. Patients blood B. Hot water C. Milk D. None of the above Q. 159–161 A young female patient reports to the dental office will complain of small gaps between her teeth 159. The most feasible and economic treatment option for such a situation would be A. Porcelain veneers B. Porcelain jacket crown C. Orthodontic tooth movement D. Diastema closure using composite 160. Shade selection for such a treatment should be carried out under the A. Natural day light B. Fluorescent light C. After placement of rubber dam D. When the teeth are dry

15

161. If a proper placement technique is not followed, it would result in A. Tooth sensitivity B. Wear of opposing teeth C. Debonded restoration D. Healthy gingival

166. The most probable cause for the pain may be A. Occult caries B. Periodontitis C. Cracked tooth D. Maxillary sinusitis

Q. 162–165 A twenty year old female patient comes to the clinic with discoloration of the upper right central incisor. The tooth was intact and otherwise asymptomatic

167. The various other means of diagnosis such a lesion include A. Methylene blue staining B. Tooth sloth C. Transillumination D. All of the above

162. The most likely cause for the discoloration in this patient would be A. Pulp necrosis B. Dental fluorosis C. Internal resorption D. Microleakage 163. The treatment most often employed for managing discoloration in a non vital teeth is A. Microabrasion B. Walking bleach C. Over the counter bleaching D. Veneer 164. The common sequelae following bleaching non vital teeth are A. Ankylosis B. Periodontal pathology C. External cervical resorption D. Reinfection 165. Bleaching is indicated in which of the following clinical situations A. Dentin discoloration B. Teeth with discolored composites C. Tooth discoloration due to caries D. Teeth with superficial enamel discoloration Q. 166–168 A 45 years old female reports to the clinic with a history of pain with tooth 37. The tooth approved normal on clinical and radiographic examination except for the fact that pain occurs on biting on a hard object and then releasing the bite.

168. Immediate treatment of such a tooth involves A. Stabilization with orthodontic band B. Extraction C. Relief from occlusion D. Full coverage crown Q. 169–171 A 21 year old male healthy patient reported with a prognatic mandible, intraorally he has anterior crossbite and class III molar relationship, cephalometrically has an SNA of 78 degress, SNB of 89 degrees. 169. What would be the treatment of choice for the adult class III skeletal malocclusion with a prominent chin? A. Functional appliances B. Fixed orthodontic C. Functional jaw orthopedic correction D. Surgical orthodontics 170. The presurgical orthodontical procedures involves A. Le fort I osteotomy B. Bilateral sagittal osteotomy C. Caldwell luc surgery D. Ramal distraction osteogenesis 171. The surgical procedure of choice for correction of mandibular excessive prognathism is A. Le Fort I osteotomy B. Bilateral sagittal split osteotomy

COMEDK 2013

COMEDK 2013

COMEDK 2013

16

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

C. Caldwell-luc surgery D. Ramal distraction Osteogenesis Q. 172–177 A 30 year old male patient reports with the swelling at the angle of the mandible with a duration of 6 months. Radiographs showed an impacted third molar with a pericoronal radiolucency. 172. Protein content of aspirated fluid was greater than 4.0 gms per 100 ml. the lesion is likely to be A. Odontogenic keratocyst B. Dentigerous cyst C. Traumatic bone cyst D. Stafne’s bone cyst 173. Appropriate treatment option for this lesion is A. Enucleation B. Marginal mandibulectomy C. Segmental resection D. Hemimandibulectomy 174. The most likely tumour to develop from this lesion is A. Ossifying fibroma B. Ameloblastoma C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Central giant cell granuloma 175. A 25 year old male patient complains of missing 27 with no distal abutment and prefers a fixed form of prosthetic treatment. An abutment that is present only at one end of the edentulous span is called A. Cantilever abutment B. Pier abutment C. Mesially tilted abutment D. Distally

176. The optimum crown root ratio is A. 3 : 2 B. 2 : 3 C. 1 : 2 D. 2 : 1 177. Pier abutment is a A. Lone standing abutment B. Free end abutment C. Mesially tilted abutment D. Distally tilted abutment Q. 178–180 A 40 year old male patient reported to the restorative dentist with the chief complaint of missing back teeth in the upper jaw, and desired replacement of the same. On clinical examination revealed missing 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 24, 25, 26, 27 and 28. 178. What is the Kennedy’s classification for the given clinical scenario? A. Class II B. Class III C. Class VI D. Class I 179. Specific design feature to be included in the above given clinical situation is A. Broad occlusal table B. Minimal extension of denture base C. Indirect retainer D. Tube teeth 180. One of the special impression methods to be employed for class I situation is A. Closed mouth impression technique B. Open mouth technique C. Corrected cast technique D. Mucocompressive technique

17

COMEDK 2013

SECTION A HUMAN ANATOMY 1. Ans: C. Alveolar process Ref: Paul Butler, Applied radiological anatomy, 1/E, p. 104. Explanation The floor of the maxillary sinus is formed by the alveolar process. 2. Ans: D. Middle meningeal artery Ref: B.D. Chaurasia, 5/E, p. 135 3. Ans: A. 18 to 23 days post fertilization and is the second stage of craniofacial development Ref: IB Singh, 8/E, p. 58 4. Ans: D. Anterior belly of digastric Ref: IB Singh, 8/E, p. 109 5. Ans: A. Laterally into zygomatic process of maxilla Ref: BD Chaurasia 5/E, vol 3, p. 231 6. Ans: B. Jugular foramen Ref: BD Chaurasia 5/E, vol 3, P.45 7. Ans: D. Hypoglossal nerve Ref: BD Chaurasia 5/E, vol 3, p. 231

PHYSIOLOGY 8. Ans: A. Closure of semilunar valves Ref: Guyton and Hall, 11/E, p. 269 9. Ans: B. XIII Ref: Guyton and Hall, 11/E, p. 458 10. Ans: A. Pulsus paradoxus Ref: Davidson, 21/E, p. 268

11. Ans: A. Constriction of pupil Ref: Guyton and Hall, 11/E, pp. 617, 618 12. Ans: C. Action Potential Ref: Guyton and Hall, 11/E, pp. 86

BIOCHEMISTRY 13. Ans: C. Glycine Ref: Biochemistry, Sathyanarayana, 3/E, p. 210 14. Ans: C. Thymine Ref: Biochemistry, Sathyanarayana, 3/E, p. 72 15. Ans: C. Triokinase Ref: Biochemistry, Sathyanarayana, 3/E, p. 280 16. Ans: C. Presence of Modular site Ref: Biochemistry, Sathyanarayana, 3/E, p. 101 17. Ans: D. Selenium Ref: Biochemistry, Sathyanarayana, 3/E, p. 101 18. Ans: B. Ketone bodies Ref: Biochemistry, Sathyanarayana, 3/E, p. 385 19. Ans: B. Lysozyme Ref: Alistair Farley The Physiological Effects of Ageing, 1/E, p. 15

GENERAL PATHOLOGY 20. Ans: D. Transthyretin Ref: Kumar, Robbin s basic pathology, 9/E, p. 154

COMEDK 2013

18

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

21. Ans: A. Radioactive isotopes Ref: Harsh mohan, Essential pathology for dental students, 3/E, p. 534 22. Ans: B. Cytomegalovirus Ref: Harsh mohan, Essential pathology for dental students, 3/E, p. 265 23. Ans: B. Decreases in plasma phosphate level Ref: David Terris, Thyroid & Parathyroid disease: Medical & Surgical Mangement, 1/E, p. 237 24. Ans: A. Paget’s disease Ref: Harsh mohan, Essential pathology for dental students, 3/E, p. 415

MICROBIOLOGY 25. Ans: C. Dark ground microscope Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthnarayan & Panicker, 8/E, p. 382 26. Ans: C. Robertson’ Cooked Meat Medium Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthnarayan & Panicker, 8/E, p. 257 27. Ans: A. India ink preparation Ref: Textbook of microbiology, Ananthnarayan & Panicker, 8/E, p. 611 28. Ans: C. Bacillus stearothermophilus spores Ref: Textbook of microbiology, Ananthnarayan & Panicker, 8/E, p. 34

PHARMACOLOGY 29. Ans: D. Tetracycline Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 742 30. Ans: C. Epinephrine Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 82 31. Ans: B. Hamycin

Ref: Laurence Brunton, Goodman and Gilman’s The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, p. 1297 32. Ans: D. Rosiglitazone Ref: Goodman & Gilman, The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12/E, p. 1260 33. Ans: B. 0.2 and 5 years Ref: Goodman and Gilman’s The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12/E, p. 1526

GENERAL MEDICINE 34. Ans: B. He is diabetic Ref: Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 17/E, p. 2275 35. Ans: C. Muscular atrophy Ref: Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 17/E, p. 2575 36. Ans: D. All of the above Ref: Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 17/E, p. 22 37. Ans: B. Viral meningitis Ref: Steven G. Rothrock, Pediatric Emergency Medicine, 1/E, p. 376

GENERAL SURGERY 38. Ans: C. 1–2 weeks Ref: Shenoy, Manipal manual of surgery, 3/E, p. 139 39. Ans: B. Undermined Ref: Shenoy, Manipal manual of surgery, 3/E, p. 139

DENTAL MATERIALS 40. Ans: C. 13.5–14.5 10– 6/°C Ref: Craig, 12/E, p. 41

41. Ans: C. Autopolymerizing acrylic resin Ref: Craig, 12/E, p. 547 42. Ans: B. Helium Ref: Anusavice, 11/E, p. 671–672 43. Ans: B. Ethyl methacrylate Ref: Anusavice, 11/E, p. 750 44. Ans: A. Less than dentin Ref: Nisha Garg, 2/E, p. 551 45. Ans: C. 7 % Ref: Anusavice, 11/E, p. 739 46. Ans: C. Silicate cement Ref: Craig, 12/E, p. 8 47. Ans: B. Sprue former is attached at right angle creating a localized lingering of molten metal after casting has solidified Ref: Anusavice, 11/E, p. 343 48. Ans: B. Korrecta type I Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 87 49. Ans: C. Polymers Ref: Anusavice, 11/E, p. 754 50. Ans: B. Silicone rubbers Ref: Anusavice, 12/E, p. 493

DADH 51. Ans: C. Filaggrin Ref: Orban’s 12/E, p. 218 52. Ans: A. Cells of inner enamel epithelium Ref: Orban’s 12/E, p. 28 53. Ans: A. Labial and lingual Ref: Wheeler’s 9/E, p. 86 54. Ans: B. Keratinized mucosa Ref: Tencate’s 7/E, p. 347

55. Ans: A. Mandibular first premolar Ref: Wheeler’s 9/E, p. 163 56. Ans: A. Pseudostratified, ciliated columnar mucus secreting epithelium Ref: Orban’s 12/E, p. 315 57. Ans: A. Enamel Ref: Orban’s 12/E, p. 24, 26

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE 58. Ans: A. Sub masseteric space Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, p. 506 59. Ans: D. Warthin tumour Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, p. 226 60. Ans: A. Pleomorphic adenoma Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, p. 221 61. Ans: B. Osteosarcoma Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, p. 169 62. Ans: C. Hyperaemia of pulp resulting from increased blood pressure Ref: Ghom’s 2/E, p. 790 63. Ans: B. White sponge nevus Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 743 64. Ans: C. Acute maxillary sinusitis Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, p. 509 65. Ans: B. Chromogenic bacteria Ref: Neville 3/E, p. 63 66. Ans: D. Immobilization Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, p. 591 67. Ans: A. Exocrine glands Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, p. 247 68. Ans: A. Pannus Ref: Ghom’s 2/E, p. 613

COMEDK 2013

19

COMEDK 2013

COMEDK 2013

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

20

69. Ans: C. Gardener’s syndrome Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, p. 47 70. Ans: C. Both A and B Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, p. 386 A 20yr old patient reports with multiple swellings of the jaws. Clinical examination reveals multiple hard swellings involving the jaws and intra orally several missing teeth are noticed. Panoramic radiograph reveals multiple radio opaque lesions in the maxilla and the mandible with multiple impacted teeth and supernumerary teeth, indicative of Gardener’s syndrome. 71. Ans: B. Fibroadenoma Ref: Burket, 10/E, p. 171 72. Ans: C. Taurodontism Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 94 73. Ans: D. Palate Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 478 74. Ans: D. All of the above Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 263

ORAL RADIOLOGY 75. Ans: C. 850–1250 HOUNSFIELD UNITS Ref: Gerard M. Scortecci, Contemporary Implant Dentistry, 3/E, p. 82 76. Ans: C. Underexposed submentovertex view Ref: W&P, 6/E, p. 196 77. Ans: D. Technetium 99 labelled sestamibi scan Ref: Elgazzar, The Pathophysiologic Basis of Nuclear Medicine, 2/E, p. 259 78. Ans: A. SLOB or Clark’s Rule Ref: W&P, 6/E, p.50

79. Ans: B. Maxillary anterior occlusal view and IOPA Ref: Srivastava, Modern Pediatric dentistry, 1/E, p. 43 80. Ans: B. Scintigraphy and sialography Ref: W&P, 6/E, pp. 581, 582 81. Ans: C. Upper oblique occlusal radiograph Ref: Moore, Principles of oral surgery, 3/E, p. 124 82. Ans: C. Both of the above Ref: Allan G. Farman, Panoramic Radiology: Seminars on Maxillofacial Imaging and Interpretation, 1/E, p. 167 83. Ans: D. Hand-Schuller-Christian disease Ref: Langlands & Langlais, 1/E, pp. 421, 422 84. Ans: D. Reduce the magnification and distortion Ref: W&P, 6/E, p. 50

ORTHODONTICS 85. Ans: D. Bonded canine to canine retainer Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p.470 86. Ans: B. Large nose Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p.104 87. Ans: B. Mild-moderative orthodontic corrections in patients with periodontal and/or restorative needs Ref: Gurkeerat Singh, 2/E, p. 679 88. Ans: D. Eva point Ref: Sridhar Premkumar, Textbook of craniofacial growth, 1/E, p. 199 89. Ans: D. Titanium brackets Ref: Gurkeerat Singh, 2/E, p. 341

90. Ans: A. An expansion treatment should be carried out Ref: Rakosi, Color atlas of dental medicine – Orthodontic Diagnosis, 1/E, p. 108 91. Ans: D. Gingivally supported open bite Ref: Koch’s Pediatric Dentistry: A Clinical Approach, 2/E, p. 221 92. Ans: C. Grinding of teeth Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 106 93. Ans: C. Occurs more rapidly in the maxillary arch than in the mandibular arch Ref: Mc Donald, Dentistry for child and adolescent, 8/E. p. 339 94. Ans: D. Gummy smile only Ref: Karad, Clinical Orthodontics: Current Concepts, Goals And Mechanics, 1/E, p. 320 95. Ans: A. Activator Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 338

PEDODONTICS 96. Ans: C. Demanding and aggressive behavior Ref : Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 147 97. Ans: A. Pubic hair growth Ref: Stang J, Story M. Guidelines for adolescent Nutrition services (2005). http://www.epi.umn.edu/let/pubs/ adol_book.shtm Data from : Tanner JM. Growth at adolescence. Oxford Blackwell scientific publications, 1962. 98. Ans: B. Minimal brain dysfunction Ref: Minimal brain dysfunction/specific learning disability: a clinical approach for the primary physician. South Med J. 1976 May; 69(5): 642–53. 99. Ans: A. Davies Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 217

100. Ans: B. Behavior shaping Ref : Mc Donald, 8/E, p. 41–45

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY 101. Ans: C. Hadley Ref: Soben Peter, 1/E, p. 180 102. Ans: D. Relative risk Ref: Soben Peter. Essentials of Preventive and Community Dentistry, 4/E, p. 68 103. Ans: B. Ratio Ref: Park K. Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 22/E, p. 58 104. Ans: B. 1978 Ref: Park K. Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 22/E, p. 10 105. Ans: A. Problem ownership Ref: G.Z. Wright. Textbook of Child psychology for behavior management in dental office, 1/E, p. 62 106. Ans: A. Yellow Ref: Park K. Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 22/E, p. 739 107. Ans: D.

True Negative True Negative + False Positive

Ref: Park K. Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 22/E, p. 131 108. Ans: D. 50th percentile Ref: Soben Peter. Essentials of Preventive and Community Dentistry 4/E, p. 426 109. Ans: C. Nalgonda Ref: Soben Peter. Essentials of Preventive and Community Dentistry 4/E, p. 274 110. Ans: C. 0.007–0.05 ppm Ref: Soben Peter. Essentials of Preventive and Community Dentistry 4/E, p. 246 111. Ans: B. Quality assurance Ref: Brian A. Burt, Dentistry, Dental Practice and the community, 6/ E, p. 332

COMEDK 2013

21

COMEDK 2013

COMEDK 2013

22

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

112. Ans: C. Health education Ref: Soben Peter. Essentials of Preventive and Community Dentistry, 1/E, p. 582

PROSTHODONTICS 113. Ans: D. Incisivus and orbicularis oris Ref: Winkler, Essentials of complete denture, 1/E, p. 143 114. Ans: D. Mucosa overlying pear shaped pad is not stippled Ref: Heartwell, 4/E. p. 17 115. Ans: D. Incomplete polymerization caused by premature removal from mouth Ref: Phillip’s 11/E, p. 230 116. Ans: B. Retention and support Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E. p. 57

PERIODONTICS 117. Ans: A. One mm Ref: Carranza 9/E, p. 23 118. Ans: C. Laterally displaced flap Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology 10/E, p. 1008 119. Ans: B. Bleeding on probing Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology 10/E, p. 118 120. Ans: B. Periodontal diseases Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology 10/E, p. 240 In the post inflammatory healing process, the shutdown of inflammatory processes and initiation of post inflammatory heaaling is orchestrated by leukocytes. Leukocytes generate inflammatory signals like IL-1 receptor agonist and TGF – β. IL – 1 activates osteoclasts and participates in inflammation.

121. Ans: D. A and B Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology 10/E, p. 239 122. Ans: A. On the periosteum Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology 10/E, p. 1010 123. Ans: A. Semilunar coronally repositioned flap Ref: Carranza,10/E, p. 1019 124. Ans: B. 1–1.5 mm Ref: Carranza’s clinical periodontology 10/E, p. 1009 Proper thickness is important for survival of the graft. It should be thin enough to permit ready diffusion of nutritive fluid from the recipient site. A graft that is too thin may necrose and expose the recipient site. If the graft is too thick, its peripheral layer is jeopardized because of the excessive tissue that separates it from the new circulation & nutrients. Thick grafts may also injure the donor site, with the possibility of injuring major palatal arteries. 125. Ans: B. Fungicide Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 891 126. Ans: C. Ninhydrin stain Ref: Carranza, 10/E. p. 345 127. Ans: D. Amoxicillin Ref: Carranza, 10/E. p. 375

CONS AND ENDO 128. Ans: B. Chronic irreversible pulpitis Ref: Grossman, 11/E, P. 70–71 129. Ans: D. Sucrose Ref: Sturdevant, 3/E, pp. 75, 85 130. Ans: B. Cervical Ref: Vimal Sikri, 2/E, pp. 501, 505

131. Ans: A. Vital Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, pp. 391–394 132. Ans: B. 5.5 Ref: Sturdevant, 3/E, p. 88 133. Ans: C. 0.5 mm Ref: Sturdevant, 3/E, pp. 24–25 134. Ans: B. 5.0 to 5.5 Ref: Sturdevant, 3/E, p. 88 135. Ans: D. Type I Ref: Ingle, 6/E, p. 153 136. Ans: B. To prevent percolation of the bleaching agent into the apical area. Ref: Ingle, 6/E, p. 1390 137. Ans: C. Relieve from occlusion and observe Ref: Shoba Tandon, 1/E, p. 521 138. Ans: B. DG–16 Endodontic explorer Ref: Ingle, 6/E, p. 884 139. Ans: C. Buffered sodium hypochlorite Ref: Ingle, 6/E, p. 998 140. Ans: A. 10 mm Hg Ref: Ingle’s endodontics, 6/E, p. 475 141. Ans: C. Marginal ridge Ref: Nisha Garg, Review of endodontics & operative dentistry, 1/E, p. 209

ORAL SURGERY 142. Ans: D. Pericoronitis Ref: Kruger, Textbook of oral and maxillofacial surgery, 6/E, p. 198 143. Ans: C. Streptococci and anaerobic bacteria Ref: Kruger, Textbook of oral and maxillofacial surgery, 6/E, p. 198

144. Ans: C. Irrigation, antibiotics and analgesics Ref: Kruger, Textbook of oral and maxillofacial surgery, 6/E, p. 198 145. Ans: C. Removal of tooth under local anaesthesia Ref: Kruger, Textbook of oral and maxillofacial surgery, 6/E, p. 199 146. Ans: B. Base of skull Ref: Kruger, Textbook of oral and maxillofacial surgery, 6/E, p. 425 147. Ans: C. 14 days after the surgery Ref: Lars Andersson, Oral and maxillofacial surgery, 1/E, p. 1089 148. Ans: B. First molar Ref: Kruger, Textbook of oral and maxillofacial surgery, 6/E, p. 290 149. Ans: C. Carnoys solution Ref: Kruger, Textbook of oral and maxillofacial surgery, 6/E, p. 2/E, 444 150. Ans: D. Beneath the inferior turbinate Ref: Kruger, Textbook of oral and maxillofacial surgery, 6/E, p. 293 151. Ans: C. Anterior and medial direction Ref: Robin Gray, 1/E, p. 63

CASE SCENARIO 152. Ans: A. Inherited autosomal dominant disease Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, p. 48 153. Ans: B. Multiple epidermoid or sebaceous cyst of the skin Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, p. 47 154. Ans: A. Multiple polyposis of large intestine Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, p. 47

COMEDK 2013

23

COMEDK 2013

COMEDK 2013

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

24

155. Ans: A. Tricho-dento-osseous syndrome Ref: Neville 3/E, p. 93 156. Ans: A. Avulsion Ref : “Textbook and Color Atlas of Traumatic Injuries to the Teeth” by Jens O. Andreasen, Frances M. Andreasen, Lars Andersson, 4/E, p. 444 157. Ans: B. Replantation Ref: Mc Donald, 8/E, p. 485–493 158. Ans: C. Milk Ref : Mc Donald, 8/E, p. 487 159. Ans: D. Diastema closure using composite Ref: Sturdevant, 3/E, pp. 636–637 160. Ans: A. Natural day light Ref: Sturdevant, 3/E, pp. 262, 632–633 161. Ans: C. Debonded restoration Ref: Sturdevant, 3/E, pp. 260–261, 504 162. Ans: D. Microleakage Ref: Sturdevant, 3/E, pp. 641–642 163. Ans: B. Walking bleach Ref: Sturdevant, 3/E, p. 643 164. Ans: C. External cervical resorption Ref: Sturdevant, 3/E, p. 643 165. Ans: D. Teeth with superficial enamel discoloration Ref: Sturdevant, 3/E, p. 643 166. Ans: C. Cracked tooth Ref: Grossman, 11/E, p. 60 167. Ans: D. All of the above Ref: Grossman, 11/E, p. 60 168. Ans: A. Stabilization with orthodontic band Ref: The Cracked tooth syndrome. Jour Canadian Association 2002; 68(8): 470–5

169. Ans: D. Surgical orthodontics Ref: Kharbanda, Orthodontics: Diagnosis and Management of Malocclusion and Dentofacial deformities, 1/E, p. 101 170. Ans: A. Le fort I osteotomy Ref: Lars Andersson, Oral and maxillofacial surgery, 1/E, p. 1089 171. Ans: B. Bilateral sagittal split osteotomy Ref: Proffit, Contemporary treatment of dentofacial deformity, 5/E, p. 313 172. Ans: B. Dentigerous cyst Ref: Dias, Short Notes for Maxillofacial Dentistry, 1/E, p. 89 173. Ans: A. Enucleation Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 445 174. Ans: B. Ameloblastoma Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 445 175. Ans: A. Cantilever abutment Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E. p. 758 176. Ans: B. 2 : 3 Ref: Shillingburg, 3/E, p. 89 177. Ans: A. Long standing abutment Ref: Shillingburg, 3/E, p.95 A 40 year old male patient reported to the restorative dentist with the chief complaint of missing back teeth in the upper jaw, and desired replacement of the same. On clinical examination revealed missing 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 24, 25, 26, 27 and 28 178. Ans: D. Class I Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 271 179. Ans: C. Indirect retainer Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 370 180. Ans: C. Corrected cast technique (Repeat of Q. 19, 2012)

2 COMEDK 2012 5. Mandibular fossa is a part of A. Mandible bone B. Maxilla bone C. Sphenoid bone D. Temporal bone

NOTE: COMEDK 2012 question paper has section A (154 MCQs) and section B (26 MCQs). Section A is of randomised MCQs while section B is case-based MCQs

SECTION A

6. Posterior ethmoidal air sinus opens into A. Superior meatus B. Middle meatus C. Inferior meatus D. Spheno-ethmoidal sinus

HUMAN ANATOMY 1. Inferior alveolar nerve and vessels course along A. Mandibular canal B. Mylohyoid groove C. Sublingual fossa D. submandibular fossa

7. All of the following canals open on the posterior wall of the pterygopalatine fossa Except A. Greater palatine canal B. Foramen rotundum C. Pterygoid canal D. Palatovaginal canal

2. Facial vein communicates with cavernous sinus through A. Posterior facial vein B. Common facial vein C. Deep facial vein D. Posterior auricular vein

8. Right anterior quadrant of the scalp is supplied by the following arteries except A. Right supra orbital artery B. Right supra trochlear artery C. Right superficial temporal artery D. Right maxillary artery

3. Lymph from the teeth drains into all of the following nodes EXCEPT A. Sub mandibular nodes B. Deep cervical nodes C. Retro pharyngeal nodes D. Sub mental nodes

9. Which of the following organs has the most permeable capillaries? A. Brain B. Posterior pituitary gland C. Liver D. Small intestine

4. Failure of descent of thyroid analage can be seen in the tongue A. In anterior 2/3rd of dorsal aspect B. In posterior 1/3rd of dorsal aspect C. Near the base of tongue close to foramen caecum D. In anterior 2/3rd of inferior surface

PHYSIOLOGY 10. In the blood bank, platelets are stored at A. 18°C for 1 year B. 20 to 24°C for 35 days 25

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

26

COMEDK 2012

C. 20 to 24°C for 3 to 5 days D. 2 to 4°C for 35 days 11. A relatively mobile component of the electron transporting respiratory chain is A. Flavoprotein B. Cytochrome c1 C. Ubiquitin D. Cytochrome a 12. The half life of plasma albumin is approximately A. 7 days B. 20 days C. 60 days D. 90 days 13. The dicrotic notch on the aortic pressure curve is caused by A. Closure of the pulmonary valve B. Rapid filling of the left ventricle C. Closure of the aortic valve D. Contraction of the atria

BIOCHEMISTRY 14. Mannose 6 phosphate containing freshly synthesized proteins are directed to A. Nucleus B. Lysosomes C. Mitochondria D. Golgi apparatus 15. An is A. B. C. D.

example of preventive antioxidant Catalase Tocopherol Superoxide dismutase Ureate

16. In the body, metabolism of 10g of protein would produce approximately A. 1 kcal B. 41 C. 410 D. 4100

17. Mutation in the oxidative enzymes (peroxisomes) could lead to A. Zellweger’s syndrome B. Gaucher’s syndrome C. Epidermolysis bullosa D. Leber's neuropathy

GENERAL PATHOLOGY 18. The activation of caspases is likely to lead to A. Apoptotic cell death B. Blood coagulation C. Mitotic cell division D. GI to S phase of cell cycle 19. Non-caseating granulomas are characteristic of A. Tuberculosis B. Syphilis C. Sarcoidosis D. Actinomycosis 20. Hb1Ac or glycohemoglobulin level of >9 % indicates A. Normal B. Mild diabetes control C. Gestational diabetes D. Poor diabetes control 21. The type of ultraviolet radiation (UV) that is known to induce skin cancer is A. UV-A B. UV-B C. UV-C D. UV-D 22. A 3 year old child present with progressive anemia, jaundice and failure to thrive. O/E pallor, splenomegaly+ peripheral smear showed normoblasts and small round intensely stained red cells. The likely diagnosis is A. Hereditary spherocytosis B. Thalassemia C. Sickle cell anemia D. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia

27

COMEDK 2012

MICROBIOLOGY

24. Which one of the following development stages of plasmodium is transmitted from humans to Anopheles mosquito? A. Sporozoite B. Gametocyte C. Merozoite D. Hypnozoite 25. Otomycosis is caused by A. Aspergillus niger B. Histoplasma capsulatum C. Rhinosporidium seeberi D. Cryptococcus neoformans 26. Most fungi of medical importance belong to A. Zygomycetes B. Ascomycetes C. Basidiomycetes D. Deuteromycetes 27. The attachment of the actinomyces species to the tooth surface is facilitated by A. Fimbriae B. Cilia C. Flagella D. Pseudopodia 28. Which one of the following enteric organisms is anaerogenic and non motile? A. Shigella sonnei B. Salmonella typhi C. Proteus mirabilis D. Klebsiella pneumoniae 29. The vaccine currently used against hepatitis B infection is A. Killed pooled serum

30. Which of the following agents of gas gangrene is capsulated? A. Cl.septicum B. Cl.novyi C. Cl.perfingens D. Cl.histolyticum

PHARMACOLOGY 31. Human dose establishment study is the focus of this phase of clinical trial A. PHASE – II B. PHASE – III C. PHASE – I D. PHASE – IV 32. All of the following drugs may be effective against methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) except A. Vancomycin B. Streptogramins C. Imipenem D. Linezolid 33. When a drug creates an effect that is unpredictable and unique it is termed as A. Side effect B. Toxicity effect C. Idiosyncratic effect D. Drug – on drug effect 34. Sodium metabisulfite used in LA solution acts as A. Anti-reducing agent for LA agent B. Anti-oxidant for LA agent C. Anti-reducing agent for vasoconstrictor D. Anti-oxidant for vasoconstrictor 35. Which among the following antibiotics should be evoked in pregnancy? A. Erythromycin B. Tetracycline C. Cephalexin D. Amoxicillin

COMEDK 2012

23. Coating of bacteria particles with host proteins to facilitate phagocytosis is known as A. Chemotaxis B. Chemokine C. Opsonization D. Membrane attack complex

B. Live attenuated C. Recombinant D. Synthetic vaccine

COMEDK 2012

28

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

36. Local anesthetics block nerve conduction by A. Depolarizing the nerve membrane reducing threshold potential B. Decreasing the membrane permeability to Na+ ions there by stabilizing nerve membrane C. Increasing the membrane permeability to K+ ions and by depolarizing nerve membrane D. None of the above 37. The dose of a drug required to produce a specified effect in 50% of the population is A. LD 50 B. TD 50 C. MD 50 D. Ed 50

GENERAL MEDICINE 38. Thyroid storm can be treated by all the following drugs except A. Propylthiouracil B. Dexamethasone C. Propranolol D. Aspirin 39. Hypokalemia is likely to be seen in A. Insulin therapy B. Addison’s disease C. Starvation ketosis D. Hemolytic anemias 40. Ghon complex of the lung usually A. Undergoes cavitation B. Undergoes calcification C. Progresses to tuberculous pneumonia D. Progresses to military tuberculosis 41. Syndrome associated with increased risk of leukemia is A. Plummer Vinson syndrome B. Klinefelter syndrome C. Sturge weber syndrome D. Multiple hamartoma syndrome

42. A 20 year male complains of recurrent attacks of sore throat since 2 years. The total leucocyte count was 1000/ul. A different count revealed severe neutropenia. The diagnosis is A. Subleukemic leukemia B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Agranulocytosis D. Leukoerythroblastic anemia 43. Hypoparathyroidism is seen in all of the following except A. DiGeorge syndrome B. Chronic renal failure C. Wilsons disease D. Haemochromatosis 44. The commonest reported oral malignancy in HIV infection is A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Verrucous carcinoma C. Multiple myeloma D. Kaposi’s sarcoma 45. Following splenectomy in children, which one of the following is recommended A. Hepatitis B Vaccination B. Typhoid vaccination C. Pneumococcal vaccination D. Regular follow up 46. Slow ESR is usually seen in A. Active myocardial infarction B. Congestive heart failure C. Oral contraceptives D. Chronic infections 47. In fanconi anemia there is a A. Deficiency of copper B. Mutation with DNA repair gene C. No increased risk of Sq cell cover D. Purely saturated disorder etiology 48. Anti-D (Rh) immune globulin is used for the prevention of A. Paroxysmal haemoglobinuria B. Sickle cell disease C. Haemolytic disease of newborn D. Emphysema lungs

29

COMEDK 2012

50. Kussmaul’s respiration occurs in response to A. Decrease in pH of blood B. Increase in pH of blood C. Obstructive pulmonary disease D. Carbon monoxide poisoning 51. DiGeorge’s syndrome is due to A. Congenital thymic aplasia B. Deficiency of complement factors C. Inborn error of metabolism D. Chromosomal anomaly 52. Which among the following anti-HIV drugs is also used to treat viral hepatitis B? A. Enfuvirtide B. Lamivudine C. Efavirenz D. Ritonavir

GENERAL SURGERY 53. Which is more dangerous after a thyroidectomy resulting in acute respiratory distress A. Damage to external laryngeal nerve B. Unilateral complete damage to recurrent laryngeal nerve C. Unilateral partial damage to recurrent laryngeal nerve D. Bilateral partial section of recurrent laryngeal nerve 54. Surgical approaches for open thymectomy include all except A. Transcervical thymectomy B. Median sternotomy C. Thoraco abdominal incision D. Partial median sternotomy

DENTAL MATERIALS 55. The best fuel gas when used with oxygen is A. Hydrogen B. Natural gas C. Propane D. Acetylene 56. Optimum pressure which should be used in condensing amalgam is A. 30 to 35 gms/sq.cm B. 20 to 26 gms/sq.cm C. 15 to 20 gms/sq.cm D. 26 to 36 gms/sq.cm 57. Which is the best choice of heat source for soldering from the following fuel gases? A. Propane B. Acetylene C. Natural gas D. Hydrogen 58. Torsional force is A. Compression B. Tensile force C. Shear D. Transverse bending force 59. The length of the sprue former should be adjusted for gypsum bonded investment so that the top of the wax pattern is A. Within 6mm of the open end of the ring B. Within 10mm of the open end of the ring C. Within the 1mm of the open end of the ring D. Within 2mm of opened of the ring 60. Desorbtion is a term which is used to describe A. Strain hardening B. Process of removing the absorbed impurities C. Recrystallization D. Grain growth

COMEDK 2012

49. Secondary amyloidosis is seen most commonly in A. Actinomycosis B. Tuberculosis C. Rabies D. Secondary syphilis

COMEDK 2012

30

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

61. Condensation reaction of silicones occur in presence of A. Lead di-oxide B. Titanium di-oxide C. Stannous octate D. Platinum salt 62. Which of the following agents is used to prevent the formation of deleterious oxides on gold foil? A. Methane B. Ammonia C. Hydrogen peroxide D. Carbon monoxide 63. Dimension stability of hydrocolloids may be achieved by A. Optimizing w:p B. Using cold water C. Prolonged manipulation D. Using humidor 64. Increased spatulation of gypsum products A. Increase setting time B. Decrease setting time C. Does not interfere with setting time D. Only produces more exothermic heat 65. All of the following statements are true for zinc oxide eugenol cements EXCEPT A. Equal length of base paste of and accelerator paste are mixed together until the mix has a uniform colour B. Increase in temperature and humidity shorten the setting time C. The mix appears thick at the start of mixing but after 30 seconds of additional spatulation it becomes more fluid D. Water accelerates but heat retards the setting of zinc oxide eugenol cements 66. Hardness test used for elastic materials A. Brinnel hardness test B. Rockwell hardness test C. Vicker hardness test D. Knoop hardness test

67. The laminate impression technique utilizes a combination of 2 impression materials A. Light body and heavy body B. PVS and polyether C. Polyether and polysulfide D. Alginate and Agar 68. Gypsum bonded investments are used for A. Gold alloy’s B. Bank metal alloys C. Silver palladium alloys D. Porcelain casting 69. Over heating of impression compound during softening will lead to reaching out of more soluble constituents such as A. Rosin B. Talc C. Waxes D. Stearic acid

DADH 70. Inorganic content of cementum is A. 45% to 50% B. 50% to 55% C. 55% to 60% D. 60% to 65% 71. Junctional epithelium A. Lined by orthokeratinised stratified squamous epithelium B. Derived from reduced enamel epithelium C. Has rete ridges D. Surface cells of junctional epithelium provide attachment of gingiva to tooth tissue by desmosomes 72. The cortical plates are thickest in the A. Premolar and molar region of the maxilla on the buccal side B. Premolar and molar region of the maxilla on the lingual side C. Premolar and molar region of the mandible on the buccal side D. Premolar and molar region of the mandible on the lingual side

COMEDK 2012

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE

74. True Anodontia is considered to be a failure of A. Initiation B. Proliferation C. Histodifferentiation D. Morphodifferentation 75. Benign tumor which shows metastasis A. Warthin’s tumour B. Ameloblastoma C. Keratoacanthoma D. Neurofibroma 76. Characteristic thistle – tube – shaped appearance of pulp chambers of single rooted teeth are seen in A. Type I Dentinogenesis Imperfecta B. Type II Dentinogenesis imperfecta C. Type II dentine dysplasia D. Type I Dentine dysplasia 77. Focal epithelial hyperplasia caused by HPV/3 and 32 is also termed A. Cowdens disease B. Hecks disease C. Acanthosis nigrans D. Keratoacanthoma 78. Bundle bone, due to its increased radiopacity is also called A. Lamina dura B. Lamina limitans C. Lamina lucida D. Lamina propria

79. HLA-B27 histocompatibility antigen is seen in A. SjÖgren’s disease B. Ankylosing spondilitis C. Felty’s syndrome D. Scleroderma 80. Cyst arising from dental lamina A. Radicular cyst B. Paradental cyst C. Eruption cyst D. Glandular odontogenic cyst 81. There is considerable clinical and histological overlap of Ewing’s sarcoma with one of the following A. Primitive neuro ectodermal tumour (PNET) B. Osteosarcoma C. Fibrosarcoma D. Chondrosarcoma 82. Shingles of geniculate ganglion with ear eruption and facial paralysis is termed as A. Puetz-Jegher Syndrome B. Melkerson-Rosenthal syndrome C. Ramsay Hunt Syndrome D. Gardner’s syndrome 83. Injury to which nerve causes nonclosure of eyelids, sagging of mouth and dribbing of saliva A. Maxillary nerve B. Oculomotor nerve C. Facial nerve D. Ophthalmic nerve 84. Which of the following is used to measure pain intensity? A. Visual analog scale B. Visual aesthesia score C. Visual assessment of soreness D. Visual assessment of soreness 85. Which of the following is known to arise from sunlight? A. Basal cell carcinoma B. Ewing’s sarcoma

COMEDK 2012

73. Which of the following statements regarding pulp stones are true? A. Pulp stones are due to metastatic calcification B. Pulp stones are due to dystrophic calcification C. Pulp stones are usually of true denticles type D. Pulp stones are usually embedded in dentine

31

32

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

COMEDK 2012

C. Squamous cell carcinoma of the lip D. Verruca vulgaris 86. Eruption fails in this bone disease, as there is no bone resorption A. Primary hyperparathyroidism B. Phantom bone disease C. Paget’s disease D. Osteopetrosis 87. Which of the following infections can produce unilateral facial pain? A. Herpes simplex B. Herpes Zoster C. Chicken pox D. Herpangina 88. In the open position of the mandible the interincisal distance in males is approximately A. 28 mm B. 38 mm C. 48 mm D. 58 mm 89. Xeroderma pigmentosum is characterized by A. Autosomal dominant inheritance B. Inability to repair sunlight induced damage to DNA C. Irregular accumulation of melanin in the basal cell layer D. Acanthosis of epithelium with elongation of rete ridges 90. Bell’s Palsy is characterized by A. Bilateral involvement of the side of the face B. Inability to whistle C. No loss of muscular control D. Closing of the eyes 91. The stabbing nature of pain in trigeminal neuralgia mimics pain caused by A. A cracked tooth B. Acute reversible pulpitis C. Acute irreversible pulpitis D. Acute apical periodontitis

ORAL RADIOLOGY 92. Hanging drop sign is best seen in A. Water’s projection B. Orthopantomogram C. Submentovertex D. Upper occlusal view 93. While analyzing radiographic images of a lesion, the radiologist tries to match the present image with an image in a favorite text books. This method is known as A. Mix and match method B. Aunt Minnie method C. Text book correlation method D. Kvaal’s method 94. One of the following conditions produces onion skin appearance of the jaws on radiographs A. Eosinophilic granuloma B. Osteomyelitis with proliferative periostitis C. Chronic diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis D. Fibrous dysplasia

ORTHODONTICS 95. Fibrotomy to prevent Rotational relapse was advocated first by A. Edwards B. Peck and peck C. Ashley howes D. Carey 96. For which of the following tissue systems scammon’s curve shows an S shaped curve A. Lymphoid tissue B. Neural tissue C. Muscle and Bone tissue D. Genital tissues 97. An upper anterior inclined plane provides A. Intra maxillary anchorage B. Reinforced anchorage C. Absolute anchorage D. Reciprocal anchorage

33

COMEDK 2012

99. What is the chief disadvantage of a nonfunctional fixed space maintainer? A. Prevent lateral jaw growth B. Difficult to fabricate C. Difficulty in maintaining proper oral hygiene D. Continued eruption of opposing teeth 100. On application of very light forces to teeth, the axis of rotation is located at A. At alveolar crest B. At or close to apex of root C. At middle of crown D. At cementoenamel junction 101. Rate of activation with slow expansion is A. 1 mm per day B. 1 mm for 3 day C. 1 mm for a month D. 1 mm per week 102. During the fabrication of band for band and loop space maintainer, where should be the band bite be placed for final positioning of the band A. Distolingual aspect of the maxillary teeth and distofacial aspect of the mandibular teeth B. Distofacial aspect of the maxillary teeth and mesiofacial aspect of the mandibular teeth C. Mesiolingual aspect of the maxillary teeth and distolingual aspect of the mandibular teeth D. Distofacial aspect of the maxillary teeth and distolingual aspect of the mandibular teeth

103. Space maintainers are usually not necessary in which region A. Mandibular posterior B. Mandibular anterior C. Maxillary posterior D. Maxillary anterior

PEDODONTICS 104. Which medium of storage for avulsed tooth is best for prolonged extra oral periods? A. Hank’s balanced salt solution B. Milk C. Distilled water D. Saliva 105. The following is not a Communicative management technique according to American Academy of Pediatric dentistry’s Standards A. Voice control B. Positive reinforcement C. Physical restraint D. Distraction 106. The fears that are produced by direct physical stimulation of the sense organs of A. Subjective fears B. Suggestive fears C. Objective fears D. Imitative fears 107. The procedure which slowly develops behavior by reinforcing successive approximations of the desired behavior until the desired behavior comes to be is termed as A. Behavior management B. Behavior modification C. Behavior shaping D. Behavior control 108. What is the amount of time required by erupting premolar to move through 1mm of bone as measured on a bitewing radiographs? A. 3–4 months B. 4–5 months

COMEDK 2012

98. Second molars that get locked under the distal cusps of first molars during eruption are best A. Extracted and third molars allowed to erupt B. Autogenously transplanted C. Disimpacted with “disimpaction springs” D. Guided with distal shoe space maintainer

34

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

COMEDK 2012

C. 5–6 months D. 6–7 months A 4 year old presents with Labio lingual caries affecting only maxillary incisors and involving molars 109. The diagnosis would be A. Type I ECC B. Type II ECC C. Type III ECC D. Rampant caries 110. The most probable cause of such a condition is A. High salivary pH B. Consumption of cariogenic food C. Inappropriate use of feeding bottle D. Low birth weight 111. The number of streptococcus mutans colony forming units (CFU) per unit of saliva will be A. Negligible B. 10,00,000

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY

114. All of the following are random sampling methods except A. Simple random B. Cluster sampling C. Stratified random D. Quota sampling 115. The mechanism of action of AFP is via following reaction products A. Fluoridated hydroxyapatite B. Stannous trifluorophosphate C. Dicalcium phosphate dehydrate (DCPD) D. DCPD + calcium 116. Bias arising because of different rates of admission to hospitals for people with different diseases A. Confounding bias B. Berkesonian bias C. Information bias D. Selection bias 117. Veracity is A. Truthfulness B. Beneficence C. Autonomy D. Non maleficence

112. The basic tools of measurement in epidemiology are A. Place, person, time B. Determinants, frequency, distribution of disease C. Rate, ratio, proportion D. Agent, host and environment

118. Specificity is A. Ability of a test to identify correctly all those who have the disease B. Ability of a test identify correctly those who do not have the disease C. Diagnostic power of a test D. The amount of previously unrecognized disease that is diagnosed through screening

113. Effective evaluation refers to A. Whether programme results meet predetermined objectives B. The long term outcome of the programme C. Assess the extent of which programme implementation complies with the program plan D. Whether programme benefits exceeds the cost incurred

119. Following test for judging the significance of difference between the means of two samples in case of small samples when population variance is NOT known A. Z-test B. T-test C. P-test D. F-test

35

COMEDK 2012

121. Current recommendation for systemic fluoride supplements for all children residing in areas where water fluoride deficient until they reach the age A. 12 yrs B. 14 yrs C. 16 yrs D. 18 yrs

PROSTHODONTICS 126. The use of electro surgery facilitate impression making by A. Reopening the gingival sulcus B. Forcing the impression material C. Enlarging the gingival sulcus and control of hemorrhage D. Hemorrhage 127. Posterior mandible resorbs at a rate approximately ______ times faster than the anterior mandible A. B. C. D.

2 times 4 times 6 times 8 times

122. A biological experiment in which one compares the effects of two preparations by means of common biological response is known as A. Biodegradable B. Bio-experiment C. Bio-assay D. Bio-statement

128. Atwoods classification order IV corresponds to

123. Stephans curve denotes the relationship between A. Sucrose intake and salivary pH B. Plaque pH and glucose rinse C. Plaque pH and salivary pH D. Salivary flow rate and buffering capacity

129. Tooth loss that causes the patient to bite in an abnormal relation of maxilla to mandible, in order to obtain better function during mastication is termed

124. The major purpose of randomization is A. Facilitate double binding B. Helps ensure the study subjects are representative of general population C. Ensure the groups are comparable to baseline characteristics D. Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment 125. The basic tools of measurement in epidemiology are A. Place, person, time B. Determinants, frequency, distribution of disease C. Rate, ratio, proportion D. Agent, host and environment

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

A knife edged ridge High well rounded Low well rounded Depressed

Convenience bite Dramatic bite Temporary bite Squashed bite

130. Dr. Taggart is associated with A. B. C. D.

Discovery of ceramics Lost wax technique Acid etch technique Bleaching procedures

131. The resin bonded bridges have the advantages of A. B. C. D.

Minimal tooth preparation Alignment correction Longevity Long span bridges

COMEDK 2012

120. Ethics and planning approvals are taken in A. Public health practice B. Group practice C. Individual practice D. Solo practice

COMEDK 2012

36

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

132. Mode of failure during dislodgement of prosthesis cemented with zinc polycarboxylate cement is usually seen at the A. Cement tooth interface B. Cement prosthesis interface C. Cleavage through the cement layer D. Fracture of tooth or prosthesis

PERIODONTICS 133. The predominant cell in a ‘established lesion’ is A. PMNL B. T-Cell C. Macrophage D. Plasma cell 134. Length of junctional epithelium ranges from A. 0.10 to 0.20 mm B. 0.25 to 1.35 mm C. 1.35 to 1.75 mm D. 1.75 to 2.00 mm 135. Most common oral change in patients on Calcium channel blockers is A. Dry mouth B. Gingival enlargement C. Oral ulceration D. Increased calculus formation 136. Increases in steroid hormones are associated with significant increases in A. Actinomyces viscosus B. Prevotella intermedia C. Streptococcus sanguis D. Campylobacter rectus 137. Width of attached gingiva is narrower in A. Maxillary premolars B. Maxillary incisor C. Mandibular premolars D. Mandibular incisor 138. The main disadvantage of Florida probe system is A. Inconsistent probing force B. Recording errors

C. Non reproducibility D. Lack of tactile sensitivity 139. Fiber group which prevent the extrusion of the tooth is A. Alveolar crest group B. Transseptal group C. Oblique group D. Horizontal group 140. The fibers of periodontal ligament which maintain the neighbouring teeth in contact A. Horizontal fibers B. Oblique fibers C. Transseptal fibers D. Interradicular fibers

CONS AND ENDO 141. Pins effectively increase A. Stability of the restoration B. Support of the restoration C. Torque of the restoration D. Retention of the restoration 142. The gingival cavo surface bevel for a class II preparation to receive a cast gold inlay A. Results in 30° metal that is burnishable B. Results in no benefits whatsoever C. Results in open margin if casting procedures are not accurate D. Results in difficulty in taking was pattern 143. Most often used thickness of the matrix band is A. 0.0015 cm B. 0.0015 inch C. 0.015 inch D. 0.0028 mm 144. Tip angle of endodontics hand instruments of A. 65±15° B. 75±15° C. 85±15° D. 95±15°

37

COMEDK 2012

152. A fractured mandibular condyle is displaced by the action of A. Temporalis B. Masseter C. Lateral pterygoid D. Medial Pterygoid

146. The file which has a non-cutting side is A. K-files B. Safety K-files C. Hedstrom files D. Safety Hedstrom files

153. Entry of Caldwell procedure is made through ______ A. Incisive fossa B. Canine fossa C. Molar prominence D. Tuberosity

147. Ferrier double bow separators work on the principle of A. Wedge B. Pulley C. Traction D. Chemical means

ORAL SURGERY 148. Tooth which is involved in most common cause of oro antral communication is A. II premolar B. I premolar C. I molar D. II molar 149. ‘Hot Potato’ voice is characteristically seen in A. Pterygomandibular space infection B. Retropharyngeal space infection C. Pre tracheal space infection D. Lateral pharyngeal space infection 150. The head tilt procedure while dealing with an unconscious patient in dental chair is done to ensure A. Patent airway B. Blood circulation to the brain C. To clear the foreign body obstacle D. To relive spasm of respiratory muscles 151. Hilton’s method is used for A. Drainage of space infection B. Drainage of cystic lesions C. Drainage of abscess D. Drainage of vascular lesions

154. Ludwig’s angina is caused due to pus collection in A. Submandibular fascial space B. Paravertebral space C. Retromandibular space D. Parotid space

SECTION B Q. 155–158 A 58 year old htealthy man was evaluated for a toothache of 2 days duration. He was treated with oral penicillin and an opiate analgesic and advised to have the affected teeth pulled. He returned less than 24 hours later reporting severe swelling in the neck, sore throat, chills, and chest pain. On examination, the floor of his oral cavity was indurated and woody, and he marked tenderness and adenopathy throughout his neck. He had erythema spreading from his neck down over his anterior chest wall where his chest pain was localized. 155. The patient is suffering from A. Quinsy B. Ludwigs angina C. Acute parotitis D. Angioneurotic edema 156. This condition is an emergency as it can lead to A. Difficulty in swallowing B. Aspiration pneumonia C. Air way obstruction D. CSOM

COMEDK 2012

145. The endodontics instrument number indicates the A. Tip diameter B. Length of the instrument C. Cutting length of the instrument D. Tip angle

COMEDK 2012

38

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

157. The infection spreads to the A. Submental, sublingual and submandibular spaces B. Parapharyngeal spaces C. Nasopharyngeal area D. Sinusitis 158. The treatment of choice in such an acute condition would be A. Antibiotic and antifungal therapy B. Removal of the offending tooth C. Continue the penicillin in larger doses D. Surgical drainage, antibiotic and intensive care Q. 159–161 A 15 year old boy reports with a rapidly growing swelling of the mandible with intermittent pain, patient given history that the swelling occurred after an episode of trauma. Radiographs reveal formation of layers of new subperiosteal bone producing Onion Skin appearance. The patient also has lip paraesthesia and elevated white blood cell count. 159. Based on the clinical and radiographic picture one of the following conditions could be considered in the provisional diagnosis A. Fracture of the jaw with cancellous bone formation B. Chronic suppurative osteomyelitis C. Burkitt’s lymphoma D. Ewing’s sarcoma 160. One of the following statements is true for Ewing’s sarcoma A. An episode of trauma often precedes development of Ewing’s sarcoma B. Trauma is main etiology in the development of Ewing’s sarcoma C. Relationship between trauma and Ewing’s sarcoma has never been reported D. Trauma can be considered as etiology for Ewing’s sarcoma provided there is secondary infection

161. The most important factor associated with causation of head and neck carcinomas is A. Intravenous drug abuse B. Exposure to nickel C. History of syphilis D. Tobacco use Q. 162–165 A 40 year old male patient reported with the chief complaint of missing back teeth in the upper jaw, and desired replacement of the same. On clinical examination revealed missing 15, 16, 17, 18, 24, 25, 26, 27 and 28. 162. What is the Kennedy’s classification for the given clinical scenario A. Class II B. Class III C. Class VI D. Class I 163. Special design feature to be included in the above given clinical situation is A. Broad occlusal table B. Minimal extension of denture base C. Indirect retainer D. Tube teeth 164. One of the special impression methods to be employed for class – I situation is A. Closed mouth impression technique B. Open mouth technique C. Corrected cast technique D. Mucocompressive technique 165. Major connector choice for the above given clinical situation is A. Palatal bar B. Palatal strap C. Horse shoe connector D. Complete palate Q. 166–169 18 years old male reported with chief complaint of sensitivity and deep, dull, radiating pain during chewing. Intra -oral examination showed sparse plaque and dental calculus deposits, distolabial migration of the maxillary incisors with diastema formation, mobility of maxillary and mandibular

COMEDK 2012

39

170. The probable diagnosis of the above condition is A. Parathyroid carcinoma B. Hyperthyroidism C. Squamous cell lung cancer D. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

166. The most likely disease is A. Chronic periodontitis B. Refractory periodontitis C. Localized Aggressive periodontitis D. Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis

171. Urgent treatment to be instituted for him would be A. Intravenous administration of normal saline and a bisphosphonate B. Oxygen 6L/m by mask C. Antibiotics and anti-inflammatory drugs D. Anti tussive and chest physiotherapy

167. The bacterial etiology of this disease is A. A.actinomycetemcomitans B. A.Viscosus C. A.Naeslundii D. S.aureus 168. The antigens consistently associated with this disease are A. HLA A9 and B15 B. HLA A0 and B30 C. HLA A15 and B9 D. HLA A 30 and B0 169. The host modulation therapy that may be used as adjunctive therapy for this disease is A. Subantimicrobial — dose clindamycin B. Subantimicrobial — dose metronidazole C. Subantimicrobial—dose doxycycline D. Subantimicrobial — dose ciprofloxacin Q. 170-173 A 41 year old man presented to the emergency with a 9 months history of cough, exertional dyspnea, nocturnal diaphoresis, and weight loss of 10 kg. The physical examination revealed painless, massive, discrete, rubbery cervical, supraclavicular and axillary lymphadenopathy. Pain radiography of the chest showed bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. The serum calcium level was elevated at 16.2 mg per deciliter; serum parathyroid hormone is within normal range.

172. A diagnostic investigation was performed on him A. FNAC of the mediastinal lymph node B. Excisional biopsy of the axillary node C. CT chest and abdomen D. Core needle biopsy of the neck node 173. The treatment regimen consists of A. Chemotherapeutic regiment of doxo-rubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine and dacarbazine B. Anti tuberculosis regimen of TNH, rifampicin, ethambutol and PAS C. Linear radiation to the cost D. Radical thyroidectomy and neck node dissection Q. 174-176 A 12 year old boy reported with a class II div 1 malocelusion with proclined upper incisor and deep bite. Extraoral examination revealed a bilaterally symmetrical face, convex profile, potentially competent lips with normal incisor display during rest and smile. Cephalometric finding showed that the patient had a horizontal growth direction with CVMI stage III, increased overjet and normal lower incisor inclination. 174. What would be the appliance of choice for this patient? A. Twin block B. Activator

COMEDK 2012

incisors and first molars. Prescribed radiographs showed an arc shaped loss of alveolar bone extending from the distal surface of the mandibular second premolar to the mesial surface of the second molar. There was vertical bone loss in the maxillary incisor region.

40

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

COMEDK 2012

C. Bionator D. Supermarionator 175. What is the right time to start deep bite correction with Twin Block Appliance? A. 1 week B. 2 week C. 3 week D. 4 week 176. What is the best method of prevent proclination of lower incisors while treating a case with Twin block appliance? A. Inter proximal reduction of lower incisors B. Guided eruption C. Incisor capping D. Lip pads Q. 177–180 5 year old residential school child walks in to your clinic with the habit of thumb sucking in association with bruxism

177. What would be probable cause A. Food habits B. Nasal septum deviation C. Habitual D. Psychological 178. Usually sucking digit will be having A. Fibrous roughened callus B. Laceration of digit C. Habitual D. Psychological 179. Chemical approach for reminder therapy is A. Fem B. Femite C. Nail polish D. Nail polish with flavor 180. Following effects are seen on maxilla except A. Increased S.N to ANS - PNS Angle B. Increased proclination C. Increased maxillary arch length D. Increased SNA

41

COMEDK 2012

HUMAN ANATOMY 1. Ans: B. Mylohyoid groove Ref: BD Chaurasia 5/E, vol. 3, p. 159 2. Ans: C. Deep facial vein Ref: Repeat of Q. 3, 2007 3. Ans: C. Retro pharyngeal nodes Ref: BD Chaurasia 5/E, vol 3, P.191 4. Ans: C. Near the base of tongue close to foramen caecum Ref: IB Singh, 8/E, p. 112 5. Ans: D. Temporal bone Ref: Zargar, Sushil Kumar, Anatomy for dental students, 1/E, p. 98. Explanation: It is formed by the inferior surface of petrous part of temporal bone. 6. Ans: A. Superior meatus Ref: BD Chaurasia, 5/E, p. 112 7. Ans: A. Greater palatine canal Ref: Poddar’s handbook of osteology, 11/E, p. 143 8. Ans: D. Right maxillary artery Ref: BD Chaurasia 5/E, vol 3, p. 53 9. Ans: C. Liver Ref: James H. Chow, The encyclopedia of hepatitis and other liver disease, 1/E, p. 204.

PHYSIOLOGY 10. Ans: C. 20 to 24 °C for 3 to 5 days Ref: Denise N. Harmening, Modern blood banking and transfusion practices, 6/E, p. 16

11. Ans: C. Ubiquitin Ref: Chatterjee, 8/E, p. 131 12. Ans: B. 20 days. Ref: William J. Marshall , Clinical Biochemistry: Metabolic and Clinical Aspects, 2/E, p. 264 13. Ans: C. Closure of the aortic valve Ref: Ganong’s Review of medical physiology, 23/E, p. 512

BIOCHEMISTRY 14. Ans: B. Lysosomes Ref: Handbook of mucosal immunology, 1/E, p. 29 15. Ans: A. Catalase Ref: Handbook of mucosal immunology, 1/E, p. 658 16. Ans: B. 41 Ref: Michelle Mcguire, Nutritional Sciences, From Fundamentals to Food, 3/E, p. 184. 17. Ans: A. Zellweger's syndrome Ref: Sathyanarayan, 3/E, p. 8

GENERAL PATHOLOGY 18. Ans: A. Apoptotic cell death Ref: Robbin’s 7/E, p. 30 19. Ans: C. Sarcoidosis Ref: Harsh mohan, Essential pathology for dental students, 3/E, p. 133 20. Ans: D. Poor diabetes control Ref: Harsh mohan, Essential pathology for dental students, 3/E, p. 414

COMEDK 2012

SECTION A

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

42

21. Ans: B. UV -B

COMEDK 2012

Ref: Paul K. Buxton, dermatology, 5/E, p. 40

32. Ans: C. Imipenem ABC

of

33. Ans: C. Idiosyncratic effect

22. Ans: A. Hereditary spherocytosis Ref: Harsh Mohan, Essential pathology for dental students, 3/E, p. 469

Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 81 34. Ans: D. Anti-oxidant for vasoconstrictor Ref: Vinod Kapoor, 2/E, p. 64

MICROBIOLOGY

35. Ans: B. Tetracycline

23. Ans: C. Opsonization Ref: Wintrobe's Clinical Hematology, Volume 1, John p. Greer, 12/E, p. 283 24. Ans: B. Gametocyte Ref: Encyclopedia of Parasitology: A–M, Volumes 1–2, Heinz Mehlhorn, 3/E, p. 760 25. Ans: A. Aspergillus niger Ref: Textbook of microbiology, Ananthnarayan & Panicker, 8/E, p. 614 26. Ans: D. Deuteromycetes Ref: Textbook of microbiology, Ananthnarayan & Panicker, 8/E, p. 601 27. Ans: A. Fimbriae Ref: Koneman’s Color Atlas and Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology, Elmer W. Koneman, 6/E, P.192 28. Ans: A. Shigella sonnei Ref: Textbook of microbiology, Ananthnarayan & Panicker, 8/E, p. 283 29. Ans: C. Recombinant Ref: Textbook of microbiology, Ananthnarayan & Panicker, 8/E, p. 544 30. Ans: C. Cl. perfingens Ref: Textbook of microbiology, Ananthnarayan & Panicker, 8/E, p. 251

PHARMACOLOGY

Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 85 36. Ans: B. Decreasing the membrane permeability to Na + ions there by stabilizing nerve membrane Ref: Monhiem’s 7/ E, p. 130 37. Ans: D. Ed50 Ref: Laurence Brunton, Goodman and Gilman’s The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, p. 78

GENERAL MEDICINE 38. Ans: D. Aspirin Ref: Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 17/E, p. 2237 39. Ans: A: Insulin therapy Ref: Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 17/E, pp. 285, 466 40. Ans: B. Undergoes calcification Ref: Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 17/E, p. 1010 41. Ans: B. Klinefelter syndrome Ref: Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 17/E, p. 2340 42. Ans: C. Agranulocytosis Ref: Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 17/E, p. 667–668 43. Ans: B. Chronic renal failure

31. Ans: C. PHASE - I Ref: Remington: Essentials Pharmaceutics, 1/E, p. 96

Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 708

of

Ref: Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 17/E, p. 1763

43

COMEDK 2012

44. Ans: D. Kaposi’s sarcoma Ref: Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 17/E, p. 1137 Ref: Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 17/E, p. 375, 638 46. Ans: B. Congestive heart failure Ref: Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 17/E, p. 1458 47. Ans: B. Mutation with DNA repair gene Ref: Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 17/E, p. 665 48. Ans: C. Haemolytic disease of newborn Ref: Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 17/E, pp. 641, 1116 49. Ans: B. Tuberculosis Ref: Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 17/E, p. 2148 50. Ans: A: Decrease in pH of blood Ref: Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 17/E, p. 2283 51. Ans: A: Congenital thymic aplasia Ref: Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 17/E, p. 2057 52. Ans: B. Lamivudine Ref: Howard Libman, HIV, 3/E, p. 263

GENERAL SURGERY 53. Ans: D. Bilateral partial section of recurrent laryngeal nerve Ref: Paolo Miccoli,Thyroid Surgery: Preventing and Managing Complications, 1/E, p. 195 54. Ans: C. Thoraco abdominal incision Ref: Corrado Lavini, The Thymus Gland: Diagnosis and Surgical Management, 1/E, p. 63

55. Ans: C. Propane Ref: Phillips 11/E, p. 613 56. Ans: B. 20 to 26 gms/sq.cm Ref: Vrijhoef, Dental amalgam, 1/E, p. 102 57. Ans: A. Propane Ref: Phillips 11/E, p. 613 58. Ans: C. Shear Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 78 59. Ans: A. Within 6mm of the open end of the ring Ref: Phillips , 11/E, p. 322 60. Ans: B. Process of removing the absorbed impurities Ref: Phillips , 11/E, p. 545 61. Ans: C. Stannous octate Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 213 62. Ans: B. Ammonia Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 552 63. Ans: D. Using humidor Ref: Phillips , 11/E, p. 224 64. Ans: B. Decrease setting time Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 264 65. Ans: D. Water accelerates but heat retards the setting of zinc oxide eugenol cements Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 490 66. Ans: D. Knoops hardness test Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 98 67. Ans: D. Alginate and Agar Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 245

COMEDK 2012

45. Ans: C. Pneumococcal vaccination

DENTAL MATERIALS

44

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

68. Ans: A. Gold alloy's

COMEDK 2012

Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 296 69. Ans: D. Stearic acid Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 251

DADH 70. Ans: A. 45% to 50% Ref: Orban’s ,12/E, p. 137 71. Ans: B. Derived from reduced enamel epithelium Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 241 72. Ans: D. Premolar and molar region of the mandible on the lingual side Ref: Orban's, 12/E, p. 201

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE 73. Ans: B. Pulp stones are due to dystrophic calcification Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 579 74. Ans: A. Initiation Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 45 75. Ans: B. Ameloblastoma Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 272 76. Ans: C. Type II dentine dysplasia Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 57 77. Ans: B. Hecks disease Ref: Burket, 11/E, p. 137 78. Ans: A. Lamina dura Ref: Ten Cate, 7/E, p. 254 79. Ans: B. Ankylosing spondylitis Ref: Bergan, Methods in Microbiology, Vol. 14, p.160 80. Ans: D. Glandular odontogenic cyst Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 697

81. Ans: A. Primitive neuro ectodermal tumour (PNET) Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, p. 164 82. Ans: C. Ramsay Hunt Syndrome Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, p. 346 83. Ans: C. Facial nerve Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, p. 849 84. Ans: A. Visual analog scale Ref: burket’s 11/E, p. 237 85. Ans: A. Basal cell carcinoma Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, p. 100 86. Ans: D. Osteopetrosis Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, p. 700 87. Ans: B. Herpex Zoster Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, pp. 345, 346 88. Ans: C. 48 mm Ref: Ghom’s 2/E, p. 221 89. Ans: B. Inability to repair sunlight induced damage to DNA Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, p. 649, 650 90. Ans: B. Inability to whistle Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, p. 849 91. Ans: A. A cracked tooth Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, p. 844

ORAL RADIOLOGY 92. Ans: A. Water’s projection Ref: Ongole & Praveen, Text book of Oral Medicine, Oral Diagnosis and Oral Radiology, 1/E, p. 152 93. Ans: B. Aunt Minnie method Ref: Freny Karjodkar, 2/E, p. 376 94. Ans: B. Osteomyelitis with proliferative periostitis Ref: W & P, 6/E, p. 333

45

COMEDK 2012

ORTHODONTICS 95. Ans: A. Edwards

96. Ans: C. Muscle and Bone tissue Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 10 97. Ans: B. Reinforced anchorage Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 208 98. Ans: C. Disimpacted with “disimpaction springs” Ref: Houston, A textbook of orthodontics, 1/E, p. 185 99. Ans: D. Continued eruption of opposing teeth Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 223 100. Ans: B. At or close to apex of root Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 183 101. Ans: D. 1mm per week Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 256 102. Ans: A. Distolingual aspect of the maxillary teeth and distofacial aspect of the mandibular teeth 103. Ans: D. Maxillary anterior Ref: Phulari, 1/E, p. 245

PEDODONTICS 104. Ans: A. Hank’s balanced salt solution Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 598–599 105. Ans: C. Physical restraint Ref: AAPD reference manual, vol 43, no 6, 2012–2013 106. Ans: C. Objective fears Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 136 107. Ans: C. Behavior shaping Ref: Mc Donald, 8/E, p. 44–45

Ref: Mc Donald, 8/E, p. 632–633 109. Ans: B. Type II ECC Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 217 110. Ans: C. Inappropriate use of feeding bottle Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 217 111. Ans: C. 10000–10,00,000 Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 216

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY 112. Ans: C. Rate, ratio, proportion Ref: Soben Peter, 1/E, p. 86 113. Ans: A. Whether programme results meet predetermined objectives Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 622 114. Ans: D. Quota sampling Ref: Park, 21/E, p. 788 115. Ans: D. DCPD + calcium Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 302 116. Ans: B. Berkesonian bias Ref: Park, 21/E, p. 70 117. Ans: A. Truthfulness Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 664 118. Ans: B. Ability of a test identify correctly those who do not have the disease Ref: Park, 21/E, p. 128 119. Ans: B. T-test Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 60 120. Ans: A. Public health practice Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 670 121. Ans: B. 14 yrs Ref: Hiremath, Textbook of Preventive and Community Dentistry, 1/E, p. 356

COMEDK 2012

Ref: Proffit, 4/E, p. 615

108. Ans: B. 4–5 months

46

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

122. Ans: C. Bio-assay

COMEDK 2012

Ref: Ge Wu, Assay development, Fundamentals & Practices, 1/E, p. 1 123. Ans: B. Plaque pH and glucose rinse Ref: Hiremath, Textbook of Preventive and Community Dentistry, 1/E, p. 320 124. Ans: D. Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment Ref: Park's, 21/E, p. 78 125. Ans: C. Rate, ratio, proportion Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 80

PROSTHODONTICS 126. Ans: C. Enlarging the gingival sulcus and control of hemorrhage Ref: Schillinburg, 3/E, p. 261 127. Ans: B. 4 times Ref: Implants & Restorative dentistry, Scortecci, 1/E, p. 63 128. Ans: A. A knife edged ridge Ref: Wrinkler, 2/E. p. 23 129. Ans: A. Convenience bite Ref: Tylman, 1/E, p. 143 130. Ans: B. Lost wax technique Ref: Rosensteil, 4/E, p. 555 131. Ans: A. Minimal tooth preparation Ref: Lovely, 1/E. p. 239 132. Ans: B. Cement prosthesis interface Ref: Phillip’s, 12/E, p. 457

PERIODONTICS 133. Ans: D. Plasma cell Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 359 134. Ans: B. 0.25 to 1.35 mm Ref: Carranza 9/E, p. 23

135. Ans: B. Gingival enlargement Ref: Carranza, 10/E, pp. 378–9 Gingival enlargement can be a consequence of intake of calcium channel blockers, anticonvulsants and immunosuppressants 136. Ans: B. Prevotella intermedia Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 241 Increase in hormone levels appear to correlate with increase in the subgingival proportions of prevotella intermedia. It is a microbe that can substitute progesterone or estradiol for vitamin K as an essential bacterial growth factor. 137. Ans: C. Mandibular premolars Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 47 Width of attached gingiva on the facial aspect differs in different areas of the mouth. It is generally greater in the incisor region (3.5 – 4.5 mm in maxilla and 3.3 – 3.9 mm in mandible), and narrower in the posterior segments (1.9 mm in maxillary and 1.8 mm in mandibular first premolars). 138. Ans: D. Lack of tactile sensitivity Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 583 Automatic probes like the florida probe lack tactile sensitivity mainly because of their independent movement, which forces the operator to predetermine an insertion point and angle. The use of a fixed force setting throughout the mouth regardless of the site or inflammatory status, may generate inaccurate measurement or patient discomfort. Florida probe is reported to underestimate the depth of probing on deep probing. 139. Ans: A. Alveolar crest group Ref: Carranza,10/E, p. 70 Alveolar crest fibres prevent the extrusion of the tooth and resisit lateral tooth movements.

47

COMEDK 2012

140. Ans: C. Transeptal fibers Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 241

Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 592 152. Ans: C. Lateral pterygoid Ref: Kruger, Textbook of oral and maxillofacial surgery, 6/E, p. 378 153. Ans: B. Canine fossa

CONS AND ENDO 141. Ans: D. Retention of the restoration Ref: Sturdevant, 3/E, pp. 504–505 142. Ans: A. Results in 30° metal that is burnishable Ref: Sturdevant, 3/E, p. 700 143. Ans: B. 0.0015 inch Ref: Vimal Sikri, 1/E, p. 158 144. Ans: B. 75±15° Ref: Torabinejad, Endodontics: Principles & Practice, 4/E, p. 208 145. Ans: A. Tip diameter Ref: Torabinejad, Endodontics: Principles & Practice, 4/E, p. 208 146. Ans: D. Safety Hedstrom files Ref: Ingle, 6/E, p. 822 147. Ans: C. Traction Ref: Nisha Garg, Review of endodontics & operative dentistry, 1/E, p. 173

ORAL SURGERY 148. Ans: C. I molar Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 572 149. Ans: C. Pre tracheal space infection Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 623 150. Ans: A. Patent airway Ref: Manual of Emergency Airway Manage-ment, Ron M. Walls, Michael Francis Murphy, 3/E, p. 49

Ref: Kruger, Textbook of oral and maxillofacial surgery, 6/E, p. 292 154. Ans: A. Submandibular fascial space Ref: Kruger, Textbook of oral and maxillofacial surgery, 6/E, p. 213 155. Ans: B. Ludwigs angina Ref: Kruger, Textbook of oral and maxillofacial surgery, 6/E, p. 213 156. Ans: C. Air way obstruction Ref: Kruger, Textbook of oral and maxillofacial surgery, 6/E, p. 213 157. Ans: A. Submental, sublingual and submandibular spaces Ref: Kruger, Textbook of oral and maxillofacial surgery, 6/E, p. 213 158. Ans: D. Surgical drainage, antibiotic and intensive care Ref: Kruger, Textbook of oral and maxillofacial surgery, 6/E, p. 214 159. Ans: D. Ewing’s sarcoma Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, p. 165 160. Ans: A. An episode of trauma often precedes development of Ewing's sarcoma Ref: Shafer’s 6/E, p. 165 161. Ans: D. Tobacco use Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 410 162. Ans: D. Class I Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 271 163. Ans: C. Indirect retainer Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 370

COMEDK 2012

Transseptal fibres extend interproximally over the alveolar bone crest and are embedded in the cementum of adjacent teeth.

151. Ans: C. Drainage of abscess

48

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

164. Ans: C. Corrected cast technique

COMEDK 2012

Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 421 165. Ans: D. Complete palate Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E. p. 329–330 166. Ans: C. Localized periodontitis

Aggressive

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 158 167. Ans: A. A.actinomycetemcomitans Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 243 A.actinomycetemcomitans has been isolated in upto 97% of LAP patients compared with 21% of adult periodontitis patients and 17% of healthy subjects. 168. Ans: A. HLA A9 and B15 Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 200 The risk of disease in patiuents with HLA A9 and B15 antigens is about 1.5 - 3.5 times greater than in those lacking these antigens 169. Ans: C. Subantimicrobial – dose doxycycline Ref: Carranza,10/E, p. 698 Box 46 – 1 170. Ans: D. Hodgkin's lymphoma Ref: Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 17/E, p. 698 171. Ans: A: Intravenous administration of normal saline and a bisphosphonate

Ref: Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 17/E, p. 699 172. Ans: B. Excisional biopsy of the axillary node Ref: Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 17/E, p. 699 173. Ans: A: Chemotherapeutic regiment of doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine and dacarbazine Ref: Harrison’s principles of internal medicine, 17/E, pp. 699, 1109 174. Ans: A. Twin block Ref: Gurkeerat Singh, 2/E, p. 530 175. Ans: A. 1 week Ref: Gurkeerat Singh, 2/E, p. 530 176. Ans: C. Incisor capping Ref: Gurkeerat Singh, 2/E, p. 530 177. Ans: D. Psychological Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 493 178. Ans: A. Fibrous roughened callus Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 498 179. Ans: B. Femite Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 503 180. Ans: A. Increased S.N to ANS-PNS Angle Ref : Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 500

3 COMEDK 2011 NOTE: COMEDK 2011 question paper has section A (150 MCQs) and section B (30 MCQs). Section A is of randomised MCQs while section B is case-based MCQs

5. One of the following nerve is the motor nerve for occipital belly of occipitofrontalis A. Great auricular B. Lesser occipital C. Third occipital D. Posterior auricular

SECTION A ANATOMY

6. Infection from the dangerous area of face spreads via one of the following veins A. Maxillary vein B. Retromandibular vein C. Superficial temporal vein D. Ophthalmic vein

1. All of the following canals open on the posterior wall of the pterygo palatine fossa EXCEPT A. Greater palatine canal B. Foramen Rotundum C. Pterygoid canal D. Palatovaginal canal

PHYSIOLOGY 7. In a nerve, the magnitude of the action potential overshoot is normally a function of the A. Magnitude of the stimulus B. Intracellular potassium concentration C. Extracellular sodium concentration D. Resting membrane potential

2. Ultimobranchial body forms A. ‘C’ cells of thyroid gland B. Principal cells of parathyroid gland C. Acidophils of pituitary gland D. Pituicytes of pituitary gland 3. Openings of the posterior alveolar canals are seen on A. Posterior maxillary surface B. Lateral maxillary surface C. Infra temporal surface D. Pterygo palatine fossa

8. Contraction in smooth muscle is initiated when calcium binds to A. Calbindin B. Calmodulin C. Troponin D. Tropomyosin

4. Hypoglossal nerve supplies all the muscles EXCEPT A. Styloglossus B. Stylopharyngeus C. Palatoglossus D. Genioglossus

9. Non-myelinated axons differ from myelinated ones in that they A. Are more excitable B. Lack nodes of Ranvier C. Are not capable of regeneration D. Are not associated with Schwann cells 49

50

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

COMEDK 2011

10. All the following hormones bind to cell surface receptors of the target tissues EXCEPT A. Thyroid stimulating hormone B. Glucagon C. Estrogen D. Epinephrine

BIOCHEMISTRY 11. Ehrlich test is done to detect A. Bilirubin B. Urobilinogen C. Bile salts D. Protein 12. Plasma Ceruloplasmin is A. Alpha 1 globulin B. Alpha 2 globulin C. Beta 1 globulin D. Beta 2 globulin 13. An example of an isotope that is predominantly a beta emitter is A. Iodine 125 B. Phosphorus 32 C. Chromium 51 D. Technetium 99 14. The nitrogen content in 50 gm of a typical dietary protein is most likely to be A. 5 gm B. 8 gm C. 10 gm D. 16 gm

GENERAL PATHOLOGY 15. Sarcoidosis is A. Uncommon in Afro–Caribbean B. Less common in smokers C. Seen in temperate climate D. Single system disorder 16. Ubiquitin is involved in A. Intracellular proteolysis B. Electron transport chain

C. Transport of ATP D. Protein folding 17. Durck granule’s are seen in A. Berylliosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Tuberculosis D. Malaria 18. Phagocytes kill bacteria through which mechanism A. Membrane attack complex killing B. Oxidative and Non-oxidative killing C. Zipper killing D. Chemotaxis

MICROBIOLOGY 19. A full course of immunization against, Tetanus with 3 doses of Tetanus toxoids, confers immunity for how many years A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 20. Pseudomonas aeruginosa A. Produces heat stable enterotoxin B. Causes Shanghai fever C. Cannot be destroyed at 55º at 1 hr D. Does not produce any pigment 21. Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by A. M. kansasii B. M. ulcerans C. M. chelonae D. M. smegmatis 22. The most frequent non-sporing anaerobic bacilli isolated from clinical specimens is A. Bacteroides fragilis B. Bacteroides vulgatus C. Prevotella melaninogenica D. Fusobacterium nucleatum

51

COMEDK 2011

PHARMACOLOGY 24. Which among the following is used as an immunosuppressant A. Cyclosporine B. Cycloserine C. Cyclopentolate D. Cyclizine 25. Which of the following Anti-tubercular drug is bacteriostatic A. INH B. Ethambutol C. Pyrazinamide D. Streptomycin 26. Among the drugs given below, which is LEAST likely to be implicated in drug induced hepatitis A. Isoniazid B. Streptomycin C. Ripampicin D. Pyrazinamide 27. Daily loss of iron per day in a healthy adult male is A. 0.06 mg B. 0.6 mg C. 60 mg D. 600 mg 28. Which among the following drugs is NOT used orally? A. Quinidine B. Verapamil

C. Lignocaine D. Phenytoin 29. Which among the drugs given below, does NOT act by protease inhibition? A. Ritonavir B. Saquinavir C. Nelfinavir D. Zanamivir 30. All of the given drugs are positive ionotropes EXCEPT A. Dopamine B. Dobutamine C. Digoxin D. Doxepin 31. During the cell cycle, Colchicine is known to act in A. G1 phase B. S phase C. G2 phase D. M phase 32. The use of vasoconstrictors adrenaline and noradrenaline with LA is contraindicated in patients on A. Antiepileptic drugs B. Antihypertensive drugs C. Tricyclic antidepressant drugs D. Anxiolytic drugs

GENERAL MEDICINE 33. In Trossieur’s sign the lymph nodes involved are A. Right axillary nodes B. Left axillary nodes C. Right supraclavicular nodes D. Left supraclavicular nodes 34. Salivary protein which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva is A. Sialoperoxidase B. Secretory IgA C. Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor D. Histidine rich proteins

COMEDK 2011

23. Anaphylaxis refers to the A. Severe reaction following reinfection of protein solutions in a sensitized individual B. Severe reaction followings primary infection of protein solutions C. State of immunity developed by repeated infection of any foreign substance D. Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens

52

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

COMEDK 2011

35. Oral ulceration resembling Aphthae are encountered in A. Gluten enteropathy B. Chronic smokers C. Excess of B – Complex D. Anti – malarial medication 36. Acute rheumatic fever usually follows an infection with A. Streptococcus mutans B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Streptococcus viridans 37. Which is a DNA virus A. Hepatitis A virus B. Hepatitis B virus C. Hepatitis C virus D. Hepatitis D virus

C. Metronidazole D. Linezolid 42. Increased levels of hemoglobin A2 is characteristic of A. Sickle cell trait B. α Thalassemia minor C. Glucose – 6 – phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency D. β–thalassemia 43. Which one of the following is indicative of cardiac tamponade A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Wide pulse pressure C. Kussmaul’s sign D. Forceful apical impulse

GENERAL SURGERY

38. Warthin – Finkedley multinucleated giant cell is diagnostic of A. Tuberuculosis B. Mumps C. Measles D. Sarcoidosis

44. All the following nerves are encountered during submandibular gland resection EXCEPT A. Lingual nerve B. Hypoglossal nerve C. Accessory nerve D. Marginal mandibular nerve

39. Treatment of Torsades de Pontes is intravenous A. Magnesium B. Sodium bicarbonate C. Saline D. Glucose

45. Malignant ulcer is differentiated from Benign by A. Heaping up of margins B. Fibrous scars radiating from crater C. Induration of base D. Clean base

40. Squamous metaplasia in the respiratory epithelium is induced by deficiency of A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin B C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin C

46. Which of the following statements is true regarding thyroglobulin? A. It is a specific marker for anaplastic carcinoma B. Elevation after complete therapy suggests recurrence in well differentiated thyroid malignancies C. Preoperative elevation always suggests thyroidal disease D. Intraoperative estimation from thyroid veins is very useful for prognosis

41. Which among the following is the drug of choice for Clostridium difficile – induced colitis? A. Gentamicin B. Ciprofloxacin

53

COMEDK 2011

DENTAL MATERIALS

48. Electralloy R B is alloy of gold and A. Carbon B. Platinum C. Calcium D. Palladium 49. The best pickling solution for gypsum bonded investments A. Hydrochloric acid B. Nitric acid C. Sulphuric acid D. Phosphoric acid 50. The most practical method for avoiding any possible delayed distortion of the wax pattern is to A. Use heated instruments during carving of the wax pattern B. Invest the wax pattern immediately C. Swaging the wax pattern in a closed vessel D. Applying finger pressure during cooling of the wax 51. Material that facilitates removal of impression from cast is A. Rosin B. Starch C. Sodium chloride D. Borates 52. ADA specification number for gypsum products are described under A. 1 B. 4 C. 12 D. 25

54. The material used to outline the area to be soldered in order to restrict the flow of solder is called A. Antiflux B. Flux C. Soldering D. Welding

DADH 55. Nerve endings of temporomandibular joint, confined to ligaments associated with the joint A. Ruffini corpuscles B. Pacini corpuscles C. Golgi tendon organs D. Free nerve endings 56. Mucous membrane on the buccal aspect of the upper alveolar process is innervated by buccal nerve and A. Superior alveolar nerve B. Mental nerve C. Interior alveolar nerve D. Greater palatine nerve 57. The intimal B cells of synovial membrane of temporomandibular joint are A. Fibroblast like B. Macrophage like C. Lymphocyte like D. Plasma cell like 58. The maximum rate of eruption, as the tooth cusps reach the surface epithelium is around _______ μm/day A. 1.0 B. 7.5 C. 5.0 D. 2.5

COMEDK 2011

47. The safest method for soaking dental cast is A. Placing in a saturated solution of calcium sulfate B. Placing in water C. Placing in saturated solution of sodium chloride D. Placing in solution of gypsum slurry

53. Frozen slab technique is applicable to A. Zinc phosphate cement B. Glass ionomer cement C. Zinc oxide eugenol cement D. Resin cement

54

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

COMEDK 2011

59. Striae of Retzius A. Are not found in permanent teeth B. Represent the daily growth rate of enamel C. Result from temporary constriction of Tomes’ process D. Has more number of crystals 60. In a dried skull, holes on the lingual aspects of the deciduous teeth are called A. Volkmann canals B. Canals of Hirschfield and Zuckerkandl C. Haversian canals D. Gubernacular canals 61. Successor permanent teeth develop from A. Buccal extension of Dental lamina B. Lingual extension of Dental lamina C. Distal extension of Dental lamina D. Main or parent Dental lamina

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE 62. ‘Denture sore mouth’ are also known as A. Acute psuedomembranous candidiasis B. Acute atrophic candidiasis C. Chronic atrophic candidiasis D. Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis 63. Multiple pulp stones are seen in A. Down syndrome B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Marfan’s syndrome D. Apert’s syndrome 64. A positive Chvostek’s sign is suggestive of A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Acidosis 65. Sinusitis may cause referred pain in A. Maxillary anterior teeth B. Maxillary posterior teeth

C. Mandibular anterior teeth D. Mandibular posterior teeth 66. Intake of which of the following leads to increased incidence of dry socket A. Antihypertensives B. Antiepileptics C. Oral hypoglycemics D. Oral contraceptives 67. Rushton bodies are seen in A. Calcifying odontogenic cyst B. Gingival cyst of adults C. Gingival cyst of new born D. Lateral periodontal cyst 68. Kveim Siltzbach test is useful in the diagnosis of A. Tuberculosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Leprosy D. Cat scratch disease 69. Thrombocytopenia due to increased platelet destruction is seen in A. Aplastic anemia B. Cancer chemotherapy C. Acute leukemia D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 70. von Willebrand’s disease is due to the A. Deficiency of factor X and factor IV B. Deficiency of factor XII and factor IX C. Deficiency of factor VIII and decreased platelet adhesion D. Deficiency of factor X and factor V 71. Neonatal teeth erupt A. At birth B. In first 30 days C. In first week D. In first 2 weeks 72. Which of these is NOT a pre-malignant condition for oral cancers A. Leukoplakia B. Aphthous ulcers C. Erythroplakia D. Submucous fibrosis

55

COMEDK 2011

73. Frey syndrome is caused due to the injury of A. Lesser occipital nerve B. Auriculo temporal nerve C. Supra trochlear nerve D. Infra orbital nerve

75. Mucocutaneous lesion associated with neoplasia A. Pemphigus vegetans B. Parapemphigus C. Paraneoplastic pemphigus D. Familial benign pemphigus 76. Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to A. Invasion B. Endotoxin C. Exotoxin D. Capsule 77. Most common salivary gland tumor arising in the jaws A. Pleomorphic adenoma B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma C. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma D. Acinic cell carcinoma 78. Which among the following is NOT a common feature of trigeminal neuralgia A. Usually affecting the middle aged and elderly B. Sharp, stabbing pain lasting seconds C. The most common sites involved are the mandibular canine and maxillary canine areas D. Pain usually crossing the midline of the face

79. Digital image in computerized Radiography is made up of A. Pixels B. CCD C. CMOS D. Silver halide crystals 80. Deterministic effects of radiation are those effects in which the severity of response A. Is proportional to the dose B. Is determined by the operator C. Depends on composition of tissue D. Depends on volume of exposed tissue 81. Which of the following interactions does not cause film fog A. Coherent scattering B. Transient scattering C. Photoelectric absorption D. Compton scattering 82. Cervical burnout is a phenomenon caused by decreased X-ray absorption in the cervical region of A. Teeth with proximal caries B. Normal teeth C. Teeth with root caries D. Hypoplastic teeth 83. Following organ is LEAST radiosensitive to the effects of exposure to radiation A. Testes B. Bone marrow C. Muscle D. Intestine 84. “Sharpened pencil” appearance of mandibular condyle on a radiograph indicates A. Osteoarthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Infectious arthritis D. Juvenile arthrosis

COMEDK 2011

74. Aspirate which is creamy white viscoid with the value of total protein less than 5.0 gms/ 100 ml is suggestive of A. Infected cyst B. Dentigerous cyst C. Odontogenic Keratocyst D. Ranula

ORAL RADIOLOGY

56

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

COMEDK 2011

85. Compared with calcium tungstate screens, rare earth screens decrease patient exposure by about A. 15% B. 35% C. 55% D. 75% 86. The minimum amount of tooth demineralization required for radiographic detection of dental caries is A. 20% B. 40% C. 60% D. 80%

ORTHODONTICS 87. Clock wise rotation refers to Mandibular rotation A. Downward and posteriorly B. Downward and anteriorly C. Upward and anteriorly D. Upward and posteriorly 88. Mobility of teeth in carcinoma of Maxillary sinus is due to involvement by tumor of A. Anterior wall of the sinus B. Posterior wall of the sinus C. Roof of the sinus D. Floor of the sinus

91. Quad helix is used to correct A. Posterior cross bite B. Anterior cross bite C. Lateral open bite D. Deep bite 92. Schubiger attachment has a screw base common to the A. Introfix attachment B. Quintivan attachment C. C shaped ring D. Gerber attachment 93. Which of the following surgical procedures aid in prevention of Relapse? A. Sagittal split technique B. Alveoloplasty C. Segmental Osteotomy D. Circumferential Supracrestal Fibrotomy

PEDODONTICS 94. When vertical cephalometric analysis reveals increase in the skeletal components of anterior face height, it is termed A. Apertognathia B. Brachygnathia C. Leptognathia D. Mesognathia

89. When protraction headgear is used, most of the orthopedic changes are observed within the first ______ A. 1 month B. 3–4 months C. 8–10 months D. 1 year

95. The window of infectivity during which most children acquire the cariogenic organism A. 19 months to 33 months B. 19 weeks to 33 weeks C. 29 months to 39 months D. 29 weeks to 39 weeks

90. Who proposed the Nasal Septum theory of craniofacial growth A. Moss B. Sicher C. Vander Linden D. Latham

96. The tendency for drifting of posterior teeth into extraction space is more in A. Mandible B. Maxilla C. Maxilla and Mandible D. Primary than Permanent teeth

57

COMEDK 2011

97. Sorbitol acts in the prevention of dental caries by A. Microorganisms lack the enzyme to metabolize sorbitol B. Lactic acid cannot be produced C. Fermentation of sorbitol does not occur D. Sorbitol is not a carbohydrate

99. Occult disease refer to disease that A. Is very apparent B. Does not occur at all C. Presents no clinical sign or symptom D. Does not show any image on X-ray 100. “Guidance to Eruption” is another term for A. Frankel’s appliance B. Activator C. Serial Extraction D. Bionator 101. The first macroscopic development occurs at approximately A. 8 weeks in utero B. 10 weeks in utero C. 11 weeks in utero D. 13 weeks in utero 102. Who developed the complete pulpectomy technique for primary molars A. Pinkham B. Starkey C. McDonald D. Finn 103. Joseph Wolpe developed the following behavior management techniques A. Modeling B. Tell – Show – Do C. Desensitization D. Voice Control

105. An effective state of consciousness in which joy, sarrow, fear, hate or the likes are expressed is termed as A. Behavior B. Emotion C. Condition D. Complex 106. A parent asks the dentist, ‘Is the treatment necessary?’ after initial examination and explanation about treatment required. The behavior of the parent is termed as A. Neglectful B. Manipulative C. Hostile D. Overprotective

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY 107. The study which proceeds from cause to effect A. Retrospective B. Case control C. Cohort D. Descriptive 108. The basic tools of measurement in epidemiology are A. Place, person, time B. Determinants, frequency, distribution of disease C. Rate, ratio, proportion D. Agent, host and environment 109. Presenting data to the “man in the street” is by A. Pie chart B. Pictogram C. Bar chart D. Simple tables

COMEDK 2011

98. In case of deep carious lesion incomplete debridement is done to A. Allow secondary dentin formation first B. To seal the cavity and create aseptic field C. Prevent pulp exposure and allow a thin layer of a dentin to remain D. Avoid microleakage

104. During development of speech function, the first speech sounds acquired are A. Bilabials B. Consonants C. Sibilants D. Nasolabials

58

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

COMEDK 2011

110. The heart of randomized control trial (RCT) is A. Protocol B. Follow up C. Assessment D. Randomization 111. The following term is used to describe the impact of school based health education programmers on parents A. Side effect B. Secondary effect C. Ripple effect D. String effect

C. Measuring scale D. Straight probe 117. Examination is carried in individual clinical practice; corresponding terms in public health practice is A. Diagnosis B. Evaluation C. Assessment of need D. Appraisal and review

PROSTHODONTICS

112. The recognized behavior in a society is called A. Custom B. Tradition C. Culture D. Folkways

118. The technique to produce limited removal of epithelial tissue in the sulcus while a chamfer finish line is being created in tooth structure is called A. Soft tissue modification B. Gingettage C. Gingival displacement D. Electrosurgery

113. Trace element present in drinking water reported to be caries protective is A. Selenium B. Iron C. Vanadium D. Iodine

119. For accurate interocclusal records the material of choice is A. 28 gauge casting wax B. ZOE Bite registration paste C. Elastomeric bite registration material D. Base plate wax

114. A progressive increase or decrease of a disease over a long period of time, generally several years or decades is known as A. Secular trends B. Cyclic trends C. Seasonal trends D. Periodic fluctuations

120. Hanau H 2 articulator has a intercondylar distance of A. 90 mm B. 100 mm C. 110 mm D. 120 mm 121. The ultimate in finish lines that permit an acute margin of metal is A. Shoulder B. Chamfer C. Knife edge D. Shoulder with Bevel

115. The ratio of rates of occurrence is A. Attributable risk B. Relative risk C. Occurring risk D. Distribution risk 116. Over jet and overbite of malocclusion is assessed using WHO survey form 1997 with the help of instrument A. Williams probe B. CPI probe

122. According to Atwood’s residual ridge classification order III denotes A. High well rounded B. Low well rounded C. Knife edge D. Depressed

59

COMEDK 2011

123. The term “Height of contour” was coined by A. Kennedy B. McCracken C. Cummer D. De Van

PERIODONTICS

125. The cell type of periodontium that plays a role in pathogenesis as well as healing is A. Epithelial B. Langerhans C. Fibroblast D. Mast cell 126. The most reliable indicator of gingival inflammation is A. Color change B. Change in the contour C. Change in consistency D. Bleeding on probing 127. BANA test measures activity of A. Calculus B. Cathepsin C. Elastase D. Trypsin like enzyme 128. Soluble components of complement system account for about A. 1–2 mg/ml of total serum protein B. 3–4 mg/ml of total serum protein C. 5–7 mg/ml of total serum protein D. 7–8 mg/ml of total serum protein 129. Haversian systems (osteons) are found primarily in the A. Spongy bone B. Periosteum C. Alveolar bone proper D. Endosteum

is

best

131. Definitive information regarding the bone architecture is obtained by A. Periodontal probing B. Radiographic examination C. Combination of probing & radiographs D. Surgical exposure of the osseous defect 132. Brushite crystal forms of calculus is more common in A. Maxillary anterior B. Maxillary posterior C. Mandibular anterior D. Mandibular posterior 133. These fibers in the lamina propria of the gingiva help to bind the free gingiva to the tooth A. Alveologingival B. Circular C. Dentoperiosteal D. Dentogingival 134. Transplantation between genetically different members of the same species is termed as A. Autograft B. Isograft C. Allograft D. Xenograft

CONS AND ENDO 135. The treatment of choice for acute irreversible pulpits is A. Pulpotomy B. Pulpectomy C. Direct pulp capping D. Indirect pulp capping

COMEDK 2011

124. Thickness of basal lamina is A. 100 to 200 Å B. 200 to 300 Å C. 300 to 400 Å D. 400 to 500 Å

130. Furcation involvement diagnosed by A. Nabers probe B. Williams probe C. Michigan ‘o’ probe D. Explorer

COMEDK 2011

60

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

136. Which of the following is true about thermal and electrical tests after trauma A. Sensitivity tests evaluate the nerve and circulatory condition of the tooth B. False positive tests are more likely than false negative tests C. It may take up to nine months for normal blood flow to return D. It may take a few hours for normal blood flow to return 137. The potentially hazardous irrigant causing an emergency during treatment is A. Saliva B. Chlorhexidine C. Sodium hypochlorite D. Metrogyl 138. In which of the following is one visit root canal treatment not advocated A. Pulp is necrotic and not symptomatic B. Pulp is necrotic and symptomatic C. Pulp is necrotic and there is a draining sinus tract D. Pulp is vital and symptomatic 139. The tip diameter of a 245 bur used for conventional amalgam preparation is A. 2 mm B. 0.8 mm C. 0.4 mm D. 0.3 mm 140. Mode of failure during dislodgement of prosthesis cemented with zinc poly carboxylate cement is usually seen at the A. Cement tooth interface B. Cement prosthesis interface C. Cleavage through the cement layer D. Fracture of tooth or prosthesis 141. In pin retained amalgam restoration, failure is more likely to occur at the A. Pin restoration interface B. Pin dentin interface C. Both of the above D. Inside of restoration (Restoration fracture)

142. 90º butt joint for silver amalgam preparation is done because of A. Fear of marginal failure of amalgam B. Amalgam has poor strength in thin sections C. Amalgam is stronger than tooth structure D. Amalgam is weaker in compression 143. pH of which cement remains below 7 even 1 month after insertion into the cavity A. GIC B. Zinc phosphate C. Resin cement D. Silicate cement 144. How long does it take for an etched enamel to return to normal conditions A. 30 days B. 24 hours C. 96 hours D. 1 week 145. Which lasers can be used to cure composite resins A. Argon B. Nd: YAG C. Er: YAG D. CO2

ORAL SURGERY 146. Craniofacial dysjunction is seen in A. LeFort III fracture B. Guerrin’s fracture C. High LeFort I fracture D. None of the above 147. A fractured coronoid process of mandible displace upwards by the action of one of the following muscle A. Buccinator B. Lateral pterygoid C. Mylohyoid D. Temporalis

61

COMEDK 2011

148. Among the following pain theories, the most accepted theory is A. Specificity theory B. Pattern theory C. Gate control theory D. Calcium displacement theory

150. A male patient had a pin point oro antral communication. The treatment is A. Berger flap B. Palatal flap C. Cald well procedure D. None

SECTION B Q. 151–154 A 20-year-old patient reports with multiple swellings of the jaws. Clinical examination reveals multiple hard swellings involving the jaws and intraorally several missing teeth are noticed. Panoramic radiograph reveals multiple radiopaque lesions in the maxilla and the mandible with multiple impacted teeth and supernumerary teeth indicative of Gardner’s syndrome. 151. The above mentioned condition is A. Inherited Autosomal dominant disease B. Autosomal recessive disorder C. X-linked disease D. A syndrome of unknown cause 152. One of the following is also a manifestation in the above mentioned condition A. Café au lait pigmentation of the skin B. Multiple epidermoid or sebaceous cyst of the skin

153. Multiple impacted teeth as seen in Gardner’s syndrome may also be seen in one of the following A. Multiple polyposis of large intestine B. Osteomas of the jaws C. Desmoid tumors of the skin D. Epidermal and trichilemmal cysts 154. Multiple impacted teeth as seen in Gardner’s syndrome may also is seen in one of the following A. Tricho – dento – osseous syndrome B. Hereditary intestinal polyposis C. Cowden’s syndrome D. Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome Q. 155–158 A 10-year-old female patient diagnosed as a case of Down’s syndrome having a mosaicism variety. 155. Which type of Head shape is commonly seen A. Oligocephaly B. Dolicocephaly C. Brachycephaly D. Mesiocephaly 156. Often IQ of the patient will be A. IQ – 140–170 B. IQ – 120–139 C. IQ – 110–119 D. IQ – 25–50 157. The syndrome is usually associated with A. Congenital heart lesions B. Respiratory disorders C. Endocranial abnormalities D. Cleft lip and Palate 158. Following dental problem are usually associated with it, EXCEPT A. Retarded eruption B. Late shedding of deciduous teeth

COMEDK 2011

149. Which of the following fibres are responsible for conduction of pain impulse A. Alpha B. Beta C. Delta D. Gamma

C. Basal cell carcinoma of the skin D. Peri oral dermatitis

62

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

COMEDK 2011

C. Hypodontia D. Microdontia Q. 159–162 A 6-year-old female child reported with a chief complaint of proclined upper anteriors. Parents give a history of prolonged bottle feeding and a persistent thumb sucking habit. Clinical examination reveals anterior open bite with proclined upper anterior and retroclined lower anterior teeth and associated tongue thrusting. 159. Usually digit sucking habits are outgrown by A. 6 – 7 years B. 3 – 4 years C. 1 – 2 years D. 11 – 12 years 160. In thumb sucking protraction of the maxillary teeth is seen A. When the pollex is held upward against the palate B. When the pollex is held downward against the tongue C. When the pollex is held inward against the cheek D. None of the above 161. The foremost line of treatment in this patient is A. No treatment wait and watch B. Extraction of first premolars followed by Hawleys appliance C. Psychiartric consultation prior to any therapy D. Extraction of second premolars followed by Hawleys appliance 162. The tongue thrust seen in this case is A. Retained Infantile swallow B. Simple tongue thrust C. Complex tongue thrust D. Compound tongue thrust Q. 163–166 A 55-year-old female denture wearer reported to the dentist, her chief complaint was pain in the denture bearing area. Examination revealed inflammation of the denture bearing area with

erythematous in nature, more diffuse involving entire denture bearing area with erythematous in nature, more diffuse involving entire denture bearing area. 163. What is this clinical situation called as A. Epulis fissuratum B. Traumatic ulcers C. Denture irritational hyperplasia D. Denture stomatitis 164. Among the different types of denture stomatitis diagnosis of candida – associated denture stomatitis is confirmed A. Based on clinical features B. Based on intensity of erythematous lesions C. By finding mycelia or pseudohyphae in a direct smear or isolation of candida in high numbers D. By examining the existing dentures 165. One of the systemic factors predisposing to candida-associated denture stomatitis is A. Nutritional deficiencies B. Hypertension C. HIV D. Systemic lupus erythematosis 166. In the management of candida – denture stomatitis the following is used A. Chlorhexidine 2% B. Betadine C. Gention violet D. Local therapy with nystatin or amphotericin B Q. 167–169 A 40-year-old woman reports with the complaint of burning sensation in the mouth. Clinical examination reveals lesions consisting of radiating white striations in a retiform arrangement affecting buccal mucosa, tongue, lips and gingiva bilaterally. An incisional biopsy is suggestive of Lichen planus.

COMEDK 2011

63

172. This infection is reported to have an increased incidence in A. Diabetes mellitus B. HIV C. Tuberculosis D. Syphilis

168. The following are different clinical forms of Lichen Planus EXCEPT A. Atrophic Lichen Planus B. Hypertrophic Lichen Planus C. Bullous Lichen Planus D. Verrucous Lichen planus

173. Surgical procedure for severe tissue destruction in such infection is A. Reshaping the gingiva (Gingivoplasty) B. Resection of the gingiva (Gingivectomy) C. Apically displaced flap surgery D. Coronally displaced flap surgery

169. One of the following syndromes is associated with Lichen Planus A. Grinspan’s syndrome B. Ellis – van Creveld syndrome C. Patterson Kelly syndrome D. Fanconi’s syndrome Q. 170–173 A 30-year-old male reported with chief complaint of constant radiating, gnawing pain that is intensified by eating spicy foods and chewing. He also reported a “metallic” foul taste and an excessive amount of “pasty” saliva. A general examination revealed fever and increased pulse rate. Intraoral examination showed punched – out, craterlike depressions at the crest of the interdental gingival papillae, covered by a gray Pseudomembranous slough, in the upper anterior teeth.

Q. 174–177 A 25-year-old male patient reports with a bony expansile swelling of the right body of the mandible and mild paresthesia of the right IDN. OPG shows a multi locular radiolucency without root resorption. 174. What would be your choice of next investigation A. Excision biopsy B. Aspiration cytology C. CT scan D. PET bone scan 175. A dirty white aspirate with a protein estimation of < 4 gm % is suggestive of A. Ossifying fibroma B. Dentigerous cyst C. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma D. Odontogenic keratocyst

170.The most likely infection is A. Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis B. Localized Aggressive Periodontitis C. Acute Herpetic Gingivostomatitis D. Desquamative Gingivitis

176. Odontogenic Keratocyst is noted for its A. Malignant transformation B. Daughter cysts and high rate of recurrence C. Impacted teeth D. Nodal metastasis

171. The microbial etiology of this condition is A. Streptococcus species B. Fusospirochetes C. Herpes simplex virus D. Actinomyces species

177. Management of Odontogenic keratocyst involves A. Marsuplisation B. Enucleation C. Enucleation with periphereal ostectomy D. Resection and radiation

COMEDK 2011

167. The whitish striations in Lichen Planus are called A. Striae of Retzius B. Wickham’s striations C. Step ladder striations D. Linea alba buccalis

64

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

COMEDK 2011

Q. 178–180 A 35-year-old man with a LeFort III fracture complains of blood tinged watery discharge from his nose 2 days after the trauma. CT scan confirms NOE fracture as well. 178. What clinical features suggest that the discharge is CSF Leak A. Continuous discharge B. Appearance of tram line or halo rings C. Stoppage of discharge on pressure D. None of the above

179. What investigation is most confirmatory for detecting CSF leak A. CT scan B. MRI Scan C. Presence of glucose in the fluid D. Presence of transferrin beta 180. The most common complication of CSF Rhinorrhea is A. Brain herniation B. Blindness C. Ascending meningitis D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis

65

COMEDK 2011

SECTION A

12. Ans: B Ref: U.Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 186

ANATOMY

U.

and

U.

and

U.

13. Ans: B

Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 339

Ref: U.Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 718

2. Ans: A

14. Ans: B

Ref: IB Singh, 8/E, p. 111

Ref: U.Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 44

3. Ans: A Ref: BD Chaurasia, 5/E, p. 36

Explanation • Nitrogen conent of the total dietary protein is 16% 50 gms proteins contain 50 16/100= 8 gms

4. Ans: C Ref: BD Chaursia, 1/E, p. 297 5. Ans: D

GENERAL PATHOLOGY

Ref: BD Chourasia, 5/E, p. 55

15. Ans: B

6. Ans: D

Ref: Robbins Pathological Basis of Disease, 7/E, p. 737

Ref: BD. Chaurasia, 5/E, p. 63

16. Ans: A

PHYSIOLOGY

Ref: Robbins Pathological Basis of Disease, 7/E, p. 10

7. Ans: C Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 61

17. Ans: D Ref: Robbins Pathological Basis of Disease, 7/E, p. 403

8. Ans: B Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 95

Explanation • In malignant cerebral malaria caused by P. falciparum, brain vessels are plugged with parasitized red cells, each cell containing dots of hemozoin pigment called “Malarial or Durck granules” and small focal inflammatory reactions are called “Malarial or Durck granulomas”

9. Ans: B Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 68 10. Ans: C Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 1016, 1017

BIOCHEMISTRY 11. Ans: B Ref: U.Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 216

18. Ans: B and

U.

Ref: Robbins Pathological Basis of Disease, 7/E, p. 53

COMEDK 2011

1. Ans: A

and

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

66

MICROBIOLOGY 19. Ans: B Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Textbook of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 260

COMEDK 2011

20. Ans: B Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Textbook of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 316 21. Ans: C Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Textbook of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 362 22. Ans: A Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Textbook of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 267 23. Ans: A Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Textbook of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 163

PHARMACOLOGY 24. Ans: A Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 837 25. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 742 26. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 722 27. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 582 28. Ans: C Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 514 29. Ans: D Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 778 30. Ans: D Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 442 Table

31. Ans: D Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 206 32. Ans: C Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 356

GENERAL MEDICINE 33. Ans: D Ref: Davidson, 21/E, p. 877 34. Ans: C Ref: Harrison, 17/E, Vol - 01, p. 1146 35. Ans: A Ref: Davidson,21/E, p. 863 T 36. Ans: B Ref: Davidson, 21/E, p. 612 37. Ans: B Ref: Davidson, 21/E, p. 947 Table 38. Ans: C Ref: Harrison, 17/E, p. 1215 39. Ans: A Ref: Davidson, 21/E, p. 568 40. Ans: C Ref: Harrison, 17/E, Vol I, p. 446 41. Ans: C Ref: Harrison, 17/E, Vol I, p. 249 42. Ans: D Ref: Harrison, Vol. I, 17/E, p. 641 43. Ans: A Ref: Harrison, 17/E, Vol I, p. 1491

GENERAL SURGERY 44. Ans: C Ref: Bailey & Love, 25/E, p. 757

67

COMEDK 2011

59. Ans: C

45. Ans: A Ref: Bailey & love, 25/E, p. 596

Ref: Berkovitz, 4/E, p. 113 60. Ans: D

46. Ans: B Ref: Bailey & Love, 25/E, p. 797

DENTAL MATERIALS Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 278 48. Ans: C Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 550

61. Ans: B Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 22

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE 62. Ans: C Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 365

49. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 336

63. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 834, 835

50. Ans: B Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 289

64. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 617

51. Ans: B Ref: Manappallil’s Basic Dental Materials, 2/E, p. 93

65. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 509 66. Ans: D

52. Ans: D Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 273

Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 601 67. Ans: C

53. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 465

Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 262 68. Ans: B

54. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 563

DADH 55. Ans: C Ref: Berkovitz, 4/E, p. 66 56. Ans: A Ref: Wheeler’s, 9/E, p. 257 57. Ans: A Ref: Berkovitz, 4/E, p. 258 58. Ans: B Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 290

Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 669 69. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 830 70. Ans: C Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 787 71. Ans: B Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 48, Neville, 3/E, p. 81 72. Ans: B Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 86 73. Ans: B Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 848

COMEDK 2011

47. Ans: A

Ref: Berkovitz, 4/E, p. 361

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

68

74. Ans: C Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 685 75. Ans: C Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 821 76. Ans: C COMEDK 2011

Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 312 77. Ans: C Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 232 78. Ans: D Ref: Burkit, 11/E, p. 279

ORAL RADIOLOGY 79. Ans: A Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 78 80. Ans: A

89. Ans: C Ref: Gurkeerat Singh, 2/E, p. 502, 504 90. Ans: D Ref: Sameer. C. Bishala Text book of Orthdontics, p. 50 91. Ans: A Ref: Profitt, 4/E, p. 498 92. Ans: D Ref: Precision Attachments in Prosthodontics, Harold . W . Prieskel, Vol. 2, p. 160 93. Ans: D Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 454 Explanation • Circumferential supracrestal Fibrotomy is also known as “Pericision”

Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 19

PEDODONTICS

81. Ans: C Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 61 82. Ans: B Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 152 83. Ans: C Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 22T 84. Ans: B Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 492 85. Ans: C Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 57 86. Ans: B Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 273

ORTHODONTICS 87. Ans: B Ref: Proffit, 4/E, p. 115 88. Ans: D Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 325

94. Ans: A Ref: Mc Donald, 9/E, p. 540 95. Ans: B Ref: Mc Donald, 9/E, p. 178 96. Ans: B Ref: Shoba Tandon, 2/E, p. 448 97. Ans: A Ref: Mc Donald, 9/E, p. 200 98. Ans: C Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 400 99. Ans: C Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 186 100. Ans: C Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 474 101. Ans: C Ref: Mc Donald, 8/E, p. 53

69

COMEDK 2011

102. Ans: B Ref: Mc Donald, 8/E, p. 401 103. Ans: C Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 150 104. Ans: A Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 65 Ref: Shobha Tandon , 2/E, p. 21 106. Ans: C Ref: Pinkham, 4/E, p. 282

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY 107. Ans: C Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p.104 108. Ans: C Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 80 109. Ans: B Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 749 110. Ans: D Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 112 111. Ans: C Ref: Community Dental Health, Anthony Jong, 4/E, p.191 Explanation • The terms like spread effect and ripple effect are used to describe the impact of school based health programmes on parents 112. Ans: D Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 655 113. Ans: C Ref: Joseph John, 1/E, p. 43 114. Ans: A Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 62

Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 74 116. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p.609 117. Ans: C Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 16

PROSTHODONTICS 118. Ans: B Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 627 Explanation • Gingettage is also known as Rotary Curettage 119. Ans: C Ref: Mc Cracken, 11/E, p. 308 120. Ans: C Ref: Boucher, 9/E, p. 313 121. Ans: C Ref: Rosensteil, 4/E, p. 220 122. Ans: A Ref: John Manappallil, 1/E, p. 12 123. Ans: A Ref: Mc Cracken, 11/E, p. 84

PERIODONTICS 124. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 52 125. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 58 126. Ans: D Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 364 127. Ans: D Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 591 128. Ans: B Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 215

COMEDK 2011

105. Ans: B

115. Ans: B

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

70

129. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 79 130. Ans: A Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 163

144. Ans: C Ref: Current Therapy in Dentistry, Vol. 7, p. 160 145. Ans: A Ref: Sturdevant, 5/E, p. 505

131. Ans: D

ORAL SURGERY

COMEDK 2011

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 950 132. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 172 133. Ans: B Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 498 134. Ans: C Ref: Carraza, 10/E, p. 1135

CONS AND ENDO 135. Ans: B Ref: Ingle, 6/E, p. 617

146. Ans: A Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p.357 147. Ans: D Ref: Killey’s, 4/E, p. 14 148. Ans: C Ref: Monheim’s, 7/E, p. 5 149. Ans: C Ref: Monheim’s, 7/E, p. 6 150. Ans: D Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 574, 575

SECTION B

136. Ans: C Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 362 137. Ans: C Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 268 138. Ans: C Ref: Ingle, 6/E, p. 23 139. Ans: B Ref: Sturdevant, 5/E, p. 713 140. Ans: B Ref: Sturdevant, 11/E, p. 471 141. Ans: B Ref: Sturdevant, 5/E, p. 828 142. Ans: B Ref: Sturdevant, 5/E, p. 720 143. Ans: D Ref: Sturdevant, 5/E, p. 498

151. Ans: A Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 47 152. Ans: B Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 47 153. Ans: A Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 47 154. Ans: A Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 105 155. Ans: C Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 633 156. Ans: D Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 633 157. Ans: A Ref: Harrison,17/E, Vol II, p. 1458 158. Ans: B Ref: Harrison, 17/E, Vol II, p. 1458

71

COMEDK 2011

159. Ans: B Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 494–495 160. Ans: A Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 499 161. Ans: C Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 501 Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 493–494 163. Ans: D Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 365 164. Ans: C Ref: Harrison, 17/E, Vol I, p. 1242 165. Ans: A Ref: Burkit, 11/E, p. 79 166. Ans: D Ref: Harrison, 17/E, Vol I, p. 1255 167. Ans: B Ref: Burkit, 11/E, p. 91 168. Ans: D Ref: Burkit, 11/E, p. 90 169. Ans: A Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 800

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 391 171. Ans: B Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 396 172. Ans: B Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 396 173. Ans: A Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 709 174. Ans: B Ref: Shafer, 6/E, p. 260 175. Ans: D Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 685 176. Ans: B Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 686 177. Ans: C Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 686 178. Ans: A Ref: Neville, 2/E, p. 351 179. Ans: D Ref: Text Book of Oral Medicine, Ongole and Praveen, 1/E, p. 178 180. Ans: C Ref: Killey’s, 5/E, p. 27

COMEDK 2011

162. Ans: B

170. Ans: A

4 COMEDK 2010 C. Stratified columnar epithelium D. Pseudostratified epithelium

HUMAN ANATOMY 1. The type of suture represented by sagittal suture of the cranial vault is A. Serrate B. Denticulate C. Squamous D. Plane

PHYSIOLOGY 6. Parathormone in normal parathyroid gland is secreted by A. Fat cells B. All glandular cells C. Chief cells D. Clear cells

2. Meiotic division of male germ cells commence A. During intrauterine life B. Just before birth C. By around 6 years after birth D. By around 16 years

7. The most important action of secretin is to A. Neutralize the acid from the stomach B. Increase secretion of bicarbonates by pancreas C. Decrease gastric secretion D. Cause contraction of pyloric sphincter

3. Nerve supply to vocal cords is by A. Internal laryngeal nerve B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve C. Superior laryngeal nerve D. Internal and recurrent laryngeal nerves

8. Epicritic perception of pain occurs at the level of A. Thalamus B. Area 3, 1, 2 C. Area 5, 7 D. Pulvinar

4. Which of the following venous sinuses is more likely to be affected with thrombosis in chronic otitis media and mastoiditis? A. Cavernous B. Inter–cavernous C. Sigmoid D. Superior petrosal

9. Sudden loud sound is more likely to damage the cochlea than a prolonged sound because A. Basilar fibers are sensitive to sudden sounds but adapt to prolonged sounds B. A sudden sound carries more energy C. Tympanic membrane becomes flaccid during prolonged loud sounds D. There is a latent period before the attenuation reflex can occur

5. The lingual surface of epiglottis is lined by A. Stratified squamous epithelium B. Simple squamous epithelium 72

73

COMEDK 2010

10. Enzymes which play an important role in calcification are A. Enolase and calcitonin B. Alkaline phosphatase and catalase C. Alkaline phosphatase and pyrophosphatase D. Pyrophosphatase and carbonic anhydrase 11. The velocity of conduction in the Purkinje fibers of the heart is A. 1 to 4 m/sec B. 5 to 8 m/sec C. 9 to 12 m/sec D. More than 12 m/sec

13. The work of breathing A. Is inversely related to lung compliance B. Remains constant during exercise C. Is not affected by respiratory rate D. Decreases in lying posture

BIOCHEMISTRY

17. The triad of cirrhosis, hemochromatosis and diabetes are referred to as A. Sliver diabetes B. Diabetes mellitus C. Diabetes insipidus D. Bronze diabetes 18. Primary cause of bleeding disorder in liver damage is due to A. Decreased level of prothrombin B. Lack of vitamin K C. Platelet deficiency D. Lack of vitamin B 19. ‘AUER RODS’ are seen in A. Lymphoblast B. Myeloblast C. Neutrophils D. Basophils 20. Type I diabetes mellitus is associated with A. Insulin resistance B. Defect in mitochondrial DNA C. Islet cell autoantibodies D. Beta cell dysfunction

14. Which one of the following enzymes provides a link between glycolysis and the citric acid cycle? A. Lactate dehydrogenase B. Pyruvate kinase C. Citrate synthase D. Pyruvate dehydrogenase

21. In lobar pneumonia, the presence of fibrinosuppurative exudates with disintegration of red cells is seen in the stage of A. Congestion B. Red hepatization C. Grey hepatization D. Resolution

15. Under metabolic conditions associated with a high rate of fatty acid oxidation, the liver produces A. Glutamate B. Acetoacetate C. Cholesterol D. Glycine

22. Squamous metaplasia in the respiratory epithelium is induced by deficiency of A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin B C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin C

16. Insulin increases the activity of A. HMG–CoA reductase B. HMG–CoA lyase C. HMG–CoA synthase D. Thiolase

23. The infarct of the following organ is invariably haemorrhagic A. Kidney B. Lung C. Spleen D. Heart

COMEDK 2010

12. Tubular maximum for glucose is A. 180 mg/dl B. 325 mg/min C. 375 mg/min D. 375 mg/dl

GENERAL PATHOLOGY

74

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

24. Lesions caused by Entamoeba histolytica predominantly involve A. Caecum and large intestine B. Duodenum C. Stomach D. Jejunum and Ileum

COMEDK 2010

25. Schuffner’s dots are seen in infections due to A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Plasmodium vivax C. Plasmodium malariae D. Plasmodium ovale

MICROBIOLOGY 26. The immunoglobulin which crosses placenta is A. IgM B. IgA C. IgG D. IgD 27. Which virus given below is not a teratogenic virus? A. Rubella B. Cytomegalovirus C. Herpes simplex D. Measles 28. ASO (Antistreptolysin O) test is used for the diagnosis of A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Typhoid fever C. Rheumatic fever D. Rickettesial fever 29. Lyme disease is A. Caused by Borrelia vincentii B. Transmitted by flea bite C. Diagnosed by demonstration of specific IgM antibody D. The etiological agent can be grown in modified Kelley’s medium 30. Which of the following does NOT present antigens? A. NK cells (Natural killer cells) B. Dendritic cells

C. Langerhans’ cells D. Macrophages 31. Alternative pathway of complement activation begins with A. C1 B. C2 C. C3 D. C4

PHARMACOLOGY 32. The following chemical mediators is a product of arachidonic acid metabolite by cyclo oxygenase pathway A. LxA4 B. LxB4 C. 5 HETE D. PGH2 33. Which among the following is also called “peakless” insulin analog? A. Insulin lispro B. Insulin glargine C. Insulin asparte D. Lente Insulin 34. Which among the following is NOT used for surface anesthesia? A. Lignocaine B. Procaine C. Tetracaine D. Benzocaine 35. The drug which has an antabusive effect when alcohol is ingested is A. Penicillin G B. Clindamycin C. Metronidazole D. Doxycycline 36. Which among the following is a cell cycle specific anti-neoplastic drug? A. Cyclophosphamide B. Doxorubicin C. Methotrexate D. Cisplatin

75

COMEDK 2010

37. Pseudomembranous colitis is an adverse effect following the long-term use of A. Tetracycline B. Clindamycin C. Metronidazole D. Erythromycin 38. All of the given drugs may be useful in acute exacerbation of bronchial asthma except A. Cromolyn sodium B. Hydrocortisone C. Salbutamol D. Ipratropium

GENERAL MEDICINE 40. Which one of the following medical conditions doesn’t mimic acid acute abdomen A. Diabetic ketoacidosis B. Hypokalemia C. Porphyria D. Henoch-Schönlein purpura 41. A positive Chvostek’s sign is suggestive of A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Acidosis 42. Giant ‘V’ wave on examination of the jungular venous pulse is suggestive of A. Atrial flutter with changing block B. Tricuspid incompetence

43. Administration of folic acid in pernicious anemia will largely A. Correct the anemia but not the neurological symptoms B. Correct the anemia and the neurological symptoms C. Correct the neurological symptoms but not the anemia D. Correct neither neurological symptoms nor anemia

GENERAL SURGERY 44. A complication in the first 48 hours of total parentral nutrition is A. Hypernatremia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyperglycaemia D. Selenium deficiency 45. Brachytherapy means A. Chemotherapy B. Radiation administered interstially through catheters C. Lasers D. Radiation involving normal tissues 46. During surgery on the submandibular gland A. Damage to the lingual nerve will cause loss of sensation to the posterior third of the tongue B. The submandibular gland is seen to wrap around the posterior border of mylohyoid C. The facial artery and vein are usually divided as they course through the deep part of the gland D. The hypoglossal nerve is seen to loop under the submandibular duct 47. A tumour arising of a burn scar is likely to be A. Basal cell carcinoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Malignant melanoma D. Fibrosarcoma

COMEDK 2010

39. Inhaled general anesthetics with low blood gas partial coefficient are characterized by A. Rapid induction and quick recovery from anesthesia B. Rapid induction and slow recovery from anesthesia C. Slow induction and slow recovery from anesthesia D. Slow induction and quick recovery from anesthesia

C. Ventricular septal defect D. Pulmonary stenosis

76

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

48. Hyperthyroidism can be caused by A. Clonidine B. Amiodarone C. Hydralazine D. Penicillamine

COMEDK 2010

49. Tinel’s test (Tinel’s sign) is A. Loss of sensation B. Loss of 2 point discrimination C. Percussion produces tingling sensation D. Not associated with carpel tunnel syndrome

DENTAL MATERIALS 50. Sprue former direction should be at A. 45° B. 90° C. 95° D. 180° 51. Compared with noble metals, base metals show A. Increased hardness B. Increased ductility C. Better biocompatibility D. Increased density 52. The deoxidizing agent added to dental alloys is A. Palladium B. Silver C. Copper D. Zinc 53. Compared with dental alloys, ceramics show A. High ductility B. High hardness C. Low esthetic value D. Susceptibility to brittle fracture 54. Absorption of mercury in the human body occurs least from A. Lungs B. Gastrointestinal tract

C. Skin D. Kidneys 55. Placing a ring liner approximately 3.25 mm short of the ends of the ring A. Produce a more uniform expansion and the expansion will not be in a vertical direction hence no distortion B. Produce a more uniform contraction C. Produce no change D. Produces distortion 56. Compared with cast alloys, wrought alloys have A. High strength B. Low hardness C. High ductility D. Crystalline structure 57. Which one of the following elements is not added in small amount to be used as grain refiners? A. Iridium B. Ruthenium C. Indium D. Platinum 58. Gypsum bonded investment should not be heated above A. 700°C B. 750°C C. 800°C D. 900°C 59. Binder in phosphate bonded investment is A. Magnesium oxide and phosphate B. Magnesium oxide and phosphoric acid C. Magnesium oxide and monoammonium phosphate D. Magnesium oxide and ortho phosphoric acid 60. Macroabrasion is A. The removal of localized superficial white spots and other surface stains or defects B. Treating deep discolouration type IV Tetracycline discolouration

COMEDK 2010

C. Treating discoloured endodontically treated teeth D. Treating any discolouration in anterior teeth 61. Which is the only nearly pure metal used for dental casting purpose? A. Gold B. Palladium C. Silver D. Pure titanium CP Ti

77

C. Packed with tonofilaments D. Help in adhesion of fully keratinized epithelial cells 67. At what age does calcification of the primary dentition begin? A. 13 to 16 weeks in utero B. 20 to 24 weeks in utero C. At birth D. 36 weeks postnatal 68. Which of the following cusps is associated with ‘cusp of carabelli’ in permanent maxillary first molar? A. Mesiobuccal B. Mesiopalatal C. Distobuccal D. Distopalatal

63. Disinfection duration of alginate impression when immersion method is used should exceed A. 10 min B. 20 min C. 5 min D. 30 min

69. The maxillary first premolar will typically demonstrate which of the following pulpal configurations A. A single root with one root canal B. A double root with one root canal C. A double root with two root canal D. One root with three root canals

DADH 64. The first evidence of calcification of a permanent maxillary central incisor takes place at the age of A. 2–3 months B. 3–4 months C. 6–7 months D. 8–9 months 65. What is the geometrical outline of crowns of mandibular molars when viewed from proximal aspect? A. Trapezoid B. Triangle C. Rhomboid D. Rectangle 66. Membrane coating granules may A. Appear as circular with an amorphous core in keratinized epithelium B. Originate from golgi system

70. The subodontoblastic plexus of Raschkow occupies A. Cell free zone of Weil B. Odontoblastic zone C. Cell rich zone D. Core of the pulp 71. Tooth eruption generally occurs when root development is complete by A. 30% of the future total length B. 10% of the future total length C. 75% of the future total length D. 100% complete 72. The first evidence of cartilage getting converted to bone in craniofacial skeleton occurs during A. Fourth postnatal week B. Eighth prenatal week C. Fourth prenatal week D. Eighth postnatal week

COMEDK 2010

62. The purpose of investment setting expansion is to compensate for A. Casting shrinkage B. Casting expansion C. Wax elimination D. Alloy melting

78

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

73. Autoantibodies are directed against type VII collagen seen in A. Sjögren’s syndrome B. Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita C. Lupus erythematosus D. Lichen planus

COMEDK 2010

74. Glands of Blandin and Nuhn are the A. Palatine glands in the posterolateral region of hard palate B. Anterior lingual glands located near the apex of the tongue C. Labial and buccal glands D. Glossopalatine glands 75. One of the following statements is unique about circumpulpal dentin A. Collagen fibres are oriented perpendicular to DEJ B. Vonkorff fibers are present C. Contain phosphoryn D. Requires matrix vesicle for mineralization

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE 76. Horner’s syndrome does not include A. Ptosis B. Anhydrosis C. Flushing D. Mydriasis 77. The most common reported oral malignancy in HIV infection is A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Verrucous carcinoma C. Multiple myeloma D. Kaposi’s sarcoma 78. Clear cells are seen in A. Chondrosarcoma B. Osteosarcoma C. Fibrosarcoma D. Ewing’s sarcoma 79. Scarring on healing of oral ulcers are seen in

A. B. C. D.

Recurrent aphthous major Bullous pemphigoid Pemphigus vulgaris Farmilial benign pemphigus

80. Oral lesion associated with ulcerative colitis A. Lichen planus B. Pyostomatitis vegetans C. Sarcoidosis D. Dermatitis herpetiformis 81. Spontaneous mouth petechiae and gingival bleeding occur typically at platelet levels A. Between 300,000–500,000/mm3 B. Between 20,000–30,000/mm3 C. Between 150,000–170,000/mm3 D. Between 70,000–185, 000/mm3 82. Burning mouth syndrome describes pain associated with A. Oral lichen planus B. Oral submucous fibrosis C. Aphthous stomatitis D. No detectable oral disease 83. Lip swelling, fissured tongue and unilateral facial palsy is seen in A. Sarcoidosis B. Melkerson–Rosenthal syndrome C. Cowden’s disease D. Wegener’s granulomatosis 84. Urticarial lesions are best described as A. Nonpruritic B. Linear C. Evanescent D. Macular 85. A patient with carcinoma cheek has tumour of 2.5 cm located close to and involving the lower alveolus. A single mobile homolateral node measuring 6 cm is palpable. Based on these clinical findings TNM stage of the tumour is A. T1 N1M0 B. T2 N2 M0 C. T3 N1 M0 D. T4 N2 M0

79

COMEDK 2010

86. Multiple pulp stones are seen in A. Down syndrome B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Marfan’s syndrome D. Apert’s syndrome 87. Chediak-Higashi syndrome is inherited as A. X-linked dominant trait B. Autosomal dominant C. Autosomal recessive D. X-linked recessive

89. The virus which causes herpes zoster is same as that which causes A. Herpes simplex B. Herpangina C. Chickenpox D. Measles 90. Fordyce granules are A. Ectopic salivary glands B. Ectopic sebaceous glands C. Ectopic pilosebaceous structures D. Metaplastic cartilage seen in tongue 91. Bird face appearance is seen in A. Unilateral TMJ ankylosis B. Bilateral TMJ ankylosis C. TMJ dislocation D. Bilateral condylar fracture 92. Reiter’s syndrome is dynamic tetrad of A. Arthritis, conjunctivitis, urethritis, recurrent aphthous ulcers B. Arthritis, bleeding, pyelonephritis, recurrent aphthous ulcers C. Arthritis, lipomas, recurrent aphthous ulcers, adenoma D. Arthritis, recurrent aphthous ulcers, herpes zoster, lipoma

94. The growth of odontogenic keratocyst mainly takes place in the direction of A. Anterior posterior B. Buccolingual C. Superior inferior D. Inferior lateral 95. Which of the following statements regarding internal resorption is accurate? A. It is rare in deciduous teeth B. It is initiated by odontoblasts C. It is seldom confused with external resorption D. It is usually asymptomatic 96. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor is characterized histologically by A. Polyhedral eptihelial cells B. Tubular/duct like cells C. Stellate shaped cells D. Stratified squamous epithelial cells 97. The most common clinical pattern of basal cell carcinoma is A. Nodular B. Morpheaform C. Superficial D. Keratotic

ORAL RADIOLOGY 98. When the distance from the X-ray source is doubled, the X-ray beam intensity A. Increases twofold B. Increases fourfold C. Reduces to 1/2 D. Reduces to 1/4

COMEDK 2010

88. Basement membrane A. Contains lamina lucida and lamina dura B. Consists keratohyaline granules C. Consists of lamina densa and lamina lucida D. Consists of desmosomes and hemidesmosomes

93. Which of the following blood diseases has a racial predilection? A. Purpura B. Hemophilia C. Polycythemia D. Thalassemia

COMEDK 2010

80

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

99. The minimum amount of tooth demineralization required for radiographic detection of dental caries is A. 20% B. 60% C. 40% D. 80%

105. Which of the following is false? A. Tungsten target is set in a copper block B. Dental X-ray tube is self-rectified C. Filtration reduces the exposure time D. Grid reduces the secondary radiation reaching the film

100. Which of the factors has no effect on response of cells to irradiation? A. Linear energy transfer B. Oxygen C. Image receptor used D. Dose rate

ORTHODONTICS

101. Compared to round collimator, use of rectangular collimator reduces the patient’s skin surface exposed by A. 15% B. 30% C. 45% D. 60%

106. When one primary canine is lost prematurely it is imperative to maintain the A. Midline B. Opposing canine C. Vertical canine D. Canine guidance 107. Growth is generally completed A. First in head and last in depth of face B. First in head and last in width of face C. First in head and last in height of face D. First in depth and last in width of face

102. One of the following is considered as best imaging modality for detecting sequestra in osteomyelitis A. Radionuclide imaging B. Tomography C. MRI D. Computed Tomography

108. The time duration taken for the periodontal fibres to realign themselves after orth-odontic treatment is A. 28 days B. 90 days C. 120 days D. 280 days

103. Codman’s triangle is one of the radiographic feature observed in A. Ewing’s sarcoma B. Ameloblastic fibro odontoma C. Multiple myeloma D. Burkitt’s lymphoma

109. The greatest disadvantage of removable appliance is dependence on A. Patient cooperation B. Technician C. Orthodontist D. Materials 110. Simple retraction of maxillary incisors using maxillary molars as anchorage is an example of A. Simple anchorage B. Reciprocal anchorage C. Stationary anchorage D. Intermaxillary anchorage

104. Occupational radiation Dose units– (yearly limits) as given by ICRP are A. 5 mSv per year and 10 mSv is 5 yr period (cumulative) B. 50 mSv per year and 100 mSv is 5 year period (cumulative) C. 500 mSv per year and 2500 mSv in 5 year (cumulative) D. 5000 mSv per year and 5 Sv in 5 year (cumulative)

111. At what age, maxillary intercanine dimension is essentially completed in boys and girls during growth? A. 15 years in boys and 10 years in girls

81

COMEDK 2010

B. 10 years in boys and 12 years in girls C. 18 years in boys and 12 years in girls D. 15 years in boys and 15 years in girls 112. Expansion screws apply which of the following forces? A. Light, Continuous B. Heavy, Continuous C. Light, Intermittent D. Large, Intermittent

114. The appliances used for slow expansion are the following except A. Jack screws B. Coffin spring C. Quad helix D. Hyrax appliance

PEDODONTICS 115. The principle that the stimulus must be altered to elicit a change in the response is applied in A. Reinforcement B. Aversive conditioning C. Restraining D. Modeling 116. Which of the following factors are important when space maintenance is considered after the untimely loss of primary teeth? A. Chronologic age of patient B. Skeletal age of patient C. Dental age of patient D. Biologic age of patient 117. During development of speech function, the first speech sounds acquired are A. Bilabials B. Consonants

118. The type of laser used in pulpotomy procedure is A. Nd: YAG laser B. Carbon dioxide laser C. Argon laser D. Er:YAG laser 119. In a case with premature loss of 2nd deciduous molar before eruption of 1st permanent molar, which of the following space maintainers is indicated? A. Cantilever type B. Fixed lingual arch C. Band and Bar type D. Broken stress type 120. The fears that are producd by direct physical stimulation of the sense organs are A. Subjective Fears B. Suggestive Fears C. Objective fears D. Imitative fears 121. Toddlers are A. Just born B. 0–1 year old C. 1–3 years old D. 3–6 years old 122. Fear of strangers and fear of separation from parents for the children will be diminished by A. First birthday B. Fifth birthday C. Third birthday D. Seventh birthday 123. A severely incapacitating disturbance of mental and emotional development that causes problem in learning, communication, and relating to other is A. Autism B. Learning disability C. Mental retardation D. Dyslexia

COMEDK 2010

113. Whip spring is used for correction of A. Rotation B. Proclination C. Cross bite D. Open bite

C. Sibilants D. Nasolabials

82

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

124. If the use of a technique on a child is objectionable enough that the child will cooperate in order to avoid it, that technique will come under A. Pharmacological Domain B. Physical Domain C. Aversive Domain D. Reward-oriented Domain

COMEDK 2010

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY 125. Dentist act was introduced on A. 27th March 1948 B. 29th March 1948 C. 27th March 1949 D. 29th March 1949 126. Student ‘t’ test is a A. Non-parametric test B. Chi-square test C. Parametric test D. Test of non significance 127. Specificity is A. Ability of a test to identify correctly all those who have the disease B. Ability of a test to identify correctly those who do not have disease C. Diagnostic power of a test D. The amount of previously unrecognized disease that is diagnosed through screening 128. A most insanitary method that creates public health hazards, nuisance and severe pollution of the environment is A. Incineration B. Controlled tipping C. Dumping D. Composting 129. Sensitivity is usually expressed in A. Units B. Alphabets C. Ascending order D. Percentage

130. The measure of strength of association between risk factor and outcome is A. Odds ratio B. Attributable risk C. Relative risk D. Poisson’s ratio 131. The study of the distribution and determinants of health and related states and events in a specified population and the application of this study to the control of health problem is called A. Entomology B. Ecology C. Epidemiology D. Anthropology 132. Non parametric test used to compare the medians of two independent samples A. T–test B. Chi-square test C. Mann Whitney U test D. Z test 133. Diagrams used to show percentage breakdowns for qualitative data A. Pie diagram B. Bar diagram C. Histogram D. Cartogram 134. School water fluoridation was first initiated in A. Seagrove, North Carolina B. St. Thomas virgin islands C. Elk lake, Pennsylvania D. Pike county, Kentucky 135. Which of the following is not an approach to health education? A. Regulatory approach B. Service approach C. Health education approach D. Primary health centre facilities 136. The term mottled enamel was given by A. GV Black B. ML Rein

83

COMEDK 2010

C. F McKay D. JM Eager 137. Maintenance of standards in dental education is the responsibility of A. IDA B. DCI C. WHO D. FDI

PROSTHODONTICS

139. The advantage of resin teeth over porcelain teeth is A. Greater wear resistance B. Increased hardness C. Better dimensional stabilizer D. Greater impact resistance 140. Atwoods classification order IV corresponds to A. Knife edged ridge B. High well rounded C. Low well rounded D. Depressed 141. The preferred material for repair of fractured denture base is A. Chemically cured resin B. Heat cure resin C. Light cure resin D. Vinyl resin 142. Hygienic pontic is recommended for A. Maxillary premolar B. Maxillary molar C. Mandibular first molar D. Mandibular premolar 143. Chemico-mechanical gingival retraction is not required A. For excavating gingival caries B. Expose finish line of abutment for recording impression

144. The movement that occurs in the horizontal plane when the mandible moves into a lateral excursion is A. Horizontal axis B. Vertical axis C. Sagittal axis D. Trans sagittal axis 145. A purely ‘hinge’ movement occurs as the result of the condyles rotating in the lower compartments of the TMJ within a 16 to 13 degree arc which creates a 20 to 25 mm separation of the anterior teeth. This phenomenon was the basis for A. Vertical axis B. Saggital axis C. Horizontal axis D. Terminal hinge axis 146. Which one of the following is not advantage of metal denture base? A. B. C. D.

Thermal conductivity Dimensional stability Lesser bulk Lesser weight

147. Mutually protected occlusion is also called as A. B. C. D.

Unilateral balanced occlusion Bilateral balanced occlusion Canine lift occlusion Neutrocentric occlusion

148. Bilateral balanced occlusion is based on the concept given by A. B. C. D.

Von Spee and Monson GV Black Sturdavent D’Van

COMEDK 2010

138. The labiodental sounds are A. f, v, ph B. s, z, c C. f, z, s D. f, v, z

C. For subginigval preparation D. Copper band impression

84

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

COMEDK 2010

149. In patients requiring a lingual frenectomy A. The denture should not be made B. The denture should be made before the surgery is performed C. The denture should be made immediately after the surgery is performed D. The denture should be made six months after the surgery 150. Emergency retentive force for the maxillary complete denture is A. Deep palate B. Soft palate C. Posterior palatal seal D. Base of the tongue

PERIODONTICS 151. PGE 2 mediated bone resorption in periodontal disease is inhibited by A. Calcitonin B. Estrogen C. NSAIDS D. Vitamin–D and calcium 152. Bacterial communication with each other in a biofilm is known as A. Corncob formations B. Coaggregation C. Quorum sensing D. Translocation 153. Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is A. Streptococcus sanguis B. Porphyromonas gingivalis C. Treponema denticola D. Spirochetes 154. Which of the following bone defects offers the best chance for bone fill? A. 3-walled defect B. 2-walled defect C. Osseous crater D. Hemisepta

155. Embedding of new periodontal ligament fibres into new cementum and the attachment of new gingival epithelium to a tooth surface previously denuded by disease is called A. Reattachment B. Epithelium adaptation C. Long junctional epithelium D. New attachment 156. Radiographs as a diagnostic aid in periodontal disease are A. Specific B. Sensitive C. Both sensitive and specific D. Having a high predictive value 157. One of the following group of fibers in the lamina propria of the gingiva, helps to bind the free gingiva to the tooth A. Alveologingival B. Circular C. Dentoperiosteal D. Dentogingival 158. The ‘Red complex’ associated with bleeding on probing is comprised of A. E. corrodens, A. actinomycetem comitans, capnocytophaga B. A. naeslundii, A. viscosus, A .odontolyticus C. P. gingivalis, T. forsythia, T. denticola D. S.treptococcus, fusobacterium, campylobacter 159. BANA test measures activity of A. Calculus B. Cathepsin C. Elastase D. Trypsin like enzyme 160. Which is the most common type of cemento–enamel junction seen in the teeth? A. Edge to edge or butt joint type B. Gap type C. Cementum overlapping enamel D. Enamel overlapping cementum

85

COMEDK 2010

161. Cellular cementum is A. First formed cementum B. Less calcified than acellular type C. More calcified than acellular type D. Less irregular

CONS AND ENDO 162. Progression of dental caries on pit and fissure occurs from A. Apex of the pit and fissure B. Widening of the pit and fissure C. Lateral surface of the pit and fissure D. Bottom of the pit and fissure

164. The endodontic irrigant that can dissolve the pulp tissue is A. Sodium hypochlorite B. Hydrogen peroxide C. Saline D. Metrogyl 165. Skipping effect is seen in A. Use of liquid etchant B. Use of viscous etchant C. Use of GIC as pit and fissure sealant D. Use of composite as pit and fissure sealant 166. In Ingle’s method of endodontic working length determination, safety allowance is for A. Possible image distortion or magnification B. To confirm with apical termination C. Periapical bone resorption D. Recording final working length

168. Walking bleach technique is a procedure related to A. Vital bleaching procedure–in office technique B. Non vital in office bleaching procedures for endodontically treated teeth C. Matrix bleaching D. All of the above 169. Electronic apex locator is used in Endodontics to determine the A. Root canal morphology B. Working length C. Pulp stone location D. Pulp vitality 170. Which medium of storage of avulsed tooth is best for prolonged extraoral periods? A. Hank’s balanced salt solution B. Milk C. Distilled water D. Saliva 171. Mc spadden compactor A. Is an obturating instrument in vertical compaction B. Is an enlarging instrument C. Is an instrument used for debriding the canal or canal contents D. Is an instrument used to apply the sealer on the canal walls

ORAL SURGERY 172. Restricted mouth opening in zygomatic arch fracture is due to impingement of A. Condylar process B. Coronoid process C. Ramus of the mandible D. Temporal bone

COMEDK 2010

163. The gingival cavo surface bevel for a class II preparation to receive a cast gold inlay A. Results in a 30 o metal that is burnishable B. Results in no benefits whatsoever C. Results in open margin if casting procedures are not accurate D. Results in difficulty in taking wax patterns

167. Reference points in endodontics in posterior teeth are A. Buccal and lingual surface B. Pits C. Cusp tips D. Marginal ridges

86

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

173. In case of anaphylactic reaction, the emergency treatment is A. Adrenaline 0.5 to 1 ml of 1:1000 SC/IM B. Adrenaline 0.5 to 1 ml of 1:10000 SC/ IM C. Adrenaline 0.5 to 1 ml of 1:100000 SC/ IM D. Adrenaline 0.5 to 1 ml of 1:1000 IV

COMEDK 2010

174. Flattening of the cheek seen in A. Maxillary fractures B. Condylar fractures C. Zygomatic bone fractures D. Orbital injuries 175. Head–shaking test is done to diagnose A. Maxillary sinusitis B. Vertigo C. Position of root in relation to maxillary antrum D. Maxillary fracture 176. High tuberosity technique is a technique used to anesthetize A. Maxillary nerve B. Posterior superior alveolar nerve C. Mandibular nerve D. Trigeminal nerve trunk

177. Miniplate fixation is effective at A. Zone of tension B. Near the roots of teeth C. Zone of compression D. Near to the mental foramen 178. Hilton’s method is used for A. Drainage of space infection B. Drainage of cystic lesions C. Drainage of abscess D. Drainage of vascular lesions 179. Chemical cauterization in odontogenic keratocyst is done by A. Hydrogen Peroxide B. Carnoy’s solution C. Superoxide solution D. Betadine 180. ‘Sulphur granules’ is a characteristic feature of A. Actino mycosis B. Syphilis C. Tuberculosis D. Sarcoidosis

87

COMEDK 2010

ANSWERS HUMAN ANATOMY 1. Ans: A Ref: Sicher and Dubrul s, 8/E, p. 36 2. Ans: D Ref: I.B Singh, 8/E, p. 11 Explanation The formation of gametes takes place during reproduction period which begins at the age of puberty (12 16 years) 3. Ans: D Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 347 Explanation The internal laryngeal nerve supplies the mucous membrane upto the level of the vocal folds Recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies it below the level of vocal folds. 4. Ans: C

7. Ans: B Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 256 Explanation Secretin acts on the cells of pancreatic ductules via cAMP and causes secretion of large amount of watery pancreatic juice with high concentration of bicarbonate ion. 8. Ans: B Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 804 9. Ans: D Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 654 10. Ans: C Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 380 11. Ans: A Ref: Sembulingam, 2/E, p. 488 Explanation Parts of conductive system  Duration(in  m/sec)

Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 208 Explanation Thrombosis of sigmoid sinus is secondary to infection in the middle ear (otitis media) or in mastoid process (mastoiditis) Otitis hydrocephalus associated with sinus thrombosis following ear infection is due to spread of infection from sigmoid sinus to superior sagittal sinus.

Atrial muscle fibres

0.3

Internodal fibres

1

AV node

0.05

Bundle of HIS

0.12

Purkinje fibres Ventricular muscle fibres

4 0.5

The velocity of conduction of impulse s maximum in purkinjie fibers and minimum at AV node. 12. Ans: C Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 296

5. Ans: A Ref: Di Fiore s Atlas of Histology, 11/E, p. 338

PHYSIOLOGY 6. Ans: C Ref: Ganong, 23/E, p. 367

Explanation Tubular maximum for glucose is 380 mg/min The answer nearest to this value is C 13. Ans: A Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 475

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

88

21. Ans: C

BIOCHEMISTRY

Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 328

14. Ans: D U.

22. Ans: C

Explanation • Oxidative dicarboxylation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA by pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is a connecting link between glycolysis and TCA cycle.

23. Ans: B

Ref: U.Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 254

and

COMEDK 2010

15. Ans: B Ref: U.Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 294

and

U.

and

U.

16. Ans: A Ref: U.Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 4/E, p. 312

Explanation • Insulin and thyroxine increases cholesterol production by enhancing the formation of active HMG CoA reductase

GENERAL PATHOLOGY 17. Ans: D Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 49 18. Ans: B Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 511 19. Ans: B Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 481 Explanation • It is seen in AML • The myeloblasts show the presence of rod like cytoplasmic inclusions called auer rods • They represent abnormal derivatives of primary azurophillic granules. 20. Ans: C Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 404

Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 87 Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 223 24. Ans: B/D Ref: Harsh Mohan 3/E, p. 178 Explanation • Amoebiasis is caused by Entamoeba histolytica, named for its lytic action & most important intestinal infection of host 25. Ans: A Ref: Robbins Pathological Basis of Disease, 7/E, p. 403

MICROBIOLOGY 26. Ans: C Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Textbook of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 98 27. Ans: D Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Textbook of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 509 28. Ans: C Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Textbook of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 208 29. Ans: D Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Textbook of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 381 30. Ans: A Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Textbook of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 134 31. Ans: C Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Textbook of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 119

89

COMEDK 2010

Explanation • The activation of C 3 without prior participation of C1,4,2 in known as the alternative pahway

PHARMACOLOGY 32. Ans: D

Explanation • They produce slower response than inhaled sympathomimetics and are best suited for regular prophylactic use than for control of an acute attack. 39. Ans: A Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 371

Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 174

GENERAL MEDICINE

33. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 261

40. Ans: B Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 876

34. Ans: B Explanation Soluble

Insoluble

Cocaine Lidocaine Tetracaine Benzoxinate

Benzocaine Butylaminobenzoate Oxethazine

35. Ans: C Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 383 36. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 830 Explanation • Cell cycle specific antineoplastic drugs kill actively dividing cells with considerable phase selectively • G1 — Vinblastine • S — Cytarabine, G-TG, 6-MP, 5-FU, Hydroxyurea, Mitomycin C, Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin • G 2 — Daunorubicin, Bleomycin, Etoposide, Topotecan • M — Vincristine, Vinblastine, Pactitaxel, Docetaxel 37. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 731 38. Ans: D Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, pp. 222, 227

Explanation Causes of Acute Abdominal Pain (Surgical) Inflammation • Appendicitis • Diverticulitis • Cholecystits • Pelvic inflammatory disease • Pancreatitis • Pyelonephritis • Intra – abdominal abscess Perforation/rupture • Peptic ulcer • Diverticular disease • Ovarian cyst • Aortic aneurysm Obstruction • Intestinal obstruction • Biliary colic • Ureteric colic Other (rare) • See ‘extraintestinal’ causes Extraintestinal causes of chronic or recurrent abdominal pain Retroperitoneal • Aortic aneurysm • Malignancy • Lymphadenopathy • Abscess

COMEDK 2010

Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, pp. 359, 351

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

90

Psychogenic • Depression • Anxiety • Hypochondriasis • Somatisation

COMEDK 2010

Locomotor • Vertebral compression • Abdominal muscle strain Metabolic/endocrine • Diabetes mellitus • Acute intermittent porphyria • Addison’s disease • Hypercalcaemia Drugs/toxins • Corticosteroids • Lead • Azathioprine • Alcohol Haematological • Sickle cell disease • Haemolytic disorders Neurological • Spinal cord lesions • Tabes dorsalis • Radiculopathy 41. Ans: B Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 775 Explanation • Chvostek’s sign is a less specific sign of hypocalcemia, in which tapping over the branches of the facial nerve as they emerge from the parotid gland producing twitching of the facial muscles • It may be positive in respiratory alkalosis. 42. Ans: B Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 521

Explanation • Tricuspid regurgitation produces giant V waves that coincide with ventricular systole. 43. Ans: A Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 1029

GENERAL SURGERY 44. Ans: C Ref: Manipal Manual of Surgery, 2/E, p. 90 Explanation • Metabolic complications of parenteral nutrition includes excess of fluids, electrolytes and glucose 45. Ans: B Ref: Manipal Manual of Surgery, 2/E, p. 408 46. Ans: C Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 617 47. Ans: B Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 105 48. Ans: B Ref: Manipal Manal of surgery 2/E, p. 326 Explanation Causes of hyperthyroidism • Excess secretion of thyroid hormone • Graves’ disease • Jod-Basedow syndrome • Amiodarone toxicity • TSH - screting pituitary tumor • HCl - secreting tumor 49. Ans: C Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 245

DENTAL MATERIALS 50. Ans: A Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 321

91

COMEDK 2010

51. Ans: A

65. Ans: C

Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 596 52. Ans: D

Ref: Wheeler’s, 8/E, p. 309 66. Ans: D

Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 500 53. Ans: D

Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 218 67. Ans: A

Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 705 54. Ans: B

Ref: Wheeler’s, 8/E, p. 32 68. Ans: B

Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 198 55. Ans: A

Ref: Wheeler’s, 8/E, p. 264 69. Ans: C

56. Ans: B

Ref: Wheeler’s, 8/E, p. 216 70. Ans: A

Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 636 57. Ans: C/D Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 116 58. Ans: A Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 297 59. Ans: C Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 310 60. Ans: D Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 336 61. Ans: A Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 300 62. Ans: A Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 246 63. Ans: A

Ref: Wheeler’s, 8/E, p. 230 71. Ans: C Ref: Wheeler’s, 8/E, p. 38 72. Ans: B Ref: Tencate, 7/E, p. 51 Explanation • 6th week — On the lateral aspect of Meckel’s cartilage a condensation of mesenchyme occurs • 7th week — Intramembranous ossification begins in this condensation, forming the first bone of the mandible • Therefore the nearest answer is 8th week prenatal 73. Ans: B

Ref: Essentials of Dental Materials, S.H. Soratur, p. 131

Ref: Orban’s,12/E, p. 27 74. Ans: B

DADH 64. Ans: B Ref: Wheeler’s, 8/E, p. 45

Ref: Orban’s,12/E, p. 212 75. Ans: C Ref: Berkovitz, 3/E, p. 126

COMEDK 2010

Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 324

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

92

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE 76. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 854

COMEDK 2010

Explanation • Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by – Miosis – Ptosis – Anhydrosis – Vasodilation over the face 77. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 163 78. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, pp. 167,168 79. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 665 80. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 330 81. Ans: B Ref: Burkitt, 11/E, p. 414 82. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 917 83. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 849 84. Ans: C Ref: Burkitt, 11/E, p. 457 85. Ans: B Ref: Neville, 3/E, pp. 418, 419

Explanation • Chediak-Higashi syndrome is an autosomal recessive immunodeficiency disorder characterized by abnormal intracellular protein transcription. 88. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 824 Explanation • Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa has been associated in all cases with mutations of the gene coding for type VII collagen (COL7A1) 89. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 345 90. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 23 91. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 736–737 92. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 668 93. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p.760 94. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 259 95. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 583 96. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 282 97. Ans:A Ref: Shafer’s, 5/E, p. 100

86. Ans: B Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 757 87. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 772

ORAL RADIOLOGY 98. Ans: D Ref: White and Pharaoh, 6/E, p. 12

93

COMEDK 2010

99. Ans: C

Reciprocal anchorage

Ref: White and Pharaoh, 6/E, p. 273 100. Ans: C Ref: White and Pharaoh, 6/E, p. 22 101. Ans: D Ref: White and Pharaoh, 6/E, p. 38

Correction of midline diastema using elastics/ finger springs Single tooth anchorage Cross bite elastics for posterior cross bite Arch expansion using coffin spring

111. Ans: C Ref: Proffit, 4/E, p. 112

102. Ans: D Ref: White and Pharaoh, 6/E, p. 332

112. Ans: D Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 254

103. Ans: A

113. Ans: A Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 396

104. Ans: B Ref: White and Pharaoh, 6/E, p. 34

114. Ans: D Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, pp. 256,257

105. Ans: B Ref: White and Pharaoh, 6/E, p. 11

ORTHODONTICS 106. Ans: A Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 265 107. Ans: C Ref: Gurkeerat Singh, 2/E, p. 33 108. Ans: B Ref: Proffit, 4/E, p. 618 109. Ans: A Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 272 110. Ans: C Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 205 Explanation Simple anchorage Stationary anchorage

Buccal movement of palatally placed premolar Simple retraction of maxillary incisor using maxillary molars as anchorage

PEDODONTICS 115. Ans: C Ref: Mc Donald, 8/E, p. 46 116. Ans: C Ref: Shoba Tandon, 2/E, p. 451 117. Ans: A Ref: Shoba Tandon, 2/E, p. 67 118. Ans: A Ref: Shoba Tandon, 2/E, p. 408 Explanation Pulpectomy: Nd: YAG lasers Direct pulp capping: CO2 lasers Fluoride application: O2 Nd: YAG Lasers at 50 mJ followed by fluoride application 119. Ans: C Ref: Shoba Tandon, 2/E, p. 459 120. Ans: C Ref: Shoba Tandon, 2/E, p. 136

COMEDK 2010

Ref: White and Pharaoh, 6/E, p. 418

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

94

Explanation • Fear is a reaction to a known danger • Types of fears a. Innate fear—without stimuli or previous experiences b. Subjective fear—fears transmitted to the individual c. Objective fear—fears due to objects, events and specific conditioning. 121. Ans: C Ref: Mc Donald, 8/E, p. 252 COMEDK 2010

122. Ans: C Ref: Shoba Tandon, 2/E, p. 136 123. Ans: A Ref: Shoba Tandon, 2/E, p. 650 Explanation • Autism manifests in the first 3 yrs of life • Mental retardation – significantly subaverage intellectual functioning existing concurrently with deficit in adaptive behavior and manifested during the developmental period 124. Ans: C Ref: Shoba Tandon, 2/E, p. 153

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY 125. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 673 126. Ans: C Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 50 127. Ans: B Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 127 128. Ans: C Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 660 129. Ans: D Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 127

130. Ans: A Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 69 131. Ans: C Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 582 132. Ans: C Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 54 133. Ans: A Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 748 134. Ans: D Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 350 135. Ans: D Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 761 136. Ans: C Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 203 137. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 678

PROSTHODONTICS 138. Ans: A Ref: Zarb and Bolender, 12/E p. 383 Explanation Bilateral sounds – b, p and m Labiodental sounds – f, v, ph Linguodental sounds – th Linguoalveolar – s, z, sh, ch and j (I went to church to see the judge) Linguopalatal and linguovelar sounds – k, g and ng. 139. Ans: D Ref: Winkler’s, 2/E, p. 246 Explanation • Acrylic resin teeth do not chip and have softer impact sounds than porcelain teeth 140. Ans: A Ref: Heartwell, 4/E, p. 102

95

COMEDK 2010

141. Ans: A

153. Ans: A

Ref: Winkler’s, 2/E, p. 352 142. Ans: C Ref: Rosensteil, 4/E, p. 627 143. Ans: D Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 625

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 153 Explanation • S. Sanguis produces H 2 O 2 which either directly or by host enzyme amplification can kill A. actinomycetemcomitans. • Other beneficial species

144. Ans: B Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 111

154. Ans: A Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 858

145. Ans: D Ref: Heartwell, 5/E, p. 112

155. Ans: D

Ref: Zarb and Bolender, 12/E, p. 206

156. Ans: A Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 585

147. Ans: C Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 532 148. Ans: A Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 194 149. Ans: B Ref: Zarb and Bolender, 12/E, p. 104

Explanation • Conventional radiographs are very specific but lack sensitivity • 30% of bone mass at the alveolar crest must be lost for change in bone height to be recognized on radiographs. 157. Ans: B

150. Ans: D Ref: Zarb and Bolender, 12/E, p. 441

PERIODONTICS 151. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 239 152. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 150 Explanation • Coaggregation–cell to cell recognition of genetically distinct partner cell types a. Corn cob form, e.g. Streptococci adherens to filament of actimomyces species b. Test tube brush-composed of filamentous bacteria to which gram negative rods adhere.

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 57 and 58 158. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 143 Explanation Yellow Complex • S. mitis • S. oralis • S. sanguis • Streptococcus species • S. gordonis • S. intermedius Purple Complex • V. parvula • A. odontolyticus Red Complex • P. gingivalis

COMEDK 2010

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 633

146. Ans: D

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

96

• B. forsythus • T. denticola

COMEDK 2010

Green Complex • E. corrodens • Capnocytophaga • A. actinomycetomcomitans • C. rectus Orange Complex • P. intermedia • P. nigrescence • P. microsus • F. nucleatum • C. showae • E. nodatum 159. Ans: D Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 591 Explanation Bacteria containing trypsin like enzyme are: • Tannerella forsythia • Porphyromonas gingivalis • Treponema denticola • Capnocytophaga

163. Ans: C Ref: Sturdevant, 4/E, p. 829 164. Ans: A Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 266 165. Ans: B Ref: Philips, 11/E, p. 385 166. Ans: A Ref: Ingle, 6/E, p. 929 167. Ans: C Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 246 168. Ans: B Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 349 169. Ans: B Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 248 170. Ans: A Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 380 171. Ans: A Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 291

ORAL SURGERY

160. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 76 Explanation • Normal variations in cementoenamel junction – Space between enamel and cementum with dentin exposed 5–10% – End to end relationship of enamel and cementum – 30% – Cementum overlapping enamel 60–65% 161. Ans: B Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 75

CONS AND ENDO 162. Ans: C Ref: Sturdevant, 4/E, p. 82

172. Ans: B Ref: Kruger, 6/E, p. 431 Explanation Some signs of zygomatic arch fractures • Dimpling of skin over arch (after edema has subsided) • Flattening of upper cheek and fullness of lower cheek • Hemorrhage into sclera of the eye • Nasal hemorrhage • Antrum hematoma • Depressed level of the eye • Paresthesia over the check • Mandibular function is hindered because of impingement on coronoid process.

97

COMEDK 2010

173. Ans: A Ref: Malamed Medical emergencies in dental office, 6/E, p. 72 174. Ans: C Ref: Killey’s, 5/E, p. 41 175. Ans: C

foreign body has changed position or not. If Shift is seen, then it is present in the antrum. If shift is not seen, then it is present in between the sinus lining and the wall. 176. Ans: A Ref: Monheim’s, 7/E, p. 91

Ref: Quick Review in Oral Surgery, Gupta, p. 124

177. Ans: A

Explanation The displaced root fragment may be located whether it is present in the antrum or between the lining and the sinus wall by taking a routine IOPAR. The patient is then asked to bend and shake his head. After this another IOPAR of the same region is taken. Both the radiographs are compared to check if the

178. Ans: C

Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 346, 347 Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 592 Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 444 180. Ans: A Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 229

COMEDK 2010

179. Ans: B

5 COMEDK 2009 6. Axon hillock is a part of neuron which A. Has dense Nissel granules B. Has no Nissel granules C. Is at commencement of dendrites D. Is round in shape

HUMAN ANATOMY 1. Abductor of vocal cord is A. Transverse arytenoid B. Oblique arytenoid C. Lateral thyroarytenoid D. Posterior cricoarytenoid

7. Magnesium level in blood increases in A. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus B. Liver cirrhosis C. Kidney failure D. Chronic alcoholism

2. Which of the following has greater bone density A. Post mandible B. Post maxilla C. Anterior maxilla D. Anterior mandible

8. Which of the following events does not occur in rods in response to light? A. Structural change in rhodopsin B. Activation of transducin C. Decreased intracellular cGMP D. Opening of Na+ channels

3. Umbilical cord contains A. Three arteries and one vein B. One artery and three veins C. One artery and one vein D. Two arteries and one vein

9. The absolute refractory period of an action potential is due to A. Insufficient neurotransmitter B. Depletion of intracellular Na+ C. Inactivation of Na+– K+ ATPase D. Voltage inactivation of the Na + channel

4. Unilateral paralysis of hypoglossal nerve leads to A. Deviation of tongue to the normal side B. Deviation of tongue to the paralyzed side C. No change in the position of tongue D. Retraction of tongue

10. Starling’s law of heart A. Does not operate in failing heart B. Do not operate during exercise C. Explains the increase in cardiac output that occurs when venous return is increased D. Explains the increase in cardiac output when the sympathetic nerves supplying the heart are stimulated

PHYSIOLOGY 5. Which of the following fibres are responsible for conduction of pain impulses? A. A Alpha B. A Beta C. A Delta D. A Gamma 98

99

COMEDK 2009

11. The normal value of intrapleural pressure at the base of lung at the start of inspiration is A. – 6 mmHg B. – 2.5 mmHg C. + 2.5 mmHg D. + 6 mmHg 12. CSF is directly returned to venous system by A. Choroid plexus B. Cerebral veins C. Arachnoid villi D. Emissary veins

BIOCHEMISTRY

14. The uptake of glucose by liver is increased following a carbohydrate meal because A. There is increased phosphorylation of glucose by glucokinase B. GLUT–2 is stimulated by insulin C. Glucokinase has a low K m for glucose D. Hexokinase in liver has a high affinity for glucose 15. Serum creatinin kinase – 3 is elevated in A. Muscular dystrophy B. Myocardial infarction C. Alcoholic cirrhosis D. Brain tumor 16. Vitamin B12 is absorbed in A. Stomach B. Duodenum C. Jejunum D. Ileum 17. The enzyme glucosyl transferase secreted by Streptococcus mutans synthesize glucans from

Glucose Fructose Sucrose Lactose

GENERAL PATHOLOGY 18. Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to A. Invasion B. Endotoxin C. Exotoxin D. Capsule 19. Ghon complex of lung usually A. Undergo cavitation B. Undergo calcification C. Progress to tuberculous pneumonia D. Progress to miliary tuberculosis 20. Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease is A. Diffuse glomerulosclerosis B. Nodular glomerulosclerosis C. Increase in mesangial matrix D. Capillary basement membrane thickening 21. Tissue graft rejection can be prevented by suppression of A. Plasma antibodies B. T cells C. Allergy producing mast cells and basophils D. Macrophages 22. The histological criteria for diagnosis of acute appendicitis is neutrophil infiltration of A. Mucosa B. Submucosa C. Serosa D. Muscularis propria 23. HLA–B27 histocompatibility antigen is seen in A. Sjögren’s syndrome B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Felty’s syndrome D. Scleroderma

COMEDK 2009

13. Burning foot syndrome occurs due to deficiency of A. Niacin B. Pantothenic acid C. Riboflavin D. Folic acid

A. B. C. D.

100

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

24. Secondary amyloidosis commonly seen in A. Actinomycosis B. Tuberculosis C. Rabies D. Secondary leus

is

most

25. Kvim sielzbach test is useful in the diagnosis of A. Tuberculosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Leprosy D. Cat scratch disease

COMEDK 2009

26. Thrombocytosis is seen in A. Osteopetrosis B. DIC C. Haemolytic anaemia D. Thiazide therapy 27. All the following are signs of cerebellar disease except A. Past pointing B. Resting tremors C. Nystagmus D. Ataxic gait 28. Venous emboli are most often lodged in A. Intestine B. Lungs C. Heart D. Kidney 29. Commonest mode of inheritance of von Willebrand’s disease is A. Codominant B. Autosomal dominant C. Autosomal recessive D. X-linked recessive 30. A three-year-old child presented with progressive anemia, jaundice and failure to thrive, pallor, splenomegaly. Peripheral blood smear showed normoblast and small round intensely stained red cells. The likely diagnosis is A. Hereditary spherocytosis B. Thalassemia

C. Sickle cell anemia D. Vitamin B12 deficiency 31. Increased level of hemoglobin A2 is a characteristic of A. Sickle cell trait B. B thalassemia trait C. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency D. A thalassemia 32. Free radicals are chemical species which have A. Single electron in outer orbit B. Single-paired electron in outer orbit C. Double-unpaired electron in outer orbit D. Double-paired electron in outer orbit 33. Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection? A. Giardia lamblia B. Isospora belli C. Balantidium coli D. Taenia solium

MICROBIOLOGY 34. All the following viruses are capable of causing human cancers except A. Papilloma virus B. Hepatitis B virus C. Epstein-Barr virus D. Parvovirus B 19 35. Which of the following virus produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies? A. Measles B. Chickenpox C. Smallpox D. Rabies 36. The term epitope refers to A. Complete antigen molecule B. Smallest antigenic determinant C. Hapten D. Immunogen

101

COMEDK 2009

37. Immunoglobulin class which crosses the placenta is A. IgE B. IgM C. IgA D. IgG 38. Cold sterilization refers to the process of sterilization by use of A. Ultraviolet rays B. Ultrasonic vibrations C. Infrared rays D. Gamma rays

PHARMACOLOGY

40. In the physiologic system, nitric oxide is known to act through A. Cyclic AMP B. Cyclic GMP C. Calcium ions D. Prostacyclins 41. All of the following are side effects of long- term use of corticosteroids except A. Hypoglycemia B. Peptic ulcers C. Osteoporosis D. Psychosis 42. Combination of gentamicin and ampicillin is an example of A. Indifference B. Synergy C. Antagonism D. Bacterial symbiosis 43. Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of microorganisms is determined by A. Direct microscopy B. Culture

44. Which among the following is useful in absence seizures? A. Phenytoin B. Carbamazepine C. Valproic acid D. Phenobarbitone 45. Which of the following antibiotics should be avoided in pregnancy A. Erythromycin B. Tetracycline C. Cephalexin D. Amoxicillin 46. Which among the following is NOT a pharmacological action of opioid? A. Cough suppression B. Anti-emesis C. Miosis D. Truncal rigidity

GENERAL MEDICINE 47. The prothrombin time is high in a patient with liver disease. However, the prothrombin time is normalized after the injection of vitamin K. This is a feature in A. Severe hepatocellular disease B. Chronic alcoholic liver disease C. Deficiency of hepatic g- carboxylase D. Cholestatic liver disease 48. Kaposi’s sarcoma usually occurs when CD4 counts are A. Above 600 B. Between 1000–2000 C. Below 200 D. Above 2000

GENERAL SURGERY 49. Thyroid carcinoma with pulsating vascular skeletal metastasis A. Follicular B. Anaplastic C. Medullary D. Papillary

COMEDK 2009

39. Which among the following antihistaminic is least likely to cause sedation? A. Promethazine B. Diphenhydramine C. Hydroxyzine D. Loratidine

C. DNA probe D. ELISA

102

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

50. Which of the following statement is true for thyroglobulin? A. It is specific marker for anaplastic carcinoma B. Evaluation after complete therapy suggests recurrence in well differentiated thyroid C. Preoperative evaluation always suggest nodal disease D. Intra operative estimation from thyroid veins is very useful for prognosis

COMEDK 2009

51. Preauricular sinus A. Is always unilateral B. Usually painful C. May be in close proximity of greater auricular nerve D. Recurrence after excision is common

DENTAL MATERIALS 52. To prevent sensitization of austenitic stainless steel at elevated temperature the element used is A. Chlorine B. Titanium C. Nickel D. Carbon 53. During soldering, solidus temperature of the filler metal should be A. Greater than the substrate metal B. Lesser than substrate metal C. Equal to substrate metal D. Temperature not relevant

C. Robert E Z gold D. Taggart E Z gold 56. Ni–Ti wires were introduced in orthodontics by A. Anderson B. Burrstone C. Bishara D. Buchler 57. The melting point of titanium in degrees Celsius is A. 1056 B. 1560 C. 1668 D. 1886 58. The calcium content of alloyed electrolytic precipitate is A. 0.10% B. 0.20% C. 0.50% D. 0.80% 59. The most heat producing and efficient burning zone in a soldering flame is A. Cold mixing zone B. Partial combustion zone C. Reducing zone D. Oxidizing zone 60. The most toxic form of mercury is A. Methyl and ethyl mercury B. Mercury vapours C. Inorganic mercury forms D. Mercury sulphide

54. The accepted polymer to monomer ratio for packing of polymethylmethacrylate is A. 3:1 B. 4:1 C. 10:1 D. 5:1

61. The stainless steel with least corrosion resistance is A. Ferritic B. Austenitic C. Martensitic D. Duplex

55. Powdered gold is marketed as A. William’s E Z gold B. Morgan’s E Z gold

62. Ni–Ti instruments are flexible because of A. Plasticity B. Rigidity

103

COMEDK 2009

C. Superelasticity D. Hardness 63. The linear solidification shrinkage of type IV Ni – Cr based casting alloys is A. 2.30% B. 1.56% C. 1.37% D. 3% 64. Residual monomer content of chemically activated resin is A. 0.2–0.5% B. 2%–5% C. 0.3%–0.5% D. 3%–5%

66. All the forms of direct filling gold are degassed by heating in the blue inner core of ethanol flame except A. Platinized gold foil B. Electrolytic precipitate C. Powdered gold D. Alloyed electrolytic precipitate 67. Which of the following fuel gases used for soldering, has the highest heat content A. Hydrogen B. Natural gases C. Acetylene D. Propane 68. Interfacial surface tension does not occur as a retentive factor in lower complete denture due to lack of A. Liquid/liquid interface B. Liquid/air interface C. Air/air interface D. Liquid/gel interface

69. Which of these does not contain collagen? A. Enamel B. Dentine C. Cementum D. Bone 70. The average width of enamel rods is A. 10 nanometer B. 5 nanometer C. 2 nanometer D. 0.5 nanometer 71. Pulp responds to all stimuli by pain because it has only A. Free nerve endings B. Krause’s end bulb C. Pacinian corpuscles D. Ruffini’s corpuscles 72. In dried skull holes on the lingual aspect of deciduous teeth are called A. Volkmann’s canals B. Haversian canals C. Gubernacular canals D. Canals of Hirschfield and Zuckerkandl 73. Epithelial cell rests of Malassez are seen in A. Enamel B. Cementum C. Alveolar bone D. Periodontal ligament 74. What is the geometric outline of crown of mandibular molars when viewed from proximal aspect A. Trapezoidal B. Triangle C. Rhomboid D. Rectangle 75. Matrix vesicles are found in A. Mantle dentine B. Collagen C. Produce alkaline phosphatase D. Inhibit mineralization

COMEDK 2009

65. The solvent flux used for base metal soldering is A. Boric acid B. Borax C. Rouge D. Fluoride

DADH

104

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

76. The gland of Von Ebner empty into a deep groove running around A. Filiform papilla B. Foliate papillae C. Fungiform papillae D. Circumvallate papillae

COMEDK 2009

77. The number of line angles in permanent maxillary incisor are A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 78. Canals of Zuckerkandl and Hirschfeld are seen in A. Spongy bone B. Cribriform plate of ethmoid bone C. Interradicular and interdental septa of alveolar bone D. Cortical plate of alveolar bone 79. Which of the following papillae are keratinized? A. Filliform B. Fungiform C. Circumvallate D. Foliate papillae 80. Bundle bone is a part of A. Periodontal ligament B. Alveolar bone C. Cementum D. Long bones 81. Keratohyaline granules are found in A. Stratum basale B. Statum granulosum C. Stratum corneum D. Stratum spinosum 82. Collagen fibers have transverse striations with characteristic periodicity of A. 64 cm B. 64 nm C. 64 μm D. 640 nm

83. Interdependency of osteoclast and osteoblast in bone remodeling is termed as A. Lacunae B. Coupling C. Reversal lines D. Canaliculi

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE 84. Pathologic calcification is seen in A. Scleroderma B. Lichen planus C. Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa D. Lupus erythematosus 85. Aspirate which is creamy white viscous with the value of total protein less than 5.00 gm/100 ml is suggestive of A. Infected cyst B. Dentigerous cyst C. Odontogenic keratocyst D. Ranula 86. The most common coagulation disorder haemophilia A and von Willebrand’s disease are due to A. Factor IX deficiency B. Vitamin K deficiency C. F actor X deficiency D. F actor VIII deficiency 87. Horner’s syndrome includes all except A. Enophthalmos B. Miosis C. Exophthalmos D. Ptosis 88. The most common dislocation of temporomandibular joint is A. Anterior B. Posterior C. Medial D. Lateral 89. Which type of candidiasis is associated with leukoplakia A. Acute pseudomembranous candidiasis

105

COMEDK 2009

B. Acute atrophic candidiasis C. Chronic atrophic candidiasis D. Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis 90. Histological clefts in lichen planus are A. Civatte bodies B. Wickham’s striae C. Auspitz’s sign D. Max-Joseph space 91. Oral ulceration resembling apthae are encountered in A. Gluten enteropathy B. Chronic smokers C. Excess B complex vitamin consumption D. Anti malarial medication

93. Which of the following infection can produce unilateral facial pain? A. Herpes simplex B. Herpes zoster C. Chickenpox D. Herpangina 94 . Still’s disease is a form of A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Osteoporosis C. Osteitis deformans D. None

98. Which of the following is used to measure pain intensity? A. Visual analogue scale B. Visual anesthesia score C. Verifiable assessment of soreness D. Visual assessment of soreness 99. The critical pH for dissolution of enamel has been shown to be A. 3.5 B. 4.5 C. 5.5 D. 6.5

ORAL RADIOLOGY 100. Digital image in computerized radiography is made up of A. Pixels B. CCD C. CMOS D. Silver halide crystals 101. Which of the following is true? A. Cathode is negatively charged B. Cathode is positively charged C. Anode emits electrons D. Anode is connected to step-down transformer

95. Adenolymphoma refers to A. Adeno carcinoma B. Adenoid cystic lymphoma C. Pleomorphic adenoma D. Warthin’s tumour

102. During the production of X-rays how much electron energy is converted into heat? A. 99% B. 94.5% C. 895 D. 84%

96. Which of the following neurofibroma is potentially threatening? A. Acoustic neuroma B. Multiple neurofibromatosis C. Generalized neurofibromatosis D. Plexiform neurofibromatosis

103. The unit of measurement of absorbed radiations is A. Curie B. Sievert C. Gray D. Kerma

COMEDK 2009

92. Rushton bodies are sometimes seen in A. Calcifying odontogenic cyst B. Gingival cyst of adult C. Gingival cyst of newborn D. Lateral periodontal cyst

97. The most common site for mucocele is A. Floor of mouth B. Buccal mucosa C. Lower lip D. Upper lip

106

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

104. Months or years following radiotherapy, the irradiated oral mucosa A. Undergo necrosis B. Develop candidiasis C. Become atrophic D. Develop granulomatosis

COMEDK 2009

105. Cervical burnout is a phenomenon caused by A. Decreased X-ray absorption in cervical region of tooth with proximal caries B. Decreased X-ray absorption in cervical region of normal tooth C. Decreased X-ray absorption in cervical region of root caries D. Decreased X-ray absorption in cervical region of hypoplastic tooth 106. Which of the following is the best method for radiation protection of the operator? A. Standing behind a lead barrier B. Wearing a lead apron C. Follow the “position and distance” rule D. Standing 6 feet away from the X-ray tube during exposure 107. The most common type of radiation caries is A. Cervical surface involvement of teeth B. Wide spread superficial lesion attacking buccal, occlusal, incisal and palatal surfaces C. Spreading to occlusal and palatal surfaces D. Dark pigmentation of the entire crown

ORTHODONTICS 108. Mayne space maintainer represents which type of space maintainer? A. Nonfunctional B. Functional C. Cantilever D. Crown and crib 109. Spring used for buccal movement of premolar is

A. B. C. D.

Whip spring Finger spring T spring W spring

110. Intrusion is best produced by A. Light intermittent force B. Heavy intermittent force C. Light continuous force D. Heavy continuous force 111. Which of the following is an indication of serial extraction? A. Class II malocclusion with anterior deep bite B. Class I malocclusion with severe mandibular anterior crowding C. Class II malocclusion with anterior open bite and severe arch length discrepancy D. Class I malocclusion with well spaced arch 112. Type of force exerted by expansion screw is A. Continuous B. Intermittent C. Functional D. Interrupted 113. To maintain the space of primary molar that has been lost before the eruption of the permanent first molar the choice of space maintainer is A. Band and loop B. Crown and loop C. Band and bar D. Distal shoe 114. Appliance which makes use of the forces exerted by muscles of tongue, face, neck and mastication A. Fixed appliance B. Functional appliance C. Multiband appliance D. Sectional appliance 115. Scammon’s growth curve for which of the following tissue system shows an S-shaped curve? A. Lymphoid tissue

107

COMEDK 2009

B. Neural tissue C. Muscle and bones D. Genital tissue 116. Chin cap is given in A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class II div 2 117. Who proposed the nasal septal theory of craniofacial growth? A. Moss B. Schier C. Vander Lindern D. Latham

119. “Guidance to eruption” is also known as A. Frankel’s appliance B. Activators C. Bionator D. Serial extraction 120. Nickel titanium alloy was first introduced as an orthodontic wire by A. Anderson B. Buehler C. Burrstone D. Bishara 121. Distraction is performed by activating the screw at a rate of A. 0.5 mm/day B. 1 mm/day C. 2 mm/day D. 3 mm/day 122. What is the amount of time required by erupting premolar to move through 1 mm of bones measured on bite wing radiograph? A. 2–3 months B. 4–5 months

PEDODONTICS 123. For a 3-year-old child space maintainer is fabricated. What is the biggest disadvantage of such appliance? A. Irritation to supporting tissues B. Difficulty to clean C. Child may not tolerate wearing D. Function will be compromised 124. Pacifier sucking is an example of A. Digit sucking B. Non nutritive sucking C. Implicative sucking D. Nutritive sucking 125. Whistle is a word substitute for explaining the following instrument in children A. High speed hand piece B. Suction apparatus C. Low speed hand piece D. Air syringe 126. Joseph Wolpe developed the following behavior management technique A. Modeling B. Tell – show – do C. Desensitization D. Voice control 127. Which of the following extreme of parental behavior are manifested either in extreme dominance or indulgence A. Over anxiety B. Rejection C. Identification D. Overprotection 128. Behaviour management technique were labeled as “Embarrassment of riches” in 1977 by A. Jimmy R Pinkham B. Gerald Z Wright C. David W Chamber D. J C Brauer

COMEDK 2009

118. In mandibular 3rd molar region, the grains of bone runs in A. Buccolingual direction B. Anterioposterior direction C. Vertical direction D. Oblique direction

C. 6–7 months D. 7–8 months

108

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

COMEDK 2009

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY

B. Morbidity, mortality and disability C. Rate, ratio and proportion D. Epidemic, endemic and pandemics

129. Sorbitol acts in the prevention of dental caries because A. Microorganisms lack the enzyme to metabolize sorbitol B. Lactic acid can not be produced C. Fermantation of sorbitol does not occur D. Sorbitol is not a carbohydrate

136. The sampling method in pathfinder survey is A. Stratified cluster sampling B. Simple random sampling C. Snow ball sampling D. Two stage sampling

130. Hopewood house study was on A. People eating large amount of sugar B. People eating low amount of sugar C. People not exposed to sugar D. People eating moderate amount of sugar

137. Bias arising from different rates of admission to hospitals for people with different disease A. Confounding bias B. Berkinsonian bias C. Information bias D. Selection bias

131. The double pot method of adding chlorine to well water was devised by A. WHO B. UNICEF C. ICMR D. National Environment Engineering and Research Institute 132. The heart of randomized control trial (RCT) A. Protocol B. Follow–up C. Assessment D. Randomization 133. The number of new cases in population during a specific period of time A. Morbidity B. Mortality C. Incidence D. Prevalence 134. A composite index combining indicators representing longevity, knowledge and income is A. Physical quality of life index B. Human development index C. Sullivan index D. Human poverty index 135. Basic tool of measurement of epidemiology are A. Incidence, prevalence and ratio

138. The study which proceeds from cause to effect A. Retrospective study B. Case control study C. Cohort study D. Descriptive study 139. 1 part per million of fluoridated water is A. 1 mg fluoride in 1 liter of water B. 1 gm fluoride in 1 liter of water C. 10 gm fluoride in 100 ml of water D. 1 mg of fluoride in 100 ml of water 140. Normal curve is also known as A. Stephens curve B. Gaussian curve C. Sigmoid curve D. Community curve 141. Recommended dosage of fluoride mouth rinse for 12–14 years old is A. 10 ml 0.2% NaF twice daily B. 10 ml 0.2% NaF once daily C. 10 ml 0.2% NaF twice monthly D. 10 ml 0.2% NaF once monthly 142. Stephan curve denotes the relationship between A. Sucrose intake and salivary pH B. plaque pH and glucose rinse C. Plaque pH and salivary pH D. Salivary flow rate and buffering capacity

109

COMEDK 2009

PROSTHODONTICS 143. The ultimate in finish line that permits an acute margin of metal is A. Shoulder B. Chamfer C. Knife edge D. Shoulder with bevel 144. Amount of functional cusp reduction required for metal ceramic crown is A. 2.0–2.5 mm B. 1.5–2.0 mm C. 2.0–2.25 mm D. 1.85–2.10 mm 145. The advantages of overdenture are all of the following except Preservation of alveolar bone Esthetics Retention Support

146. The maximum depression of the soft palate is recorded when the Frankfort horizontal plane is A. B. C. D.

30º below the horizontal plane 10º below the horizontal plane 60º below the horizontal plane 80º below the horizontal plane

147. VLC resins are also called as A. B. C. D.

Microwave activated resins Tertiary amine activated resins Light activated resins Heat activated resins

148. A technique of combining reversible hydrocolloid and irreversible hydrocolloid that could bond to irreversible hydrocolloid is known as A. Injection technique B. Laminate technique C. Immersion technique D. Tempering technique

PERIODONTICS 150. Fibronectin is used in periodontal therapy as A. Growth factor B. Bone graft C. Biomodification of root surface D. GTR memebrane 151. Predominant microorganism isolated from localized aggressive periodontitis is A. Campylobacter rectus B. Prevotella intermedia C. Actinomyces viscosus D. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans 152. Tissue destruction in periodontitis is due to A. Coronal plaque B. Marginal plaque C. Tooth associated plaque D. Tissue associated plaque 153. The most numerous fibres in periodontal ligament is A. Apical B. Horizontal C. Oblique D. Alveolar crest fibers 154. Buccal mucosa is A. Keratinized B. Non-keratinized C. Parakeratinized D. Orthokeratinized 155. DNA probes A. Measure pocket depth B. Measure attachment loss C. Determine the presence of specific microorganism D. Determine the susceptibility of the individual to disease

COMEDK 2009

A. B. C. D.

149. Dehydration is common concern in elderly edentulous patients because A. Reduce ability to sense thirst B. Poor absorption of fluid C. Vitamin deficiency D. Osteopetrosis

110

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

156. Extent of bony defect is best measured by A. Sequential probing B. Transgingival probing C. Long cone paralleling technique D. Use of florida probe 157. The most reliable indicator of gingival inflammation A. Color change B. Change in contour C. Change in consistancy D. Bleeding on probing

COMEDK 2009

158. Furcation involvement is best diagnosed by A. Naber’s probe B. William’s probe C. Explorer D. Michigan’s probe 159. Removal of broken curette tip from deep periodontal pocket is facilitated by A. Schwartz perioretriever B. Perioscope C. EVA system D. Jeffcoat probe 160. Microorganisms which invade the host tissue directly is A. Porphyromonas gingivalis B. Campylobacter rectus C. Actinomycosis viscosus D. Streptococcus sanguis 161. Perimolysis is A. Tooth wear due to gastric secretions B. Tooth wear due to bruxism C. Tooth wear due to dentifrices D. Peripheral blood cell destruction

CONS AND ENDO 162. The tip diameter of No. 245 bur used for conventional amalgam preparation A. 2 mm B. 0.8 mm C. 0.3 mm D. 0.4 mm 163. The cavosurface gingival bevel for class II cast gold inlay preparation should be

A. 0.5 to 1 mm and should blend with the secondary flare B. 0.2–0.3 mm and should blend with the secondary flare C. 0.1–0.2 mm and should blend with the secondary flare D. 3–4 mm and should blend with the secondary flare 164. The most common caries affecting the dentition are A. Mesial B. Distal C. Cervical D. Pit and fissure 165. The secondary flare is necessary for class II gold inlay preparation for several reasons but basically the direction of flare result in A. Good esthetics B. 60 degrees marginal metal which is burnishable C. 40 degrees marginal metal which is burnishable D. 10 degrees marginal metal which is burnishable 166. Why no cavosurface bevel for silver amalgam preparation? A. Since material is stronger than tooth surface B. Amalgam is stronger in compression and weaker in tensile C. Amalgam is stronger in tensile and weaker in compression D. No Reason 167. The gingival to occlusal divergence in class II cast gold inlay preparation should be in the range of A. 2 degrees to 5 degrees per wall from the line of draw B. 90 degrees per wall from the line of draw C. 9 degrees per wall from the line of draw D. 14 degrees per wall from the line of draw

111

COMEDK 2009

168. In which of the following case one visit root canal treatment is not indicated A. Pulp is necrotic and asymptomatic B. Pulp is necrotic and symptomatic C. Pulp is vital and symptomatic D. Pulp is necrotic with draining sinus tract 169. Calcified canals can be negotiated by A. 2.6% sodium hypochlorite B. 17% EDTA C. Hydrogen peroxide 3% D. Saline

171. Step-down technique is A. Preparation from apical to middle third B. Preparation from apical to coronal third C. Preparation from coronal to middle third D. Preparation from coronal to apical third

ORAL SURGERY 172. Rowe’s disimpaction forceps is used in treating A. Mandibular condylar fracture B. Maxillary fractures C. Nasal bone fracture D. Zygomatic fracture 173. In WAR lines red line indicates A. Depth of impacted tooth B. Axial inclination of impacted tooth

174. Gillies approach is done through A. Intra oral B. Infra orbital C. Nasal bone D. Temporal region 175. Frey syndrome result from surgery of A. Parotid gland B. Thyroid gland C. Sublingual gland D. Submandibular gland 176. Berger’s flap procedure is used for A. TMJ Ankylosis B. TMJ dislocation C. Oro-antral communication D. Pericoronitis 177. A fractured coronoid process of mandible displaced upward by action of which of the following muscles? A. Mylohyoid B. Lateral pterygoid C. Buccinators D. Temporalis 178. Tooth most commonly involved in oro antral communications A. II premolar B. I premolar C. I maxillary molar D. II maxillary molar 179. The head tilt procedure while dealing with an unconscious patient in dental chair is done to ensure A. Patent airway B. Blood circulation to brain C. To clear foreign body obstacle D. To relieve spasm of respiratory muscles 180. Z plasty is performed in case of A. High frenal attachment B. Low frenal attachment C. Deep sulcus D. Shallow sulcus

COMEDK 2009

170. Which of the following is true about thermal and electrical pulp test after trauma? A. Sensitivity test evaluate the nerve and circulatory conditions of tooth B. False positive tests are more likely than false negative tests C. It may take up nine months for normal blood flow to return D. It may take few hours for normal blood flow to return

C. Length of impacted tooth D. Amount of alveolar bone enclosing tooth

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

112

ANSWERS HUMAN ANATOMY 1. Ans: D Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 346 2. Ans: D Ref: AK D atta, 3/E, p. 40, Bernard Liebgott 2/E, p. 469

8. Ans: D Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 882 9. Ans: D Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 105 10. Ans: C Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 529 11. Ans: A

3. Ans: D Ref: Di Fiore s Atlas of Histology, 11/E, p. 469 Explanation Fetal blood enters the placenta through a pair of umbilical arteries, passes into the villi and returns through a single umbilical vein. 4. Ans: B Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 384

PHYSIOLOGY 5. Ans: C Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 600 Explanation Fast sharp pain A delta fibres Slow chronic pain C fibres 6. Ans: B Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 686 Explanation Nissel granules/tigroid substances are small basophilic granules present throughout the soma except in the axon hillock. 7. Ans: C Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 310

Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 618 12. Ans: C Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 764

BIOCHEMISTRY 13. Ans: B Ref: U.Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 150

and

U.

Explanation Burning foot syndrome pain and numbness in the toes, sleeplessness, fatigue, etc. 14. Ans: A Ref: U.Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 246

and

U.

Explanation Glucokinase present in liver catalyses the phosphorylation of only glucose, has high km for glucose (10 mM) and is not inhibited by glucose 6 phosphate. 15. Ans: A Ref: U.Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 111

and

U.

16. Ans: D Ref:U.Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 154

and

U.

113

COMEDK 2009

Explanation • The vitmain B 12 (cobalamin - IF) complex travels through the gut and binds to specific receptors on the surface of the mucosal cells of the ileium 17. Ans: A Ref: U.Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 20

and

U.

GENERAL PATHOLOGY 18. Ans: C Ref: Robbin’s Pathological Basis of Disease, 7/ E, p. 374 19. Ans: B Explanation • Commonly the lesions of primary TB, lung do not progress but heal by fibrosis and undergo calcification or even ossification • In some cases they progress to become caseous • At times they spread to various tissues and organs (Miliary TB). 20. Ans: B

Ref: Robbin’s Pathological Basis of Disease, 7/ E, p. 205 Explanation • Individuals who inherit HLA–B-27 have a 90-fold greater chance of developing ankylosing spondylitis. 24. Ans: B Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 57 Explanation Causes of secondary amyloidosis • Chronic infections – tuberculosis, bronchiectasis, chronic osteomyelitis, chronic pyelonephritis, leprosy • Autoimmune disorders – rheumatoid arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease • Tumours – renal cell Ca, Hodgkin’s disease. 25. Ans: B Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 134 26. Ans: C Ref: Robbin’s Pathological Basis of Disease, 7/ E, p. 624 27. Ans: B Ref: Robbin’s Pathological Basis of Disease, 7/ E, p. 1400

Ref: Robbin’s Pathological Basis of Disease, 7/ E, p. 1142

28. Ans: B

Explanation • It is also known as Inter capillary glomerulosclerosis • Commonly seen in diabetes

29. Ans: B

21. Ans: B Ref: Robbin’s Pathological Basis of Disease, 7/E, p. 226 22. Ans: D Ref: Robbin’s Pathological Basis of Disease, 7/E, p. 827

Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 216 Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 510 30. Ans: A Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 468 31. Ans: B Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 477 Explanation • Increased level of HbA2 has not been found in any other haemoglobin abnormality except beta thalassemia

COMEDK 2009

Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 122

23. Ans: B

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

114

32. Ans: B Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 31 33. Ans: D Ref: Robbin’s Pathologic Basics of Disease, 7/E, p. 406

COMEDK 2009

Explanation • It is defined as the infection of a primary host with a parasite, particularly a helminth, in such a way that the complete life cycle of the parasite happens in a single organism. some of the organisms where auto infection occurs are: 1. Strongyloides stercoralis 2. Enterobius vermicularis 3. Taenia 4. Hymenolepis

MICROBIOLOGY 34. Ans: D Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 564 35. Ans: A Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 444 36. Ans: B Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 91 Explanation • Smallest unit of antigenicity – epitope/antigenic determined • Paratope – combining area on the antibody molecule corresponding to the epitope • Hapten – substances that are incapable of inducing antibody formation themselves but can react specifically with antibodies. • Idiotope – specific antigenic determinant on paratope

37. Ans: D Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 98 38. Ans: D Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 35

PHARMACOLOGY 39. Ans: D Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 156 Explanation • Highly sedative – Diphenhydramine, Dimenhydrinate, Promethazine, Hydro-xyzine • Moderately sedative – Pheniramine, Meclizine, Buclizine, Cinnarizine • Mild sedative – Chlorpheniramine, Dimethindene, Triprolidine, Mehydroline, Cyclizine, Clemastine 40. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 523 Explanation • Organic nitrates are rapidly denitrated enzymatically in the smooth muscle cell to release the reactive free radical nitric oxide (NO 2 ) which activates cytosolic guanylyl cyclasecGMP. 41. Ans: A Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 286 42. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 724 43. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 675 44. Ans: C Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 411 45. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p.85

115

COMEDK 2009

Explanation • Tetracyclines have chelating property, calcium tetracycline chelate gets deposited in developing teeth and bone given from mild pregnancy to 5 months of extrauterine life, the deciduous teeth are affected 46. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p.455

GENERAL MEDICINE 47. Ans: B Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p.970 48. Ans: C Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 384

49. Ans:A Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 665 50. Ans: B Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p.455 51. Ans: D Ref: A. Sukumar, 1/E, p. 68

DENTAL MATERIALS 52. Ans: B Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 640 Explanation • Niobium or titanium plus tantalum is used which precipitates in preference to chromium. 53. Ans: B Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 610 Explanation • The flow temperature of the filler metal should be at least 55.6°C (100°F) lower than the solidus temperature of the substrate metal.

Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 727 55. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 551 56. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 646 Explanation • Nitinol was first developed by Bueler but Anderson introduced Nitinol to orthodontics 57. Ans: C Ref: William O Brein, 2/E, p. 266 58. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 550 59. Ans: C Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 615 60. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 198 61. Ans: C Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 638 Explanation • Most corrosion resistant – Austenite stainless steels • Least corrosion resistant – Martensitic stainless steels. 62. Ans: C Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 647 63. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 577 64. Ans: D Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 736 Explanation • Mechanical Property Requirement in ANSI/ADA Specification No. 5 for Dental Casting Alloys (1337)

COMEDK 2009

GENERAL SURGERY

54. Ans: A

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

116

65. Ans: D

Explanation • The enamel rods measure about 5 nm in breadth and 9 nm in length.

Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 609 Explanation Type I

Type II

Type III

Protective flux

Reducing flux

Solvent flux

Boric acid, Boric anhydride borax Nobel metal alloys

Borate

Fluoride

Copper oxide

Chromium, nickel and cobalt

Ref: Tencate, 7/E, p. 232 72. Ans: C Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 285 73. Ans: D Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 167

66. Ans: C Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 553 67. Ans: C Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 613

COMEDK 2009

71. Ans: A

Explanation • Highest flame temperature – Acetylene • Lowest flame temperature – Hydrogen • Best choice for soldering – Propane and butane 68. Ans: B Ref: Phillip’s,11/E, p. 36

DADH

Explanation • The rests of Malassez were first described by Malassez in 1884 • They are remnants of epithelium of Hertwigs epithelial root sheath found in the periodontal ligament close to cementum. 74. Ans: C Ref: Wheeler’s, 8/E, p. 309 75. Ans: A Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 90 Explanation • Matrix vesicle are involved in the mineralization of mantle dentin. 76. Ans: D

69. Ans: A Ref: Berkovitz, 3/E, p. 104

Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 272 77. Ans: C

Explanation Tissue

Type of collagen

Enamel Dentin Cementum Bone Pulp Basement membrane Cartilage Periodontal ligament

No collagen Type I Type I Type I Type I and Type III Type IV Type II, VI, IX, XI Type I and Type III

70. Ans: B Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 47

Ref: Wheeler’s, 8/E, p. 14 78. Ans: C Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 201 Explanation • The interdental and interradicular septa contain the perforating canals of Zuckerkandl and Hirschfield (Nutrient Canals) which houses the interdental and interradicular arteries, veins, lymph vessels and nerves.

117

COMEDK 2009

79. Ans: A Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 237 80. Ans: B

91. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 758 92. Ans: C

Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 200

Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 263

Explanation • Bundle bone is that part of alveolar bone in which the principal fibres of the periodontal ligament are anchored.

Explanation Rushton bodies are found in • Apical periodontal cysts • Infected dentigerous cysts • Gingival cyst of newborn.

81. Ans: B Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 218 82. Ans: B Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 171 83. Ans: B

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE 84. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 831 85. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 260 86. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 785, 786 87. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 854 88. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 735 89. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 365 90. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 802

Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 345 94. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 740 95. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 226 Explanation • Warthin’s tumour is also known as papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum or adenoymphoma 96. Ans: B Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 529 97. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p.541 98. Ans: A Ref: Burkitt, 11/E, p.237 99. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 5/E, p. 426

ORAL RADIOLOGY 100. Ans: A Ref: White and Pharaoh, 6/E, p. 79 Explanation • Pixels are basically charged packets

COMEDK 2009

Ref: Berkovitz, 3/E, p. 213

93. Ans: B

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

118

101. Ans: A Ref: White and Pharaoh, 6/E, p. 6

Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 224

Explanation • Cathode: –ve charged emits electrons • Anode: +ve charged, converts electrons to photons

Explanation • Also known as intra alveolar appliance • It was found by Willet

102. Ans: A Ref: White and Pharaoh, 6/E, p. 6 103. Ans: C Ref: White and Pharaoh, 6/E, p. 16 104. Ans: C

COMEDK 2009

113. Ans: D

114. Ans: B Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 329 115. Ans: C Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 10

Ref: White and Pharaoh, 6/E, p. 23

Explanation

Explanation • End of 2nd week – Mucositis • 2 months – healing • Long term – Atrophy

• Lymphoid tissue – proliferates rapidly and reaches 200% of adult size, by about 18 years it undergoes involution to reach adult size • Neural tissue – grows rapidly and reaches adult size by 6–7 years of age. • General/visceral tissue – exhibit a Sshaped curve with rapid growth upto 2– 3 years and slow growth between 3–10 years followed by a rapid phase of growth occurs terminating by 18–20 years • Genital tissue show negligible growth until puberty

105. Ans: B Ref: White and Pharaoh, 6/E, p. 152 106. Ans: C Ref: White and Pharaoh, 6/E, p. 41 107. Ans: B Ref: White and Pharaoh, 6/E, p. 25

ORTHODONTICS 108. Ans: B Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p.223 109. Ans: C Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p.292 110. Ans: C Ref: Proffit, 4/E, p.340 111. Ans: B Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 228 112. Ans: B Ref: Gurkeerat Singh, 2/E, p. 228

116. Ans: C Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 375 Explanation • It was devised by Oppenteium 117. Ans: A Ref: Proffit, 4/E, p. 55 Explanation • Genetic theory – Brodie • Neutotropism – Behrents 118. Ans: B Ref: Proffit, 4/E, p. 47

119

COMEDK 2009

119. Ans: D

127. Ans: D

Ref: Gurkeerant Singh, 2/E, p. 567 120. Ans: C

Ref: Shoba Tandon, 2/E, p. 147 128. Ans: C

Ref: Proffit, 4/E, p. 363 121. Ans: A/B Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 250

Ref: Pinkham, 4/E, p. 395

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY 129. Ans: A

122. Ans: B Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 225

PEDODONTICS 123. Ans: C Ref: Shoba Tandon, 2/E, p. 401 124. Ans: B

125. Ans: A Ref: Mc Donald, 8/E, p. 44 Explanation • Euphemisms • Rubber dam–raincoat • Caries-tooth bug • Sealant-tooth paint • Anesthetic solution–water to put teeth to sleep • Radiograph–tooth picture • Crown-cap • Matrix-ring • Air syringe–wind gun • High speed hand piece–whistling train or whistle. 126. Ans: C Ref: Shoba Tandon, 2/E, p. 150 Explanation • Modelling – Bandura • TSD – Addleston • Voice control – Henry and Marilyn

130. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 246 Explanation • Hopewood house study conducted by sullivan (1958) and Harris (1963) 131. Ans: D Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 628 132. Ans: D Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 78 133. Ans: C Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 57 134. Ans: B Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 16 135. Ans: C Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 51 136. Ans: A Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 589 Explanation • Stratified cluster sampling technique aims to include the most important population subgroups likely to have differing disease levels. 137. Ans: B Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 70

COMEDK 2009

Ref: Shoba Tandon, 2/E, p. 501

Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 247

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

120

151. Ans: D

138. Ans: C Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 71

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 158 152. Ans: D

139. Ans: A Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 337

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 138 153. Ans: C

140. Ans: B Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 752 141. Ans: C Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 317

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 70 Explanation Transseptal group

142. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 256

Alveolar crest group

PROSTHODONTICS Horizontal

143. Ans: C COMEDK 2009

Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 573 144. Ans: B

Oblique

Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 570 145. Ans: A Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 259

Apical

146. Ans: A Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 87 Interradicular

147. Ans: C Ref: Zarb and Bolender, 12/E, p. 194 148. Ans: B

Extends interproximately over the alveolar bone crest and are embedded in the cementum of adjacent teeth Extends obliquely, from the cementum just beneath the junctional epithelium to the alveolar bone Extend at right angles to the long axis of the tooth from the cementum to the alveolar bone Largest group in the periodontal ligament, extend from the cementum, in a coronal direction obliquely to the bone. Radiate in a irregular manner from cementum to bone at the apical region of socket. They do not occur on incompletely formed roots Fan out from the cementum to the tooth in furcation areas of multirooted roots.

154. Ans: B

Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 61 149. Ans: C

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 52 155. Ans: C

Ref: Zarb and Bolender, 12/E, p. 58

PERIODONTICS 150. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 974 Explanation • Fibronectin is the glycoprotein that fibroblasts require to attach to root surface to produce new attachment

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 592 156. Ans: B Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 954 Explanation • Transgingival probing or sounding under local anaesthesia confirms the extent and configuration of the intrabony component of the pocket and of furcation defects

121

COMEDK 2009

157. Ans: D Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 364 Explanation Two earliest signs of gingival inflammation are: 1. Increased GCF production rate 2. Bleeding on probing from the gingival sulcus which is easily detected clinically 158. Ans: A Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 750 159. Ans: A Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 757 160. Ans: A

161. Ans: A Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 641

CONS AND ENDO 162. Ans: B Ref: Sturdevant, 5/E, p. 713 Explanation • No 245 bur–head length–3 mm, tip diameter–0.8 mm

167. Ans: A Ref: Sturdevant, 6/E p. 850 168. Ans: D Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 112 169. Ans: B Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 268 Explanation EDTA – is a chelating agent • Softens dentin • Removes smear layer • Antimicrobial • Causes mild irritation 170. Ans: C Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 67–69 171. Ans: D Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 258 Explanation • It was first advocated by George Etal

163. Ans: A Ref: Sturdevant 5/E p. 859 164. Ans: D Ref: Sturdevant 5/E p. 93 165. Ans: C Ref: Sturdevant 5/E p. 859 166. Ans: B Ref: Sturdevant 5/E p. 692

ORAL SURGERY 172. Ans: B Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 50 173. Ans: B Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 127 Explanation Winter’s WAR lines • White line – corresponds to the occlusal plane

COMEDK 2009

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 161

Explanation • Although the compressive strength of amalgam is similar to tooth, the tensile strength is lower, subjecting them to fracture. • To avoid this, amalgam material must have sufficient bulk (usually–1–2 mn) and a 90 degree or greater Cavosurface margin.

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

122

• Amber line – represents the bone level • Red line – drawn perpendicular from the amber line to an imaginary point of application of the elevator 174. Ans: D Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 369 175. Ans: A Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 238

COMEDK 2009

Explanation • Frey’s syndrome is also known as Auriculotemporal syndrome

176. Ans: C Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p.578 177. Ans: D Ref: Killey’s, 4/E, p.28 178. Ans: C Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p.572 179. Ans: C Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p.317 180. Ans: A Ref: Peterson, 4/E, p. 276

6 COMEDK 2008 C. Lingual artery D. Hypoglossal nerve

HUMAN ANATOMY 1. Failure of descent of thyroid gland can be seen in the tongue A. In anterior 2/3 of dorsal aspect B. In posterior 1/3 of dorsal aspect C. Near the base of tongue close to foramen caecum D. In anterior 2/3 of inferior surface

6. Which one of the following nerves is not encountered during submandibular gland resection? A. Lingual nerve B. Hypoglossal nerve C. Accessory nerve D. Marginal mandibular nerve

PHYSIOLOGY

2. Development of mandible is by A. I branchial arch B. II branchial arch C. IV branchial arch D. III branchial arch

7. Which of the following is called counter current exchanger? A. Loop of Henle B. Vasa recta C. Collecting duct D. Proximal convoluted tubule

3. Which of the following lobes of cerebrum is related to the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle? A. Frontal B. Parietal C. Temporal D. Occipital

8. Acute pyogenic infection produces A. Leucopenia B. Leukocytosis C. Neutropenia D. Lymphopenia

4. The branch of facial nerve that conveys the secretomotor impulse involved in lacrimation is A. Chorda tympani nerve B. Deep petrosal nerve C. Greater petrosal nerve D. Lesser petrosal nerve

9. The receptor cells of the olfactory epithelium are A. Bipolar neurons B. Unipolar neurons C. Multipolar neurons D. Stellate cells 10. Activity of osteoclasts can be modified and regulated by which hormone? A. Calcitonin B. Thyroid C. Insulin D. Pituitary

5. Structure related to the medial surface of the hyoglossus muscle include the following except A. Glossopharyngeal nerve B. Stylohyoid ligament 123

124

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

11. Isovolumetric relaxation ends immediately after A. AV valve closes B. When ventricular pressure falls below aortic pressure C. When ventricular pressure falls below atrial pressure D. None of the above 12. Which one of the following is a regulatory protein of the muscle? A. Troponin B. Myosin C. Actin D. Protein C

COMEDK 2008

13. Intrinsic factor in the stomach is secreted by A. Oxyntic cells B. Chief cells C. Mast like cells D. D–cells of antrum 14. Kussmaul’s respiration occurs in response to A. Decrease in pH of blood B. Increase in pH of blood C. Obstructive pulmonary disease D. Carbon monoxide poisoning

BIOCHEMISTRY 15. The main component of hyperlipidemia constituting a major risk factor for atherosclerosis is A. High density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol B. Intermediate density lipoprotein (IDL) cholesterol C. Low density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol D. Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) cholesterol 16. Transport form of iron is A. Transferrin B. Ferritin C. Apoferritin D. Lactoferrin

17. The enzyme phosphofructokinase 1 is strongly activated by A. Cyclic AMP B. Adenosine triphosphate C. Citrate D. Fructose 2, 6 bis phosphate 18. Transcription is the synthesis of A. Single-stranded complimentary copy of DNA B. Double-stranded complimentary copy of DNA C. Complimentary copy of RNA D. Complimentary copy of rRNA 19. Non polar lipid act as A. Electrical insulators B. Ions C. Non electrical insulators D. Electrolytes 20. Cofactor required for lipoprotein lipase activity is A. Apo A–II B. Apo C–II C. Apo C–III D. Apo B–II 21. The first plasma protein to be generated after severe protein deficiency A. Albumin B. Globulin C. Fibrinogen D. Thrombin 22. Hemochromatosis presents with all except A. Micronodular cirrhosis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Skin pigmentation D. Hepatitis

GENERAL PATHOLOGY 23. Coating of bacteria particles with host protein to facilitate phagocytosis is known as A. Chemotaxis B. Chemokine C. Opsonization D. Membrane attack complex

125

COMEDK 2008

24. Caseation necrosis is seen in A. Tuberculosis B. Sarcoidosis C. In both tuberculosis and sarcoidosis D. Leprosy 25. Saddle embolus causes sudden death by blocking A. Coronary arteries B. Cerebral arteries C. Pulmonary arteries D. Renal arteries 26. Phagocytes kill bacteria through which mechanism A. Membrane attack complex killing B. Oxidative and non- oxidative killing C. Zipper killing D. Chemotaxis 27. Shock lung is seen in A. Hypovolemic Shock B. Septic shock C. Anaphylactic shock D. Neurogenic shock

28. Which one given below is a DNA virus? A. Polio virus B. Adenovirus C. Astroviridae D. Hepatitis–A virus 29. The antibody produced during primary immune response is A. IgM B. IgG C. IgA D. IgE 30. The most frequently encountered clostridial species in gas gangrene is A. Clostridium botulinum B. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium tetani D. Clostridium difficile

32. In primary immune deficiency, the fraction of plasma protein reduced is A. α –1–globulin B. α–2–globulin C. β–globulin D. γ–globulin 33. Human immunodeficiency virus binds to macrophages having A. CD – 4 molecule B. CD4 and CXCR molecules C. CD4 and CCR5 molecule D. CXCR and CCR5 molecules 34. Which of the following is the most specific test to diagnose syphilis? A. VDRL test B. Wasermann test C. RPR test D. FTA– ABS

PHARMACOLOGY 35. Which of the following commonly used topical antiseptics has antifungal activity? A. Povidone-iodine B. Cetrimide C. Chlorhexidine D. Alcohol 36. Which one of the following does not act by increasing insulin secretion A. Glyburide B. Rapaglinide C. Tolbutamide D. Biguanide

COMEDK 2008

MICROBIOLOGY

31. Salivary protein which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva is A. Sialoperoxidase B. Secretory IgA C. Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor D. Histidine rich proteins

126

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

37. Which one of the following is not an ergot alkaloids A. Bromocriptine B. Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) C. Ketanserin D. Methylsergide 38. Which among the following is a pure antagonist in opioid receptors? A. Naltrexone B. Nalbuphine C. Butorphanol D. Pentazocine

COMEDK 2008

39. Hyperuricaemia is a side effect of A. Pyrazinamide B. Isoniazid C. Capreomycin D. Ethambutol 40. Which of the following can be given as a single dose antimalarial for P. vivax malaria A. Atovaquone + Proguanil B. Artemissenin C. Quinine + Tetracyline D. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine 41. Which among the following anti–HIV drugs is an inhibitor of viral fusion? A. Enfuvirtide B. Nelfinavir C. Efavirenz D. Etanercept 42. Which among the following may be used as a sedative–hypnotic? A. Zolmitriptan B. Zileuton C. Zolpidem D. Zalcitabine

GENERAL MEDICINE 43. Cryptococcus neoformans has significant predilection for A. Central nervous system B. Respiratory system

C. Gastro intestinal system D. Cardiovascular system 44. The ‘Philadelphia chromosome’ is a feature of A. Leukaemoid reaction B. Chronic myeloid leukaemia C. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia D. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia 45. Syndrome associated with increased risk of leukemia is A. Plummer-Vinson syndrome B. Klinefelter’s syndrome C. Sturge-Weber syndrome D. Multiple hamartoma syndrome 46. In hemolytic anemias the urobilinogen level in the blood would A. Increase B. Be absent C. Decrease D. Mildly decrease 47. Glycemic control over the previous 6 – 8 weeks in patients with diabetes mellitus is best assessed by estimation of A. Fasting blood glucose B. Glycated hemoglobin C. Fasting C peptide D. Fasting plasma insulin 48. Lambert Eaton myasthenic syndrome is A. A post synaptic disorder B. Characterized by preserved deep tendon reflexes C. Characterized by decremental response in ENMG D. Associated with autonomic dysfunction 49. Coloboma is defect in A. Cornea B. Lens C. Choroid D. Iris

127

COMEDK 2008

50. A 20-year female came to the medical OPD with severe pain and redness over dorsum of the foot. Past history of severe abdominal pain episodes were present. Peripheral smear showed anemia with presence of poikilocytes. Likely diagnosis is A. Hemoglobin C disease B. Thalassemia minor C. Sickle cell anemia D. G6PD deficiency 51. Which one of the following is a cyanotic heart disease? A. Cor triatum B. Tetralogy of fallot C. Pulmonary stenosis D. Atrial septal defect 52. Which of the following is indicative of cardiac tamponade? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Wide pulse pressure C. Kussmaul’s sign D. Forceful apical impulse

54. Hyperkinetic syndromes such as chorea and athetosis are usually associated with pathological changes in A. Motor areas of cerebral cortex B. Anterior hypothalamus C. Pathways for recurrent collateral inhibition in the spinal cord D. Basal ganglia complex

GENERAL SURGERY 55. Treatment of choice for mixed parotid tumor is A. Enucleation B. Superficial parotidectomy C. Radical parotidectomy D. Radiation

57. Which of the following conditions is the most common complication of radioiodine treatment of Graves’ disease? A. Thyroid storm B. Subacute cancer C. Thyroid cancer D. Hypothyroidism

DENTAL MATERIALS 58. The length of the sprue former should be adjusted for gypsum bonded investment so that the top of the wax pattern is within A. 6 mm of the open end of the ring B. 10 mm of the open end of the ring C. 1 mm of the open end of the ring D. 2 mm of the open end of the ring 59. A test for mutagenesis of a material done on mammalian cells is A. Styles test B. Ame’s test C. MTT test D. Cytotoxicity test 60. Brazilian test is used to a determine the ultimate tensile strength of A. Ductile materials B. Flexible materials C. Brittle materials D. Malleable materials 61. In the munsell color system the parameters of color are represented in A. 3 dimensions B. 2 dimensions C. A single dimension D. A color space

COMEDK 2008

53. A patient with Bell’s palsy has ______ palsy A. Upper motor neuron V nerve B. Upper motor neuron VII nerve C. Lower motor neuron V nerve D. Lower motor neuron VII nerve

56. High tension electrical burns from overhead electrical lines can cause A. Myoglobinurea and acute renal failure B. Severe alkalosis C. No ECG change will be seen in the first 24 hours D. Blood vessels are spared

128

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

62. High fusing porcelains are used A. For crowns B. In denture teeth C. With titanium alloys D. Over aluminous core porcelain 63. The relative hardness of elastomers is determined using A. Rockwell tester B. Barcol indenter C. Knoop pyramid D. Shore durometer

COMEDK 2008

64. Resistance of a material to permanent deformation is known as A. Elongation B. Resiliency C. Ductility D. Fracture strength 65. Laser welding A. Involves high heat generation B. Can be done with pure titanium C. Is not used in dentistry D. Can be done with pure gold 66. Feldspathic porcelain A. Shows reliable chemical bonding with metals B. Has high tensile strength C. Is no longer used D. Shows insignificant firing shrinkage

69. The first porcelain tooth material was introduced by A. DeChemaunt B. Ash C. Plateau D. McClean 70. Component of inlay wax which makes it flake resistant is A. Paraffin B. Carnauba C. Gum dammar D. Candelila

DADH 71. Following eruption, the root of the maxillary central incisor completes development at what approximate age? A. 7 years B. 8 years C. 9 years D. 10 years 72. The ‘Key hole’ pattern appearance in the cross section is a feature of A. Aprismatic enamel B. Prismatic enamel C. Intertubular dentin D. Intratubular dentin

67. The commonest type of porosity that results in a fluid resin technique is A. Polymerization shrinkage porosity B. Porosity due to inadequate pressure C. Air inclusion porosity D. Porosity due to increased heat

73. Cells occurring in greatest number in pulp are A. Cementoblasts B. Fibroblasts C. Osteoblasts D. Ameloblasts

68. Similarity in the chemical structure of estrogen is seen with A. HEMA B. Polyether C. Bisphenol A D. Gutta percha

74. Which structure dictates the furcation formation in a tooth? A. Enamel knot B. Enamel niche C. Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath D. Enamel cord

129

COMEDK 2008

75. The shallow furrows on the enamel surface, where striae of retzius end are known as A. Cracks B. Pellicle C. Perikymata D. Enamel lamellae 76. Inorganic content of cementum is A. 45% to 50% B. 50% to 55% C. 55% to 60% D. 60% to 65% 77. Tome’s process is a part of A. Radicular dentin B. Odontoblasts C. Ameloblast D. Osteoblast 78. Cementicles are calcified masses sometimes seen in the A. Pulp B. Bone C. Periodontal ligament D. Cementum

80. In adult tooth the type of Dentin present underlying Dentino–Enamel junction is A. Predentin B. Mantle dentin C. Interglobular dentin D. Tertiary dentin

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE 81. Definite loss of lamina dura is seen in A. Secondary hyper calcemia B. Hyperparathyroidism

82. Ranula is a A. Retention cyst B. Implantation cyst C. Benign tumour D. Malignant tumour 83. Most common salivary gland tumor arising in the jaws A. Pleomorphic adenoma B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma C. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma D. Acinic cell carcinoma 84. Enamel hypoplasia resulting from local infection is called A. Amelogenesis imperfecta B. Plumbism C. Dental fluorosis D. Turner’s tooth 85. The absence of clavicles is usually seen in A. Cleidocranial dysplasia B. Osteogenesis imperfecta C. Sturge-Weber anomaly D. Idiopathic bone cavities 86. Sialoliths are stones found in the salivary ducts and glands and are primarily composed of A. Hydroxyapatite B. Potassium chloride C. Unknown compounds of phosphates D. Calcium chloride 87. ‘Denture sore mouth’ is also known as A. Acute psuedomembranous candidiasis B. Acute atrophic candidiasis C. Chronic atrophic candidiasis D. Chronic hyperplastic candidasis 88. Which of the following infections are associated with Hodgkins lymphoma A. Herpes simplex B. Herpes zoster C. Herpangina D. Aphthous ulcer

COMEDK 2008

79. The result of muscle forces acting through the intercuspation of the occlusal surface is called A. Anterior component of force B. Mesial drift tendency C. Stomatognathics D. Gnathics

C. Primary hyperthyroidism D. Secondary hypothyroidism

130

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

89. Bleeding time is prolonged in A. Hemophilia A B. Hemophilia B C. Thalassemia D. Von Willebrand’s disease

96. A hamartoma is A. Any collection of blood clot B. A haemorrhagic cyst of the thigh C. A developmental malformation D. A tumour of soft tissue

90. Shingles of geniculate ganglion with ear eruption and facial paralysis is termed as A. Peutz–Jeghers syndrome B. Melkerson–Rosenthal syndrome C. Ramsay Hunt syndrome D. Gardner’s syndrome

97. Microscopic appearance of geographic tongue resembles A. Lichen planus B. Lupus erythematosus C. Erythema mutiforme D. Psoriasis

COMEDK 2008

91. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) has been implicated in the etiology of A. Oral lichen planus B. Oral hairy leukoplakia C. Oral hairy black tongue D. Oral melanoplakia 92. Streptococcus mutans produces an adhesive polymer from sucrose, known as A. Levans B. Lectins C. Glucans D. Polyfructans 93. Uniform widening of periodontal ligament at the expense of adjacent bone occurs in A. Langerhans cell histiocytosis B. von Recklinghausen’s disease C. Scleroderma D. Osteoporosis 94. Characteristic ‘tram-line’ calcifications in the skull radiographs is observed in A. Cleidocranial dysostoses B. Sturge-Weber syndrome C. Paget’s disease D. McCune–Albright syndrome 95. Which of the following is known to arise from sunlight? A. Basal cell carcinoma B. Ewing’s sarcoma C. Kaposi’s sarcoma D. Verruca vulgaris

98. Strawberry tongue is seen in A. Scarlet fever B. Wegener’s granulomatoses C. Midline lethal granuloma D. Sarcoidosis 99. Pulpal pain is most intense in A. Acute closed pulpitis B. Acute open pulpitis C. Pulp hyperaemia D. Pulp necrosis

ORAL RADIOLOGY 100. Which of the following is the most accurate method of measuring radiation dose? A. Film badge B. Ionization chamber C. Thermoluminescent dosimeter D. Densitometer 101. A collimator is used to A. Control size of the X-ray beam B. Eliminate secondary radiation C. Eliminate low – energy X-rays D. Control angle of X-ray beam to object 102. Use of an angled target in the X-ray tube A. Increases penetrating power of X-rays B. Reduces penetrating power of X-rays C. Increases image sharpness D. Reduces image sharpness

131

COMEDK 2008

103. “Sharpened pencil” appearances of mandibular condyle on a radiograph indicates A. Osteoarthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Infectious arthritis D. Juvenile arthrosis 104. The best method to reduce radiation caries is application of viscous A. 0.5% neutral sodium fluoride gel B. 1% neutral sodium fluoride gel C. 0.5% stannous fluoride gel D. 1% stannous fluoride gel

C. Unbalanced extractions D. Extraction of a lower central incisor 109. The term crossbite is applied when A. There is an absence of occlusion B. Abnormal buccolingual relationship of teeth C. There is excessive vertical overlap D. There is excessive overjet of the incisors

105. When all the teeth are in scissors bite, the condition is called A. Brodie’s syndrome B. Catalan’s syndrome C. Nance’s condition D. Dewey’s syndrome

111. The major force producing part of the fixed appliances A. Bracket B. Arch wire C. Lock pin D. Band

106. Resistance to torquing is produced by achieving A. Buccal hook B. Truss effect C. Lingual hook D. Proximal hook

112. Infant orthopedics in a cleft patient is done at the age of A. 1–2 weeks B. 3–6 weeks C. 9– 2 weeks D. 12–15 weeks

107. Treatment objective for serial extraction A. Is to intercept a developing arch– length deficiency and to reduce or eliminate the need for extensive appliance therapy B. Reduce arch–length deficiency C. To plan for extensive appliance therapy D. To reduce arch–length deficiency and to plan for extensive appliance therapy 108. Wilkinson’s extractions are A. Therapeutic extraction of all first molars B. Prophylactic extraction of all third molars

113. Twin wire appliance is a A. Fixed appliance B. Removable appliance C. Functional appliance D. Sectional fixed appliance 114. Bonded retainer are popular in which area of dentition? A. Lower anteriors B. Lower posteriors C. Upper anteriors D. Upper posteriors 115. Growth activity at which of these synchondroses completes first? A. Spheno-occipital B. Intersphenoidal C. Intra-occipital D. Sphenoethmoidal

COMEDK 2008

ORTHODONTICS

110. The term myo=functional therapy was proposed by A. Salzamann B. Lischer C. Gardner D. Freud

132

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

116. Anterior bite plane is given for correction A. Cross bite B. Deep bite C. Open bite D. Scissor bite

PEDODONTICS 117. The distal shoe space maintainer is usually placed A. At the time of extraction of primary second molar B. Just before eruption of permanent molar C. Before extraction of primary second molar D. To guide a permanent second molar

COMEDK 2008

118. The CAT in pediatric dentistry is A. Caries activity test B. Caries advancement test C. Caries risk assessment tool D. Child aptitude test 119. According to American Association of Mental Deficiency Classification Scheme IQ range of 36–51 is A. Profound B. Moderate C. Mild D. Severe 120. Human beings are A. Monophyodonts B. Polyphyodonts C. Homodonts D. Diphyodonts 121. To store avulsed tooth, which kind of milk is shown to be suitable? A. Hot milk B. Cold milk C. Low fat milk D. High fat milk 122. The following is not a communicative management technique according to American Academy of Pediatric dentistry‘s standards

A. B. C. D.

Voice Control Positive reinforcement Physical restraint Distraction

123. According to Piaget, the period of concrete operation is A. Birth to 18 months B. 12 years and onwards C. 18 months to 7 years D. 7 to 12 years 124. The patient’s ability to maintain an independent airway, and respond appropriately to physical stimulation and verbal commands is seen in A. General anesthesia B. Deep sedation C. Conscious sedation D. Deep sedation and general anesthesia 125. Space maintainers are usually not necessary in which region? A. Mandibular posterior B. Mandibular anterior C. Maxillary posterior D. Maxillary anterior

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY 126. Measures of central tendency are A. Mean, median, range B. Mean, median, mode C. Mean, range, standard deviation D. Range, mean deviation, standard deviation 127. Effective evaluation refers to A. Whether programme results meet predetermined objectives B. The long term out come of the programme C. Assess the extent to which programme implementation complies with the program plan D. Whether programe benefits exceeds the cost incurred

COMEDK 2008

128. Accepting the null hypothesis when it is false A. Type I eror B. Type III error C. Type II error D. Type IV error 129. An ideally working slow sand filter method of water purification will reduce bacterial count by A. 90 percent B. 95 percent C. 98 percent D. 99.9 percent 130. A study based on single examination of part of population at one point in time A. Cross-sectional B. Cohort C. Experimental D. Prospective

132. Relationship between prevalence and incidence A. P = I D B. P = I + D C. P = I/D D. P = I – D 133. The indicators of the periodontal disease status measures all of the following by using CPI index in oral health surveys EXCEPT A. Bleeding B. Bone loss C. Calculus D. Periodontal pocket 134. The mechanism of action of APF is via following reaction products A. Fluoridated hydroxyapatite B. Stannous trifluorophosphate

C. Dicalcium phosphate dehydrate (DCPD) D. DCPD + calcium fluoride + Fluorapatite 135. The accepted fluoride dose rate in salt fluoridation is A. 150 mg of NaF ion per kg of refined table salt B. 200 mg of NaF ion per kg of refined table salt C. 250 mg of NaF ion per kg of refined table salt D. 100 mg of NaF ion per kg of refined table salt 136. Yates correction is necessary in chi square test when expected frequency in any one cell is A. Less than 5 B. More than 5 C. Less than 10 D. More than 10 137. Over jet and overbite of malocclusion is assessed using WHO survey form 1997 with the help of the instrument A. Williams probe B. CPI probe C. Measuring scale D. Straight probe 138. The following study was conducted to check anticariogenic effect of fluoride except A. Dutch study B. Newburg–Kingston study C. Evanston–Oak study D. Shoe–leather survey 139. Index age groups according to WHO National path finder survey are A. 6, 12, 15, 35–44, 65–74 B. 5, 12, 15, 35–44, 65–74 C. 5, 12, 18, 34–45, 64–75 D. 6, 12, 18, 35–44, 65–74

COMEDK 2008

131. The first city to have artificially fluoridated water was A. Evanston B. Muskegon C. Grandrapids D. Oakpark

133

134

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

PROSTHODONTICS 140. Which one of the following is not an advantage of immediate dentures? A. Reduced postoperative pain B. Easy adaptation C. Less chairside time D. None of the above

COMEDK 2008

141. The resin bonded bridges have the advantages of A. Minimal tooth preparation B. Alignment correction C. Longevity D. Long span bridges 142. Which of the following is not an objective of preprosthetic surgical preparation? A. Conditioning of patient musculature B. Correcting conditions that preclude optimal prosthetic function C. Enlargement of denture bearing areas D. Provision for placing tooth root analogues by means of osseointegrated dental implants 143. Repeated or sustained contact of teeth other than during mastication is called as A. Malfunction B. Parafunction C. Hyperfunction D. Hypofunction 144. The length of the proximal guide plane is _____ of the enamel crown portion of the tooth from the marginal ridge to cervical A. 1/3 B. 2/3 C. 1/2 D. Entire length 145. Grooves placed in vertical walls of bulk tooth structure must be A. At least 1.0 mm B. At least 2.0 mm C. At least 1.5 mm D. At least 1.2 mm

146. The incisive papilla in the edentulous maxillary arch acts as a guideline to proper placement of the maxillary central incisors. The central incisors are generally found to be ______ mm anterior to a line bisecting the incisive papilla A. 8 to 10 mm B. 6 to 8 mm C. 4 to 6 mm D. 5 to 7 mm 147. Which of the following may not be used during the flasking of dentures A. Petroleum B. Tin foil C. Tin foil substitute D. Silicone lubricant

PERIODONTICS 148. The concept of one stage full mouth disinfection has been put forth to prevent A. Adhesion of microorganisms B. Proliferation of microorganisms C. Translocation of microorganisms D. Bacterial invasion 149. Periotest is a device used to measure A. GCF B. Depth of the periodontal pocket C. Tooth mobility D. The microbial load in the periodontal pocket 150. Use of doxycycline hyclate 20 mg for a period of time forms A. Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy B. Systemic antimicrobial therapy C. Host modulation therapy D. Local drug delivery 151. PGE 2 mediated bone resorption in periodontal disease is inhibited by A. Calcitonin B. Estrogens C. NSAIDS D. Vitamin–D and calcium

COMEDK 2008

152. The only valid method to assess periodontal regeneration is A. Radiographic analysis B. Clinical attachment level C. Reentry operation D. Histologic analysis 153. The ideal tooth–blade working angulation of a blade of gracey curette is angled from lower shank approximately at A. 10–20 degree B. 40–50 degree C. 60–70 degree D. 80–90 degree 154. The distance between implant and adjacent tooth should be at least A. 7 mm B. 1.5 mm C. 3.5 mm D. 3.75 mm

156. The ideal bone for implant support is A. Spongy bone B. Cortical bone C. Lamellar bone D. Woven bone

CONS AND ENDO 157. Theodorecroll (1986) is associated with A. Use of 18% hydrochloric acid and pumice microabrasion B. Use of 12 fluted bur to remove the defects C. Bleaching techniques D. Dakin’s solution 158. Axio pulpal line angle is beveled in amalgam preparation to facilitate A. Bulk for amalgam in this critical zone B. Easy condensation of amalgam

C. For containment of amalgam within the matrix D. To increase the strength of remaining tooth structure 159. Each one of the following is an intrinsic form of tooth discolouration EXCEPT A. Endemic fluorosis B. Hereditary opalascent dentin C. Tetracycline staining D. Peridex staining 160. The number of point angles in a permanent mandibular first molar is A. Four B. Six C. Eight D. Ten 161. The Cavo surface gingival bevel for a class II cast gold inlay preparation should be A. 0.5 to 1 mm wide and blend with secondary lingual flare B. 0.2 to 0.3 mm wide and blend with secondary lingual flare C. 0.1 to 0.2 mm wide and blend with secondary lingual flare D. 3 to 4 mm wide and blend with secondary lingual flare 162. Why 90° butt joint for silver amalgam preparation? A. Fear of marginal failure of amalgam B. Amalgam has poor strength in thin sections C. Amalgam is stronger than tooth structure D. Amalgam is weaker in compression 163. Thermafil is A. An endodontic obturator B. An enlarging instrument C. An instrument to remove pulp D. Is a cold gutta percha technique 164. When is an application of heat injected gutta percha potentially beneficial A. When there is an open apex

COMEDK 2008

155. The main disadvantage of florida probe system is A. Inconsistent probing force B. Does not measure extent of plaque C. Non reproducibility D. Lack of tactile sensitivity

135

136

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

B. When there are aberrations or irregularities of the canal C. When the clinician cannot master lateral condensation D. When the canals are curved and small after preparation 165. The stabbing nature of pain in trigeminal neuralgia mimics pain caused by A. A cracked tooth B. Acute reversible pulpitis C. Acute irreversible pulpitis D. Acute apical peridontitis

COMEDK 2008

166. JS Quickfill is A. The original engine driven Mcspadden’s compactor with gutta percha already coated B. Like thermafill another obturator C. No different than original Mcspadden’s compactor D. Chemically softened gutta – percha 167. Two pulp canals are usually found in A. Mesial root of permanent mandibular first molar B. Distal root of permanent mandibular first molar C. Palatal root of permanent maxillary first molar D. Distal root of permanent mandibular second molar 168. With obtura II system which has a high temperature gutta – percha but cools at A. 27ºC B. 110ºC C. 130ºC D. 160ºC 169. In young permanent teeth the best method of sensitivity testing for traumatized teeth is carbondioxide snow which can go up to temperature of A. –20ºC B. –30º C C. –40º C D. –78º C

170. In endodontics, endotec is used A. With lateral condensation and heated gutta percha B. With cold lateral compaction C. With vertical compaction D. With chlor–Percha Technique

ORAL SURGERY 171. “Z” or “V–Y” plasty is a A. Ridge augmentation procedure B. Alveoloplasty procedure C. Procedure to correct abnormal frenum attachment D. Implant procedure 172. ‘Hot Potato’ voice is characteristically seen in A. Pterygomandibular space infection B. Retropharyngeal space infection C. Pre tracheal space infection D. Lateral pharyngeal space infection 173. Hanging drop sign is best seen in A. Water’s projection B. Orthopantamogram C. Submentovertex D. Upper occlusal view 174. A fractured mandibular condyle is displaced by the action of A. Temporalis B. Masseter C. Lateral pterygoid D. Medial pterygoid 175. Sodium metabisulfite used in LA solution acts as A. Anti–reducing agent for LA agent B. Anti–oxidant for LA agent C. Anti–reducing agent for vasoconstrictor D. Anti–oxidant for vasoconstrictor 176. Most common dislocation of TMJ is A. Anterior B. Lateral C. Posterior D. Medial

COMEDK 2008

137

177. Computerized controlled local anesthetic delivey system is known as A. Peri press B. WAND C. BAND D. EDA

179. Among the following pain theories, the most accepted theory is A. Specificity theory B. Pattern theory C. Gate control theory D. Calcium displacement theory

178. Dislocation of mandible is treated by moving the mandible A. Upward and forward B. Upward and backward C. Downward and forward D. Downward and backward

180. Algorithm for the stabilization of severely injured patient A. Treating the hard tissue injuries B. Reducing facial bone fractures C. Control of hemorrhage D. Airway, breathing and circulation

COMEDK 2008

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

138

ANSWERS HUMAN ANATOMY 1. Ans: C Ref: Inderbir Singh, 8/E, p. 112 Explanation Thyroid gland develops mainly from the thyroglossal duct The site of origin of this thyroglossal duct is foramen caecum This diverticulum grows down in the midline into the neck. The tip bifurcates giving rise to the two lobes of thyroid gland. 2. Ans: A Ref: Inderbir Singh, 8/E, p. 107 3. Ans: C

medullary gradient developed by counter current multiplier Counter current multiplier - loop of Henle. Development of hyperosmolarity of medullary interstitial fluid and medullary gradient. 8. Ans: B Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 89 9. Ans: A Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 924 Explanation Axons of the bipolar olfactory receptors pierce the cribiform plate of ethmoidal bone and reach the olfactory bulb. 10. Ans: A

Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 456 fig 41.6

Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 374

Explanation Anterior horn frontal lobe Posterior horn occipital lobe Inferior horn temporal lobe

Explanation Calcitonin facilitates the deposition of calcium on bone. It also suppresses the activity of osteoclasts which are responsible for resorption of calcium from bones It inhibits even the development of new osteoclasts in bones.

4. Ans: C Ref: BD Chaurasia,1/E, p. 180 5. Ans: D Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 266 6. Ans: C Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 269

PHYSIOLOGY 7. Ans: B Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 300 Explanation Counter current exchanger - Vasa recta. Maintenance of the hyperosmolarity of medullary interstitial fluid and

11. Ans: C Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 493 12. Ans: A Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 150 13. Ans: A Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 206 Explanation a. Chief/pepsinogen cells Intrinsic factor of castle, HCl b. Parietal/oxyntic cells Pepsinogen, rennin, gelatinase

139

COMEDK 2008

19. Ans: A

14. Ans: A Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 390 Explanation • Because of acidosis the rate and depth of respiration are increased, this is known as kussmaul breathing. This occurs in severe conditions

BIOCHEMISTRY 15. Ans: C Ref: U. Sathyanarayana and U. Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 316 Explanation • LDL–cholesterol is positively correlated whereas HDL–cholesterol is negatively correlated with atherosclerosis and cardiovascular disease. 16. Ans: A Ref: U. Sathyanarayana and U. Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 415

17. Ans: D Ref: U. Sathyanarayana and U. Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 250 Explanation • Phosphofructokinase (PF K) is the most important regulatory enzyme in glycolysis • This enzyme catalyses the rate limiting commited step • PFK is an allosteric enzyme • Allosteric inhibitors–ATP, citrate, H+ ions (low pH) • Allosteric activator fructose–2, 6 bisphosphate ADP. AMP 18. Ans: C Ref: U. Sathyanarayana and U. Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 543

20. Ans: B Ref: U. Sathyanarayana and U. Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 318 Explanation • Lipoprotein Lipase is activated by apoc II 21. Ans: C Ref: U. Sathyanarayana and U. Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 190 22. Ans: B Ref: U. Sathyanarayana and U. Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 416

GENERAL PATHOLOGY 23. Ans: C Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 101 Explanation • To establish a bond between bacteria and cell membrane of phagocytic cells, the microorganism gets coated with opsonins. a. IgG opsonin is the Fc fragment of IgG b. C3b opsonin is the fragment of complement c. Lectins – carbohydrate binding proteins 24. Ans: A Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 37 Explanation • Caseous necrosis is found in the centre of foci of tuberculosis infections • The name implies it resembles dry cheese and are soft, granular and yellowish • This appearance is partly attributed to the histotoxic effects of LPS present in the capsule of M. tuberculosis.

COMEDK 2008

Explanation • Transferrin–transport form of iron Ferritin–storage form of iron

Ref: U. Sathyanarayana and U. Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 29

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

140

Explanation • Primary immune response – Ig M • Secondary immune response – Ig G

25. Ans: C Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 217 Explanation • Saddle embolus–thrombus impacted at the bifurcation of main pulmonary artery.

30. Ans: B Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 254 31. Ans: C

26. Ans: B

Ref: Burket, 11/E, p. 207

Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 102

32. Ans: D

Explanation Phagocytes kill bacteria through 1. Oxygen dependent bactericidal mechanism • MPO dependent killing • MPO independent killing 2. Oxygen independent bactericidal mechanism 3. Nitric oxide mechanism.

COMEDK 2008

Ref: Robbin’s Pathologic Basis of Disease, 7/E, p. 132

Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 439 Explanation

Reo Picorna, Toga, Bunya, Arena, Corona, Retro, Ortho, Paramyxo,

34. Ans: D Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 376

35. Ans: A Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 859 Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 269

28. Ans: B

RNA viruses

Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 573

36. Ans: D

MICROBIOLOGY

Parvo, Hepadna Papova, adeno, herpetic, pox

33. Ans: D

PHARMACOLOGY

27. Ans: B

DNA viruses

Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 156

Explanation • Biguanides do not cause insulin release but presence of some insulin is essential for their action. 37. Ans: C

Configuration SS DS

Configuration DS SS Rhabdo

29. Ans: A Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 139

Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 167 Explanation • Ketanserin is a selective 5HT2 receptor blocker, it is an effective antihypertensive. 38. Ans: A Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 464 Explanation Opiod Antagonists 1. Agonist – antagonists (K analgesics): Nalorphine, Pentazocine, Butorphanol

141

COMEDK 2008

2. Partial/weak agonist + K antagonist: Buprenorphine 3. Pure antagonists: Naloxone, Naltrexone, Nalmefene 39. Ans: A Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 742 40. Ans: D Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 791 Explanation • Pyrimethamine (25 mg) + sulfonamide (500 mg) 3 tablets of this combination is used as a single dose treatment of uncomplicated malaria. 41. Ans: A Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 774 Explanation • Enfuvirtide – is an HIV derived synthetic peptide which acts by binding to HIV I envelope glycoprotein (gp41) and preventing fusion of viral and cellular membrane. Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 398 Explanation • Zolmitriptan – is a selective 5HT agonist • Zileuton – is a 5-LOX inhibitor, i.e. Leukotriene anatagonist may be used for bronchial asthma. • Zalcitabrine–is anti retroviral drug which acts by inhibiting reverse transcriptors.

GENERAL MEDICINE 43. Ans: A Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 375 44. Ans: B Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 1044 Explanation Philadelphia chromosomes • Seen in 96% patients with CML

45. Ans: B Ref: Harrison, 17/E,Vol. 1 p. 689 46. Ans: A Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 1038, 1005 47. Ans: B Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 816 48. Ans: D Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 1253 Explanation Lambert–Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome (LEMS) • Neurotransmitter release is impaired often in association with antiobodies to prejunctional voltage gated Ca + channels • Clinical features are Autonomic dysfunction, Dry mouth, Absence of tendon reflexs (cardinal sign) • Rx is with 3, 4 diaminopyridin 49. Ans: D Ref: Pediatirc Ophthalmology, Robison. D. Harley, 1/E, p. 276 50. Ans: C Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 1036 51. Ans: B Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 640 Explanation Tetralogy of fallot comprises of 1. Pulmonary stenosis 2. Overriding of VSD by aorta 3. Ventricular septal defect (VSD) 4. Right ventricular hypertrophy

COMEDK 2008

42. Ans: C

• This is a shortened chromosome 22 and is the result of a reciprocal location of material with chromosome 9 • The break on the chromosome 22 occurs in the breakpoint cluster region (BCR) • The fragment from chromosome 9 that joins the BCR carries the abl oncogens.

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

142

52. Ans: A Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 526 Explanation • Pulsus paradoxus is the term used to describe the dramatic fall in BP during inspiration • It is characteristic of tamponade and severe airways obstruction 53. Ans: D Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 1249 Explanation • The lesion is within the facial canal and may be due to latent HSV-I infection.

COMEDK 2008

54. Ans: D

Explanation • Hypothyroidism is a sequel of overzealous thyroidectomy, after treatment with radioactive iodine.

DENTAL MATERIALS 58. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 322 Explanation • The length of the sprue former depends on the length of the casting ring. Sprue length should be adjusted so that the top of the wax pattern is within 6 mm of the open end of the ring for gypsum bonded investments. 59. Ans: A

Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 1182

Ref: Craig’s, 12/E, p. 108

Explanation • Chorea, athetosis, ballism and dystonia are pathological changes in basal ganglia.

Explanation Mutagenesis assays a. AME’s test–is a mutagenesis test which uses salmonella typhimurium that requires exogenous histidine b. Stye’s cell transformation is a test on mammalian tissues to quantify the ability of potential carings to transform standardized cell lines c. Cytotoxicity tests–assess cell death caused by a material by measuring cell number or growth before and after exposure d. MTT test–enzymatic test for cytotoxicity which measures the activity of cellular dehydrogenases.

GENERAL SURGERY 55. Ans: B Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 609 Explanation • It is also known as Patey’s operation • Facial nerve and its branches are isolated to prevent injury. 56. Ans: A Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 50 Explanation • High tension electrical burns causing electrical injury to the musculature is often associated with release of haemochromogens into the blood stream which are ultimately excreted through urine giving a port wine colour to urine. 57. Ans: D Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 670

60. Ans: C Ref: Craig’s, 12/E, p. 64, 10/E, p. 70 61. Ans: A Ref: Craig’s, 12/E, p. 30 62. Ans: B Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 667 Explanation • High fusing: 1300° C

143

COMEDK 2008

• Medium fusing: 1101–1300° C • Low fusing: 850–1100°C • Ultra low fusing: < 850°C 63. Ans: D Ref: Craig’s, 12/E, p. 83 Explanation • Shore durometer test to determine relative hardness of elastomers • Barcol hardness test–to study the depth of cure of resin composites 64. Ans: B Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 94 65. Ans: B Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, pp. 616–617

66. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 668 67. Ans: C Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 668 Explanation Fluid resin technique Advantages Improved adaptation to underlying soft tissues Decreased possibility of damage to prosthetic teeth and denture base Reduced material cost

Simplification of the procedure

Disadvantages Noticeable shifting of prosthetic teeth during processing Air entrapment within the denture base material Poor bonding, between denture base material and acrylic resin teeth Technique sensitivity

Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 199 Explanation • Estrogenicity is the ability of a chemical to act as the hormone estrogen does in the body • If these chemicals are not indigenous to the body, the substance is called a xenoestrogen. • The concern about estrogen in dentistry centre on a chemical called bisphenol A (BPA), which is a synthetic starting point for all BisGMA composites in dentistry. • The fear is that the release of these substances might alter cellular development or maintenance of the BPA has estrogenic effects. 69. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 660 Explanation 1. First porcelain teeth – 1789—De Chemant and Duchyatean 2. Ferrometallic porcelain teeth 1808— Fonzi 3. First Ceramic crown – 1903 — Dr Charles land. 70. Ans: C Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 285 Explanation Constituent

Function

Paraffin wax (40–60 wt%) Gum dammar

Increase toughness

Carnauba wax Cerasin

Resistance to flaking Enchances smoothness Decrease flow at mouth temperature Modifies toughness and carving characteristics

DADH 71. Ans: D Ref: Wheeler’s, 8/E, p. 53

COMEDK 2008

Explanation • CPTi (commericial pure titanium) is used. • It is a highly reactive metal and at temperature used for soldering procedures, the thickness of the titanium oxide layer increases and may spontaneously debond from the parent metal surface at temperature exceeding 850°C. therefore thermal welding is used as it has a low thermal influence.

68. Ans: C

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

144

72. Ans: B Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 47 73. Ans: B Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 112, Tencate, 7/E, p. 225 74. Ans: C Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 31 75. Ans: C Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 52 Explanation • Perikymata are transverse wavelike grooves, believed to be external manifestations of the striae of retzius • They are continuous around a tooth and usually lie parallel to each other and to CEJ • Ordinarily there are about 30 perikymata per mm in the region of CEJ and gradually decreases to 10 per mm near the occlusal edge.

COMEDK 2008

76. Ans: A Ref:Orban’s, 12/E, p. 137 Explanation Cementum • Organic 50–55% • Inorganic 45–50% 77. Ans: C Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 69 78. Ans: C Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 177

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE 81. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 653 82. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 543 83. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, pp. 232, 233 84. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 52 Explanation • Only a single tooth is involved, most commonly one of the permanent maxillary incisors or a maxillary or mandibular premolar. 85. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 723 Explanation • This leads to a typical hypermobility of the joints. 86. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 545 Explanation • Ca3PO4 74.3% • CaCO3 11.1% • Soluble salts 6.2% • Organic matter 6.2% • Water 2.2%

79. Ans: A Ref: Tencate, 7/E, p. 274 80. Ans: B Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 89 Explanation • This Zone below the DEJ is soft and thus provides cushioning effect to the teeth It is about 20 μm thick

87. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 365 Explanation • Acute atrophic candidiasis – antibiotic sore mouth 88. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 345

145

COMEDK 2008

89. Ans: D

95. Ans: A

Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p.786

Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 430

Explanation Disorder

Bleeding time

Hemophilia A Hemophilia B Vascular hemophilia Factor II deficiency Factor V deficiency Factor VII deficiency Factor X deficiency PTA deficiency Fibrinogen deficiency Factor XII deficiency

Normal Normal Prolonged Normal Normal Normal Normal Normal Normal Normal

90. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 346 Explanation James Ramsay Hunt Syndrome • Special form of zoster infection of the geniculate ganglion

91. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 354 92. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 431 93. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 832 Explanation • Extreme widening of the periodontal ligament 2 – 4 times the normal thickness has been reported. 94. Ans: B Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 543

96. Ans: C Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 724 97. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 30 98. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 311 Explanation • Early in the course of the disease, the tongue exhibits a white coating and the fungi-form papillae are edematous and hyperemic, projecting above the surface as small red knobs described clinically as “Strawberry tongue”. • The coating of the tongue is lost soon and it becomes red, glistening and smooth except for the swollen hyperemic papillae termed as the raspberry tongue. • Wegener’s granulomatosis–strawberry gingivitis. 99. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 476 Explanation • In closed pulpitis, there is insufficient drainage of inflammatory fluids leading to increased pressure in pulp chamber causing severe pain

ORAL RADIOLOGY 100. Ans: A Ref: White and Pharoah,6/E, p. 41 101. Ans: A Ref: White and Pharoah, 6/E, p. 12

COMEDK 2008

Clinical features a. Facial paralysis b. Pain in the external auditory meatus and Pinna of the ear c. Vesicular eruptions of the oral cavity and oropharynx d. Hoarseness, tinnitus, vertigo.

Explanation • Short wavelength UV rays (290–320 nm) are believed to be the common cause of basal cell carcinoma

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

146

Explanation • Collimation improves image quality • Round and rectangular collimators are most frequently used in dentistry 102. Ans: C Ref: White & Pharoah 6/E, p. 6 103. Ans: B Ref: White & Pharoah 6/E, p. 492 Explanation • In Rheumatoid arthritis, erosion of the anterior and posterior condylar surfaces at the attachment of the synovial lining may result in a sharpened condyle 104. Ans: B Ref: White & Pharoah 6/E, p. 25

ORTHODONTICS 105. Ans: A

COMEDK 2008

Ref: Sameerr. C. Bishala Text book of orthodontics , p. 110 106. Ans: C Ref: Current Orthodontic Concepts and Techniques, Graber, Vol. 2, p. 797 107. Ans: A Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 228 Explanation • Kjellgren gave the term serial extraction 108. Ans: A Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 267 Explanation • It is advocated between the ages 8½–9½ yrs. 109. Ans: B Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 423 110. Ans: B Ref: Glossary of Orthodontic Terms, p. 179

111. Ans: B Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 309 112. Ans: B Ref: Proffit, 4/E, p. 321 113. Ans: B Ref: Proffit, 4/E, p. 371 114. Ans: A Ref: Proffit, 4/E, p. 629 115. Ans: B Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 31 Explanation • Synchondroses Ossification – Spheno occipital: 12–15 years – Spheno ethmoid: 5–25 years – Inter sphenoid: At birth – Intraoccipital: 8–5 years 116. Ans: B Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 299 Explanation • Anterior bite plane – Rx of deep over bites by selective eruption of posterior teeth relative to anterior • Posterior bite plane – are used in Rx of crossbites as they help in removing the interference of opposing teeth.

PEDODONTICS 117. Ans: A Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 459 118. Ans: C Ref: Mc Donald, 8/E, p. 217 Explanation • CAT (Caries risk Assessment Tool) assess all three components of caries risk – clinical conditions, environmental characteristics and general health condition • Ref. Table 5.1 for each child’s ultimate risk classification

147

COMEDK 2008 Table 5.1: American Academy of Pediatrics Dentistry Caries–Risk Assessment Tool

Caries risk

Low risk

Moderate risk

High risk

Clinical conditions

No carious teeth in past 24 months No enamel demineralization (enamel caries “white spot lesions”)

Carious teeth in the past 24 months One area of enamel demineralization (enamel caries “ white spot lesions”)

Carious teeth in the past 12 months More than one area of enamel demineralization (enamel caries “white spot lesions”) Radiographic enamel caries Visible plaque on anterior (front) teeth High titers of mutans streptococci Wearing dental of Orthodontic appliances Enamel hypoplasia Suboptimal topical fluoride exposure

119. Ans: B Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 631 Explanation SB – IV

WSC – III

Mild 67 – 52 69 – 55 Moderate 51 – 36 54 – 40 Severe or profound 35 and below 39 and below

120. Ans: D Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 88 121. Ans: C Ref: Mc Donald, 8/E, p. 487 122. Ans: C Ref: Pinkham, 4/E, p. 103, Table 6.2 American academy of Pediatric Dentistry’s Standards of Care for Behavior Management Management Type 1. Communication management a. Tell - show - do b. Voice control

123. Ans: D Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 129 Explanation • Cognitive theory – Jean Piaget – 1952 • 4 stages of sequence of development 1. Sensorimotor stage: 0–2 yrs 2. Preoperational stage: 2–6 years 3. Concrete operational stage: 6–12 years 4. Formal operation stage: 11–15 years 124. Ans: C Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 157 125. Ans: D Ref: Pinkham, 4/E, p. 424

COMEDK 2008

Classification

Degree of mental disability

c. Positive reinforcement d. Distraction e. No verbal communication 2. Conscious sedation 3. Conscious sedation - cont’d 4. General anesthesia 5. Hand - over - mouth exercise (HOME)

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

148

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY 126. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 33 Explanation Measures of dispersion are: • Range • Standard deviation • Coefficient of variation. 127. Ans: A Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 785 Explanation • Effective evaluation is the extent to which the underlying problem is prevented or alleviated • Three types of evaluaton: – Evaluation of structure – Evaluation of process – Evaluation of outcome

Explanation • The first community water fluoridation began in Grand Rapids, USA January 25th, 1945. 132. Ans: A Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 58 Explanation P=I D • P = Prevalence • I = Incidence • D = Mean duration 133. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 174 134. Ans: D Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 306 135. Ans: C Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 353

COMEDK 2008

136. Ans: A 128. Ans: C Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 755 Explanation • Type I: If the null hypothesis is rejected when it is actually true • Type II: If the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. 129. Ans: D Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 623 130. Ans: A Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 66 Explanation • It is a simplest form of an observational study 131. Ans: C Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 335

Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 48 137. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 609 138. Ans: D Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 273 Explanation • Shoe leather survey by Trendley H Dean gave the extent of geographical distribution of mottled enamel. 139. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 589

PROSTHODONTICS 140. Ans: C Ref: Zarb & Bolender, 12/E, p. 125

149

COMEDK 2008

Explanation Immediate denture

147. Ans: A Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 72

Advantages

Disadvantages

Maintenance of patients appearances

Severe anterior ridge under cut may interfere with compression procedures Difficulty in recording centric relation

Circumoral support, muscle tone, VDO jaw relationship and face height maintained Less post-operative pain More chair side time Easier to duplicate Functional activities natural tooth shape impaired (temporary) and position Easy to adopt Psychologically more acceptable

141. Ans: A Ref: Rosensteil, 4/E, p. 812 142. Ans: A Ref: Zarb & Bolender, 12/E, p. 102 143. Ans: B Ref: Rosensteil, 4/E, p. 121 Ref: Mc Crackens, 11/E, p. 258 Explanation • Guide planes are extended from the marginal ridge to the junction of middle third and gingival third of the involved tooth surface. 145. Ans: A Ref: Rosensteil, 4/E, p. 326 146. Ans: A Ref: Zarb & Bolender, 12/E, p. 310 Explanation • The incisive papillae is a good guide for the antero posterior positioning of teeth • The labial surfaces of the central incisors are usually 8–10 mm in frontal of the papillae.

PERIODONTICS 148. Ans: B Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 699 Explanation • One stage full mouth disinfection was introduced in 1995 • It is done with 0.2% chlorehexidine gluconate. 149. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, pp. 1080, 1101 Explanation Periotest scale ranges from – 8 to +50 Readings

Interference

8 to 9 10 to 19

Clinically firm teeth First distinguishable sign of movement Crown deviation within 1mm of its normal position Mobility is readily observed

20 to 29 30 to 50

150. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 806 Explanation • Doxycycline available in a dose of 20 mg–Periostat 151. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 807 152. Ans: D Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 632 153. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 754

COMEDK 2008

144. Ans: B

Explanation • Petroleum jelly (Vaseline) is used as a separating medium not petroleum

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

150

Gracey curettes

Area of use

1–2, 3–4 5–6 7–8, 9–10 11–12 13–14

Anterior teeth Anterior teeth Posterior–facial and lingual Posterior–mesial Posterior–distal

154. Ans: B Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 1094 155. Ans: D

Explanation Causes Extrinsic discolouration

Intrinsic discolouration

Poor oral hygiene

Remnants of nasmyth’s Gingival bleeding membrane Hereditary disorders Medications Existing restorations Excess fluoride High fevers associated with early childhood illness raumna

Plaque accumulations Eating habits Presence of chromogenic microorganisms Medications Tobacco

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 583 156. Ans: D Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 1095

CONS AND ENDO 157. Ans: A

COMEDK 2008

Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, p. 646 Explanation • 1984 Mc Closky reported use of 18% HCl swabbed on teeth to remove stains • 1986 Croll and Cavanaugh modified the technique to include use of pumice with HCl to form a paste • Further croll modified the technique reducing the concentration of acid to 11% and increasing the abrasiveness of paste using silicon carbide particles. 158. Ans: A Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, p. 744 Explanation • Axiopulpal line angle is rounded using a GMT to decrease the stress concentration within the restoration material. 159. Ans: D Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, p. 639

160. Ans: A Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, p. 296 Explanation • Point angles of anterior teeth – Mesiolabioincisal Mesiolinguoincisal – Distolabioincisal Distolinguoincisal • Point angles of posterior teeth – Mesiobucco occlusal Mesiolinguoocclusal – Distobucco occlusal Distolinguoocclusal 161. Ans: A Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, p. 859 Explanation • The gingival bevel should be 0.5–1 mm wide and should blend with the lingual secondary flare. 162. Ans: B Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, p. 699 163. Ans: A Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 297 Explanation Carrier based gutta percha • Thermafil • Simplifil

151

COMEDK 2008

164. Ans: B Ref: Cohen, 9/E, p. 388, Ingle, 6/E, p. 1063 165. Ans: A Ref: Ingle, 6/E, p. 663 166. Ans: A Ref: Ingle, 6/E, p. 1027 167. Ans: A Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 210 168. Ans: A Ref: Cohen, 9/E, p.. 385 169. Ans: D Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 70 170. Ans: A Ref: Ingle, 6/E, p. 1062

ORAL SURGERY 171. Ans: C

Explanation • ‘Hanging drop’ sign is seen in orbital blow out fractures. 174. Ans: C Ref: Killey’s, 4/E, p. 26 Explanation • The commonest displacement of fractured condyle is in the anteriomedial direction. 175. Ans: D Ref: Malamed, 5/E, p. 19, 44 Explanation • Sodium bisufite is commonly used in the concentration of 0.05–0.1% Ingredient

Function

Lignocaine Adrenaline Sodium metabisulfite Methyl paraben Sodium chloride Distilled water Thymol

Local anaesthetic Vasoconstrictor Antioxidant Preservative Isotonicity Diluent Fungicide

Explanation • Z Plasty procedure is used when frenum is broad and vestibule is short • V-Y type of incision can be used for lengthening localized area. 172. Ans: D Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 623 Explanation • According to reference of Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 623 • Especially, in bilateral cases a peculiar muffled “hot potato in mouth” voice is seen • Same as in quinsy (peritonsillar absecss) 173. Ans: A Ref: Killey’s, 5/E, p. 47

176. Ans: A Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 212 177. Ans: B Ref: Malamed, 5/E, p.. Pg 92 Explanation Wand/compudent • Uses of single disposable safety hand piece • It is rated the least anxiety producing injection instrument • It administers local anaesthesia at 2 specific rates of delivery a. Slow rate – 0.5 ml/min b. Fast rate – 1.8 ml/min 178. Ans: D Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 15

COMEDK 2008

Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 427

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

152

Explanation • The downward pressure overcomes spasm of the muscles, plus it brings the locked condylar head below the level of articular eminence and then the backward pressure is given to push the entire mandible posteriorly. 179. Ans: C

COMEDK 2008

Ref: Monheim’s, 7/E, p. 5, 6

180. Ans: D Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 316 Explanation • Basic ABCs to be followed for preservation of life, A – Airway patency maintenance B – Breathing C – Circulation D – Disability/neurologic assesment E – Exposure for complete examination

7 COMEDK 2007 A. Whole of face B. Only ipsilateral upper part of the face C. Only contra lateral lower part of the face D. Whole of lower face

HUMAN ANATOMY 1. Protraction of the mandible is brought about by A. Lateral pterygoid B. Medial pterygoid C. Temporalis D. Masseter

PHYSIOLOGY

2. Hyoid bone is a derivative of A. 1st pharyngeal arch B. 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arch C. 2nd and 3rd pharyngeal arch D. 4th pharyngeal arch

7. Thermoregulatory response activated by cold is A. Cutaneous vasodilation B. Anorexia C. Increased voluntary activity D. Increased respiration

3. Mental spines provide attachment to A. Genioglossus and geniohyoid B. Anterior and posterior bellies of digastrics C. Mylohyoid D. Superior constrictor of pharynx

8. Which of these organelles function as the digestive system of a cell A. Mitochondria B. Rough ER C. Golgi apparatus D. Lysosomes

4. ‘Dacrocystitis’ is interruption in the drainage of A. Submandibular gland B. Parotid gland C. Lacrimal gland D. Sublingual gland

9. Thrombopoietin is produced by A. Monocytes B. Liver C. Megakaryocytes D. Megakaryoblasts

5. Lingual nerve, supplying tongue, is a branch of A. Facial nerve B. Hypoglossal nerve C. Mandibular nerve D. Maxillary nerve

10. In determining blood pressure by the auscultatory method A. The loudest sound is the diastolic blood pressure B. Systolic pressure estimation tends to be lower than that made by the palpatory method

6. Unilateral supranuclear lesion of facial nerve involves 153

154

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

C. The first sound heard is the systolic blood pressure D. The sounds that are heard are generated in the heart 11. Which of the following is a function of the golgi apparatus A. Modification of proteins B. mRNA synthesis C. Protein storage D. tRNA synthesis

BIOCHEMISTRY 12. The class of amino acids that contains only non-essential amino acids is A. Acidic B. Basic C. Aromatic D. Branded chain

COMEDK 2007

13. Serum Creatinine Kinase-3 (CK-3) is elevated in A. Muscular dystrophy B. Myocardial infarction C. Alcoholic cirrhosis D. Brain tumours 14. The enzyme known to cause spontaneous thrombosis as an adverse reaction is A. Tyrosine kinase B. Aromatase C. Asparginase D. Collagenase 15. Transport form of iron is A. Transferrin B. Ferritin C. Apo Ferritin D. Lactoferritin

GENERAL PATHOLOGY 16. Leukocyte Alkaline Phosphatase(LAP) is elevated is A. Pernicious anaemia B. Sickle cell anaemia

C. Polycythemia vera D. Plummer-Vinson syndrome 17. A diagnosis of chronic hepatitis is made if liver disease is present for a minimum of A. 3 weeks B. 6 weeks C. 6 months D. 3 months 18. Caseation necrosis is suggestive of A. Tuberculosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Leprosy D. Midline lethal granuloma

MICROBIOLOGY 19. Negri bodies are pathognomonic of A. CMV infection B. HSV infection C. Poliomyelitis D. Rabies 20. The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement A. IgE B. IgM C. IgA D. IgG 21. Spores of which bacteria are used to test the efficacy of moist heat sterilizatilon A. Clostridium tetani B. Streptococcus faecalis C. Bacillus stearothermophilus D. Ureaplasma urealyticum 22. Kaposi’s sarcoma is of A. Bacterial origin B. Viral origin C. Fungal origin D. Radiation origin 23. Erysipelas is caused by A. Group B Staphylococci B. Group A Streptococci C. Gonococci D. Pneumococci

155

COMEDK 2007

PHARMACOLOGY 24. D-Tubocurarine blocks neuromuscular transmission by A. Blocking acetylcholine receptors B. Preventing release of acetylcholine C. Destroying acetylcholine D. Inactivating acetylcholine esterase 25. Digitalis induced automaticity is enhanced by A. High K+ levels B. High Ca2+ levels C. High Na+ levels D. Low K+ levels 26. The most common cause of antibiotic related diarrhoea is A. H. pylori B. C. difficile C. P. pneumonia D. Shigella 27. Intramuscular route is precluded during the medication of A. Antihypertensives B. Antidiabetics C. Anticoagulants D. Antifibrinolytics

29. Which among the following class of antibiotics are relatively safer to use in patients on warfarin therapy A. Cephalosporins B. Imidazoles C. Penicillins D. Macrolides 30. Which drug can be safely used in lactating mothers A. Ampicillin

31. Activation of which of the following receptors would be expected to decrease anxiety A. Nicotinic cholinergic receptors B. Glutamate receptors C. GABA receptors D. Glucocorticoid receptors 32. *Drugs like barbiturates precipitate symptoms of porphyria because A. They depress ALA synthase B. They induce ALA synthase C. They induce heme oxygenase D. They inhibit heme oxygenase 33. For the microbiological assay of vit B12 the following bacteria is used A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Streptococcus faecalis C. E. coli D. Lactobacillus leishmanii

GENERAL MEDICINE 34. Klinefelter’s syndrome is characterised by the karyotype A. 47 XYY B. 47XXY C. 45YO D. 45XO 35. Which one of these is uncharacteristic of pure red cell aplasia A. Anterior mediastinal masses B. Connective tissue disorders C. Low erythropoietin levels D. Parvovirus 36. Which one of the following is an emerging viral disease A. SARS B. Chickenpox C. Measles D. Rabies

COMEDK 2007

28. Therapeutic uses of α–adrenoreceptor blockers include all of the following except A. Hypertension B. Anxiety C. Peripheral vascular disease D. Benign prostatic hypertrophy

B. Chloramphenicol C. Ciprofloxacin D. Erythromycin

156

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

37. Common threat for aspiration pneumonia is A. Blood B. Pus C. Oral flora D. Foreign Body 38. Long term assessment of glucose control can be made by A. Estimation of post-prandial blood sugar B. Estimation of fasting blood sugar C. Estimation of urine sugar level D. Estimation of blood level of glycosylated haemoglobin 39. Acquired symmetric hyper pigmentation of the sun exposed skin of the face and neck, which is strongly associated with pregnancy and use of oral contraceptives is called A. Melanoma B. Cafe-au-lait spots C. Freckle D. Melasma

COMEDK 2007

40. Hungry diarrhoea is seen in A. Marasmus B. Kwashiorker C. Obesity D. Dehydration 41. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in A. Shock B. Elderly C. Emphysema/Asthma D. High output state 42. Acromegaly is a disorder of excess A. Growth hormone secretion B. Thyroxine secretion C. ACTH secretion D. FSH secretion 43. If a normal individual receives an insulin injection that lowers plasma glucose to 30 mg/dl, which of the following hormones will not be released A. ACTH B. Epinephrine

C. Growth hormone D. Aldosterone 44. The DCCT (Diabetes Control and complication Trial) provided definitive proof that reduction in chronic hyperglycemia helps to improve A. Microvascular complications of Type-I Diabetes mellitus B. Macrovascular complications of Type- I Diabetes mellitus C. Microvascular complications of Type- II Diabetes mellitus D. Macrovascular complications of Type- II Diabetes mellitus 45. The commonest cause of hypercalcemia in a patient with known cancer is A. Ectopic parathormone production B. Direct destruction of the bone by tumour cells C. High level of 1, 25 dihydroxy vit. D D. Production of parathormone like substance 46. Gestational diabetes develops only during A. Old age B. Young age C. Pregnancy D. Infancy 47. Osmotic fragility is increased in A. Sickle cell anemia B. Hereditary spherocytosis C. Thalassemia D. Chronic lead poisoning 48. Pastia’s lines are A. The erythematous streaks seen in Staphylococcal infection B. Transverse red streaks in skin folds seen in Scarlet fever C. White striae seen in Lichen planus D. The erythematous rash in syphilis

157

COMEDK 2007

49. With what percent level of a normal range of Factor VIII would children suffering from hemophilia lead a normal life A. 01–05% B. 10–15% C. 15–25% D. Over 25% 50. Conjugated and unconjugated bilirubins are increased in A. Prehepatic jaundice B. Hepatocellular jaundice C. Posthepatic jaundice D. Hemolytic jaundice 51. Berylliosis is caused by A. Beryllium B. Boric acid C. Niobium D. Bis–GMA resin 52. Which of the following is not a predisposing condition for thrombosis and embolism A. Atrial fibrillation B. Prolonged immobilization C. Huntington’s disease D. Prosthetic cardiac valve

GENERAL SURGERY 54. The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is after A. Removal B. Vascular injury C. Hypertrophy D. Malignancy 55. The treatment of choice for nasopharyngeal carcinoma is A. Chemotherapy alone B. Radiotherapy alone

56. The explosive and widespread form of secondary syphilis in a immunocompromised individual is known as A. Condyloma lata B. Mucous patches C. Lues maligna D. Lupus vulgaris 57. Sentinel lymph node is A. Group of lymph nodes B. First stop along the route of lymphatics C. A node that is skipped during distant metastasis D. Distant metastatic node 58. In hemorrhagic shock, hypotension occurs when blood loss is more than A. 10% –15% B. 15%–30% C. 30%–40% D. More than 40% 59. Thyroglossal fistula is A. Congenital B. Acquired C. Hereditary D. Discharges blood 60. The most frequently encountered Clostridial species in gas gangrene is A. C. botulinum B. C. welchii C. C. tetani D. C. difficile

DENTAL MATERIALS 61. The deoxidizing agent added to dental alloys is A. Palladium B. Silver C. Copper D. Zinc

COMEDK 2007

53. Teletherapy is the treatment by A. Chemotherapy B. Laser beam therapy C. Radiotherapy and surgery D. Surgery alone

C. Radiotherapy and surgery D. Surgery alone

158

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

62. Gypsum bonded investments should not be heated above A. 700oC B. 750oC C. 800oC D. 900oC 63. Sprue former direction should be at A. 45oC B. 90oC C. 95oC D. 180oC 64. Advantage of titanium over other base metal alloys is A. Low weight B. Low cost C. Low strength D. Low melting point

COMEDK 2007

65. Impression material that does not harden by chemical reaction A. Zinc oxide eugenol B. Impression compound C. Alginate D. Plaster of paris 66. Desensitizing agent used in dentrifice A. Sodium chloride B. Potassium nitrate C. Ammonium sulphate D. Glycerine 67. A laminate technique impression utilizes A. Syringe agar and chilled tray alginate B. Syringe agar and tray agar C. Syringe agar and impression compound D. Chilled alginate and impression compound 68. The polishing agent which can be used to polish amalgam restorations is A. Garner B. Emery

C. Silex D. Alumina 69. Function of wetting agents used in casting procedures is A. To facilitate wetting of ring liner B. To facilitate mixing investment C. To reduce contact angle of a liquid with wax surface D. For better wax elimination 70. Which of the following materials should not be used as liners or bases under composite restorations A. Resin modified GIC B. Flowable composite C. Zinc oxide eugenol D. Compomer 71. The most effective heat producing and efficient burning zone in a soldering flame is A. Cold mixing zone B. Partial combustion zone C. Reducing zone D. Oxidizing zone 72. The by-product of condensation silicone is A. Hydrogen B. Ethyl alcohol C. Oxygen D. Methyl alcohol 73. The commonly used LASER for curing composite resin is A. Nd:YAG B. CO2 C. ER:YAG D. Argon 74. The polyacid modified composites are known as A. Compomers B. Hybrid ionomers C. Polycarboxylates D. Polyacrylates 75. *To minimize distortion, the die should be poured A. Within 30 min B. 40 min–1 hour

159

COMEDK 2007

C. 1 ½ hours–2 hours D. After 2 hours 76. All the following are materials used for fabrication of maxillofacial prostheses except A. Vinyl chloride polymers B. Acrylic resins C. Silicone rubber D. Fiber reinforced composite 77. Photo–polymerization stress build–up can be reduced by A. High density curing B. Soft – start polymerization C. Delayed curing D. Short exposure time

DADH 78. Maxillary lateral incisor is smaller than the Maxillary central incisor on all aspects except which one of the following A. Crown length B. Mesiodistal crown width C. Faciolingual crown width D. Root length

80. The human permanent anterior teeth show how many developmental lobes A. One lobe B. Two lobes C. Three lobes D. Four lobes 81. According to Schour and Massler , the crown completion of both the permanent maxillary and mandibular 1st molars is by the age of A. 1 1/2–2 years B. 21/2–3 years

82. When osteoblasts lay new bone from outside to inside in an osteon , the active formation area is called A. Haversian cone B. Filling cone C. Cutting cone D. Howships cone 83. Granules seen in the stratum granulosum of keratinized oral mucosa are known as A. Keratohyaline granules B. Zymogen granules C. Membrane coating granules D. Birbeck granules 84. Osteoclasts show an intensive activity of which of the following enzymes A. Alkaline phosphatase B. Acid phosphatase C. Esterase D. Carbonic anhydrase 85. The diameter of the largest arterial vessels in the pulp range from A. 50–100 μm B. 101–150 μm C. 151–200 μm D. 201–250 μm 86. With age, the elastic fibre content of periodontal ligament A. Remains the same B. Increases C. Decreases D. Either Increases or decreases 87. The class of low molecular weight calcium binding proteins seen predominantly in developing enamel are A. Enamelin B. Amelogenin C. Tuftelin D. Ameloplakin

COMEDK 2007

79. The first evidence of calcification of anterior teeth begins approximately between A. 14–17 weeks in utero B. 09–12 weeks in utero C. 06–09 weeks in utero D. 17–20 weeks in utero

C. 3–4 years D. 4–5 years

160

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

88. Elaunin fibres are found in A. Gingiva B. Cementum C. Alveolar bone D. PDL 89. Which type of collagen fibres demonstrate ‘Chicken wire’ configuration A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV 90. Which of the following factors are primarily contributory to the shedding of deciduous teeth A. Hydrostatic pressure B. Vascular pressure C. Oncotic pressure D. Masticatory pressure

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE

COMEDK 2007

91. The following test is an example of heterophile antigen based test A. Rose–wallers test B. Widal’s test C. Brucella agglutination test D. Paul-Bunnell along with HLA class– I agglutination 92. Radiographic features are not seen in A. Naso palatine duct cyst B. Naso alveolar cyst C. Primordial cyst D. Dentigerous cyst 93. The oral ulcers that heal with a scar are suggestive of A. Minor aphthae B. Major aphthae C. Herpetiform aphthae D. Aphthous pharyngitis 94. Halithosis is primarily because of A. Hydrogen sulfide B. Alkaline phosphate

C. Trypsin like enzymes D. Collagenase enzymes 95. Spindle cell carcinoma is a variant of A. Pleomorphic adenoma B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma C. Basal cell carcinoma D. Squamous cell carcinoma 96. Dysplasia is present more frequently in leukoplakia involving A. Buccal mucosa B. Palate C. Floor of the mouth D. Retromolar area 97. Hypoplasia of parotid gland is associated with A. Pierre Robin syndrome B. Melkerson Rosenthal syndrome C. Frey syndrome D. Grinspan’s syndrome 98. Clear cells are commonly seen in which of the following lesions A. Pleomorphic adenoma B. Warthin’s tumor C. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma D. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor 99. In cicatricoal pemphigoid, which antigen is bound by IgG on the epidermal side of the salt split skin technique A. XVII collagen B. Epiligrin C. Laminin 5 D. BP antigen 1 and 2 100. Colloid bodies are seen in A. Odontogenic Keratocyst B. Radicular cyst C. Lichen planus D. Pemphigus vulgaris 101. The type of Immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is A. IgG B. IgA

161

COMEDK 2007

C. IgM D. IgD

C. Osteomalacia D. Metastatic bone disease

102. The other name for pulp polyp is A. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis B. Internal resorption C. Pink spot D. Pulp degeneration

108. Submerged teeth are A. Ankylosed teeth B. Unerupted teeth C. Impacted teeth D. Intruded teeth

103. Tiny linear or arc – shaped bodies which are amorphous, brittle and eosinophilic in reaction, found in association with some odontogenic cysts are called A. Civatte bodies B. Russell bodies C. Guarneri bodies D. Rushton bodies

109. Schwannoma is the commonest tumor in A. 8th cranial nerve B. 5th cranial nerve C. Peripheral nerve D. Sympathetic nerve

104. Vascular involvement and thrombosis is seen in A. Coccidiomycosis B. Aspergillosis C. Mucormycosis D. Histoplasmosis

106. The commonest intraosseous salivary gland neoplasm is A. Pleomorphic adenoma B. Monomorphic adenoma C. Acinic cell carcinoma D. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma 107. During a routine checkup, a 70-year-old male is found to have serum alkaline phosphatase 3 times the upper limit of normal. Serum calcium, serum phosphorus and liver function tests are normal. The most likely diagnosis is A. Primary hyperparathyroidism B. Paget’s disease of the bone

111. Tuberculous lymphadenitis of the cervical lymph nodes is also called as A. Pott’s disease B. Lupus vulgaris C. Scrofula D. Ghon’s focus 112. In children below age of 8 years, high level of craniofacial dysjunction of Le Fort-III classification is rarely seen because A. Children in that age group rarely get affected by such traumatic incidents B. Facial skeleton is covered with thick soft tissue C. There is lack of poorly developed ethmoidal and sphenoidal sinus D. The line of demarcation between medullary and cortical bone is less evident

ORAL RADIOLOGY 113. ‘Jug–Handle’ radiograph is ideal to view A. Zygoma B. Zygomatic arch C. Condyles of mandible D. Nasal bones

COMEDK 2007

105. Incipient caries consist of opaque, chalky white areas that appear when the tooth surface is dried this is referred to as A. White spot B. Hot spot C. Translucent zone D. Body of lesion

110. The common site of melanoma on the orofacial skin is A. Lower lip B. Malar region C. Forehead D. Upper lip

162

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

114. In anterior mandibular occlusal projection, the central X-ray beam enters the patients face through the A. Tip of the chin B. Tip of the nose C. Floor of the mouth D. Below the chin

120. If pre-surgical movement of maxillary segments is indicated in cleft infant, it is typically done beginning at A. 03–06 weeks of age B. 10–12 weeks of age C. 03–06 months of age D. 10–12 months of age

115. In anterior maxillary occlusal projection, the central X-ray beam enters the patient’s face through the A. Tip of the chin B. Tip of the nose C. Bridge of the nose D. Glabella

121. Typically rapid palatal expansion is done with a jack screw that is activated at the rate of A. 1.0–2.0 mm/week B. 1.0–2.0 mm/day C. 0.5–1.0 mm/week D. 0.5–1.0 mm/day

116. Sialography of normal salivary glands reveals the ductal architecture as having an appearance of a A. Sausage string B. Fruit laden tree C. Leafless tree D. Ball in hand

COMEDK 2007

117. Bite–wing radiographs are taken to look for A. Narrowing of periodontal space B. Proximal caries C. Resorption of root D. Internal resorption 118. The view which best demonstrates inflammation and TMJ effusion are A. T2 weighted MR images B. T1 weighted MR images C. Lateral tomogram D. Panoramic radiograph

ORTHODONTICS 119. The first bone formed in response to orthodontic loading is A. Bundle bone B. Composite bone C. Lamellar bone D. Woven bone

122. Ugly duckling stage of dentition in children is corrected by eruption of which tooth A. Central incisor B. Lateral incisor C. Canine D. Second molar 123. ‘Ugly Duckling’ stage of the transitional dentition is characterized by A. Distoangular axial inclination of the maxillary incisors B. Distoangular axial inclination of the mandibular incisors with spacing C. Mandibular lateral incisors erupting lingual to the central incisors D. Maxillary lateral Incisors erupting lingual to the central incisors 124. Force transmitted from the teeth in one arch to teeth in the opposing arch is known as A. Intramaxillary anchorage B. Intramaxillary traction C. Intermaxillary traction D. Intermaxillary anchorage 125. In hypodontia, the most commonly affected tooth is A. Permanent third molar B. Permanent second molar C. Permanent lateral incisor D. Permanent canine

163

COMEDK 2007

126. The most common congenital defect of the face and jaws is A. Macrostomia B. Foetal alcohol syndrome C. Cleft lip and palate D. Ectodermal dysplasia 127. The ratio of ‘skeletal : dental’ expansion obtained finally after rapid palatal expansion is A. 4:1 B. 3:1 C. 2:1 D. 1:1 128. A midline maxillary frenum should not be removed A. Before the eruption of permanent canine B. Before the eruption of permanent lateral C. Before the eruption of both lateral and canines D. Until after the completion of permanent dentition 129. Leeway space in maxilla and mandible is A. 0.9 and 1.7 mm respectively B. 1.7 and 0.9 mm respectively C. 0.9 and 1.7 cm respectively D. 1.7 and 0.9 cm respectively

131. Optimum force for orthodontic bodily movement (Translation) A. 50 – 75 gms B. 100 – 150 gms C. 200 – 250 gms D. 300 – 400 gms 132. Pericision is indicated A. After correction of midline diastema B. After correction of rotation C. After correction of crossbite D. Before correction of midline diastema

PEDODONTICS 134. The approximate age at which the child begins to walk is at A. 0–2 months B. 3–6 months C. 7–8 months D. 9–12 months 135. The pulp horn that is most likely to be exposed during cavity preparation on deciduous molars is A. Mesiobuccal of 1st molar B. Distobuccal of 1st molar C. Mesiobuccal of 2nd molar D. Distobuccal of 2nd molar 136. Oral screens are used for all of the following purposes except A. Tongue thrusting B. Mouth breathing C. Lip biting D. Retraction of upper protruded teeth 137. Stimulus response theory (SR theory) is also known as A. Physical restraint B. Aversive conditioning C. Behaviour shaping D. Tender Love and Care (TLC) 138. The Term Diphyodont Means A. Second dentition B. Two same sets of dentition C. Two separate sets of dentition D. More than two sets of dentition

COMEDK 2007

130. Space between 52 and 53 is called A. Bolton space B. Freeway space C. Leeway space D. Primate space

133. Force required for headgear to restrain maxillary growth is A. 50–100 gm/side B. 150–200 gm/side C. 250–500 gm/side D. 750–1000 gm/side

164

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY 139. The significance of difference between two proportions can also be tested by A. ‘t’ test B. Chi-square test C. ANOVA D. Correlation and regression 140. Ethical principles that require health professionals to fully inform their patients and protect their confidentiality is the principle of A. Justice B. Autonomy C. Veracity D. Beneficience 141. The first step in public health procedure is A. Analysis of programme B. Planning of programme C. Situation analysis D. Appraisal of programme

COMEDK 2007

142. A test based on counting the direction of each within pair difference is A. ‘t’ test B. Z test C. F test D. Sign test 143. Anaerobic method of solid waste disposal is A. Bangalore method B. Mechanical composting C. Controlled tipping D. Incineration 144. As per ‘Biomedical Waste Management and Handling Rules’, waste sharps should be contained in A. White container B. Yellow container C. Red container D. Black container 145. Index age group for Pathfinder Survey A. 5, 12, 15, 36–44, 66–74 B. 5, 12, 18, 35–44, 66–74 C. 5, 12, 15, 35–45, 64–75 D. 5, 12, 15, 35–44, 65–74

146. Doctrine of Res Ipsa Loquitor’s is used when A. There is a threat to harm and unauthorized touching B. In the absence of negligence, injury would not have occurred C. Patient is not informed of his treatment status D. Confidential information obtained from patient is revealed 147. The subjective component of well being is A. Level of living B. Standard of living C. Quality of life D. Mental dimension of health 148. Stipulation flat sum the patient has to pay towards the cost of the service before it goes into effect is A. Group insurance B. Co–insurance C. Co–payment D. Deductible 149. The term ‘Anesthesia by Copper’ was used to indicate A. Extraction where copper was used as LA B. Extraction done by Dr. Copper C. Incentive of a penny for good behaviour D. Surgical instruments made of copper

PROSTHODONTICS 150. A circumferential clasp arm A. Originates above the height of contour B. Originates below the height of contour C. Traverses soft tissue D. Approaches undercut from gingival direction 151. A palatal major connector having width of less than 8 mm is known as A. A palatal strap B. A palatal plate

165

COMEDK 2007

C. A palatal bar D. A palatal sheet 152. Maxillary buccal frenum overlies A. Levator labii superioris B. Levator anguli oris C. Zygomaticus major D. Zygomaticus minor 153. Maxillary edentulous arch resorbs A. Upward and inward B. Upward and outward C. Downward and inward D. Downward and outward 154. The most ideal finish line configuration for a porcelain veneer is A. Feather B. Shoulder C. Chamfer D. Chisel 155. Modiolus is a fibro muscular mass present A. Near angle of mouth B. In the midline of upper lip C. In the midline close to frenulum labii D. In the nasolabial groove

157. Which among the following has the greatest flexibility A. Cast circumferential clasp arm B. Wrought circumferential clasp arm C. Cast bar clasp arm D. Wrought bar clasp arm

PERIODONTICS 158. Which is an example of non graft associated regenerative technique A. HTR Polymer B. Bioactive glass

159. Primary colonization of plaque is dominated by A. Facultative aerobic gram +ve rods B. Facultative anaerobic Gram –ve rods C. Facultative aerobic Gram –ve cocci D. Facultative anaerobic Gram +ve cocci 160. The optimal flow rate of coolant for sonic and ultrasonic subgingival scaling is A. 01–11 ml/mm B. 14–23 ml/mm C. 24–32 ml/mm D. 34–40 ml/mm 161. Glucose concentration in GCF is A. 2–3 times greater than in serum B. 2–3 times lesser than in serum C. 10 times greater than in serum D. 10 times lesser than in serum 162. Following metal is most commonly used as an endosteal implant A. Titanium B. Stainless steel C. Cobalt chromium D. Aluminium 163. Incidence of gingivitis in pregnancy is A. 10–20% B. 20–30% C. 40–50% D. 50–100% 164. The most common clinical sign of trauma to the peridontium is A. Gingival inflammation B. Increased attachment loss C. Increased tooth mobility D. Pocket formation 165. In which year were powered tooth brushes invented A. 1921 B. 1929 C. 1939 D. 1941

COMEDK 2007

156. The teeth are in occlusal contact for the following percent of times in a day A. 94% B. 10–15% C. 06–08% D. 02–06%

C. Osseous coagulum D. GTR

166

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

COMEDK 2007

166. In the conventional finger rest, the finger rest is established on the A. Other side of the same arch B. Tooth surface immediately adjacent to the working area C. Opposing arch D. Index finger or thumb of the non– operating hand

172. The tooth that is most vulnerable to injury is the A. Mandibular central incisor B. Maxillary central incisor C. Mandibular lateral incisor D. Maxillary lateral incisor

167. Glycosylated Hemoglobin level of 7–8% suggests A. Good diabetes control B. Poor diabetes control C. Moderate diabetes control D. Normal diabetes control

173. Cholesterol crystals are occasionally present in which of the following zone A. Zone of contamination B. Zone of irritation C. Zone of necrosis D. Zone of stimulation

CONS AND ENDO

ORAL SURGERY

168. For autoclave sterilization, burs can be protected by keeping them submerged in A. 2.0% Sodium nitrite B. 5.2% Sodium hypochlorite C. 2.0% Chlorhexidine D. 1.2% Sodium nitrate

174. All postoperative patients must be supplemented with oxygen concentration of at least A. 50–60% B. 40–45% C. 30–35% D. 20–25%

169. The irrigating solution used with ultrasonic instruments used for preparation of root canals is A. Sodium hypochlorite B. Normal saline C. Hydrogen peroxide D. Chloramine 170. Endodontic implants refer to those A. Used to obturate the canal B. Used to stabilize periodontally weakened teeth with a poor ‘crown: root’ ratio C. Placed between periosteum and cortex of bone D. Which are embedded within the bone 171. Calcium hydroxide was introduced into endodontics by A. Nygaard Ostby B. Hermann C. Schilder D. Hunter

175. Subcondylar osteotomy for correction of prognathism was first reported by A. Robinson and Hinds B. Huston O Kruger C. Krug H Thoma D. Obwegeser 176. The amount of epinephrine that can be used safely with LA solution in geriatric patients with organic heart disease is A. 0.08 mg B. 0.04 mg C. 0.20 mg D. 0.40 mg 177. TMJ is a A. Diarthroidal and ginglymoidal joint B. Ball and socket joint C. Hinge joint D. Fibrous joint

167

COMEDK 2007

178. Which of the following are theories of regional anesthesia A. Specificity theory and gate control theory B. Specific receptor theory and gate control theory C. Specific receptor theory and membrane expansion theory D. Specificity theory and membrane expansion 179. Standard airway for Ludwig’s Angina A. Tracheostomy

B. Cricothyrotomy C. Nasal intubation D. Oral intubation 180. Prophylactic antibiotic in surgical practice A. Is given orally B. Depends on individual preference C. Continued for a minimum of 7 days D. First dose is given before induction of anesthesia

COMEDK 2007

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

168

ANSWERS HUMAN ANATOMY 1. Ans: A Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 253 Table 24.1 2. Ans: C Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 160 Explanation Upper part of body and lesser cornua develops from second branchial arch, while lower part of body and greater cornua develops from the third arch. 3. Ans: A

8. Ans: D Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 9 Explanation Lysosomes have enzyme (lyzozymes) which can digest the proteins, carbohydrates, lipids and nucleic acids. Hence called as suicide bags of the cell. 9. Ans: B Ref: Sembulingam, 4/,E, p. 410 10. Ans: C Ref: Sembulingam, 4/,E, p. 560

Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 152 Explanation Upper genial tubercle gives origin to the genioglossus and the lower tubercle to the geniohyoid

Explanation Auscultatory method First phase

First sound is a

Systolic blood

clear tapping

pressure

sound

4. Ans: C

Second phase

Murmur sound

Third phase

Clear loud gong

Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 180 Explanation Dacrocystitis is the inflammation of lacrimal sac 5. Ans: C Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 260

type sound Fourth phase

Mild muffled sound which disappears

11. Ans: A Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 8

6. Ans: C

BIOCHEMISTRY

Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 173

PHYSIOLOGY 7. Ans: C Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 771 Explanation When body is exposed to cold, heat is produced by increased metabolic activities and shivering Heat loss is prevented by vasoconstriction in skin.

12. Ans: A Ref: U. Sathyanarayana & U . Chakrapani, 3/E, p. No. 46 Table 4.1 Explanation Essential amino acids 1. Leucine 2. Arginine - Basic amino acid 3. Lysine - Basic amino acid 4. Histidine - Basic amino acid

169

COMEDK 2007

Non Essential amino acid 1. Aspartic acid - Acidic amino acid 2. Aspargine - Acidic amino acid 3. Glutamic acid - Acidic amino acid 4. Gltutamine - Acidic amino acid

MICROBIOLOGY 19. Ans: D Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 444 20. Ans: A

13. Ans: A Ref: U. Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 111

&

U.

Explanation CPK exists as 3 isoenzymes

21. Ans: C Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 34

Isoemzyme

Subunit

Tissue of origin

CPK1 CPK2 CPK3

BB MB MM

Brain Heart Skeletal muscle

14. Ans: C Ref: U. Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 106, 371

&

U.

22. Ans: B Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 477 Explanation • Caused by HSV type 8 23. Ans: B

Explanation • The enzyme asparginase is used in the treatment of leukaemias. • Asparginase is a non essential amino acid and glycogenic

Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 209

PHARMACOLOGY 24. Ans: A

15. Ans: A Ref: U. Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 415

Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 100

&

U.

16. Ans: C Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 498 17. Ans: C Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 369 Explanation • Majority of cases of chronic hepatitis are hepatitis B, C and combined hepatitis B and D 18. Ans: A Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 120, 37

25. Ans: D Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 498 Explanation • K + antagonizes enhancement of digitalis induced automaticity and decreases binding of glycosides to Na+ – K+ ATPase so KCl is infused 20 ml/hr I.V 26. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 731 Explanation • The potent antibiotic clindamycin causes diarrhea and pseudomembraneous enterocolitis due to Cl. difficile super-infection

COMEDK 2007

GENERAL PATHOLOGY

Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 340

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

170

27. Ans: C Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 10 Explanation • IM injections should be avoided in anticoagulant treated patients, because it can produce local haematoma. 28. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 135 Explanation Uses of α – blockers • Pheochromocytoma • Hypertension • Benign hypertrophy of prostate • Secondary shock • Peripheral vascular disease • Congestive heart failure • Impotence (for penile erection) 29. Ans: C Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 603

COMEDK 2007

Explanation • Cephalosporins causes hypoprothrombinemia by the same mechanism as warfarin – additive action • Imidazoles and macrolides inhibits warfarin metabolism. 30. Ans: D Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 911 31. Ans: C Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 450 32. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripati, 6/E, p. 392 33. Ans: C/D

GENERAL MEDICINE 34. Ans: B Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 47 Explanation 1. Normal female – 2n (46, xx) Normal male – 2n (46, xy) 2. Aneuploidy Trisomy 21 (47, xy, 21) – Down syndrome Trisomy 18 (47, xy, 18) – Edwards syndrome Trisomy 13 (47, xy, 13) – Patau syndrome 3. Sex chromosomes aneuploidy • Phenotypically male 47, xxy – Klinefelter’s syndrome 47, xxx – xyy male • Phenotypically female 47, xxx – Trisomy X 45, xo – Turner’s syndrome 35. Ans: C Ref: Davidson, 20/E, pp. 302, 1054 36. Ans: A Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. No 695 37. Ans: C Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. No 694 Explanation • Aspiration of acid gastric contents into lungs can give rise to a severe haemorrhagic pneumonia often complicated by ARDS. 38. Ans: D Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 816 39. Ans: D

Ref: (Option D) Satoskar, 20/E, p. 500

Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 1281

Explanation • Vitamin B12 in biological samples is assayed microbiologically using euglena grauilis or Lactobacillus leschmanii

Explanation • Melasma or chloasma are discrete patches of facial pigmentation occurring in pregnancy and women taking oral contraceptives.

171

COMEDK 2007

40. Ans: A Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 117 41. Ans: C Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 526 42. Ans: A Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 801 Explanation • Increased GH before fusion of epiphysis – Gigantism • Increased GH after fusion of epiphysis – Acromegaly 43. Ans: D Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 824 44. Ans: A Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 837 45. Ans: D Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 773 46. Ans: C Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 814

47. Ans: B Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 1032 48. Ans: B Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 315 Explanation • Residual petechial lesions in the antecubital fossa seen in streptococcal scarlet fever is known as pastia’s line or lesions

Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 946 51. Ans: A Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 720 52. Ans: C Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 1222 Explanation • It is an inherited autosomal dominant disorder accompanied by cognitive impairment 53. Ans: C Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 264 Explanation • Radiotherapy can be delivered by 3 methods: – Teletherapy – from a distance by a linear accelerator – Brachytherapy – direct application of a radioactive substance – Intravenous injection of a radio isotope like I131

GENERAL SURGERY 54. Ans: A Ref: Manipal Manual of Surgery, 2/E, p. 352 Explanation • Subtotal or near total thyroidectomy are most common causes of tetany • The parathyroids are removed or deprived of their blood supply 55. Ans: B Ref: Bailey X lore, 25/E, p. 71 56. Ans: C Ref: S.Das, 5/E, p. 130 Primary syphilis Secondary syphilis

49. Ans: D Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 1057

Tertiary syphilis

Hunterian chancre Mucous patches Snail track ulcers Condyloma lata Gumma

COMEDK 2007

Explanation • The term Gestational Diabetes refers to hyper glycemia occurring for the first time during pregnancy

50. Ans: B

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

172

57. Ans: B Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 730

Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 321

Explanation • The histological status of sentinel node predicts the status of the distant lymph nodes.

Explanation • If the sprue is positioned at 90 degrees porosities are formed.

58. Ans: C Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 10 Explanation • Mild shock < 20% feels thirsty cold • Moderate shock 20 – 40% oliguria • Severe shock > 40% Pallor, low urinary output, rapid pulse and low BP 59. Ans: B Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 628 Explanation • It is never congenital, it originates from 1. Bursting of infected thyroglossal cyst 2. Incision of infected thyroglossal cyst 3. Incomplete removal of thyroglossal cyst 60. Ans: B Ref: Manipal Manual of Surgery, 2/E, p. 52 COMEDK 2007

63. Ans: A

DENTAL MATERIALS 61. Ans: D Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 500 Explanation • It acts as a scavenger during melting uniting with O 2 to minimize the formation of other oxides. 62. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 297 Explanation • For gypsum bonded investments containing carbon the maximum temperature should be 650°C.

64. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 769 65. Ans: B Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 209 66. Ans: B Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 374 67. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 245 68. Ans: C Ref: Craig’s, 12/E, p. 254 Explanation • Amalgam is polished 24 hours after restoring. 69. Ans: C Ref: Craig’s, 12/E, p. 419 Explanation • Functions of wetting agents: (in order of preference) – To decrease surface irregularities by reducing the contact angle of a liquid with the wax surface – To remove any oily film left on the wax pattern from separating medium. 70. Ans: C Ref: Craig’s, 12/E, p. 504 Explanation • ZOE is not used under composite because eugenol can inhibit polymerization of the bonding agent and the composite. 71. Ans: C Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 615

173

COMEDK 2007

81. Ans: B

72. Ans: B

Ref: Wheeler’s, 8/E, p. 53

Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 213

82. Ans: B

73. Ans: D Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 412

Ref: Tencate, 7/E, p. 139

Explanation • Types of lamps used for light curing 1. LED lamps 2. QTH lamps 3. PAC lamps 4. Argon lasers.

Explanation • As osteoclasts move through compact bone,they create a resorption channel • The leading edge of resorption is termed the cutting cone and is characterized by a scalloped array of resorption lacunae (Howhip’s lacunae) • The entire area of the Osteon where active formation occurs is termed the filling cone

74. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 485 Explanation • Composite + glass ionomer = Compomer 75. Ans: A

83. Ans: A Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 218 84. Ans: B

Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 248

Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 336

76. Ans: D

Explanation • Osteoclasts in bone and odontoclasts in dentin exhibit an intense acid phosphate activity.

Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 755 77. Ans: B/C Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 411

85. Ans: A Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 120 Explanation • Large arteries 50–100 μm • Arterioles 20–30 μm • Terminal arterioles 10–12 μm • Veins 100–150 μm

78. Ans: D Ref: Wheeler’s, 8/E, p. 167 79. Ans: A

86. Ans: B

Ref: Wheeler’s, 8/E, p. 53

Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 180

80. Ans: D Ref: Wheeler’s, 8/E, p. 13, 106, 107 Explanation Teeth Permanent anteriors Premolars Molars

No. of lobes 4 4 5

Explanation • Age changes in PDL ligament – Decreased fibroblasts – number and acitivity – Increased elastic fibres – Decreased organic matrix production.

COMEDK 2007

DADH

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

174

87. Ans: B Ref: Tencate, 7/E, p. 179 Explanation • Amelogenin: – Are accumulated during the secretory stage of amelogenesis Undergoes minor short term and major long term degradation – Regulates growth in thickness and width. 88. Ans: D

Minor aphthous

Major aphthous

1 to over 100 in number 2–3 to over 10 mm in diameter Seen on mobile mucosa like buccal and labial mucosa, tongue, pharynx Ulcers persists for 7–14 days Heals without scarring

1–10 in number More than 1 cm in diameter Seen on the lip, soft palate, tongue and fauces Ulcers persist for upto 6 weeks Heals with scar formation

94. Ans: A

Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 173

Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 381

Explanation • Eluanin fibres are found within the fibres of gingiva and periodontal ligament

Explanation • Proteins retained in the mouth are broken down by the anerobic bacteria into aminoacids which in turn is broken down to produce volatile sulfur compounds namely hydrogen sulfide and methyl mercaptan which are foul smelling

89. Ans: D Ref: Tencate, 7/E, p. 69 Explanation • Type IV collagen is a major component of the basal lamina and is a product of the epithelial cells 90. Ans: D COMEDK 2007

Explanation

Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 301

95. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 118 96. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 112 97. Ans: B Ref: Burkett, 11/E, p. 200

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE 91. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 774 92. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 66 93. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 665 Fig. 16.2

98. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 232 Explanation • Clusters of clear cells may be present • These clear cells are generally mucin and glycogen free. 99. Ans: A Ref: Burkitt, 11/E, p. 68 100. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 802

175

COMEDK 2007

Explanation • Degenerating basal keratinocytes that form colloid bodies (civatte/hyaline/ cytoid bodies) which appear as homogenous eosinophillic globulins are seen. 101. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 184 Explanation • IgG myeloma is the most common followed by IgA Myeloma.

Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 479 Explanation • Pulp polyp is a unique form of pulpitis wherein the inflammed pulp, instead of perishing by continued suppuration reacts by excessive and exuberant proliferation 103. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 489 Explanation • Rushton bodies are present in the cyst lining between 2.6–9.5% of cysts

107. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 728 108. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 62 Explanation • Submerged teeth are ankylosed deciduous teeth most commonly mandibular second molars.

Dentigerous cyst Radicular cysts Periapical granuloma Lichen planus Multiple myeloma Periapical granuloma

104. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 368 Explanation • This fungus has an apparent predilection for blood vessels, it is able to penetrate their walls and produce thrombosis. 105. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 442

Ref: Neville, 3E, p. 526 110. Ans: B Ref: Neville, 3E, p. 435 Explanation • Lentigo maligna melanoma accounts for approx 10% of cutaneous melanomas • It exists in a radial growth phase which is known as lentigo maligna or melanotic freckle of Hutchinson • This lesion occurs characteristically as macular lesion on the malar skin 111. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 314 Explanation • Tuberculosis: TB lymph node – Scrofula • TB skin – Lupus vulgaris • TB spine – Pott’s disease/Caries spine • Primary TB lung – Ghon’s focus 112. Ans: C Ref: Seth Faller, Facial trauma, 1/E, p. 420 Explanation • The small skull in children is not weakened by the air sinuses and also well protected by the adipose tissues. Hence less subjected to fracture than adult skull

COMEDK 2007

Civatte bodies Russell bodies

Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 233

109. Ans: A

102. Ans: A

Rushton bodies

106. Ans: D

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

176

ORAL RADIOLOGY 113. Ans: B Ref: White and Pharoah, 6/E, p. 554 114. Ans: A

118. Ans: A

Ref: White and Pharoah, 6/E, p. 144

Ref: White and Pharoah, 6/E, p. 218, 216

Explanation

Explanation • T1 weighted images: For depicting small anatomic images regions where high spatial resolution is required • T2 weighted images: For inflammatory or pathologic image changes

Projection

Point of entry

Anterior mandibular occlusal Cross sectional mandibular oclcusal Lateral mandibular and occlusal

Tip of chin 3 cm below chin 3 cm posterior to chin 3 cm lateral to midline

115. Ans: B Ref: White and Pharoah, 6/E, p. 141 Explanation Projection

Point of Entry

Anterior maxillary occlusal Cross sectional maxillary occlusal Lateral maxillary occlusal

Tip of nose Bridge of nose 2 cm below lateral canthus of eye

ORTHODONTICS 119. Ans: D Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 183 Explanation • On the tension side • Raised vascularity is seen • Mobilization of osteoblasts • Osteoid is laid down • Matures to woven bone 120. Ans: A

116. Ans: C Ref: White and Pharoah, 6/E, p. 581 Explanation COMEDK 2007

– Evaluation of periodontal condition and detecting interproximal bone height – Calculus

Condition

Appearance

Normal Submandibular appearance Sialodochitis Sjogren’s syndrome Tumours

Tree in winter/brush in winter

Ref: Proffit, 4/E, p. 321 121. Ans: D Ref: Proffit, 4/E, p. 286 122. Ans: C

Sausage like Snow storm/branchless fruit laden/ cherry blossom appearance Ball in hand appearance

117. Ans: B Ref: White and Pharoah, 6/E, p. 135 Explanation • Bite wing radiographs are used for – Detecting proximal caries – Detecting secondary caries

Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 48 123. Ans: A Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 48 124. Ans: D Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 207 Explanation • Intra maxillary anchorage–all the units offering resistance are within the same jaw

177

COMEDK 2007

• Inter maxillary/baker’s anchorages– the resistance units are situated in one jaw are used to effect movement in the opposing jaw a. Class II traction – between lower molar and upper anteriors b. Class III traction – between upper molar and lower anteriors 125. Ans: A Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 86 Explanation • The following are the commonly missing teeth in decreasing order of frequency, – Third molars – Maxillary lateral incisors – Mandibular second premolars – Mandibular incisors – Maxillary second premolars 126. Ans: C Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 439 Explanation • Cleft lip is common among males • Cleft palate common among females • Among unilateral cleft–clefts involving left side is more common

Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 254 128. Ans: A Ref: Proffit, 4/E, p. 247 129. Ans: A Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 48 Explanation • Maxillary arch–1.8 mm (0.9 mm in each arch) • Mandibular arch–3.4 mm (1.7 mm in each arch) 130. Ans: D Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 41

131. Ans: B Ref: Proffit, 4/E, p. 340 Explanation Type of movement

Force (gms)

Tipping Bodily movement Root uprighting Extrusion Intrusion Rotation

35–60 70–120 50–100 35–60 10–20 35–60

132. Ans: B Ref: Proffit, 4/E, p. 615 Explanation • Pericision or circumferential supracrestal fibrotomy is a minor surgical procedure to counter the relapse tendency of the stretched gingival fibres • The trans septal and alveolar crestal group of gingival fibres remain stretched and do not readily readapt to the new tooth position following correction of rotations hence causing relapse. 133. Ans: C Ref: Proffit, 4/E, p. 526 Explanation • Forces applied on the maxilla can be used to restrict its downward and forward growth • Forces in the range of 350–450 gms on each side for 12–14 hours/day.

PEDODONTICS 134. Ans: D Ref: Shoba Tandon, 2/E, p. 67, 66

COMEDK 2007

127. Ans: D

Explanation • Physiological spacing seen mesial to maxillary canine and distal to the mandibular canine called as primate/ simian/anthropoid spaces.

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

178

Explanation Age (in months) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12

Milestones Regards Smiles Turns head Holds head Rolls over Transfers objects Sits briefly Creeps Pulls up Cruises Walks with support Stands alone

135. Ans: A Ref: Shoba Tandon, 2/E, p. 324 136. Ans: D Ref: Shoba Tandon, 2/E, p. 511, 520 137. Ans: C

COMEDK 2007

Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 150, McDonald, 8/E, P. 45 Explanation • Proponents of behavior shaping theory hold that most behavior is learned and that learning is the establishment of a connection between a stimulus and a response • Therefore it is sometimes called as response theory.

Explanation • The major ethical principles are: – To do no harm (non-maleficiences) – To do good (beneficence) – Respect for persons – Justice – Veracity or truthfulness – Confidentiality 141. Ans: C Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 15 Explanation • Procedural steps in dental public health – Survey – Analysis – Programme planning – Programme operation – Financing – Programme appraisal 142. Ans: D Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 54 Explanation • Sign test is a non parametric/ distribution • It is based on counting the direction of each pair within different groups 143. Ans: A Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 660 144. Ans: A Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 761 145. Ans: D

138. Ans: C Ref: Shobha tandon, 2/E, p. 88

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY 139. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 47 140. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 665

Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 589 146. Ans: B Ref: Common law tort and contract by Thomas Lundmark, p.57, and A Text book of Children and young people’s mursing edward vollen gasper and Jim Richardson, p. 327 147. Ans: C Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 802

179

COMEDK 2007

148. Ans: D

154. Ans: B

Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 647

Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 572 Explanation

149. Ans: C Ref: Dental Public Health: An Introduction to Community Dental Health, Geoffrey. L Slack & Brian. A Burt, p. 326 Explanation: • During the good old days, the child might receive a copper penny as reward for good behavior. Hence the description “Anaesthesia by Copper”

PROSTHODONTICS 150. Ans: A Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 359

Cast metal restorations All ceramic restorations Metal ceramic restorations

Chamfer Shoulder Labial shoulder and lingual chamfer

155. Ans: A Ref: Zarb and Bolender, 11/E, p. 263 156. Ans: D Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 185 157. Ans: B Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 362

Explanation • It is also known as Aker’s clasp

PERIODONTICS 158. Ans: D

151. Ans: C Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 331

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 972

Explanation • Palatal bar–less than 8 mm of width • Palatal strap–more than 8 mm of width

Explanation • GTR is a method for prevention of epithelial migration along the cemental wall of the pocket by placing barriers of different types to cover the bone and the PDL

152. Ans: B Ref: Zarb and Bolender, 12/E, p. 216 Levator anguli oris Attaches beneath the frenum Oribucularis oris Pulls frenum forwards Buccinator Pulls it backward

153. Ans: A Ref: Zarb and Bolender, 12/E, pp. 89, 90 Explanation Arch Maxillary

Anterior region

Upwards and inwards Mandibular Initially downwards and and outwards backwards later downwards and forwards

Posterior region Upwards and inwards Downwards

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 146 160. Ans: B Ref: Text Book of Periodontics, Nayak, 1/E, p. 318 161. Ans: A Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 346 Explanation • Glucose concentration in saliva is 3–4 times greater than serum. This is not only as a result of metabolic activity of adjacent tissues but also as a function of the local microbial flora

COMEDK 2007

159. Ans: B

Explanation

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

180

162. Ans: A Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 1079 Explanation • Titanium is a very reactive metal that oxidizes within nanoseconds when exposed to air • Because of this passive oxide layer, the titanium then becomes very resistant to corrosion in its CP form • It is highly biocompatible 163. Ans: D Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 639 164. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 474 165. Ans: C

COMEDK 2007

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 731 Explanation • The bristle tooth brush appeared about the year 1600 in china • It was first patented in America in 1857 • Two types of bristles – Natural bristles – Artificial bristles • Soft bristles with rounded ends are best for gingiva • Soft bristles 0.007 inch (0.2 mm) • Medium brushes 0.012 inch (0.3 mm) • Hard brushes 0.014 inch (0.4 mm) 166. Ans: B Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 767 167. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 657 Explanation • Glycosylated Hb assay (HbA1c) • 4–6%: Normal • 7%: Good diabetes control • 7–8%: Moderate diabetes control • > 8%: Poor diabetes control

CONS AND ENDO 168. Ans: A Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, p. 392 Explanation • Autoclaving tends to corrode the steel neck and shank portions of diamond and carbide burs. During sterilization burs can be protected with 2% sodium nitrite solution. 169. Ans: A Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 266 170. Ans: D Ref: Ingle, 6/E, p. 1295 171. Ans: B Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 272 172. Ans: B Ref: Cohen, 9/E, p. 611 173. Ans: B Ref: Cohen, 9/E, p. 929

ORAL SURGERY 174. Ans: C Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 164 175. Ans: C Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 295 Explanation • Subcondylar vertical osteotomy – Caldwell Letterman in 1954 • Subsigmoid oblique subcondylar osteotomy– Robinson and Hinds in 1955 176. Ans: B Ref: Malamed, 5/E, p. 46 177. Ans: A Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 205

181

COMEDK 2007

178. Ans: C Ref: Malamed, 5/E, p. 13 Explanation • Theories of regional anaesthesia – Acetyl choline theory – Calcium displacement theory – Surface charge (repulsion) theory – Specific receptor theory–most accepted – Membrane expansion theory 179. Ans: B Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 629 Explanation • Laryngotomy cricothyroidotomy (tracheotomy) are always preferred over tracheostomy because

– Identification of landmarks is difficult in the presence of swelling – The surgery itself may lead to the infection – High chances of getting pneumonia – Tracheal stenosis 180. Ans: D Ref: Peterson, 4/E, p. 360 Explanation • Risk of infection must be significant • Correct antibiotic must be chosen • Antibiotic level must be high • Antibiotic must be timed correctly • Use shortest antibiotic exposure that is effective.

COMEDK 2007

8 COMEDK 2006 6. Deep surface of hyoglossus is related to A. Lingual nerve B. Hypoglossal nerve C. Submandibular ganglion D. Glossopharyngeal nerve

HUMAN ANATOMY 1. Blood supply of coronoid process of mandible is primarily from A. Inferior alveolar artery B. Deep temporal artery C. Facial artery D. Middle meningeal artery

7. Suprasternal space contains the following structures except A. Jugular arch B. Anterior Jugular vein C. Sternal head of sternocleidomastoid D. External jugular vein

2. Among the muscles of TMJ, the following muscles opposing, stabilizing and antagonistic force as far as the disc is concerned A. Medial pterygoid B. Temporalis C. Lateral pterygoid D. External pterygoid

8. Deep part of submandibular salivary gland is in relation to A. Facial nerve B. Lingual nerve C. Accessory nerve D. Mandibular nerve

3. Pterygopalatine ganglion is functionally connected to A. Facial nerve B. Mandibular nerve C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Maxillary nerve

9. Inferior thyroid artery is a branch of A. External carotid artery B. Internal carotid artery C. Common carotid artery D. Subclavian artery

4. Derivative of second pharyngeal arch is A. Sphenomandibular ligament B. Stylomandibular ligament C. Anterior ligament of maleus D. Stylohyoid ligament

10. Muscles of tongue are formed by A. First arch mesoderm B. Second arch mesoderm C. Occipital myotomes D. Cervical somites

5. Parotid duct traverses A. Masseter B. Buccinator C. Medial pterygoid D. Lateral pterygoid

11. The structure that does not traverse parotid gland is A. Superficial temporal artery B. Posterior auricular artery C. External carotid artery D. Internal carotid artery 182

183

COMEDK 2006

12. Sensory innervation of larynx as far as the vocal folds is by A. External laryngeal nerve B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve C. Internal laryngeal nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve 13. Nerve of the pterygoid canal is formed by union of A. Deep petrosal nerve with greater petrosal nerve B. Deep petrosal nerve with lesser petrosal nerve C. Greater petrosal and lesser petrosal nerves D. Greater petrosal and external petrosal nerves 14. Lymphatics of upper gum drains into A. Lingual nodes B. Retropharyngeal nodes C. Submandibular nodes D. Submental nodes 15. Accessory meningeal artery enters cranial cavity through A. Foramen lacerum B. Foramen rotundum C. Foramen spinosum D. Foramen ovale

PHYSIOLOGY

17. The following factors increase the cardiac output except A. Preload B. After load C. Heart rate D. Myocardial contractility

19. The number of muscle fibres in a motor unit are least in A. Laryngeal muscles B. Pharyngeal muscles C. Muscles of middle ear D. Extra ocular muscles 20. Normal myeloid erythroid ratio is A. 3:1 B. 1:3 C. 4:1 D. 6:1 21. Glucose tolerance test is usually done to assess A. Acute pancreatitis B. Carcinoma of head of pancreas C. Acinar function of the pancreas D. Endocrine dysfunction of pancreas

BIOCHEMISTRY 22. von Gierke disease is associated with the deficiency of A. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase B. Glucose 6 phosphatase C. Phosphorylase in liver D. Hexokinase 23. Deficiency of vitamin C causes the following except A. Painful swollen gums B. Abnormal collagen C. Anaemia D. Diarrhoea 24. Intestinal absorption of calcium is decreased by A. Proteins B. Lactose C. Phytic acid D. Acidity

COMEDK 2006

16. The normal pH of human blood is A. 7.0 B. 7.2 C. 7.35 – 7.40 D. 7.6

18. In clinical practice Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) is estimated using the plasma clearance value of A. Inulin B. PAH C. Glucose D. Creatinine

184

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

25. The fastest moving fraction of protein in serum when subjected to paper electrophoresis is A. Albumin B. Alpha 1 globulin C. Beta globulin D. Gamma globulin

GENERAL PATHOLOGY 26. The region of myocardium most prone for infarction is A. Right ventricular epicardium B. Left ventricular epicardium C. Right ventricular sub endocardium D. Left ventricular sub endocardium 27. Heart failure cells are seen in the following condition(s) A. Chronic venous congestion of lung B. Chronic venous congestion of liver C. Chronic venous congestion of spleen D. Infarction of the heart 28. White infarcts occur in A. Ovary B. Lung C. Intestine D. Heart

COMEDK 2006

MICROBIOLOGY 29. Most common fungus in diabetics A. Cryptococcus B. Aspergillus C. Rodotorula D. Nocardia 30. Actinomycosis is caused by A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Fungus D. Unknown factor 31. The cells which produce antibodies are A. Plasma cells B. Helper T cells

C. Macrophages D. Natural killer cells 32. Polypeptide capsule is seen in A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Clostridium welchii C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Bacillus anthracis 33. Bacteria that grow best at temperatures below 20º C are called A. Mesophilic B. Psychrophilic C. Thermophilic D. Microaerophilic 34. Glasswares are sterilized by A. Autoclaving B. Hot air oven C. Incineration D. Formaldehyde 35. Negative staining is used to demonstrate A. Bacterial spore B. Bacterial flagella C. Bacterial capsule D. Bacterial fimbriae 36. Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except A. Through plasmids B. Incorporating part of host DNA C. Through bacteriophages D. Through configuration 37. Type of immunological response in transplant rejection is A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV 38. The organism MOST resistant to thermal inactivation is A. Bacterial spores B. Virus C. Spirochete D. Streptococcus mutans

185

COMEDK 2006

PHARMACOLOGY 39. Heparin acts by A. Blocking thrombin formation B. Fibrinolytic action C. Preventing thrombin synthesis D. Potentiating antithrombin III activity 40. Which one of the following drugs will not produce allergic reactions? A. Pencillins B. Sulfonamides C. Cetrizine D. Cephalosporins 41. Which one of the following drugs is not a reversible anticholinesterase drug? A. Edrophonium B. Demecarium C. Carbaryl D. Tacrine 42. Which one of the following drugs is not a non-depolarizing competitive neuromuscular blocker? A. Doxacurim B. Decamethonium C. Rocuronium D. Mivacurium 43. Which one of the following drugs is not a long acting local anaesthetic? A. Tetracaine B. Procaine C. Bupivacaine D. Dibucaine

45. Drug metabolism can be induced by following factors except A. Cigarette smoking

GENERAL MEDICINE 46. One of the causes of finger clubbing is A. Carcinoma of the lung B. Cardiac failure C. Bronchial asthma D. Ischaemic heart disease 47. Patients with atrial fibrillation have A. Regularly irregular pulse B. Irregularly irregular pulse C. Anacrotic pulse D. Pulsus alterans 48. The most common cause of chronic bronchitis is A. Air pollution B. Optic fibrosis C. Smoking D. Recurrent aspiration pneumonia 49. Gall bladder enlargement occurs in A. Carcinoma of pancreas B. Hepatic cirrhosis C. Chronic hepatitis D. Chronic cholelithiasis 50. Black water fever is caused by A. P. vivax B. P. falciparum C. P. malariae D. P. ovale 51. Neurogenic cause of dysphagia includes the following except A. Multiple sclerosis B. Tetanus C. Parkinson’s disease D. Tetany

COMEDK 2006

44. Drug efficacy refers to A. Range of disease in which the drug is beneficial B. Maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The therapeutic dose range of the drug D. The therapeutic index of the drug

B. Acute alcohol ingestion C. Exposure to insecticides D. Consume charcoal boiled meat

186

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

GENERAL SURGERY 52. Nerve injury leading to contusion of the nerve in which continuity of both epineural sheath and the axons is maintained is known as A. Neurotemesis B. Axonotemesis C. Neuropraxia D. Traumatic neuroma 53. Factors influencing wound healing are the following A. Nutrition B. Adequate blood supply C. Size and location of wound D. All of the above 54. Chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis refer to A. Tuberculous thyroditis B. Hashimoto’s thyroditis C. Dequervain’s thyroditis D. Riedel’s thyroditis 55. Rigidity of facial muscle “Risus sardonicus” is associated with A. Tetanus B. Syphilis C. Leprosy D. Actinomycosis

COMEDK 2006

DENTAL MATERIALS 56. Subsurface porosity in metals can be prevented by A. Increased sprue length B. Increased sprue thickness C. Increased metal temperature D. Increased mold temperature 57. Cross linking in denture base resin is contributed by A. Benzoyl peroxide B. Glycol dimethacrylate C. N–paratoluidine D. Methylmethacrylate

58. Which of the following hardness test is independent of ductility of the material A. RHN B. VHN C. KHN D. BHN 59. Minimum thickness for type–I zinc phosphate cement should be A. 15 microns B. 25 microns C. 50 microns D. None of the above 60. Which cement base has the highest modulus of elasticity? A. Zinc polycarboxylate B. Polymer reinforced ZOE cement C. Zinc–phosphate D. Glass ionomer cement 61. In metal ceramic crowns the function of indium and tin is to A. Improve bonding B. Decrease porosity C. React with porcelain to form an opaque layer D. Improve thermal expansion 62. Which die material has a hazardous potential during fabrication? A. Improved stone B. Silver amalgam C. Electro deposited silver D. Epoxy resin 63. The role of magnesium chloride in zinc oxide eugenol impression paste is A. Retarder B. Modifier C. Plasticizer D. Accelerator 64. Quartz in dental porcelain is used as A. Strengthener B. Binder C. Pigment D. Crack minimizer

187

COMEDK 2006

65. Space lattice refers to A. Inter atomic movement B. Inter atomic imbalance C. Arrangement of atoms D. Arrangement of molecules

72. Gnarled enamel is seen in A. Proximal surface of tooth B. Cervical region of tooth C. Cusp tips of tooth D. All the above

66. Ammonia treated gold foil is also known as A. Cohesive foil B. Non cohesive foil C. Corrugated foil D. Non corrugated foil

73. Basic metabolic unit of bone is A. Osteon B. Osteoblast C. Osteocyte D. Osteoclast

67. The modulus of elasticity of an alloy refers to A. Flexibility B. Ductility C. Stiffness D. Malleability

DADH 68. The teeth that are retained for the longest period of time are A. Maxillary incisors B. Maxillary canines C. Mandibular incisors D. Mandibular canines 69. Mesial developmental depression is the characteristic feature of A. Maxillary first premolar B. Maxillary second premolar C. Mandibular first premolar D. Mandibular second premolar

71. Cell rests of mallassez are found in A. Enamel B. Dentine C. Pulp D. Periodontal ligament

74. The term thrush refers to A. Acute atrophic candidiasis B. Chronic atrophic candidiasis C. Acute pseudo membranous candidiasis D. Median rhomboid glossitis 75. Heck’s disease is another name for A. Focal epithelial hyperplasia B. Fibromatosis gingiva C. Oral melanotic macule D. Hereditary intestinal polyposis syndrome 76. Which of the following is a precancerous lesion A. Speckled leukoplakia B. Benign migratory glossitis C. White sponge nevus D. Hairy leukoplakia 77. Target lesions are seen in A. Pemphigoid B. Lichenplanus C. Erythema multiforme D. Mikulicz’s disease 78. The syndrome characterized by hyperkeratotic skin lesions, severe destruction of the periodontal ligament and calcification of the dura is A. Down syndrome B. Chediak-Higashi syndrome C. Papillon-Lefevre syndrome D. Plummer-Vinson syndrome

COMEDK 2006

70. The buds for the permanent teeth are formed A. Between 6 and 24 months after birth B. 6 years of postnatal life C. During 6th month of development D. During 3rd month of development

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE

188

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

79. Large pulp chambers are characteristic of all the following conditions except A. Shell teeth B. Taurodontism C. Dentin dysplasia D. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

86. Cribriform, honey comb (or) swiss cheese histology pattern is seen in A. Adenoid cystic carcinoma B. Pleomorphic adenoma C. Acinic cell carcinoma D. Clear cell carcinoma

80. Mucoceles are rarely seen in the A. Lower lip B. Upper lip C. Buccal mucosa D. Floor of the mouth

87. The cyst which is always associated initially with the crown of an impacted embedded or unerupted tooth A. Dentigerous cyst B. Periodontal cyst C. Odontogenic kerato cyst D. Primordial cyst

81. Animals maintained in a germ free environment did not develop caries even when fed on a high carbohydrate diet. This was put forth by: A. Gottlieb B. Miller C. Snyder D. Orland and Fitzgerald 82. Sjogrens syndrome is characterized by A. Dry eyes B. Dry mouth C. Destruction of salivary glands D. All of the above

COMEDK 2006

83. The premalignant lesions of the oral mucosa include all of the following except A. Leukoplakia B. Erythroplakia C. OSMF D. Melanoplakia

88. The tooth most commonly involved in chronic focal sclerosing osteomyelitis is A. Maxillary second molar B. Maxillary third molar C. Maxillary first molar D. Mandibular first molar 89. Pain, muscle tenderness, clicking or popping noise in T M joint and limitation of jaw motion are the four cardinal signs and symptoms of A. Costen’s syndrome B. Traumatic arthritis of TM joint C. Osteo arthritis D. Myo facial pain dysfunction syndrome 90. Cooley’s anemia is also known as A. Erythro blastosis foetalis B. Aplastic anemia C. Thalassemia D. Pernicious anemia

84. Majority of salivary stones occur in A. Parotid gland B. Ectopic salivary gland C. Sublingual gland D. Submandibular gland

91. Rubeola refers to A. German measles B. Measles C. Small pox D. Chicken pox

85. Periapical granuloma can be differentiated from cementoma by A. Radiograph B. Pulp vitality test C. C T scan D. MRI scan

92. An interesting association of lichen planus, diabetes mellitus and vascular hyper-tension is described as A. Gardener’s syndrome B. Grinspan’s syndrome C. Costen’s syndrome D. Cowden’s syndrome

189

COMEDK 2006

93. Cyst arising fom rest of malassez is A. Dental cyst B. Dentigerous cyst C. Radicular cyst D. Kerato cyst 94. Commonest salivary gland tumour in children A. Lymphoma B. Pleomorphic adenoma C. Adenoid cystic carcinoma D. Muco epidermoid carcinoma 95. Most common organism causing caries A. Streptococcus faecalis B. Streptococcus viridans C. Streptococcus mutans D. Staphycococcus albus 96. Most common site of tuberculous lesion in the oral cavity is A. Buccal mucosa B. Lips C. Tongue D. Palate

ORAL RADIOLOGY 97. One of the following is not capable of replication A. Neuron B. Liver C. Kidney D. None of the above

99. The size of actual focal spot is A. 1 3 mm B. 1 1 mm C. 1 4 mm D. 1 2 mm

101. In recent avulsion of tooth, the image of lamina dura of the empty socket in the radiograph is usually A. Lost B. Discontinuous C. Persisting D. Widened 102. Which of the following materials is easily confused with dental caries when viewed radiographically A. Calcium hydroxide cement B. Dental amalgam C. Zinc oxide eugenol cement D. Zinc phosphate cement

ORTHODONTICS 103. The most rapid growth in humans occurs during A. Prenatal period B. 6–12 months after birth C. 3–5 years of life D. Beginning of teenage years 104. Spheno-occipital synchondroses carries the growth of anterior half of the cranial base of the cranium and upper part of the face in A. Forward and downward direction B. Forward and lateral direction C. Upward and forward direction D. Only forward direction 105. The first typical orthodontic fixed appliance was introduced by A. Begg B. Johnson C. EH Angle D. Roth

COMEDK 2006

98. The milliampere (MA) control of X-ray machine controls A. The speed of electrons B. The quantity of electrons C. The speed of protons D. The quantity of protons

100. Which layer of epithelium of oral mucous membrane is more sensitive to radiation A. Stratum spinosum B. Stratum granulosum C. Stratum basale D. Stratum corneum

190

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

106. For best result in class III malocclusion correction the orthopedic appliance should be worn at least A. 12–16 hours per day B. 8–10 hours per day C. 5–8 hours per day D. Throughout night 107. A change in the intensity and direction of functional forces would produce demonstrable changes in the internal architecture and external form of bone was stated by A. Kelvin Moss B. E. H Angle C. Zadmison D. Julies Wolff 108. Sved type of bite plane is an example of A. Simple anchorage B. Reciprocal anchorage C. Extra oral anchorage D. Reinforced anchorage 109. The labial bow in activator is constructed with A. 0.6 mm wire B. 0.5 mm wire C. 0.7 mm wire D. 0.8 mm wire or slightly heavier

COMEDK 2006

110. Incisal liability in the upper jaw is A. 1.7 mm B. 0.6 mm C. 0.9 mm D. 7.6 mm 111. In the maxillary arch the primate space is found A. Distal to deciduous canine B. Distal to maxillary lateral incisor C. Mesial to maxillary deciduous lateral incisor D. Distal to deciduous first molar 112. Pain is normally felt after heavy force application in A. 3 to 5 seconds later B. 30 to 40 seconds later

C. 1 to 2 minutes later D. 4 to 5 minutes later 113. Cleft lip repair is commonly performed during A. 3–6 months of age B. 3–6 years of age C. Puberty D. At the time of birth 114. Skull at birth contains A. 22 bones B. 34 bones C. 45 bones D. 54 bones

PEDODONTICS 115. The most difficult form of child maltreatment to identify and treat is A. Sexual abuse B. Physical abuse C. Emotional abuse D. Munchausen syndrome by proxy 116. The first macroscopic indication of morphologic development of primary incisors occurs approximately at A. 11 weeks in utero B. 14 weeks in utero C. 16 weeks in utero D. 6 weeks in utero 117. Lap to lap position is the recommended position for performing oral hygiene procedures in A. 0–1 year old B. 1–3 years old C. 3–6 years old D. 6–12 years old 118. Primary anterior teeth intruded after a traumatic injury may often re-erupt within A. 3–4 weeks B. 8–12 weeks C. 6–8 weeks D. 7–10 weeks

191

COMEDK 2006

119. The concept of “Dental home” was introduced by A. Arthur Nowak B. Evangeline Jordan C. Paul Casayassimo D. George White 120. More than 90% of growth of the brain or brain vault has been achieved by A. 12 years of life B. 5 years of life C. 18 years of live D. 21 years of live 121. Fluoride substitutes the following components of hydroxyapatite crystal A. Calcium B. Hydroxyl C. Phosphate D. All of the above

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY 122. The method of presenting data of geographic distribution is A. Histogram B. Pie chart C. Frequency polygon D. Cartogram 123. The number of independent members in the sample is A. Null B. Degrees of freedom C. Bias D. Significance

125. Tasks involving exposure to blood, body fluids, tissues are called A. Category I

126. The castration complex is associated with which income group A. Upper middle class B. Lower middle class C. Upper lower class D. Lower class 127. The point at which chlorine demand of water is met is termed A. Chlorine point B. Super chlorination C. Break point chlorination D. Dechlorination 128. Emporiatrics is the word used to describe the science of A. Epidemics B. Feet C. Health of travelers D. Child health 129. Blinding can be done to eliminate which type of bias A. Berkensonian B. Recall C. Confounding D. Interviewers 130. The prevention of emergence or development of risk factors in countries where they have not appeared is what type of prevention? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Primordial 131. The first dental college in India was started in 1926 at A. Delhi B. Calcutta C. Bombay D. Chennai

COMEDK 2006

124. The method of prepayment wherein the patient pays a percent of total cost A. Loan B. Co-insurance C. Reasonable fee D. Fee for service

B. Category II C. Category III D. Category IV

192

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

132. The index age group for deciduous teeth in year is A. 12 B. 5 C. 35–44 D. 65–74 133. When a disease spreads from one country to another in a short time it is called A. Endemic B. Pandemic C. Epidemic D. Sporadic 134. The period of infancy usually refers to A. First 2 years after birth B. First 1 year after birth C. First 6 months after birth D. First 3 years after birth

PROSTHODONTICS 135. The preferred gingival finish line for veneer metal restoration is A. Shoulder B. Chamfer C. Shoulder with bevel D. Radial shoulder

COMEDK 2006

136. Functional impression technique can be applied in A. Uniformly firm ridge consistency B. All variety of residual ridges C. Knife edge ridge D. Displaceable alveolar ridge 137. A rigid reciprocal arm of a clasp may also act as A. Direct retainer B. An auxillary indirect retainer C. Major connector D. Minor connector 138. Complete denture patients have a preference for which region when the consistency of food is tough A. 2nd molar region

B. Pre molar region C. 1st molar region D. Pre molar and molar region 139. Guiding plane in RPD should be located at A. In between edentulous space B. Abutment surface adjacent to an edentulous area C. Edentulous area D. Abutment area 140. Identify the material used in maxillofacial prosthesis A. Polyurethane polymers B. Polycarbonate C. Auto polymerizing acrylic resin D. Polyvinyl chloride 141. Retruded tongue position in an edentulous patient results in A. Good peripheral seal B. Over extended impression C. Under extended impression D. Increased stability of lower denture 142. Determining the relative parallelism of proximal tooth surface by contacting with the surveyor blade is known as A. Guiding planes B. Angle of cervical convergence C. Height of contour D. Interference 143. Tissue conditioning materials are A. Elastomers B. Elasto polymers C. Polymers D. Impression plaster 144. Which component of a removable partial denture used to retain or prevent dislodgement A. Indirect retainer B. Rest C. Minor connector D. Direct retainer

COMEDK 2006

145. Bone loss following extraction is A. Less for first 6 months B. Less for first 1 months C. More for first 6 months D. Process uniformly for first year

PERIODONTICS 146. Oral hygiene was first practiced by A. Chinese B. Etrusians C. Sumerians D. Sushruta 147. Length of junctional epithelium is A. 0.0 to 1.0 mm B. 0.01 to 0.02 mm C. 0.25 to 1.35 mm D. 0.30 to 0.40 mm 148. Recent classification of periodontal disease organized by American Academy of Periodontology was introduced in the year A. 1989 B. 1997 C. 1998 D. 1999 149. EM study of the four zones of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis was coined by A. Listgarten B. Slot C. Pindborg D. Socransky

151. Arc-shaped alveolar bone loss is seen radio graphically in A. Chronic periodontitis

B. Localized Juvenile periodontitis C. Refractory periodontitis D. Localised periodontitis 152. Linear gingival erythema is a characteristic finding in A. Chronic gingivitis B. Chronic periodontitis C. Human immunodeficiency virus D. Aggressive peridontitis 153. Sub-gingival scaling alters the microflora of periodontal pocket A. Never gets altered B. Aerobes only C. Gets altered D. Anerobes only 154. The primary etiologic factor in the development of furcation defect is A. Calculus B. Plaque C. Cemental caries D. Root infection 155. The most widely recommended tool for removing plaque from proximal tooth surfaces A. Tooth brush B. Mouth Wash C. Dental Floss D. Tooth paste 156. Reshaping of bone without removing tooth supporting bone is known as A. Odontoplasty B. Osteoplasty C. Coronoplasty D. Ostectomy 157. Plaque begins to form on tooth surface after brushing in A. 4 hours B. 8 hours C. 6 hours D. 2 hours

COMEDK 2006

150. Plateau like bone margins caused by resorption of thickened bony plates is called A. Lipping B. Crater C. Reverse architecture D. Ledge

193

194

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

158. Mouth examination of a patient with HIV/AIDS may commonly reveal A. Macroglossia B. Periodontal diseases C. Loss of sensation of taste D. Red tongue

CONS AND ENDO 159. The modified class III preparation uses a dovetail on the lingual side in A. Maxillary canine B. Mandibular canine C. Mandibular central incisor D. Mandibular lateral incisor 160. When restoring a tooth with resin material acid etching can do all of the following except A. Increase the surface area B. Permit chemical bonding between resin and enamel C. Create surface irregularities in enamel for better mechanical retention of resin D. Condition the tooth surface for better wetting

COMEDK 2006

161. Radio opacity of composite resins is achieved by the addition of A. Borax B. Barium and strontium glasses C. Small amount of lead and carbon D. Rare earthmetallic oxides 162. Preparation of class I cavities for dental amalgam, direct filling gold or gold in lays have in common A. Occlusally diverging facial and lingual walls B. Occlusally diverging mesial and distal walls C. Occlusally converging facial and lingual walls D. Occlusally converging mesial and distal walls

163. The cavosurface angle for inlay cavity preparation A. 90 degrees B. 150 degrees C. Less than 90 degrees D. 180 degrees 164. Which of the following drugs is commonly used to control salivation in operative dentistry A. Pilocarpine B. Propanolol C. Atropine D. Muscarine 165. Ferrier double bow separator works on the principles of A. Wedge principle B. Traction principle C. Slow separation D. Delayed tooth movement 166. Peso reamer is used for A. To remove lingual shoulder of anterior teeth B. To enlarge root canal orifices C. Post space preparation D. To remove gutta percha 167. RC–prep is a combination of A. EDTA with carbamide peroxide B. EDTA with hydrogen peroxide C. EDTA with sodium peroxide D. EDTA with urea peroxide 168. What fraction of inhaled mercury vapours retained in the body? A. 45 – 55% B. 55 – 65% C. 65 – 85% D. More than 85%

ORAL SURGERY 169. The primary excretory organ for the local anaesthetic and its metabolites is A. Lungs B. Kidneys C. Rectum D. Skin

195

COMEDK 2006

170. The site of action of the local anaesthetic is on A. Axoplasm B. Epineurium C. Nerve membrane D. Perineurium 171. In a receding chin where the occlusion is acceptable the choice of surgical procedure for correction would be A. Sliding genioplasty B. Sagittal split osteotomy C. Kole procedure D. Oblique ramus osteotomy 172. When the malignancy involves the jaw bones the success with radiotherapy alone is A. Fair B. Good C. Reduced D. Increased 173. For patients who are deficient of endogenous steroids undergoing maxillofacial surgery, the most preferred full spectrum cortico steroid for pre, intra and post operative prophylactic steroid therapy is A. Dexamethasone B. Methyl prednisolone C. Triamcinolone D. Hydrocortisone

175. Which of the following organism has been postulated to have an aetiological role in the development of dry socket? A. Staphylococcus haemolyticus B. Treponema denticola

176. A primary rotatory movement is used in extraction of A. Mandibular central and lateral incisors B. Maxillary central incisor and mandibular II premolar C. Maxillary I premolar D. Maxillary and mandibular canines 177. In children with mixed dentition fracture mandible is treated by A. Bone plating B. Trans osseous wiring C. Eyelet intermaxillary wiring D. Cap splint with circumferential wiring 178. The reduction of the nasal bone fractures are done by A. Walsham’s and Asche’s forceps B. Rowe’s disimpaction forceps C. Bristow’s elevator D. Taylormonk’s elevator 179. In bilateral parasymphyseal fractures of the mandible the fractured segment is displaced posteriorly under the influence of A. Mylohyoid and geniohyoid B. Masseter and medial pterygold C. Buccinators and post belly of digastric D. Genioglossus, geniohyoid and posterior belly of digastric 180. Severe cellulitis beginning in the submaxillary space and secondarily involving the sublingual and submental space is known as A. Submandibular cellulitis B. Submaxillary cellulitis C. Ludwig’s angina D. Suprahyoid cellulitis

COMEDK 2006

174. In pericoronal abscess related to disto angular impacted lower third molars the infection may spread to A. Submasseteric space B. Sublingual space C. Submental space D. Buccal space

C. Treponema pallidum D. Staphylococcus

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

196

HUMAN ANATOMY 1. Ans: A Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 255 2. Ans: C Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 259 3. Ans: A Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 385 4. Ans: D Ref: Inderbir Singh Text Book of Embryology, 8/E, p. 109

Explanation • Investing layer of deep cervical fascia splits to enclose two spaces – Suprasternal – Supraclavicular • Suprasternal space contains, 1. Sternal heads of the right and left sternocleido mastoid muscles 2. Jugular venous arch 3. Lymph node 4. Lowest parts of the anterior jugular veins 8. Ans: B Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 268 9. Ans: D

5. Ans: B Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 245 Explanation • The parotid duct turns medially and pierces a. Buccal pad of fat b. Buccopharyngeal fascia c. Buccinator (pierces obliquely thus preventing inflation of duct during blowing). 6. Ans: D

COMEDK 2006

Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 266 Explanation Superficial relation • The lingual nerve with submandibular ganglion and hypoglossal nerve running on the hyoglossus muscle from lateral to medial side. 7. Ans: D Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p.186, Cunningham’s Manual of Practical Anatomy, 15/E, Vol 3, p. 38

Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 278 Explanation • Inferior thyroid artery is a branch of the thyrocervical trunk (which arises from the subclavian artery). 10. Ans: C Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 274 Explanation • The muscles of tongue develop from occipital myotomes which are supplied by the hypoglossal nerve. 11. Ans: D Ref: B.D Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 244 Explanation • The structures within parotid gland a. Arteries: External carotid artery Maxillary artery Superficial temporal vessels Posterior auricular artery b. Veins – Retromandibular vein c. Nerves – Facial nerve d. Parotid – Lymph node

197

COMEDK 2006

12. Ans: C

19. Ans: A

Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p.347

Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p.81

Explanation • The Internal laryngeal nerve supplies the mucous membrane upto the level of the vocal folds • The Recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies it below the level of the vocal folds.

Explanation

13. Ans: A Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 213

Muscle

No. of muscle fibres/unit

Laryngeal muscles Pharyngeal muscles Ocular muscles Leg and back muscles

2–3 2–6 3–6 120–165

20. Ans: C Ref: R. L. Bijlani Medical Physiology, 3/E, p. 81 21. Ans: D

14. Ans: C Ref: Sicher & Dubrul’s Oral Anatomy, 8/E, p. 222

Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 975

BIOCHEMISTRY

15. Ans: D Ref: BD Chaurasia 1/E, p.139 Explanation • Foramen ovale transmits, M – Mandibular nerve A – Accessory meningeal artery L – Lesser petrosal nerve E – Emissary vein

PHYSIOLOGY 16. Ans: C Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 53 17. Ans: B

18. Ans: A Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 345 Explanation • Glomerular filtration rate — Inulin • Renal plasma flow — creatinine • Renal blood flow — paraaminohippuric acid.

Ref: U.Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 269

and

U.

and

U.

23. Ans: D Ref: U.Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 134

Explanation • Deficiency of Vitamin C results in scurvy and is characterized by – Spongy and sore gums – Loose teeth – Anaemia – Swollen joints – Fragile blood vessels – Decreased immunocompetence – Delayed wound healing – Sluggished hormonal function of adrenal cortex gonads – Hemorrhage – Osteoporosis 24. Ans: C Ref: U.Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 406

and

U.

COMEDK 2006

Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 114

22. Ans: B

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

198

Explanation • Factors promoting Ca absorption 1. Vitamin D 2. Parathyroid hormone 3. Low pH 4. Lactose 5. Lysine and arginine • Factors inhibiting Ca absorption 1. Phylates and oxalates 2. High content of dietary phosphate 3. Free fatty acids 4. High pH 5. High content of dietary fibres 25. Ans: A Ref: U.Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 183

and

U.

Explanation • In electrophoresis of agar gel, the normal serum is separated into 5 parts, – A l b u m i n 5 5 – 6 5 % — maximum mobility in electric field – α1 globulin 2–4% – α2 globulin 6–12% – β globulin 8–12% – γ globulin 12–22% — least mobility

GENERAL PATHOLOGY 26. Ans: D

COMEDK 2006

Ref: Robbin’s Pathologic Basis of Disease, 7/E, p. 576, 577 Explanation • The subendocardial region of myocardium is the most poorly perfused region of the ventricular wall and the relatively high intramural pressure in this area further compromises the inflow of blood. Hence infarction heart occurs. 27. Ans: A Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 199

28. Ans: D Ref: Robbin’s Pathologic Basis of Disease, 7/E, p. 138 Explanation • Red (haemorrhagic) infarcts with venous occlusions — lungs ovary, small intestine • White (anaemic) infarcts — spleen, heart, kidney with arterial occlusions.

MICROBIOLOGY 29. Ans: B Ref: Ananthanarayan & Panicker’s, 8/E, p. 613 30. Ans: B Ref: Ananthanarayan & Panicker’s, 8/E, p. 391 31. Ans: A Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 140 Explanation • Immune response is brought by 3 cells, 1. T cells 2. B cells 3. Antigen presenting cells 32. Ans: D Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 19 Explanation • Polysaccharide capsule – pneumococcus • Polypeptide capsule – anthrax • Both capsule and slime layer – streptococcus salivarius 33. Ans: B Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 27 Explanation • Mesophilic: 25–40°C • Psychrophilic: < 20°C • Thermophilic: 55–80°C

199

COMEDK 2006

34. Ans: B Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 32

Rivastigmine Donepezil Galantamine b. Acridine - Tacrine

35. Ans: C Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 19 36. Ans: B Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 19 37. Ans: D Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 145 38. Ans: A Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 31 Explanation • Therefore spores are used as sterilization control.

PHARMACOLOGY 39. Ans: D Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 597 40. Ans: C Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 158 Explanation • Cetrizine is a second generation antihistamine so it has antiallergic mechanism.

Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 99 Explanation Reverssible a. Carbamates Physotigmine Neostigmine Pyridostigmine Edrophonium

Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 339 Explanation • Neuromuscular blocking agents Nondepolarizing (Competitive) blockers 1. Long acting: d-Tubocurarine, Pancuronium, Doxacurium, Pipecuronium 2. Intermediate acting: Vecuronium, Atracurium, Cisatracurium, Rocuronium, Rapacuronium 3. Short acting: Mivacurium Depolarizing blockers 1. Succinylcholine (SCh., Suxamethonium) 2. Decamethonium 43. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 351 44. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 54 45. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 27 Explanation Enzyme inducers: 1. Anticonvulsant including phenobarbitone, (CYP2B1) rifampin (CYP2D6) glucocorticoids induce CYP 3 A isoenzymes 2. Isoniazid and chronic alcohol consumption induces CYP2E1 3. Polycyclic hydrocarbons found in cigarette smoke, charcoal and industrial pollutants induce CYP1A isoenzymes 4. Others–chloralhydrates, phenylbutazone, griseofulvin, DDT.

COMEDK 2006

41. Ans: C

42. Ans: B

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

200

GENERAL MEDICINE 46. Ans: A Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 1283 Explanation Causes of digital clubbing: 1. Respiratory – Bronchogenic Ca – Suppurative lung disease – Fibrosing alveolitis 2. Cardiac – congenital cyanotic heart disease, SABE 3. Others – Inflammatory bowel disease – Biliary cirrhosis – Thyrotoxicosis – Familial 47. Ans: B Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 562 48. Ans: C Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 678 49. Ans: A Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 910 50. Ans: B Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 1035

COMEDK 2006

Explanation • Plasmodium falciparium causes malaria associated with intravascular haemolysis when severe this is termed black water fever due to the associated hemoglo-binuria. 51. Ans: D Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 775

GENERAL SURGERY 52. Ans: C Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 244

Explanation • Neuropraxia – Intact axons – Complete recovery • Axonotemesis – Axons rupture intact CT – Wallerian degeneration – Slow regeneration of axons • Neurotemesis – partial or complete division of nerve fibres 53. Ans: D Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 6 54. Ans: B Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 669 Explanation • Hashimoto’s disease – autoimmune/ chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis • De quervains’s disease – subacute/ granulomatous thyroiditis 55. Ans: A Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 136 Explanation • Other features of a. Lock jaw – contraction of masseter muscle b. Opisthotonus – muscle of neck and trunk become rigid and the back is slightly arched.

DENTAL MATERIALS 56. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 345 Explanation Ref to Table 3.1 57. Ans: B Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 723 Explanation • Cross linking agents are incorporated into the liquid component at a concentration of 1–2% by volume.

201

COMEDK 2006

Table 3.1: Effects of technical factors on the porosity resulting from metal solidification

Type of Porosity

Increase in sprue thickness

Increase in sprue length

Increase in melt temperature

Increase in mold temperature

Localized shrinkage Subsurface porosity Microporosity

Reduced Increased No effect

Increased Reduced No effect

Reduced Increased Reduced

Reduced Increased Reduced

58. Ans: C Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 98. Explanation • Knoop and Vicker’s test — Microhardness tests • Brinell and Rockwell test — Macrohardness tests 59. Ans: B Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 468. 60. Ans: C Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 468. Explanation • Highest modulus of elasticity is ZnPO4–13.7 GPa • Least modulus of elasticity is resin cements: 3.1 – 3.1 61. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 674. Explanation • Metals like iron, indium or tin are applied to the metal surface and fired similar to opaque porcelain

62. Ans: C Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 319. Explanation • The silver plating process consists of an electroplating bath primarily of silver cyanide solution, Care must be

63. Ans: D Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 252 Explanation Composition of a Zinc Oxide - Eugenol Impression paste Components

Percentage

Tube No. 1 (Base) Zinc oxide (French – processed or USP) Mixed vegetable or mineral oil

13

Tube No. 2 (Accelerator) Oil of cloves or eugenol Gum or polymerized rosin Filler(silica type) Lanolin Resinous balsam Accelerator solution (CaCl 2 ) and color

12 50 20 3 10 5

87

64. Ans: B Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 667 65. Ans: C Ref: Craig, 12/E, p. 133 Explanation • There are 14 possible space lattice forms. 66. Ans: B Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 549. Explanation • Functions of ammonia – It minimizes adsorption of other less volatile substances and prevents premature cohesion of sheets that may come into contact.

COMEDK 2006

Functions • Improves metal ceramic bonding • Better aesthetics

taken to avoid the addition of acids to the cyanide solution, Which can cause release of cyanide vapour a “death chamber” gas.

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

202

67. Ans: C Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 80. Explanation • Elastic modulus is the relative stiffness or rigidity of a material.

DADH

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE 74. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 363 75. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 24

68. Ans: B Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 302 69. Ans: A Ref: Wheeler’s, 8/E, p. 226 70. Ans: A/B/C/D Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 291

Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 94 Explanation • Speckled leukoplakia is a clinical variant of erythroplakia. 77. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p.806

Explanation Teeth

Initiation

First permanent molar Second permanent molar Third permanent molar

4th month in utero 1st year after birth After 4th or 5th year

71. Ans: D Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 30 72. Ans: C Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 50

COMEDK 2006

76. Ans: A

Explanation • If the crown is cut in an oblique plane, especially near the dentin in the region of the cusps or incisal edges, the rod arrangement appears to be further complicated the bundles of rods seem to intertwine more irregularly. This optical appearance of enamel is called gnarled enamel. 73. Ans: A Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 189 Explanation • The haversian (vascular) canal and the concentric lamellae together is known as the Osteon or haversian system.

78. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 402 Explanation • It is an autosomal recessive disorder. 79. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 54 80. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 541 Explanation • Mucocele most frequently occurs on the lower lip but may also occur on the palate, cheek, tongue (involving the glands of Blandin–Nuhn) and floor of the mouth. 81. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 414 82. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 247 83. Ans: D Ref: Burkitt, 11/E, p. 85, 88

203

COMEDK 2006

84. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 544 Explanation • Sialolithiasis – stone is salivary duct or salivary duct calculus • Submandibular – 64% • Parotid – 20% • Sublingual – 16% 85. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 482, 732 86. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 234 87. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 255 88. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 494 89. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 742 90. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 760 Explanation • Thalassemia is also known as Cooley’s anaemia, Mediterranean anaemia or Erythroblastic anaemia 91. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 341

92. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 800 Explanation 1. Gardener’s syndrome – Multiple polyposis of large intestine, osteomas of bone, multiple epidermoid or sebaceous cyst of skin particularly scalp and back

93. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 268 94. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 232 Explanation • Mucoepidermoid carcinoma is the most common malignant salivary gland tumour in children. 95. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 415 96. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s , 5/E, p. 440

ORAL RADIOLOGY 97. Ans: A Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 22 98. Ans: B Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 7 99. Ans: A Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 6 100. Ans: C Ref: White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 22 101. Ans: C Ref:White & Pharoah, 6/E, p. 544 102. Ans: A Ref: White and Pharoah, 6/E, p. 171

COMEDK 2006

Explanation • It is also known as Morbilli

2. Costen’s syndrome – Impairment of hearing tinnitus, otalgia, dizziness and headache about the vertex, occiput and behind the ears Burning sensations in the throat, tongue and side of nose 3. Cowden’s syndrome – Autosomal dominant – Facial trichilemmomas – Papillomatous lesions – Oral fibromas

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

204

Explanation • Newer calcium hydroxide liner contains barium lead or zinc which renders the radioopacity • But the older Ca (OH)2 appear radiolucent and resemble recurrent caries or residual caries • Composite, plastic or silicate restoration also may simulate caries.

ORTHODONTICS 103. Ans: A Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 09 104. Ans: C Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 31 105. Ans: C Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 320 Explanation • In 1912, Edward H Angle introduced the pin and tube appliance. 106. Ans: A Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 365 Explanation • Intermittent forces ranging from 12–14 hrs a day to bring about minimum tooth movement but maximum skeletal change. 107. Ans: D

COMEDK 2006

Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 54 Explanation • Bone is formed in just the quantity and shape that will enable it to withstand the physical demands made upon it with the greatest amount of economy of structure. • This is the basis of wolff’s law of transformation of bone. 108. Ans: D Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 208 109. Ans: D Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 341

110. Ans: D Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 44 Explanation • The difference between the amount of space needed for the accommodation of the incisors and the amount of space available for this is called incisal liability. • It is 7 mm in maxillary and 5 mm in mandibular arch 111. Ans: B Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 41 Explanation The physiological spacing invariably seen mesial to the maxillary canines and distal to the mandibular canines are called primate spaces or simian spaces or anthropoid spaces as they are seen commonly in primates 112. Ans: A Ref: Proffit, 4/E, pp. 337, 348 113. Ans: A Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E p. 446 Explanation Cleft lip • Milliard’s rule of 10 – 10 weeks of age – 10 pounds weight – 10 gms of Hb Cleft palate , 12 – 24 months of age 114. Ans: C Ref: Gurkeerat Singh, 1/E, p. 26

PEDODONTICS 115. Ans: D Ref: Mc Donald, 8/E p. 26 116. Ans: A Ref: Mc Donald, 8/E p. 53 117. Ans: B Ref: Mc Donald, 8/E p. 15

205

COMEDK 2006

118. Ans: A

129. Ans: D Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 70

Ref: Mc Donald, 8/E p. 480

Explanation

119. Ans: A Ref: Shoba Tandon, 2/E, p. 227 120. Ans: B Ref: Shoba Tandon, 2/E, p. 69 Explanation • Growth of the brain completes by 10 yrs of age 121. Ans: B Ref: Shoba Tandon, 2/E, p. 267 Explanation • Fluoride continues to enter the enamel surface causing crystals to change from carbonated apatite and hydroxyapatite to fluorapatite and fluorhydroxyapatite (FHAP) crystals • These fluoride rich crystals are less acid soluble than original enamel apatite

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY 122. Ans: D Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 33 123. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 40 124. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 647 Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 753 126. Ans: D Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 659

Method of elimination

Confounding bias Selection bias Interviewer’s bias

By matching By prevention By double blinding

130. Ans: D Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 39 131. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p.11 Explanation • The Father of Indian Dentistry in India is Dr R Ahmed • He started the Dr R Ahmed Dental College at Kolkata in 1926. 132. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 589 Explanation • The recommend age for examination of primary teeth is between 5th and 6th birthday 133. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 800 134. Ans: B Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 455 Explanation • Childhood can be divided into the following age – periods. 1. Infancy – upto 1yr a. Neonatal – first 28 days of life b. Post neonatal period – 28th day to 1 year 2. Preschool age 1 – 4 yrs 3. School age 5 – 14 yrs

127. Ans: C Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 744 128. Ans: C Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 115

PROSTHODONTICS 135. Ans: B Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 572

COMEDK 2006

125. Ans: A

Bias

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

206

136. Ans: A Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 413 137. Ans: B Ref: Mc Cracken’s , 11/E, p. 93 138. Ans: B Ref: Zarb and Bolender, 12/E, p. 16 139. Ans: B Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 325 140. Ans: A & D Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 714 141. Ans: B Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 30

COMEDK 2006

Explanation • Wright’s classification of tongue positions 1. Class I – tongue lies in the floor of mouth with tip forward and slightly over the incisal edges of the mandibular anterior teeth. It is ideal position 2. Class II – tongue is flattened and broadened but the tip is in a normal position 3. Class III – the tongue is retracted and depressed into the floor of the mouth with the tip curled upward, down-ward or assimilated into the body of the tongue • In class II and III cases, the floor of the mouth is too low hence the dentist tends to overextend the denture flange leading to loss of retention. 142. Ans: A Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 323 143. Ans: A/C Ref: Zarb and Bolender, 12/E, p. 198 144. Ans: D Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 291 145. Ans: C Ref: Zarb & Bolender, 12/E, p. 44

PERIODONTICS 146. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 1 147. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 53 Explanation • Junctional epithelium is formed by the confluence of the oral epithelium and the reduced enamel epithelium during tooth eruption • It is attached to tooth surface by internal basal lamina and gingival connective tissue by external basal lamina 148. Ans: D Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 100 149. Ans: A Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 392 Explanation • Zone 1 Bacterial zone: Large mass of bacteria including spirochaetes • Zone 2 Neutrophil rich zone: Leukocytes, predominantly neutrophils with bacteria interspersed between them. • Zone 3 Necrotic zone: Dead cells and many spiroclasts • Zone 4 Spirochetal infiltration zone: Only spirochetes no other bacteria 150. Ans: D Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 462 151. Ans: B Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 508 Explanation • In radiographic findings of LJP, an arc shaped bone loss is seen from the distal surface of 2nd premolar to the mesial surface of 2nd molar. 152. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 527

207

COMEDK 2006

153. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 1195 154. Ans: B Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 991 Explanation • The primary etiologic factor in the development of furcation defects is bacterial plaque and the inflammatory consequence from its long term presence, However the extent of attachment loss required to produce a furcation defect is variable and related to local anatomic facts • For example: Root trunk length, root morphology and local developmental anomalies, e.g. Cervical enamel projections. 155. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 735 156. Ans: B

CONS AND ENDO 159. Ans: A Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, p.787 160. Ans: B Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, p. 246 fig 5 - 4 Explanation • Acid etching transforms the smooth enamel into a very irregular surface and also increases its surface energy. 161. Ans: B Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, p. 197 Explanation • Barium, zinc, boron, zirconium and yttrium ions are used to produce radioopacity in the filler particles. 162. Ans: B Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, pp. 715, Fig. 17–4, 924 163. Ans: B

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 952

Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, p. 859

Explanation • Odontoplasty – Reshaping of teeth • Osteoplasty – Reshaping of bone without removing the tooth • Ostectomy – Includes Removal of tooth supporting bone.

Explanation • A cavosurface angle of > 150° is incorrect because it results in a less defined enamel margin and the marginal cast metal alloy is too thin and week if its angle is less than 30° • If enamel margin is 140° or less, the metal is bulky and difficult to burnish when its angle is >40°

157. Ans: D Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 146 158. Ans: B Explanation • Oral lesions commonly seen in HIV patients – Oral candidiasis – Oral hairy leukoplakia – Kaposi’s sarcoma – Non-Hodgkin’s syndrome – A typical periodontal disease (linear gingival erythema)

Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, p. 491 165. Ans: B Ref: Marzouk, p. 247 Explanation Rapid tooth movement • Wedge method – elliot separation , wood/ plastic wedges • Traction method – non interfering true separator, ferries double bow separator

COMEDK 2006

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 516

164. Ans: C

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

208

Slow tooth movement • Separating wires, elastics • Oversized temporaries • Orthodontic appliances.

Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 291 172. Ans: C Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 732

166. Ans: C Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 232 Explanation Pesoreamers • Made of hardened carbon steel • Cuts laterally • Primarily used for preparation of post space when GP has to be removed from obturated root canal. 167. Ans: D Ref: Cohen, 9/E, p. 323 168. Ans: C Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, p. 164

ORAL SURGERY 169. Ans: B Ref: Malamed LA, 5/E, p. 31 170. Ans: C Ref: Malamed LA, 5 /E, p.12

COMEDK 2006

171. Ans: A

Explanation • Mode of action of LA on nerve membrane can be one of the following ways: – Altering the basic resting potential of the nerve membrane – Altering the threshold potential – Decreasing the rate of depolarization – Prolonging the rate of repolarisation.

173. Ans: D Ref: Peterson, 2/E, p. 17 174. Ans: A Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 619 Explanation • Infection of submassetric space is due to, – Pericoronitis related to vertical and distoangular third molars – Periapical abscess that spreads sub periosteally in a distal direction. 175. Ans: B Ref: Laskin, Vol. 2, p. 42 176. Ans: B Ref: Geoffrey.P. Howe, 2/E, p. 27 177. Ans: D Ref: Killey’s, 4/E, p. 108 178. Ans: A Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 376 Explanation • Nasal fractures should be repaired within 7–10 days 179. Ans: D Ref: Killey’s, 4/E, p. 14 180. Ans: C Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 624

9 COMEDK 2005 6. The anterior triangle occupy the side of the neck in front of sternomastoid muscle. Each triangle present boundaries in front of A. Anterior median line of the neck extending from symphysis menti to supra sternal notch B. The midline of the neck C. Midline of the neck upto the sternoclavicular joint D. Posterior border of thyroid gland

HUMAN ANATOMY 1. Masseter muscle is a powerful muscle because A. Bipennate arrangement of fibres B. Multipennate arrangement of fibres C. It has multiple tendinous septae D. Its attachment to bone is unique 2. Muscles of face are derived from the mesoderm of A. First branchial arch B. Second branchial arch C. Third branchial arch D. Second and third branchial arch

7. Circumvallate papillae are supplied by A. Lingual nerve B. Glossopharyngeal nerve C. Hypoglossal nerve D. Vagus nerve

3. Genioglossus muscle is attached in the posterior surface of symphysis menti in the A. Mental spines B. Superior genial tubercle C. The inferior genial tubercle D. Just above the lower border of mandible

PHYSIOLOGY 8. Renin release is inhibited by A. PGI2 B. Atrial natriuretic peptide C. Epinephrine D. Decreased glomerular filtration

4. Liver is divided into A. 8 Couinaud segments B. 7 Couinaud segments C. 9 Couinaud segments D. 10 Couinaud segments

9. Citrate is a useful anticoagulant because of its ability to A. Buffer basic groups of coagulation factors B. Bind factor XII C. Bind vitamin K D. Chelate calcium

5. Cricothyroid muscle is supplied by A. External laryngeal nerve B. Internal laryngeal nerve C. Recurrent laryngeal nerve D. A direct branch form vagus nerve 209

210

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

10. Ventricular muscle receives impulses directly from the A. Purkinje system B. Bundle of His C. Right and left bundle branches D. AV node 11. After secretion of trypsinogen into the duodenum, the enzyme is converted into its active form Trypsin by A. Enterokinase B. Procarboxypeptidase C. Pancreatic lipase D. Previously secreted trypsin 12. Sensory receptors for pain are A. Pacinian corpuscles B. End organs of Ruffini C. End bulbs of Krause D. Free nerve endings 13. The hemoglobin–oxygen saturation of blood entering the right ventricle is approximately A. 97 percent B. 85 percent C. 75 percent D. 53 percent

COMEDK 2005

14. Function of hepatic kupffer cells is A. Formation of sinusoids B. Vitamin–A storage C. Increases blood perfusion D. Phagocytosis

17. Supporting cells of taste buds are called A. Sustenticular cells B. Taste cells C. Von Ebner cells D. Acini

BIOCHEMISTRY 18. Which one of the following human tissues contains the greatest amount of body glycogen? A. Liver B. Kidney C. Skeletal muscle D. Cardiac muscle 19. The monosaccharide glucose is best described by which one of the following statements? A. It usually exists in the furanose form B. It is a ketose C. It possesses an anomeric C–2 carbon atom D. It forms part of the disaccharide sucrose 20. Which one of the following is a precursor of both gonadal and adrenocortical hormones? A. Progesterone B. Cortisol C. Testosterone D. Corticosterone

15. The normal brown red color of feces results from the presence of A. Heme B. Stercobilin C. Biliverdin D. Bilirubin diglucuronide

21. Which of the following vitamins is bound to gastric intrinsic factor? A. Vitamin K B. Folic acid C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin D

16. All cells do not divide at the same rate. Events in which phase of the cell cycle determine when a cell is going to replicate is A. M phase B. G1 phase C. S phase D. G2 phase

22. Vitamin K is directly involved with which one of the following enzymatic reactions? A. Activation of factor X B. Regulation of blood calcium levels C. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin D. Synthesis of prothrombin

211

COMEDK 2005

23. Aspartate aminotransferase is released A. By viable cells B. After cell necrosis C. Either of the two D. None of the above

GENERAL PATHOLOGY 24. Mast cells A. Posses receptors for complement components B. Can synthesize TNF-α C. Release histamine D. Antigen recognized by IgA 25. Which of the following is not a pigment disorder? A. Vitiligo B. Melasma C. Freckle D. Seborrheic keratosis 26. The most striking haematological finding in agranulocytosis is A. Decreased absolute neutrophil count B. Increased absolute eosinophil count C. Decreased absolute basophil count D. Increased absolute monocyte count 27. “Sago Spleen” is the term used to describe the gross appearance of spleen in A. Hypersplenism B. Amyloidosis C. Chronic myelocytic leukemia D. Chronic malaria 28. Mercury is toxic because it A. Complexes with hemoglobin to form methemoglobin B. Inhibits hemoglobin synthesis C. Inhibits anaerobic glycolysis D. Binds to sulfhydryl groups

30. Lepra cells seen in leprosy are A. Lymphocytes B. Plasma cells C. Vacuolated histocytes D. Neutrophils 31. Virchow’s Lepra cells are seen in A. Tuberculoid leprosy B. Indeterminate leprosy C. Borderline tuberculoid leprosy D. Lepromatous leprosy

MICROBIOLOGY 32. Cold sterilization refer to the process of sterilization by use of A. Ultra violet rays B. Ultrasonic vibrations C. Infrared rays D. Gamma rays 33. Erythroblastosis fetalis can be prevented if the mother is injected at parturition, with an antibody called A. Blocking antibody B. Rh (D) Immunoglobulin C. Antilymphocyte globulin D. Antithymocyte serum 34. A test that can be used for typing of class I histocompatibility antigens is A. Cell mediated lympholysis (CML) B. Donor–recipient mixed lymphocyte response C. Primed lymphocyte typing D. Antibody and complement mediated cytotoxicity 35. Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups? A. Picorna viruses B. Herpes viruses C. Hepadna viruses D. Flavi viruses

COMEDK 2005

29. A cell that contains hemosiderin derived from RBC that have been extravasated into the tissues A. Siderophage B. Melanophage

C. Plasma cell D. Lymphocyte

212

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

PHARMACOLOGY 36. All of the following drugs are components of the MOPP cancer chemotherapy regimen except A. Procarbazine B. Vincristine C. Mechlorethamine D. Methotrexate 37. Granulocytopenia, gastrointestinal irrita-tion, gingival hyperplasia, and facial hirtuism are all possible side effects of which one of the following anticonvulsant drugs? A. Phenobarbital B. Carbamazepine C. Acetazolamide D. Phenytoin sodium 38. Clavulanic acid is given in combination with amoxicillin in order to A. Reduce the risk of allergic reactions B. Prolong amoxicillin’s half – life C. Reduce the severity of diarrhea D. Extend amoxicillin’s antibacterial spectrum 39. The first sensation to be lost following administration of local anesthetic is A. Proprioception B. Pain C. Touch D. Temperature

GENERAL MEDICINE

COMEDK 2005

40. Acromegaly is a disorder of A. Excess growth hormone secretion B. Excess thyroxine secretion C. Excess ACTH secretion D. Excess FSH secretion 41. Occupational disease of lung caused by inhalation of sugar cane dust is called as A. Byssinosis B. Bagassosis C. Anthracosis D. Silicosis

42. The drug of choice for prompt relief of an ongoing attack of angina precipitated by exercise or emotional stress is A. Propranolol B. Verapamil C. Sublingual nitroglycerin D. Sublingual nifedipine 43. Which of the following is associated with cyanotic congenital heart disease? A. Cor triatum B. Tetralogy of fallot C. Mitral stenosis D. Primary pulmonary hypertension 44. Clubbing of the fingers A. Always indicate heart disease B. Is common in cirrhosis of the liver C. Warrants a search for sickle cell disease D. Is seen in pulmonary arteriovenous fistula 45. Platelet count is raised in A. Osteopetrosis B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation C. Haemolytic anaemia D. Thiazide therapy

GENERAL SURGERY 46. Important components of collagen synthesis, wound strength and contraction include all of the following except A. Fibroblasts B. Myofibroblasts C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D 47. Keloid scars A. Usually occur in the Caucasian race B. Often occur in wounds which have healed perfectly without complication C. Surgical treatment as a single modality has the least recurrence D. Radiation should not be administered as it is a non-malignant condition

COMEDK 2005

48. Hypothyroidism should be treated with daily administration of which of the following thyroid hormone preparations? A. Thyroid extract B. Thyroglobulin C. Thyroxine (T4) D. Triiodothyronine (T3)

DENTAL MATERIALS

213

C. Prevent the contamination of the metal and the liner D. All of the above 55. The best pickling solution for gypsum bonded investment is A. Hydrochloric acid B. Nitric acid C. Sulphuric acid D. Phosphoric acid

49. The alloy that possess the characteristic “Superelasticity” is A. Nitinol B. Stainless steel C. Cobalt - Chromium - Nickel D. Gold palladium

56. The setting expansion of gypsum products can be reduced by A. Increased spatulation B. Adding potassium sulfate C. Less water powder ratio D. Allowing setting under water

50. Which lasers can be used to cure composite resins? A. Argon B. Nd : YAG C. Er : YAG D. CO2

57. The cement, which adheres to the tooth is A. Silicates and glass ionomer cement B. Zinc oxide eugenol and glass ionomer cement C. Glass ionomer cement and zinc polycarboxylate D. Glass ionomer cement and silicate cement

51. Back pressure porosity in casting is due to A. High casting pressure B. Low investment permeability C. Small size and improper direction of the sprue D. High mould temperature 52. Type I gypsum product is A. Impression plaster B. Class I stone/hydrocal C. Class II stone/densite D. Model plaster

54. Casting flux is used to A. Prevent the oxidation of the metal during melting B. Increase the melting point of the flux

59. Gases dissolved in molten metals are liberated when cooled giving rise to A. Suckback porosity B. Gas inclusion porosity C. Localized shrinkage porosity D. Microporosity 60. For esthetic areas where high luster is required the restoration used usually A. Glass ionomer restoratives B. Hybrid resin composites C. Microfilled resin composites D. Macrofilled resin composites

COMEDK 2005

53. Frozen slab technique is applicable to A. Zinc phosphate cement B. Glass ionomer cement C. Zinc oxide eugenol cement D. Resin cement

58. Dimensional stability of hydrocolloid impression may be achieved by A. Using less water powder ratio B. Storing the impression under water C. Prolonged manipulation D. Using humidor

214

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

61. The water powder ratio of alginate is A. 100 ml of water of 60 gm of powder B. 40 ml of water to 40 gm of powder C. 40 ml of water to 15 gm of powder D. 15 ml of water to 40 gm of powder 62. Percentage of gold in a high noble gold alloy is A. < 25% B. 25% C. > 40% D. 0%

COMEDK 2005

63. The solid solution of silver and mercury is called A. γ1 B. γ2 C. β D. α

68. The plexus of Rashkov is present in which of the following zones in pulp? A. Cell free zone B. Cell rich zone C. Odontoblastic zone D. Pulp core 69. In which of the following the mucosa is keratinized? A. Hard palate B. Buccal mucosa C. Labial mucosa D. Soft palate 70. Morphological stages of tooth development are explained based on A. Shape of enamel organ B. Shape of tooth germ C. Functions of enamel organ D. Shape of dental papilla

64. The main form of iron carbide in 18/8 stainless steel is A. Martensite B. Austenite C. Ferrite D. Pearlite

71. What line is formed when primary curvatures of dentinal tubules meet? A. Schreger line B. Contour line of Owen C. Von Ebner’s line D. Imbrications lines of Pickerill

65. To make the vinyl polysiloxane hydrophilic the following is added A. A mineral oil B. Surfactant C. Water D. Plasticizer

72. Which of the following is a nonkeratinocyte? A. Langhan’s cell B. Red blood cell C. Langerhan’s cell D. Grey cell

66. What is the pH of calcium hydroxide? A. 7 B. 10 C. 12 D. 14

DADH

73. Glands of Blandin and Nuhn are the A. Palatine glands in the posterolateral region of hard palate B. Anterior lingual glands located near the apex of the tongue C. Labial and buccal glands D. Glossopalatine glands

67. Where do we see ‘actin’ and ‘myosin’? A. Serous cells B. Mucous cells C. Myoepithelial cells D. Demilunes

74. Perikymata are believed to be the external manifestations of A. Incremental lines of Von Ebner B. Incremental lines of Salter C. Incremental lines of Retzius D. Reversal lines

COMEDK 2005

215

75. A new tooth is erupting in the mouth of one and a half years old child. This tooth is most likely to be a deciduous A. Maxillary central incisor B. Mandibular lateral incisor C. Maxillary lateral incisor D. Maxillary canine

81. The tissue of which lesion has been described as resembling a “blood soaked sponge with large pores” A. Cavernous haemangioma B. Capillary haemangioma C. Aneurysmal bone cyst D. Eruption haematoma

76. The eruption age of maxillary permanent lateral incisor is A. 8–9 years B. 6–7 years C. 10–11 years D. 8–9 months

82. The periapical lesion that would most likely contain bacteria within the lesion is A. Periapical abscess B. Periapical cyst C. Periapical granuloma D. Condensing osteitis

77. The number of point angles in a permanent mandibular first molar is A. Six B. Eight C. Four D. Ten

83. Dentinal union of two embryological developing teeth is referred as A. Gemination B. Twinning C. Concrescence D. Fusion

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE 78. One of the following is an autosomal recessive disorder A. Neurofibromatosis B. Hemophilia C. Thalassemia D. Polyposis of the colon 79. Among pre-malignant oral lesions A. Leukoplakia should be proved by biopsy B. Leukoplakia does not disappear even after cessation of smoking C. Erythroplakia has a higher risk for malignancy than leukoplakia D. Oral submucous fibrosis is seen in all parts of the world

85. Psoralane Ultra Violet A (PUVA) therapy is advised in A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. Aphthous ulcers C. Carcinoma in situ D. ANUG 86. Dentigerous cyst is associated with the following A. Impacted 3rd molar B. Impacted supernumerary tooth C. Odontome D. All of the above 87. Treacher Collins syndrome is A. Maxillofacial dysostosis B. Mandibulofacial dysostosis C. Maxillomandibulofacial dysosotosis D. Condylar dyostosis

COMEDK 2005

80. BOHN’s nodules are A. Cystic swellings in neonates B. Cysts associated with soft palate C. Cysts of gingiva in growing children D. Warts on tongue

84. Which of the following is Not True about Primary HSV infections? A. Primarily affects the anterior portion of the mouth B. Causes acute gingivitis C. Occurs as epidemic D. Shows prodromal symptoms

216

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

88. Port Wine Stain is characterstic feature of A. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome B. Sturge-Weber syndrome C. Albright’s Syndrome D. Lymphangioma

95. Loss of tooth surface because of chemomechanical action A. Abrasion B. Erosion C. Abfraction D. Attrition

89. Common cariogenic bacteria are A. Streptococcus sanguis B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptococcus mutans D. Streptococcus salivarius

96. Chocolate-coloured fluid is seen in the cystic space of A. Dentigerous cyst B. Odontogenic keratocyst C. Unicystic ameloblastoma D. Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum

90. Which histopathological type of odontogenic keratocyst is common, more aggressive, and has greater tendency for recurrence A. Orthokeratinised B. Parakeratinised C. Non-keratinized D. All of the above 91. Multinucleated giant cell and perivascular cuffing are features seen in A. Giant cell granuloma B. Cherubism C. Tuberculosis D. Giant cell tumor

COMEDK 2005

92. Early invading bacteria in carious lesions are called A. Microcosm B. Pioneer bacteria C. Advancing bacteria D. Anaerobic bacteria

97. Of the following conditions, the one, which is not considered to be premalignant, is A. Syphilitic glossitis B. Erosive lichen planus C. Leukedema D. Leukoplakia 98. Rushton bodies are seen commonly in A. Mucocele B. Radicular cyst C. Lichen planus D. Lupus erythematosus 99. Break Up Time (BUT) Test is done in A. Sjogren’s syndrome B. Multiple sclerosis C. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus D. Myoepithelial cells

93. Herpangina is caused by A. Herpes simplex virus B. Coxsackie virus C. Measles virus D. Varicella zoster virus

100. The commonest intraosseous salivary gland neoplasm is A. Pleomorphic adenoma B. Monomorphic adenoma C. Acinic cell carcinoma D. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

94. “Xerostomia” is seen in all of the following except in A. Anticholinergic drugs B. Dehydration C. SjÖgren’s syndrome D. Oral sepsis

101. ‘Lock jaw’ indicates A. Ankylosis B. Spasm of masseter muscle C. Inflammatory trismus D. Fracture of condyle

217

COMEDK 2005

102. Blood borne seeding of bacteria into an area of previously damaged or irritated pulp with a resultant inflammation is known as A. Bacterial endocarditis B. Anachoretic pulpitis C. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis D. Ulcerative pulpitis 103. Albers-Schönberg disease is A. Osteomyelitis B. Osteopetrosis C. Osteoporosis D. Osteomalacia 104. The cells which give the starry sky appearance in Burkitt’s lymphoma are A. Lymphocytes B. Plasma cells C. Macrophages D. Eosinophils 105. Sequestrum means A. Is necrosed bone, separated from its surrounding B. Is a broken tooth piece C. Is a new bone formed in osteomyelitis D. Is necrosed tooth

108. Inventor of orthopantomographic machine is A. Hounsfield B. Roentgen C. Kell D. Numata 109. A suspected condylar neck fracture can be best visualized radiogrpahically using the A. Water’s projection B. Reverse Towne’s projection C. Submentovertex projection D. Lateral cephalometric projection 110. What is the function of the lead foil in the film packet? A. Moisture protection B. To give the rigidity C. Absorb the backscatter radiation D. Protection against fluorescence 111. Water’s projection is useful for evaluating A. Frontal and ethmoidal sinuses B. Maxillary sinuses C. Zygomatico frontal suture and nasal cavity D. All of the above

ORTHODONTICS

106. Pain of acute pulpitis is severe because A. Pulp is bounded by rigid dentine B. Pulp has only free nerve ending C. Pulp is a very vascular tissue D. Pulp is richly innervated

112. Incisal liability on an average in the maxillary arch is A. 3 mm B. 6 mm C. 4 mm D. 7.5 mm

ORAL RADIOLOGY

113. The functional matrix theory was put forward by A. Melvin moss B. Sicher C. Scott D. Wolfe 114. When length of a spring is doubled, the force exerted by the spring A. Decreases by 8 times B. Increases by 8 times C. Decreases by 16 hours D. Increases by 16 hours

COMEDK 2005

107. Screen films differ from non-screen films by that A. They are more sensitive to light than X-rays B. They are more sensitive to X-ray than light C. They are usually used in intra oral radiography D. They do not need intensifying screens

218

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

115. The center of rotation for bodily movement of tooth is located A. Apical one third of root B. At infinity C. Apical two – thirds D. Middle one – third of root 116. Leeway space of Nance is utilized in A. Early mesial shift of first permanent molars B. Incisal liability C. Late mesial shift of first permanent molars D. Secondary spacing of first permanent molars 117. Ribbon arch appliance was introduced by A. Kinsley B. Merry Field C. Edward H. Angle D. Ketcham 118. According to American Board of Orthodontics recommendation for colour coding of sequential tracing, post treatment ceph tracing is done in A. Black B. Blue C. Red D. Green

COMEDK 2005

119. Functional Cranial Component Concept was developed by A. Melvin Moss B. Scott C. Van der Klaaus D. Van Limborgh 120. When ‘light orthodontic forces’ are applied resorption will be A. Facial B. Lingual C. Direct D. Undermining 121. The tooth movement most readily accomplished with removable appliance is A. Tipping B. Bodily movement

C. Root movement D. Torque

PEDODONTICS 122. Prolonged thumb sucking directly results in all of the following EXCEPT A. Deep over bite B. Proclination of upper centrals C. Anterior open bite D. Constriction of maxilla 123. According to Stanford–Binet test, nontrainable type of mental retardation has an IQ of A. Below 20 B. Between 36–51 C. Above 51 D. Between 90–130 124. Tell show do was a concept put forth by A. Jordan B. Sigmund Freud C. Addleston D. Erikson 125. An hour old Ellis class III injury to 21 in a 9-year-old boy is treated with A. Pulpectomy B. Apexification C. Direct pulp capping D. Pulpotomy 126. Formacresol saturated cotton pellet is placed over the amputated pulp stump for A. 1 minute B. 2 minutes C. 4 minutes D. 5 minutes 127. Treatment for Ellis class III fracture of anterior tooth in a 12-year-old patient reported after 72 hours A. Pulpotomy B. Root canal treatment C. Direct pulp capping D. Indirect pulp capping

COMEDK 2005

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY 128. Role of zinc chloride 2% in tooth paste is to A. Reduces plaque B. Reduces caries C. Reduces calculus D. Is of no use 129. The WHO recommended age groups for oral health surveys are A. 5, 12, 15, 25 and 55–64 years B. 12, 15, 35–44 and 65–74 years C. 6, 12, 16, 35–45 and 65–75 years D. 5, 12, 15, 35–44 and 65–74 years 130. Recommended for mouth rinsing is A. Stannous fluoride B. Acidulated phosphate fluoride C. Neutral sodium fluoride D. Ammonium fluoride

219

135. “Potable Water” is one which A. Is safe for drinking B. Can be carried from one place to another C. Found within 5 meters within the surface of earth D. None of the above 136. Topical preparation of Acidulated Phosphate Fluoride (APF) A. 2% of F ion B. 1.25% of F ion C. 1.32% of F ion D. 1.23% of F ion 137. Active artifical immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following except A. Bacterial products B. Toxoids C. Vaccines D. Antitoxins

131. Colombo plan is a plan of A. UNO B. World Bank C. Common wealth countries D. Government of Ceylon

138. The number of people in a group receiving lecture should not be more than A. 60 B. 50 C. 40 D. 30

132. Rich natural source of fluoride is A. Milk B. Butter C. Tea leaves D. Cold drinks

139. The index used to record plaque score is A. Loe and silness B. Silness and Loe C. Green and vermillion D. Russell’s index

133. The easiest and the natural method of brushing technique recommended for preschool and young children A. Vertical roll method B. Bass method C. Modified Stillman’s technique D. Circular scrub technique

141. The “Dentists Act of India” was introduced in A. 1947 B. 1948 C. 1952 D. 1956

COMEDK 2005

134. Defluoridation of water can be done by A. Lime and alum, bleaching powder B. Sodium chloride C. Potassium permanganate D. Bleaching powder

140. Tasks that involve exposure to blood, body fluids or tissues are classified by OSHA regulations under category A. I B. II C. III D. IV

220

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

142. The fluoride compound most commonly used in fluoride dentifrices is A. Sodium fluoride B. Stannous fluoride C. Sodium monofluorophosphate D. Calcium fluoride 143. Presence of ammonia in the saliva will A. Increase plaque formation B. Increase calculus formation C. Decrease plaque formation D. None of the above

PROSTHODONTICS 144. Artifical porcelain teeth are attached to the resin base by A. Cementation B. Mechanical retention C. Chemical bonding D. Resin bonding agents 145. Type of finish line on the facial aspect of a metal ceramic crown A. Shoulder B. Shoulder with bevel C. Chamfer D. Knife edge 146. The tooth most likely to cause lateral balancing interferences in an anterior Guidance occlusal scheme is A. First molar B. Canine C. Second molar D. Premolars

COMEDK 2005

147. ‘Lost Salt Technique’ is used to fabricate A. Maryland bridge B. Rochette bridge C. Cantilever bridge D. Virginia bridge 148. Minor connector for the mandibular distal extension base should extend A. Half the length of edentulous ridge B. Two thirds the length of edentulous ridge C. Full length of edentulous ridge D. None of the above

149. Mandibular complete denture should cover retromolar pad because A. More surface area gives better retention B. Provides border seal C. Resists movement of denture base D. All of the above 150. Combination clasp consists of A. Wrought wire reciprocal arm and cast retentive arm B. Wrought retentive arm and cast reciprocal arm C. Wrought reciprocal and wrought retentive arm D. Cast retentive and cast reciprocal arm 151. The principal disadvantage of metal denture base is A. Increase in weight B. Acrylic resin does not provide bonding C. Injure the soft tissues D. It is difficult to reline 152. Mandibular major connector used in class I situation where residual ridges have undergone vertical resorption is A. Lingual bar B. Lingual plate C. Kennedy’s bar D. Labial bar

PERIODONTICS 153. Which of the following structures is Keratinized? A. Attached gingiva B. Sulcular epithelium C. Col D. Junctional epithelium 154. A split thickness flap is indicated when A. Osseous craters are present B. Fenestrations and dehiscence are suspected C. Buttressing bone formation is present D. Three walled osseous defects are encountered

221

COMEDK 2005

155. The internal bevel incision of a periodontal flap A. Is directed to the base of the pocket B. Removes the keratinized tissue completely C. Is a vertical incision D. Removes the lining of the pocket wall 156. Bioactive glass is a A. Isograft B. Xenograft C. Allograft D. Alloplast

C. Cellular mixed stratified cementum D. Cellular intrinsic fiber cementum

CONS AND ENDO 162. One of the following is the best way to prevent pulp damage during cavity preparation A. Retain smear layer B. Use sharp burs with brush stroke C. Use surface anesthesia D. Use adequate water coolant

157. Which of the following procedure is a sequential step of osseous resection technique? A. Hemisection B. Root resection C. Radicular blending D. Tunneling

163. Pain in cracked tooth syndrome is A. Continuous in nature B. Increases on lying down posture C. Elicited mainly when pressure is applied D. Elicited mainly when applied pressure is relieved

158. A dental hand instrument used with a ‘push’ motion is A. Hoe B. Chisel C. Curette D. Sickle scaler

164. Hedstroem files are used mainly to A. Flaring of root canal walls B. Remove lingual shoulder C. Prepare canal for post preparation D. All of the above

159. Internal bevel gingivectomy is A. Apically displaced flap B. Distal molar surgery C. Widman flap D. Undisplaced flap

165. The primary gutta percha cone must fill the canal wall tightly in the A. Apical third B. Middle third C. Cervical third D. Entire canal

161. Cementum found on the cervical third of the root A. Acellular afibrillar cementum B. Acellular extrinsic fiber cementum

166. The amount of root tip to be resected in apicoectomy is approximately A. 1 mm B. 3 mm C. 8 mm D. 10 mm 167. The flutes of McSpadden Compactor are similar to A. Lentulo spiral fillers B. Engine driven reamers C. Flutes of Hedstroem file in reverse D. K – Flex file

COMEDK 2005

160. Angulation refers to A. Angle between the face of the blade and the shank B. Angle between the shank and the shaft C. Angle between the face of the blade and the tooth surface D. Angle between the shank and the tooth surface

222

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

168. When a tooth preparation is completed for a crown, occlusal clearance can be best checked by A. Visual examination B. Using wax bite C. Impression compound D. Articulating paper

ORAL SURGERY 169. Diplopia most commonly results from entrapments of A. Inferior oblique B. Inferior rectus C. Superior oblique D. Superior rectus 170. In removal of submandibular gland, which of the following nerves are most likely to be damaged A. Facial and glossopharyngeal B. Lingual and hypoglossal C. Lingual and glossophryngeal D. Hypoglossal and glossopharyngeal 171. Which of the following drugs is not effective in case of Trigeminal Neuralgia? A. Carbamazepine B. Acetaminophen C. Phenytoin sodium D. Baclofen

COMEDK 2005

172. Commonly used suture material for closure of intraoral wound is A. Nylon B. Silk C. Catgut D. Chromic catgut 173. Treatment of choice of linear non – displaced fracture of the body of the mandible, with full compliment of teeth is A. Kirschner wire B. Circumferential wiring C. External pin fixation D. Supervised spontaneous healing

174. The principal problem with tuberosity reduction is A. Poor access B. Formation of oro– antral fistula C. Infection D. Damage to posterior superior alveolar nerve 175. Maximum allowable dose of 2% lidocaine with 1:100000 epinephrine for a child of 40 lbs is A. 60 mg B. 120 mg C. 180 mg D. 240 mg 176. Guerin type of fracture is same as the fracture A. LeFort I B. LeFort II C. LeFort III D. Zygomatic complex 177. The treatment of choice in a 7-year old with fracture mandible is A. Gunning splint B. Open cap splint C. Internal fixation D. None 178. For extra oral maxillary nerve block the target area is A. Anterior to lateral pterygoid plate B. Posterior to lateral pterygoid plate C. Pterygomandibular fossa D. Pterygomandibular fissure 179. In Ludwig’s Angina A. General anaesthesia is preferred B. Local anaesthesia is safer C. Airway is not an important factor D. Always treated conservatively 180. Level III neck nodes are A. In the sub-mental triangle B. In the posterior triangle C. In the midline from thyroid to supra-sternal notch D. Around the middle 1/3rd of internal jugular vein

223

COMEDK 2005

HUMAN ANATOMY 1. Ans: B Ref: Sicher and DuBrul’s Oral Anatomy, 8/E, p. 90 Explanation • Strap like - Sternohyoid • Fusiform (bellied) - Digastric • Fan like - Temporalis • Bipennate - Temporalis • Multipennate - Masseter • Sphincter (circular) - Orbicularis oris and Orbicularis oculi. 2. Ans: B Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 170 3. Ans: B Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 153

PHYSIOLOGY 8. Ans: B Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 411 Explanation • Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is released by the cardiac atrial muscles fibres 9. Ans: D Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 115 10. Ans: A Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 119 11. Ans: A Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 216 12. Ans: D Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 598 Explanation Senses

Receptor

Touch

Meissner’s corpuscle Merkel’s disc Pacinian corpuscles Ruffinis Free nerve endings

4. Ans: A Ref: Gray’s Anatomy, 38/E, p. 1798 Explanation • The internal architecture of lines is divided into 8 segments called Couinaud’s Segments • Segments I, II, III, IV - left lobe • Segments V, VI, VII, VIII - right lobe 5. Ans: A Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 345

Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 231 7. Ans: B Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 273

13. Ans: C Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 506 14. Ans: D Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 223 Explanation Brown color feces occurs from stercobilin, urobilin and derivatives of bilirubin. 15. Ans: B Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 817 16. Ans: B Ref: Mahapatra, 2/E, p. 21

COMEDK 2005

6. Ans: A

Pressure Temperature–cold/warm Pain/noci receptor

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

224

17. Ans: A

22. Ans: A

Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 920

Ref: U. Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 130

BIOCHEMISTRY 18. Ans: A Ref: U. Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 21

&

U

Explanation • Glycogen is present in high concentration in liver followed by muscle, brain, etc. 19. Ans: D Ref: U. Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 13, 14

&

U

Explanation Glucose • Usually exists in pyranose form • It is an aldose • It possesses an anomeric C1 carbon atom • Sucrose–glucose and fructose. 20. Ans: A Ref: U. Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 443 Explanation Cholesterol ↓ Pregnenolone ↓ Progesterone ↓ Cortisol Testosterone

&

U

U

Explanation • Vitamin K brings about the post transla-tional modification of certain blood clotting factors II, VII, IX, X. • Vit K acts as coenzymes for the carboxylation of glutamine acid residues present in protein. 23. Ans: B Ref: U. Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 455

&

U

Explanation • The activity of AST is low in normal serum • Serum AST is increased in liver damage.

GENERAL PATHOLOGY 24. Ans: B Ref: Robbin’s Pathologic Basis of Disease, 7/E, p. 209 Explanation • Mast cells produce cytokines–TNF, IL 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 • Mast cells derived TNF and chemokines are important mediators for inflammation. 25. Ans: D Ref: Robbin’s Pathologic Basis of Disease, 7/E, p. 1175

Aldosterone Estradiol

21. Ans: C Ref: U. Sathyanarayana Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 154 COMEDK 2005

&

&

U

Explanation • Intrinsic factor forms a dimer, binds strongly with 1 or 2 moles of vitamin B12. This binding protects vitamin B12 against it uptake and use by bacteria.

Explanation • Serborrheic keratosis is an epidermal tumour • They appear as round, flat, coin like with a waxy “stuck on” appearance. 26. Ans: A Ref: Robbin’s Pathologic Basis of Disease, 7/E, p. 662 Explanation • Agranulocytosis is a marked reduction in neutrophil count

225

COMEDK 2005

27. Ans: B Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 60 Explanation • Sago spleen–cut surface shows pale translucent waxy nodule resembling sago grains • Lardaceous spleen–cut surface shows map like areas of amyloid. 28. Ans: D Ref: Robbin’s Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9/E, p. 17 Explanation • Mercury bind to sulfhydryl groups of various cell membrane proteins causing inhibition of ATPase dependant transport and increased membrane permeability. 29. Ans: A Ref: Robbin’s Pathologic Basis of Disease, 7/E, p. 562 30. Ans: C Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 129 Explanation • In lepromatous leprosy, there is proliferation of macrophages with foaming change in the dermis called lepra cells or Virchows cells • They are heavily laden with acid fast bacilli, demonstrated with AFB staining. • These are seen as vacuolated histocytes. 31. Ans: D Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 129

MICROBIOLOGY 32. Ans: D

Explanation • Because there is no appreciable increase in temperature in this method.

Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 190 34. Ans: D Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 134 35. Ans: D Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 545 Explanation • HAV-picorna, RNA • HBV-Hepadna, DNA • HCV-Flavi, RNA • HDV-Delta, defective RNA • HEV-RNA herpes virus

PHARMACOLOGY 36. Ans: D Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 831 Explanation • MOPP–Mechlorethamine, vincristine (Oncovin), procarbazine, prednisolone. 37. Ans: D Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 404 38. Ans: D Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 702 Explanation • Clavulanic acid is a β-lactamase inhibitor. • Therefore β-lactamase producing bacteria which are not responsive to amoxicillin alone, are inhibited by the combination. 39. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripati, 6/E, p. 354 Explanation • Order of blockade: Pain > Temperature > Touch > Deep Pressure sense

COMEDK 2005

Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 35

33. Ans: B

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

226

GENERAL MEDICINE 40. Ans: A Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 801 41. Ans: B Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 687 Explanation • Coal dust - Anthracosis • Silica - Silicosis • Asbestos - Asbestosis • Iron - Siderosis • Cane fibre - Bagassosis • Cotton dust - Byssinosis • Tobacco - Tobaccosis • Hay/grain dust - Farmer’s lung. 42. Ans: C Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 585 43. Ans: B Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 635 44. Ans: B Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 955 45. Ans: C Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 1017

GENERAL SURGERY 46. Ans: D Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 6 47. Ans: B

COMEDK 2005

Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 123 Explanation • Negroes are commonly affected • Surgical treatment (excision and resuturing) is often followed by recurrence. • Deep X-ray therapy and ultrasonic therapy has been tried with success.

48. Ans: C Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 670 Explanation • Treatment should begin with L thyroxine 0.5 mg daily • Maintenance dose–1.5 mg daily or L - triiodothyronine–0.75 mg daily.

DENTAL MATERIALS 49. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 647 50. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 412 Explanation • Argon Laser lamps currently available emit 490 nm four types of lamps may be used for photoinitiation of polymerization process. 1. LED lamps 2. QTH lamps 3. PAC lamps 4. Argon laser lamps. 51. Ans: B Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 346 52. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 273 Explanation • Ref to Table 2.1 53. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 463 Explanation • The reaction between ZnPO4 powder and liquid is exothermal cooling the slab markedly retards the chemical reaction between the powder and liquid there by retarding formation of matrix. Thus permitting incorporation of optimum amount of powder.

227

COMEDK 2005 Table 2.1: Typical properties of the five types of Gypsum Products

2 – Hr Setting Expansion (%)

1 – Hr Compressive Strength

Type

W/P ratio

Setting time (min)

Min

Max

(MPa)

psi

Plaster impression Plaster model Dental stone Dental stone, high strength Dental stone, high strength high expansion

0.40 0.45 0.28 0.22 0.18

4±1 12 ± 4 12 ± 4 12 ± 4 12 ± 4

0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.10

0.15 0.30 0.20 0.10 0.30

4.0 3.0 20.7 34.5 48.3

580 1300 3000 5000 7000

– – – – –

0.75 0.50 0.30 0.30 0.22

54. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 564 Explanation • Casting flux is a compound applied to metal surfaces that dissolve or prevent the formation of oxides and other undesirable substances that may reduce the quality of strength of a soldered and brazed area. 55. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 336 Explanation • 50% HCl aids in removal of any residual investment as well as of the oxide coating. 56. Ans: B Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 268

• If pouring of impression must be delayed, it should be rinsed in tap water, disinfected, wrapped in a surgical paper towel, saturated with water and placed in a sealed plastic bag or a humidor. 59. Ans: B Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 344 Explanation • Both pinhole and gas inclusion porosities are related to the entrapment of gas during solidification. The gas inclusion porosities are usually much larger than pinhole porosity. 60. Ans: C Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 418 Explanation • Ref Table 2.2

57. Ans: C Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 466, 471 58. Ans: D Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 247

Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 241 Explanation • If approximately 16 g of powder with 38 ml of water is used, gelation will occur in 3–4 min. 62. Ans: C Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 570

COMEDK 2005

Explanation • 100% relative humidity is the best storage environment to preserve the normal water content of the impression

61. Ans: C

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

228

Table 2.2: Properties of Composites

Characteristic/Property

Unfilled acrylic

Traditional Hybrid Hybrid (small – (all – particle) purpose)

Packable hybrid

Enamel

Dentin

Size (µm)

–

8–12

0.5–3

0.4–1.0

0.04–0.4

Inorganic filler (vol %)

0

60–70

65–77

60–65

20–59

0.6–1.0

Fibrous

–

–

30–55

48–67

–

Inorganic filler (wt %)

0

70–80

80–90

75–80

35–67

–

40–60

65–81

–

Compressive strength (MPa)

70

250–300

350–400 300–350

–

250–350

–

–

384

297

Tensile strength (MPa)

24

50–65

75–90

Elastic modulus (GPa)

2.4

8–15

15–20

40–50

30–50

–

40–45

10

52

11–15

3–6

4–8

3–13

84

Thermal expansion coefficient (ppm/°C)

92.8

25–35

18

19–26

30–40

50–60

–

–

–

–

Flowable hybrid

–

Water sorption (mg/cm 2)

1.7

0.5–0.7

0.5–0.6

0.5–0.7

1.4–1.7

–

–

–

Knoop hardness (KHN)

15

55

50–60

50–60

25–35

–

–

350–430 68

Curing shrinkage (~01%)

8–10

–

2–3

2–3

2–3

3–5

2–3

–

–

Radiopacity

0.1

2–3

2–3

2–4

0.5–2

1–4

2–3

2

1

Explanation Alloy Classification of the ADA (1984) Alloy type

Total Noble Metal Content

Must contain ≥40 wt% Au and ≥60 wt% of noble metal elements (Au, Pt, Pd, Rh, Ru, Ir, Os) Noble (N) Must contain ≥25 wt% Au and ≥60 wt% of noble metal elements (Au, Pt, Pd, Rh, Ru, Ir, Os) Predominantly Base Contain < 25 wt% of noble Metal (PB) metal elements High Noble (HN)

63. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 499 Explanation Symbols and Stoichiometry of Phases that are involved in the Setting of Dental Amalgams Phases

COMEDK 2005

Microfilled

γ γ1 γ2 ε η Silver-copper eutectic

Stoichiometric formula Ag 3Sn Ag 2 Hg 3 Sn 7–8 Hg Cu 3 Sn Cu 6 Sn 5 AgCu

64. Ans: B Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 638

65. Ans: B Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 215 Explanation • One of the disadvantages of the silicone impression materials is their inherent hydrophobic nature • Any distortion or loss of detail at the margins of the impression is probably caused by undetected moisture present in the area • A non ionic surfactant is added to the paste to render the surface of the impression hydrophillic • This surfactant migrates toward the surface allowing the impression material to wet tissue and enchance the ability of gypsum to capture maximum detail. 66. Ans: C Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 459

DADH 67. Ans: C Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 263 Explanation • Myoepithelial cells have a contractile function and help in expelling secretions

229

COMEDK 2005

• They are also known as basket cells • These cells contain cytokeratin intermediate filament and contractile actin filaments • Structure of ME cells in similar to that of smooth muscles. 68. Ans: A Ref: Tencate, 7/E, p. 230 69. Ans: A Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 227 Explanation Keratinized mucosa

Non Keratinized mucosa

Masticatory mucosa Gingiva Hard palate Vermillion border of lip

Lining mucosa Lip CheekVestibular fornix Alveolar of the mouth Soft palate Floor of the mouth

70. Ans: A Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 24 Explanation • The developmental stages of tooth are named after the shape of the enamel organ (epithelial part of the tooth germ) as, a. Bud stage b. Cap stage c. Bell stage

Labial and buccal glands

Mixed consisting of mucous tubules with serous demilunes Pure mucous glands Pure mucous glands

Glossopalatine glands Palatine glands Lingual glands: Anterior (glands of Located near apex of Blandin and Nuhn) tongue, chiefly mucous Posterior lingual glands Located lateral and posterior to vallate papillae and in association to lingual tonsil and mucous Serous (von Ebner’s Located between the glands) muscle fibres of the tongue below the vallate papillae

74. Ans: C Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 52 Explanation • Perikymata are transverse, wave like grooves believed to be the external manifestations of the striae of retzius. 75. Ans: D Ref: Wheeler’s, 8/E, p. 32 Explanation Ref to Table 2.3 76. Ans: A Ref: Wheeler’s, 8/E, p. 45

71. Ans: A Ref: Berkovitz, 3/E, p. 137

77. Ans: C Ref: Wheeler’s, 8/E, p. 14

72. Ans: C Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 221 73. Ans: B Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 271 Explanation Nature of Secretion

Parotid Submandibular

Serous Mixed predominantly serous Mixed, predominantly mucous

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE 78. Ans: C Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 573 Explanation • But according to references, a. Neurofibromatosis–autosomal dominant b. Thalassemia–autosomal dominant

COMEDK 2005

Major Salivary Glands

Sublingual

Minor Salivary Glands Nature of Secretion

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

230

Table 2.3: Chronology of Primary Teeth

82. Ans: A Ref: Neville, 3/E, p. 138

Primary Maxillary Teeth Tooth First evidence Crown Eruption Root of calcification completed (mean age comple(weeks in utero) (months) in months) ted (yrs)

83. Ans: D

CI LI C FM SM

84. Ans: C

14 16 17 15 19

1½ 2½ 9 6 11

10 11 19 16 29

1½ 2 3¼ 2½ 3

14 16 17 15½ 18

2½ 3 9 5½ 10

8 13 20 16 27

Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 336 85. Ans: A Ref: Burket, 10/E, p. 70 86. Ans: D

Primary Mandibular Teeth Tooth First evidence Crown Eruption Root of calcification completed (mean age comple(weeks in utero) (months) in months) ted (yrs)

CI LI C FM SM

Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 39

1½ 1½ 3¼ 2½ 3

c. Polyposis of colon–autosomal dominant d. Haemophilia–sex linked recessive. 79. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 93 Explanation • In contrast to leukoplakia, erythroplakia is almost always associated with premalignant changes histologically. 80. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 66

Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 255 Explanation • Dentigerous cyst is always associated initially with the crown of impacted, embedded or unerupted tooth. 87. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 716 Explanation • Mandibulofacial Dysostosis, or treacher Collins franschetti syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder. 88. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 140 Explanation • Haemangiomas are associated with the following syndrome Syndrome Inheritance Rendu-Osler- Autosomal Weber dominant syndrome

81. Ans: C

COMEDK 2005

Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 136 Explanation • Pathogenesis of aneurysmal bone cyst suggest that it arises as a result of a persistent local alteration in haemodynamics leading to increased venous pressure and subsequent development of a dilated and engorged vascular bed in the transformed bone area.

Clinical Features Multiple telangiectasias, Occasional GIT and CNS involment

Sturge-Weber- Non inherited Portwine stain, Dimitri Non familial Leptomeningeal syndrome angiomas KasabachMerritt syndrome

Thrombocytopenic pupura, Hemangioma Consumptive coagulopathy, Microangiopathic haemolysis, Intralesional fibrinolysis

231

COMEDK 2005

94. Ans: D

89. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 415

Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 36

Explanation

Explanation

Type of Caries

Most Common Microorganisms

Pit and fissure Smooth surface Root surface Deep dentinal caries

S. mutans S. mutans A. Viscosus Lactobacilli

Temporary Causes

Permanent Causes

Psychological–anxiety and depression Duct calculi Sialadenitis

Salivary gland aplasia

90. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 260 Explanation • Histologically OKC is formed with a stratified squamous epithelium with; – Orthokeratinised (10%) – Parakeratinised (83%) – Both types of keratin (7%) 91. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 713 Explanation • Histological examination of cherubism usually reveals numerous multinucleated giant cells which show strong positivity for tartarate– resistant acid phosphatase, characteristic of osteoclasts. • Numerous small vessels are present and the capillaries exhibit endothelial cells and perivascular cuffing. The eosinophillic cuffing appears to be specific to cherubism. 92. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 450 93. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 339

Radiotherapy Surgical desalivation

95. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 571 96. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 226 Explanation Lesion

Fluid

Dentigerous cyst OKC

Thin watery yellow fluid Thin straw coloured fluid or thick creamy material Chocolate coloured fluid

Warthin’s tumour/ Papillary Cystadenoma Lymphomatosum

97. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 92, 93 Explanation Precancerous Lesions

Precancerous Conditions

Leukoplakia Erythroplakia Palatal lesion associated with reverse smoking Verrucous hyperplasia

Oral submucous fibrosis Sideropenic anaemia Erosive lichen planus

Carcinoma in situ

Discoid lupus erythematous Dyskeratosis congenita

COMEDK 2005

Explanation • Coxsackie group A virus: Herpangina • Coxsackie virus A10: Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis • Coxsackie virus A16: Hand, foot and mouth disease

Drug therapy–anticholinergic and sympatho mimetic drug Zyban used in cessation of smoking

Sjogren’s syndrome Systemic diseases like Diabetes mellitus, Parkinsons disease, Cystic fibrosis and Sarcoidosis Vitamin deficiencies

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

232

98. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 269 Explanation • Rushton bodies/hyaline bodies are tiny linear or arc shaped bodies generally associated with the lining epithelium • It is also found in Dentigerous cyst. 99. Ans: A Ref: Burket, 9/E, p. 426 100. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 233 Explanation • Intraosseus mucoepidermoid carcinoma may originate within the jaws • This tumour type is known as central mucoepidermoid carcinoma – It is thought to form by the malignant transformation of the epithelial lining of odontogenic cyst – The tumour presents as an aymptomatic radiolucent lesion and is histologically of low grade malignancy – The mandible is 3 times more commonly affected than maxilla. 101. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 322 102. Ans: B

COMEDK 2005

Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 474 Explanation • Bacteria circulating in the blood stream tend to settle out or accumulate at sites of pulpal inflammation, such as that which might follow some chemical or mechanical injury to the pulp and is known as “anachoretic pulpitis. One probable cause of this phenomenon is increased capillary permeability in the particular area. 103. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 699

Explanation • Osteopetrosis is also known as Marble bone disease, Albers schonberg disease or Osteosclerosis fragilis generalisata. 104. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 181 Explanation • A characteristic starry sky appearance is imparted by scattered macrophages with an abundant clear cytoplasm. 105. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 493 106. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 476

ORAL RADIOLOGY 107. Ans: A Ref: White and Pharoah, 6/E, p. 56 Explanation • For extraoral radiography, screen film with intensifying screens • Screen film is sensitive to visible light • The intensifying screens absorb X-rays and emit visible light which exposes the screen film. 108. Ans: D Ref: White and Pharoah, 6/E, p. 175 Explanation • Paatero and Numata working independently were the first to describe the principles of panoramic radiography. 109. Ans: B Ref: White and Pharoah, 6/E, p. 205 110. Ans: C Ref: White and Pharoah, 6/E, p. 54

233

COMEDK 2005

Explanation • Lead foil – Shields the film from backscatter radiation – Reduces patient exposure. 111. Ans: D Ref: White and Pharoah, 6/E, p. 203

ORTHODONTICS 112. Ans: D Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 44 113. Ans: A Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 17 114. Ans: A Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 290 • F = D 4/L 3, Where, F = force, D = Diameter of wire L = length of wire 115. Ans: B Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 199 Explanation

• Late shift–when the deciduous second molars exfoliate the permanent first molars drift mesially utilizing the Leeway space. • This occurs in late mixed dentition period. 117. Ans: C Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 320 Explanation • Edward H Angle • E-arch – late 1800 s • Pin and tube appliances – 1912 • Ribbon arch appliances – 1925 118. Ans: C Ref: Proffit, 4/E, p. 204 Explanation • Pre treatment – black • Progression – blue • Post treatment – red • Retention – green 119. Ans: C Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 17 Explanation

Tooth Movement

Centre of Rotation

Controlled crown tipping Uncontrolled crown tipping Translation Torquing Intrusion or extrusion

At root apex Away from root apex Infinity At the incisal edge Outside the tooth

116. Ans: C Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 43

Sicher James Scott Melvin Moss Vanderklaaus Van Limborgh (1970)

120. Ans: C Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 183 Explanation • Middle force – frontal/direct resorption • Extreme forces – hyalinization, undermining/ rearward resorption 121. Ans: A Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 272 Explanation Ref to Table 2.4

COMEDK 2005

Explanation • The shift in lower molar from a flush terminal plane to a class I relation can occur in 2 ways early shift-occurs in the early mixed dentition period first permanent molar pushes the deciduous first and second molar forward in the arch to close the primate space.

Sutural theory Cartilaginous theory Functional matrix concept Functional cranial component Multifactorial theory

234

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

Table 2.4: Advantages and disadvantages of removal appliance

Advantages

Disadvantages

The removable nature of the appliance makes it possible for the patient to maintain good oral hygiene during orthodontic therapy. In addition the appliance can be kept clean by the patient

As the appliance can be removed, patient cooperation is vitally important for the success of the treatment

Most malocclusions requiring tipping type of tooth movement can be readily carried out using removable appliances

Removable appliance is capable of only tipping tooth movements. This is a major limitation of removable appliances

Many tooth movement like tipping, over bite reduction can be undertaken

Whenever multiple tooth movements are to be carried out, it should be done one at a time. Thus the treatment duration is prolonged in case of severe malocclusion

Removable appliance are fabricated in the laboratory utilizing less chair side time of the orthodontist

Multiple rotations are difficult to treat using removable appliances

As these appliance take less chair side time, the orthodontist can handle more number of patients Removable appliances bring about tipping tooth movement. Thus lesser forces are used than those needed for bodily tooth movement.

In cases requiring extraction, it is very difficult to close residual space by forward movement of posterior teeth

As forces employed are less the strain on the anchor teeth is lesser than in fixed appliance therapy Removable appliances can be used by general dental practitioners who have received adequate training. This makes is possible for the specialists to concentrate on more difficult cases

As the appliances are removable, there is a greater chance of patient misplacing or damaging them

The fabrication of removable appliances need less inventory

Patients should exhibit enough skill to remove and replace the appliance without distorting them

They are relatively less expensive than fixed appliance

They cannot be used to treat severe cases of Class II and Class III malocclusions with unfavorable growth pattern

As removable appliances take less chair side time and are by far less expensive than fixed appliance, they can be used in community based programs where in a large number of patients are treated

COMEDK 2005

Removable appliances are less conspicuous than multiband fixed appliance Damaged appliance that apply undesirable forces can be removed by the patient

235

COMEDK 2005

PEDODONTICS 122. Ans: A Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 499 Explanation • Clinical problems commonly seen due to thumb sucking are – Maxillary anterior proclination and mandibular prognathism – Anterior open bite – Constriction of maxillary arch – Posterior cross bite 123. Ans: A Ref: Mc Donald, 8/E, p. 541 Explanation • Classification of Mental Retardation (Stanford Binet Intelligence Scale) – Mild: 67–52 – Moderate: 51–36 – Severe or Profound: 35 and below 124. Ans: C Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 150 Explanation • Addleston (1959) introduced the “TSD - Tell Show - Do technique” 125. Ans: C Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 593 126. Ans: D Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 406 127. Ans: B Ref: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 594

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 449 129. Ans: D Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 589

130. Ans: C Ref: Sober Peter, 3/E, p. 320 131. Ans: C Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 821 132. Ans: C Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 277, 276 Explanation • Sources of fluoride – Fish, e.g.: Salmon, Sardine – Jowar, banana and potatoes – Tea 133. Ans: D Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 438 134. Ans: A Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 351 135. Ans: A Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 741 Explanation • By definition, Potable Water is – Free of all pathogenic microorganisms and harmful substances – Should be palatable – Should be useful for all domestic needs 136. Ans: D Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 304 137. Ans: D Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 98 138. Ans: D Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 766

COMEDK 2005

128. Ans: C

Explanation • Recommended ages are, – 5 years for primary teeth – 12, 15, 35–44, 65–74 for permanent teeth

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

236

139. Ans: B

148. Ans: B

Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 138 140. Ans: A Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 753 Explanation • Category I: Involves exposure to blood, body fluid or tissues. Dentist, dental hygienist, dental assistant, and laboratory technicians • Category II: Do not involve routine exposure to blood, body fluid or tissues. Person who cleans up the instruments • Category III: No exposure to blood, body fluid or tissues. Clerical staff, receptionist

Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 342 149. Ans: D Ref: Zarb and Bolender, 12/E, p. 239 150. Ans: B Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 362 151. Ans: D Ref: Mc Crackens, 11/E, p. 136 152. Ans: B Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 338

PERIODONTICS

141. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 673

153. Ans: A Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 52

Explanation • Dentist’s act (act 16) was introduced in 29th march 1948.

Explanation • Apart from the attached gingiva, marginal gingiva and hard palate are also keratinized.

142. Ans: C Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 315 143. Ans: C

154. Ans: B Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 926

Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 242

Explanation

PROSTHODONTICS 144. Ans: B

Flap

Indication

Full thickness flap

Resective osseous surgery Apical repositioning of flap to avoid bone exposure

Ref: Zarb and Bolender, 12/E, p. 197 Explanation • Porcelain teeth are attached to resin bases mechanically by means of diatoric holes or pins. 145. Ans:A COMEDK 2005

Ref: Rosensteil, 4/E, p. 220 146. Ans: D Ref: Rosensteil, 4/E, p. 123 147. Ans: D Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 615

Partial/split thickness flap, (Thiersche’s flap)

155. Ans: D Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 928 Explanation • Internal bevel/reverse bevel incision – Is the first incision given using #15 or #11 blade – It removes pocket lining

237

COMEDK 2005

– It conserves the relatively uninvolved outer surface of gingiva – It produces a sharp thin flap margin for adaptation to bone teeth junction. 156. Ans: D Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 982 Explanation • Bioactive glass consists of sodium and calcium phosphate salts and silicon dioxide • Particle size for dental use: 90 – 170 mm (perioglass), 300–355 mm (biogran)

161. Ans: B Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 75, 76 Explanation Acellular Afilrillar Cementum Coronal Cementum Acellular extrinsic fibres Cellular mixed stratified Cellular intrinsic fibres Intermediate cementum

Cervical third of roots Apical third of roots and in furcation areas Fills resorption lacunae Poorly defined zone near CDJ of certain teeth

CONS AND ENDO 162. Ans: D

157. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 957

Ref: Grossman, 11/E, p. 61

Explanation • Sequential steps in resective osseous surgery

163. Ans: D

Osteoplastic 1. Vertical grooving 2. Radicular blending

164. Ans: A

Osteotomy 1. Flattening interproximal bone 2. Gradualising marginal bone.

Ref: Grossman, 11/E, p. 60

Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 230, 232, Cohen, 9/E, p. 303 165. Ans: A Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 283 166. Ans: B

158. Ans: B Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 759

Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 406

Explanation

Explanation

Instrument

Manner of use

Hoe

Two point contact Pull stroke Push motion Pull stroke

Chisel Sickle scaler and curette

159. Ans: D Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 940

160. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 769

167. Ans: C Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 291 Explanation • This helps in forcing the softened GP apically and laterally. 168. Ans: B Ref: Sturdevant, 5/E, p. 870

COMEDK 2005

Explanation • The initial incision of undisplaced flap removes the soft tissue pocket wall.

• The apical 3 mm of the root tip is resected perpendicular to the long axis of the root with the help of a bur in an impact air 45° hand piece.

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

238

ORAL SURGERY 169. Ans: A or B are to official answer Key Ref: Killey’s, 5/E, p. 38 Explanation • Diplopia is a serious complication of the fractures of zygomatic complex.

– – – – – –

Baclofen Gabapentin Lamotrigine Felbamate Topiramate Vigabatrin

172. Ans: B Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 64

170. Ans: B Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 538

173. Ans: D Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 386

171. Ans: B Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 688 Explanation • Drugs used in trigeminal neuralgia are: – Phenytoin – Oxycarbazepine – Valproic acid

Explanation • Greenstick fractures are self retentive. In crack fractures or green stick fractures with no malocclusion there is no need for fixation. 174. Ans: B Ref: Laskin, Vol. 2, p. 304

Table 2.5: Levels of limph nodes

Level

Group

Anatomical location

Level IA

Submental nodes

Between the anterior belly of digastric muscles and the hyoid bone

Level IB

Submandibular nodes

Submandibular triangle bounded by anterior and posterior digastric muscles and inferior border of mandible Nodes adjacent to submandibular salivary gland Nodes along facial artery

Level II

Upper Jugular nodes

Around the upper portion of the internal jugular vein and upper part of the spinal accessory nerve

COMEDK 2005

It extends from the base of the skull upto bifurcation of carotid artery Level III

Mid Jugular nodes

Around the middle third of the internal jugular vein, from inferior border of level II upto cricoid cartilage

Level IV

Lower jugular nodes

Around the lower third of the internal jugular vein from inferior border of level III upto clavicle

Level V

Posterior triangle nodes

Around the lower portion of spinal accessory nerve and along transverse cervical vessels

Level VI

Central compartment nodes

In the tracheoesophageal groove and perithyroid region extending from below hyoid bone upto suprasternal notch

Level VII

Superior mediastinal nodes

In the anterior superior mediastinum extending from suprasternal notch upto innominate artery

239

COMEDK 2005

175. Ans: B Ref: Monheim’s, 7/E, p. 148, 150 Explanation • Maximum acceptable dose of LA – With vasconstrictor – 3.2 mg/lb (Not > 500 mg) – Without vasconstrictor – 2 mg/lb (Not > 300 mg) 176. Ans: A Ref: Killey’s, 5/E, p. 50

177. Ans: B Ref: Killey’s, 4/E, p. 108 178. Ans: A Ref: Monheim’s,7/E, p. 95 179. Ans: B Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 629 180. Ans: D Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 736 Explanation: Ref to Table 2.5

COMEDK 2005

10 COMEDK 2004 6. The following is a special stain for collagen A. Haematoxylin and Eosin B. Leishman’s C. PAS D. Masson’s

HUMAN ANATOMY 1. The branch of facial nerve that conveys the secretomotor impulses involved in lacrimation is A. Chorda tympani nerve B. Deep petrosal nerve C. Greater petrosal nerve D. Lesser petrosal nerve

PHYSIOLOGY 7. The supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus is believed to control the secretion of which of the following hormones A. ADH B. Oxytocin C. GH D. ACTH 8. Steroid hormones are believed to enter target cells via A. Facilitated diffusion B. Carrier mediated endocytosis C. Cholesterol lined pores in the plasma membrane D. Simple diffusion 9. The skeletal muscle action potential A. Is not essential for contraction to occur B. Has a prolonged plateau phase C. Spreads inwards to all parts of the muscle via the t – tubule system D. Begins with an inward movement of K+ ions 10. Which of the following statements about the action of somatomedins is true A. They inhibit protein synthesis B. They antagonize the effect of insulin

2. Circumvallate papillae are supplied by A. Lingual nerve B. Glossopharyngeal nerve C. Hypoglossal nerve D. Vagus nerve 3. DNA is the same for A. Identical twins B. Non identical twins C. All siblings D. Everybody 4. Partially keratinized papilla is A. Fungiform B. Filiform C. Circumvallate D. Foliate 5. Which muscles make up the pterygo mandibular raphae A. Masseter anteriorly and palatopharyngeus posteriorly B. Masseter anteriorly and medial pterygoid posteriorly C. Buccinator anteriorly and superior constrictor posteriorly D. Buccinator anteriorly and medial constrictor posteriorly 240

C. They promote growth of bone and cartilage D. They mediate the local effects of somatostatin 11. What effect does hyperventilation have on the oxygen binding affinity of hemoglobin A. PO2 and O2 affinity decrease B. PO2 and O2 affinity increase C. PO 2 decreases and O 2 affinity increases D. PO 2 increases and O 2 affinity decreases 12. Acromegaly is a disorder of A. Excess growth hormone secretion B. Excess thyroxine secretion C. Excess ACTH secretion D. Excess FSH secretion 13. Supporting cells of taste buds are called as A. Sustenticular cells B. Taste cells C. Von Ebner cells D. Acini 14. Open faced nucleus in a cell signifies A. That the cell is resting B. That the cell is active C. Nothing D. That the cell is in a transition phase 15. Which of the following is not an effect of insulin A. Decreased gluconeogenesis B. Increased gluconeogenesis C. Increased transport of glucose into cells D. Induction of lipoprotein lipase 16. The sweat glands are supplied by only A. Parasympathetic nerves B. Sympathetic nerves C. Sensory nerves D. Motor nerves

17. All cells do not divide at the same rate. Events in which phase of the cell cycle determine when a cell is going to replicate is A. M phase B. G1 phase C. S phase D. G2 phase

BIOCHEMISTRY 18. What is true of iron A. It is stored as Ferritin B. It is absorbed by Transferrin in the intestine C. Spleen is the major storage organ D. Fe++ is excreted in urine 19. A mutation that converts an amino acid codon to a stop codon is a A. Nonsense mutation B. Transversion C. Silent mutation D. Frame shift mutation 20. Which one of the following amino acids is purely ketogenic A. Proline B. Phenylalanine C. Isoleucine D. Leucine 21. Aspartate aminotransferase is released A. By viable cells B. After cell necrosis C. Either of the two D. None of the above 22. Scurvy is the result of deficiency of A. Vit A B. Vit C C. Vit B D. Vit D 23. Mature red blood cells are distinguished from most body cells by their A. Reliance on anaerobic glycolysis B. Spherical shape C. Lack of plasticity D. Relative impermeability to plasma anions

COMEDK 2004

241

COMEDK 2004

COMEDK 2004

242

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

GENERAL PATHOLOGY 24. Physiologic programmed cell death is known as A. Apoptosis B. Lysis C. Autolysis D. Autopsy

MICROBIOLOGY 25. The distinguishing characteristic feature of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is A. Erythema B. Necrosis C. Induration D. Vasculitis 26. Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces A. Capsule B. Flagella C. Pili D. Mesosomes 27. The binding site for complement on the immunoglobulin molecule is in the A. VL domain B. CL domain C. CH–1 domain D. CH–2 domain 28. The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylo-cocci is A. Mannitol fermentation B. Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes C. Detection of coagulase D. The catalase test 29. Human immunoglobulins are divided based on A. Functional differences B. Antigenic affinity C. Complement fixation D. Structural differences

30. In HIV infection, diffuse lymphadenopathy in a person who is clinically well is usually a sign of which of the following A. Lymphoma B. Kaposi’s sarcoma C. Tuberculosis D. PGL (Persistent Generalised Lymphadenopathy) 31. Tuberculin test screens for A. Humoral immunity B. Cell mediated immunity C. Complement function D. Phagocyte dysfunction 32. Following active immunization with tetanus toxoid injection, how often should a booster dose be given A. Every year B. Every 2 years C. Every 5 years D. Twice a year 33. ‘Sulphur granules’ are diagnostic feature of A. Histoplasmosis B. Sulfide poisoning C. Actinomycosis D. Toxoplasmosis

PHARMACOLOGY 34. Ketamine is a A. Short general anesthetic agent B. Local anesthetic agent C. Anti depressive agent D. Hypnotic agent 35. Which one of the following can be blocked by atropine A. Decreased blood pressure caused by hexamethonium B. Increased blood pressure caused by nicotine C. Tachycardia caused by exercise D. Tachycardia caused by infusion of acetylcholine

36. An untoward effect that is common to all phenothiazines is A. A marked increase in blood pressure B. Rigidity and tremor at rest particularly with prolonged use C. Suppression of prolactin D. Nausea 37. Which drug may be administered even when the patient is on alcoholic beverage A. Animal charcoal B. Glibenclamide C. Chloral hydrate D. Cefixime 38. Serum sickness is caused by all of the following drugs except A. Aspirin B. Penicillins C. Sulphonamides D. Chloroquine 39. The first sensation to be lost following administration of local anesthetic is A. Proprioception B. Pain C. Touch D. Temperature

GENERAL MEDICINE 40. Megaloblastic anaemia occurs due to A. Iron deficiency B. Folate deficiency C. Vit–C deficiency D. Protein deficiency 41. A patient with a history of ankle edema, shortness of breath and orthopnea is probably suffering from A. Asthma B. Emphysema C. Cardiac decompensation D. Constrictive pericarditis 42. Features of hypothyroidism do not include A. Obesity B. Hypertension C. High TSH levels D. Increased risk of infections

43. Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by following manifestations except A. Proteinuria B. Hyperlipidemia C. Edema D. Hypertension 44. The commonest cause of massive upper GIT bleeding is A. Gastric ulcer B. Erosive gastritis C. Gastric carcinoma D. Duodenal ulcer 45. Which of the following results in a prolonged bleeding time A. Hemophilia C B. Hemophilia B C. Thrombocytopenia D. Hemophilia A 46. Which of the following is a sex-linked disorder A. Thalassemia B. Kleinfelter’s syndrome C. Haemophilia D. Neurofibromatosis

GENERAL SURGERY 47. Horner’s syndrome does not include A. Ptosis B. Anhydrosis C. Flushing D. Mydriasis 48. A cold nodule in thyroiditis scan can mean A. Nodule which is cold B. Hyperactive nodule C. Nodule which is nonfunctioning and malignant D. Nodule which has no signs of inflammation 49. The 5-year-survival rate for patients with oesophageal carcinoma who have been treated surgically is A. 60% B. 45% C. 30% D. 10%

COMEDK 2004

243

COMEDK 2004

COMEDK 2004

244

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

50. The most important aspect in treating Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is to A. Administer heparin B. Administer platelets C. Treat the underlying disease process D. Achieve normal levels of fibrinogen 51. All of the following components or qualities of stored whole blood tend to decrease over time except A. Red blood cell viability B. Potassium concentration C. pH D. platelet activity

DENTAL MATERIALS 52. The compressive strength of dentin is approximately A. 468 MPa B. 162 MPa C. 350 MPa D. 266 MPa 53. Crystalline materials as compared to amorphous materials have A. No space lattice B. Less stability C. Well-defined melting point D. Hydrophobic property 54. Hardening solutions are used with impressions made of A. Hydrocolloids B. Impression compound C. Elastomers D. Zinc oxide Eugenol 55. The phenomenon by which porcelain appears different under varying conditions of colour is called A. Mesomerism B. Metamerism C. Refractive index D. Translucency

56. The type–I gypsum products are also called A. Impression plaster B. Type – I stone or Hydrocal C. Type – II stone or Densite D. Model plaster 57. pH of which cement remains below 7 even one month after insertion into the cavity A. GIC B. Zn phosphate C. Resin cement D. Silicate cement 58. Who was the first person to introduce Cast Inlay restoration into dentistry A. William H Taggart B. Micheal Buonocore C. GV Black D. Bowen 59. The best pickling solution for gypsum bonded investment is A. Hydrochloric acid B. Nitric acid C. Sulfuric acid D. Phosphoric acid

DADH 60. How many pulpal horns are there in the mandibular second primary molar A. 3 B. 6 C. 4 D. 5 61. First permanent molars begin to calcify at A. 6 months of intrauterine life B. Birth C. Before deciduous incisors D. About year after birth 62. The eruption age of maxillary permanent lateral incisor is A. 08–09 years B. 06–07 years C. 10–11 years D. 08–09 months

63. Which of the following serum enzymes is the most sensitive index of neo osteogenesis A. Acid phosphatase B. Alkaline phosphatase C. LDH D. Lipase 64. Which of the following is non keratinocyte A. Langhans’ cell B. RBC C. Langerhans’ cell D. Grey cell 65. Keratohyaline granules are more evident in A. Keratinized B. Non-keratinized C. Parakeratinised D. Orthokeratinised 66. Cementicles are found in the A. Gingiva B. PDL C. Alveolar bone D. Cementum

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE 67. If tooth is present at the time of birth it is known as A. Neonatal tooth B. Perinatal tooth C. Natal tooth D. Postnatal tooth 68. Tetracycline drug ingestion in children is not recommended till the age of A. 6 years B. 8 years C. 4 years D. 12 years 69. Upon stretching the buccal mucosa, the white lesion that disappears is A. OSMF B. Leukoedema

C. White sponge nevus D. Lichen planus 70. Reed-Sternberg cells are a feature seen in A. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma B. Hodgkin’s lymphoma C. Burkitt’s lymphoma D. Ewing’s sarcoma 71. Which histopathological type of OKC is commoner, more invasive and has a greater tendency for recurrence A. Orthokeratinized B. Parakeratinized C. Non keratinized D. Kis keratinized 72. In early carious lesion the first structure to show evidence of destruction is the A. Enamel prism B. Interprismatic substance C. Enamel tufts D. Enamel lamellae 73. Features of Grinspan’s syndrome include A. Leukoplakia and hypertension B. Candidiasis and diabetes mellitus C. Leukoplakia and hypotension D. Lichen planus and diabetes mellitus 74. Which of the following is pseudocyst A. Mucous retention cyst B. Radicular cyst C. Aneurysmal bone cyst D. Dentigerous cyst 75. Glossodynia is A. Pain in the tongue B. Burning of the tongue C. Swelling of the tongue D. White patch on tongue 76. Nikolsky’s sign is positive in A. Pemphigus B. Lichen planus C. Leukoplakia D. Leukoedema

COMEDK 2004

245

COMEDK 2004

COMEDK 2004

246

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

77. The most common salivary gland tumour is A. Basal cell adenoma B. Mixed cell carcinoma C. Pleomorphic carcinoma D. Pleomorphic adenoma

84. The highest incidence of pulp necrosis is associated with A. Class V preparations on root surface B. Inlay preparations C. Partial veneer preparations D. Full crown preparations

78. Target Lesions are characteristically seen in A. Neurofibromatosis B. Erythema multiformae C. Erythema nodosum D. Pemphigus

85. ‘Rubber band’ extraction is a method of extraction in patients having A. Bleeding disorders B. Myocardial infarction and angina pectoris C. Supernumerary teeth D. Impacted teeth

79. Talon’s cusp is characteristic of which syndrome A. Edward’s syndrome B. Kleinfelter’s syndrome C. Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome D. Down syndrome 80. Head shape in Down syndrome is typically A. Mesocephalic B. Doliocephalic C. Brachycephalic D. Acephalic 81. The term poikilokaryosis means A. Division of both nucleus and cytoplasm B. Division of nucleus without division of cytoplasm C. Division of cytoplasm D. Fading of the nuclei 82. The stain used for exfoliative cytology is A. Weigert stain B. Van Gieson stain C. Periodic Acid Schiff (PAS) stain D. Papaniculaou stain 83. Blood borne seeding of bacteria into an area of previously damaged or irritated pulp with a resultant inflammation is known as A. Bacterial endocarditis B. Anachoretic pulpitis C. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis D. Ulcerative pulpitis

86. The most common site of metastasis from the mandibular sarcoma is A. Lung B. Liver C. Spleen D. Heart

ORAL RADIOLOGY 87. Which of these cells is most radioresistant A. Early precursor cells of erythroblastic series B. Muscle cells C. Fibroblasts D. Vascular endothelial cells 88. What is the function of the lead foil in the film packet A. Moisture protection B. To give rigidity C. Absorb the backscatter radiation D. Protection against flourescence 89. Which of these structures appears radio-opaque A. Maxillary sinus B. Nasal fossa C. Nasal septum D. Mental foramen 90. In the bisecting angle technique, the film is placed A. Parallel to the tooth B. As close to the tooth as possible C. Parallel to the bisector D. Perpendicular to the bisector

ORTHODONTICS 91. Leeway space of Nance is utilized in A. Early mesial shift of first permanent molars B. Incisal liability C. Late mesial shift of first permanent molars D. Secondary spacing of first permanent molars 92. Functional matrix theory was hypothesized by A. Scott B. Sicher C. Petrovic D. Moss 93. Following is a feature of Angle’s Class– II division 2 A. Open bite B. Retrusion of maxillary centrals C. Protrusion of maxillary centrals D. Mesio – occlusion of upper 1st molar 94. Which of the following landmarks are not located in the mandible A. Pogonion B. Gnathion C. Menton D. Porion

247

97. Which of the following permanent tooth is least extracted for orthodontic treatment A. Canines B. Permanent maxillary 1st molars C. 1st premolars D. 2nd premolars 98. Hyalinization of the periodontal ligament, due to excessive orthodontic forces results in A. Frontal resorption B. Undermining resorption C. Cementum remaining intact D. Dentine remaining intact 99. Dominant movement of root with relatively less movement of the crown is called A. Couple B. Torque C. Intrusion D. Extrusion 100. SNB angle describes the relationship of the A. Maxilla to the cranial base B. Mandible to the cranial base C. Maxilla to the mandible D. All of the above

95. Maxillary protraction head gear is used for the treatment of A. Maxillary skeletal retrusion B. Mandibular skeletal protrusion C. Bimaxillary protrusion D. Skeletal open bite

101. A major criterion to differentiate between a true Angle’s Class–III and a pseudo Angle’s Class–III is A. Degree of anterior cross bite B. Presence of bilateral cross bite C. Existence of a forward shift of the mandible during closure D. Occlusal relationship between maxilla and mandible

96. Abnormally thick maxillary labial frenum results in A. Maxillary midline diastema B. Imbrication of incisors C. Labial inclination of incisors D. Anterior deep bite

102. The most accepted theory of tooth eruption is A. Hydrodynamic theory B. Clone theory C. Periodontal ligament traction theory D. Vascular theory

COMEDK 2004

COMEDK 2004

COMEDK 2004

248

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

PEDODONTICS 103. Treatment for Ellis Class – III fracture of anterior tooth in a 12-year-old patient, reported after 72 hours is A. Pulpotomy B. RCT C. Indirect pulp capping D. Direct pulp capping 104. Hand Over mouth Exercise (HOME) is an effective behavioural modification technique in the age group of A. 3 to 6 years B. Under 3 years C. 6 to 9 years D. Above 9 years

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY 105. The health promotional phase in public health was between the years A. 1880–1920 B. 1920–1960 C. 1960–1980 D. 1981–2000 106. The Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) ranges between A. 01–10 B. 00–50 C. 00–100 D. 50–100 107. Sensitivity of a test is its ability to identify A. True negative B. False positive C. False negative D. True positive 108. The point at which the chlorine demand of water is met is termed A. Break point B. Back wash C. Loss of head D. Chlorine demand

109. The number of people in a group receiving a lecture should not be more than A. 60 B. 50 C. 40 D. 30 110. The ‘Bhore Committee’ on health survey and development submitted its report in A. 1943 B. 1946 C. 1962 D. 1963 111. The first country to adopt salt fluoridation was A. France B. Germany C. Jamaica D. None of the above 112. In Snyder’s Test, saliva is said to be highly cariogenic if colour change is observed at (hrs) A. 24 B. 48 C. 72 D. 96 113. Clinical wastes in hospitals are to be disposed in which colour bags A. Yellow B. Black C. Green D. Red 114. The permissible level of E. coli (number/ml) in potable water is A. 20 B. 15 C. 10 D. 0 115. The index used to record the plaque score is A. PMA index B. Silness and Loe index C. Green and vermillion index D. Russell’s index

116. Proxa brushes are recommended to be used in which of the following type of embrasures A. Type I embrasure B. Type II embrasure C. Type III embrasure D. All the above

PROSTHODONTICS 117. Bennett movement is A. Direct lateral side shift of the mandible that occurs simultaneously with lateral mandibular excursion B. Direct lateral side shift of the mandible that occurs simultaneously with medial mandibular excursion C. Direct medial side shift with medial mandibular excursion D. Direct lateral side shift with medial mandibular excursion 118. Centric relation refers to the position of the condyles in A. Posterior most position B. Posterior and superior position C. Anterior and superior position D. Anterior most position 119. Cross sectional form of lingual bar major connector is A. Full pear shape B. Half pear shape C. Round shape D. Flat shape 120. Combination clasp consists of A. Wrought wire reciprocal arm and cast retentive arm B. Wrought wire retentive arm and cast reciprocal arm C. Wrought wire reciprocal arm and wrought retentive arm D. Cast reciprocal arm and cast retentive arm

249

121. The finish line for a PFM anterior restoration is A. Facially shoulder with bevel and lingually chamfer B. Facially shoulder with bevel and lingually shoulder C. Facially chamfer and lingually knife edge D. Facially chamfer and lingually shoulder 122. The pontic design of choice in the appearance zone of maxillary and mandibular ridge is A. Hygienic B. Modified ridge lap C. Saddle D. Conical 123. Instructing the patient to say ‘ah’ with short vigorous bursts will help in visualizing A. Soft palate B. Posterior vibrating line C. Anterior vibrating line D. Junction of hard and soft palate 124. Central incisor tooth arrangement in a tapering arch A. Rotation of incisors on their long axis inward at the distal aspect B. Rotation of incisors on their long axis outward at the distal aspect C. Rotation of incisors on their long axis inward at the mesial aspect D. Central incisors almost in a straight line 125. Atmospheric pressure as a factor of retention is effective only A. If saliva is present B. If adequate peripheral seal is present C. If principle of mucostatics is applied D. If good neuromuscular co– ordination is present 126. Buccolingual width of posterior teeth should be A. Equal to the width of the natural teeth they replace

COMEDK 2004

COMEDK 2004

COMEDK 2004

250

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

B. Greater than the width of the natural teeth they replace C. Lesser than the width of the natural teeth they replace D. Width of artificial posterior teeth is a matter of operator’s preference

PERIODONTICS 127. Bulk of lamina propria of the gingiva is made up of collagen type A. I B. II C. III D. IV 128. Which of the following suture techniques can be used to suspend the periodontal flap at the desired level A. Figure of eight B. Suspensory ligation C. Continuous ligation D. Interdental ligation 129. Angulation of a periodontal instrument refers to the A. Angle between the face of the blade and the shank B. Angle between the shank and the shaft C. Angle between the face of the blade and the tooth surface D. Angle between the shank and the tooth surface

CONS AND ENDO 132. Short bevel extends A. In almost 1/3 of the enamel B. All of enamel and 1/2 of dentin C. All of the enamel only D. 1/3 of the enamel only 133. Dentin Bonding Agents usually contain A. Only hydrophobic component B. Only hydrophilic component C. Hydrophobic and hydrophilic components D. Lyophilic and lyophobic components 134. The bleaching material used for ‘Night Guard’ vital tooth bleaching is A. Superoxol B. Anesthetic ether and hydrochloric acid C. Sodium bicarbonate D. Carbamide peroxide 135. Currently, one of the popular root end filling materials in great vogue is A. Calcium hydroxide B. GIC C. Microfilled composite resin D. Mineral Trioxide Aggregate (MTA) 136. The prognosis for teeth with root fracture is best when the fracture occurs in the A. Coronal 1/3rd of root B. Middle 1/3rd of root C. Apical 1/3rd of root D. Coronal 1/2 of root

130. Ramping can be done for a A. One wall angular defect B. Two wall angular defect C. Three wall angular defect D. Four wall angular defect

137. The periapical leison that would most likely contain bacteria within the lesion is A. Periapical abscess B. Periapical cyst C. Periapical granuloma D. Condensing osteitis

131. Langerhan’s cells are absent in A. Junctional epithelium B. Sulcular epithelium C. Oral epithelium D. All the above

138. Apexification is the treatment of choice for a permanent tooth with wide open apex when A. The pulp is necrotic B. The pulp is vital

C. The pulp and root canals are calcified D. There is a traumatic pulp exposure during cavity preparation 139. Calcium hydroxide is advocated as an interappointment intracanal medication because of A. Its ability to dissolve necrotic tissue B. Its antimicrobial property C. Its ability to stimulate hard tissue formation D. Its powerful bleaching effect 140. In Class – III Ellis Fracture A. Only enamel is involved B. Enamel and dentin are involved C. Enamel, dentin and pulp are involved D. Non vital pulp. 141. Instrument used primarily to extirpate the pulp is A. K–file B. H–file C. Barbed broach D. Reamer 142. Cavity varnish can be used under A. Zn Phosphate cement B. Zn polycarboxylate cement C. GIC D. Composite veneer restoration 143. What is the recommended force for condensation of dental amalgam A. 35 lbs B. 03 lbs C. 15 lbs D. 25 lbs

ORAL SURGERY 144. Treatment of choice of a linear non displaced fracture of the body of the mandible with full complement of teeth is

A. B. C. D.

Kirschner wiring Circumferential wiring External pin fixation Inter dental fixation

145. With overdose of LA agent, one would observe A. Hypertension B. Hypotension C. No change in BP D. Cardiac arrhythmias 146. Sagittal split osteotomy is a procedure done for A. Maxillary deformities B. Mandibular deformities C. Condylar deformities D. Deformities in which occlusion is not involved 147. The most common dislocation of TMJ is A. Anterior B. Posterior C. Medial D. Lateral 148. The following microorganism is considered to be responsible for dry socket A. Pseudomonas B. Treponema denticola C. Spirochetes D. Streptococcus viridans 149. Commonly used suture material for closure of intraoral wounds is A. Nylon B. Silk C. Catgut D. Chromic catgut 150. The most significant adverse consequence of accidental I.V. administration of a local anaesthetic is A. Bronchoconstriction B. Hepatic damage C. Nerve damage D. Seizures

COMEDK 2004

251

COMEDK 2004

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

252

ANSWERS HUMAN ANATOMY 1. Ans: C Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 223 2. Ans: B Ref: BD Chaurasia, 1/E, p. 273 3. Ans: A Ref: Inderbir Singh, 8/E, p. 327 Explanation A. Identical/monozygotic/maternal twins arises from single fertilized ovum. Same sex Same genetic constitution B. Non identical/dizygotic/fraternal twins develop from a separate ovum Need not be of same sex. Independent genetic constitution 4. Ans: B Ref: Di Fiore s Atlas of Histology, 11/E, p. 238 5. Ans: C Ref: BD Chaurasia 1/E , p. 153 6. Ans: D

9. Ans: C Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 151 10. Ans: C Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 349, Guyton, 11/E, pp. 923 924 Explanation In human beings, 2 somatomedins are present, Insulin like growth factor I (IGF-I) also called somatomedins C IGF II They have the potency effect of increasing the box 11. Ans: B Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 653 12. Ans: A Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 354 Explanation Growth hormone hypersecretion causes, Gigantism in children before fusion of epiphysis with shafts Acromegaly in adults after fusion of epiphysis with shaft 13. Ans: A

Ref: Di Fiore s Atlas of Histology 11/E , p. 4

PHYSIOLOGY 7. Ans: A Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 774 Explanation ADH supraoptic nucleus Oxytocin paraventricular nucleus 8. Ans: D Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 915

Ref: Sembulingam, 4/E, p. 920 Explanation 1. Type I cells or sustenticular cells 2. Type II function is unknown 3. Type III or taste receptor cells 4. Type IV or basal cells Type I and IV are supporting cells Type I , II and III have projection called microvilli. 14. Ans: B Ref: I.B. Singh, Anatomy and Physiology for Nurses, 2/E, p. 43

15. Ans: B Ref: Sembulingam 4/E, p. 383 Explanation Actions of insulin 1. On carbohydrate metabolism • Transport and uptake of glucose • Peripheral utilization of glucose • Storage of glucose • Inhibition of glycogenolysis • Inhibition of gluconeogenesis 2. On protein metabolism • Transport of amino acids into the cell from blood • Acceleration of protein synthesis • Inhibition of protein catabolism • Prevention of gluconeogenesis 3. On fat metabolism • Synthesis of fatty acids • Transport of fatty acids into adipose tissue • Storage of fat

• Fat can be synthesized from these amino acids. 21. Ans: B Ref: U. Sathyanarayana, U. Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 107 22. Ans: B Ref: U. Sathyanarayana, U. Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 134 23. Ans: A Ref: U. Sathyanarayana, U. Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 248 Explanation • Glycolysis in the erythrocytes leads to lactate production, since mitochondria the centres for aerobic oxidation are absent

GENERAL PATHOLOGY 24. Ans: A

16. Ans: B Ref: Guyton, 11/E, p. 892

Ref: Harsh Mohan, 3/E, p. 38

MICROBIOLOGY

17. Ans: B Ref: Mahapatra, 2/E, p. 12

BIOCHEMISTRY 18. Ans: A Ref: U. Sathyanarayana, U. Chakrapani, 3/E, pp. 414–415 19. Ans: A Ref: U. Sathyanarayana, U. Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 558 Explanation • Stop or termination codons–UAA, UAG, UCA 20. Ans: D

25. Ans: A Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 168 26. Ans: C Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 21 Explanataion • They are organs of adhesion originating from cell membranes, e.g. Escherichia, Klebsiella. • They are detected by hemagglutination 27. Ans: D

Ref: U. Sathyanarayana, U. Chakrapani, 3/E, p. 48

Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 97

Explanation • Leucine and lysine are purely ketogenic

Explanataion • VL and VH–responsible for formation of a specific antigen binding site

COMEDK 2004

253

COMEDK 2004

COMEDK 2004

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

254

• CH2 – binds C1q in the classical complement sequence • CH3 – mediates adherence to the monocytes surface. 28. Ans: C Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 201 Explanataion • Coagulase test can be done using two method – Tube coagulase test–detects free coagulase – Slide coagulase test–detects bound coagulase 29. Ans: B Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 101 30. Ans: D Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 574 31. Ans: B Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 168 32. Ans: C Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 260 Explanation • A booster dose is recommended after ten years. A full course of immunization confers immunity for a period of at least 10 years. Therefore 5 years is the nearest answer. 33. Ans: C Ref: Ananthanarayan and Panicker’s Text Book of Microbiology, 8/E, p. 391

PHARMACOLOGY 34. Ans: A Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 370

35. Ans: D Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 107 36. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 431 Explanation 1. Extrapyramidal disturbances are the major dose limiting side effects: • Parkinsonism • Acute muscular dystonia • Akathisia • Malignant neuroleptic syndrome: Marked rigidity, immobility, tremors, fever, convulsions • Tardic dyskinesia 2. Endocrine – hyperprolactinemia. 37. Ans: A Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 383 Explanation • Charcoal – does not absorb acids, alkali, alcohols and other organic solvents • Sulfonyl urea – intolerance to alcohol, disulfiram like reaction • Chloral hydrate (hypnotics) – synergises with alchohol leading to marked CNS depression • Cefixime – 3rd generation cephalosporin, oral, show disulfiram like reation. 38. Ans: D Ref: KD Tripathi, 6/E, p. 82, 83 Explanation • Serum sickness is a manifestation of type III (retarded, Arthus) allergic reactions. • Drugs frequently causing reactions are as follows Penicillins Quinolones Carbam azepine Cephalosporins Antitubercular Allopurinol drugs Sulfonamides Phenothiazines ACE inhibitors Tetracyclines Salicylates Methyldopa Hydrolazine Local anesthetics

39. Ans: B Ref: KD Tripathi 6/E, p. 354

GENERAL MEDICINE 40. Ans: B Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 1027 41. Ans: C Ref: Davidson, 20/E, pp. 630, 544 42. Ans: D Ref: Davidson, 20/E, pp. 748, 746 43. Ans: D Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 480 Explanation • Features of nephritic syndrome – Hypoalbuminemia – Avid sodium retention – Hyper cholestrolemia – Hypercoagulability – Infection 44. Ans: D Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 867 Explanation • Causes of upper GI bleeding – Oesophagitos – Gastric erosions – Peptic ulcer – Vascular malformations – Acute duodenal fistula – Varises – Mallory weiss tear – Cancer of stomach or oesophagus. 45. Ans: C Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 1011 46. Ans: C Ref: Davidson, 20/E, p. 1057

GENERAL SURGERY 47. Ans: D Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 252 Explanation • Horner’s syndrome occurs due to injury to the sympathetic supply of the face which accompanies the Trigeminal nerve. The syndrome includes, – Drooping of upper eyelid – Exophthalmos due to paralysis of Muller’s muscle – Miosis, i.e. Contraction of pupil – Anhidrosis, i.e. failure of sweating on the affected side of the face. 48. Ans: C Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 648 Explanation Cold nodule: • Non functioning • Only nodule takes up the isotope Hot nodule: • Functioning, takes up the isotope • Nodule and rest of the gland takes up the isotope. 49. Ans: C Ref: S. Das, 5/E, p. 820 Explanation • Operative mortality is 25% and 3 year survival rate is 25–35 % 50. Ans: D Ref: Manipal Manual of Surgery, 2/E, p. 74 51. Ans: B Ref: Manipal Manual of Surgery, 2/E, p. 73 Explanation • Fresh blood is a good source of platelets and factor VIII • Old stored blood is a rich source of K+, bilirubin and poor source of clotting factors.

COMEDK 2004

255

COMEDK 2004

COMEDK 2004

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

256

DENTAL MATERIALS 52. Ans: D Ref: Craig, 12/E, p. 65 Explanation • Compressive strength of selected dental materials Material

Compressive Strength (Mpa) Enamel 384 Dentin 297 Amalgam 189 Calcium Hydroxide Liner 8 Feldspathic Porcelain 149 High Strength Stone 81 Resin Composite 225 Zinc Phosphate Cement 110

53. Ans: C Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 33 Explanation • Non crystalline solids do not have definite melting temperature but rather they gradually soften as the temperature is raised • The temperature at which there is an abrupt increase in the thermal expansion co-efficient, indicating increased molecular mobility is called the glass transition temperature (Tg) 54. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 247 Explanation • The amount of sodium salt used in alginate produces enough sodium sulfate to retard the setting of gypsum poured against the alginate. These deficiencies can be overcome by two ways; 1. Immersing the impression in a solution containing a gypsum accelerator such as 2% K2(SO4)

2. Incorporating a gypsum hardener like potassium titanium fluoride in alginate. 55. Ans: B Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 712 Explanation • Light rays can be dispersed, giving a color or shade that varies in different teeth. • The dispersion can vary with wavelength of light • Therefore appearance of teeth may vary according to whether they are viewed in direct sunlight, refracted day light, tungsten light or fluoroscence light. This phenomenon is called metamerism. 56. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E p. 273 Explanation • According to ADA specification no 26 Type I – Impression Plaster Type II – Model Plaster Type III – Dental Stone Type IV – Dental Stone, High Strength Type V – Dental Stone, High Strength, High Expansion 57. Ans: D Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 465 Explanation • pH of silicate cement is less than 3 at the time of insertion into the cavity and it remains below 7 even after 1 month 58. Ans: A Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 565 Explanation • Michel Buonocore – Acid etching • Bowen – Bis GMA • GV Black – cavity classification for amalgam

59. Ans: A

62. Ans: A

Ref: Phillip’s, 11/E, p. 336

Ref: Wheeler’s, 8/E, p. 45

Explanation • 50% HCl aids in removal of any residual investment as well as of the oxide coating

63. Ans: B Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 334 64. Ans: C

DADH

Ref: Orbans 12/E, p. 221

60. Ans: D

Explanation • Non Keratinocytes – Melanocytes – Langerhans cells – Merkel cells

Ref: Wheeler’s, 8/E, p. 95, 96 61. Ans: B Ref: Wheeler’s, 8/E, p. 45 Explanation • Chronology of Permanent Teeth Maxillary Teeth (Table 1.1) Mandibular Teeth (Table 1.2)

65. Ans: D Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 217 Fig 9.7

Table 1.1: Permanent maxillary teeth

Teeth

Central Incisor Lateral Incisor Canine 1st premolar 2nd premolar 1st molar 2nd molar 3rd molar

Chronology First evidence of calcification

Enamel completed

Eruption

Root completed

3–4 months 1 year 4–5 months 11/ 2–1 3/ 4 years 2–1 1/ 4 years At birth 21/ 2 years 7–9 years

4–5 years 4–5 years 6–7 years 5–6 years 6–7 years 3–4 years 7–8 years 12–16 years

7–8 years 8–9 years 11–12 years 10–11 years 10–12 years 6 years 12–13 years 17–21 years

10 years 11 years 13–15 years 12–13 years 12–14 years 9–10 years 14–16 years 18–25 years

Table 1.2: Permanent Mandibular Teeth

Teeth

Central Incisor Lateral Incisor Canine 1st premolar 2nd premolar 1st Molar 2nd Molar 3rd Molar

Chronology First evidence of calcification

Enamel completed

Eruption

Root completed

3–4 months 3–4 months 4–5 years 13/ 4–2 years 21/ 4–2 1/ 2 years At birth 21/ 2–3 years 8–10

4–5 years 4–5 years 6–7 years 5–6 years 6–7 years 21/ 2–3 years 7–8 years 12–16 years

6–7 years 7–8 years 9–10 years 10–12 years 11–12 years 6–7 years 11–13 years 17–21 years

9 years 10 years 12–14 years 12–13 years 13–14 years 9–10 years 14–15 years 18–25 years

COMEDK 2004

257

COMEDK 2004

COMEDK 2004

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

258

66. Ans: B Ref: Orban’s, 12/E, p. 177

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND ORAL MEDICINE 67. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 48

77. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 474 78. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 806 79. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 41 80. Ans: C

68. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 560 69. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 92 70. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 182 71. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 261 72. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 442 73. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 800 Explanation • Grinspan’s syndrome is a triad of lichen planus, diabetes mellitus and vascular hypertension 74. Ans: C Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 136 75. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 847 Explanation • Burning of tongue - glossopyrosis • Inflammation of tongue - glossitis 76. Ans: A Ref: Shafers, 6/E, p. 817

Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 725 81. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 91 Explanation • Histopathological features of Epithelial Dysplasia 1. Loss of polarity of the basal cells 2. Presence of more than one layer of cells having a basaloid appearance 3. Increased nuclear cytoplasmic ratio 4. Drop - shaped rete processes 5. Irregular epithelial stratification 6. Increased number of mitotic figures (a few abnormal mitoses may be present) 7. Presence of mitotic figures in the superficial half of the epithelium 8. Cellular pleomorphism 9. Nuclear hyperchromatism 10. Enlarged Nucleoli 11. Reduction of Cellular cohesion 12. Keratinization of single cells or cell groups in the prickle layer 82. Ans: D Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 595 Explanation • Application of cytodiagnosis as a routine procedure in the detection of cervical cancer was introduced by George N Papanicolau in 1941. 83. Ans: B Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 474

84. Ans: D Ref: Ingle, 5/E, p. 121 85. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 786 Explanation • Rubber band is placed around the tooth and allowed to migrate apically causing exfoliation of tooth through pressure necrosis of periodontal ligament without causing bleeding 86. Ans: A Ref: Shafer’s, 6/E, p. 206

ORAL RADIOLOGY 87. Ans: B Ref: White and Pharoah, 6/E, p. 22 88. Ans: C Ref: White and Pharoah, 6/E, p. 54 89. Ans: C Ref: White and Pharoah, 6/E, p. 157 90. Ans: B Ref: White and Pharoah, 6/E, p. 49

ORTHODONTICS 91. Ans: C Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 43 92. Ans: D Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 17 93. Ans: B Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 74 94. Ans: D Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 147 Explanation • Pogonion – most anterior point on the contour of the chain

• Gnathion – it is the most anteroinferior point on the symphysis of chin • Menton – it is the most inferior midline point of the mandibular symphysis. 95. Ans: A Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 371 Explanation • It aids in pulling the maxillary structure forward and pushing the mandibular structures backward. 96. Ans: A Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 386 97. Ans: A Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 264 Explanation • Extraction of canine causes flattening of face, altered facial balance and change in facial expression • Contact produced between premolar and lateral incisor is rarely satisfactory 98. Ans: B Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 185 99. Ans: B Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 198 Fig 5(A) Explanation • Couple is a pair of concentrated forces having equal magnitude and opposite direction with a parallel but non collinear line of action • Intrusion – bodily displacement of a tooth along its long axis in an apical direction • Extrusion – is the bodily displacement of a tooth along its axis is an occlusal direction 100. Ans: B Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 154 Explanation • SNA angle – angle formed by intersection of SN plane and a line joining nasion and point A, Mean value–82°

COMEDK 2004

259

COMEDK 2004

COMEDK 2004

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

260

• SNB angle – angle formed between S.N plane and a line joining nasion to point B, Mean value–80° 101. Ans: C Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 75 Explanation • Pseudo class III–habitual/postural class III • Produced by a forward movement of mandible during jaw closure. 102. Ans: C Ref: Bhalaji, 3/E, p. 182

PEDODONTICS 103. Ans: B Ref: Shobha Tandon 2/E, p. 520 104. Ans: A Ref: Shobha Tandon 2/E, p. 151

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY 105. Ans: B Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 8 Explanation • Disease control phase (1880 – 1920) • Health promotional phase (1920 – 1960) • Social engineering phase (1960 – 1980) • Health for all phase (1981 – 2000) 106. Ans: C Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 16 Explanation • PQLI ranges from 0–100 where ‘O’ represents the worst performance ‘100’ represents the best performance 107. Ans: D Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 127 108. Ans: A Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 625

109. Ans: D Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 766 Explanation Group approach Lecture Group discussion

No. of members not > 30 not < 6 or > 12

110. Ans: B Ref: Park, 20/E, p. 776 Explanation • Bhore committee – 1946 • Mudaliar committee – 1962 • Chadah committee – 1963 • Mukerji committee – 1965 • Jungalwalla committee – 1967 • Kartar singh committee – 1973 • Shrivatsav committee – 1975 111. Ans: D Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 352 Explanation • Salt fluoridation was first adopted by Switzerland in 1955. 112. Ans: A Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 362 Explanation • 24 hrs – marked caries susceptibility • 48 hrs – definite caries susceptibility • 72 hrs – limited caries susceptibility 113. Ans: A Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 750 Explanation • Clinical wastes–yellow • Non clinical wastes–black 114. Ans: D Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 746 115. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter, 3/E, p. 137

116. Ans: B Ref: Soben Peter 3/E, p. 442

PROSTHODONTICS 117. Ans: A Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 115 Explanation • The direct lateral shift of the mandible that occurs simultaneously with a lateral excursion was described by Dr. Norman Bennet in 1908 as Bennet shift. Average Bennet shift is 15°. 118. Ans: C Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 139

Explanation • Factors involved in the retention of dentures are: – Interfacial force – Cohesion – Adhesion – Orofacial musculature – Atmosphere pressure 126. Ans: C Ref: Zarb and Bolender, 12/E, p. 307 Explanation • This especially helps the lower denture assist the cheeks and tongue in maintaining the denture on the residual ridge.

PERIODONTICS

119. Ans: B Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 336 120. Ans: B Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 362 121. Ans: A Ref: Rosensteil , 4/E, p. 220 122. Ans: B Ref: Nallaswamy, 1/E, p. 510 123. Ans: C

127. Ans: A Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 57 Explanation • Collagen type I forms the bulk of the lamina propria and provides the tensile strength of the gingival tissue • Type IV collagen branches between the collagen type I. 128. Ans: C Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 933 129. Ans: C

Ref: Zarb and Bolender, 12/E, p. 342

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 769

Explanation • The vibrating line is an imaginary line drawn across the palate that marks the beginning of motion in the soft palate when the patient says “ah” It passes about 2 mm in front of fovea palatinae

Explanation • Subgingival insertion – 0° • Scaling and root planing – 45– 90°

124. Ans: A Ref: Zarb and Bolender, 12/E, p. 364 125. Ans: B Ref: Zarb and Bolender, 12/E, p. 441

130. Ans: A Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 962 Explanation • If one walled defects occur next to an edentulous space, the edentulous ridge is reduced to the level of the osseous defect. • This is known as ramping.

COMEDK 2004

261

COMEDK 2004

COMEDK 2004

COMEDK Dental Buster Previous Years Solved Papers

262

136. Ans: C

131. Ans: A

Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 371

Ref: Carranza, 10/E, p. 52 Explanation • They are dendritic cells. Found in oral epithelium of normal gingiva and in small amounts in the sulcular epithelium • They are absent in junctional epithelium of normal gingiva.

137. Ans: A Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 102 Explanation • In an abscess, the concentration of micro organisms is unusually large generally streptococci and staphylococci. But if purulent material is collected as it drains but of root canal, it may be sterile, because it will consist chiefly of dead leukocytes and bacteria.

CONS AND ENDO 132. Ans: C Ref: Marzouk, 1/E, p. 315, Fig 17.3

138. Ans: A Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 331

Explanation Refer to Table 1.3

Explanation • Apexification is a method to induce calcific barrier across and open apex of immature, pulpless tooth • Apexogenesis is the physiologic process of root development.

133. Ans: C Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, p. 250 Explanation • Bonding agent Includes monomers that are mostly hydrophobic such as Bis – GMA, however, can contain a small percentage of hydrophilic monomers, such as HEMA

139. Ans: B

134. Ans: D Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 354 135. Ans: D Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 410

Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 272 Explanation • Calcium hydroxide–pH–12.5 (highly alkaline) • Has antibacterial properties • They release hydroxyl ions which are highly oxidizing free radicals that destroy bacteria by damaging cytoplasmic membrane, protein denaturation, damaging bacterial DNA.

Table 1.3: Types of bevels

Bevel type

Involvement

Use

Partial bevel Short bevel Long level Full bevel

Involve 2/3rd of enamel wall Entire enamel but not dentin All of enamel and ½ of dentin All of enamel and dentin

Cast restorations Class I alloys (type I and 2) Class I, II and III cast materials Not used, deprives internal resistance and retention To cap cusp Class IV and V cast material

Counter bevel Hollow ground bevel

140. Ans: C Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 362 Explanation • Ellis classification. This classification consists of six basic groups: 1. Enamel fracture 2. Dentin fracture without pulp exposure 3. Crown fracture with pulp exposure 4. Root fracture 5. Tooth luxation 6. Tooth intrusion 141. Ans: C Ref: Grossman, 12/E, p. 227 142. Ans: A Ref: Sturdavent, 5/E, p. 179 143. Ans: C Ref: Sturdavent, 9/E, p. 236 Explanation • Smaller the condenser, the greater the pressure • Forces in the ranges of 13.3N–17.8N (3–4lb) • Lesser condensation forces are required for spherical amalgam alloys. • Recommended force for condensation is 66.7 N (15 lb)

ORAL SURGERY 144. Ans: D Ref: Killey, 4/E, p. 58 145. Ans: B Ref: Malamed, 5/E, p. 314 Explanation • CVS is much less sensitive to the actions of local anaesthetics. • LA is used in the management of cardiac dysrhythmias, especially ventricular extrasystoles and ventricular tachycardia 146. Ans: B Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 298 147. Ans: A Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p.212 148. Ans: B Ref: Laskin, Vol 2 , p. 42 149. Ans: B Ref: Neelima Malik, 2/E, p. 64 150. Ans: D Ref: Malamed, 5/E, p.313

COMEDK 2004

263

COMEDK 2004